Page 1 1.

Precision engine bearing inserts are manufactured with a small portion of the bearing ends extending beyond the bearing housing or caps. The installation process of the these bearings requires sufficient_________ A. Overlap B. Crush C. Lap or lead D. Protrusion Ans. B 2. The piston rod scraper box incorporated in a two-stroke/cycle crosshead diesel serves to A. Eliminate the necessity for an oil scarpering B. Prevent side thrust and cylinder scoring C. Prevent sludge and dirty oil from entering the crankcase D. Scrape oil and carbon deposits off the cylinder walls Ans. C 3. The method of piston cooling in which oil is delivered through the connecting rod to a compartment within the piston, then distributed by the motion of the pistons, and allowed to drain the crankcase via one or more holes or pipes, is termed______________ A. Quaker B. Shaker C. Circulation D. spray Ans. b 4. In a large, slow-speed, main propulsion diesel engine, which of the parts listed is under tension when the engine is running? A. Bed plate B. Column C. Entablature D.tie rod

5. The main advantage of unit injectors(combines fuel pump and injector) over other fuel injection system is___________ A. The lack of high pressure fuel lines B. Their relatively low injection pressures C. Reduced wear of spray orifices D. The lessened chance of fuel leaks into engine sump Ans: A 6. Passages are drilled in the crank shafts of diesel engines to provide lubricating oil to the _____ A. Main bearings B. Connecting rod bearings C. Piston pin bushings D. None of the above is right Ans. C 7. When may the crankcase ventilation pipes or oil drain pipes of two or more engines be connected? A. Propulsion engines under 1000 shaft horsepower may share a common crankcase vent provided the oil drains remain separate B. In most cases it is desirable and cost effective for propulsion engines to share a common crankcase ventilation and monitoring system C. No interconnection may be made between the crank case ventilation pipes or oil drain pipes 8. The main function of tie rods in the construction of large low speed diesel engines is to _____ A. Stiffen the bedplate in way of the main bearings to increase the engine's longitudinal strength B. Accept most of the tensile loading that results from the fring forces developed durin operation C. Mount the engine frame securely to the hull to prevent shaft coupling misalignment D. Connect the crosshead solidly to the piston rod Ans. B 9. On most modern diesel engines, the main and connecting rod bearings receive their lubricating oil by____________ A. Banjo feed B. Splash feed

C. Gravity feed D.Pressure feed Ans. D 10. Fuel injection pumps using the port and helix metering principle requires the use of a______ A. Crosshatched design B. Lapped plunger and barrel C. Variable stroke D. Variable cam lift Ans. B 11. Lubricating oil is supplied to the crankpin bearings in a marine diesel engine by__________ A. Internal crankshaft passages B. Immersion in oil C. Spclearance lubrication D. Injection lubrication Ans. A 12. Gudgeonpin bearings are difficult to lubricate because of their oscillating motion and__________ A. Their free- floating design B. Their relatively small size The reciprocating motion of the piston D. Their position in the lubrication system Ans. D 13. The crank shaft drive is designed to maintain proper cam shaft speed relation to crank shaft speed. In maintaining this relationship, the cam shaft drive causes the cam shaft to rotate at_______ A. One half crank shaft speed in a two stroke cycle diesel engine B. Crank shaft speed in a two stroke cycle diesel engine C. Two times crank shaft speed in a four stroke cycle diesel engine D. One fourth times crank shaft in a four stroke cycle diesel engine Ans. B 14. Engines having a bore exceeding 250mm, but not exceeding 300 mm are to have atleast____ A. Three compression rings per piston and the minimum of two oil scraper rings

B. One intake and one exhaust vaulte per cylinder provided no other means of scavenging is used C. One explosion relies valve in way of each alternate crank throw with a minimum of two valves D. One crank shaft except in cases where an opposed piston design is required Ans. C 15. The opening of an exhaust valve on a modern, large, low speed, main propulsion diesel engine, may be actuated by____________ A. Direct action of cam shaft B. Compressed air pressure C. Hydraulic push rods D. Direct action of the main piston moving down Ans. C 16. Sicker circulation ames spray are the three general methods used in____________ A. Pre-injection fuel oil treatment B. Tube oil filtration C. Tube oil purification D. Piston cooking Ans. D 17. The speed of the cam shaft in a two stroke diesel engine running at 950 RPM, is_________ A. 475 RPM B. 950 RPM C. 1900 RPM D. 2400 RPM Ans. B 18. Explosion relief valves on diesel engines crank cases should relieve the pressure at not more than A. 0.1 bar B. 0.2 bar C. 1.0 bar D. 2.0 bar Ans. B

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19. A two stroke diesel engine exhaust temperature will be lower than a four stroke diesel engine of the same displacement because the I scavenging air is cooling the exhaust gases II exhaust cycle time is longer____________ A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I and II Ans. A 20. The sealing surfaces of a diesel engine piston ring are considered to be the faces in contact with the cylinder wall, in addition to the ring groove A. Bottom B. Back C. Top D. Side Ans. A 21. where is fuel delivery check valve located in a jerk pump fuel injection system? A. In a cylinder head B. on the suction side of the delivery pump C. in the injection pump housing discharge D. on the inlet side of spray valves Ans.C 22. How many crankcase relief valves are required for a 325 mm bore, eight cylinder in line-engine? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D.8

Ans.D 23. Which of the air intake systems listed will result in the lowest specific fuel consumption? A. Natural aspiration B.Turbocharged CRootsblower D.Pistonblower Ans.B 24.In which of the following areas of a crosshead engine is a permanently connected fire extinguishing system required? A.Exhaust manifolds in excess of eight inches in diameter B.Crankcases having a gross volume in excess of 21 cubic feet C.Turbocharger inlet piping in excess of twelve inches in diameter D.Scavenging spaces in open connection to the cylinder Ans.D 25.Camshafts are usually driven by timing gears or A.push rods B.Chain drivers C.rocker arms D.flywheels Ans.B 26. The cam slope angle determines the.. A.Opening and closing points of the valve

B.Opening and closing rate of the valve C.height of valve opening D. the amount of the time the valve remains open Ans.B 27.The arrangement and the shape of the cams on a diesel engine camshaft directly control which of the listed groups of operating conditions? A.speed,torque,horse power production B.firing order valve timing and valve lifting C.fuel consumption eifficiecy and cylinder pressure D. scavenge pressure compression ratio and exhaust pressure Ans B 28 carbon deposit building up in and around the injection nozzle tip are least likely to occur when using which of the listed type of fuel injection nozzle A hole B multy hole C pintle D multi pintle Ans C 29 a port and helix fuel injection pump having upper and lower plunjer helix is design to ? A vary fuel delivery and return pressure B vary and beginning and ending of injection C operate with residual fuels only D provide maximum fuel delivery rate

Ans B 30 which of the following statements describe a fuel injection pump marked limited for port closing? A injection has a constant beginning and variable ending B the pump stroke determines the amount of fuel injector C fuel is metered by the pumps delivery rate D timing reference marks should be changed Ans A 31 some fuel injection sytems utilize port and helix metered which of the following statement describes a system timed or port closing? A. B. C. D. Injection has a variable beginning and a constant ending Injections metered by an external delivery rate Injection has a constant beginning and variable ending Injection will not occur until the helix closes the delivery valve

Ans.C 32. An individual injection pump is designed for variable beginning and constant ending of injection .For diesel engines operating at constant speed the start of injection will ? A advance as the load increases B retard as the load increases C remain unchanged regardless of load D always occur at top dead center Ans A 33 a crank shaft whose center of gravity coincide with its center line is said to be ?

A dynamically balanced B statically balanced C counter balanced D resonan balanced Ans B 34 the amount of fuel injector in a particular time or degree of crankshaft rotation is termed A metering B timing C rate of injection D rate of distribution 35.the small end of the connecting rod is attached to the piston with a .. A. crankpin B.sliding wedge C. gudgeon pin D.torque bushing Ans.C 36.at dead center the center line of the connecting rod usually coincides with the ? A.angularity of the piston motion B.inertia moment from the position C.centerline of the cylinder D.centerline of the king pin

Ans.C 37.Connecting rods in a diesel engine are used to connect the A.engine to the bed B.rocker arm to the camshaft C.crankshaft to the gear train D. piston to the crankshaft Ans D 38.Movement of the pump control rack in a fuel injection system using individual A changes the position of the fuel inlet ports B changes the length of the pump stoke C varies the quantity of fuel delivered D varies the compression of the delivery valves spring Ans c Page 3 39 The purpose of a heat dam used in some digital engine cast iron piston is to--------------------A.concentrate all heat in the piston crown B.increase the disance of travell for heat from the crown to the top ring groov C.ensure that all heat in the pestion crown is conducted to the ring D.provide a short direct path of heat to the crown to the top ring Ans:B

40 Diesel engine are classified as reciprocating internal combustion engines because they A.use energy from the burned outside their cylinder b.burn fuel into combustion chamber that move back and for c.burn fuel in a chamber where its energy moves a piston back and forth d.use a continuous combbustion process import rotary motion to the piston 41. a disel engine with a full speed of 1000 rpm drive a propelller at 300 rpm . what is the speed reduction ratio a.0.3to1 b.3.33to1 c.33 to 1 d.300 to 1 42 which of the listed design features is most common to a two /stroke cycle low speed main propulsion diesel engines? A.cross head construction B.cross scavenging air flow C.trunk type pistions D.single reduction gearing Ans:a 43 why is the ring belt narrower in a diameter than the skirt of pistion designed for a diesel engine? A.to allow a greater expansion due to higher operating temperature B.to seal the cylinder aginest leakage of combustion gases

C.to provide an additional surface for oil cooling D.to provide additional strength for the crown and lower structure Ans;a

44

Which statement about diesel engine combustion is true? A. Combustion does not begin until the piston starts down on the power stroke B. Maximum combustion pressure is reached before TDC C. Turbulence in the cylinder causes a delay in ignition D. Maximum cylinder firing pressure is not developed until the piston passes TDC

Ans:D 45 The diameter of a piston is usually less at the crown than at the skirt in order to A. B. C. D. Faciliate the installation of piston rings Allow for the expansion of the piston during expansion Prevent crankcase vapors from entering the combustion chamber Reduce wearing of the upper cylinder liner

Ans:B 46 Why are some diesel engine cylinder lines plated on the wearing surface with porous chromium? A. B. C. D. The chromium wil not wear out the piston rings Chromium eliminates the need for oil scraper rings The chromium strengthens the liners in the way of the scavenging air ports Pores in the plating and in maintaining the lube oil film

Ans:D 47 The injection pumps on a diesel engine are controlled by a linkage system attached jerk pump is to ___________ A. B. C. D. Camshaft Crankshaft Governer Flywheel

Ans C 48 What type of fitting is to be used on diesel engine fuel injection line piping? A. B. C. D. Ans:C 49 The ability of a fuel particle to travel into the combustion chamber before burning is called------------A. B. C. D. Peneteration Permanence Turebulence Atomization Mild steel Hardened steel Extra heavy Double extra heavy

Ans.A 50 Thoretical perfect combustion in a diesel engine yields by products of-----------A. B. C. D. Aldehydes and carbon di oxide Wate vapour and carbon monoxide Nitrogen and carbon monoxide Water vapour and carbon di oxide

Ans. D 51. The function of the window cast into the housuing of an individual jerk pump is to. A. allow the pum to be limited to the engine B. check the sludge on the pump barrel C.check that the fuel return passages are clear D.set up the fuel rack calibration in cubic millimeters Ans:A 52. The piston gudgeon pin used in some diesel engine pistons is prevented from contacting the cylinder wall by a. A.piston relief groove B.piston pin cup C.snap ring D.bronze bushing Ans:C 53. Turbulence in a diesel engine cylinder is of major importance in providing.. A.proper fuel metrein g B.Complete fuel/air mixing C.minimal fuel penetration D.proper fuel timing Ans:B

54. The load is always placed on the lower half of the main bearings in a/an. A.two stroke/cycle engine B.four stroke /cycle engine C.reverse cycle engine D.double acting engine Ans:A 55.Cavitation eroision in the cooling water system of a diesel engine usually occurs at the pump impeller and on the water side of the A.fuel nozzle holders B.complete fuel/air mixing C.engine cylinder liners D.engine exhaustmanifold 56.The main charecteristic of diesel engine which distinguishes from other internal combustion engines is the A.method of supplying air B.cooling system C.method of igniting fuel D.valve operating mechanism Ans:C 57.Which term describes piston pins having bearing surfaces in both the pistons bosses and connecting rod eye? A. stationary

B. Full floating C. semi-floating D. Free floating Ans. B 58. Compared to other fuel injection systems,unit injectors operate with virtually no.. A. injection lag B. Ignition delay C. moving parts D. control Ans.A

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59.

Piston cooling fins are loca ed..

A. on top of the piston crown B. underneath the piston crown C. at the base of the piston skirt D. inside the cylinder liner cooling water jacket Ans.B 60. A properly honed diesel engine cylider liner will

A. prevent piston ring wear B. shorten the ring break-in period C. prevent cylinder liner glazing D. appear slick and glazed Ans.B 61.Beside the use of piston cooling fins to assist in cooling,they also provide extra strength for the piston. A. skin B. crown C. gudgeon pin D. oil rings Ans.B 62.The minimum fuel oil delivery pressure required for efficient Injection depends primarily on the. A. degree of cylinder air turbulence B. maximum pressure in the engine cylinders during injection C. quantity of fuel to be injected D. duration of ignition delay period Ans. B 63.A thrust bearing is used with a propulsion diesel engine to A. control axial movement of crankshaft B. transmit engine thrust to the propeller shaft

C. absorb vibrations in the propeller shafting D. prevent proppeller thrust from being transmitted to the hull Ans.A 64.The two strokes of a two-stroke /cycle diesel engine are A. power and intake B. intake and exhaust C. exhaust and compression D. compression and power Ans.D 65.Which of the following statements pertains to propulsion engine with bores exceeding 200mm? A. There shall be a means to display the cooling water outlet temperature of each cylinder B. All engines connected to the controllable pitch propellers shall be of the direct reversible type C. The engines will be fitted with a means to display the exhaust gas temoerature of each cylinder D. All of the above are correct Ans.C 66.where engine bores 230mm,a bursting disc or flame arrestor is fitted A. at the supply inlet to the starting air manifold for non-reversing engines B. on the exhaust manifold prior to the inlet of the turbocharger

C. on all devices subject to the by-products of combustion or lubrication system vapours D. in way of the control valve of each cylinder for direct reversing engines having a main starting manifold Ans.A 67. What is the function of main thrust bearing? A. Prevents lateral movement of the slow speed gear B. Transmits propeller thrust to the hull C. Keeps spring bearing in-line D. Prevents main reduction gear axial movement Ans.B 68.The main function of piston compression is to.. A. prevent excessive cylinder wear B. Reduce friction losses in the engine C. seal the space between the piston and the liner D. limit upward flow of lube oil into the combustion space Ans.C 69.The function of diesel engine compresssion rings is to .. A. prevent piston side thrust B. prevents engine friction losses C. transmit heat from piston to the cylinder liner D. remove oil from the cylinder combustion space

Ans.C 70.Diesel engine piston ring caps can be straight or angle cut,in comparison ,the angle cut ring A. allow piston ring expansion B. controls the piston ring tension C. increases ring wearing quality D. decreases combustion gas leakage Ans.D 71.Modern marine diesel engines equipped with the mecahanical fuel injection operate on a combustion phase within the cycle which is .. A. entirely constant pressure B. entirely constant temperature C. a combination of constant volume and constant pressure D. a combination of constant temperature and constant pressure Ans.C 72.Which of the listed designs is effectively used to provide the turbulence necessary for proper combustion ina diesl engine cylinder ? A. masked exhaust valves B. special piston rings C. turbocharger D. pre combustion chamber Ans.D

73.The purpose of counterboring the top of the cylinder liner,extending down to the top point of the travel of the to compression ring ,is to A. increase cylinder turbulence B. prevent wear of the liner from occuring C. prevent wear of the liner from forming a ridge at the upper level of ring travel D. decrease compression ratio for easier starting Ans.C 74.The most rapid period of fuel combustion ina diesel engine cylinder should begin just before the piston reaches the top dead center and A. when fuel injection has been completed B. when fuel vaporization has been completed C. should effeciently continue through the after burning period in all properly designed engines D. should be completed shortly after passing top dead center Ans.D 75.Exhaust gas pyrometers are useful for A. detecting faulty combustion in individual cylinders B. adjusting fuel racks to maintain equal loading between cylinder C. adjusting the load limit setting of the governer at idle conditions D. calculating engine horse power Ans.A 76.Oil control rings function to

A. allow proper lubrication of cylinders and comnpression rings B. reduce the amount of lube of oil burnt in the combustion chamber C. scrape excess lube oil form the liner on the downstroke D. all the above Ans.D 77 in th construction of a diesel engine what is the purpose of end plates? A To provide accessibility to th cylinder liner B. To add rigidity to the block and a surface for attaching other parts C. To add stability to the engine block D. To make a surface for the base Ans B 78 The main purpose of the piston oil scrapper rings is to ?

A seal the space between the piston and the liner B. Reduce the amount of lube oil burned in the combustion chamber C. Transmit heat from the piston ring to the cylinder line D. Damp out fluctuations of the piston side thrust Ans B

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79 What is commonly used to create turbulence in diesel engine combustion system?

A. shape of the piston crowns. B. Increasing the compression ratio. C. Increasing the effective plunger stroke. D. Increasing the turbocharger gear ratio. Ans A 80 How many power stroke per crank shaft revolution are there in an eight cylinder two stroke diesel engine? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four Ans D 81 To shut down a diesel engine after it exceed the set maximum speed .which type of device listed should be used? A. speed limiting governor. B. over speed governor. C. Overspeed trip D. Overspeed relay Ans C 82 Turbulence is created in the cylinder in the cylinders of a diesel engine to?

A. obtain injection lag B. help mix fuel and air

C. increase combustion pressure D. utilize higher injection pressure Ans B 83. T o function properly ,oil control rings used on a diesel engine piston must distribute sufficient oil to all parts of the cylinder wall and must also-----------? A. prevent any lubricant for reaching the compression rings B. prevent excessive lubrication for reaching the compression space C. provide a metal to metal contact to seal the cylinder against blow pass D. assure a positive means of scrapping carbon accumulation for the cylinder Ans B 84 An important characteristic of an explosion release valve for a diesel engine is the ability to? A. close quickly in order to prevent an inrush of air B. open quickly against crank case pressure to prevent a possible implosion C. open slowly to permit a gradial reduction of crank case pressure? D. close slowly to permit proper seating of the valve disc and neoprene sealing surface Ans A 85 In some modern larger diesel engines which of the followings used as the support for the main bearings? A. Bedplate B.Bblock C.Base

D. Sump. Ans A 86. Turbulance in the cylinder of a two stroke /cycle main propulsion disel engine is mainly created by? A. directional intake valve ports B. masked intake valves C. precombustion chambers D. intake port design Ans D 87 In an internal combustion engine which of the devices listed will force the compression nrings to seal the compression gases in the space above the piston? A.use of bemetallic piston rings B ring grip pre tensioning C. Thermal increases in ring end clearance D.Gas pressure acting against the back of the ring Ans D 88 The theoretical minimum compression ratio necessary to ensure compression ignition in a direct injection diesel engine a? A. B. C. D. Ans D 89 The size of the exhaust valve opening is __________ 0 334027778 0 418055556 0 500694444 0 584027778

A. most critical in a 4 stroke /cycle diesel engine B. most critical in a 2 stroke /cycle diesel engine C. most critical in a 4 stroke /cycle diesel engine if it is turbo charger D. of equal importance in 2 stroke /cycle engine as in a 4 stroke /cycle engine: Ans D 90. provisions is to made for ventilation of an enclosed diesel engine crank case engine crankcaseby means of a small? A.aperture note exceeding 25mmdiameter B.Fan to develop a slight suction not exceeding 25mm of water C. vent line attached to the upper most area of the crank case near the center of the engine D. breather or by means of a slight suction not exceeding 5 mm of water Ans D 91. Which of the advantages listed does the electrical pyrometer have over the mechanical pyrometer? A.when heated it will move proportional to the amount the metal has lengthened expanded. B. it can be utilized in exhaust manifold and heat exchangers. C. the ponter associated with the pyrometer scale can be made to also measure engine RPM D. it can indicate temperature at a distant point from the source of heat Ans D 92. in alarge slow speed propulsion diesel engine the force applied to the cross head is?

A. against the crosshead is during power stroke and away from the crosshead during the compression stroke. B. against the crosshead during the compression stroke and away from the crosshead during the power stroke. C. against the crosshead during the power and compression stroke D. away from the crosshead during the power and compression strokes Ans C 93 A diesel engine is driving an alternator required to run at 18:00RPM the overspeed governor is normally required to be set within a range of? A. 1980 top 2070RPM B.2100 to 2200RPM C. 2200 to 2300RPM D.2300 to 2400RPM Ans A 94. a crankshaft whose center of gravity coinicide with its center line is said to be _______1 staticaly balanced 2dynamically A.1 only B.2 only C. both 1 and 2 D.neither 1 and 2 Ans A Page 6

95. A six cylinder/cycle single acting diesel engine has a 580mm bore and a 1700 mm stroke .what indicated power per cylinder will be developed if the average mean effective pressure is 15.3 kg/cm2 at a speed of 120 RPM A. 1,348KW B. 2.696KW C. 4.044KW D.8,088KW Ans A 96 using a diesel engine indicator p-v diagram the cylinder mean effective pressure is calculated to be 21.3 kg/cm2 what is the scale of the spring used on the indicator if the diagram area is 18.46cm2 with a lenth of 13cm? A.0.9 B.1 C.1.25 D.1.5 Ans D 97 A diesel engine valves springs a function to ?

A. hold the valves open B.keep the valves off their seats until the exhaust stoke is completed C. close the valves D.open inlet valves when the air injection cycles begin Ans C 98 a built up exhaust valve is one in which

A.the stem and heads are made of different material B.the self centering action comes from motion of the valves stem in the guide C. a replaceable valve 99 a six cylinder ,2 stroke,cycle diesel engine is 38%efficient and has a cylinder const of 0.998 while operating with a mean effective pressure of 15 kg/cm2 at a speed of 100RPM. What is the metric brake horse power developed? A.5,559KW B.6.698KW C. 7,455KW D.8,982KW Ans C 100 A seven cylinder ,2_stroke/cycle,single acting disel engine has a 750mm bore and a 2000mm stroke. What indicated power will be devolep if the average mean effective pressure is 14.8kg/cm2 and a speed of 96 RPM? A 1,959KW B 3,906KW C 7,182KW D 14,363KW Ans.D

101 between the periods of injection of the fuel and ignition of the fuel a diesel engine crank shaft rotates through the A.detenation period

B. firing period C.delay period D. advance period Ans c 102 The cylinder liner forming the cylinder wall and the inside of the water jacket is called a___ A dry liner B wet liner C jacket liner D corrugated liner Ans B 103 the purpose of an interface angle in a diesel engine in engine exhaust valve is to ___1 work in conjuction with valve rotators to rotate the valve 2 seat the valve quickly A. 1 only B. 2 only C. both 1 and 2 D.neither 1 and 2 Ans B 104 the purpose of an interference angle in a disel engineexhaust valve is to___. 1 seat the valve quickly 2 break up seat deposition A. 1 only

B. 2 only C. both 1 and 2 D.neither 1 and 2 Ans C 105 one function of a diesel engine lubricating oil is to

A.induce carbon formation on cylinder valves B. improve the fuel penetration in the combustion space C. form a friction reducing the film between mating surfaces D. lubricate the fuel injectors Ans C 106 open combustion champers are designed to ___

A eliminate carbon build up B improve piston cooling C prevent air charge turbulence D provide proper fuel or air mixing Ans D 107 in a disel engine ,exhaust valve open before the intake ports are uncovered to 1 reduce pumping losses reduce back pressure? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. both 1 and 2 D.neither 1 and 2

Ans c 108 critical speeds occurring with in the operating speed range of a main propulsion disel engine may be changed,or have the air damaging effectsreduced by a or an___ A engine support vibration isolater B detuner or viscous fluid damper C lightened crankshaft flywheel D spherically seated crankshaft bearing Ans B 109 the amount of fuel injected into a diesel engine cylinder by a unit injector is continued by a unit injector is controlled by A.the firing pressure in the cylinder B.a metering helix inside the pump C.varying the physical length of the plunger stroke D.varying the clearance between the injectorcam and the injector rocker arm Ans B 110 which bearing half will receive the greatest load in a two stroke or cycle diesel engine ? A all bearing halves share an equal load B upper half of the main bearing C lower half of the piston pin bearing in the connecting rod. D lower half of the connecting rod bearing at the crankshaft end of the rod. Ans C

111 a diesel engine operating at a load when compared to the operating at heavy load has a fuel /air ratio that is/ A.higher B.less C.equal. D.directly proportional Ans A 112 a safety cover differs from other diesel engine access doors in the is fitted with a___ A spring_loaded pressure plate B hand wheel C nut operated clamp D large gas ket Ans A

113 in an opposed piston engine which of the following events would happen if the lower crank lead were reduced from 12 to 0?

A.the exhaust ports would open before the scavenging ports B.the scavenging ports would open before the exhaust ports C D

114 which of the following relationships should occur between the temperature devoleped in a combustion space,and the compression ratio of the engine? A higher compression ratios create higher temperature B higher temperatures create higher compression ratios C D

C. Lower temperatures create higher compression ratios D. Higher compression ratios create lower temperatures Ans: A 115. The valve stern expansion associated with engine warm-up is allowed for by the__________ A. Valve springs B. hydraulic governor C. tappet clearance adjusters D. cooling system Ans: C 116. Which of the bearing types listed is commonly used for main bearings in small internal combustion engines? A. precision B. poured-type consisting of Babbitt

C. poured-type with shims D. replacable precision-type And: D 117. A dry-type spark arrestor removes sparks from a diesel engine exhaust by_________ A. increasing the liner velocity of the exhaust gases B. changing directions of exhaust gas flow C. decreasing the temperature of the exhaust gases D. accelerating the exhaust gas through a reduced size office Ans: B 118. The most common instrument used to measure diesel engine exhaust pressure is the_________ A. pyrometer B. bourdon gauge C. pneumercator D. manometer Ans: D 119. When two cams of the same diameter, one with tangential flanks and the other with convex flanks are compared, the cam with tangential flanks will cause__________ A. greater valve lift B. more abrupt valve action C. less valve seat wear

D. less valve great wear Ans: B 120. Which of the following types of engine have a combustion chamber located between a cylinder head and the crown of a piston? A. Horizontal opposed B. Opposed C. single acting D. none of the above Ans: C 121. The average pressure exerted on a piston during each power stroke is termed________ A. indicated horse power B. mean effective pressure C. exhaust back pressure D. compression pressure Ans: B 122. The greatest turbulence in a diesel engine cylinder is created by the __________ A. shape of the combustion chamber B. fuel injection spray pattern C. cylinder swept volume D. degree of penetration of the fuel oil droplets Ans: A

123. Wet type exhaust silencers. used with some diesel engines, have which of the following design in common? A. The silencer is equipped with a water seat B. The exhaust gases are not mixed with cooling water C. The internal baffles break up the exhaust gas pulsation D. The exhaust noise is completely eliminated Ans: C 124. The exhaust system for a diesel engine is usually designed to remove exhaust gas and to________ A. power the root-type exhauster B. remove the emission of the exhaust smoke pollutants C. power a reciprocating super charger D. muffle exhaust noise Ans: D 125. In a diesel engine after the ignition occurs, but before the piston reaches the piston reaches TDC, there is little change in the cylinder________ A. volume B. pressure C. temperature D. energy Ans: A 126.Most practical diesel engines today operate on a cycle which is a combination of diesel and otto cycle. in this process compression ignition___________

A. begins on a constant volume basis B. begins on a constant pressure basis C. Ends on a constant volume basis D. begins and ends on a constant volume basis Ans: A 127. Main propulsion diesel engines have a bore exceeding 300 mm are to have at least _________ A. two independant means of starting a engine B. two engine driven lube oil pumps capable of parallel operation C. one valve at the position of each main crank throw D. five air starting valves to permit the admission of starting air at any crank angle Ans: C 128. In an opposed piston engine, the term crank lead refers to __________ A. one crankshaft turning faster than the other B. the two crank shafts turning in different direction C. the piston in one cylinder reaching inner dead center several crank shaft degrees before the other piston D. the piston in one cylinder reaching dead center when the other reaches outer dead center Ans: D 129. A controllable pitch propeller on a diesel driven vessel eliminates the need for______

A. Friction clutches B. disconnect clutches C. reversing gears D. reduction gears Ans: C 130. which of the events listed does not occur during the instant the piston just reaches the top dead center? A. intake B. Ignition C. power D. combustion Ans: A 131. Mist detectors used on large low speed main propulsion diesel engines monitor and check for the presence of__________ A. fuel oil vapour at the sludge tank vent B. unburned fuel vapours in the scavenge air receiver C. lube oil vapours in the crank case D. lube oil vapours in the engine room Ans: C 132. A main propulsion diesel engine crankshaft bearing lacking sufficient crush, will___________ A. pound under load B. be lubricated more easily than with sufficient crush

C. tend to rotate with the journal D. have its back forced against the seal under the load Ans: C 133. A unit type fuel injector is used on a diesel engine to_________A. meter the fuel B. produce the proper fuel oil pressure C. atomise the fuel D. all of the above Ans: D 134. The intake valves in a diesel engine is reseated by___________ A. cam followers B. push rods C. combustion gases D. valve springs Ans: D

135. The closing of the exhaust valves used on a modern, large, low speed, main propulsion diesel engine may be directly provided by_________ A. large conical springs B. compressed air pressure C. hydraulic pressure D. exhaust gas pressure

Ans: B 136. A characteristic of a bearing material which permits small dirt particles to become embedded in its surface is_________ A. desirable as it will prevent damage to the journal surface B. desirable as it will assist in keeping the lube oil filters clean C. undesirable since the embedded particles will score the jounal D. undesirable since the particles will interfere with lube oil flow Ans: A 137. A diesel engine crank case ventilation system___________ A. prevents spark generation B. removes combustible gases C. determines the level of the combustible gases D. provide inert gas generation in crankcase Ans: B 138. Most fuel injection nozzles are opened by________ A. fuel oil pressure B. a cam operated follower C. a spring loaded pressure plate D. timing gears keyed to the crankshaft Ans: A 139. The bearings used to support the crankshaft are generally called_________ A. line shaft bearings

B. connecting rod bearings C. main bearings D. support bearings Ans: C 140. Injection pressure in a common rail fuel system is controlled by___________ A. engine speed B. varying the fuel pump piston stroke C. varying the injector needle valve clearance D. a bypass valve Ans: D 141. Intenal combustion engine crankcase vent outlets must be equipped with__________ A. hinged rain guards B. corrosion resistant flame screens C. dipsticks for measuring oil levels D. crankcase ventilation fans Ans: B 142. What is to be installed on an internal combustion engine if its cylinder bore exceeds 200mm? A. Crankcase vapour monitors B. Engine exhaust silencers C. Constant pressure type turbocharger

D. Explosion relief valves Ans: D 143. Cylinder lubrication oil for low speed main propulsion diesel engines in a mitted to each cylinder during__________ A. the power stroke B. the compression stroke C. low load operation only D. periods of standby Ans: B 144. What is the purpose of the window installed in the housing of an individual jerk pump? A. to allow the pump to be timed to the engine B. to check the sludge on the pump barrel C. to check that the fuel oil return passages are clear D. to set up the fuel rack calibration in cubic millimetres Ans: A 145. Which of the following listed construction details of internal combustion engines is required? A. A warning notice to caution against the opening of a hot crankcase for a specified period of time after shut down B. the use of the end block construction for engines developing over 1000 brain horse power C. Removable cylinder liners must be used for engines developing over 1000 horsepower

D. All Engines shall be provided with an exhust gas pressure monitoring system Ans: A 146.Which statement regarding the arrangement and location of explosion of explosion relief valves used on an internal combustion engines is true__________? A. they may be omitted on all engines having a cylinder bore of nine inches or less B. they may be omitted provided to engine utilizes a crankcase monitoring system C. the type of engine and operating cyle must be considered by the designer D. minimizing the danger from emission of flame is a key consideration And: D 147. The term proper meteringas applied to a diesel fuel injection system can be best defined as___________ A. delivering the same quantity of the fuel to each cylinder for each power stroke according to engine load B. maintaining the metering adjustment for a reasonable period under all load conditions C. timing fuel injection to obtain maximum power and good fuel economy D. distributing the fuel to all parts of the combustion chamber for proper combustion Ans: A 148. One function of the fuel pump delivery check valve is to _________________

