MCQ Paychiatry Nursing 1.

The sequece of administration of medications in anaesthesia for ECT is: a) Atropine---thiopentone/methohexitol---succinylcholine b) Succinylcholine---atropine---thiopentone/methohexitol c) Atracurium---succinylcholine---atropine d) Atropine--- succinylecholine---thiopentone/methohexitol 2 What is the minimum seizure duration required for effectiveness of ECT? a) 1 to 3 secnds b) 5 to 10 seconds c) 30 to 90 seconds d) 180 to 200 seconds 3. Eugen Bleuler renamed dementia precox as: a) Autism b) Schizophrenia c) Bipolar affective disorder d) Melancholia 4. The first effective antipsychotic drug was: a) Chlorpromazine b) Thioridazine c) Haloperidol d) Trifluperazine 5. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of manic episede? a) Elevated, expansive, irritable mood b) Increased psychomotor activity c) Thought echo, thought insertion or thought withdrawal d) Flight of ideas

6. Which disorder characterized by persistent depressive features, not amounting to depressive disorder, which last for more than 2 years? a) Cyclothymia b) Dysthymia c) Melancholia d) Euthymia

7. Which category of drugs are associated with neuroleptic malignant syndrome? a) Antidepressants b) Anticholinergics c) Antipsychotics d) Mood stabilizers 8. Which neuroleptic agent has the lowest likelihood of producing tardive dyskinesia? a) Imipramine b) Chlorpromazine c) Clozapine d) Fluoxetine e) Thiothixene 9. The therapeutic blood level of sodium valproate in mood disorders is a) 0.8 - 1.2 mEq/L b) 10 - 20 mEq/L c) 20 - 40 mcg/mL d) 45 and 100 mcg/mL 10. Alcohol ____________ the release of GABA, a neurotransmitter, in the brain which inhibits many brain functions. a) depresses b) decrease c) stimulates

d) prevents 11. Somnabulism refers to a) Sleep-talking b) Sleep-walking c) Sleep-related enuresis d) Sleep-terror 12. Therapeutic blood level of lithium is: a) 11 to 20 mg/dL b) 1.5 to 2 mEq/L c) 0.8 to 1.2 mEq/L d) 150 to 200 mg/dL 13. Pathological fire-setting is also called a) Pyromania b) Kleptomania c) Trichotillomania d) Dipsomania 14. Which of the following condition is not classfied under personality disorders in ICD-10 classification? a) Paranoid b) Schizoid c) Schizotypal d) Dissocial 15. The usual therapeutic dose range of lithium carbonate in the treatment of bipolar disorders is: a) 30-60 mg/day b) 900-1500 mg/day c) 2000-3000 mg/day d) 15-30 mg/day 16. ECT is indicated in which of the following conditions? a) Severe depression

b) Hypomania c) Autistic disorders d) Tourette ssyndrome 17. Which of the following antidepressant is known for its high anticholinergic side effects? a) Mirtazapine b) Sertraline c) Amitriptyline d) Fluoxetine 18. Which of the following condition is associated with long-term use of lithium in mood disorders? a) Hypothyroidism b) Hyperprolactinemia c) Hypoglycemia d) Tardive dyskinesia 19. The most persistant adverse effect of ECT is a) Retrograde amnesia b) Fractures c) Seizures d) Hypertension 20. Which is a tricyclic antidepressant drug. a) Escitalopram b) Imipramine c) Paroxetine d) Fluoxetine 21. Which of the following is a phenothiazine? a) Chlorpromazine b) Clozapine c) Olanzapine d) Risperidone

e) Haloperidol 22. The most common indication of ECT is: a) Schizophrenia b) Generalized Anxiety Disorder c) Manic episodes d) Major depression 23. Characteristics of OCD include all the folowing, EXCEPT: a) Obsessive thoughts b) Compulsive acts c) Considerable degree of anxiety d) Ordered flight of ideas 24. Which of the following is a tricyclic antidepressant? a) fluvoxamine b) fluoxetine c) Escitalopram d) Clomipramine 25. Which of the following defence mechanism is more common with OCD? a) Sublimation b) Projection c) Denial d) Undoing 26. Obsessive-compulsive symptoms are intimately linked with a) Bipolar disorders b) Autistic disorders c) Tourette's disorder d) ADHD 27. As per Freud, the term used for "that force by which the sexual instinct is represented in the mind" is: a) Narcissism

b) Condensation c) Libido d) Dispositions

28. A sexual pain disorder reported in females is a) Anorgasmia b) Vaginismus c) Peyronie's disease d) Impotence 29. Persistant or recurrent tendency to observe unsuspecting persons, naked disrobing or engaged in sexual activity is termed as a) Exhibitionism b) Sadism c) Voyeurism d) Frotteurism 30. Sexual gratification by rubbing against or touching a nonconsenting person is termed as a) Frotteurism b) Fetishism c) Exhibitionism d) Voyeurism 31. The most common obsession is a) fear of contamination b) pathological doubt c) need for symmetry d) aggressive obsessions 32. Which of the following is most effective in OCD management? a) Psychodynamic psychotherapy b) Interpersonal psychotherapy c) Cognitive behaviour therapy

d) Supportive psychotherapy 33. Obsessional personality disorder is also called: a. Anankastic personality disorder b. Schizoid personality disorder c. Histrionic personality disorder d. Paranoid personality disorder 34 Primary level of prevention is exemplified by: a. Helping the client resume self care. b. Ensuring the safety of a suicidal client in the institution. c. Teaching the client stress management techniques d. Case finding and surveillance in the community

