Question: 1 What is provided by the serial port hardware interface for managing network devices? A. Scalability B.

Ability to offload functions from the host C. Well-defined communications standards D. Caching and advanced functions Answer: B Question: 2 Which statement is true about the installation of DIMM memory modules? A. A bank of DIMMs cannot contain DIMMs of mixed size and speed. B. DIMMs with gold pins can be used on system boards with gold planet and tin plated contacts. C. DIMMs with 144 pins provide error checking and correcting capabilities. D. Performance defaults to the highest DIMM speed. Answer: A Question: 3 Which statement is true about PCI Express architecture? A. Data is sent serially. B. PCI Express utilizes more pins than PCI-X. C. PCI Express transfers data in half-duplex. D. Data is sent unparallel. Answer: A Question: 4 Your server is running Windows 2003 and you are experiencing network performance issues. What can you do to determine if the bottleneck is the network card? A. Replace the NVRAM on the network card. B. If the server contains multiple network cards, remove all but one card. C. Run the system monitor applet to monitor the network throughput. D. Add NVRAM to the network card. Answer: C Question: 5 How many address lines does an Intel Xeon processor use, and what is the maximum amount of accessible, addressable memory? A. 32 address lines; 64GB addressable memory B. 36 address lines; 4GB addressable memory C. 36 address lines; 64GB addressable memory

D. 64 address lines; 64GB addressable memory Answer: C Question: 6 What must you check prior to adding another processor to an existing system. (Select three) A. Amount of memory in the system B. Compatibility of the new process with existing processors C. Firmware requirements for the new processor D. Number of users currently logged into the system E. Number of processors the operating system supports F. Weight of the new processor Answer: B, C, E Question: 7 Which events could require a firmware update? (Select two) A. Downgrading memory B. Re-installing the operating system C. Adding support for larger, faster drives D. Adding virtual machines to a server E. Removing an existing processor F. Adding plug and play support Answer: C Question: 8 Which statements are true about active and passive cooling systems? (Select two) A. A passive cooling system uses only heat sinks. B. An active cooling system uses only heat sinks. C. An active cooling system adds devices such as fans. D. A passive cooling system adds devices such as fans. Answer: A, C Question: 9 In systems with AMD processors, what allows communication between processors and the I/O subsystem? A. Northbridge B. Southbridge C. Hyper Transport link D. APICE. Quick Path Interconnect Answer: C Question: 10 Which transfer rate does USB 2.0 support? A. 32Mb/s

B. 64Mb/s C. 64Mb/s to 120Mb/s D. 120Mb/s to 240Mb/s Answer: D Question: 11 Which server provides resolution from the hostname to the IP address? A. FTP B. PXE C. DNS D. DHCP Answer: C Question: 12 What are characteristics of a virtual machine instance? (Select three) A. Virtual application B. Virtual storage controller C. Virtual processor D. Virtual operating system E. Virtual drive Answer: B, C, E Question: 13 Which address range of the first octet is assigned to a TCP/IP class C network? A. 1-64 B. 64-126 C. 128-191 D. 192-223 Answer: D Question: 14 Which management protocol can notify you when a fan fails in your server? A. SMTP B. DHCP C. TFTP D. IPMI Answer: D Question: 15 Which protocols are support in FC-SAN? (Select three) A. Arbitrated Loop

B. Ethernet C. Switched Fabric D. Point to Point E. CSMA/CD F. Token Ring Answer: A, C, D

Question: 16 Which action do you perform after installing the Network Operating System (NOS)? A. Configure the boot order. B. Ensure that the latest drivers are installed. C. Format the hard disk drive. D. Configure hardware RAID. Answer: B

Question: 17 Which switch port type is required to support FC-AL devices in a SAN? A. U_Port B. E_Port C. FL_Port D. NL_Port Answer: D Question: 18 What is the software abstraction layer instance commonly called? A. Guest B. Partition C. Hypervisor D. Mirror Answer: C

Question: 19 What contributes to the use of virtualization? A. The need to conserve space in data centers B. An abundance ofoverutilized hardware C. Decreasing IT agility D. The need for more system administrators

Answer: A Question: 20 Into what range do reserved TCP/IP server ports generally fall? A. 0-1023 B. 1-512 C. 21-80 D. 1024-8080 Answer: A

Question: 21 You want to create a RAID set with 8 disks. Which RAID technology incurs a 50% capacity penalty? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 6 Answer: B

Question: 22 What are two types of backbone SAN topologies? (Select two) A. Fat tree B. Meshed C. Skinny tree D. Cascaded E. Ring Answer: A, C Question: 23 Which statement is true about a JBOD? A. It is configured as a RAID 0 by default. B. It contains minimums of one hot spare disk. C. It offers no data redundancy or striping D. It is connected to a minimum of two hosts by default. Answer: C

Question: 24 Your customer wants to guard against the simultaneous loss of any two disk drives in his RAID array. Which RAIDlevel can be used to accomplish this?