A. prevent carbon deposits from forming on the injector nozzle B. help the injector needle reseat without dribbling at the nozzle holes C. provide a prolonged pressure drop in the high pressure steel piping to the injector D. ensure a fuel leakoff between the plunger and barrel which provides lubrication for relative movement Ans: B 149. The rate of fuel injection in a diesel engine cylinder depends primarily on___________ A. the size of the holes in the fuel nozzle B. timing of the pump C. supply pressure to the pump D. shape of the combustion chamber Ans: A 150. Fuel injection systems meter fuel, atomize fuel, and__________ A. Create turbulence in the combustion chamber B. aid in completing cylinder scavenging C. inject fuel at the proper time D. minimizing fuel penetration in to the cylinder Ans: C 151. The valve cam slope angle determines the___________ A. engine torque characteristics B. acceleration rate of valve opening and closing

C. engine fuel efficiency D. diameter of intake and exhaustvalves Ans: B 152. Engine displacement is equal to the cylinder ________________ A. area times the stroke B. area times the stroke, times the number of cylinders C. volume times the stroke D. volume times the stroke, times the number of cylinders Ans: B

153.Cylinder diameter greater than 230 mm require additional safety devices when the scavenging spaces are openly connected to the cylinder which of the following devices will be used to protect such spaces? A. B. C. D. . tri knock fittings . explosion relief valves . quick release expansion joints . stacked plate type inlet check valves

Ans ; b

154. A loop or cross scavenged engine utilizes the motion of its piston and a turbo charger to provide scavenging air which of listed mechanical designs prevents the air under the pistons from being pumped back through the scavenge ports during the piston

A. B. C. D.

. masked intake ports . length of the piston skirts .positive pressure for the blower . lower liner seals

155.fuel injectors used in heavy fuel oil systems are usually provided with cooling to reduce A. B. C. D. . cold corrosion of the nozzles . fuel viscosity for atomization .carbon accumulation on the nozzles . fuel detonation in the cylinders

156. the possibility of damage from operating a diesel engine at critical speeds is reduced by the use of A. B. C. D. . an isochronous governor . elastic engine mounts . a vibration damper . a cast iron bed plate with good flexible quality

157. increasing the load on an engine using a double helix type injection pump varies the effective stroke of pump to start A. earlier and end later B. later and end earlier C. and end later D. and end earlier

158. The linear motion of a diesel engine piston is convert etc to the rotary motion required to drive gear, propeller shafts and generator by the A. B. C. D. ans; b 159.The duration of the fuel injection developed by an individual port and helix fuel injection pump is determined by the A. B. C. D. Total pump stroke Pump plunger diameter plunger helix angle Effective pump stroke . flywheel . crank shaft . journal bearing . cam shaft

160. the plunger in a jerk pump is rotated until the release port is uncovered if the port remains uncovered all of the time which of the listed operation occur A. .no fuel will be delivered B. . the maximum effective stroke will be attained C. . the fuel delivered to the cylinder will be exxessive D. . the injection nozzle will over heat and carbonize ans; a 161. when the low range of the spiral begins to uncover the realese port in a jerk pump the A. . pumping continuous until the plunger travels its full stroke B. . effective pumping stroke of the plunger ends C. . pressure drops slowly unrtill the full stroke is obtained D. . plunger rotates ti the zero delivery position until the next stroke ans;b

162. The amount of fuel delivered by a helical plunger fuel injection pump is controlled by A. wearing the pump discharge pressure B. wearing the pump return pressure C. rotation of the pump plunger D. rotation of the pump barrel ans;c 163.which of the following will occur when the lower edge of the spiral of the plunger of a jerk pump uncovers the spill port A. . the plunger immediately reverse the direction B. . the pressure drops and fuel delivery stops C. . the plunger rotates the no fuel position D. . the barell rotates to the zero effective stroke position ans ; b 164. in a diesel engine , pistons are attached to a crankshaft by A. .push rods B. . clearance adjuster C. .connecting rods D. . piston guides ans ; c 165.which of the component listed is not found in a single acting engine A. . exhaust valves B. . savenging ports C. . combustion chamber D. . double crank shafts ans b 166. In diesel engine designed with a cross head the motion of the piston rod can be described as A. . reciprocating at the piston ring rotary at the crank pin B. . reciprocating at the crank pin rotary at the piston pin C. . straight reciprocation

D. . straight rotation 167. Cast iron pistons used in large propulsion diesel engines or constructed with A. . no tapper what so ever B. . the skirt being tapered and smaller than a crown C. . the skirt being tapered and larger than the crown D. . the crown being tapered and smaller than a skirt ans ; d 168. Which of the following manufacturing methods is recommended for diesel engine fuel injection line piping A. . cold rolled B. . electric resistance welded C. seam less drawn D. straight seam ans; c 169. successful combustion inside the cylinders of a diesel engine is depended up on A. . fine atomization B. . high temperature C. . good mixing of fuel and air D. .all of the above ans; d 170.which of the combustion parameters listed is used in a diesel engine but not related to the injection systems A. atomization B. metering C. effective stroke D. penetration 171.fuel oil penetration into the cylinder of a diesel engine is A dependent on air turbufence B reduced by finer atomization C increased by finer atomization

D non existent in the precombustion chamber system Ans b 172. proper atomization of fuel in diesel engine combustion chambers will A effect the injection pressure B improve combustion C reduce combustion pressure D decrease power output Ans b

173. what is required for crosshead type engines that have a scavenging space in open connection to the cylinder? A. . The air flow from the scavenging space must always be protected by plate type check values and under no circumstance may other device be used B. . A suitable gasket for the interface of both manifolds is necessary to prevent recirculation of scavenging gases. While additionally minimizing exhaust gas leakage C. . The scavenging space is to be permanently connected to an approver file extinguishing system entirely separate from the fire extinguishing system of the engine room D. . The required equipment for a crosshead type engine is totally dependent upon manufactures ability to placate market demand Ans: c 174 .Which of the following statement is an accurate description of fuel injection piping used on diesel engines with a cylinder bore of 250 mm and above A. .The piping shall be so arranged to allow for uncomplicated removal of the fuel injection equipment and other associated components located on the cylinder head. B. .All high pressure piping shall be of the double lined type, with the outer leak off line suitable channeled to a dedicated tank

C. .All stored tanks connected to the leak off piping of fuel injection system shall be provided with high level alarms and sufficient means for emptying D. .The piping is to be effectively shielding and secured to prevent fuel or fuel mist from reaching a source of ignition on the engine or its surroundings Ans: d 175.In a diesel mechanical-type fuel pump; the delivery check value is opened by A. B. C. D. Ans.c 176 What is the term given to the process of breaking up fuel oil into very fine particles for better combustion? A Setting B Straining C Spraying D Atomizing Ans.d 177 Differential needle values used in fuel injectors are directly closed by A. B. C. D. Ans .B Cam action Spring force Fuel oil pressure Firing pressure push rod action cam action hydraulic action spring action

178 Diesel engine fuel oil leakage should be drained and additional precautions provide to A. B. C. D. .Return this oil to the proper storage tanker . prevent contamination of lubricating oil by fuel oil . as certain and accurate measurement of this leakage . drain cooling water system components

ans; b 179. Injection lack can be caused by A. B. C. D. ans ; c . improper tiling of intake values . setting of the pump plunger . compressibility of the fuel . position of the needle value

180. When is fuel is injected in to a cylinder of diesel engines A. B. C. D. ans; b 181. A diesel engine with a combustion chamber located between the crowns of two pistons is known as a\an A. . double acting engine B. . opposed piston engine C. .single acting engine D. . horizontal acting engine . before air in the cylinder is compressed . after air in the cylinder is compressed . after combustion gas in the cylinder have expanded . as air is taken in to the cylinder

ans ;b 182. The rate of pressure rise during the period following fuel ignition process in a diesel engine is influenced on chiefly by the A. B. C. D. ans d 183 An exhaust pipe from a internal combustion engine may not need to be insulated a. Installed on fishing vessels a. It is of the water jacketed type i. It is used as an emergency generator ii. Special provision is made by the chief engineer Ans b 184. the driving force of the propeller is transmitted to the A. B. C. D. ans d 185 In diesel engines the four basic intake compression and exhaust are performed once in A. Two crank shaft Revolution in a two stroke cycle engine B. Two power stroke in a two stroke cycle engine C. One power stroke in a two stroke cycle engine D. Two piston stroke in a two stroke cycle engine Ans d . bevel gear teeth . helically cut gear teeth . sleeve bearings . thrust bearing . percent of co2 . range of inflammability . theoretical fuel air ratio . length of the ignition delay period

186. fuel supply by each unit injector on a two stroke cycle engine acting diesel engine is directed in each cylinder at a very high pressure through the A. . high pressure fuel lines B. . spill deflector C. .check valve D. spray tip of the injector ans d 187 the main reason for using bimetallic piston rings is to A. B. C. D. Ans c 188. the time between injection and ignition of the fuel is known as A. B. C. D. ans d 189. the device used to limit engine torque at various engine speed is called as A. B. C. D. ans d . speed limiting governor . variable speed governor . constant speed governor . load limiting governor . turbulence lag . after burning ratio . pre ignition valve . ignition delay Increase in engine thermal efficiency Reduce specific fuel consumption Reduce the probability of ring fracture Allows for ring expansion

190.which characteristic of the otto cycle occur in the actual diesel cycle but not in the theoretical diesel cycle A. B. C. D. ans . d 191. What causes diesel fuel to be ignited in the cylinder of an operating diesel engine A. swirl plug B. Heat of compression C. Carburetor D. glow plug 192. the efficiency burning of the fuel in a diesel engine is dependent up on the A. temperature of compression B. atomization of the fuel C. penetration of the fuel D. all of the above Ans: D 193. The purpose of compressing the air within the cylinder of a diesel engine is to A. produce the heat for ignition B. decrease injection lag C. increase ignition delay . no pressure increase . rapid pressure decrease during combustion . rapid volume increase during combustion . no volume increase during combustion

D. aid in exhausting burnt gases Ans: A 194. The blower type crankcase ventilation system A. removes combustible gases from the crankcase B. prevents the formation of combustible gases in the crankcase C. cools lubricating oil D. improves cold weather starting Ans: A 195. The most important factor in engine performance is the actual power output at the end of the Crankshaft available for doing work. This is known as A. indicated horsepower B. brake horsepower C. net horsepower D. friction horsepower 196. A diesel engine which is rated for normal operation at a crankshaft speed of 800 RPM, is commonly Classed as a A. slow-speed diesel B. medium- speed diesel C. high- speed diesel D. constant- speed diesel

197. The bore of a diesel engine cylinder describes the A. swept volume of the cylinder B. inside diameter of the cylinder C. piston displacement in the cylinder D. length of the piston stroke Ans: B 198. Crankcase explosion relief valves should be of the A. return seating type B. spring centered type C. spring opened type D. duplex double acting type Ans: A 199. Diesel engine exhaust valve springs are under compression when they are A. wide open only B. partially open only C. closed only D. in any position Ans: D 200. Which of the factors listed has the greatest effect on the mechanical efficiency of a diesel engine? A. Temperature of the intake air B. Friction within the engine

C. Mechanical condition of the supercharger D. Mechanical condition of the turbocharger Ans: B 201. Which of the following statements describes the operating characteristics of a precombustion chamber? A. When fuel oil is injected into the precombution chamber, it does not need to be as finely Atomized as the fuel oil in diesel engines having direct injection B. When operating correctly, combustion should not occur in the precombustion chamber C. Engines which are designed with precombustion chamber are more likely to suffer blocked Nozzle holes, due to fuel oil impurities, than engines designed with direct injection D. Engines with precombustion chambers, which do not have an increased compression ratio, Are not as difficult to start when cold, as engines with direct injection Ans: A 202. Which of the following statements is correct concerning available astern power for diesel main propulsion systems? A. The astern power of the main propelling machinery is to provide for continuous operation astern

At 60% of the ahead rpm at rated speed B. Astern power is to be provided in a sufficient amount to secure proper control of the ship in all Normal circumstances C. For main propulsion systems without reversing gears, controllable pitch propellers or electric propulsion drive, running astern is not to lead to overload conditions D. Astern power available will be equal to ahead power when controllable pitch propellers are utilized, thus discounting the need for increased operating parameters Ans: B 203. A multi-orifice fuel injection nozzle is usually used with which of the listed types of combustion Chamber? A. Open combustion chamber B. Precombustion chamber C. Turbulence chamber D. Energy cell Ans: A 204. Combustion gases formed in the cylinder of a diesel engine are prevented from blowing past The piston by A. cylinder valves

B. compression rings C. piston skirts D. oil rings Ans: B 205. The flywheel reduces speed fluctuations by A. maintaining a constant rack setting B. Precombustion chamber C. Turbulence chamber D. Energy cell Ans: A 206. Opposed piston diesel engines are classified as A. two-stroke/cycle single acting B. two-stroke/cycle double acting C. four-stroke/cycle single acting D. four-stroke/cycle double acting Ans: B 207. In a single acting, two-stroke/cycle, diesel generator engine, the power impulse in an individual cylinder occurs A. once every crankshaft revolution B. once every two crankshaft revolutions C. once every piston stroke

D. twice every camshaft speed Ans: B 208. In an operating diesel engine, the sealing of the cylinder is the result of the compression rings being forced against the cylinder walls by A. oil pressure acting behind the ring B. compression pressure acting beneath the ring C. ring expansion from the heat of combustion D. combustion gas pressure acting behind the ring Ans: D 209. In a modern internal combustion diesel engine, the load carrying part of the engine is referred to as The A. bedplate or base B. Sump or oil pan C. cylinder block D. frame Ans: A 210. In diesel engines, hydraulic valve lifters are used to A. reduce valve gear pounding B. increase valve operating clearance C. obtain greater valve lift

D. create longer valve duration Ans: A 211. The purpose of piston ring end clearance is to A. allow the combustion gases to press the ring down on the land B. allow the combustion gases to get behind the ring and press it against the cylinder liner C. prevent bucking and breaking of the ring D. aid in protecting the oil film Ans: C 212. What is the purpose of a hydraulic tappet clearance adjuster? A. Insures proper pressure in a hydraulic system B. Allows for constant contact between the valve stem and the rocker arm regardless of whether The engine is cold or warm C. Eliminates need to remove valve springs D. Provides far easier removal of the valve cage Ans: B

213. What is the swept volume per cylinder per revolution of a six cylinder, twostroke/cycle diesel engine with a 580 mm bore and a 1700 mm stroke operating at 100RPM? A. 0.45 cubic meters (450 L) B. 0.90 cubic meters (900 L)

C. 2.7 cubic meters (2700 L) D. 5.4 cubic meters (5400 L) Ans: B 214. In a unit injector the amount of fuel that will be forced through the spray nozzle on each stroke of The plunger depends on A. the pump supply pressure B. the slope of the fuel cam C. how the plunger is rotated D. the number of sleeve segments engaged with the rack Ans: C 215. The intake and exhaust valves used in a diesel engine are returned to their seats by A. push rod pressure B. spring force C. combustion pressure D. exhaust pressure Ans: B 216. Valve cages are used on some large diesel engines to A. reduce wear on the valve stem B. permit the use of alloy valve seat materials C. reduce heat transfer from the valve seat

D. facilitate valve removal for servicing Ans: D 217. In a diesel engine, an integral liner is one in which the cooling water 1 flows through the cylinder liner jackets. 2 touches the outer slide of the liner A. 1 only B. 2 only C. both 1 and 2 D. neither 1 nor 2 Ans: A 218. A diesel engine indicator diagram has an area of 22 cm2 and a length of 12.5 cm. If the scale of the Indicator spring is 1 mm=1kg/cm2 , what is the cylinder mean effective pressure? A. 17.6 kg/cm2 B. 27.5 kg/cm2 C. 34.5 kg/cm2 D. 36.0 kg/cm2 Ans: A

219. Which of the listed bearing types is an example of a solid bearing? A. Piston gudgeon pin bushing B. Turbine bearing C. Spring bearing D. Diesel engine main bearing Ans: A 220. In which of the scavenging methods listed will the exhaust valve be located in the cylinder head? A. Return flow B. Uniflow C. Cross flow D. Direct flow Ans: B 221. A method of finishing diesel engine cylinder walls to aid in the proper ring seating and lubrication is Known as A. ribbed honing B. angled honing C. cross hatch honing D. doubled honing Ans: C 222. The device most commonly used to measure exhaust gas temperature of cylinders is a

A. pyrometer B. calorimeter C. dynamometer D. tachometer Ans: A 223. The rate of pressure rise during the period following fuel ignition in a diesel engine is influenced by the length of the ignition delay period due to the A. valve overlap B. volumetric efficiency C. turbulence of the air change D. fuel efficiency Ans: C 224. The lower water seal on a diesel engine wet cylinder liner must allow for liner axial movement. This Seal is most commonly a A. neoprene O-ring B. soft copper gasket C. precision ground flange joint D. flexible metallic seal ring 225. Which of the devices listed is installed on a diesel engine to isolate some of the crankshaft Vibrations caused by rotational and reciprocating forces?

A. Planetary gear set B. Torsional vibration damper C. Friction clutch D. Air bladder clutch Ans: B 226. Differential type fuel oil nozzles in a diesel engine are closed directly by . 1 spring Pressure 2 fuel oil pressure A. 1 only B. 2 only C. both 1 and 2 D. neither 1 nor 2 Ans: A 227. Modern marine diesel engines equipped with mechanical fuel injection operate on a combustion cycle which is A. entirely constant pressure B. entirely constant volume C. combination of constant volume and constant pressure D. combination of constant temperature and constant pressure Ans: C 228. An efficient seal between the cylinder block and cylinder heads on many diesel engines is obtained

With A. graphite packing B. sealing compound C. lubricating oil D. gaskets Ans: D 229. For a four-stroke/cycle medium-speed diesel engine, fuel injection commences from 7 to 26 Crankshaft degrees before top dead center. After fuel injection commences, how many degrees Does the cranshaft rotate before the exhaust valve push rod moves up? A. 21-31 B. 45-55 C. 66-76 D. 106-115 Ans: C 230. Oil for piston cooling is delivered through the connecting rod to a compartment in the piston head, the distributed as a result of piston motion, and finally drained to the crankcase through one or more holes or pipes. This procedure is known as the A. splash method B. spray method

C. shaker method D. throw off method Ans: C

231. Poor timing of the fuel injection system is simillar to the effects of poor..? A. metering of the fuel flow B.control the rate of fuel injection C.atomization of the fuel D.distribution of the fuel Ans:B 232.The breaking-up of fuel as it enters a diesel engine cylinder is known as..? A.airification B.vapourisation C.atomization D.gasification Ans:C 233. The exhaust ports of a diesel engine using the crossflow scavenging method are opened and closed by the? A.reciprocating motion of the exhaust valves B.rotary motion of the camshaft

C.reciprocating motion of the piston D.developped differential Ans:C 234.Which of the bearings listed below is most widely used for the main and connecting rod bearings of a Modern high speed diesel engine? A.steel lined B.poured babbit self alligning C.split roller D.Precison insert Ans:D 235.Valve rotators commonly used on which of the listed diesel engine cylinder head valves? A.Air starting B.Cylinder relief C.Exhaust D.Blowdown Ans:C 236.Exhaust valve openings in a diesel engine cylinder head are made as large as practical to ? A.Increase back pressure during the exhaust process B.facilitate periodic replacement of the valves C.reducing the pumping loss associated with the scavenging

D.reduce tension on valve springs Ans:C 237.Piston cooling fins are located..? A.atop the pisto ring B.beneath of the piston ring C.at the base of the piston skirt D.inside the cylinder liner cooling water jacket Ans:B 238.Diesel engine muffflers reduce noise by..? A.packing muffler chambers B.the use of long head pipes C.the use of zinc electrodes D.changing exhaust gas direction Ans:D 239.In the cylinder head of a two stroke/cycle diesel engine,valves are used for.? A.air intake B.a fuel outlet C.cooling water inlets D.exhausting combustion gas Ans:D

240.Which of the listed charecteristics is common to both wet and dry type diesel engine exhaust mufflers? A.Both mufflers contain moving parts B.They never requires any maintenance C.They function as spark arresters D.Both have a dust collecting chamber Ans:C 241.The intake ports of atwo stroke/cycle diesel engineare opened andclosed by the actions of the..? A.cam shaft B.Piston movement C.exhaust valves D.vertical drive Ans:B 242.Compared to four stroke /cycle engines,two stroke/cycle engines have the disadvantages of? A.less oven torque B.higher cylinder head temperatures C.fewer power strokes per revolution D.greater weight/size requirements Ans:D 243.Which of the listed conditions will affect the mean effective pressure the most in the cylinders of a

diesel engine..? A.TBN of the lubricating oil B.temperature of the lube oil C.completeness in the mixing of the fuel and air D.temperature of the cooling(sea)water Ans:C 244.In comparing engines of equal horse power,higher exhaust gas temperatures occur in a/an.? A.opposed piston engine B.double-acting engine C.two-stroke/cycle engine D. four-stroke/cycle engine Ans:D 245.The primary purpose of the open combustoin chamber used in diesel engine is to.? A.improve piston cooling B.stratify the fuel charge C.prevent carbon build up D.provide the place for a combustion Ans:D 246.Which of the bearings listed are most widely used for the main and connecting rod bearings of a diesel A.roller

B.sleeve C.Precision insert D.mechanical lubricators Ans:C 247.Which of the following is an example of a solid bearing? A.piston pin bushing B.Turbo-generator turbine bearing C.Spring bearing D.Thrust bearing Ans:A 248.The upper section of a piston is callled the.? A.land B.sklit C.crown D.plate Ans:C 249.In a diesel engine,the main bearings are used between the ? A.connecting rod and the crank shaft B.gudgeon pin and the connecting rod C.camshaft and the engine block D.crankshaft and the engine block Ans:D

250.Which of the listed bearing installations is subjected to swinging motion..? A.Crankshaft journal B.Crankpin bearings C.gudgeon pin bearings D.aluminium piping with expansion loops Ans:C 251.Which of the bearings listed is most widely used for main and connecting rod bearings of modern Diesel engines..? A.Steel-lined B.Poured babbit self-alligning C.Split roller D.Precion insert Ans:D 252.The proper location for journal bearing oil grooves is.? A.in the region of the load bearing surfaces B.as a side relief where the two shells meet C.at the bottom of the bearing D.halfway between bottom and where shells meet Ans:B

253.Fuel is admitted to a diesel engine cylinder through the ..? A.intake valves B.carburetor C.exhaust ports D.scrape oil and carbon deposits off the cylinder deposits off the cylinder valves Ans:D 254.Directional intake ports in diesel engines are used to? A.reduce air charge turbulence B.induce air swirl C.deflect hot combustion gas away from the valves D.lock all safety interlock switches closed Ans:B 255.Telescopic pipes to the piston of a large slow speed main propulsion diesel engine are designed to Prevent..? A.excessive crankcase pressure B.excessive lube oil temperature C.contamination of the lube oil water D.All of above are correct Ans:C 256.How are hydraulic tappet clearance adjusters on diesel engine rocker arm assemblies lubricated?

A.Cup-fed grease B.Sealed self lubricators C.metered hydraulic oil supply D.losses to escapingexhaust gases Ans:D 257.A large low speed main propulsion diesel engine uses sea water to directly cool the A.cylinder heads B.exhaust valves C.scavenging air D.injectors Ans:C 258.The porpose of an oil mist detector in a main propulsion diesel engine is to warn of. A.excessive mist density in the crankcase B.excessively high crank case vaccum C.excessively high bearing temperature D.excessive carbon build up in the lube oil Ans:A 259.one method of constructing large marine diesel engines and the total engine frame weight is through. A.casting interlocking components reducing

B.welding sections to form sections for assembly C. integrel components D.mainshaft flexible coupling Ans:B 260.which of the fuel injection ststems listed uses aspring loaded differential spray needle valve and an individual pump for each cylinder? A.common rail injection B.air injection C.jerk pump injection D.distributor injection Ans:C 261.concerning diesel propelled vessels,the astern power is to provide for continuous operation astern A.equal to that available for ahead operation B.at 70 percent of the ahead rpm at rated speed C.while underway and under all normal conditions D.at 70 percent of the ahead rpm of average continuous sea speed Ans:B 262.The crankcase of many diesel engines are kept under a slight vaccum by the A.scavenging action of the piston B.crankcase exhausr fan

C.gland exhausting manometer D.piston type vacum pumptaking action off a differential manometer Ans:B 263.Which of the fuel systems listed combines the injectoin pump and the injection nozzle in one housing? A.common rail B.unit injector C.air injection D.hydraulic governing Ans:B 264.In a unit injector,an upper helix and lower helix are machined in the lower part of the punger for A.facillating plunger B.positioning the control valve C.urating metering of the lube oil D. eliminating injection lag Ans:C 265.Regarding a diesel engine crankcase,the general arrangement and the installation should preclude the possibility of A.free entry of air to the crankcase B.water entering the crankcase while engine washdowns the being performed

C.excessive oil leakage during period of increased blowby D.all the above Ans:A 266.In a diesel engine internal combustion causes the piston to be moved by A.the pressure of the gases developed B.the admission of the fuel and air in to the combustion space only C.specially designed parts connected to a shaft D.the concept of reciprocity Ans:A 267.what function is provided by the crank case ventillation system onsome diesel engines..? A.increase the sludge forming tendency of lube oil B.prevents the accumulation of combustible gases C. improves lube oil cooling D.improves cold wheather starting Ans:B 268.For diesel engine piston coling lubricating oil can be supplied to the pistons by a/an.? A.oil spray B.oil bath C.oil control rings D.drilled passage through the camshaft

Ans:A 269.The purpose of the delivery checkvalve used in diesel fuel injection jerk pump is to.? A.assist in a quick cutoff of fuel injection B.allow oil backflow from the injector to the helix C.reduce fuel oil pressure between injection strokes D.meter the quantity of the oil delivered Ans:A 270.In a two stroke /cycle diesel engine the camshafts rotates at .? A.twice the crankshaftspeed B.half the crankshaft speed C.the same speed as crankshaft D.a speed indipendent of the crankshaft Ans:C 271.The primary function of a fuel delivery check valve aseembly to ..? A.deliver proper fuel quantity to the injection nozzle B.provide rapid fuel injection cutoff C.control fuel quantity entering the pump body D.control fuel pressure delivered to the combustion chamber Ans:B 272.For any piston ring to operate smoothly without scuffing the ring must be A.of a material harder than the cylinder liner

B.property lubricated C.preventing from compressing D. prevented from rotating during engine operation Ans:B 273. A.fed into cylinder B.thrown off from main bearing C.supplied from wick fed drip lubricator D.flow from cenrrifugal or banjo oiler Ans-A 274. A.type of piston rings B.pressure of fuel system C.size of plunger spring D.design of combustion chamber Ans-D 275. The delivery valve installed in a port and helix fuel injection pump is designed to ___________ A. maintain constant pressure in the discharge line B. maintain a column of fuel in the line C. accurately meter the quantity the fuel injection D. close with hydraulic action.

Ans -B 276. The shape of a diesel engine cam determines the ____________ A. points of opening and closing of the valve B. velocity of opening and closing of the valve C. amount of the valve lift from its seat D. all of the above. Ans-D 277. Additional explosion relief valves are fitted on separate spaces of the crankcase such as gear or chain cases for camshaft or similar drives when the ___________ A. gross volume of such spaces exceeds 0.6+D340 cubic meters B. possibility of explosion exists due to formation of volatile gases C. unit is operating in extreme overload conditions. D. gross volume of such space exceeds 0.6 cubic meter. Ans- A 278. if all other conditions such as bore, stroke, speed and mean effective pressures are equal, a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine will develop approximately ___________ A. the same indicated horsepower as a four stroke/cycle engine B. one half the indicated horsepower as a four stroke/cycle engine C. twice the indicated horsepower as a four stroke/cycle engine D. one power stroke for every two crankshaft revolutions Ans-C

279. in order to reverse the rotation of a two-stroke/cycle loop scavenged, direct reversing, propulsion diesel engine, the cam positions must be changed for the ______________ A. starting air and fuel pump B. piston cooling pumps C. exhaust valves D. all of the above Ans-A 280. A viscous damper, as used on a marine diesel, is a sealed precision built device which dampens the torsional vibrations in the ______________ A. camshaft B. flywheel C. crankshaft D. thrust shaft Ans-C 281. the rotary motion of a diesel engine crankshaft is obtained from the up and down motion of the piston via the ____________ A.camshaft B. reduction gears C. rocker arm D. connecting or piston rod Ans-D

282. indirect cooling of fuel injector nozzle holders for diesl engines is accomplished primarily by ___________ A. heat conduction into the injected fuel oil B. heat conduction into the water jaclet wall C. water circulation through passages in the holder D. fuel oil circulation through passages in the holder Ans-B 283. Diesel engine main and connecting rod precision bearings are made in halves. Each half exceeds one half the bearing circumference by a small amount. The small amount is termed as _____________ A. clearance B. crush C. pitch D. thrust Ans-B 284. The port-and-helix metering pumps, used in diesel fuel injection systems, are usually designed to produce a constant beginning and a variable ending of fuel injection. These pumps are usually ______ A. timed for port opening B. timed for port closing C. controlled by rack movement D. controlled by plunger stroke Ans-B

285. The end of a fuel injection in a port-and-helix metering pump can be controlled by ___________ A. uncovering a fuel port in the pump barrel B. covering a fuel port in the pump barrel C. closing the fuel pump delivery valve D. opening the fuel pump delivery valve Ans-A 286. The main reason counterweights are added to crankshaft is to ___________ A. reduce piston side thrust B. reduce crankshaft end thrust C. provide uniform loading and wear of main bearings D. increase the strength of crank webs Ans-C 287. For a given size engine , the two stroke/cycle diesel engine will deliver more power than a four stroke/cycle engine because ___________ A. it has longer power stroke B. more air gets into the cylinder each stroke C. it develops twice as many power strokes at the same speed D. higher combustion pressure is developed Ans-C 288. In a jerk pump, the amount of fuel that will be forced through the spray nozzle on each upward stroke of the plunger depends on ______________

A. the pump supply pressure B. the slope of the fuel cam C. how the plunger is rotated D. the number of sleeve segments engaged with the rack Ans-C 289. Moder marine diesel engines using mechanical fuel operate on a combustion cycle which is ____ A. a combination of constant volume and constant pressure B. a combination of constant temperature and constant poressure C. entirely constant pressure D. entirely constant volume Ans-A 290. The amount of fuel delivered by the unit injector is controlled by the __________ A. camshaft B. main spring C. rack position D. nozzle orifice size Ans-C 291. The diesel engine valve subjected to most severe conditions of service is the _________ A. cylinder exhaust valve B. air starting valve

C. air inlet valve D. cylinder relief valve Ans-A 292. For a given fuel, a change in the compression ratio will effect the ignition lag by which of the listed means? A. an increase in compression ratio will increase the ignition lag B. an increase in compression ratio will decrease the ignition lag C. a decrease in compression ratio will decrease the ignition lag D. a decrease in compression ratio will increase the ignition lag. Ans-B 293. The lower section of the piston is called the ____________ A. land B. skirt C. crown D. plate Ans-C 294. What is the function of an engines stationary parts? A. to add power to the engine B. to keep engine firmly attached to its supporting base C. to keep moving engine parts in their proper relative positions D. to rotate the crankshaft Ans-C

295. Fuel oil discharged to the diesel engine cylinder is atomized at the ________ A. turbocharger B. injector nozzle tip C. carburetor D. fuel oil pump Ans-B 296. Proper dispersion of fuel in a diesel engine cylinder is dependent upon the ____________ A. injection pressure B. shape of combustion space C. turbulence in combustion shape D. all of the above Ans-D 297. In a diesel engine, crosshatch on the liner surface aids in i) rapid ring seating A. I only is correct B. ii only is correct C. both I and ii are correct D. neither I or ii are correct Ans- C 298. Why is it necessary to compress the air chargers in the cylinders of a diesel engine? ii) the retention of lube oil

A. to ignite the fuel B. to insure pumping losses are held to a minimum C. to increase fuel consumption D. to keep exhaust temperature low. Ans-A 299. Which of the following statements concerning a closed type fuel injection nozzle is true? A. the hole type of a closed nozzle is self cleaning B. multi-hole type nozzles are only suitable for use in engines with precombustion chambers C. most closed nozzles open inward under the pressure acting on the differential area of the needle valve D. the pintle type nozzles are most susceptibleto carbon deposits building up in and around the orfice Ans-C 300. Many diesel engine exhaust valves are being constructed with hollow stems filled sodium in order to _________ A. increase overall valve strength due to the high gas pressure B. provide added wear protection against todays corrosive quality of fuel C. assist in dissipating heat due to extreme operating temperatures D. reduce the overall weight of the valve thus helping eliminate valve spring surge and hammering Ans-C

301. Turbulence of the compressed air charge in a diesel engine increases __________ A. ignition lag B. piston side thrust C. the efficiency of the engine D. compression pressure Ans-C 302. Thin bronze rings are inserted in the face of some chromium plated piston rings to __________ A. promote piston ring seating in the cylinder B. prevent rapid wear on the ring face C. provide better lubrication of the piston ring D. produce an even glaze on the cylinder Ans-A 303. In the Otto cycle, the fuel/air mixture is ignited at what point and by what means? A. at TDC by heat generated by compression B. just before TDC by heat generated by compression C. just before TDC by spark ignition D. at TDC by spark ignition Ans-C 304. Critical speed in diesel engines occurs when engine torque pulsations become___________

A. opposed to the crankshaft rocking couple B. resonant with the crankshaft natural frequency C. critical fore and aft crankshaft vibrations D. horizontal whipping motions of the crankshaft Ans-B 305. A diesel engine piston ring face is in direct contact with the ______________ A. top of the ring groove B. cylinder liner oil film C. bottom of the ring groove D. back of the ring groove Ans-B 306. A secondary function of diesel engine piston ring is to_________ A. reduce friction losses in the engine B. absorb the piston side thrust C. prevent cylinder liner wear D. prevent excess lubricant from reaching the combustion space Ans-D 307. Fuel is ignited in a diesel engine cylinder by_________ A. a spark plug B. injectors C. the heat of compression

D. increasing jacket water temperatures Ans-C 308. Barrel face, tapper face, grooved and chrome plated are all types of diesel engine ________ A. pistons B. piston rings C. piston skirts D. cylinder liners Ans-D 309. Injectors for use with heavy fuel oil must be cooled by either water or light oil to________ A. prevent heat corrosion to internal components B. increase fuel delivery rate and economy C. prevent preignition D. avoid carbonisation of the nozzle tips Ans-D 310. Which of the equal power diesel engines listed, running at the same speed, is least affected by exhaust back pressure? A. a four stroke/cycle V type engine B. a two stroke/cycle V type engine C. an in-line two stroke/cycle engine D. an opposed piston engine Ans A

311.