35. Freud explains anxiety as: a. Strives to gratify the needs for satisfaction and security b. Conflict between id and superego c. A hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal reaction to stress d. A conditioned response to stressors 36. The following statements describe somatoform disorders: a. Physical symptoms are explained by organic causes b. It is a voluntary expression of psychological conflicts c. Expression of conflicts through bodily symptoms d. Management entails a specific medical treatment 37. The child with conduct disorder will likely demonstrate: a. Easy distractibility to external stimuli. b. Ritualistic behaviors c. Preference for inanimate objects. d. Serious violations of age related norms. 38. School phobia is usually treated by: a. Returning the child to the school immediately with family support. b. Calmly explaining why attendance in school is necessary c. Allowing the child to enter the school before the other children d. Allowing the parent to accompany the child in the classroom 39. Which is the highest priority in the post ECT care? a. Observe for confusion b. Monitor respiratory status c. Reorient to time, place and person d. Document the clients response to the treatment 40. A client on Lithium has diarrhea and vomiting. What should the nurse do first:

a. Recognize this as a drug interaction b. Give the client Cogentin c. Reassure the client that these are common side effects of lithium therapy d. Hold the next dose and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level 41. Which of the following interventions should be prioritized in the care of the suicidal client? a. Remove all potentially harmful items from the clients room. b. Allow the client to express feelings of hopelessness. c. Note the clients capabilities to increase self esteem. d. Set a no suicide contract with the client.

42. Which of the following statements is true for gender identity disorder? a. It is the sexual pleasure derived from inanimate objects. b. It is the pleasure derived from being humiliated and made to suffer c. It is the pleasure of shocking the victim with exposure of the genitalia d. It is the desire to live or involve in reactions of the opposite sex 43. The plan of care for clients with borderline personality should include: a. Limit setting and flexibility in schedule b. Giving medications to prevent acting out c. Restricting her from other clients d. Ensuring she adheres to certain restrictions 44. The client on Haldol has pill rolling tremors and muscle rigidity. He is likely manifesting: a. tardive dyskinesia b. Pseudoparkinsonism c. akinesia d. dystonia 45. Anxiety is caused by: a. an objective threat b. a subjectively perceived threat c. hostility turned to the self d. masked depression 46. Which of the following medications will likely be ordered for the client with anxiety? a. Prozac b. Valium c. Risperdal d. Lithium 47. Dementia unlike delirium is characterized by: a. slurred speech

b. c. d.

insidious onset clouding of consciousness sensory perceptual change

48. The client with anorexia nervosa is improving if: a. She eats meals in the dining room. b. Weight gain c. She attends ward activities. d. She has a more realistic self concept. 49. The characteristic manifestation that will differentiate bulimia nervosa from anorexia nervosa is that bulimic individuals a. have episodic binge eating and purging b. have repeated attempts to stabilize their weight c. have peculiar food handling patterns d. have threatened self-esteem 50. Which of the following is not a neurotic disorder a) Anxiety b) Phobic reaction c) Conversion reaction d) Mania 51. La Bella indifference is a characteristic symptom of which of the following disorder a) Conversion reaction b) Anxiety neurosis c) Mania d) Depression 52. what are the phases of nurse patient relationship? a) Preinteraction b) Orientation c) Working d) Termination e) All of the above 53. Steven Johnson syndrome is the sideeffect of which of the following drugs? a) Mood stabilizer b) Antidepressant

c) Antimanic d) Antianxiety 54. cheese reaction or hypertensive crisis is the side effect of which of the drug a) Typical antipsychotics b) MAOs c) Anxiolytics d) Mood stabilizers 55. In which type of schizophrenia ECT is contraindicated a) Paranoid schizophrenia b) Hebephrenic schizophrenia c) catatonic schizophrenia d) schizoaffective schizophrenia

1. a 2. c 3. b 4. a 5. c 6. b 7. c 8. c 9. d

KEY

10. c 11. b 12. c 13. a 14. c 15. b 16. a 17. c 18. a 19. a 20. b 21. a 22. d 23. d 24. d 25. d 26. c 27. c 28. b 29. c 30. a 31. a 32. c 33. a 34. c 35. b

36. c 37. d 38. a 39. b 40. d 41. a 42. d 43. d 44. b 45. b 46. b 47. b 48. b 49. a 50. d 51. a 52. e 53. a 54. b 55. b