A. RAID 1 B. RAID 3 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 6 Answer: D

Question: 25 DRAG DROP Place each term next to its description

Question: 26 You are integrating a RAID array for mixed read/write applications. What should you do with striping to achieveoptimal performance? A. Accept the default stripe size. B. Disable striping. C. Increase the stripe size. D. Decrease the strip size. Answer: A Question: 27 Which RAID level offers disk mirroring and data striping without parity? A. RAID 1+0 B. RAID 5+0 C. RAID 6+0 D. RAID ADG Answer: A Question: 28 Your RAID 5 array on a Smart Array sustains a drive failure. A hot spare replaces the failed drive and rebuildssuccessfully. After replacing the failed drive with a new drive, what happens next? A. The spare drive replicates its data to the new drive and both work as a mirror until you evict the spare drive. B. The new drive stays offline until you assign it to the array, at which point it automatically takes the place of thespare drive. C. The new drive re-assumes its place in the RAID set and after data rebuild is complete, the drive that was thespare once again becomes the hot spare drive. D. The new drive becomes a spare drive and you must go to the ACU to remove the old space drive and then re-add the new drive to the array. Answer: C Question: 29 Which statements are correct about mixing drives with different sizes and speeds within an array? (Select two) A. Performance may be degraded. B. Performance of the fastest disk is provided. C. Capacity is wasted. D. There is no impact on the capacity usage of each disk.E. Usage of hot spare disks is not necessary. Answer: A, C

Question: 30 Which statements are true about out-of-band network management? (Select three) A. TELNET or SSH protocols are used to manage the devices. B. TCP/IP and SMTP protocols are used to manage the devices. C. Aseperate network is maintained for management access and control data. D. Control and management data share the same network as the data being processed. E. Network ports are not used for device management Answer: A, C, E Question: 31 What is the most commonly used measurement unit for describing a UPS? A. kW B. VA C. Amps D. kJ Answer: B Question: 32 Which material should be used for cleaning the ends of fibre optic cables? A. Water B. Carbon dioxide C. Polyester cloth D. Gravel Answer: C Question: 33 What can you use to access the server console remotely when an operating system is not running? (Select two) A. KVM switch with IP remote access B. MS Terminal Services C. Telnet D. Serveremdedded remote management card E. Pcanywhere solution Answer: A, D

Question: 34 Which categories of questions should you ask the customer during needs analysis? (Select two) A. Facility size B. Company location C. Future plans D. Business requirements Answer: C, D Question: 35 Which network management protocols are typically supported by system monitoring agents? (Select two) A. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) B. Server Message Block (SMB) C. Secure Sock Layer (SSL) D. Intelligent Platform Management Interface (IPMI) E. Web-based Enterprise Management (WBEM) Answer: D, E

Question: 36 What is the easiest solution for a company to implement in order to defend data from being compromised if aphysical hard disk is stolen? A. A strong password policy for data shares B. TPM (Trusted Platform Module) in conjunction with encryption software C. Integrated Encryption System, enabled on disk arrays located in data centers D. RAID 6 volumes used to protect against lent data Answer: B

Question: 37 DRAG DROP Match each power problem with its description.

Question: 38 What is considered a best practice for a data center? A. Leaving KVM stations unlocked for ease ofadministraton B. Labeling both ends of cables for easy or identifications

C. Unplugging redundant power supplies to conserve power D. Storing all administrative passwords on a sheet in the locked data center Answer: B

Question: 39 What are recommended procedures to ensure backup media is securely stored? (Select two) A. Place the backup media in a fire-proof safe. B. Ensure the switch on backup tapes is set to lock. C. Store a copy of all backup media in a locked server rack. D. Have a bonded third-party firm store backup media at a secure remote facility E. Take a copy of all backup media home. Answer: A, D

Question: 40 In the GFS backup tape rotation plan, which type of backup is the Grandfather? A. Copy B. Normal C. Differential

D. Incremental Answer: B Question: 41 What happens during an incremental backup? (Select two) A. The archive bit is set to 1. B. The archive bit is left alone C. The archive bit is reset to 0. D. The transaction log is cleared E. The transaction log is left alone. Answer: C, D

Question: 42 Which backup operations clear the archive bit after the file has been backed up? (Select two) A. Copy B. Normal C. Differential D. Incremental Answer: B, D Question: 43 What happens during a differential backup? (Select two) A. The archive bit is set to 1 B. The archive bit is left alone C. The archive bit is reset to 0. D. The transaction log is cleared.