In a diesel engine,the time taken to heat fuel particle,turn them in vapour ,and bring about combustion called A.Injection lag B.ignition delay C.compression ignition D.turbulance lag

Ans -B 312. In a diesel engine ,the contact surfaces of the piston compression rings are those in contact with the ________ 1:back of the ring groove,2:bottom of the ring groove A.1 only B.2 only C.both 1 and 2 D.neither 1 nor 2 Ans-B 313. Thermal energy produced by an internal combustion engine is transformed into_____________ A.combustion energy B.internal energy C.external energy D.mechanical energy Ans-D

314.

The reason some two-stroke/cycle ,diesel engine piston ring are pinned to prevent rotation is_____________ A.cylinder lubricant is spread more evenly on cylinder wall B.less blow-by as the pin seal the end gap C.to keep ring ends from catching in the scavenging port D.to prevent more even ring wear.

Ans-C

315.

Oil control rings are designed with slotted holes to ____________ A. decrease ring contact area and cut down heat transfer B. decrease contact pressure between ring and cylinder wall C. increase contact pressure between ring and cylinder wall D. permit excess oil to drain back to the slump____________ Ans D

316. Pre combustion chambers differ from turbulence chambers in that precombustion chambers____________ A. B. C. D. allow fuel injection directly into the space above the piston do not contain the fuel injector nozzle tip contain the major portion of the total clearance value contain a small portion of the total clearance volume

Ans D 317. The primary purpose of oil control rings on a diesel engine piston is to ______________

A. provide a reservoir for cylinder lubrication B. pump oil into the combustion space for cylinder cooling C. prevent excessive lubricating oil consumption D. allow hydraulic oil film formation on the cylinder Ans C

318. The compression ratio of a diesel engine refers to the ratio between the_________________ A. piston area to connecting rod length B. cylinder volumes at top dead center and at bottom deae center C. engine cylinder size to piston size D. the number of compression strokes for a given horsepower Ans B 319. In describing basic diesel engine operation, the term event refers to_________________ A. B. C. D. the production of high pressure gases the removal of expended combustion gases the admission of air to the cylinder All of the above

Ans. D 320. The ratio of the break horsepower to the indicated horsepower of a diesel engine is its_____________ A. thermal efficiency

B. mechanical efficiency C. break thermal efficiency D. volumetric efficiency 321. Slots are provided in a diesel engine piston oil scrapper ring to _________________ A. decrease piston side thrust pressure B. allow for thermal expansion of the ring within the ring land C. permit drainage of excess oil to the engine slump D. make it more flexible for scrapping cylinder surfaces 322. The function of the piston compression rings used in a diesel engine is to _____________ A. seal the space between the piston and liner B. transmit heat from the piston to the cylinder line C. reduce the amount of combustion gas blow- by D. all the above Ans D 323. How are the pressure and temperature affected in a diesel engine cylinder during compression? A. pressure and temperature decrease B. pressure and temperature increase C. pressure decrease and temperature increase D. pressure increase and temperature decrease Ans B

324. Modern marine diesel engines using mechanical fuel injection, operate on a combustion cycle which is_______________ A. a combustion of constant volume and constant pressure B. a combustion of constant temperature and constant pressure C. entirely constant pressure D. entirely constant volume Ans. A 325. if the compression ratio is increased on any diesel engine ____________ A. the expansion ratio will decrease B. combustion will be slowed down C. thermal efficiency will decrease D. thermal efficiency will increase Ans. D 326. Piston compression rings used in a diesel engine function to____________ A. transfer heat from the cylinder to the piston B. scrape oil from the sides of the piston C. seal the combustion space from the crankcase D. prevent any piston contact with the cylinder liner Ans C 327. At bottom dead center. The centerline of the connecting rod usually coincides with the____________ A. angularity of the piston motion

B. inertia moment from the piston C. centerline of the cylinder D. centerline of the king pin Ans C 328. A diesel engine when____________ A. the valve is open B. the piston is at top dead center C. the valve is closed D all the above. And D 329. A piston is said to be at top dead center when it is _________________ A. opening the exhaust ports B. placed on the top of the engine along its centerline C. farthest from the cylinder head D. nearest to the cylinder head Ans D 330. The purpose of the flywheel is to____________________ A. provide energy to operate the engine between power impulses B. neutralize the primary inertia force on the crankcase C. reduce the shock of starting loads on the main bearings D. prevent the engine from operating at critical speed exhaust valve spring is under compression

Ans A 331. A seven cylinder, two stroke/cycle, single acting diesel engine with a cylinder indicated horsepower calculated as 1350kW and brake horsepower measured at 7466kW has a mechanical efficiency of____________________ A. 0.18 B.0.55 C. 0.79 D.0.83 Ans C 332.What is the metric brake horsepower developed per cylinder by an 83% efficient, six cylinder, two stroke/cycle diesel engine with acylinder constant of 0.998 and a mean effective pressure of 15 kg/cm2 at 100RPM? A. 1497kW B. 1242kW C. 1116kW D.926kW Ans. B 333. In a diesel engine by____________________ A. push rods B. piston rods C. connecting rods D. piston guides pistons are attached to the crankshaft

Ans C 334. One advantage of dry cylinder liners used in a diesel engine is the _______________ A. lower thermal expansion rates than wet liners B. greater heat transwer rate than wet liners C. greater wear resistance than wet liners D. procedure to replace dry liners is simple than for wet liners Ans D 335. Vibrations from diesel engines and engine driven equipment are isolated from the hull structure by__________________________ A. torsional vibration dampers B. harmonic balancers C. a detuner flywheel D. flexible engine mountings. Ans D 336. Which of the following statements concerning fuel atomization in a diesel engine cylinder is correct? A. The greater the atomization , the greater the penetration B. the greater the atomization, the lesser the penetration C. the degree of atomization has nothing to do with the degree of penetration D. Atomization and penetration are one and the same. Ans B

337. The most rapid period of fuel combustion occurring in a diesel cylinder should begin just before the piston reaches top dead center and____________________ A. when fuel injection has been completed B. when fuel vaporizarion has been completed C. should continue through the afterburning period D. should be completed after the top dead center Ans. D 338. When comparing different fuels for different engines, the ignition quality of diesel fuel oils becomes a less critical consideration as______________ A. the amount of lube oil additives increase B. piston speed increase C. injection pressure decrease D. engine speed decrease. Ans. D 339. The power developed by a large slow- speed main propulsion diesel engine is dependent upon the________________ A. quantity of air it takes in and retains in the cylinders during the given time period B. proportion of trapped air that is utilized in the combustion process C. Thermodynamic efficiency of the engine cycles. D . all the above Ans. D

340. An indicator card or pressure volume diagram, shows graphically the______________ A. relationships between pressure and volume during one stroke of the engine B. relationships between pressure and volume during one cycle of the engine C. volume of the engine D. compression ratio of the engine Ans B 341. Cylinder linings constructed as an integral part of the block, are characterized by which of the following disadvantages_____________________ A. they conduct heat poorly B. they are expensive C. they cannot be replaced D. they require special tools for removal Ans. C 342. One end of a diesel engine cylinder is sealed by the cylinder head and the other end by the _________________ A. crankcase B. piston C. cylinder liner D. crank cheek Ans. B 343. Where is the change for an air starting system stored? A. Air compressor

B. pressurized tank C. Distributor assembly D. cylinder check value Ans. B 344. Maximum power of a diesel engine is attained_______________ A. when the engine RPM is pulled down by overload B. at rated engine RPM C. at 95% of rated engine RPM D. at 95% of a properly adjusted governor RPM with the engine under full road Ans B 345. Many cast iron pistons are designed with heat dams, which serve to____________________ A. keep piston crown temperatures elevated for smoother combustion B. reduce the possibility of overheating the top compression ring C. help retain the heat of compression to prevent the ignition delay D. help retain the heat of compression to prevent combustion knock Ans B 346. During the fuel injection period, fuel pressure must exceed cylinder gas pressure to _________________ A. ensure penetration and distribution of the fuel to the combustion chamber B. ensure the needle valve is flushed clean during each injection C. prevent combustion gas blowback into the open needle valve

D. prevent reflected pressure waves when the needle valve closes. Ans A 347. The difference in crank lead between the upper and lower cranks of an opposed piston engine causes the lower crankshaft to________________ A. receive less power than the upper shaft B. receive more power than the upper shaft C. operate the fuel oil booster pump D. operate faster than the upper shaft Ans B 348. Telescopic pipes to thye piston of a large slow speed main propulsion diesel engine are designed to prevent_____________________ A. excessive crankcase pressure B. excessive lube oil temperature C. contamination of the lube oil by water D. contamination of the cooling water by the lube oil. Ans C 349 The exhaust system for a turbocharged two stroke/cycle diesel engine functions to___________ A. B. C. D. discharge exhaust gases and smoke B. furnish energy to the turbocharger Reduce engine room noise All of the above

Ans D

350 which of the diesel engine exhaust mufflers listed is usually equipped with a spark arrestor ? A. B. C. D. A wet type exhaust muffler A constant pressure muffler A dry type exhaust muffler A constant velocity muffler

Ans C 351. when monitoring diesel engine performance; the most useful instrument to use is the ___________ A. dwel tachometer B. exhaust gas pyrometer C. fuel flow rate meter D. exhaust gas analyzer Ans: B 352. The exhaust system of a diesel engine is usually designed to remove exhaust gas and to ________ A. provide exhaust back pressure B. prevent exhaust gas emission C. power a reciprocating supercharger D. muffle exhaust gas noise Ans. D

353. water jackets is placed around the exhaust manifold propulsion diesel engine to______________

A. reduce heat radiation to engine room B. aid in preventing turbocharger overheating C. condense and drain moisture from exhaust gases D. dampen exhaust gas pulsations in the manifold Ans. A

354. In a two stroke /cycle diesel engine, the exhaust gases are expelled from the cylinder by the ____________ A. exhaust manifold B. valve bridge C. pressure of the fresh air charge D. valve adjusting gear Ans. C

355. Diesel engine mufflers or silencers reduce the engine exhaust noise by _____________ A. B. C. D. Passing the exhaust through head pipes. Diffusing exhaust vibrations through activated carbon baffles. Increasing the exhaust velocity. Reducing the exhaust gas velocity.

Ans. D

356. The exhaust gases in a super charged two stroke/cycle diesel engine are expelled from the cylinder by______________

A. B. C. D. Ans D

Pumping action of piston. Pressure of the fuel charge. Vacuum developed in the manifold. Pressure of the fresh air charge.

357. Exhaust gases in a through_________________ A. the air valves B. exhaust ports or valves C. direct to atmosphere. Ans C

two-stroke/diesel

engine

are

discharged

358. A disadvantage of two-stroke/diesel engine cycle is ______________ A. more power strokes per revolution B. the use of scavenge air C. more complicated valve gear. D. higher working temperature of the piston and cylinder Ans D

359. Many diesel engine have pistons with concave heads to ________________ A. decrease air turbulence and increase fuel mixing B. increase air turbulence and improve fuel mixing C. prevent fuel afterburning when injection ends D. prolong fuel after burn when injection ends Ans B 360. In a single acting diesel engine, the cylinder liner area that is most difficult to lubricate is __________ A. major thrust side B. minor thrust side C. top circumference D. bottom circumference Ans C 361. Additional explosion relief valves are fitted on separate spaces of the crankcase, such as gear or chain cases for camshaft or similar drives when the________________ A. overall volume of spaces exceeds 0.6mm B. possibility of explosions exists due to formation of volatile gases C. Unit is operating in extreme overload conditions D. gross volume of such space exceeds 0.6 cubic metres Ans D

362. Which of the following design features will reduce the possibility of overheating the top compression rings of a cast iron piece? A. the top ring is located as close to the piston rim as possible B. the inside surface area of the piston rounded C. a nickel bearing insert is cast into top ring groove D. a heat dam design is sometimes used in the piston head Ans D

363. Which of the following statements concerning the factors affecting the ignition delay is correct? A. an increase in air intake temperature will increase ignition delay B. an increase in coolant temperature will increase ignition delay C. an increase in combustion chamber turbulence will increase ignition delay D. an increase in compression ratio will increase ignition delay Ans B

364. Which of the following statements is a description of the combustion cycle? A. the mechanics of engine operation B. the number of piston strokes involved C. the heat engine process which produces the force to initiate the movements of engine parts D. the mechanical equivalent of heat Ans C

365. In a large slow speed propulsion diesel engine, the force applied to the piston is ________ A. against the crosshead during power stroke away from the crosshead during compression stroke B. against the crosshead during the compression stroke and away from the crosshead during the power stroke C. against the crosshead during the power and compression strokes D. away from the crosshead during the power and the compression strokes Ans C

366. One disadvantage of the use of dry liner wall over a wet liner is ___________ A. it is fitted with neoprene O-rings B. the honing process makes it easier to maintain the desired oil film C. there is less likelihood of water leaking into the combustion space D. it fits more loosely due to decrease in heat transfer through the composite wall Ans C

367. Which of the construction technique listed is used on new piston ring to facilitate run in or seating? A. special rings facings, such as thin bearing surface of anti friction metal B. the oil control ring face is machined at an angle of 10 degrees

C. the ring diameter, when free is machined slightly smaller than the cylinder bore to allow for expansion at high combustion D. oil rings maintain continuous oil film Ans A

368. In diesel engines the four basic events(intake, compression, power, exhaust) are performed once in ___________ A. one complete crankshaft revolution in a two stroke cycle engine B. two crankshafts revolutions in a two stroke engine C. two power strokes in a two stroke cycle engine D. two piston strokes in a four stroke cycle engine

Ans A

369. The intake air ducting to a diesel engine should not draw from an area from the deck where flammable vapors released from tanks are present, because _______________ A. flammable vapors will accelerate corrosion of the turbocharger B. the engine may over speed and the normal governor or over speed trip will not be able to secure the engine C. the flammable vapors will result in excessively rich mixture which will increase the brake horse power out D. all of the above Ans B

370. In a two stroke cycle, opposed piston, diesel engine, one crankshaft operates several crank angles in advance to the other crankshaft to _______________ A. allow the exhaust port to open and close before inlet port closes B. allow the scavenge ports to open and close simultaneously with the exhaust ports C. prevent the exhaust piston from reaching TDC and BDC before the intake piston D. prevent scavenge air pressure build up in cylinders Ans A

371. The purpose of delivery check valve used in diesel fuel injection jerk is to ___________ /assist in quick cut-off of fuel injection, II. Prevent fuel oil back flow from the injection pump A. I only B. II only C. both I and II D. neither I or II Ans A

372. In a diesel engine, what is the advantage of precombustion chambers over the open type combustion chambers? I. Precombustion chamber permits coarser fuel atomization II. Precombustion chamber allows lower fuel injection pressure

A. I only B. II only C. both I and II D. neither I or II Ans C

373. A large slow speed main propulsion engine must be operated with one cylinder secured. When the engine was stopped the affected cylinder ended in a position preventing the engine from being restarted. Which of the following actions should be taken? A. turn the shaft with the turning gear while applying starting air. B. Increase starting air pressure by small amounts until the air pressure is high enough to crank the engine over. C. Admit starting air in the direction opposite to the desired direction, then restart in the desired direction. D. open the indicator cocks on those cylinders on compression and apply increased starting air pressure. Ans C

374. The average air temperature of a two stroke cycle engine with turbine driven supercharger is lower than a similar four stroke cycle diesel engine at equal loads because ______________ A. two stroke cycle diesel engines have higher M.E.P than four stroke cycle diesel engines B. four stroke cycle diesel engine exhaust is cooled by scavenging air.

C. two stroke cycle diesel engines have lower MEP than four stroke cycle diesel engines D. the opening of the two stroke cycle diesel operation ports occurs much later than in four stroke cycle diesel engines.

Ans C

375. oil control rings used in two stroke cycle diesel engines are located near the bottom of the piston skirt in order to ________________ A. increase the liner area covered by the oil film B. maintain an oil film on the lower liner where scuffing is prevalent C. keeps excess oil way from intake and exhaust ports D. helps cushion the piston side skirt by providing hydrodynamic oil wedge Ans C

376. Which of the following functions represents the function of compression rings installed at the top of the diesel engine piston? A. transmit heat from piston to cylinder liner B. Control the amount of lube oil burned in the combustion chamber C. Prevent damage to piston ring groove inserts by acting as a heat dam D. Dissipate combustion chamber gas pressure by channelling it through the ring gap Ans A

377. In a diesel engine , the time period between fuel injection and ignition is usually defined as _________________ A. injection duration B. ignition timing C. precombustion lag D. ignition delay Ans D

MOTOR OPERATION

378. A loose crosshead plunger assembly in a meeting or a proportioning pump will cause_____________ A. rapid wear on the crosshead B. damage to the stroke arrangement arm C. rapid wear on the plunger packing D. damages to the fuel compensator valve Ans A

379. In a naturally aspirated diesel engine, the volume of air intake is directly related to the engine _____________ A. compression ratio B. valve size

C. fuel pressure D. cylinder clearance volume Ans B

380. A naturally aspirated diesel engine at full throttle will have an intake manifold pressure ___________ A. slightly less than atmospheric pressure B. approximately equal to exhaust manifold pressure at all times C. that is widely fluctuating D. constantly decreasing as engine load increases Ans A

381. An increase in air inlet manifold pressure of a diesel engine will result in a ____________ A. decrease in maximum cylinder pressure B. increase in ignition lag C. decrease in fuel combustion per kilowatt hour D. decrease in exhaust manifold pressure Ans C

382. On a large diesel engine installation, crankshaft axial alignment is maintained by the ________ A. piston rod guides

B. engine thrust bearing C. crosshead bearing D. main shaft flexible coupling Ans B

383. The crankcase of many diesel engines are kept under a slight vacuum to ___________ A. improve fuel economy B. increase air charge viscosity C. reduce the risk of explosion D. all of the above Ans C

384. Maintaining the lowest possible scavenging air temperature at all times is not recommended due to the possibility of ____________ A. air charge density becoming too high B. piston crown surfaces becoming too cold C. formation of excessive quantities of condensate D. compression pressure being greatly reduced Ans C

385. On a turbocharged, medium speed diesel engine, which of the following problems is an indication of restricted air intake passage?

A. engine is hard to start B. engine misses C. surges at governed RPM D. coolant temperature is too low Ans A

386. An indication of air intake being partially clogged is ______________ A. low firing pressure and low exhaust temperatures B. low firing pressure and normal exhaust temperature C.high firing pressure and low exhaust temperature D.highr firing pressure and high exhaust temperature Ans B

387. Load control on a diesel engine is accomplished by ________________ A. regulating speed of turbocharger B. rotating the fuel injector plunger C. regulating the speed of fuel oil transfer pump D.changing engine timing Ans B

c.high firing pressure and low exhaust temperatures d.high firing pressure and high exhaust temperature

Ans. B 388. Operating a diesel enginefor prolonged periods,with a closed fresh water cooling system,at temperatures lower than normal design temperature can cause________________ a.the formation of sulphuric acid b.a decrease in lube oil viscocity c.a decrease in cooling water pH d.a thermostat failure Ans.A 389. The air supplied to diesel engine is compressed to___________.I.provide heat for ignition of fuel II.decrease injection delay a.I only is correct b.II only is correct c.both I and II are correct d.neither I nor II are correct Ans.A 390. fuel droplets injected into a diesel engine must have adequate penetration to_____________ a.prolong the ignition delay period b.ensure the beginning of fuel injection c.thoroughly utilize the charge air d.allow controlled fuel combustion Ans.C

391. Loss of lubricating oil pressure to the main propulsion diesel engine will actuate a/an____________ A.overspeed trip B.audible/visual alarm C.the ships/boats general alarm D.reverse oil storage tank Ans.B 392. The amount of fuel injected into a cylinder by a unit injector is controlled by__________ A.the firing pressure in the cylinder B.a metering helix C.varying the length of plunger stroke D. varying the clearance between injector cam and the injector rocker arm Ans.B 393. The dripping of fuel from an injector nozzle after injection terminates often results in____________ A.early combustion B.incomplete combustion and decreased fuel consumption C.coking and blocking of fuel nozzles D.decreased temperatures Ans.C cylinder wall temperatures and increased exhaust

394. The amount of fuel delivered for each cycle must be I n accordance with engine load, and the same quantity of fuel must be delivered to each cylinder for each power stroke at the load.Which of the following statements describes this requirement? A.Proper timing B.Accurate metering C.Suitable injection rate D.Suitable atomization rate Ans.B 395. The knock occuring when the cold diesel engine is started and continues while running at low speed, but stops when engine reaches normal operating speed and temperature,is______________ A.caused by retarded injection timing B.caused by mechanical defect in one cylinder C.caused by high fuel ignition pressures D.normal for these conditions Ans.D 396. The most crucial time for any bearing with regards to lubrication is______________ A.during low loads B.after proper oil viscocity is reached C.during starting D.after cleaning filters Ans.C

397. Which of the listed diesel engine operating conditions should be checked immediately after any diesel engine is started? A.Exhaust temperature B.Lube oil level C.Lube oil pressure D.Water level in expansion tank Ans.C 398. If the coolant temperature is excessively low as it passes through internally cooled fuel injectors,the injectors may be damaged by____________ A.water condensation in the fuel B.corrosion of nozzle tip C.carbon deposits on the leakoff inlet D.over lubrication of needle valve Ans.B 399. What occurs in the combustion space of a diesel engine cylinder shortly after ignition and before the piston reaches TDC? A.Rapid increase in temperature with constant pressure B.Rapid increase in pressure with constant temperature C.Rapid increase in pressure and temperature D.Rapid increase in volume and decrease in pressure Ans.C 400. The effective pump stroke of an individual port-and-helix fuel injection pump is determined by the__________

A.fuel delivery pressure B.pump plunger diameter C.plunger control rack position D.total pump stroke Ans.C 401. The amount of fuel delivered by helical plunger type fuel injection pump is contolled by__________________ A.rotation of the pump plunger B.rotation of the pump barrel C.varying the pump supply pressure D.varying the the pump return pressure Ans.A 402. Which of the following conditions will develop if the flow of raw cooling water to a diesel engine is obstructed? A.Air will enter the cooling system B.Carbon will plug the water cooled exhaust manifolds C.The jacket water temperature will rise D.The lube oil viscosity will increase Ans.C 403. The effective stroke of a constant-stroke, individual, fuel injection pump is varied by the_____________ A.control rack B.delivery valve

C.governor speed D.plunger crossbar Ans.A 404. Which of the listed conditions will occur if a diesel engine exhaust valve is leaking? A.Loss of compression for that cylinder B.Misfiring or rough running C.Damage to the valve D.All of the above Ans.D 405. High firing pressures and a low exhaust temperature in a diesel engine may result from______________ A.decreased piston to cylinder head clearance B.increased exhaust system back pressure C.early fuel injection timing D.low scavange air temperature Ans.C 406. Exhaust pyrometer readings provide an indication of the_____________ A.effectiveness of water-cooled exhaust elbows B.distribution of loads between engine cylinders C.amount of fuel penetration into the engine cylinders D.indicated horsepower of the engine cylinders

Ans.B 407. A change in the degree of fuel atomization in a diesel engine cylinder has the greatest effect on the __________ A.cylinder air turbulence B.fuel spray angle C.fuel injection rate D.combustion in that cylinder Ans.D 408. Diesel fuel oil having a low cetane rating can result in_______________ A.improved cold weather starting B.smoother engine operation C.combustion knock D.reduce ignition lag Ans.C 409. To successfully reduce an excessively high diesel engine exhaust gas temperature, you should______________ A.reduce the engine driven fuel pump outlet pressure B.retard the fuel injector timing to reduce power C.increase the fuel rack setting D.reduce the load on the engine Ans.D 410. High exhaust temperature and black smoke exhausting from an auxiliary diesel engine can be caused by___________

A.engine overload B.low combustion temperature C.plugged fuel nozzle holes D.excessive compression pressure Ans.A 411. Combustion gas venting through expansion tank can be caused by a__________ A.leaking air cooler B.cracked cylinder head C.leaking exhaust valve D.worn piston ring Ans.B 412. Which of the following problems can cause fluctuating pressures in the closed cooling system of a main propulsion diesel engine? A.Defective temperature controls in the system B.Cavitation in the cooloing water pump C.Opened vent in the cooling system D.Restricted water passages in the engine Ans.B 413. A fuel leak occurs in the high pressure fuel piping between the injection pump and the fuel nozzle.this requires immediate repair because of the ______________ A.high cost of fuel

B.serious fire hazard C.possibility of pollution D.poor combustion which will occur in the cylinder Ans.B 414. Individual cylinder performance in a diesel engine is routinely determined by the exhaust gases_____________ A.chemical analysis B.pressure readings C.pyrometer readings D.infrared analysis Ans.C 415. Excessive diesel engine cylinder exhaust back pressure will be caused by___________ A.slight timing discrepancies B.heavy fuel injection C.an obstruction in the exhaust silence D.a fouled intake manifold Ans.C 416. The injection pressure of a hydraulic fuel injection nozzle can be increased by_________________ A.increasing fuel oil booster pump pressure B.increasing the injector nozzle orifice size C.removing shims from under the nozzle spring

D.incresig pressure on the pressure spring Ans.D 417. Combustion knock occurring in a diesel engine can be caused by________________ A.excessive fuel penetration B.prolonged injection lag C.reduced ignition lag D.prolonged ignition lag Ans.D 418. Which of the following problems could develop due to the accumulation of oil vapors in the crankcase of a diesel engine? A.Reduced lubrication B.Poor fuel economy C.Combustion knocking D.Crankcase explosion Ans.D 419. One problem resulting from a diesel engine fuel injector opening pressure being lower than specified by engine manufacturer, is that the_____________ A.start of injection will always be retarded B.duration of injection is always be reduced C.quantity of fuel injected is always be decreased D.quantity of fuel injected tends to increased

Ans.D 420. Which of the listed reasons is the most likely cause of sudden drop in compression pressure in one diesel engine cylinder? A.Missing filter segment of an intake filter B.Malfunctioning valves C.Leaking fuel injector nozzle D.Excessively early fuel injection Ans.B 421. A sudden drop in diesel engine cylinder compression pressure can be caused by___________ A.a leaking fuel injector nozzle B.a clogged air filter C.excessively early fuel injection D.malfunctioning valves Ans.D 422. Failure to open the diesel engine test cocks after a long period of shutdown, prior to starting may result in____________ A.an air bound fuel system B.damage to cylinder heads and pistons C.excessive fuel injection D.excessive air valve lift Ans.B

423. Which of the listed conditions is the most likely to cause a crankcase explosion? A.A high cooling water temperature B.Fuel dilution of the lube oil C.Excessive engine speeds D.Improper lube oil viscosity Ans.B 424. If the coolant temperature is too low as it passes through internally cooled fuel injectors, the injector can be damaged by _____________ A.water condensation in the fuel B.corrosion of nozzle tip C. Carbon deposits of the nozzle tip D. inadequate lubrication of the needle valve Ans.B 425. A diesel engine is operating with excessively high exhaust temperatures at all cylinders. To correct this condition you should FIRST______________ A. reduce the engine load B. increase the cooling water flow C. increase the lube oil pressure D. adjust the fuel rack Ans.A 426. The overspeed trip installed on most diesel engines will stop the engine by shutting off the___________

A. water supply B. fuel oil supply C. lube oil supply D. exhaust damper Ans. 427. White smoke exhausting from an operating diesel engine may indicate____________ A. a cracked liner B. burning lube oil C. an overloaded engine D. insufficient combustion air Ans.

428. Black smoke exhausting from an operating diesel engine can be caused by _______ A. B. C. D. ANS: A 429. A device which functions to be a diesel engine to a full stop protect it from damage is known as a/an_______ A. Torque limiter Fuel dribbling from leaking fuel injectors. Burning fuel with a high carbon content Burning fuel with a high vanadium content Burning fuel with lover sulphur content

B. Overspeed trip C. Overspeed governor D. Load limited governor ANS: B 430. Which of the following condition can cause oil to accumulate in the cooling system of a diesel engine. A. B. C. D. ANS: B 431. Lube oil accumulating in the cooling water system of a diesel oil will result in________ A. B. C. D. ANS: B 432. When the opening pressure of a diesel fuel injector is greater than specified by engine manufacture, the________ A. B. C. D. ANS: A 433. Black smoke exhaust from an operating diesel engine is an indication of poor combustion which can be caused by______ Quantity of fuel injected is decreased Quantity of fuel injected will always be increased Start of injection is advanced Duration of injection will always be greater Lube cooler failure Poor heat transfer Mechanical lubricator failure Camshaft seizure Excessive valve train lubrication Defective oil cooler coal Excessive lube oil pressure Overfilled lube oil system.

A. B. C. D. ANS: C

Water in the fuel Insufficient fuel for combustion Clogged air intake passage Burning lubricating oil

434. The highest pressure in a diesel engine cylinder occurs normally________ A. B. C. D. ANS: C 435. Diesel engine fuel oil diluted with fuel oil is indicated by A. B. C. D. ANS: A 436. A broken pintle in a fuel injector A. B. C. D. ANS: C 437. Diesel engine cylinder head test cocks are used to________ A. Check cylinder lubrication prior to starting engine B. Connect exhaust gas analyzer to determine engine efficiency Corrosion of the spray nozzle Clogging of the orifices Distortion of the spray pattern Erosion of the valve usually causes__________ Decreased velocity Decreased pour point Increased clearance point Increased viscosity At TDC Before TDC After TDC During air starting

C. Pressure test cylinder heads to check for leaks D. Remove moisture accumulation from cylinders prior to starting ANS. D 438. A practical way of checking for excessive fuel injection in one cylinder of an operating diesel engine is to_________ A. B. C. D. ANS: C 439. A diesel engine emits blue exhaust smoke as a result of_______ A. B. C. D. ANS: C 440. Which of the following problem could cause misalignment between the needle valve nozzle in a fuel injection nozzle? A. B. C. D. ANS: D 441. A diesel engine is operating under a normal load with low firing pressure and high exhaust temperatures. The most probable cause of this condition is____________ A bent fuel needle A defective nozzle tip seat A distorted valve body All of the above Cool intake air Excessive compression pressure Excessive cylinder lubrication A light load Feel the high pressure fuel line Check the cylinder exhaust for white smoke Frequently check the cylinder exhaust temperature Isolate each cylinder and inspect the injector

A. B. C. D. ANS: B

A missing air intake filter A restricted exhaust manifold The fuel rack being too far in The fuel rack being too far out

442. In the common rail system, excessive pressure in header may be caused by A. B. C. D. ANS: A 443. The highest load applied to the diesel engine crankshaft main bearings are________ A. B. C. D. ANS: B 444. If the diesel engine fuel injection timing is changed to delay the start of injection until the piston are at top dead center, the engine will A. B. C. D. ANS: B 445. Increasing the compression ratio of diesel engine maintaining the designed rate of fuel flow will result in____________ Backfire through the air intake Develop less power under load Have high firing pressure Lift its cylinder relief valve Axial loads Firing loads Inertia loads Centripetal loads Improper adjustment of bypass valve A dribble in fuel injection nozzle Insufficient leak off through the injection nozzle packing A malfunction injection nozzle

A. B. C. D. ANS: A

Increased horse power Reduced efficiency Increased heat loss Lower cylinder pressure

446. If the jacket water temp rises rapidly above normal in a diesel engine , you should FIRST______ A. B. C. D. ANS: B 447. During which of the listed piston strokes of a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, is the piston moving downwards? A. B. C. D. ANS: A 448. In an operating diesel engine, pre-ignition can be caused by________ A. B. C. D. ANS: B 449. Significant retardation of a diesel engine fuel injection timing will result in _______ Excessive late fuel injection Oil in the air charge Water in the fuel Injection continuing after fuel charge is ignited Intake stroke Compression stroke Exhaust stroke Pumping stroke Place stand by cooler in operation Reduces engine load Check thermostatic valve Clean sea water strainer

A. B. C. D. ANS: D

Smoother engine operation Advanced fuel ignition Increased fuel economy Reduced engine power

450. When fuel injected late into a diesel engine cylinder________ A. B. C. D. ANS: D 451. Late fuel injection in a diesel engine is indicated by low firing pressure with_______ A. B. C. D. High exhaust temperature Low exhaust temperature Fuel knock in each cylinder Mechanical knock in each cylinder The exhaust will be clear Fuel consumption will be low All the fuel will be burned at top dead center Fuel consumption will be high

452. If a single cylinder relief valve on a diesel engine lifts frequently while engine is running , the cause may be an _________ A. B. C. D. ANS: C 453. When one cylinder has a lower compression pressure and higher exhaust gas temperature than any of the other engine cylinders, which of the conditions listed will be indicated? Excessive late injection timing for each cylinder Incorrectly adjusted intake valve timing Incorrectly adjusted fuel injector Incorrectly adjusted intake valve clearance

A. B. C. D. ANS: C

Advanced ignition Clogged air intake Leaky exhaust valve High exhaust pressure

454. A distorted spray pattern from a fuel injector can cause a diesel engine to have_________ A. B. C. D. ANS: D 455. If a few injector spray holes become plugged, the result could be ________ A. B. C. D. ANS: C 456. A diesel engine fails to start because of water in the fuel. In order to start the engine ,you should_________ A. B. C. D. ANS: B 457. A diesel engine piston crown can crack from_________ Turn engine with jacking gear Drain filter and strainers and bleed off water at each injection pump Use ether to start the engine with blowdown valves open Blow through the cylinders and fuel lines with a drying agent Excessive surging at governed Combustion knock under Leaky exhaust valve High exhaust pressure Higher firing pressure More power output Lower fuel pressure Less power output

A. Excessive piston to liner clearance B. Excessive dirt beneath the piston crown that reduces the heat transfer C. Faulty nozzle spray D. All of the above ANS: D 458. Permitting a diesel engine fuel oil day tank to run dry can cause__________ A. B. C. D. ANS: D 459. Air in the fuel lines to the fuel injection nozzle of a diesel engine will cause the engine to___________ A. B. C. D. ANS: C 460. Which of the following problem will occur if the needle valve in a fuel injection nozzle sticks in the open position? A. B. C. D. ANS: A 461. A dry-type exhaust muffler clogged with soot, will cause ________ Fuel injection limiting will change Nozzle operating will be unaffected Fuel will leak into the drain line Fuel will not be delivered Burn excessive amount of lube oil Over heat without smoking Operate with reduce power or stop Run away without load Overheated injection pumps Water condensation in the cylinders Fuel dilution of lube oil Air in the fuel system

A. B. C. D. ANS: B

Low exhaust temperature Loss of engine power Burned intake valves Engine racing

462. Diesel engine cylinder head test cocks are used to ______ A. B. C. D. ANS: B 463. Air may be bled from fuel system by_________ A. B. C. D. ANS: B 464. Which of the terms listed below represents the operational speed at which excessive engine vibration is created? A. B. C. D. ANS: B 465. If the needle valve in a fuel injection nozzle sticks open,__________ A. Fuel will leak into the nozzle drain line Non-harmonic speed Critical speed Maximum speed Design maximum speed Blowing down the air tanks Loosening the compression nuts at the injectors Changing fuel filters Pumping down the day tanks Check cylinder lubrication Connect the pressure indicator Pressure test cylinder head Connect the exhaust gas pyrometers

B. No fuel will be delivered through the nozzle C. The nozzle will overheat D. Injection fag will be increased ANS: C 466. Which of the condition listed would cause simultaneous high cylinder firing pressure and low temperature? A. B. C. D. ANS: C 467. Early fuel injection timing is indicated by the cylinder pressure being _________ A. B. C. D. ANS: A 468. If fuel injection occurs too early, a diesel engine will lose power because the_________ A. B. C. D. ANS: B 469. Diesel engine air start valve timing is controlled by_________ Fuel will not be properly atomized in the cylinder Ignition will be delayed due to low compression pressure Maximum fuel expansion will occur on the compression stroke Fuel will ignite after top dead centre Above normal with a below normal exhaust temperature Above normal with a normal exhaust temperature Below normal with a normal exhaust temperature Below normal with an above normal exhaust temperature Improper fuel rack positioning Lengthy opening of the exhaust valve Excessively early injection timing Extended light load operation

A. B. C. D. ANS: D

Engine operating speed An air manifold A hydraulic distributor Individual cams and valve gear.

470. A diesel engine fails to start due to excessive water in the fuel before the engine can be started the water should be removed from the A. B. C. D. Ans: A 471. If you suspect a diesel engine is misfiring due to air leakage into the fuel system you should begin looking for the leak at the. A. B. C. D. Fuel line connections to the cylinder injection valves Gasket surfaces of the fuel oil filters Discharge fittings of the fuel injector pumps Suction side of the fuel oil transfer pump Fuel lines Lube oil filter Crank case pump Rocker arm reservoir

Ans: D 472. An increase in the load on a turbocharged diesel engine operation at constant speed will result in an increase in.. A. B. C. D. Exhaust temperature air box pressure Brake mean effective pressure All of the above

Ans: D

473. When a diesel engine is operated at partial load as compared to full load a decrease will occur in the average A. B. C. D. Ans: C 474. Air in the fuel can cause.. A. B. C. D. Ans: C 475. Early injection timing is indicated by.. A. B. C. D. Ans:D 476. Which of the following operating procedures should be carried out immediately after any diesel engine is started? A. B. C. D. Ans: C Take all exhaust temperature readings Check the sump oil level Verify proper lube oil pressure Check the water level in expansion tank High exhaust temperature and low firing pressure High exhaust temperature and high firing pressure Low exhaust temperature and low firing pressure Low exhaust temperature and high firing ptessute High lube oil temperature Blue smoke The engine to stop Piston seizure Air puantity aspirated Fuel infection pressure Combustion pressure on the power stroke Compression pressure on the compression stroke

477. The most common diesel engine fuel system problems are caused by. A. B. C. D. Ans: B 478. If sludge accumulates on the underside of a diesel engine piston it will A. B. C. D. Cause blow by Chemically attack the piston skirt Form an emulsion of lube oil and water Raise the piston temperature Incorrect adjustments Dirty fuel Broken fuel lines Excessive vibration

Ans: D 479. Faulty operation of diesel engine fuel injection nozzles can be a direct cause of .. A. B. C. D. Ans: B 480. Low cylinder compression pressure and a high exhaust temperature may indicate. A. B. C. D. Early fuel injection timing Leaking valves A continuously open scavenge air port Low cooling water temperature Excessive fuel nozzle holder cooling Sediment in the fuel supply Distortion of the fuel spray pattern Improper atomization of the fuel

481. Fuel off injected into the cylinder of a diesel engine just after the piston passes top dead center will..

A. B. C. D. Ans: C

Increase engine power Increase engine load Decrease engine power Improve fuel economy

482. The loss of the diesel engine cylinder air charge through leaky valves piston rings worn or scored liners would be indicated by which of the following sets of conditions? A. B. C. D. Ans: A 483. During diesel engine warm up which type of tappet clearance adjuster listed allows for the change in length of the exhaust valves? A. B. C. D. Ans: B 484. Worn cylinder head valve seats in a diesel engine will cause . A. B. C. D. Ans: A Less cold tappet clearance Mor cold tappet clearance Excessive pressure in hydraulic tappet clearance adjusters Broken valve springs Mechanical Hydraulic Pneumatic Electrical Low compression pressure and high exhaust temperature Low firing pressure and high exhaust temperature Low compression pressure and low exhaust temperature Low firing pressure and low exhaust temperature

485. Which operating condition of a diesel engine is indicated by excessive firing pressures? A. B. C. D. Ans: B 486. If the jacket water temperature rises rapidly above normal in a diesel engine you should FIRST. A. B. C. D. Call the chief engineer Reduce engine load Check thermostatic valve Clean sea water strainer Oversppeding Overload Low exhaust temperature High crankcase pressure

Ans: B 487. A substantial increase in crankcase pressure could be an indication of a/an . A. B. C. D. Ans: A 488. Which of the following procedures should be carried out when a large low speed diesel is operated with one cylinder secured? A. B. C. D. Lubrication to the defective cylinder should be increased Cooling water temperature to the engine should be increased Only the turbocharger speed should be reduced Engine speed should be reduced Worn cylinder liner Faulty cylinder relief valve Excessive lube oil pressure Excessive scavenge air pressure

Ans: D 489. The most practical way of detecting an overload in one cylinder of an operating large, low speed, main propulsion diesel engine is to . A. B. C. D. Check the cylinder exhausts for black smoke Engage the starter motor with the flywheel Isolate each cylinder and inspect the injector Check the cylinder exhaust temperature frequently

Ans: D 490. A diesel engine could fail to start because of . A. B. C. D. Ans: A 491. One cause of diesel engine piston ring blow by is. A. B. C. D. Ans: C Reduced scavenging High exhaust temperatures Excessive lubrication Floating piston pins Incorrect injection timing Low exhaust back pressure Floating exhaust valves Excessive cranking speed

PAGE-26 492. If you notice smoke coming from the crankcase exhaust fan outlet of an operating diesel engine, you would suspect.. A. B. C. D. Ans: C 493. Which of the following conditions may need to be reduced when operating a large, low speed, main propulsion, diesel engine at low loads? A. B. C. D. Ans: C Injection pressures Control air supply pressure Cooling water flow through after coolers Lube oil temperature A cracked cylinder liner Clogged intake ports Broken piston rings A faulty head gasket

494. Restricted diesel engine exhaust manifold operating under a normal load is indicated by A. B. C. D. Ans: B 495. Excessive exhaust temperatures in a two stroke cycle diesel engine can be caused by an/a. A. B. C. D. High injection pressure High firing pressure Overheated air starting line Carbon buil up in the exhaust ports Low firing pressures and low exhaust temperatures Low firing pressures and high exhaust temperatures High firing pressures and low exhaust temperatures High firing pressures and high exhaust temperatures

Ans: D 496. What color exhaust will be exhibited when a slow speed two stroke cycle main propulsion diesel engine, designed to operate on light and heavy fuel oil is operated on insufficiently preheated heavy fuel oil? A. B. C. D. White Black Blue Clear

Ans: B 497. Immediately after starting a diesel engine, normal raw water and jacket water pressures are indicated. However, the jacket water temperature continues to rise. If there is nochange in the sea temperature, you should suspect.. A. Overloading in all cylinders B. A jammed three way thermostatic valve C. Chromate pH too low

D. A high level in the surge tank Ans: B 498. Before starting a dieselengine that has an engine driven lube oil pump,, the engineer should. A. B. C. D. Ans: C 499. Collapsed hydraulic valve lifters in a diesel engine will result in .. A. B. C. D. Ans: C 500. Prolonged operation of a diesel engine with a closed cooling water system, at lower than normal designed operating temperatures can A. B. C. D. Increase power output Decrease lube viscosity Eliminate fuel knock Cause sulphuric acd formation Excessive rocker arm movement Little or no valve clearance Excessive valve clearance Collapsed or stacked valve springs Open th bypass line Cut in the lube oil cooler Pressurize the lube oil system Top off the expansion tank

Ans: D 501. A large low speed main propulsion diesel engine may become overloaded by i)a heavily fouled hull ii) strong head winds and heavy seas A. i only B. ii only

C. both i and ii D. neither i nor ii Ans:c 502. Immediately after any diesel engine is started the engineer should check the A. B. C. D. Ans: B 503. In a diesel engine lube oil system, which of the following parts should be lubricated first? A. B. C. D. Camshaft bearings Main bearings Piston crowns Cylinder walls Cranckcase pressure Lube oil pressure Saltwater pressure Exhaust temperature

And: B 504. Poor combustion in a diesel engine can be caused by .. A. B. C. D. Ans: B 505. Diesel engine exhaust gas temperatures can be used to determine individual cylinder A. Performance High compression pressure Low intake air temperature Low exhaust pressure High scavenge air pressure

B. Horsepower output C. Fuel consumption D. Scavenge effect Ans: A 506. Which of the following problems may occur if the opening pressure of a fuel injection nozzle is greater than specified by the engine manufacturer? A. B. C. D. Ans: B 507. All of the diesel engine cylinder firing pressures is normal, yet all of the exhaust temperatures are low. Which of the following situations is responsible for this condition? A. B. C. D. Excessively early injection timing Combustion knock Leaking piston rings Light load The amount of fuel injected wills ne increased The start of injection will be retarded The nozzle will permit fuel to dribble The spray pattern will be distorted

Ans: D 508. Insufficient piston cooling for a large low speed main propulsion diesel engine burning heavy fuels can result in.. A. B. C. D. Ans: C Excessive crosshead temperatures Dangerous thermal expansion of the piston skirt High temperature corrosion and burning off piston crown metal Change in fuel cetane number

509. Which of the following factors tends to increase scale formation on the salt water side of a heat exchanger used in diesel engine cooling water system? A. Baffle plates that have been bent during prior removal B. Leaks in the cooler tube nest C. Operating the engine while maintaining a high sea water outlet temperature D. A punctured sea water strainer supplying cooling water to the heat exchanger Ans: C 510 -High exhaust back pressure will result in an increase in A turbocharger efficiency B Engine power output C Carbon deposit on fuel injector D Cylinder scavenging ANS:C 511 -any increase in the exhaust back pressure of a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine will A worn piston rings B aid in silencing the exhaust noise C increase the mean effective pressure D contribute to effective cylinder scavenging ANS:A

512 In a diesel engine,blow by.

A Increase exhaust back pressure B causes excessive crankcase pressure C can only be detected by a compression check D decrease fueloil consumption ANS:B

513 A crack in a cylinder liner can be caused by A worn piston rings B installation of undersized sealing rings C operating the engine at low loads D restricted cooling water passages ANS:C

514 A cracked cylinder head on a diesel engine may be indicated by A excessive lube oil consumption B water draning from the fuel leak off valves C combustion gases venting at the expansion tank D excessive fuel oil consumption ANS:C

515 The direct of a crankcase explotion can be attributed to.. A extremely hot scavenge air

B excessive cooling water temperature C an overheated bearing D excessive lube oil in the crankcase

516 crankcase explosions in propulsion diesel engines result from.. A the spclearanceing of lubrication oil by crank shaft B the dilution of crankcase oil with particles of combustion C broken fuel lines spaying oil on the crankcase D the ignition of unburned fuel and air in the crankcase ANS:D

517 Combustion knock occuring in the diesel engine can be caused by A low coolant temperature B insufficient fuel C high ambient temperature D carbon buildup on the injector tips ANS:A

518 Persistant knocking of one cylinder of a diesel engine ceases when the fuel supply to that cylinder is secured. The problem may be a result of.. A low loaded of the cylinder B faulty combustion in that cylinder C sluggish piston ring action D excessive piston cooling

519 Which of the conditions listed may occur in an operating diesel engine if air pocket forms within the cylinder head circulating water passages? Hydraulic stresses and distortion will develop Hot sports will increased Fuel oil viscosity will increase An increase in trapped deposits of scale and dirt ANS:B

520 If a diesel engines exhaust temperature is abnormally high,the cause could be. A. Too high of load

B. Injection timing is too early C. Overloading of the engine D. Too low of a compression ANS:C

he 521 Heat damage to fuel injection nozzle can be prevented by avoiding A. B. C. D. ANS:B 522 A main propulsion diesel engine is shutdown by A. B. C. D. ANS:D Shutting off the air supply Overspeeding the engine Securing the fuel supply Securing the ignition system Excessive fuel oil temperature Long periods of engine overload Metallic contact between nozzle and cylinder heads Hard carbon deposits and varnish on the nozzles

523 Excessive diesel engine back pressure may be an indication of A. B. C. D. ANS:A Carbon buildup in the exhaust manifold Overcooling of the exhaust manifold Eroded muffler baffle plates High injection pressure

524 White smoke exhausting from a diesel engine can result from A. B. C. D. ANS:D High exhaust temperature High lube oil temperature Low turbocharger speed Low cooling water temperature

525 What is the best way of stopping an over speeding diesel engine A. B. C. D. ANS:D Disconnect the battery cables from the starting motor Drain the hydraulic fluid from the governor sump Block the flow of cooling air to the radiator Secure the fuel supply and block the air intake

526 By comparing the exhaust gas output of each cylinder of a diesel engine,one method of determining if the engine lode is balanced is by the use of.. A. B. C. D. ANS:D Tachometer Calorimeter Pedometer Pyrometer

527

One cylinder of a diesel engine is persistently knocking and does not cease when the fuel supply to that cylinder is secured. Which of the following problems may be the cause? A. B. C. D. Low loading of the cylinder Excessive cooling of the piston Sluggish ring action on the piston A mechanical defect in working

ANS:D

528. A diesel engine is warmed up and white vapour is noted in the exhaust,this could indicate.. A. B. C. D. ANS:C Excessive cylinder lubrication A lugging engine A leaking cylinder liner Overloading of one cylinder

529. A smoking exhaust from an operating diesel engine could be caused by. A. B. C. D. A low sulphur content in the fuel A loose injector inlet the connection Late fuel injection High injection pressure

ANS: C

530. Oil accumulating in the exhaust piping piping or manifold of a diesel can be caused by A. B. C. D. ANS:E Collapsed hydraulic valve filters Worn valve guides Excessive crankcase vacuum Excessive lube oil pressure

531. Diesel engine operating conditions are indicated by the color of the exhaust smoke.Blue smoke can indicate..

A. B. C. D. ANS:E

Low compression pressure and high exhaust temperature An overloaded engine Clogged drain holes in the oil control rings Excessive lube oil pressure

532. If diesel engine is smoking excessievely under load , the cause oxide be A. low exhaust back pressure B. fuel injection in one of the cylinders

C. con pressure in one of the cylinders D. plugged injector holes

533. A. B. C. D.

Sticking of diesel engine piston compression rings may be caused by ? High compression pressure Excessive ring action Excessive cylinder lubrication Improper ring rotation Ans:C

534. Which of the following conditions can cause excessive lube oil consumption in a diesel engine ? A. B. C. D. Low lube oil temperature Dirty lube oil strainer Low lube oil pressure High lube oil temperature

Ans: D

535.

Late fuel injection in a diesel engine can result in?

A. Fuel knock B. Increased power C. Low compression pressure

D. High exhaust temperature Ans: D

536. Which of the following condition is likely to develop if the thermo couple element of a pyrometer becomes coated with excessive amounts of combustion by-products? A.Indicated exhaust pressure reading will increase B.Pyrometer responses will be retarded C.Indicated cylinder temperatures readings will increase D.Indicated firing pressure readings will increase. Ans : B

537. When the opening pressure of a diesel engine fuel injector is greater than that specified by the engine manufacturer , which of the following problems can be expected? A.quantity of fuel injected tends to be decreased B.quantity of fuel injected will always be increased C. start of injection tends to be advanced D. duration of injection will always be greater Ans:A

538. Late fuel injection occurring at , or after TDC in a diesel engine is indicated by excessive exhaust smoke and ________________ A.low exhaust temperature B.low firing temperature C.fuel knock in each cylinder D.mechanical knock in each cylinder Ans:B

539. In a diesel engine , late fuel injection is indicated by black or gray exhaust smoke with ? A.low firing pressure B .low exhaust temperature C. mechanical knocks in each cylinder Ans:A

540. If a crankcase explosion occurs in a diesel engine,you should stop the engine and A.immediately open all crankcase relif ports B.allow the engine to cool naturally C.increace crankcase exhauster speed to draw cool air into engine D.increace crankcase scavenge air to remove unburned gases

Ans :B

541. A diesel engine will lose power if fuel injection occurs too late in the cycle , because they ? A. Fuel droplets will burn as they leave the fuel injector B. Fuel will not be properly atomized in the cylinder C. Maximum expansion of the burned fuel cannot take place in the cylinder D. Compression pressure will be too low to cause fuel ignition Ans:C

542. Which of the following conditions is most likely to occur when unburned fuel contaminates the crankcase of a diesel engine? A.Lube oil is diluted and its viscosity is reduced B.sulphuric acid is formed C.Bearings become pitted and immediately fail D.valve stems develop sludge deposits Ans:A

543. Late fuel injection in a diesel engine is indicated by black or grey exhaust smoke with a___________ A.low firing pressure B.low exhaust temperature C.mechanical knocks in each cylinder D.fuel knocks in each cylinder

Ans C

544. The ignition quality of diesel fuel becomes less critical as A.the amount of lube oil additives increace B.piston speeds increace C.injection pressures decreace D.engine speed decreace Ans:D 546. If fuel injection nozzle overheats , which of the problems listed can be expected? A.The fuel metering may vary B.The fuel will explode C.The cylinder head will crack D.The engine will stop Ans:A

547. An increase in the fuel injection pump discharge pressure can be caused by a/an_______ A. leaking delivery valve B. Increase in engine load C. plugged injector spray hole D. .increase plunger stroke Ans :C

548. If fuel injection in a diesel engine earlier than injection,ignition may be delayed because the ? A.fuel oil injection pressure may not be high enough B.cylinder compression pressure may not be high enough C.cylinder compression temperature may too high D.scavenge and purge process is incomplete Ans: B

the design

start

of

549. Prior to starting the purpose of turning over a main propulsion diesel engine with the cylinder test cocks open,is to----------------------A. B. C. D. ANS:B Test the starting system Remove condensation from the cylinders Check the compression Check for proper lube oil pressure

550. A fuel injection valve opening at a pressure lower than normal will result in? A.late fuel injection B.early fuel injection C.high exhaust temperature from that cylinder D.decreased effective stroke from that injector Ans :B

551. Faulty operation of diesel engine fuel injection nozzles can be directly caused by--------------A water in the fuel oil supply B excess fuel nozzle holder cooling C a distorted fuel spray pattern D leakage past the plunger into the oil ANS:A

544. The ignition quality of diesel fuel becomes less critical as A.the amount of lube oil additives increace B.piston speeds increace C.injection pressures decreace D.engine speed decreace Ans:D 546. If fuel injection nozzle overheats , which of the problems listed can be expected? A.The fuel metering may vary B.The fuel will explode

C.The cylinder head will crack D.The engine will stop Ans:A 548. If fuel injection in a diesel engine earlier than injection,ignition may be delayed because the ? A.fuel oil injection pressure may not be high enough B.cylinder compression pressure may not be high enough C.cylinder compression temperature may too high D.scavenge and purge process is incomplete Ans: B 550. A fuel injection valve opening at a pressure lower than normal will result in? A.late fuel injection B.early fuel injection C.high exhausts temperature from that cylinder D.decreased effective stroke from that injector Ans: B 551. Faulty operation of diesel engine fuel injection nozzles can be directly caused by. A. B. C. D. Water in the fuel oil supply Excessive fuel nozzle holder cooling A distorted fuel spray pattern Leakage past the plunger into the oil the design start of

Ans : A

552. Water in the fuel can prevent the engine from starting, prevent it from developing full power, or A. B. C. D. Run at an irregular speed Create high lube oil temperature Cause the engine to over speed Cause blue smoke in the exhaust

Ans : A 553. Air in the fuel lines of a diesel engine can cause.. A. B. C. D. Ignition failure Oxygen corrosion of the fuel lines The pistons to seize Blue smoke

Ans : A 554. Before starting a diesel engine you should always A. B. C. D. Check the pyrometer readings Check the crank case oil level Change the fuel oil strainers Clean the air filters

Ans : B 555. A. B. C. D. Dirt in the fuel oil system of the diesel engine can cause.. Damage to strainers Over speeding of the engine Excessive cooling of the engine Injector damage

Ans :D

556. If cooling water flow through the after cooler is interrupted, the power output of the turbo charged diesel engine will drop because the A. B. C. D. Turbo charger will stall Density of the air charge will decrease Scavenge effect will decrease Exhaust pressure will increase

Ans : B 557. Operating a propulsion diesel engine at less than 30% of the designed normal load for prolonged periods will result in A. B. C. D. Decreased fuel consumption per brake horsepower More complete cylinder scavenging Extended valve life Carbon formation on combustion chamber surfaces

Ans: D 558. Diesel engine fuel oil contamination often results in. A. B. C. D. Ans: B 559. Operating a diesel engine under light loads and low temperatures for an extended period can result in .. A. B. C. D. Ans: A Formation of carbon on the intake and exhaust ports High water jacket temperatures Overheated pistons and cylinders An increase in lube oil viscosity due to fuel dilution Governor malfunctions Fuel injection system malfunctions High cylinder lube oil temperatures low intake temperatures Low intake temperature

560. Which of the conditions listed occurring in diesel engine would cause carbon deposits to develop in piston ring belt? A. B. C. D. Faulty combustion Excessive ring temperatures Over lubrication All of the above

Ans: D 561. If a crankcase explosion occurs in a diesel engine which of the listed actions should be taken. A. B. C. D. Open the crankcase immediately to check for damage Apply fire fighting water through the crankcase bretier Allow the engine to cool before opening the crankcase Assume that there is no damage to the crankshaft

Ans : C 562. The burning of fuel oil having high sodium content will cause. A. B. C. D. Ans: A 563. Longer the ignition delay period resulting the improper use of low cetane fuel, the A. B. C. D. Less fuel will enter the cylinder higher the cylinder combustion temperature More complete the fuel combustion More rapid the rise in combustion pressure Corrosion and governing of exhaust gas Corrosion and gumming of the fuel injection pump Salt deposits in exhaust manifold Slag deposit in fuel injection manifold

Ans: D

564. If the relief valve on a diesel engine cylinder lifts, the cause could due to A. B. C. D. Liquid in the cylinder Low compression in the cylinder High exhaust temperature Poor fuel penetration

Ans : A 565. A substantial increase in crankcase pressure could be an indication of.. A. B. C. D. Ans: C 566. An indication of an over loaded main propulsion diesel engine is A. B. C. D. Ans: B 567. A dry type exhaust silencer clogged with soot , will cause A. B. C. D. Ans: B 568. A dark exhaust from a running diesel engine is . Low exhaust temperature Loss of engine power Burned intake valves Engine racing White smoke in the exhaust High exhaust gas pyrometer readings Sparks in the exhaust Blue smoke in the exhaust Excessive lube oil pressure Proper seating of new rings A worn cylinder liner A malfunctioning cylinder relief valve

A. B. C. D. Ans: A

Late ignition Water in the fuel High compression temperature Stating valve stuck open

569. Partially obstructed exhaust ports on the diesel engine can cause.. A. B. C. D. Overheating of the engine High exhaust temperature Sluggish engine operation All of the above

Ans :D 570. The color of the exhaust from a diesel engine should be .. A. B. C. D. Ans :A 571. Engine operating conditions may be indicated by the color of the exhaust smoke. Black smoke could indicate A. B. C. D. Ans :B 572. A restricted air intake to a diesel engine may result in the engine .. A. Falling to reach rated speed B. Knocking under maximum load An insufficient speed droop setting An overloaded engine Clogged drain holes in the control rings Complete combustion Clear Hazy light brown Hazy light blue Hazy light blue hazy light grey

C. Hunting or surging under light load D. Over speeding and running away Ans : A 573. The color of the exhaust from a diesel propelled ship should be. A. B. C. D. Ans: A 574. With regards to a diesel engine crankcase explosion, the most violent is the 1.primary explosion 2.secondary explosion A. B. C. D. Ans :B 575. You are operating a main propulsion diesel engine at a constant load when the jacket water temperature begins to rise. This could be caused by.. A. B. C. D. Ans :A 576. Some diesel engines are fitted with a thermometer in the cooling water outlet from each cylinder. if the cooling water temperature from all cylinders begins to rise above normal , you should suspect A. Increased blow by all cylinders A piston about to seize Dirty fuel oil filters Fuel oil being too heavy High water in the expansion tank 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Clear Hazy light brown Hazy light blue Hazy light grey

B. In complete combustion in all cylinders C. Overloading in all cylinders D. In sufficient fuel delivery to all cylinders Ans: C 577. Some diesel engines are fitted with a thermometer in the cooling water outlet from each cylinder. If the cooling water temperature from an individual cylinder begins to rise.you should suspect A. B. C. D. Ans :B 578. A diesel engine using lube oil with too high a viscosity will exhibit .. A. B. C. D. Ans :A 579. One of the operating a diesel engine at light load with excessive low cooling water temperature is an A. B. C. D. Decrease in ignition lag Increase in fuel economy Reduction in lube oil viscosity Increase in cylinder misfiring Increased starting difficulty in cold water Increased oil consumption Thickening at higher operating temperature Minimal friction losses Overloading of adjacent cylinders Overloading of that cylinders Increased low by in that cylinder In complete combustion in that cylinder

Ans :D 580. Which of the following conditions will tend to increase the ignition delay period of combustion in a compression ignition temperature?