E. The transaction log is left alone. Answer: B, E Question: 44 What should a successful Disaster Recovery Plan contain? (Select three) A. Offsite media storage location B. Regularbakcup rotation C. Proven restore process D. Cost-effective tape formats E. Change management procedures F. Effective performance alternatives Answer: A, B, C Question: 45 Which information is required for the implementation of a successful backup strategy? (Select two) A. Passwords for domain users B. Backup method C. Passwords for application files D. Data to be backed up E. Number of users using the system Answer: B, D Question: 46 In the GFS backup tape rotation plan, how often is the Son backup performed? A. Daily B. Weekly C. Monthly D. Quarterly Answer: A Question: 47 You notice that your server has a high amount of unexpected disk activity. You suspect that a disk subsystem bottleneck exists. Which other subsystem could be causing the problem? A. Memory B. Graphics C. Network D. Processor Answer: A

Question: 48 You are asked to update the firmware of the backplane of an external disk enclosure to the latest versions. The diskenclosure is connected to a RAID adapter on your server. You have updated the firmware successfully andrebooted to complete the setup. The disk enclosure does not start after rebooting. What can be done to resolve theproblem? (Select three) A. Roll back to the old firmware revision. B. Ensure that the disk enclosure is connected to a working AC source. C. Ensure that the power source and power supplies are working properly. D. Replace the disk enclosure. E. Remove the AC power cords from both enclosure power supplies and reinsert them. Answer: A, D, E Question: 49 A customer has a single-threaded application running on a dual-core base ProLiant server. Processor utilization isconsistently between 80 - 100%. Which step should you take to reduce system load on the processors? A. Replace with slower quad-core processors. B. Replace with faster single core processors. C. Change the application to use a single thread. D. Add more memory. Answer: B Question: 50 A customer complains about server performance. Performance parameters show the following: Network Segment: % Network Utilization - 55% Page/Sec - 3% Processor Time - 65%% Disk Time - 75% A. Disk B. Memory C. Network D. Processor Answer: A Question: 51 Which tool do Windows provide to monitor and trend system performance? A. Component Service B. Windows Analyzer C. Service Manager D. System Monitor Answer: D

Question: 52 Which are Linux resource monitoring tools? (Select three) A. Free B. Monitor C. Perfmon D. Vmstat E. Top F. Vtune Answer: A, D, E Question: 54 Which Linux utility helps you obtain information about I/O and processor statistics? A. Iostat B. ioutil C. Vmstat D. Cpuinfo Answer: A Question: 55 A1 the RAID sets in a server system are no longer accessible. Which step should be taken first to troubleshoot this problem? A. Replace the array controller. B. Pull all the disks except one in order to get a lease on working. C. Start the system with the OS installation CD to repartition the hard drives. D. Use the array controller diagnostics utility to verify the array status. Answer: D Question: 56 After some analysis, you determine that more memory is needed to address a system bottleneck. How do you increase the memory and ensure the additional resources are effective to meet the need? A. Add the memory and monitor perform counter % Usage Peak to verify that it is < 75% B. Add the memory and increase the amount of the Paging File to equal the total amount of memory installed plus10% C. Establish a baseline performance report, install the new memory, create a new baseline report and compare it against expectations and the first baseline. D. Run Task Manager to check the amount of physical memory available, add the new memory and confirm the addition by running Task Manager again to show the new resources.

Answer: C

Question: 57 A customer complains about server performance. Performance parameters show the following information: Network Segment: % Network Utilization 55% Page/Sec 7 % Processor Time - 55% % Disk Time - 35% A. Disk B. Network C. Memory D. Processor Answer: C Question: 58 You added memory to a 4-socket AMD Operton-based server. The new memory does not show in POST and the operating system does not see it. You verified that the memory is correct for this server model. Why is the memory not being used? A. System Maintanance Switch DIP SW2 is set to ON and the Configuration Lock is enabled. B. You exceeded the server's maximum memory capacity. C. The memory was added to a bank with no process in the adjoining socket. D. There is a memory size mismatch on DR2 and AMDHyperTransport bus. Answer: C Question: 59 Which log contains information about the SUSE Linux startup? A. /var/log/boot.log B. /var/log/boot.msg C. /boot/log/boot.log D. /var/opt/log/message.log Answer: A Question: 60 Which Linux utility allows you to configure a NIC card? A. Netstat B. Ifconfig C. Sar D. Ipconfig Answer: B Question: 61 How does single-mode fiber compare with multimode fiber?