A. B. C. D. Ans: B

Using the fuel oil with higher cetane number Decreasing the air charge temperature Reducing the injected fuel oil droplet size Increasing the combustion ratio

581. In a diesel engine, excessive cylinder liner wear will cause . I increased blow by II wear between the piston ring and groove A. B. C. D. Ans :C 582. A change in the degree of fuel atomization in a diesel engine would most greatly effect. A. B. C. D. Fuel turbulence Fuel penetration Fuel spray angle Fuel injection rate I only is correct II only is correct Both I and II are correct Neither I and II are correct

Ans : D 583. The longer the ignition delay period occurs in a diesel engine the A. B. C. D. Less fuel enter the cylinder Lower will be the cylinder compression temperature More complete with fuel combustion More rapid will be the rise in combustion pressure

Ans : D 584. Diesel engine exhaust temperature may be used indicate .. A. Breaking exhaust valves

B. Overloaded cylinder C. Clogged injector nozzle D. All of the above 585. Maintaining the proper fuel oil temperature will result in. A. B. C. D. Ans :B 586. Combustion knock can occur in cylinders of a diesel engine under any condition permitting.. A. B. C. D. Ans: C 589. Coolant can be lost from a diesel engine jacket cooling water system by leakages from A. B. C. D. Cylinder head cracks Piping joints Pump seas leaking All of the above Shortenened ignition delay period A lean fuel/an mixture Excess fuel in the combustion chamber Rapid vaporization of injected fuel droplets The elimination of valve wear Improved atomization A decrease in cylinder blow by An increase in blow by

590. when oil vapor, oxygen and hot present at the same line within a crankcase, which of the following hazards could develop? A. B. C. D. Explosion Implosion Misfire Dieseling

Ans : A 591. A possible cause for an individual piston to knock when at TDC on a slow speed two stroke cycle main propulsion diesel engine could due to. A. B. C. D. Early fuel injection Excessive bearing play within the running gear Overloading of the cylinder All of the above

592. An automated diesel engine should normally shut down due to.. A. B. C. D. Low lube oil temperature High ambient air temperature Low lube oil pressure High exhaust system back pressure

Ans : C 593. Routine monitoring of a diesel engine should include A. B. C. D. Checking foe leaks Checking temperature and pressures Listening for abnormal noises All of the above

Ans : D

594.One remedy for a high firing pressure, in addition to a high exhaust temperature in one cylinder of a diesel engines, is to A. increase scavenge air pressure B. reduce fuel booster pump pressure C. adjust the fuel rack

D. retard fuel injector timing ANS: C 595. If a diesel engine is difficult to start and operates with the engine temperatures lower than normal, you should suspect that the A. compression pressures are below normal B. lube oil is diluted with fuel oil C. cranking speed is too low D. exhaust system is partially restricted ANS: A 596. A distorted spray pattern from a fuel injector can cause A. High firing pressure B. Corrosion the nozzle tip C. Low fuel pressure D. Loss of power ANS: D 597. White smoke issuing from the exhaust of an auxiliary diesel engine could mean A. The engine is overloaded B. The engine is cold C. There is too much lube oil in the cylinders D. The turbocharger is fouled ANS: B

598. White smoke exhausting from a diesel engine can be caused by A. Low combustion temperature B. A leaking fuel nozzle check valve C. Late fuel injection D. Plugged oil scraper ring holes ANS: A 599. Bluish smoke in the exhaust of an operating diesel engine can be caused by A. An overheated engine B. A scored cylinder liner C. Water leaking into a cylinder D. Low combustion temperature ANS: B 600. One of the factors limiting the amount of load which can beput on a modern marine diesel engine is the A. Governor sensitivity B. Exhaust temperature C. Fuel injection pressure D. Speed of the cam shaft ANS: B 601. White smoke exhausting from a diesel engine can be caused by a A. High combustion temperature B. High compression pressure

C. Cracked cylinder liner D. Fuel with a high vanadium content ANS: C 602. If a diesel engine runs roughly, which of the systems listed is most likely to be at fault A. Fuel B. Lubricating C. Cooling D. Ignition ANS: A 603. One cause of diesel engine surging can be a result of A. Injection pump plungers stuck or worm B. Low compression C. Solenoid stuck open D. Fuel tank too full ANS: A 604. Which of the listed pre-start procedures should be carried out prior to starting a Crosshead type diesel engine after an overhaul A. Pre lube cylinders with hand cranks B. Open all air space drain cocks C. Open all indicator valves

D. All of the above ANS: D 605. Plugged spray holes in a diesel engine fuel injector will cause excessive smoking at idling speed, in addition to A. Damage to pistons or cylinder heads B. Detonation throughout the load range C. Pre ignition throughout the load range D. Excessive smoking when the engine is under load ANS: D

606. Late fuel injection in a diesel engine is indicated by low firing pressure with A. Low exhaust temperature B. Low exhaust pressure C. Mechanical knock in each cylinder D. Black or gray exhaust smoke ANS: D 607. Distortion of the spray pattern of a nozzle or injector may be indicated by a/an A. High firing pressure B. Overload of that particular cylinder C. Smoky exhaust D. Cooling water temperature rise

ANS: C 608. An incorrect spray pattern produced by a diesel engine fuel injection nozzle can be directly caused by A. Overheating of the nozzle B. Over cooling of the nozzle C. Carbon blockage of the spray holes D. Excessive lube oil temperatures ANS: B 609. High cylinder firing pressure, accompanied by low exhaust temperature, can result from A. Improper fuel rack positioning B. Lengthy exhaust valve duration C. Extended operation at light load D. Excessively early injection timing ANS: D 610. A leaking diesel engine fuel injector will cause A. Prolonged maintenance intervals B. Improved atomization C. Greater fuel economy D. Incomplete combustion ANS: D 611. Diesel engine piston seizure can be caused by

A. Poor cooling of cylinder walls B. Improper cooling of the piston C. Insufficient piston lubrication D. All of the above ANS: D 612. When fuel is injected too early in the injection cycle, it may cause the engine to have A. High fuel economy B. Smoky exhaust C. Early detonation and a loss of power D. High exhaust temperatures ANS: C 613. A diesel engine will lose power if fuel injection occurs too early because the A. Fuel will not be properly atomized in the cylinder B. Ignition will be delayed due to low ignition temperature C. Maximum fuel expansion will occur on the compression stroke D. Fuel will ignite before top dead centre ANS: B 614. When fuel is injected in a diesel engine cylinder too early, A. Ignition may be delayed B. Fuel economy is not affected C. Exhaust gas temperature will be unchanged

D. The exhaust will be clear ANS: A 615. Which of the following should always be checked prior to starting a diesel engine A. Air filters B. Fuel oil strainers C. Crank case oil level D. Pyrometer readings ANS: C 616. When high firing pressures and low exhaust temperatures occur simultaneously in a diesel engine, this may be a result of A. Decreased piston-to-cylinder head clearance B. Increased exhaust back pressure C. Early timing of fuel injection D. Low scavenge air temperature ANS: C 617. If the pressures in a diesel engine are high, although the exhaust temperatures are normal, the cause may be A. Early injection timing B. Worn orifices in the injection nozzles C. Worn or scored cylinder liners D. Using a fuel with too low of a cetane number ANS: B

618. Which of the following statements represents the reason for rolling over a diesel engine with the cylinder indicator cocks open prior to starting A. To test the starting system B. To remove air bubbles from the jacket water C. To ensure that the lube oil system delivers pressure D. To ensure foreign material(water, etc) is not present in the cylinders ANS: D 619. In order to start a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine on high viscosity fuel after an extended shutdown, the A. Fuel must be preheated B. Intake air should be preheated C. none of the above D. lube oil outlet temperature should be increased 20, above normal ANS: A 620. After starting a diesel engine, which of the listed operating conditions should be checked FIRST A. Air box pressure B. Lube oil pressure C. Exhaust temperatures D. Raw water pressure ANS: B 621. What harmful condition can result if a diesel engine is operated at very light loads for long periods of time

A. Increased carbon buildup B. Burning of intake valves C. Excessive firing pressures D. Increased fuel consumption ANS: A 622. A diesel engine should not be operated at low loads for long periods of time because A. Heavy carbon deposits will buildup on the valves and in the exhaust B. Fuel dilution is increased at low load C. Exhaust valves may be damaged D. All of the above ANS: D 623. The possibility of a diesel engine crankcase explosion will be increased by operating an engine A. Equipped with crankcase exhaust blower which vents to fresh air B. With a leaking crankcase inspection cover gasket C. With a crankcase vacuum between 38mm and 50mm of water D. Equipped with a turbocharger which utilizes a gear drive ANS: B 624. The main propulsion diesel continues running after you try to shut down. You should now attempt to A. Stop the air supply B. Engage the jacking gear

C. Secure the lube oil pump D. Shut off the fuel at the day tank ANS: A 625. Low compression pressure in a diesel engine can be caused by A. Carbon deposits in the combustion space B. Carbon deposits on the piston crown C. Leaking cylinder liner seal rings D. Carbon deposits on the piston ANS: D 626. If the diesel engine has been stopped because of piston seizure due to severe overheating, the crankcase A. Inspection covers should not be opened until the engine has cooled B. Ventilation system should be continued in operation for one hour for cooling C. Scavenge pump should be immediately secured to prevent loss of lube oil D. Explosion covers should be opened slightly to provide extra ventilation ANS: A 627. Which of the following conditions indicates the dilution of diesel engine lube oil by fuel oil A. Water discharging from the waste water outlet of the lube oil purifier B. Fuel oil discharging from the waste water outlet of the lube oil purifier C. Lube oil discharging from the waste water outlet of the lube oil purifier D. A change in the lube oil viscosity

ANS: D 628. Following an overhaul of a crosshead type diesel engine, is jacked over with the turning gear as part of the pre-start procedure. Which of the listed pre-start procedures should be carried out A. Ensure proper cylinder lube oil flow B. Open all air space drain cocks C. Open all indicator valves D. All of the above ANS: D 629. A large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine is operating at rated load and speed while the vessel is in calm seas. As the intensity of the seas increase, the engine speed governor maintains the same RPM, although the load indicator indicates an in A. Increase the load limit setting B. Decrease the load limit setting C. Increase engine RPM D. Ignore this situation as the engine can handle the load increase ANS: ANS: B 630. A drop in compression pressure in one cylinder of a diesel engine can be caused by A. A leaking fuel injection nozzle B. A clogged air filter C. early fuel injection D. Burned valves

ANS: D 631. Which of the conditions listed could cause the cylinder relief valves on a large, low-speed, propulsion diesel engine to lift A. Plugged injector nozzles B. Excessive fuel injection C. Very late injection timing D. Incorrect crankshaft clearances ANS: B 632. An increase in crankcase pressure generally indicates A. worn connecting rod bearings B. worn engine cylinder liners C. D. ANS: 633. An increase in diesel engine crankcase pressure generally indicates excessive A. compression pressure B. lube oil heater pressure C. D. ANS:

C. high cylinder firing pressure D. stuck spring loaded manhole covers Ans. B 634.if a diesel engine were running at 20% overload with a smoky exhaust, you should _____________ A .stop the engine immediately to prevent damage B .increase lube oil pressure C .slow the engine allowing it to gradually cool D . decrease the cooling water temperature to the water jacket Ans. C 635.the starting air rotates the diesel engine at the proper speed ,but the engine fails to start . you should check _____________ A . the over speed strip B . for an obstructed air filter C . for air bound fuel lines D . all of the above Ans . D 636 . if a diesel engine turned over at normal cranking speed but failed to start ,the cause could be late fuel injection or______________ A . excessive fuel pressure B . high lube oil viscosity C . inadequate fuel injection D . excessive starting air pressure Ans . C

637 . An increase in power output of a turbocharged diesel engine operating at a constant engine speed result in ______________ A. B. C. D. higher exhaust temperature . increased turbocharger speed higher air box pressure all of the above are correct

Ans.D 638 . An accumulation of carbon on one of its thermocouple of an exhaust gas pyrometer will_______________ A . . read low for that location due to the insulation effect of the deposit B . read high for that location due to the hot spots formed by the deposits C .fluctuate due to the conductance of carbon D .respond quickly to temperature changes Ans . A 639 . which of the listed set of conditions indicates early fuel injection timing? A . lower than normal corapression pressure and high exhaust temperature B . Higher than normal firing pressure and low exhaust temperature C .high fuel consumption and high exhaust temperature D .loss of engine power high exhaust temperature Ans. B 640.Black smoke exhausting from a diesel engine indicates________________ A .proper fuel injection B . water in the fuel C .incomplete combustion

D . burning of the lube oil Ans . C 641 . Clogged or partially obstructed exhaust ports on a diesel engine can cause ___________ A .over speeding of the engine B . failure of the engine to shut down C .no effect on engine performance D . high exhaust temperatures Ans. D 642 . Combustion knock will most likely occur as a result of using a fuel with__________ A . low ignition quality B . a high volatility C . low ignition delay D . a high cetane number Ans. A 643 . Black smoke exhausting from a diesel engine may be caused by____________ A . excessive scavenging air pressure B . high coolant temperature C .insufficient fuel D . a clogged air cleaner Ans. D

644 . if a two stroke/cycle diesel engine is over speeding due to leakage of lube oil into the cylinders, what should you do to stop the engine ? A . move the fuel control mechanism to the no fuel position B . block the fuel supply by closing the master fuel valve C . shut off the fuel supply and block the flow of intake air D . relieve all the pressure in the fuel system Ans. C 645 . two stroke/cycle diesel engine operates erratically ,over speeds and fails to restart when cranked at normal speed. Which of the following problems is the most likely cause for the engine failing to restart? A. B. C. D. improper governor operation due to excess oil pressure damage to the governor due to excessive speed failure to reset the over speed trip failure to reposition the fuel rack

Ans. C 646 . when running a large ,low speed main propulsion diesel engine on heavy fuel, which of the following precautions should be observed when switching back over to diesel oil? A. The diesel oil must never be allowed to mix with the heavy fuel B. The temperature of the fuel from the pre heater should be gradually reduced after switching over the three way valve C. The heating steam to the pre heater should be secured as soon as the diesel fuel passes through the three way valve. D. The heating steam must be secured before the diesel oil passes through the three way valve Ans. B

647. if it becomes necessary to cut out an individual cylinder of a large ,low speed ,main propulsion diesel engine .the fuel to that cylinder should be secured and its________________ A. fuel pump should be removed and all connection blanked off B. cylinder oil feed rate should be increased slightly above that used at normal sea speed C. cylinder oil feed rate should be reduced D. cylinder oil feed rate should be increased to the maximum flow capable of the metering pump. Ans . C 648. late fuel injection timing is indicated by ____________ A. lower than normal cylinder pressure and low exhaust temperature B. lower than normal cylinder pressure and high exhaust temperature c. higher than normal cylinder pressure and low exhaust temperature D. higher than normal cylinder pressure and high exhaust temperature Ans. B

MOTOR MAINTENANCE 649 . Bearing wear on a split sleev type bearing is measured with a A. Ball anvil micrometer B. Pair of outside calipers and a dial indicator C. Pair of inside calipers

D. Depth micrometer Ans. A 650.wear occurring at the tips of the reduction gear teeth is usually the result of _____________ A. surface fatigue B. fretting corrosion C. heavy overloading D. gear misalignment Ans . D 651.while inspecting the main bearing on a diesel engine you find impregnated dirt and scratches in the bearing surface you would therefore ,suspect that _____ A. the bearing had been overheated B. water was present in the oil C. the lube oil was not being properly filtered D. the maximum allowable bearing pressure had been exceeded Ans. C 652. when a nozzle tester is being used to test a closed type fuel injection nozzle,a clogged nozzle orifice will be indicated by a _______________ A. distorted spray pattern B. chattering sound when the nozzle closes C . squealing sound midway in the pump stroke D . .popping sound when nozzle opens Ans. A

653. the spray holes in diesel engine fuel valves should be cleaned using carbon solvent and ______________A. diesel fuel B. a special C.a copper wire brush D . a shaved wooden dowel Ans. B 654.when disassembling or assembling an injection pump plunger and barrel you should__________ A. keep the parts immersed in the diesel fuel B. .always keep the plunger and barrel together C. work over a linoleum type surface D. all the above Ans. D 655.visual inspection of a fuel injector valve, removed during overhaul ,shows heat discoloration of the lower end of the valve this is indicative of _________ A. B. C. D. Ans. A 656. visual inspection of the chrome plated piston compression rings at the linear ports reveals vertical brown streak on the face of the rings .this condition indicates____________ A. A broken ring B. Normal condition Valve leakage Insufficient valve lift Cnoking of nozzle holes Return check valve leakage

C. Ring blow-by D. A leaky fuel injector Ans. C 657.uneven bolt lightening during the installation of a fuel injection pump can result in__________ A. B. C. D. Binding of pump moving parts Ignition delay High torsional shock to fuel lines Improper pump to engine timing

Ans.A 658.in a diesel engine a cylinder liner should be replaced if it is ____________I scuffed II. Scored A. B. C. D. Ans. B 659. in the plunger or barrel of fuel injection jerk pump becomes damaged,________ A. B. C. D. The entire pump must be damaged the injection pump and injection nozzle must be replaced either the barrel or plunger must be replaced the plunger and barrel must be lapped and blued I only is correct II only is correct Both I and II are correct Neither I or II are correct

Ans. A 660.which of the listed devices could be used as a substitute for a ring grooving tool? A. Steel brush B. Fine emery cloth or steel wool

C. A section of the removed compressing ring D. A case hardened scraper Ans. C 661.cracking of a diesel piston crown can result from __________ A. B. C. D. Excessive piston to linear clearance All of the above Faulty nozzle spray The underside of the piston crown being excessively dirty lowering the rate of heat transfer

Ans. D 662. it is easier to replace a dry cylinder liner than a wet one because __________ A. B. C. D. Of the thin wall thickness Honing makes it easier to maintain the desired oil film Water seals are not required It fits more loosely due to a decrease in heat transfer through the composite wall

Ans. C 663. to facilitate early ring seating of newly installed piston rings while still providing extended ring wear___________ A. Inlaid rings can be utilized in which the chrome centre of the ring face slightly protrudes beyond the cast iron edges B. The cylinder surface is honed to the smoothest surface attainable C. A taper faced ring can be used D. Rings with increased back clearance are provided Ans. C 664. insufficient end clearance on newly fitted piston rings in a diesel engine will cause the ring to___ _________ A. Jam in the least worn part of the cylinder when the rings expands

B. Break in the most worn part of the cylinder when the rings expand C. wear essentially on the side opposite the end gap D. overheat and jam at the top centre on the combustion stroke Ans. A 665. heavy fuel oils generally have an upper average ash content of 0.1%by weight.which of the following condition would be expected if the ash content increases above the amount? A. B. C. D. Ans.B 666.the face surface appearance of a shallow groove ,stainless steel chrome plated compression ring should exhibit through its operating life a_________ A. B. C. D. Smooth shallow groove chrome surface Smooth surface of stainless steel Smooth surface displaying area of stainless steel and chrome Surface of gradually deepening grooves Glazing of the cylinder liners Increased valve wear Excessive valve pumping Increased fuel consumption

Ans. A 667. to determine the main bearing clearance of a propulsion diesel engine. You should measure the main bearing shell using a ball anvil outside micrometer and measure the crankshaft journal using a/an _____________ A. telescoping gauge B. ring snap gauge C. inside vernier caliper D. outside micrometer Ans d

668. visual inspection of chrome-plated piston compression rings reveals a black ring face at the position of the cylinder liner ports. This condition indicates a ring which______________ A. B. C. D. Has a crown face Exceeds wear limits through normal wear Has excessive blow by Is in good condition

Ans c 669. The consistent burning of fuel oil with a high sulphur content in a diesel engine will result in------a) clogged fuel injection pumps b) increased cylinder liner wear C) intake valve stem corrosion D) vanish deposit on piston. Ans b 670.burning fuel with a high sulphur content in diesel engine -----------A)increased thermal efficiency B)cause clogging of the fuel system C)increase the ability of the engine to start in cold weather D) produce corrosion in the cylinder and exhaust system at low Ans d 671. Which of the following statement concering cylinder liner wear is true---------A)linear wear is normally greatest in the middle of the cylinder B)excessive liner wear is causes wear between piston rings and groove.

C)excessive but uniform linear wear will not cause wear between piston rings and groove. D)linear wear is distributed equally between the upper and lower portions of the cylinder Ans b 672. Generally where should you find the greatest and wear on the cylinder ladder? A)adjacent to the piston head when the tank is on tdc. B)along the lower part of the inner wall opposite the oil control. C)opposite the top ring shortly after piston travel has ended the compression stroke. D)opposite the oil control ring when the crank is on the bottom dead center. Ans c 673. Worn main bearings will cause the compression ratio of an auxillary diesel engine are an indication of A) increase B)decrease C)remain the same D)increase on compression,decrease on expansion Ans b) 674.the insertion of of shims between the foot of a marine type connectingrod and main bearing bolts,is to use A)increased compression ratio B )decreased compression ratio C)increased bearing clearance

D)decreased bearing clearance Ans a 675. Diesel engine crankshaft deflection readings are generally taken at four crank position.good engineering practice requiresthe deflection gauge or the indicator to be A)placed as near the crankpin axis as possible B)removed each time the crankshaft is repositioned C)left in place for all four readings D)reset to wero for all four readings Ans c 676.an acceptable method of measuring for the correct rotational applied to the connecting rod and main bearing bolts,is to use A)torque wrench B)monkey wrench C)pipe wrench D)slugging wrench Ans a 677.small cracks in the crankshaft bearing surface of a diesel engine are an indication of A)corrosion fretting B)insufficient lubrication C)abnormal water D)fatigue failure Ans d

678. If water is found in the crankcase of a diesel engine,the cause is due to A)a cracked cylinder head B)a leaky cylinder head gasket C)a cracket cylinder liner D) Ans d 679. Diesel engine piston ring blow by usually caused by excessive ring clearance at the ring A)back B)side C)gap D)bottom Ans c 680.diesel engine blow-by into the crankcase is caused by excess ring A)back clearance B)side clearance C)gap clearance D)taper clearance Ans c 681.wear is usually greatest at the top of the cylinder bore of a diesel engine due to the A)side trust B)skirt making the greatest amount of contact

C)highest pressures being emmited D)tremendous acceleration rate Ans c) 682.which of the following operations will have a direct impact on rate of wear in a cylinder liner A)amount of scavenge air to the cylinder B)quality of fuel injected C)viscosity of the lube oil D)compression ratio of the piston Ans b 683.failure to remove the carbon ridge from the top of the cylinder when replaceing the piston ring will result in A)damaged upper piston rings and/or ring lands B)scored piston walls C)damaged cylinder liners D)deformed piston skirts Ans a 684.scuffed cylinder liner wearing surfaces in a diesel engine crank from A)starting the cylinder while hot B)knurling the piston skirt C)operating the engine overheated D)scuff resistant piston rings Ans c

685.water accumulation in the cylinder of a secured engine is an indication that the A)fresh water pump was not secured along with the engine B)jacket water thermostat has failed C)cylinder liner may be cracked D)sea water pump is overspreading just prior to the engine shutdown Ans c 686.the formation of carbon monoxide in diesel exhaust gases is reduced by A)spraying water into the exhaust pipe B)keeping the exhaust system free of carbon deposits C)maintaining proper combustion and scavenge D)avoiding light load operation Ans c) 687)the amount of wear on a split precision main bearing can be accurately determined by comparing the data from?previous reading to the present readings taken with a A)dial indicating outside caliper B)telescoping gauge C)ball anvil outside micrometer D)screw thread outside micrometer Ans c 688) on a diesel engine equipped with individual jerk type fuel pump adjustments should be made to the tappets(push rods) of the A) equalize effective delivery strokes B) regulate combustion pressures

C)regulate exhaust temperatures D)change from light to heavy fuel Ans a 689) the amount of wear on the split fixed sleeve type, main diesel bearing can be accurately determined with a A) dial indicating outside caliper B)spider gauge C)ball anvil out side micrometer D)screw thread outside micrometer Ans c 690)friction, engine wear and oil consumption in diesel engine are directly related to the A)acidity of oil B)pour point of the oil C)clearance point of the oil D)viscosity of the oil Ans d 691) improper cooling of diesel engine cylinder liner due to the accumulation of scale deposits ,may causes A)low compression pressure B)increase the piston wear C)increase the cylinder lube oil consumption D)poor contact between compression rings and liner Ans b

692) the nuts of bearing , connecting rods bolts and all other moving parts are secured by A)hardened steel nut locks B)cotter pins made of spring steels C)split pins or other effective means D)hydraulic nuts as commonly found in large low speed engines Ans c 693) the easiest way to locate a defective diesel engine exhaust value by A)taking compression reading B)inspecting valves visually C)comparing exhaust pyrometer readings D)listening to engine Ans c 694)engine coolant accumulating in diesel engine lu use a sutiable bricating oil can result from a A)low oil pressure B)high coolant pressure C)leaking fuel injector D)cracked cylinder head or liner Ans d 695) if its necessary to clean the spray holes in the diesel engine fuel injector, you should use a suitable size piano wire and A)gasoline B)carbon solvent

C)degreasing component D)strong detergent Ans b 696) while over hauling a jerck type fuel pump is necessary to replace the pump plunger.which of the part liseted below must also be replaced A)delivery check valve B)pump barrel C)tubing to injector D)cam follower Ans b 697)an acceptable meaning of tightening connecting rod and mainbearing cap bolts is to measure the -----------------i)torque applied to each nut and blot assembly ii)stretch of each nut before and after tightening A)i only B)ii only C)both i and ii D)nethier i nor ii Ans a 698) in diesel engine when refitting piston rings you should -----------i)check the ring gap at the smallest diameter of the cylinder ii)remove the carbon from groove A)i only B)ii only C)both i and ii D)nethier i nor ii

Ans c 699)problems in fuel injector of diesel engine are uaually caused by A)improper adjustment B)contaminated fuel C)kinked fuel lines D)excessive engine vibration 700)dirt lodged on the nozzle valve seat of a fuel injection nozzile will cause A)erosion and cratering of the nozzile orifices B)fuel leakage into the nozzile drain line C)fuel leakage before and after injection D)insufficient fuel delivery through that nozzle Ans c 701)when a diesel engine is operated with a piston ring having a cold gap clearance less than that recommended by manufacturer the ring will A)seized and buckle B)seat in more slowly C)slap in grooves D)strick in groove Ans a 702) due to excessive water in the fuel a diesel engine fails to start. Before the engine can be started ,the water must be removed from the A)fuel pumps B)cylinders

C)fuel strainer D)all the above 703) failure to remove the carbon ridge at the top of the cylinder when removing piston may result in A)damage the upper piston ring or ring lands B)scored piston walles C)damaged cylinder liners D)deformed piston skits Ans a 704) if the piston ring gap remains insufficient when installing new rings you should A)install over size rings B)hone the cylinder liners to allow rings installation C)compress the rings tighter with a compressed rod D)files the ends of the rings Ans d 705)when inspecting piston rings through the ports of a two stroke/cycle diesel engine,black areas on the sealing surface are the results of A)insufficient lubrications B)improper piston cooling C)blow by D)over loaded Ans c

706)an examination of piston compression rings of an efficiently operating diesel engine should apper with a A)shiny face and bottom,black back and top B)shiny face , black top, back and bottom C)shiny face ,bottom ,back &top D)black face , bottom ,back and top Ans a 707) excessive side clearance between a piston ring and groove will cause the ring to A)expand excessively under operating temperatutes B)scff the cylinder liner excessively C)hammer the piston land above the ring D)hammer the piston land below the ring Ans d 708) incertain cases a cylinder liner can be refinished rather than replaled. When properly honed the A)cylinder should be cleaned with kerosene B)cylinder liner should have a glazed appearance C)liner surface should have a crosshatch pattern D)counter bore is slick and smooth Ans c 709 One method of determining crankshaft misalignment is by

A laying a straight edge across the crank webs at the crankpin and measuring the distance to the crankpin and measuring the distance to the crankpin two places. B measuring the crank drop on either of each crank throw while the crankshaft is slowly rotated through one revolution. C rotating the crankshaft through one revolution ,pausing each 900of rotation to measure bearing clearances ,top and bottom. D taking micrometer readings between the crank webs opposite the crankpin every 900 of crank angle rotation Ans D 710 Which of the following statements correcting cylinder liner single acting disel engine is correct? A Uniformly excessive liner wear will not cause wear on the rings and grooves. B Liner wear is distributed equally between upper and lower point the cylinder. C Excessive liner wear between piston rings and D Liner wear is normally greatest in the middle of yhe cylinder. Ans 711 C

Ona large low-speed main propulsion diesel engine, lower main bearing wear is usually measured by using a /an A dial indicator B outside caliper C bridge gauge D tram rod

Ans : C 712. The rate of wear on a cylinder liner depends on the A quality of air filtration B effectiveness of lubrication C type of fuel used D all the above Ans : D 713 Abnormal crankpin bearing and piston skirt surface wear indicate A a restricted air intake B a clogged connecting rod oil passage C incorrect connecting rod alignment D high cylinder firing temperatures Ans : C 714 To determine the main bearing clearances in a dieselengine Should use A a depth micrometer B an anvil faced micrometer C plasti-gauage D. a vernier caliper Ans : C 715 The ring lands on a large ,low speed ,main propulsion diesel engine piston may due to

A. Insufficient cylinder liner wear B. Contaminated lubricating oil C. Incorrect connecting rod alignment D. High cylinder firing temperature Ans : C 716 Incomplete combustion in a running diesel engine can cause rings to become stuck as a result of A. Residual carbon deposits B. Lube oil visicocity breakdown C. Uneven Heat expansion of the rings D. Uneven heat expansion of the piston If the compression rings on a diesel engine piston become stuck in the rings groove the causes may be due to A. Excessive ring action B. Excessive ring temperature C. Improper the ring rotation D. Excessive ring face wear Ans : B 718 A conduction contributing to disel engine piston rings sticking ring grooves is insufficient ring clearance at the ring A. Gap B. Side C. Back D. Radial Ans : B 719 Low temperature in a disel engine could be caused b y A. Worn or broken cylinder liner sealing rings B. High cooling water temperature C. Worn or broken piston ring D. Low fuel oils pressure Ans : C 720 low compression pressure in a diesel engine is caused by 717

A. Low water in the expansion tank. B. Improperly seated valves. C. Low fuel oil pressure D. Worn or broken cylinder liner sealing rings Ans : B 721 Low compression pressure in a diesel engine can be caused by A. Improperly seating intake valves B. Leaking cylinder liner seal rings C. Late fuel injection timing D. Carbon deposits on the piston Ans : A 722 Which of the listed problems can be a caused of low compression pressure in a diesel engine? A. Clogged air filter B. Leaky valve cage C. Burned exhaust valves D. All the above Ans : D 723 Low compression in a diesel engine may be the result of A. Insufficient fuel supply due to fuel pumps valves sticking or leaking B. Excessive mechanical clearance between the piston crown and cylinder head C. Excessively worn fuel pump plunger D. Excessive exhaust back pressure Ans : B 724 When a nozzle tester is used to check the spray pattern of a injection nozzle , A. The nozzle should operate within plus or minus 500 pounds of specified opening pressure B. The nozzle should not make any noise when pressure is applied. C. The valve should pop the actual set pressure

D. The oil spray could cause blood poisoning if the spray penetrating skin of the operator Ans : D 725 A. B. C. D. When a piston is removed from a diesel engine for maintenance, the piston should be examined for scoring cracks and burned spots gummy deposits and sticking rings all the above

Ans : D 726 To reduce load during jacking operations , which of the listed should be opened ? A. B. C. D. fuel line Expansion tank Cylinder test valves Sea valves

Ans : C 727 After removing an old set of rings , which of the following conditions is indicated if a bright spot is found on each end of a broken piston ring? Improper lubrication execessive diametrical tension in sufficient ring pressure insufficient gap clearance

A. B. C. D.

Ans : D

728

After an engine has been started using a Bendix drive unit ,the gear or pinion disengages from the flywheel due to A. the action of a spring B. rotation of the starting cam C. the higher rotating speed of the flywheel Clean the interior to remove oil and foreign matter. Ans : C Bearing crushas applied to diesel engine main bearings will result in A. positive sealing of the bearings in their housings B. above normal operating temperatures C. damage to the journals D. damage to the bearings Ans : A

729

730

Crank web deflection readings will give a positive indication of A. B. C. D. worn main bearings journals torsional stress deformation Stack thrust bearings Bearings shells shim dimensions

Ans : A 731 When accumulated carbon at the air inlet ports of a two stroke/cycle diesel engine is being removed , you should take care to avoid carbon A. Entering the cylinder B. Particles becoming lodged under the intake valves C. Entering the water jacket D. Particles entering lube oil Ans : B

732

The replacement piping for diesel engine high pressure fuel systems must be the same length and diameter as the original piping to A. B. C. D. Avoid unnecessary parts inventory Keep torsional stress deformation Use existing supports and braces Lube oil system Ans : D

733 A. B. C. D.

A burned exhaust valve may be detected by a higher than normal Firing pressure Exhaust temperature from a particular cylinder Cooling water temperature Compression pressure

Ans : B 734 A. B. C. D. In a diesel engine , a leaking exhaust valve can cause Misfiring Preigintion Interrupted scavenging Reduced scavenging

Ans : A 735 The most severe cavitation erosion occurring on the waterside of diesel engine wet cylinder liners normally occurs A. Throughout the lower one-half of the liner B. Throughout the upper one-half of the liner C. At TDC opposite the thrust side of the liner

D. Near the middle of the thrust side of the liner

Ans : D 736 Exhaust valve grooving and corrosion is caused by certain components of residual fuel oil. These components are sodium ,sulphur ,and A. B. C. D. Vanadium Carbon Copper Ash

Ans :A 737 Which of the listed cylinder liner surface conditions indicates proper lubrication ?

A. B. C. D. 738 A. B. C. D. 739.

Dull black appearance Bright appearance Thin layer of lacquer Thick oil flim A well lubricated bearing surface always appears Well knurled Slightly streaked Lightly glazed Highly polished

To minimize the formation of carbon deposits on fuel injection nozzles,you should A. avoid using liquid-cooled nozzles whenever possible B. avoid low cooling water temperatures

C. avoid prolonged overloading of the engine D. make certain the gasket seal between the nozzle cylinder head is tight Ans : C 740. The principal hazard to personnel when a diesel nozzle tester in use is A. Electrical shock B. Toxic fumes C.Explosion D.Blood poisoning Ans : D 741. You are inspecting the lower main precision bearings on a diesel engine.You observe that about half the thin Babbitt linings are of a milky white colour. The condition is caused by

A. Large dirt particles in the oil supply B. Insufficient lubricating oil and overheating C. Normal water D. Water contamination of the lube oil Ans : D 742. You are testing a non-popping closed fuel injection nozzle using nozzle tester.A pressure slightly less than design valve opening pressure is applied. If no fuel appears at the spray tip,the A. nozzle orifices are too small B. nozzle orifices are eroded C. needle valve is defective D. needle valve is seating properly Ans : D

743.

Because of the close tolerances used in diesel engine fuel oil pumps ,a worn plunge requires

A. B. C. D.

Grinding the spare plunger to the barrel Replacing the plunger and the barrel Highly polishing both the plunger and barrel Replacing plunger only Ans : B Which of the fuel nozzles listed requires the LEAST maintenance?

744.

A. pintle B.Single hole C.Multi-hole D.open Ans : D

745.

When inspecting pistons ,liners ,and rings of a large twostroke/cycle diesel engine through the cylinder ports ,a wet piston crown would indicate a

A. B. C. D.

Faulty piston lubricator Leaky fuel injector Broken compression ring Faulty oil ring : B

Ans

746.

Which of the listed devices could be used as a substitute for a ring grooving tool used to remove hard carbon deposits for piston rings grooves in preparation for installing new rings? A. Steel brush B. Fine emery cloth or steel removed C. A section of the removed compression ring D.A case hardened scraper 747. If the plunger or barrel of a fuel injection jerk pump becomes damaged . A. only the replacement of the entire pump would be acceptable B. the injection pump and injection nozzle must replaced 748. Surface irregularties, such as erosion and pitting on injection pump plungers , will A. Increase iginition delay B. Affect fuel oil meeting C.