A. Single mode fiber has a higher bandwidth and lower loss. B. Multimode fiber has a higher bandwidth and lower loss. C. Multimode fiber is more often used for long-distance telecommunications D. Single-mode fiber has higher loss and lower bandwidth. Answer: A Question: 62 Which are recommended procedures when handling memory modules? (Select three.) A. Wear antistatic device wrist strap for Electrostatic Discharge. B. Hold the DIMM modules by the metallic pins only. C. Discharge static from each DIMM before replacing the module. D. Power down the server before replacing the DIMM. E. Hold the DIMM modules by the edges only. Answer: A, D, E Question: 63 Which statements are true about AMD 2P or 4P system architecture? (Select three) A. Requests for memory access are handle by the Northbridge ASIC. B. Memory must be installed in banks corresponding to the installed processors. C. Each processor has its own memory controller D. The maximum amount of memory can be installed, regardless of the number of installed processors. E. Requests for memory access are handle directly by the corresponding processor and relayed through the Hyper Transport link. F. Communications between CPU and memory is handle through the Quick Path Interconnect. Answer: B, C, E Question: 64 What happens when you install a 66Mhz, 32-bit PCI card in a 33MHz, 64-bit PCI slot? A. The 66MHz, 32-bit card operates at 33MHz in 64-bit mode. B. The 66MHz, 32-bit card operates at 66MHz in 32-bit mode. C. All 33MHz, 64-bit cards on the PCI bus operate like 33MHz, 32-bit cards. D. The 66MHz card operates at 33MHz. Answer: D Question: 65 What must you check prior to adding another processor to an existing system? (Select Three)A. Amount of memory in the systemB. Compatibility of the new processor with existing processorsC. Firmware requirements for the new processorD. Number of users currently logged into the systemE. Number of processors the operating system supportsF. Weight of the new processor

Answer: B, C, E Question: 66 What does a system require to achieve PCI Hot Plug capability? (Select three) A. Hot-plug fans B. Hog-plug operating systems C. Hot-plug adapter driversD. Hot-plug memory E. Hot-plug system tray F. Hot-plug platform Answer: B, C, Question: 67 What can you do to optimize memory performance? A. Enable Advanced Memory Buffer. B. Rearrange existing memory to allow interleaving. C. Implement memory caching D. Configure processor interleaving. Answer: B Question: 68 A customer is running a single-threaded application and experiences performance problems connected with theprocessor subsystem. How would you solve this issue? A. Change processor affinity to enable splitting single threads into multiple threads B. Add additional processors C. Upgrade the processor with a higher frequency processor. D. Replace the processor with a higher stepping processor E. Upgrade the processor with a multi-core processor. F. Enable the integrated memory controller of the process at the BIOS. Answer: C Question: 69 You are comparing similar versions of Intel Xeon and AMD Opteron processors. Which statements are true aboutthese processors? (Select two) A. Option processors use a Northbridge that operates at core bus speed. B. AMDOpteron processors are optimized for virtualization and AMD-V technology. C. An Intel Xeon processor uses Hyper Transport link to access its memory. D. Intel Xeon processors are optimized for virtualization with Intel VT technology. E. An AMD Opteron processors uses Quick Path Interconnect to access its memory. Answer: B, D Question: 70 Why should server firmware be updated to the most recent version? (Select two)

A. To maintain a valid warranty B. To fix problems from earlier versions C. To support new features D. To refresh changes that a user has edited in the existing firmware E. To supportleagcy features Answer: B, C Question: 71 Which command can be used to verify connectivity to a client machine? A. Ping B. Nslookup C. Nbstat D. Ipconfig Answer: A Question: 73 Which server filters outgoing network requests? A. FTP B. Proxy C. DNS D. WINS Answer: B Question: 74 Into which range do reserved TCP/IP server ports generally fall? A. 0-1023 B. 1-512 C. 21-80 D. 1024-8080 Answer: A Question: 75 Which Network Operating System (NOS) file system allows you to set security on individual files? A. FAT32 B. FAT C. NTFS D. CDFS Answer: C Question: 76 Which Network Operating System (NOS) security practices are commonly used when planning server management? (Select three) A. Disable FTP and SSH B. Install hardware and software firewalls C. Disable unused TCP/IP service ports D. Use easy to remember password E. Enforce regular password changes Answer: B, C, E

Question: 77 Which major challenges of I/O virtualization do Virtual Machine Managers need to address? (Select two) A. WWN virtualization B. DMA virtualization C. IRQ virtualization D. Port virtualization E. MAC virtualization Question: 78 Which technology should you implement for disk redundancy? A. SATA B. NTFS C. RAID D. SCSI Answer: C Question: 79 What is the virtual machine instance commonly called? A. Guest B. Host C. Partition D. Hypervisor
Answer: A