C. either the barrel or plunger must be replaced performance at low speed only D. the barrel or plunger must be replaced as a unit abrasion Ans: D

C. affect engine

D. disappear due to fuel oil

Ans: B

749. The side clearance of the compression rings on diesel engine pistons is necessary to ______ A . permit gas pressure behind and on top of the rings

B. prevent carbon accumulation behind the rings C. allow for lube oil drainage behind the rings D. prevent combustion gases burning the ring grooves Ans: A 750. If lost motion is present in an individual fuel injection pump the following problems will occur? A. Fuel injection will be released B. Fuel injection will remain unchanged C. Fuel injection will occur earlier D. Fuel injection will occur later Ans: D 751. In a large, low speed main propulsion diesel engine, if the injectors have formed carbon aroun the nozzle holes, which of the following would help avoid further buildup? A. Increase fuel injection pressure. B. Increase fuel preheat temperature C. Decrease load limit on the governor D. Increase injector cooling water temperature Ans: D 752. A condition contributing to diesel engine piston rings sticker ring grooves is insufficient ring clearance at the ring ______ I. gap II. side A. I only B. II only

C. both I and II D. neither I nor II Ans. B 753. In a diesel engine, when installing new piston rings it is important to check ______ I. ring gap clearance A. I only B. II only C. both I and II D. neither I nor II Ans. C 754. the purpose of an interference angle in a diesel engine external valve is to _______ I. work in conjuction with valve rotate the valve II. Break up seats deposits A. I only B. II only C. both I and II D. neither I nor II Ans: B 755. When accumulated carbon at the air inlet ports of a two stroke/cycle diesel engine is being removed, you should take care to avoid carbon particles _______ A. entering the lube oil B. entering the cylinder C. entering the water jacket

D. become lodged under the intake valves Ans: B 756. You are installing new piston rings on a single acting diesel piston. To check the ring gap clearance, the rings should be at the______ A. point of minimum cylinder wear B. center of the cylinder C. point of maximum cylinder wear D. point of maximum ring wear Ans: A 757. A defective injector nozzle in a propulsion diesel engine can cause_____ A. engine power losses B. smoking due to unburned fuel C. high exhaust temperature readings D. all of the above Ans. D 758. Which of the following problems is the main source of fuel power injection system malfunctions? A. Air in the fuel system B. Improper adjustments C. coated fuel lines D. Excessive vibration Ans: B

759. When turning a new cylinder head stud on the lathe, the minimum effective thread length of the stud is determined primarily by the ______ A. Stud length B. stud diameter C. head nut diameter D. stud material Ans. B 760. If you determine that entrained air in the fuel oil system is diesel engine to stall, you should first check for_____ A. fuel leakage in the injector pumps discharge lines B. worn gaskets in the transfer pump discharge lines C. partially clogged fuel oil discharge strainers D. loose fittings in the booster fuel pump suction piping Ans: D 761. In a large low-speed diesel engine excessive piston clearance can be restored by_____ A. decreasing the thickness of the cylinder head gasket B. inserting shims between the crankpin bearing box and the connecting rod foot C. replacing the complete bearing set D.rotating the crankpin bearing until the proper end clearance is obtained Ans:B 762.Which of the following procedures should be carried out to proper use of a crosshead engine with an inoperable aftercooler?

A. Bypass the aftercooler to operate at sea speed B. Run a t reduced speed until the cooler can be repaired or renamed C. switch to diesel fuel and run at reduced speed D. Nothing needs to be done due to the low heating value of heat Ans: B 763. A faulty injector in one cylinder of an operating diesel engine can be located by_____ A. cutting out individual injectors and notice engine performance B. checking lube oil temperature C. checking cam position D. using a timing light Ans: A 764. Which of the following conditions would cause carbon deposit form in the piston ring belt of a diesel engine? A. Faulty combustion B. Excessive ring temperature C. Over lubrication D. All of the above Ans. D 765. A change in the quality of fuel atomization by a diesel engine fuel injector would be caused by a/an______ A. increase in engine speed B. increse in cylinder turbulence

C. leaking needle valve D. reduction in cylinder turbulence Ans: C 766. When installing rings on a diesel engine piston, you should ring _______ A. diametrical tension B. gap clearance C. radial thickness D. face thickness Ans: B 767. A change in the degree of fuel atomization by a diesel engine greatly affects the ______ A. air turbulence B. fuel penetration C. fuel spray tip angle D. fuel injection rate Ans. B 768. Which of the following problems may occur if the clearance be a piston and cylinder liner is insufficient? A. Excessive wear B. Scuffing of the liner C. Piston seizure D. All of the above

Ans. D Page 40 769. Black areas on the sealing surfaces of piston ring indicate ______ A. Lube oil pumping B. rotating rings C. gas pressure behind the ring D. passage of hot gases Ans: D 770. A bright shiny appearance of the sealing surfaces on diesel engine compression ring indicates_____ A. combustion gas blow-by B. excessive lubrication C. properly functioing rings D. insufficient cylinder cooling Ans: C 771. The best tool to use for removing the carbon ridge at the top of an engine cylinder, prior to removing the piston, is to use______ A. an electric grinder B. a metal scraper C. a reamer D. a three wing hone Ans: B

772. Which of the devices is commonly used in measuring the clearences between the main engine bearings and the crankshaft? A. Plasti-gauge B. Depth gauge C. copper shims D. Wooden gaging pegs Ans: A 773. Which of the following conditions can result in the cracking of the piston lands? A. high lubricating oil temperature B. Dirty lubricating oil C. Minimal cylinder liner wire D. Insufficient ring groove clearance Ans: d 774. Which of the following problem may occur when using fuel oil with a high sulphur content? A. injection lag B. Lube oil dilution C. Preignition D. Corrosion Ans. D 775. If the back clearance of a piston ring is excessive_______ A. compression pressure in the cylinder will be higher

B. carbon will be accumulate behind the ring C. combustion gases will penetrate beneath the ring land D. piston side thrust will be increased Ans. B 776. Which of the following conditions could contribute to the crackingof a diesel engine cylinder head? A. Leaking seal ring B. Insufficient heat transfer from the exhaust valves C. Blocked cooling water passages to the head D. Excessive scavenging air provided to the engine Ans. C 777. A properly honed diesel engine cylinder liner will A. prevent piston ring wear B. shorten the ring break in period C. prevent cylinder line gazing D. appear slick and glazed Ans. B 778. A scored diesel engine cylinder liner will cause_____ A. high firing pressure B. abnormally high cooling water temperature C. rapid wearing of piston rings D. combustion gases in the cooling water

Ans. C 779. Which of the following operating conditions can occur when shims are removed from the joint between the foot of marine type diesel engine connecting rod and the bearing box? A. Decreased connecting rod bearing clearance B. Increased connecting rod bearing clearance C. Decreased compression ratio D. Increased compression ratio Ans. C 780. After a long of operation a wear ridge, caused by piston ring action will develop near the top of the cylinder liner. This ridge must be removed when piston rings are renewed in order to prevent_____ A. excessive wear during the seating period B. excessiv elubricatiomof the top ring C. improper spreading of lubrication on the cylinder wall D. breaking of the top ring , ring land, or both Ans. D 781. Crank lead can be adjusted to change which of the listed operating conditions? A. Longer combustion events B. Exhaust events starting before scavenging events C. exaust events lasting longer than scavenging events D. Higher combustion temperatures

Ans. A 782. When a hydraulic valve lifter is on the base circle of the cam, zero tappet clearance is maintained by the ______ A. valve spring B. plunger spring C. oil pressure D. rocker arm Ans. B 783. In a diesel engine , blow-by is generally the result worn_____ A. valve guides B. oil control rings C. valve seats D. compression rings Ans. D 784. Which of the listed conditions can cause lacquer to be deposited on a piston skirt? A. High sulphur content fuel B. High lube oil temperatures C. High vanadium content fuel D. Excessive piston slap Ans. B 785. Scuffed cylinder liner wering surfaces in a diesel engine can result from_____

A. chromium plating piston rings B. knurling the piston skirts C. extended maximum power operation D. applying load to a cold diesel engine Ans. D 786. If a diesel engine driving a generator turns over freely but fails to fire properly, the cause could be_____ A. excessive compression pressure B. air in the fuel lines C. high fuel pressure D. excessiv eload Ans. B 787. When diesel engine compression pressure is checked, the indicator is connected to the_____ A. cylinder exhaust ports B. injection line C. cylinder indicator cork D. banjo oiler line Ans. C 788. In a diesel engine exhaust system, the cooling of the exhaust gases below their dew point, will result in _____ A. increased engine back pressure B. sulphuric acid corrosion

C. surface pitting of the turbocharger compressor blades D. moisture impingement on the turbocharger compressor blades Ans. B Page 41

789 which of the following statements is true regarding the installation of piston rings on two-stroke/cycle, diesel engines as compared to four stroke/cycle, diesel engines ? A in a two stroke cycle engine, the rings run hotter, requiring the end gap to be greater. B some provision most be made in a two stroke /cycle engine to keep the rings from binding in the ports. C no gap is required to exist between the ends of the ring when cold in a two stroke/cycle engine ,but a small gap is required in a four stroke/cycle engine. D the end gaps should be staggered on either side of a piston in a two stroke cycle engine , while staggering is not necessary in a four stroke/cycle engine. ANS B 790 In a large , low speed diesel engine the clearance between the crown and cylinder head is found to be excessive , in order to for this ,,you should ----------------------A build up the piston crown by metal spraying B build up the cylinder head by metal sprying C insert shims between the crankpin bearing box and the connecting rod foot D install a thinner head gasket

ANS c 791 Bouncing of the valve gear in a diesel engine can be caused by ----------------------A prolonged high speed operation B spring surge C warn valve seats D excessively tightened spring retainers ANS B MOTOR-STARTING AND REVERSING SYSTEM 792 WHERE engine bores exceed 230mm a bursting disc or flame arrester is to be fitted--------------------------------A At the supply inlet to the control air manifold for non-reversing engines B On the exhaust manifold prior to the inlet of the turbochargers C On all devices subject to the by-product of combustion or lubrication system vapors . D In way of the starting valve of each cylinder for direct reversing engines having a main starting manifold. ANS D 793 What may be used to protect starting air mains against explo.. arising from improperly functioning staring valve ? A The starting air main shall be protected by the use of a rupt B No protection is necessary because all staring air valve are designed similar to check valves

C An isolation non return valve is to be installed at the staring supply connection to each engine. D The materials used in the construction of the starting air main contain any explosion. ANS C 794. The total air capacity for non reversible main engine is to be sufficient for_____ A. six consecutives starts B. eight consecutives starts C. ten consecutives starts D. twelve consecutives stars Ans-A 795. Starting a large propulsion diesel engine using diesel fuel during weather condition can made easier by____ A. increase the quality of stating air B. increasing the tube oil pressure C. heating the engine fuel suply D. heating the engine jacket water Ans-D 796. A diesel engine is turned at normal cranking speed, but fails to fire. This can occure from___ A. low tube oil tempreture B. low starting air tempreture

C. air in the fuel injection system D. water in the starting air system Ans-C 797. Which of following method is used to prevent throtting of compressed air through the diesel engine air starting valves A. Holding the valves open for a long period B. Increasing the starting air pressure used C. opening the starting air valves quickly D. Reducing the starting air valves size Ans-C 798. In starting process of diesel engine, the main object is to attain the compression the condition sufficient to _____ A. turn the flywheel B. reduce friction C. overcome inertia D. ignite the fuel Ans-D 799. Fluid type starting moter used for starting auxiliary diesel engine may either be of the piston type or the___ A. gear type B. vane type C. impeller type D. accumulator type

Ans-B 800. A six cylinder, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is fitted with a ratary distributor type air starting system. The speed of the rotating distributer disc is ____ A. one-half engine speed B. the same as engine speed C. twice engine speed D. four times engine speed Ans-A 801. In addition to a main engine driven starting air compressor, and air compressor driven by a separate power spurce, is installe____ A. provide air for engine scavenging B. provide air for engine supercharging C. supply a backup source of starting air D. supply the independent source of reversing air Ans-C 802. The reversing mechanism on a direct reversing large low speed main propulsion diesel engine, operated by means of oil pressure can serve to_____ A. bring the respective cam under the fuel pump roller B. rotate or displace the camshaft according to engine design C. bring the respective cam under the air distributor pilot valves D. all of the above Ans-D

803. When the quick acting valve to admit starting air to an air start is activated, the valve should be opened rapidly to____ A. prevent damage to the air line lubricator B. ensure proper operation of the bendix pinion C. prevent damage to valve seat D. increase the air charge density to the moter Ans-B 804. Which the listed diesel engine starting system is most susceptible to difficulties in cold weather A.Direct cylinder admission air start B. Hydraulic C. Electric D.Air moter starting Ans-C 805. Before any diesel engine hydraulic starting system is opened for servicing or repair. you must____ A.placed all control levers in the"HOLD" position B. ensure that the hydraulic fluids reservoir is fuel C. block all hydraulic hoses using high pressure covers D. bleed off all hydraulic pressure from the system Ans-D PAGE:-42

806.The minimum speed an engine must attain before ignition can occure depends upon___ A. the type and size of the engine B. the condition of engine C. ambient tempreture D. all of the above Ans-D 807. A diesel engine fails to start even though it can be barred over out, but not cranked over. The probable cause is__ A. a seized piston B. an improperly fitted bearing C. a closed or obstructed air starting line valve D.insufficient compression Ans-C 808. If an auxiliary diesel engine equipped with an electric starting system cranks very slow after repeated attempts to start, the cause could be a/an____ A. low tube oil viscosity B. low compression pressure C. ring gear with broken teeth D. overheated moter winding Ans-B 809. During extremely cold weather, while starting an engine, it turns too slowly and fails to start.This problem is most likely the result of______

A. high fuel oil viscosity B. low fuel oil tempreture C. high tube oil viscosity D. energized glow plugs Ans-C 810. Improper seating of an air starting check valve in an operating diesel engine is indicated by __________ A. noise coming from the air starting valve B. an overhead air supply pipe to the cylinder head C. continuous operation of the starting air compressor D. zero air pressure in air starting system Ans-B 811. Vessel having main engines arranged for air starting are to be provided with at least____ A. one automatic drain serving both containers B. two air starting containers of approximetely equal size C. one control air container and one starting air container D. one addition means of standing the main engine Ans-B 812.If control air system supplied from starting air receivers, the capacity of the receiver should be sufficient ________ A. to provide the intermittent starting procedure

B. for continued operation of these systems after capacity for the required no. of consecutive starts has been used C.to provide a nonrevesible engine a minimum of twelve consecutives starts D. to enable six consecutive starts of a reversible engine Ans-B 813. Cold weather starting of a diesel engine is more difficult than warm weather starting due to____ A. use of low viscosity oilin cold weather B. higher compressor pressure reached due to small clearances existing in the engine during cold weather C. increased drag of piston and bearing due to increased oil viscosity D. increased moisture content of inlet air in cold weather Ans-C 814. Starting aids such as glow plugs, are installed on___ A. large, direct drive diesel engine B. diesel engine designed to burned residual fuels C. medium-speed, foru-strok/cycle diesel engines D. small diesel engines utilizing electric starting equipment Ans-D 815. A diesel engine may fail to start due to_____ A. low air charge temperature B. high cranking speed C. excessive fuel dilution of tube oil

D. high compression pressure Ans-A 816. An eight cylinder, air started, two-stroke/cycle direct reversing, marine diesel engine can be started from any crankshaft position only if it has______ A. at least three cylinders equipped with air start valves B. a minimum of five cylinders equipped with air started valves C. each upper cylinder head equipped with reversible ait valves Ans-A 817. On diesel engine, using a distributor type air starting system that is not running. Which iof the following methods may be used detect leaking air starting valvesA. open the cylinder test cocks and check for blowing air B. Check the position of the air start valve cams C. stop the air compressor and check pressure drop throughout the system D. feel each air supply line to see which is warm from leaking air Ans-A 818. If a diesel engine start firing, but is unable to come up to normal speed, either without load or even under a small load, the cause may be_____ A. insufficient fuel supply B. faulty governor C. high exhaust back pressure D. all of the above may cause this problem Ans-D

819. After changing out the fuel filters the diesel engine fails to start. The most probable cause for this condition is a/anA.low compression B. air-bound fuel system C. improper spark D. change in viscosity Ans-B 820. While underway,which of the following would be the FIRST step in reversing a direct reversing large, loiw speed , propulsion, diesel engineA. Manually trip the overspeed device B. Interrupt the fuel flow to the engine C. Disengage the safety interlock D. Slide the camshaft to the neutral position Ans-B 821. A ship is propelled by a direct reversing large, slow-speed , diesel engine.One step in reversing the direction of propeller rotation for this vessel is by_______ A. properly inflating the air operated clutch B. reversing the reduction gear C. changing the gear ratio D. reversing the servomoter Ans-D

822. When starting a diesel engine at temperature below 20'c, the friction resistance to turning will be________ A. reduced by increasing tube oil pressure B. controlled by reducing the compression ratio C. proportion to the tube oil viscosity D. eliminated by heating the intake air Ans-C 823. The starting air supply for a diesel engine is generally produced by a/anA. exhaust powered turbocharger B. Roots-type blower air pump C. centrifugal air compressor D. multistage reciprocating air compressor Ans-D 824. Air motors used for standing some auxilliary diesel engines are generally the type known as a/anA. vane motor B. plunger motor C. gear motor D. accumulator motors Ans A

825. Intercooler installed on standing air compressor, reduce the possibility of ______ A. dust entering the high pressure stage B. tube oil carbonization C. discharge pulsation D. interstage vapour lock Ans B Page 43 826. Starting air valves are held firmly on their seats by___________ A. camrollers on the camshaft B. Spring force C. air pressure on the top of the valve differential piston D. air pressure on the bottom of the valve differential piston Ans. B

827. Stating systems for large, low-speed, direct reversing, main propulsion diesel engines are usually____________ A. hydraulic starting motor B. electric starting motor C. direct air admission D. vane type air motors Ans. C

828. Diesel engines air _____________________ A. an air start cam

start

system

check

valves

are

opened

by

B. cylinder compression pressure C. starting air pressure D. valve springs. Ans. C

829. In a hydraulic starting system, oil to the starting motor flows from the __________________ A. accumulator B. reservoir C. hand pump D. electric pump Ans. A

830. When an air started, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is being cranked, the starting air is admitted to each cylinder during what would normally be the_________________________ A. intake stroke B. compression stroke C. power stroke D. exhaust stroke

Ans. C 831. If a four stroke/diesel engine is started by injecting air into the cylinders the pistons receiving the charge of starting air must be______________ A. On the power stroke B. on the exhaust stroke C. on the at the end of the power stroke D. at the start of intake stoke Ans:a 832. An auxiliary diesel engine may fail to start due to A. low exhaust back pressure B. high lube oil temperature C. insufficient cranking speed D. excessive fuel atomization Ans:c 833. If a diesel engine rotates slowly when cranked, but does not fire, the A. fuel control rack had admitted excessive fuel B. engine speed does not match the fuel rack setting C. engine has failed to reach its firing speed D. starter pinion and ring gear contact is not corrected Ans:c 834. Which of the routine maintenance procedures listed is required for starting air receives A. frequent draining of accumulated moistures

B. frequent testing of relief valves C. a close watch on temperature to prevent fiuctuations in pressure D. frequent cleaning to remove oil and foreign matter Ans;a 835. Which of the following problems occur if you continuously fail to drain off condensate from a starting air A. corrosion and eventual failure of the tank B. gumming of the tank relief valves C. immediate failure of components downstream of the compressed air system D. boiling of the water oil moistures as pressure is redused Ans;a 836. When attempting to start a main propulsion diesel engine, the engine turns at the proper speed but will not start. You should check the__________. A. starting air pressure B. scavenge air pressure C. over speed trip D. banjo oiler line Ans : C 837 A four- stroke/cycle, 1000 horsepower diesel engine fails to start at normal cranking speed with normal fuel pressure and ambient temperature. The reason for the failure could be ________ A. B. glazed liners or pistons high lube oil pressure

C. D.

excessive compression ratio worn valve seats and valves

Ans : D 838 which of the listed items should be secured before performing any maintenance on a solenoid operated air start valve? A. B. C. D. starting air pressure scavenge air pressure overspeed trip banjo oiler fine

Ans : A 839 When starting air is admitted a diesel engine turns over very slowly without firing . The cause may be_____________ A. B. C. an obstruction in an engine cylinder water accumulation in some engine cylinders excessive compression ratio

Ans : C 840 A pilot-operated main air starting valve begins leaking in one cylinder while the engine is operating. This malfunction is indicated by__________-A. B. C. D. Electric power Lube oil standby pump hydraulic switch Motor drain

Ans : D

841)HYDRALIC STARTERS are installed on many lifeboat diesel engine instead of comparable air start system because___________ A)hydraulic starters are the least expensive of all starting system B) system does not require high pressure C) hydraulic system turns diesel engines at higher rates of speed than air starter D) the system can be manually recharged Ans : D 842) if a diesel engine fails to start,one of the likely causes is A low compression temperature B low ambient air pressure C high lube oil pump pressure D high fuel oil booster pump pressure. ANS A 843) A diesel engine may fail to start when being cranked,due to A high cetane number B insufficient compression C low lube oil viscosity D high lube oil pressure ANS B 844) if a hydraulic starting motor turns,but the diesel engine does not,the most likely cause is A excessive viscosity in the hydraulic fluid B a malfunctioning overrunning clutch

C loss of accumulator precharge D air in the hydraulic system ANS B 845) A bendix drive starting motor disengages the drive gear from the flywheel by A spring force B rotating of the starting cam C the high rotating speed of the flywheel D applying accumulator pressure Ans;c 846. A diesel engine startinc, motor is operated under a no-load condition. Counting to operate the motor unloaded will____________. A. disengage the throw out bearing B. over speed and cause serious damage C. fail to develop normal speed D. cause the pinion to fail Ans:B 847. If the diesel engine stater-driver mechanism fails to disengage after the engine starts, which of the following situation will occur? A. The engine will stall B. The starter motor will have reverse current C. The engine fly wheel will be burred D. The starter motor will over speed Ans:D

848. During maneuvering operations for a direct reversing large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine, which of the following actions is used to stop the shaft from turning prior to reversing the engine rotation? A. Fly wheel inertia B. Admission of starting air C. The way of the vessel D. securing of ruel to the cylinders Ans:B 849. The pilot valves in an air pilot starting system for a two-stroke/cycle directreversing, main propulsion diesel engine are operated by either a ported distributor disc or a/an ___________.A. regulersing, main propulsion diesel engine are operated by either a ported distributor disc or a/an A. regular valve B. quick opening main air valve C. pilot air start check valve D. individual cam for each pilot valve Ans:D 850. A two-stroke/cycle diesel engine requires less starting air than a four stroke/cycle diesel engine, of equal displacement, because the two-stroke/cycle diesel engine____________. A. has little or inertia friction B. has a lower effective compression ratio C. operates with scavenge air under a positive pressure D. operates without energy absorbing intake and exhaust strokes Ans:D

851. Which of the listed types of starting systems is often used on large low-speed, direct reversing, main propulsion diesel engines? A. Piston B. Gear C. Turbine D. Centrifugal Ans: C 852.The timing of diesel engine air starting valves is controlled by __________. A. the air start valve timing gears and rods B. a cylinder check valve C. individual cams and valve gear D. an air manifold poppet valve Ans: C 853) WHICH OF THE types of motors listed is used in a hydraulic starter? A) piston B) gear C) turbine D) all of the above Ans: A 854. An accumulator used in a hydraulic starting system is generally located between the ____________. A. pump and he composer B. storage tank and the pump

C. starting motor and the reverse tank D. pump and the starting motor Ans: D 855. The device used to store a changed pressure for an hydraulic starting system is called the ________. A. reservoir B. handpump C. accelerator D. accumulator Ans:D 856. The pinion of an electric starting motor used with a diesel engine engages the fly wheel ring gear by a/an-___________. A. automatic follow-up B. muff coupling and release C. friction-type clutch D. bendrix driver or similar mechanism Ans:D 857.auxilliary diseal engine electric starting motors use_________ A. alternating current B. 400 cycle per second motor-generators C.low amp high voltage AC D.direct current Ans:D

858)IN a starting motor equipped with a bendix drive the pinion moves and meshes with the flywheel ring gear due to________ A) the mechanical linkage B) the threaded sleeves rotation C) centrifugal force D) electromotive force ans:b 859)a largetwo-stroke/cycle direct reversing diesel engine is to be reversed prior to the admission of starting air you must__________ A) line up the engine for restarting with light diesel oil B) reposition the fuel injection cam C) change the intake and exchaust valve cam positions D) place the starting cam in the intermediate position Ans:b 860) in a medium speed marine propulsion engine equipped with direct air starting valves the cylinders without air starting valves the fire first because the_______________ A) operation is under higher compression B) fuel is admitted only to these cylinders during cranking C) compression is released during starting by opening the exhaust valve D) cylinders are not chilled by the expansion of the starting air Ans:D 861) two air compressors are provided for the starting air system and should be capable of___________ A) charging the starting air containers within one hour

B) providing the minimum quantity of starting air at all times C) supplying all the air necessary to start both the main engine and an auxiliary at the same time D) topping of all receivers the required design pressures ANS:A 862.if cranking a diesel engine is too slow while attempting to start,it will result in__________ A. insufficient heat of compression B. fouling of air intakes C. improper injection timing D. high exhaust temperatureto the Ans A 863. in an operating diesel engine , which of the following conditiong is an indication of a leaking air starting value? A.noise coming from that air starting valve. B. contineous operation of the starting air compressor. C.zero air pressure in the air starting system. D. overheated starting air pipe to the cylinder head. Ans.D 864.Each receiver in the starting air system which can be isolated from a relief valve__________ A.is to be provided with sutiable fusible plug to relieve the prsesure in case of fire B.will incorporate the use of an automatic unloading device C.will not be approved for classification purposes

D.and satisfy classification regulations shall be approved Ans A

865. Air receivers installed in starting air system are to be________ A.cylinder in shape with service connections located at the top and bottom B.opened and made available for inspection during biannual inspections C.provided with automatic drain traps for the removal of moisture D.so installed as to make the drain connections effective under extreme conditions of trim Ans D 866 a diesel engine may be hard to start if the __________ A.air intake is restricted B.engine is cranked too fast C.vibration dampener is faulty D.exhaust back pressure is low Ans A PAGE-45 867 The total starting air capacity required for reversible main engine is to be sufficient for a least__________ A.six consecutive starts B.eight consecutive starts C.ten consecutive starts D.twelve consecutive starts

Ans D 868 What preventative maintenance should be done frequently to diesel engine starting air receivers? A,drain the accumulated mositure B.test the relief valve C.watch the temperature to prevent fluctuations in pressure D.clean the interior to remove oil and foreign matter Ans A Lubricating systems 869 Heat exchanger are most commonly found in a small auxiliary diesel engine___________ A.fuel oil system B.govering system C.air starting system D.lube oil system Ans D 870 one advantages of vaccum feed type cylinder lubrication over the liquid sight glass type is ___________ A.there are fewer moving parts B.adjustment is not required C.better metering accuracy D.a lower grade of oil may be used Ans C

871 which of the following device controls the discharge flow rate of an attached, positive displacement,rotary gear,diesel engine,lube oil pump? A.a pressure regulating valve B.a pressure relief valve C.the engine speed D.an orifice Ans C 872 Mechancial lubrication for diesel engine cylinders are usually small reciprocating pumps which are_____________ A.operated manually once each hour B.operated until the engine starts C.placed into operation only at maximum load D.adjustable to meet lubrication requirements Ans D 873 which are the following statement is true concerning an oil cooler? A.the oil temperaturen is less than the cooling water temperature B.the oil pressure is less than cooling water pressure C.the oil pressure is greater than cooling water pressure D.the oil flow control valve is always installed in the oil input line Ans C 874 Lubrication for the main reduction gears used with diesel engine is usually supplied by___________ A.oil from the main engine stumps

B. an independent lube oil system C.the stern bearing head tank D.the stern bearing sump tank Ans B 875 which of the following device is normally provided to prevent oil starvation in a diesel engine lubrication system utilizing the fuel flow principle? A.duplex strainer B.three way valve C.pressure relief bypass line around the filter D.mechancial strainer filter Ans C 876 A large, low speed,crosshead,main propulsion diesel engine using residual fuel oils must have a cylinder oil having a ___________ A.low TBN valve B.high alkaline reverse C.low folearance point D.high pour point Ans B 877 Many lube oil filters have pressure gauges installed on both the inlet and outlet in order to indicate the pressure drop across the filter in normal operation, the pressure drop will ___________ A.slowly increase B.slowly decrease

C.remain the same D.have no effect on filter operation Ans A 878 The rate of the cylinder lubricating oil metered to each cylinder of a large,low speed,main propulsion diesel engine is _____________ A.the same whether at sea,or during maneuvering B.ajusted during each hour of opreation while constant RPM C.higher at sea than while maneuvering D.lower at sea than while maneuvering Ans C 879 Lube oil cannot be efficient filtered if its __________________ A.visocity is too low B.temperature is too low C.pump discharge pressure is higher than the system pressure D.pump capacity is greater than the systems needs Ans B 880 A drity lube oil strainer can result in ____________ A.crankcase dilution B.low lube oil temperature C.excessive oil consumption D.low bearing oil pressure Ans D

881 Lube oil filter remove contaiminations more effectiveif the oil being filtered is ________________ A.under high preesure B. under low pressure C.heated to reduce visocity D.cooled to increase visocity 882 The pressure differential across a diesel engine lube oil system duplex filter should be checked to ____________ A.determine the need for filter changing B.measure any change in oil visocity C.prevent damage to the filter D.determine the need for batch filtration 883 Lube oil in the fresh water cooling system of a diesel engine may result from a _____________ A.camshaft seizure B.lube oil pump failure C.lube oil cooler failure D.lube oil sump overflow Ans C 884 Most large,low-speed,main propulsion diesel engine use duplex lube oil strainer to ________________ A.decrease the time required between cleanings B.remove water contamination

C.ensure a positive flow of oil at all times D.ensure that all oil has been treated twice Ans C 885 which harmful consequence may be the result of lube oil sludge accumulation? A.clogged oil pump suction screens B.increased oil operating temperature C.sticking piston rings D.all of the above Ans D 886 The TNB valve pf diesel engine lube oil refers to its ability to __________ A.resist changes in visocity with changes in temperature B.resists emulsification C.neutralize acids D.resists oxidation at high temperature Ans C 887 A drity fuel oil filter is can be detected by_____________,fuel oil analysis II.observing the pressure drop across the filter A. B. C. D. Ans B I only II only Either I or II Neither I nor II

888 Sludge formation in a diesel engine lube oil system is caused by ____________ A.carbonization of oils from the combustion chambers B.emulsions of lube oil and water C.coagulation of unburnt fuel below the piston rings D.All of the above Ans D 889 Two important considerations for the proper lubrication of a diesel engine include,the delivery of the oil insufficient amount and the _________________ A.cetane number B.pour point C.visocity temperature D.quality of the oil Ans D 890 The adverse effect of burning high sulphur fuel can be compansated for by using a cylinderr oil having sufficient _____________ A.dispersant additives B.floc point deperssive additives C.alkalinity D.igntion quality Ans C 891 Lubricating system for diesel engine are usually designed to initially provide lube oil to the engine ____________

A.camshsft bearings B.main bearings C.piston crowns D.cylinder walls Ans B 892 The lube oil cooler is located after the lube oil filter in order for __________ A.the filter to operate more efficiency B.the lube oil cooler to be bypassed C.positive lube oil pumps suction to be assured D.galvanic action in the cooler to be minimized Ans A 893 A spring-loaded relief valve is located on some lube oil filters in full flow system to ______________ A.prevent overpressurization of the filter cartridge B.prevent overpressization of the filter casing C. bypass the filter should it become clogged D.limit the lube oil outlet pressure Ans C 894 Lube oil filters remove contaminationts from oil more efficiently if the oil being filtered is _____________ A.heated to reduced visocity B.cooled to increase visocity C.pumped rapildly through the filter

D.pumped through the filter under high pressure Ans A 895 Lubricating oil used in a diesel engine serves to __________________ A.reduce the wear of bearing surfaces B.cool the bearing surfaces C.assist in sealing bearing surfaces D.all the above Ans D 896 A diesel engine should use which type of lubricating oil? A.nondetergent oil B.cutting oil C.high grade vegetable oil D.detergent oil Ans D 897 In a diesel engine,the function of lubricating oil is to provide _______________________ A.a film between the shaft and bearings B.cooling of the piston and bearings C.for removal of drity or metal particles resulting from wear D.all of the above Ans D

898 A diesel engine exposed to widely varying ambinet temperature should use a lubricating oil with ____________ A.a high visocity index B.a low visocity index C.exterm pressure additives D.no additives Ans A 899 When the fuel enters the crankcase of a diesel engine,it ______________ A.dilutes he lube oil and reduce its visocity B.forms sulphuric acid in the lube oil C.causes pitting and failure of the bearings D.causes sludge deposits on the valves stems Ans A 900 The thickness of the oil film to be developed in a diesel engine main bearing depends upon the ____________ A.bearing pressure B.visocity of the oil C.rpm of the shaft D.all of the above Ans D 901 Maximum lube system operating pressure for a diesel engine is normally regulated by a/an ________________ A.orifice in the pump suction

B.special filter design C.pressure drop through the filter D.relief valve Ans D 902 For a continous operation diesel engine, a duplex filter unit would be the best arrangement because _____________________ A.changing filter elements would not interrupt engine operation B.filtering occur twice in each pass of oil through the system C.clogging will not occur D.dropping in pressure is half of that through a single stage filter unit Ans A 903 The highest indicated lube oil pressure in diesel engine should be expected when the engine oil is______________ A.cold at idle B.warm at idle 904 IN a diesel engine, maximum lube oil system pressue is normally controlled by __________ A.the capacity of lube oil pump B.the speed of the lube oil pump

905 With respect to the flow of lubricating oil through a diesel engine the

Lube oil coolers are located after filters in order to A. B. C. D. Allow filtration of less viscous oil Decrease the pressure drop across the filter Improves overall filtration All the above Ans D

906 Lubricating oil system for diesel engine journal because are usually Lubricated by which of the following types of lubricating oil system A. B. C. D. Splash Gravity Pressure Bypass Ans C

907 Which of the following characteristics of lube oil helps to reduce the Amount of deposit in the piston ring belt during the combustion Process in a diesel engine A. B. C. D. Low viscosity index Low carbon forming tendency High film strength High noncorrosive qualities Ans. B

908 Which lubricating oil additive is used in a diesel engine to reduce the Tendency for sludge and varnish to form the engine parts A. B. C. D. Folearance point improves Pour point improves Inhibitiors Foam suppressors

Ans. C 909 Motor vessels usually have independent lube oil system for main engine And main reduction gears because A. B. C. D. Coolers are not needed for the gear systemte Contaminants produced by the engine could harm the reduction gears Non-additive oil are used in the main engine system Different type centrifuges are required for the main engine and reduction gear lube system Ans. B

910 Where may a strainer be located in a diesel engine lubricating oil system? A. B. C. D. Suction line Discharge line Supply line In any combination of the above Ans. D

LUBRICATION-MAINTENANCE 911 To routinely clean a metal-edge type lube oil strainer you should A. B. C. D. Remove the disc element and immerse in gasoline Remove the disc element and immerse in kerosene Rotate the disc element and drain off the sediments Rotate the knife-edge cleaner blades and drain off the sediments Ans. C

912 When excessive fuel dilution is noted in the lube oil the oil should A. B. C. D. Centrifuged Filtered Strained Changed

Ans. D 913 If a used lube oil analysis indicates excessive fuel dilution the lube oil should be A. B. C. D. Changed Centrifuged Filtered Settled Ans. A

914 A detergent-type lube oil used in a diesel engine , should be replaced with A. B. C. D. Fuel oil dilution is 5% It begins to turn black The exhaust shows traces of the blue All the above Ans. A

915 Which of the contaminants listed would remain in the lube oil after filtering A. B. C. D. Acid sludge Fuel oil Sediment Water Ans. B

916 Most large low speed main purpose diesel engine use duplex lube oil strainer to A. B. C. D. Decrease the time required between cleanings Remove all large and small foreign objects Ensure a positive flow of oil at all times Ensure that all lube oil has been treated twice Ans. C

917 Which of the following test points should be considered a determining factor as to Whether or not a diesel generator lube oil should be drained and renewed? A. B. C. D. An extremely low neutralization An extremely high precipitation number The oil appears black in color A minor increase in f clearance point Ans. B

918 In a normally operating diesel engine the main source of lubricating oil contaminated in the Crankcase is a result of the A. B. C. D. Metal particles loosened by wear Air when no air cleaners are used Condensation of water vapors Breakdown of the lubricating oil itself Ans. D

919 A magnetic strainer is used in the diesel engine reduction gear oil system to remove small particles A. B. C. D. Water Babbit Iron or steel Acids Ans. C

920 A dirty diesel engine oil filter element can best be detected by A. B. C. D. Visual inspection of the elements The pressure drop across the filter High lube oil sump temperature Decrease in oil viscosity from the filter

Ans. B 921 What could cause the bypass valve in a full-flow lubrication system to open A. B. C. D. Clogged filter elements Bypass valve settings too high Check value struck open Fuel dilution of the lubricant Ans. A

923 To properly clean the disks of a metal-edge type strainer in a diesel engine lube oil system You should A. B. C. D. Remove the dluks and soak them in kerosene Rotate the T-handle spindle one turn Wire brush the disks to remove sludge Blow compressed air through the disks Ans.B

924 A blotter test is performed on the lube oil of a diesel engine to determine the A. B. C. D. Percent of fuel dilution of lube oil Folerance point Relative detergency remaining TBN number Ans .C

925 When fuel oil has seriously contaminated a diesel engine lubricating oil, you should A. B. C. D. Filter to remove the fuel oil Use the settler to remove the fuel oil Remove the fuel oil by the centrifuging Drain and then renew the lube oil supply

Ans.D 926 which of the following operation conditions will occur to the diesel engine lube oil at Extremely high temperature A. B. C. D. After every trip Every 4000 hours According to manufacturing instructions Every line they are shutdown Ans. C

927 If the detergent type lubricating oil being used ina diesel engine is black the oil A. B. C. D. Must be centrifuged Must be filtered Must be changed Is holding finley dispersed carbon in suspension Ans. D

928 Which of the following operational conditions will occur to the diesel engine lube Oil at extreme high temperature A. B. C. D. The oil oxidizes and forms carbon deposits The viscosity increases Engine oil consumptions decreases Lubricating qualities of the oil are enhanced Ans. A

929 Oil oxidation as a result of excessively high lube oil temperature is harmful To a diesel engine because A. Oil foaming will occur

B. Large quantities of oil are consumed C. Lube oil viscosity is always decreased D. Corrosive by products are usually formed Ans. D 930 Metal particles accumulated from the wearing of components in a diesel engine can Result from lube oil has been contaminated A. B. C. D. Abrasive particles Metallic oxides Corrosive acids Any or all of above Ans. D

931 In the analysis of used lube oil indicates a high content of iron particles this could indicate A. B. C. D. Corrosive deterioration of a bearing Inadequate air filtration Excessive ring and liner wear Excessive cooling of lubricating oil Ans. C

932 If used lube oil analysis indicates an excessive chromate content this means A. B. C. D. Air filtration is inadequate Engine coolant is leaking into the lube oil Fuel oil is leaking into the lube oil The piston rings are excessively worn Ans.B

933 one simple laboratory analysis of used lube oil that can be carried out aboard ship is called the A. Paraffin test

B. Blotter test C. Stability test D. Spectrographic test Ans. B 934 A decrease in the fclearance point of the diesel engine lube oil indicates the lube oil is A. B. C. D. Dilute with fuel oil Dilute with water Contaminated with carbon Contaminated with sludge Ans. A

935 Which of the listed conditions can be used to determine if the lube oil has been diluted by fuel A. B. C. D. Viscosity is lowered Octane number is altered Pump speed is decreased Blowers speed is decreased Ans. A

936 A sudden decrease in the diesel lube oil viscosity could be an indication of A. B. C. D. Loss of additives from the lube oil Carbon deposit in the lube oil Excessive centrifuging Excessive fuel dilution Ans. D

937 which of the following faults would allow lube oil to enter the cooling system of a diesel engine A. Excessive value train lubrication B. Leaking standby oil cooler core C. Excessive lube oil in the system

D. Excessive lube oil in the system Ans. B 938 The color of the diesel engine detergent type lube oil is an operating diesel engine is black, this indicates A. B. C. D. Worn out oil Fuel dilution Water dilution Normal oil condition Ans. D

939 If the chemical analysis of the lube oil sample taken from a diesel engine indicates an Increased neutralization number the A. B. C. D. Acidity ahs increased Viscosity has decreased Demulsibility has improved Foaming is guaranteed to occur Ans. A

940 Oil oxidation as a result of excessively high lube oil temperature is are harmful to a diesel engine because

A. B. C. D.

Oil foaming will always occur Large quantities are consumed Lube oil viscosity is always decreased Corrosive by products are usually formed Ans . D

941 Usually low oil pressure in the lube oil header of a diesel engine is the result of a/an A. Pressure regulating value being stuck in the slosed position

B. Restricted lube oil passage in the engine C. Air leak in the lube oil cooler D. Air leak in the oil pump suction line Ans. D 942 TO manually bypass a strainer or filter in a shunt type lube oil filtering system A. B. C. D. First parallel in the drain lines Turn the three-way valve Open the bypass valve and then close the isolation valves Closed the isolation valve and then open the bypass Ans. B

943 In the flow type lube oil system, the bypass relief valve will lift due to A. B. C. D. A clogged filter element Excessive lube oil pump discharge pressure Excessive lube oil flow Excessive not lube oil Ans

944 To determine the lube oil filter elements need changing A. B. C. D. Open the filter and inspect the elements Check the lube oil pump discharge pressure Check the lube oil header pressure Check the pressure and drop across the filter

945. A decrease in flash point of diesel engine lube oil indicates lube oil has become__________ A. contaminated with sludge B. contaminated with carbon

C. diluted with fuel oil D. diluted with water Ans :c 946. Which of the listed conditions can cause a diesel engine to much lube oil? A. dirty lube oil filter B. too much piston ring wear C. high lube oil viscosity D. low lube oil temperature Ans: B 947. Which of the following condition is indicated when the lubricating oil of a diesel engine turns dark After a few hours of use? A. B. C. D. the oil should be purified the lubricating quality of oil as dangerously deteriorated the oil is functioning normally normal engine operating temperature have been reached Ans :c

948.when a leak as developed in the loop oil cooler of an open diesel engine .which of operating condition can be excepted to occur? a) lube oil contaminated with salt water b) Lube oil level decrease c) lube oil contaminated with freash water coolent d) Ans :B 949.The oxidation by product forming in diesel engine lube oil van cause.

A. pitting B.sludge C.hard vanish D.all of the above Ans: D 950.Under normal conditions the main source of crankcase oil contamination is attributed to A. metal particles loosened by wear B. air when air cleaners are not used C. condensation of water vapours D. breakdown of the lubricating oil. Ans: D 951. A condition that can increase the foaming tendency of lube oil is ___________ A. excessively high oil temperature B. water or moisture contamination C. fuel dilution D. carbon suspension Ans:B 952. One device used to determine the amount of fuel dilution of a engine lub oil is an________ A. autogenous ignition indicator B. viscosity-dilution chart

C. precipitation number indicator D. modified neutrality chart Ans:B 953. Fuel oil contamination of an auxiliary diesel engine lube oil can result in _____________ A. an increased fclearance point B. higher lube oil pressures C. an increased viscosity D. lower lube oil pressures Ans: D 954. Diesel engine lube oil can become contaminated as a result_________ A. a water produced during combustion B. a sulphur in the fuel C. unburned fuel oil D. all of the above Ans:D 955. Lubricating oil viscosity in an operating diesel engine can be reduced by ___________ A. increasing cooling water flow B. increasing lube oil flow C. dilution by fuel oil D. adding SALE 70 oil

Ans: C 956. The total base number value of diesel engine lube oil to its ability to__________ A .resist changes in viscosity with changes in temperature B .resist emulsification C .neutralize acids D .resist oxidation at high temperatures 957.to prevent vibration damage to the fuel supply line of a diesel engine you may use__________ A .a short length of heavy duty clear plastic tubing B .a length of approved flexible non metallic C .welded flange connection for all joints D .aluminium piping with expansion loops 958. the light and medium fuels utilized in internal combustion engine provides a source of_____________ A .lubrication for pistons and rings B .food for microbiological organism C .gases most detrimental to the ozone layer of the atmosphere D .all the above Ans;B 959. Microbiological growths in marine fuel are a common occurrence that can be __________ A. extremely detrimental to equipment and operating process

B. prevented by maintaining proper storage temperatures C. removed from emulsified fuel oil during the centrifuging processes D. all of the above correct Ans: A 960. A growth rate of microbiological organisms as found in some supplies will__________ A. increasing in direct proportion to an increase in temperature B. decrease in bleaches are added to the fuel on a regular basics C. remain unchanged provided complete consumption of the fuel monthly D. all of the above Ans:A 961. Fuel as produced in a refinery are generally sterile ,however, contamination can occur as are________ A. stored at the refinery B. stored on the vessel C. transported to the distribution sites D. All of the above are corrected Ans:D 962. In order for microbiological growths to thrive in a fuel tank it is necessary for_________ A. high temperatures to exist B. low temperature to exist C. small amounts of water to be present

D. large amounts of water should present Ans:c 963.which of the following conditions is NOT of microbial contamination? A. objectionable odors B. increased air filter charges C. occurrences of flow of water D. increased corrosion of tank plating Ans:B 964. Which of the substance listed is satisfactorily removed from the by centrifugal oil purifier? A. carbon particles B. lube oil C. gasoline D. diesel fuel Ans:A 965. A dirty fuel oil filter element can be detected by________ A. visual inspection of the element B. the pressure drop across the filter C. high fuel oil tank temperature D. increase flow rate from the filter Ans:B 966. fuel oil having a low cetane rating could result in___________

A. improved cold weather starting B. excessive fuel oil combustion C. reduced ignition lag D. smoother engine operation Ans:B 967. In diesel engineering practice,the term used to express the ignition qualify of the particular fuel is_____________ A. cetane number B. octane number c. ignition index number D. volatility point Ans:A 968. With respect to diesel fuel,the ease with which a cold engine will start is depend upon the______ A. ignition quality of the fuel B. high heating value of the fuel C. amount of carbon residue after combustion D. internal flow resistance in the injectors Ans:A 969. Which of the following statement is true concerning the cetane number rating of diesel fuel? A. cetane number is obtained by comparing the cetane a colourless liquid hydrocarbon

B. the higher the cetane number shorter the ignition lag C. the highest cetane number of fuel is 100 D. all the above Ans:D 970. Why are heavy fuels not usually prone to the problems of microbiological infection? A. heavy fuels are subjected to better refining processes which events the formation of these growths B. most heavy fuels contain chemicals which prevent the growth of fungi and other bacteria C. microbiological infections does not does not affect marine fuel but rather the personnel who are involved with the handling storage and purification of the fuel D. the necessary nutrients that the organisms feed on are in a more complex from and not available for microbial degradation Ans:D 971. Most types of microbiological growths in fuel are______________ A. bacteria B. fungi C. yeasts D. all the above Ans:D 972. Fuel oil strainers should be made of____________ I copper II brass A. I only

B. II only C. either I or II D. neither I nor II Ans:D 973. which of the following statements describes the unchecked growth of microbiological organisms with in a fuel system? A. the dying bacteria will cause a coating to be formed on the sides of the tank there by decreasing corrosion B. the fuel in the tank will loose its fluidity solidify and be the cause of an expensive removal process C. corrosion of various metal components will occur due to the formation of hydrogen sulfide gas D. all the above are correct Ans:C 974. When fuel oil heaters are required for main engine operation___________ A. each heater shall have the capacity to supply the main engine at full power B. at least two heaters of approximately equal size are to be installed C. the system shall be designed to permit series or parallel operation D. none of the above Ans:A 975. An indication of microbial contamination is____ A. stripping of paint in tanks B. reduced corrosion in fuel tanks

C. usually discovered during normally scheduled strainer cleaning D. yellow slime or fibrous sludge Ans:A 976. One cause of diesel fuel engine ignition delay is___________ A. mechanical flexibility in the pump mechanism B. late fuel injection C. early fuel injection D. ignition quality of the fuel oil Ans:D 977. The desirable properties of a marine fuel oil should include A. high flash point and high viscosity B. low flash point and high viscosity C. low heating value and high sulphur content D. high heating valve and low sulphur content 978. A substance found in residual fuels which tends to cause exhaust valve corrosion and grooving is_________ A. carbon B. vanadium C. calcium D. hydrogen Ans:B

979. Which of the listed factors will indicate the most above the ability of the fuel to ignite in a diesel engine? A. viscosity B. sulphur content C. pour point D. cetane number Ans:D 980. To minimize corrosion,fuel oil strainer disks,spacers and scraper blades are made of______ A. brass B. copper C. Iron D. monel metal or stainless steel Ans:D 981. A mixture of 45% cetane and 55% alpha-methyl-napthalene is found to have same ignition delay as a sample of diesel oil the sample can described as having a/an_______ A. cetane number of 55 B. cetane number of 45 C. octane number of 55 D. octane number 45 Ans:B

982. The sludge tank installed in diesel engine room is used to collect_______ I sludge from the fuel oil setting tanks and centrifuge-II water data has been collected in the settling tank A. I only B. II only C. both I and II D. neither I and II Ans:C 983. Injection lag in a diesel engine may be caused by_________ A. a higher cetane number of fuel oil B. diesel fuel having a high viscosity C. mechanical rigidity in the tube pump mechanism D. a decrease in the fuel pump delivery pressure Ans:B 984. Diesel engine injection lag is caused by________ A. compressibility of the fuel B. high fuel oil supply flow C. scored plunger and barrel packing D. excessive air turbulants Ans:A

985) Automatically fired auxilary boilers use fuel oil stainer arrangements of eitheer the simplex type or .

a) filter bag type b) metal disc type c) absorbent type d) duplex type ans(d) 986) piping from atleast a) shedule 60 b)shedule 80 c) standard seamless steel d) none of the above ans 987) The fuel oil stainers located in the fuel oil service system of an automatic auxilary heating boiler are either the duplex type or the a) filter bag type b) perry filter type c) simplex type d)absorbent type ans(c) 988) Which of the following represents the significance the fuel oil cetane number a) the cetane number has no of affect on injection lag b) the cetane number is an indication of the fuels viscosity booster pumps to injection systems are to be

c) ignition tag is reduced with fuels having a high cetane number d) the cetane number is of little significance in the combution process ans(c) 989) Proper filtering and straining of diesel fuels is important because the a) fuel of pump will overspeed if dift is not removed b) fuel oil transfer pumps cannot tolerate small amounts of grit in the oil c)fuel injections may be damaged by foreign particles in the fuel oil d) dirty fuel will clog the intake air filter ans(d) 990)Which of the following statements is true concerning the cetane number of diesel fuel? a) the cetane number of affects the amount of injection tag b)the cetane number of is of little significance in the combution process c)ignition lag is redused with fuels having a high cetane number d) the cetane number is an indication of the fuels viscosity ans(d) 991)If a diesel engine runs of fuel, you can expect trouble from a) overheated injector pumps b)water condensed in the cylinders c)fuel dilution of the fuel d)air in the consumption

ans(d) 992)The cetane number rates fuels for diesel engines aaccording to its. a)antiknock charecteristics b)ignition qualities c)rates vapourization d)viscosity ans(b) 993)The cetane rating of diesel fuel is an indication of the a)ignition quality of the fuel b)calorific value of the fuel c)fclearance point of the fuel d)rate of fuel consumption ans(a) 994)The ignition quality of a fuel oil is an important operational consideration because it .. a)indicates the amount of abrasive material in the fuel b)affects the starting ability of a cold engine c)determines the compression ratio of an operaating engine d)affects the compression ratio of an operating engine ans(b) FUEL SYSTEMS MAINTENANCE 995) When cleaning a duplex strainer , it is important for .

a) b) c) d)

The pressure to be bled prior to opening the compartment cover The lube oil to be allowed to cool before removing the basket The cleaning fluid used to be more viscous the lube oil A new cover gasket to installed when reassembling the unit Ans(a)

996) Which chemical listed is utilized to prevent and correct most microbial infections occuring within fuel storage systems ? a) bleaches b) banalities c)biocides d) benzene additives ans.(c) 997) The metal edge type filters used in diesel engine fuel oil and lube oil systems are normally cleaned in plase by.. a) back flusing the system and draining the filter b) opening the drain plug and blowing through the filter c) manually operating a built-in scraper and draining the filter d) flusing with any approved solvent then draining the system ans..(c) 998) proper house keeping to prevent the formation of microbiological growths within a fuel system includes the prevention of water accumulation and the use of.. a) steam coils b) fuel oil centrifuges

c) fuel oil dicharge filters d) chemical additives called biocides ans..(d) 999) Which of the following conditions is not an indication of contamination of the fuel supply? a) evidence of corrosion b) pitting of metal surfaces c) pressure of green slime d) brithening of copper bering metals ans(d) 1000) An increased pressure differential between the inlet and outlet of a strainer usually indicates the strainer is . a) holed b) fouled c) clean d) dry ans..(b) 1001) Small amounts are necessary to trigger the growth of microbiological organisms found in some fuels . some sources of water contamination of a) tank surface leakage b) humidity and condensation c)improper tank washing procedures micrbial

d) all of the above ans (d) 1002)Which of thefollowing statements describes the results of excessive microbiological growths within a fuel system? a) all excessive amounts of growths will cause the main engines of the vessel to stail due to supply the procer quantitives of the existing load b) the deposits prodused by these growths from blokages and flow restrictions ultimately leading to improper atomization of the fuel into the cylinders c) eventually the growth of these organisms will deplete the supply of rood available to them, which in turn will cause their demise d) all the above ans.(d) 1003)the major cause of problems occuring with fuel injectin equipment is. a)incorrect replacement of barries and plugners of jerk pumps b) overheating of the nozzles c) cracked pump housings d) dirt in the fuel ans(d) 1004) the microbiological growths that affect fuel supplies can easily be transported from one location to another by. a) roaches and other insects b) air, solid or liquids c) oter non-hydrocarbon fuels

d) all the above ans(b) 1005) Air in the fuel lines to the fuel injection nozzles of a diesel engine will result in a) lower compression pressures b) overheating without smoking c) failure to fault d) run away without load ans.(c) 1006) the major cause of fuel pump and injection system problem is / a) improper adjusments b) contaminated fuel c) kinked fuel lines d) excessive engine vibration ans.(b) 1007) fuel oil day tanks for diesel engines must be checked and cleaned at regular intervals in order to remove. a) sludge b) water c) micro organism growth d) all the above ans(d)

1008) fuel is regularly transferred to the day tank in order to . a) allow impuriries to settle out of the fuel b) allow the air to escape the fuel c) make fuel available for immediate use d) all the above ans ..(d) 1009) clogged diesel engine fuel oil filters can cause. a) loss of power b) misfring c) low fuel oil pressure d)all the above ans.(d) 1010)generating tubes in waste heat boilers are finned to.. a) b) c) d) Reduse gas flow turbulense Prevent exhaust gas corrosion Increase the rate of combusion Increase the rate of heat transfer

Ans(d) 1011)it is desirable for an auxilary boiler safety value to pop and reset quickly to .. a) give a warning that excessive boiler pressure has been reached b) prevent wire drawing of the disc and seat c) prevent valve pounding

d) provide sufficient blowdown ans.(b) 1012) a failure to any component of a flame safeguard automatically fired auxilary boiler,with result in .. a) the prevention of automatic restart b) an immediate furnace explosion c)un controlled firing d) automatic restart ans..(a) 1013) the amount of oil consumed by a returnflow type fuel atomization system filled with both supply and return meters , can be determinated by the.. a) supply meter reading only b) return meter reading only c) sum of the supply and return meter readings ans.(d) 1014) the flame safeguard by control system of a large automatic auxilary boiler will provide fuel shut off in the case of high.. a) water b)voltage c) fuel pressure d) steam pressure control an

1015) if the fire goes out in an automatically fired auxilary boiler and the burner continues to supply fuel ,there is a potential danger of . a) over pressure and dry firing b) a severe furnace explosion c) spalling damage to the work d) heat damage to atomizer ans.(b) 1016) prior to lighting off a cold automatically fired auxilary boiler , you should . a) check and regulate the water level b) close the air cock once fires are lit c) blowdown the gauge glass d) crack the steam stop to assure protective steam flow ans.(a) 1017) When an automatically fired boiler has a flame out , which of the following actions should occur first? a) the fuel valve should be de energized b) the purge cycle should begin c) an alarm should ring d) the fueloil pump should stop ans.(a)

1018) Which of the following actions takes place in the control circuit of an automatically fired auxilary boiler when the desired steam pressure is obtained? a) a temperature sensing device opens the circuit breaker in the burner motor b) the high limit control secures power to the entire oil firing system c) the stack relay actuates the low limit control which breaks the ignition circuit d)the stack relay secures power to high voltage side of the ignition transformer 1019) which of the listed sequence of events occurs when an automatic auxilary boiler is prepurged? a)the damper on the inlet side of the furnace is moved to open position for a given number b) for a given number of of seconds and then moved to the low fire position c)the damper is moved to the closed position for a given number of seconds and then removed the low fire position d) the damper in the uptakes is moved to the wide open position for a given number of seconds and then moved to the low firing rate position

PAGE 55 1060 Exessive vibration of an automatically fixed auxillary boiler can be caused by a) b) c) d) Air or water in the furnace Combustion pulses Fuel oil pump failure Flame failure

1062 An exhaust gas by pass is installed on a waste heat boiler in order to

a) b) c) d)

Recycle exhaustgas to the turbocharger Bypass a portion of the exhaust gas at peak loads for better efficiency Bypass exhaust gas at high loads to prevent excessive back pressure Minimize moisture condensation in the boiler gas passages at low loads Ans:d

1063 A properly adjusted safely valve for an auxillary boiler will a) b) c) d) Attain maximum lift when it pops below its set pressure Open with a sharp clear pop at its set pressure Close sharply when the pressure drops to its set pressure Operate most effectively when it has zero blowdown Ans:B

1064 Constant capacity pressure atomizing fuel burners designed to meet a wide operation in streaming loads on a auxillary boiler are a) b) c) d) Automatically supplied with warmer air on demand Automatically supplied with more fuel on demand Equipped with standard variable capacity atomizer Cycled on and off in response to steam demand Ans:c

1065 A gauge glass on a coil type auxillary boiler is connected to the a) b) c) d) Heating coil inlet and outlet Surge chamber Accumulator Water softener Ans:C

1066 In comparison to straight flow mechanical atomizer return flow atomizer provide relatively uniform atomization over a wide firing range due to a) Back pressure regulation in more complete combustion at high firing rates b) Oil supply pressure not having to be reduced at low loads to the point where poor atomization occurs

c) Return fllow atomizer being designed for best combustion at low firing rates d) Rotational motion imparted by the tangential slots being greater in the low flow atomizer Ans:B 1067 Which of the following statements concering fire tube boilers is correct a) b) c) d) Combustion gases flow through the tubes Flames impinge on the tube Combustion occurs in the tube Water flows through the tube Ans:A

1068 Which of the listed problems will happen when the water level of fire tube auxillary boiler approaches the crown shee a) b) c) d) The fusible plugs will meet The furnace will explode Excess steam will be generated The furnace will overheat Ans:A 1069 Fins are installed on the fire side of the water toes used in waste heat boilers to a) b) c) d) Decreases the velocity of gases flowing past the tubes Reduce the accumulation of soot deposites on the tubes Eliminate exhaust gas pulsation and noise Increase the rate of heat transfer to the waterside

1070 The amount of fuel oil atomized by a return flow oil burner is directly controlled by a) b) c) d) Header supply valve Burner root valve Oil micrometer valve Fuel oil back pressure Ans:

1071 In the event of a flame failure in an auxillary water tube boiler you must a) Relight the boiler immediately to prevent loss of steam pressure b) Relight the fire off the brickworks c) perge the furnace of any combustible gas before attemting to relight the the fire d)speedthe feed pump restablished Ans:C to prevent dry firing when the burner flame is

1072 An auxillary boiler is equipped with a return flow fuel atomization fuel burners designed to meet a wide variation in steaming of an auxillary boiler are a) b) c) d) Constant fuel supply pressure Constant fuel return pressure Variable fuel supply pressure All of the above Ans:A

1073 The constant capacity pressure atomizing fuel oil burners designed to meet a wide variation in the steaming loads of auxillary boiler are a) b) c) d) Automatic cycled on and off in response to demand Automatically supplied when required Equippeds with standard variable capacity atomizer Equipped with fuel nozzles having variablr offices Ans:A

1074 Exessive vibration from an auxillary boiler could be caused by a) b) c) d) Combustion pulses Insufficient air to the burner Loose hold down bolts All of the above Ans:D

1075 Which of the foolowing statements concerning operation of coil type forced circulation auxillary water tube boiler is correct a) Water is continuously circulated through a pre heater before it enters the fclearence chamber b) Steam is generated in the heating coils and is force fedto an accumulator c) Un evaporated boiler water collects in the bottom of the accumulator d) Moisture is generated from generated steam in a radiant superheater Ans:c

1076 Which thfollowing statements about coil type forced circulator auxillary water tube is correct

a) b) c) d)

Steam is generayted in the fclearence chamber Steam is recirculated to the heating coils Response to steam demand is comparatively rapid Un evaporated feed water drains to the bildge Ans:C

1077 Exessive return of oil pressure from avariable velocity return flow fuel oil burner system on a automatic uxllary bo0iler will a cause a) b) c) d) Flame failure Burner smoking Ignition failure Burner failure Ans:B

PAGE56 1078 An auxillary boiler equipped with a return fuel atomization system has a a) b) c) d) Constant fuel combustion rate Constant fuel return pressure Create turbulence Increase the heat transfer area Ans:D

1079 The amount of oil transfer atomized by a return flow variable capacity atomizer used with some automatically fired boilers is controlled by the a) b) c) d) Amount of air admitted to the atomizer Oil pressure in the oil return line Quantity of oil delivered by the service pump Proportioning device in the atomizer fuel valve Ans:B

1080 Which of the following items is necessary for all waste heat boiler installation regardless of design or manufaucture a) b) c) d) Control of evaporation A separate means to prevent feedwater contamination Power circuilating pump Exhaust gas bypass Ans:A

1081 Throttling a burner register on a auxillary boiler could result in a) b) c) d) Smoky boiler operation Decresed fuel consumption Improved fuel combustion Fewer soot deposites Ans:A

1082 When lightning off an auxillary boiler which of the problems listed could cause the burners to sputter a) b) c) d) Cold fuel oil Low fuel oil pressure Low atomizing steam pressure Water in the fuel oil Ans:D

1083 Diesel engine waste heat boiler construction is usually of the fire tube are a) Cyclone furnace boiler type b) Dry back boiler type c) Water tubee type

d) Critical circulation boiler type Ans:C

1084 Which of the following statements describes how the fuel oil enters the whirling chambers of the sprayer plates used in auxillary return boiler flow fuel oil system a) b) c) d) Through the outer barrel tube Through the sprayer plate drilled passages Through tangential slots in the sprayer plate Through baffles in the orifice plate Ans:C

1085 The variation in the fuel oil burned in the operation of an auxillary boiler utilizing a return flow type atomization system is the function of the a) b) c) d) Fuel oil recirculating valve Fuel oil back pressure Fuel supply pressure regulating valv Automatic steam atomizer assembly Ans:B

1086 Aprimary function of a waste heat boiler is to a) b) c) d) Reduce engine exhaust noise Reduce engine back pressure Recover heat which otherwise would be lost Increase turbocharger efficiency Ans:A

1087 Auxillary boilers can be classified as a) b) c) d) Water tube natural circulation boilers Fire tube boilers Water tube forced circulation boilers All of the above Ans: D

1088 A secondary function of a waste heat boiler is to a) b) c) d) Reduce engine exhaust noise Reduce engine back pressure Increase engine cycle efficiency Increase turbo charger efficiency Ans:A

1089 In a coil type forced circulation auxillary boiler steam is formed in a) b) c) d) Heating coils Steam accumulator Hotwell Thermostat tube Ans:B

1090 The purpose of the safety relief valves installed on an auxillary boiler is located on the a) Thermostat tube b) Top most coil

c) Water tank d) Fclearence chamber Ans:D

1091 In the forced circulation auxillary boiler steam is formed in the a) b) c) d) Heating coils Steam accumulator Hot well Thermostat tube Ans:B

1092 The safety valve installed on a coil type auxillary boiler is located on the a) b) c) d) Thermostat tube Topmost coil Water tank Fclearence chamber Ans:D

1093 Auxillary boilers are divided into several classification one of which is a) b) c) d) Fire tube controlled circulation Fire tube super critical circulation Water tube natural circulation Water tube express circulation Ans:C

1094 Auxillary boilers are divided into severl classification one of which is a) b) c) d) Water tube super critical circulation Water tube forced circulation Fire tube forced circulation Fire tube express circulation Ans:B

1095 The tube sheets installed in a fire tube auxillary tube are normally connected by a) b) c) d) Girner stays Fire tubes and stay tubes External boiler plating Separate crown sheets Ans:B

1096 In a coil type forced circulation auxillary water tube boiler a) b) c) d) Steam demand response is comparatively rapid Steam is re circulated through heating coils in the boiler Unevaporated feedwater is discharged through skim tube Steam demand response is low Ans:B

1097 Which type of pump is typically used to supply fuel to a unit type auxillary boiler a) Centrifugal b) Propeller

c) Reciprocating d) Rotatary Ans:D

1098 The principle purpose of refractory and insulation installed in the firebox of an auxiliary boiler is to A. Prevent flame impingement on the generating tube bank B. B direct the focus draft into the space between the inner ANS outer castings, to maintain a pressure seal C. protect the inner casting ANS reduce heat loss D. Prevent slag accumulation on the corbels ANS: c 1099 In a coil type auxiliary water tube circulation boiler A. unevaporated feedwater collects in the bottom of the chamber B. all generated stream is recirculated through heating coils in the boilers C. Heated water fclcarancees to stream in the boiler heating coils D. Response to stream demands is slower than in a fire-tube boiler Auxiliary boiler-maintains 1100. Before any work is to be carried out on a burner in an automatically fired auxillary boiler, you should always------------A. block all control system relays closed B. allow the boiler to cool completely

C. close all manually operated fuel valves D. Lock all safety interlock switches closed ANS: c 1101. Which of the following producers decreases the total dissolved solids concentrate in the water of an auxiliary boiler? A. hydrazine treatment of condensate B. Frequent compounding C. Chemical cleaning D. Bottom blowing ANS: d 1102. How is the concentration of dissolved oxygen in the feedwater of an auxiliary boiler maintain at acceptable limits-------A. Feedwater is cycled through a dc heater B. feedwater with phosphates C. oxygen is librated in the three stages of feedwater preheating D. Oxygen is librated by maintaining the higher practical feedwater temperature ANS: d 1103. A sprayer plate used in a return flow fuel oil atomize is correctly installed if the oil A. Passes through the whirling chamber before passing through the tangential slots B. Passes through the tangential slots before passing through the whirling chamber C. Leaves the burner as a straight stream until mixed with primary flow of combustion air

D. Leaves the burner as a straight stream until mixed with the swirling atomizing steam ANS: b 1104. A burner producing black smoke in an automatic auxiliary boiler would be caused by a/an-------A. Incorrect electrode setting B. Defective solenoid valve C. Grounded high tension lead D. Incorrect primary air setting ANS: d 1105. The water in an auxiliary boiler should be chemically tested daily for alkalinity ANS--------A. soap hardness B. Nitrogen content C. Chloride content D. Dissolved co2 1106. The water in an auxiliary boiler should be tested for chloride content to determine----A. Total dissolved solids B. Salt contamination C. Water hardness D. Chloride contamination ANS: b 1107. For proper operation, auxiliary boiler feedwater must have which of the following characteristics?