Question: 80 Your RAID 5 array on a Smart Array sustains a drive failure. A host spare replaces the failed drive and rebuilds successfully. After replacing the failed drive with a new drive, what happens next? A. The spare drive replicates its data to the new drive and both work as a mirror until you evict the spare drive. B. The new drive stays offline until you assign it to the array, at which point it automatically takes the place of the spare drive. C. The new drive re-assumes its place in the RAID set and after data rebuild is complete, the drive that was the spare once again becomes a hot spare drive. D. The new drive becomes a spare drive and you must go to the ACU to remove the old spare drive and then re-add the new drive to the array. Answer: C Question: 81 How many independent parity schemes are utilized for a RAID 6 array? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6

Answer: D Question: 82 What factors are important to sustain the I/O rates of the application within an array? (Select two) A. Capacity of the disks within the array B. Speed of the disks within the array C. Number of disks within the array D. Location of the disks within an enclosure Answer: B, C Question: 83 Your customer wants to use Microsoft Windows Clustering for high availability. Which storage technology is best suited for this? A. Windowss dynamic disks B. Fiber Channel SANC. SATA II Point to Point D. Duplexed Array Controllers Answer: B Question: 84 Which kind of RAID best suits database log files and offers redundancy and usually better performance? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 6 Answer: B Question: 85 What are advantages of DAS solutions? A. Maximum scalability B. Ease of deployment C. Lowintial cost D. Snapshot capability Answer: B, C Question: 86 Which RAID technology provides the most capacity with the same number of disks? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 4 D. RAID 5 Answer: A Question: 87 Your customer's workstation has four 15K rpm SAS drives. The customer wants the best possible performance, and is not concerned about data loss. Which RAID level best meets this customers needs? A. RAID 0

B. RAID 1 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 6 Answer: A uestion: 88 You are implementing a tape backup solution on a customer's site. The customer's servers are located in twodifferent fire compartments 10m apart. Which SCSI standard can be used at the lowest cost for this environment tointegrate a tape library in a different fire compartment?A. UltraB. FastC. LVDD. Fibre Channel Answer: CExplanation: Industry Standard Architecture - Student Guide 1 - Page 213: Cables The type of SCSI cable used depends on theprotocol and configuration. Cable selection can be confusing because SCSI has a variety of protocols andconfigurations and differential and single ended SCSI devices look identical. The graphic shows cable lengths thatcan be used with different SCSI standards.

Exam Name: Industry Standard Architecture and Technology

Question: 89 Which type of information is obtained during the site survey? (Select two) A. Biggest IT problem today B. Capacity of electrical circuits C. Projected role of the server D. Facility size Answer: B, Question: 90 What is problematic for E data center? (Select two) A. Low humidity B. High humidity C. Carbon dioxide fire supression system D. Separate console room for KVM stations E. Inline UPS
Answer: A, B

Question: 91 What devices off the highest and most sophisticated level of security when restricting access to a server rom?(Select two) A. Retinal scanner B. Proximity card reader C. Mechanical lock D. Fingerprint scanner E. Reinforced steel door F. Bulletproof window Answer: A, D Question: 92 Which protocols are used by in-band management? (Select two) A. TCP/IP B. IPX C. SNMP D. SCSIE. MPIO Answer: A, C Question: 93 When should a performance baseline be captured? A. After updating the server ROM B. During the peak server usage C. After any hardware or software additions to the system D. After replacing a failed component Answer: C Question: 94 Which statement is true about in-band network management? A. Network ports orswtiches are not used for domain management.

B. SSH protocol is used to access and manage the devices. C. Aseperate network is maintained for each management domain. D. The control and management data share the same network. Answer: D Question: 95 What is the most efficient way to use external DVD-ROM for ten servers in one rack? A. Use seperate USB DVD-ROMs for each server. B. Connect servers to the KVM switch with attached DVD-ROM. C. Use one DVD-ROM and connect to a single server when needed. D. Connect servers to a SAN switch with attached DVD-ROM. Answer: C Question: 96 What happens during a normal backup? (Select two) A. The archive bit is set to 1 B. .B. The archive bit is left alone. C. C. The archive bit is reset to 0. D. D. The transaction log is cleared. E. E. The transaction log is left alone. Answer: C, D Question: 97 What happens during a copy backup? (Select two) A. The archive bit is set to 1. B. The archive bit is left alone. C. The archive bit is reset to 0. D. The transaction log is cleared. E. The transaction log is left alone. Answer: B, E Question: 98 If the GFS backup tape rotation plan, how often is the Grandfather backup performed? A. daily B. weekly C. monthly D. quarterly
Answer: C

Question: 99 Inf the GFS backup tape rotation plan, which type of backup is the Father? A. Copy B. Normal C. Differential D. Incremental Answer: B Question: 100

A customer is using the GFS backup rotation plan with the weekly backups occurring Friday evening. The customer needs to restore a file that was known to be good on Friday morning. From which backup should the customer restore? A. Father B. Differential C. Grandfather D. Son Answer: D Question: 101 Which information should a successful backup strategy contain? (Select two) A. Passwords for application files B. Number of I/O slots in a server C. Number of users using the system D. When the data is to be backed up E. Off-site storage of backup media location Answer: D, E Question: 102 You want to prevent a service from starting in the future, as it causes abnormally heavy load in a Windows 2003Server. What do you do? A. Navigate to C:\WINDOWS\system32 and rename the service. B. Open the Control Panel folder, choose System Properties, and change the startup settings. C. Open a command line window and type net stop <service name> D. Right-Click My Computer, select Manage, go to Services, and set the service to Disable. Answer: D Question: 103 You are receiving performance complains about a client/server-based application. Given the following information: Network Output Queue Length: 10% Processor Time: 50%% Disk time: 30% Pages/Sec: 3Which server subsystem is the bottleneck? A. Processor B. Network connection C. Memory D. Disk Answer: B Question: 104 You have a disk enclosure with 14 x 72GB Wide-Ultra2 SCSI hard disks connected. You add an additional disk enclosure with 8 x 146GB HotPluggable Ultra320 SCSI hard disks to an array controller. To optimize performance, you move 3 x 72GB Ultra2 hard disks to a new enclosure to balance the number of hard disks across two channels. The disks in the new

enclosure are not working correctly and the disks are not seen in the array controller management tool. There are no conflicting device IDs and termination is correct. All enclosures were powered on before powering up the server. What are the possible causes of the problem? (Select two) A. Ultra320 SCSI devices cannot be mixed with Wide-Ultra2 SCSI devices. B. You must update the SCSI Controller BIOS to the latest supported revision. C. The cables and/or connectors are faulty or not properly seated. D. The number of disks exceeds the capability of the controller. E. the SCSI I/O module on the disk enclosure is faulty. Answer: B, D Question: 105 What must be done when replacing a degraded system board in a server? (Select three.) A. Re-order the boot disks. B. Discard the old processors. C. Disconnect all the cables. D. Flash the firmware. E. Re-configure the memory. F. Update the serial number. Answer: C, D, F Question: 106 Which steps should you take when adding additional processors to a customer's server? (Select three.) A. Verify that the processors are supported. B. Upgrade the BIOS.C. Ensure that the processors are the same type and speed. D. Verify that all installed processors are within four steppings to avoid system problems. E. Replace the heat sinks on the existing processors. Answer: A, B, C Question: 107 Which steps should you take to troubleshoot a possible processor issue? (Select two.) A. Confirm the processor is supported within the server B. Enable all processor cores in case multicore processors are used. C. If possible, update the system ROM to the latest supported version. D. If the server is capable of dual processors, install a second processor. E. Enablehyperthreading within the system BIOS Answer: A, C Question: 108 Which statement is true about the server front side bus? A. It connects the main memory to the PCI bus. B. It is the bus between the processor and system controller (Northbridge).

C. It is the bus between the Northbridge and the memory DIMMS. D. It converts signals to and from the PCI and PCI-Express bus. Answer: B Question: 109 Which statements are true about the installation of DIMMs? (Select three.) A. ESD best practices should be followed when handling memory. B. Each bank of DIMMs can contain DIMMs of mixed size and speed. C. Each bank of DIMMs must contain DIMMs of the same size and speed. D. Performance defaults to the higher of the two speeds. E. Performance defaults to the lower of the two speeds Answer: A, B, E Question: 110 What is the best way to obtain the latest firmware for a server? A. Copy it from another same-model server in your environment. B. Locate the CD that came with the server. C. Call the customer software support line. D. Visit the manufacturer's website Answer: D Question: 111 Which advantages do blade servers have over rack-mount or tower servers? (Select two.) A. More efficient energy utilization B. More flexibility in selecting processor types and expansion C. Greater internal expansion D. Better suited for database operations E. Greater density Answer: A, C, E Question: 112 What is the most important action you should take to protect your computer from viruses? A. Regularly download the most recent virus signature file. B. Review virus scanning logs. C. Install a virus cleaner to quarantine files. D. Schedule monthly virus scans Answer: A Question: 113 What does a Reboot Execution Environment (PXE) do? A. Enables you to boot from a CD-ROM B. Allows a program to execute remotely C. Allows you to boot from a USB key D. Enables a network connection to a bootable image Answer: D Question: 114 What are two ways that an IT organization can become more efficient and effective with virtualization? (Select two.) A. by decreasing server flexibility

B. by scaling resources up or down, based on changing workload demands C. by removing the need for backup and disaster recovery services D. by using physical resources to their full potential. Answer: B,D Question: 115 You are integrating a RAID array for sequential read, such as audio/video applications. What should you do with striping to achieve optimal performance? A. Increase the stripe size B. Accept the default stripe size. C. Disable striping. D. Decrease the stripe size Answer: A Question: 116 Which type of external storage solution is ideally suited for file level access? A. SAN B. iSCSI C. NAS D. JBOD Answer: D Question: 117 Which RAID level maximizes both read performance and capacity but still provides fault tolerance? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 3 D. RAID 5 Answer: D Question: 118 You have 4 disks inside a server. Which RAID technology typically offers the best random write performance? A. RAID 1+0 B. RAID 4 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 6 Answer: D Question: 119 Which network management protocols are typically supported by system monitoring agents? (Select two.) A. SMTP B. SNMP C. DMI D. SSL E. SMB Answer: A,B

Question: 120 When is it appropriate to use out-of-band network management? (Select two.) A. When the server resources are adequate and the network drivers are responding to requests B. When the system is turned on and Emergency Management Services are available C. When the basic input/output system (BIOS) is conducting the power-on self test (POST) D. When the remote management interface is active E. When the server is not fully initialized Answer: C, E Question: 121 What is recommended for a data center? (Select three.) A. High temperature B. Low humidity C. High humidity D. Inline UPS E. Carbon dioxide fire suppression system F. Separate console room for KVM stations Answer: D, E, F Question: 122 Which industry standard protocol enables administrators to remotely monitor devices in their networks and gives theability to check the remote device for information? A. SNMP B. SMTP C. PXE D. RBTP Answer: A Question: 123 What is the minimum number of doors needed to design a mantrap security solution? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Answer: A Question: 124 You want to add additional CPU and hard drives to the production server. How can you prevent the potential loss of data? A. Synchronize CPU and hard drive status with another server.

B. Wait for low utilization of CPU and hard drive. C. Perform a backup. D. Copy production data to another server Answer: C Question: 125 A customer requires 500GB of data backup capacity and a data backup rate of greater than 100MB/sec. Which backup technology meets these requirements? A. DDS B. SDLT C. Ultrium D. Super AIT Answer: C Question: 126 Which tools provided by TCP/IP can be used to verify network connectivity? (Select two.) A. Lanscan B. Trace route C. Nbtstat D. Ping E. Netfmt Answer: B, D Question: 127 Which type of I/O refers to the number of I/O requests the array controller sends to the drives, including RAID overhead? A. Logical I/O B. Physical I/O C. Serial I/O D. Parallel I/O Answer: B Question: 128 Your customer is running Microsoft Exchange Server on a server with 4 dualcore CPUs and is concerned about possible bottlenecks. Which parameters should you monitor to identify system wide bottlenecks for all CPUs?(Select two.) A. Cache Faults/sec B. % processor time (_Total) C. Processor %DPC time D. System processor queue E. % processor time (*) F. C4 transitions/sec Answer: A Question: 129

What can you do if a Linux system is heavily using its page file? A. Add more physical memory. B. Add more processors. C. Increase space for paging. D. Add more disk space Answer: A Question: 130 When should you create a new baseline for your server? (Select three.) A. When increasing memory B. When adding a processor C. When updating the BIOS/firmware D. When an unexpected system shutdown occurs E. When replacing a power supply Answer: A, B, C Question: 131 What is problematic for a data center? (Select two.) A. Carbon dioxide fire suppression system B. Low humidity C. Inline UPS D. High humidity E. Separate console room for KVM stations Answer: B, D Question: 132 You move all the drives of a RAID set from one DL380 G6 Server running Windows 2008 to another, and insertthem in the same order. However, the data is not available. What might be the cause? A. A TPM and Bit Locker were used on the original system. B. The new server uses different processors. C. The new server does not have enough controller cache. D. ACU has not been used to mount the drives as a contiguous RAID set. Answer: D Question: 133 You must deal with performance problems in your storage subsystem. Your application is mainly doing large writes. What can you do to increase performance? A. Extend the queue length to keep the array controller busy. B. Configure in-order delivery to gain structured writes. C. Verify stripe size and increase it to gain performance. D. Switch to drives with a slower response time to get more time for the writes. Answer: C

Question: 135 A customer reports that after a memory upgrade, the server crashes when any memory error occurs. This indicatesthat the Advanced ECC (AECC) feature is not working. How should you solve this problem? A. Confirm that the driver supporting AECC is loaded and functioning correctly. B. Ensure that the bank containing added memory is enabled on the server main board. C. Verify that the memory supporting AECC was used for the upgrade. D. Enable the AECC feature in the BIOS. Answer: C Question: 136 Which Linux utility helps you obtain reports about the virtual memory? A. Vmutil B. Ioutil C. Mpstat D. Vmstat Answer: D Question: 137 A customer complains that servers installed in a rack shut down randomly. You cleaned all the vents to ensureproper airflow in the servers, but the problem still exists. How should you solve this problem? A. Change the position of the servers in a rack to allow at least 1U of free space between servers. B. Replace the thermal grease for all processors. C. Verify if blanking panels are installed in all empty slots of a rack. D. Upgrade the operating system kernel to control temperature and fan speed. Answer: B Question: 138 What are the main reasons for implementing virtualization? (Select three.) A. To improve application performance B. To reduce network latency C. To reduce cost

D. To accelerate business growth E. To increase IT agility Answer: C, D, E

Question: 140 Which statement IS true about a PCI-X-based bus? A. You cannot use PCI-X cards in a conventional PCI system. B. PCI devices will work in PCI-X if they support universal voltage. C. It always has the same voltage as PCI devices. D. You cannot use existing PCI devices in a PCI-X-based system. Answer: B Question: 141 Which statements are true about the installation 01 DIMMs? (Select three.) A. ESD best practices should be followed when handling memory. B. Each bank 01 DIMMs can contain DIMMs of mixed size and speed. C. Each bank 01 DIMMs must contain DIMMsolthe same size and speed. D. Performance defaults to the higher of the two speeds .E. Performance defaults to the lower of the two speeds Answer: A, C, E Question: 145 Which server assigns IP addresses? A. DNS B. DHCP C. WlNS D. FTP Question: 148 Which address range 01 the first octet is assigned to a TCP/IP class B network? A. 1-64 B. 64-126 C. 128-191 D. 192- 223 Answer: C Question: 149 When should the performance baseline be captured? A. After customer notification of performance problems B. After initial installation of the hardware C. After replacing any failed hard drive in the system D. When the system experiences a hard memory error Answer: B Question: 150

In the GFS backup tape rotation plan, how often is the Father backup performed? A. Daily B. Weekly C. Bi-monthly D. Monthly Answer: B Question: 151 In the GFS backup rotation plan, which type of backup is the Son? A. Copy B. Normal C. Full D. Incremental Answer: D Question: 152 Which 1001 does Windows provide 10 view system, security, and application log files? A. Event Viewer l 0 B. Windows Analyzer C. Service Manager D. Component Service Answer: A Question: 153 What can you troubleshoot with the IPMI Event Log? Select three A. Temperature B. Host bus adapters C. Memory D. Fans E. Hard disk drives Answer: A, C, D Question: 154 ABC.com is experiencing poor performance on a Windows 2003 server. The server has one processor, 1 GB RAM,two disk drives, and a gigabit NIC card. The following performance statistics are averaged over a typical 8-hour day: % Processor Time: 90% Avg disk queue length: 1 % page file in use: 0 Pages/sec: 242 Which system resourceshould be upgraded first? A. Memory B. NIC card C. Physical disk D. processor Answer: A Question: 155 A customer complains about server performance. Performance parameters show the following information: NetworkSegment: % Network Utilization -

55% Page/Sec 3 % Processor Time -85% % Disk Time - 35 % Which serversubsystem is in a bottleneck condition? A. Network B. Disk C. Processor D. Memory Answer: C

Question: 156 Which log contains information about the Red Hat Linux startup? A. /var/log/boot.log B. /var/log/bootmsg C. /boot/log/boot.log D. /var/opt\logmessage.1og Answer: A Question: 157 Which type of 110 refers to the number of I/= requests the array controller sends to the drives, including RAID overhead? A. Log call I/O. B. Physical I/O C. Serial I/O D. Parallel I/O
Answer: B

Question: 158 A customer has a multi-threaded application running on a dual-core based ProLiant server. Processor utilization isconsistently between 80-100%. Which step should you take to reduce system load on the processors? A. Replace with slower quad-core processors B. Replace with faster, single core processors C. Add more memory D. Change the application to use a single thread. Answer: D