A. high oxygen concentration B. Low ph C. proper alkalinity D. all the above ANS: c 1108. The procedures recommended for auxiliary boilers having high salinity include----------A. Treating with oxygen scavengers B. Securing the boilers ANS giving it a bottom blow C. Increase the ph D. reducing the phosphate level ANS: b 1109. The concentration of dissolved solids in the boiler water of an axuiliary boiler could increase as a result of--------A. Phosphate treatment B. zero water hardness C. dissolved oxygen deaeration D. Frequently bottom blows ANS: a 1110. If a tube ruptures in a water-tube auxiliary boiler due to low water you should--------A. secure the fires ANS maintain feedwater to boiler to keep up the water level B. not secure the fires until water level falls out of sight in the gauge glass C. Secure the fires ANS the feed inlet valve

D. Secure the fires when the pressure drops to 50% of the maximum allowable working pressure 1111. When checking for the presence of sulphite in the feedwater of an Auxiliary boiler you are in essence checking---A. to ensure the compound additions are adequate for controlling dissolved oxygen B. to ensure the compound additions are adequate for control of ph C. the hardness of makeup feed water D. To ensure the automatic or manual blow down rate ANS frequency is adequate for control of total dissolved solids 1113. A safety valve on a auxiliary boiler simmers constantly ANS cannot be stopped by several quick blow-offs using the hard relieving gear the problem may be---------A. loose dirt on the seat B. exposed valve springs C. A clogged rain line D. A damage seat ANS: d 1115. The water in a steaming auxiliary boiler should be tested daily for------A. dissolved oxygen B. chlorides C. sludge D. dissolved nitrogen ANS: b 1116. Heavy soot accumulations in an auxiliary boiler could be caused by............ A: water in the fuel oil

B: excessive cycling C: high fuel oil pressure D: improper burner maintenance ANS D 1117. Which of the following actions should be taken when an auxiliary boiler is operation__________? A. Clean all electrical connections B. Lift the relief valves by Hans C. Inspect ANS clean all solenoid valves D. Inspect for oil ANS water leaks ANS. D 1118 Failure of the burner flame in an automatic auxiliary boiler would probably be a result of................ A. water in the fuel oil B. Broken high tension leads C. Incorrect electrode setting D. Fuel pressure at the nozzle ANS: A 1119 improper maintenance of an automatic auxiliary boiler oil burner could result in_________ A. Fuel pump failure B. Fan notes failure C. Increased feed water consumption D. Decreased angles efficiency ANS. D

1120. The water in an operating auxiliary boiler should be tested for alkalinity ANS chloride content each........... A. Hour b. Day c. Week d. Month

1121 in a fire tube auxiliary boiler, you should expect to find the thickest scale on the water side of the__________ A. Crown sheet B. Through stays C. Hydrokinetic D. Belly plug ANS. A 1122 the most common cause of scale formation in an auxiliary boiler is____________ A. Concentration of calcium sulphate in the boiler water B. Fuel oil in the feed water C. Improper treatment of the feed water with calcium sulphate D. Excessive feed water alkalinity ANS. A 1123. He the feed pump for an auxiliary boiler fails to deliver the feed water to the boiler the cause may be__________ A. High steam pressure in the boiler B. Abnormally high feed water temperature

C. Abnormally high boiler water temperature D. Steam demeans exceeding feed pump capacity ANS. B 1124. Why should the main stream stop value of an auxiliary boiler be dared off its seat ANS them gently closed before lighting off? A. To check the value packing B. To examine the valve stem for scars or nicks C. To check for a tight bonnet seal D. To ensure that the value will not be seized 1125. Which of the following actions should normally be taken during each watch when the auxiliary boiler is operation_____________? A. Test boiler water alkalinity B. Inspect ANS clean burner fuel oil solenoid valves C. Lift the safety valves by Hans D. Blow down the water gauge glass ANS. D 1126 which of the following actions should normally be taken during each watch when the auxiliary boiler is in operation ____________ A. Clean all duplex oil strainers B. observe general boiler performance C. Lift the safety values by Hans D. Inspect ANS clean burner oil solenoid valves ANS. B 1127. An automatically fixed auxiliary boiler with carbon deposits formed on its burner electrodes wil experience ______________

A. Flame failure B. Ignition failure C. panting of the furnace D. Sputtering of the burner flame ANS. B 1128. Flame failure in an operating automatically fired auxiliary boiler can result from a__________ A. Broken electrode insulator B. Faulty steam pressure signal to the trial for ignition circuit C. Broken 2000 volt supply lead D. Clogged fuel nozzle ANS. D 1129. Oxygen corrosion in auxiliary boilers is prevented by treating the boiler fee tank with either sodium___________ A. Sulfite or hydrazine B. Sulfite or hygroscopic Sulfite C. Bromides or hydrazine D. Bromide or hygroscopic Sulfite ANS. A 1130. A firebox explosion in automatically fired auxiliary angles may be the result of_______ A. excessive pushing before lighting off B. insufficient trail for ignition period C. a faulty transformer in the ignition circuit

D. insufficient purging before lighting off

ANS: D 1131. Why should Hans whole gaskets not be allowed to leak on an auxiliary boiler? A. Water circulation in the boiler will be disrupted B. The gaskets ANS its seating surface may become wise drawn c. The gaskets material will become hardened C. Scale ANS sediment will form on the gasket ANS: B 1132. After lighting off a cold, automatically fired, auxiliary boiler, as steam begins to form, you should___________ A. Close the air cock B. Give the angles a bottom blow

C. Test the safety valve D. Completely open the steam stop

ANS: A 1133. During maintenance inspections of a fire tube auxiliary boiler, you should check for_____

A. Weakling of the tubes at the tube sheet B. Burning of tube ends

C. Fireside corrosion D. All the above

ANS: D 1134. He poor combustion occurs in an auxiliary boiler due to an air damper linkage being out Of adjustment you would adjust the links are ANS than___________ A. Reset the pressure limit controls B. Test the high ANS low is solenoids

C. Check the photo bell window for carbon deposits D. Check the burner ignition electrode gap

ANS: C 1135. Before any work is to be carried out on a burner in automatically fired auxiliary angles You should always____________ A. Allow the boiler to cool completely B. Close all manually operated fuel values

C. Lock all safety interlock switches closed D. Block all control system relays closed

ANS: B 1136. The ph value of water in a diesel engine closed cooking water system should be Maintained between_____________ A.6.0 to 7.5 B.8.0 to 9.5 C.10.0 to 11.5 1137. A dirty atomies sprayers plate in the burner of a would be indicated by A. Carbon on the register doors B. A dazzling white atomies flame

C. Fluctuating pressure in the wind box D. 12.0 to 13.5 ANS: B 1138. The boiler water alkalinity in a coil-type auxillary boiler should be Maintained at the pH recommended by the boiler manufacturer to ______________ A. precipitate silica from solution B. reduce corrosion in the heating coil

C. prevent clogging and erosion in the coil D. maintain zero water hardness ANS:B 1139. A bupass line provided around a waste heat auxillary boiler in a diesel engine exhaust system,may be used to avoid boiler ____________ A. B. C. D. corrosion at low engine loads erosion at high engine loads overload at high engine loads scaling at an exhaust temperatures

ANS: A 1140. The amount of chloride content in the water of an auxillary boiler can be reduced by_______________ A. B. C. D. ANS:B 1141.Which of the following actions should normally be taken during each watch when the auxillary boiler is in operation? A. B. C. D. ANS:D 1142.in readying an auxillary water-tube boiler for a routine hydrostatic test,which of the following procedures should be undertaken prior to filling the boiler with fresh water? A. The safety valve escape piping should be disconnected from the valve body and a blank inserted B. The boiler vent valves should be opened clean the flame scanner photocell window inspect and clean all solenoid valves lift the safety valves by hand Inspect for oil or water leaks adding hydrazine blowing down the boiler adding phenolphthalein adding a sulphite chloride scavenger

C. All handhole/manhole covers should be tightened up as much as possible to preclude any leaks. D. All the above. ANS: B 1143.The correct procedure for giving an auxillary boiler a bottom blow,is to begin___________ A. B. C. D. ANS:A 1144.The concentration of total dissolved solids in the water of an auxillary boiler can increase as a result of____________ A. B. C. D. ANS:A 1145.When an auxillary boiler is secured and you expect to relight the unit within six hours,you should____________ A. B. C. D. ANS:A 1146.before an auxillary boiler is shutdown for an extended period of time,the water in the boiler should have a pH value of A. 10 B. 7 C. 4 maintain a head off steam not less than 1kg/cm completely fill the boiler with feedwater flush the boiler and close the waterside airtight maintain steam pressure 1kg/cm2 below normal boiler load Sea water contamination frequent surface b lows dissolved oxygen deaeration frequent bottom blows When the boiler has been secured long enough for most solids to settle When the boiler has been cooled to ambient temperature only after raising the water level to within inch of the high water cutout only after by passing the low pressure pressostat

D. 1 ANS:A 1147.Improper maintenance of the fuel oil burners in an automatically fired auxillary,could result in___________ A. B. C. D. ANS:A 1148.Excessive alkalinity of the water in an auxillary boiler can cause___________ A. B. C. D. ANS:A 1149.Flame failure in an automatically fired auxillary boiler can result from a/an___________ A. B. C. D. ANS:C 1150.The concentration of total dissolved solids in the water of an auxillary boiler can increase as a result of___________ A. B. C. D. ANS:A sea water contamination frequent surface blows dissolved oxygen deaeration frequent bottom flows incorrect electrode setting incorrect nozzle position clogged fuel nozzle broken high tension lead caustic embrittlement of the boiler metal acidic corrosion of the boiler metal hard scale deposits on the boiler tubes etching of the heat exchange surfaces increased fuel consumption increased feedwater consumption water fuel pump failure combustion control system failure

1151.The daily inspection of an operating auxillary boiler should include__________ A. B. C. D. ANS:C 1152.Which of the following conditions could cause black smoke to be discharged from the stack of an auxillary boiler equipped with turbine driven rotary cup atomizers? A. B. C. D. ANS:C 1153.Waterside scale in a fire-tube boiler may cause_________________ A. B. C. D. ANS:D 1154.A smoking burner with a pulsating flame in an auxiliary boiler,is an indication that the__________ A. B. C. D. ANS:C 1155.Which of the following conditions would cause panel in a steaming auxiliary boiler? fuel oil supply temperature is normal burner electrode is incorrectly positioned fuel/air ratio is incorrect ignition current is too low Increased heat transfer fireside erosion high steam demand overheated tubes Insufficient steam supply to the fuel oil heater Excessive opening of the dampers in the combustion air inlet Improper turbine shaft speed in the atomizer assembly high drum water level lifting of all safety valves an examination of the boiler firesides checking for external fuel and water leaks measuring steam quality

A. B. C. D. ANS:A

Insufficient combustion air Low water level Flame failure Faulty flame scanner

1156.if oil is dripping from the burner of a coil-type auxiliary steam generator,the cause may be___________ A. B. C. D. ANS:D 1157.Before any work is done on a burner in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler,you should always________ A. B. C. D. ANS:D SCAVENGING,TURBOCHARGING AND AIRCOOLING 1158. Which of the two events listed occurs simultaneously in a two-stroke /cycle diesel engine? A. B. C. D. Exhaust and scavenging Scavenging and compression Ignition and expansion Exhaust and compression ANS:A block all control valves allow the boiler to cool completely lock all safety interlock switches closed all the above the oil valve not seating properly a loose burner nozzle carbon on the burner nozzle causing deflection of oil spray an unevenly shaped burner flame

1159. Scavenging in turbocharged. Four stroke /cycle diesel engine is accomplished A. during the valve over lap period

B. with only the exhaust valve open C. at a pressure below atmosphere D. without cooling the cylinders or pistons ANS: A 1160. All scavenging of a diesel engine cylinder A. B. C. D. Blows out the exhaust gases Supplies oxygen for combustion Cools the valves and cylinders All of the above

ANS: D 1161. a diesel engine is supercharged in order to A. B. C. D. Lower the no-load RPMs Provided more air for combining with the fuel Increases the no load RPMs Provided more fuel for combining with the air Ans : B

1162 .one characteristics of a pulse type turbo charging system is A. B. C. D. High average exhaust manifold pressure Greatly fluctuating inlet manifold pressure Constant exhaust manifold pressure Multiple exhaust pipes to the turbocharger Ans : D

1163 .which of the listed types of superchargers will not have a volumetric capacity proportional to engine speed A. B. C. D. Exhaust gas turbocharger Roots blower Piston type blower Vane type blower

Ans : A

1164. which of the following turbocharging systems channels the exhaust gases of each individual cylinder directly into the turbine rotor blades A. B. C. D. Reaction Pulse Constant pressure Variable pressure

ANS: B 1165 . A turbocharged , four stroke /cycle diesel engine has a larger valve overlap than a naturally aspirated Four stroke /cycled diesel engine , in order to increase the A. B. C. D. Temperature of the exhaust gases Energy supplied to the turbocharger Air pressure to the intake manifold Purge of exhausted gases from the cylinders

Ans : D 1166 .Which of the following statements is correct regarding a turbocharged four stroke/ cycle Diesel generator? A. At zero load the intake manifold pressure is greater than the exhaust manifold pressure B. At full load the intake manifold pressure and the exhaust manifold pressure are equal C. At full load the intake manifold pressure is less than the exhaust manifold pressure D. A t full load the intake manifold pressure is greater than the exhaust manifold pressure Ans : D 1167. Why will a turbocharged diesel engine produce black smoke if excessive additional load is applied too quickly? A. Exhaust energy would draw excess air

B. The inertia of the turbocharger rotor causes a time lag which delays the turbocharger speed increase C. Exhaust gas pumping losses are increased due to turbine windage D. Exhaust gas back pressure falls slightly due to increased nozzle action Ans : D 1168. A turbocharged diesel engine will have intake manifold pressure A. B. C. D. Ans :B 1169. A roots type blower installed on a direct reversible engine A. B. C. D. Is engaged only when turning ahead Is geared so that air flow through the blower is always in the same direction Reverses rotation along with the engine Exhaust to atmosphere when turning astern Constantly decreasing as engine load increases Constantly increasing as the amount of supercharging increases Approximately equal to exhaust manifold pressure at all times Approximately equal to atmospheric pressure at all times

Ans : C 1170. which of the diesel engine components listed increases the air density and helps to improve engine operating efficiency? A. B. C. D. Impeller Compressor Aftercooler Exhaust diffuser

ANS: C 1171.which of the engine components listed increases air charge density and helps to improve engine operating efficiency? A.intake manifold B.water-cooled exhaust system

C.after cooler D.Exhaust diffuser ANS:C 1172. what is the function of the aftercoolers installed in the diesel engine air intake system? A.Decrease the air density B.increase the exhaust temperature C.Decrease the lube oil temperature D.increase the air density ANS:D 1173 .which of the designs listed will keep the lobes from in making contact in a roots-type blower A.drive chain B.blower timing gears C.air trapped between blower lobes D.oil filter between blower lobes ANS:B 1174. in a turbocharger,inlet air velocity is increased in the____________ A.inlet nozzle ring B.stationary diffuser passages C.compressor outlet volute D.rotating impeller vanes ANS:D 1175 .in a roots-type rotary blower,the volume of air delivered is directly proportional to____________

A.engine speed B.engine load C.brake horse power D.brake specific fuel consumption ANS:A 1176. a roots-type blower installed on some diesel engines serves to___________ A.heat the cylinder for hotter compression B.push out exhaust gases and replace them with fresh air C. force cool air across the radiator, lowering the jacket water temperature D. maintain a positive charge of fresh air in the crankcase thus eliminating the chance of a crankcase explosion ANS: B 1177. in a turbocharged four stroke/cycle diesel engine the exhaust valve remains open until after top dead center and the intake valve opens before top center to___________ A.produce a scavenging effect in the combustion space B.equalize cylinder and exhaust manifold pressures C. alleviate the difference in valve size between the intake and exhaust D. flush out condensate that collects after each compression stroke. ANS:A 1178. The small clearances existing between each of the blower lobes and between the lobes and casing of a roots-type blower, must be maintained to A provide for normal timing B. prevent blower oil leakage C. provide adequate blower lubrication D. prevent abnormal air leakage

ANS: B 1179. Which of the following conditions may contribute to the formation of deposits on the blades of theturbocharger turbine? A. poor combustion B. high cylinder oil consumption C. leaking exaust valves D. all of the above ANS: D 1180. Which of the following conditions can cause below below normal air pressure in a intake manifold of a turbocharged diesel engine? A. excessive piston blow-by to the manifold B. insufficient cooling water flow C. accumulated water in the air boxes D. clogged air intake filters ANS: D 1181. If the turbocharger of a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine fails to operate ,which of the following statements best describes the probable effect? A. intake manifold pressure will be high B. intake manifold pressure will be unaffected C. exhaust temperature will be high D. exhaust temperature will be low ANS: C 1182. A sudden power loss from a turbocharged and a after cooled diesel engine is an indicator of a/an A. turbocharger malfunction or failure B. crankcase exhauster overload

C. overload on the intercooler D. obstruction in the engine cylinders ANS: A 1183. Leaking oil seals on a diesel engine turbocharger can cause A. the engine to run after the fuel has been secured B. the engine to over speed C. a fire D. all of the above ANS: D 1184. Which of the following terms best describe the root-type blower used to super charge a diesel engine? A. rotary vane B. positive displacement C. axial flow D. centrifugal ANS: B 1185. Exhaust gases are generally removed from the cylinders of a twostroke/cycle diesel engine by A. natural aspiration B. masked intake valves C. air cells D. scavenging air ANS: D

1186. The speed of the turbocharger for a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine driving a generator at constant speed depends on the A. engine speed B. kilowatt load C. fuel injection pressure D. air intake manifold temperature ANS: B 1187. The principal difference between loop scar verging and crossflow scarvenging as used in single acting diesel, is the A. direction of air flow within the cylinder B. sequence of poropening C. method of opening exhaust ports D. volume of air admitted to the cylinder ANS: A 1188. Scavenging in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine occurs during the A. last part of the exhaust stroke, and the first part of the intake stroke B. last part of the intake stroke only C. early part of the injection stroke only D. early part of the power stroke ANS: A 1189.the term diesel engine scarvenging means A. delivering more air into the cylinder than it would normally receive during an ordinary charging process B. forcing the products of combustion out of the cylinder with the fresh air charge C. collecting the air charge at the air cleaner D. combustion and expansion of air hot gas

ANS: B

1190. Cooling the intake air supplied to the diesel engine will A. reduce mean effective pressure B. decrease average compression pressure C. decrease air charge density D. increase power output ANS: D 1191. Which of the following conditions is indicated by the presence of water in scarvenging air receiver? A. leaking cylinders head gaskets B. leaking after cooler C. excessively low scarvenge air temperature D. auxillary blower failure ANS:B 1192. Forcing the exhaust gases from cylinder of an operating diesel engine with the aid of the blower is known as A. scarvenging B. forced draft C. turbocharging D. aspiration ANS: A 1193. loop.,Uniflow , crossflow and return-flow, are terms used to describe various types of a .control air circuits B. supercharging

C. turbochargers D. scarvenging ANS:D

1194. The exhaust system for a turbocharged diesel engine functions to A. power the aftercoolers B. power the turbocharger C. reduce the cylinder scarvenge effect D. cools the turbocharger ANS: B 1195. Which of the following beneficial results can be expected from supercharging a previously naturally aspirated engine? A. increased turbulance B. increased mechanical effiency C. increased brake mean effective pressure D. all of the above ANS: D 1196. Which of the following conditions is realized by the turbocharging of a previously naturally aspirated diesel engine? A. ignition lag increases B. lube oil system pressure increases C. brake specific fuel consumption increases D. mechanical effiency increases ANS: D

1197. Which of the turbo charging systems listed operates with the least average back pressure in the exhaust manifold? A. constant volume B. constant pressure C. pulse pressure D. radial flow ANS:C

1198. The process of scavenginga two-stroke/cycle diesel engine serves to A. improve fuel flow pressure B. cools the exhaust valves C. reduce the intake air charge density D. increase the temperature is of exhaust gases ANS:B 1199. Which of the turbocharging methods listed direct the exhaust gases to the turbine at fairly uniform velocity and pressure? A. constant pressure B. pulse pressure C. constant velocity D. axial flow ANS:A 1200. When used in conjunction with a turbocharger, the main function of an after cooler is to A. increase the density of the cylinder air charge B. prevent turbocharger overheating

C. eliminating the need for a precooler D. removes moisture from air compressed by the turbocharger ANS:A 1201. Intake air flow from a diesel engine turbocharger is directly propotional to engine A. exhaust gas pressure B. exhaust gas temperature C. speed D. load ANS: D 1202. Some diesel engines are supercharged with a A. slam charger B. turbocharger C. fuel atomizer D. fuel injector ANS: B 1203. The purpose of an after cooler is t A. reduce the turbocharger operating temperature B. increase the pressure of the inert air C. increase the density of the inert air D. reduce the blower operating temperature ANS: C 1204. Most root type blowers have two rotors which A. are extremely quiet at high speed B. rotate in the same direction

C. rotate in the opposite direction D. decrease objectionable turbulence in the cylinders ANS: C 1205. As engine RPM is increased from idle speed to full load speed, which of the conditions listed will decrease? A. compression ratio B. fuel/air ratio C. compression pressure D. lube oil pressure ANS: B 1206. In a diesel engine, a positive displacement type blower isusually A. gear driven by the engine B. driven by an exhaust gas turbine C. driven by acamshaft D. driven by a separate motor ANS: A 1207. The high air velocity leaving the compressor of an exhaust gas turbocharger is converted to pressure in the A. inert nozzle ring B. turbine wheel blading C. diffuser passages D. inert volutes ANS: C 1208. Turbocharged four-stroke/cycle diesel engines utilize valve overlap for A. improving cylinder scarvenging

B. preheating the combustion chamber C. reducing air charge density D. preventing valve wear ANS: A 1209. The compression of air in a positive displacement rotary supercharging blower, occurs only A. between the rotating blower lobes B. between the casing and blower lobes C. after the engine reaches operating speed D. as air moves into the discharge passage ANS: D

1210. If the turbocharger failed on an auxillary diesel engiene, which of the following conditions would probably occur? A. full power cannot be developed B. the exhaust will contain black smoke C. complete combustion will be impossible D. all the above ANS: D 1211. The power consumed during the scarvenging process of a diesel engine is known as the A. scarvenging loss B. valve loss C. back pressure loss D. pumping loss

ANS: D 1212. A thin film of oil on the lobes of a roots-type blower indicates A. proper lubrication B. timing out of adjustment C. excessive cylinder lubrication D. leaking rotor bearing oil seals ANS: D 1213. In a main propulsion turbocharged diesel engiene, the speed of the turbocharged varies according to the A. governor droop B. speeder spring tension C. fuel rack lag ion D. load on the engiene ANS: D 1214. During the valve overlap period, the exhaust pressure of a turbocharged, four-stroke/cycle diesel engiene must be less than the intake manifold pressure to ensure A. effective cylinder scarvenging and cooling B. constant pressure from the turbochargers C. cooler operation of the exhaust system d .effective constant pressure for turbocharger operation ANS: A 1215. Large two-stroke/cycle, main propulsion diesel engiene cylinders can be successively pressure charged during normal operation, by using the A. exhaust gas temperature system B. exhaust load system

C. constant or pulse pressure system D. constant volume system ANS:C 1216. In a multi cylinder constant pressure turbocharged diesel engiene the combined exhaust temperature at the turbocharger inert reads higher than the individual cylinder exhausts .this means the A. combined exhaust pyrometer is defective B .combined exhaust pyrometer is reading normally C. turbine blades are coated with carbon

1217. When would the available energy of the exhaust gases of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine be insufficient to drive an exhaust gas turbocharger, resulting in the incorrect amount of air for combustion? A. during operation at low speed B. during operation at rated speed, but low power output C. during acceleration

63 1218. In a two stroke diesel engine,the process of scavenging begins as the___________ a.piston nears and passes TDC b.early part of the up stroke c.piston passes BDC d.early part of the downstroke ans.b

1219. The process of supplying a diesel engine with air at a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure is known as ___________ a.engine displacement b.super aspirating c.air injection d.supercharging ans.d 1220. The power output of a turbocharged diesel engine will drop if the cooling water flow through after cooler is interrupted because the__________ a.turbocharger stalls b.exhaust pressure increases c.air charge density decrases d.scavenge effect increases ans.c 1221. A supercharged diesel engine when compared to a similar naturally aspirated diesel engine will develop an increase in____________ a.ignition lag b.engine horsepower c.lube oil stem pressure d.specific fuel consumption ans.b 1222. If the speed of a turbocharged diesel engine is maintained constant the turbocharger speed will_________

a.decrease until the engine speed increases b.increase as the load increases c.decrease as the load increases d.remains unchanged as the load decreases ans.b 1223. Compared to a naturally aspirated diesel engine a supercharger diesel engine has___________ a.A cylinder air charge of higher pressure b.increase pumping losses c.less valve overlap d.educed blowby ans.a 1224. Which pf the following devices would increase the power output of a diesel engine without increasing the frictional load__________ a.positive displacement blower b.roots type rotary blower c.gear-driven centrifugal blower d.turbine driven centrifugal blower ans.d 1225. The air relative pressure in the inlet manifold of a turbocharged diesel engine is usually a.greater than the average exhaust manifold pressure b.less than the average exhaust manifold pressure

c.greater at the turbine wheel than the impeller d.greater at reduced engine speed ans.a 1226. Which of the roots blower listed below will suppl air to a two stroke,medium speed ,diesel engine with the least amount of turbulence and pulsation? a.3 helical lobes b.2 helical holes c.3 cylinderical lobes d.2 cylinderical lobes ans.a 1227. The function of the aftercooler installed between the turbocharger and intake manifold on some Diesel engines is to__________ a.increase the density of the intake air b.decrease turbocharger power usage c.reduce exhaust gas temperature d.compensate for turbocharger rpm fluctuations ans.a 1228. Performance of a turbocharged engine can be improved by__________ a.decreasing the amount of overlap b.pre heating the air intake c.aftercooling the air intake

d.preheating the light fuels ans.c 1229. Aftercooling of a turbocharged diesel engine will result in _________ a.higher torque but lower brake horsepower b.lower torque but higher brake horsepower c.higher torque and higher brake horsepower d.lower torque and lower brake horsepower ans.c 1230. The air supplied to a cylinder by a turbocharger is often reduced in volume by an________ a.air compressor b.diffuser c.aftercooler d.venturi ans.c 1231. The lobes of a root type blower are sometimes twisted into a spiral formed around the axes of rotation to__________ a.decrease the air loses around the lobes b.decrease maintainence c.allow for higher blower operating speeds d.produce a more constant air flow ans.d

1232. Some diesel engines are equipped with a Roots type blower to provide_________ a.more air to combine with the fuel b.more amps per kilowatt hour c.higher no-load rpms d.higher voltage output ans.a 1233. An aftercooler installed between turbochargers and the cylinder air inlet_______ a.increases the density of the air b.decreases the density of the air c.increases the specific heat of the air d.decreases the specific heat pf the air ans.a 1234. When the load is increased on aturbocharged disel engine,the amount of air supplied by the turbocharger will___________ a.lag behind the increased fuel supplied to the engine b.enter the engine along with the increased fuel c.enter the engine before the increased fuel supply d.leave the turbocharger as a negative pulse ans.a 1235. The large number of mechanical and pulsating vibrations developed in a diesel engine may damage an attached________

a.scavenged air pump because it is designed for a steady state b.reciprocating scavenge pump because of its direct linkage to the crankshaft c.rotary blower because it operates over a small range of speeds and delivers its air at a certain resonant frequency d.gas driven turbocharger because it has a wide speed range and high temperature materials that are subject to resonant frequency ans.d 64 1236. When the timing gear backclearance for a Root type blower has become excessive,the problem is properly repaired by__________ a.renewing the drive gear b.renew the driven gear c.renewing both drive and driven gears d.shumming and pinning the gears with proper backclearance ans.c 1237. If over a period of weeks the air box pressure of a turbocharged diesel engine operating at full load appears to be dropping off the cause can be_________ a.open air box drains b.loss of cooling water to the diffuser c.gradual loading of the air filters d.improperly timed exhaust valves ans.c

1238. Which of the following conditions would require the remoal of a turbocharger for repair _________ a.nicked blades b.broken blades c.Stretched blades d.all of the above ans.d 1239. If you observe smoke coming from the turbocharger of an auxillary diesel engine you should________ a.check the air filter for obstruction b.check for exhaust leak c.check the exhaust temperature d.secure the engine ans.d 1240. Following the failure of one turbocharge on a large crossheadmain propulsion diesel engine Filled with multiple turbochargers,which of the following actions should be taken prior to further operation engine? a.Blank off the exhaust gas inletto the damaged turbocharger b.secure cooloing and lubrication to the damaged turbocharger c.lock the rotor of the damaged turbocharger d.All of the above

ans.d 1241. Corrosion and grooving on the blading of an exhaust driven turbocharger is caused by certain components of residual fuel oils.Thes e components areV,Na,&__________ a.Cu b.C c.H d.S ans.d 1242. An operating turbocharged diesel engine that suddenly losses power is due to a________ a.restricted turbocharger air intake b.oil leak into the turbocharger c.dribbling injector d.low fuel viscosity ans.a 1243. While maneuvering ,you discover heavy smoke coming from the turbocharger casing,you should___________ a.check the air filter for dirt b.check for an exhaust leak c.check the cooling water temperature d.notify the bridge that you are going to shut the engine down ans.d

1244. Which of the following precautions should be taken when cleaning the air filter on a diesel engine equipped with a turbocharger? a.Reduce the engine speed to idle before removing the filter b.Soak the dirty filter in kerosene only c.Blow out the air inlet with compressed air d.cover the air inlet after removing the filter ans.d 1245. Which of the listed adjustments must be made to a naturally Aspirated four stroke diesel engine if a turbocharger is to be installed? a.Increase the compression ratio b.Increase the ignition lag c.Decrease the amount of exhaust and intake valve overlap ans.b 1246. Which of the following problems could cause an above normal air temperature to develop in the intake manifold of a turbocharged and aftercooled diesel engine a.faulty turbocharger turbine diffuser ring b.faulty turbocharger compressor ring c.insufficient cooling water flow d.clogged air take filter ans.c 1247. which condition indicates the air side fouling of an aftercooler on a turbocharger diesel engine?

a.An increased air temperature differential between the cooler inlet and outlet b.A decrease in the air pressure differential across the cooler c.Excessive condensate forming on the air box d.A decrease in the temperature differential between the cooler inlet and outlet ans.d 1248. A turbocharged diesel engine can overspeed due to_________ a.air in the hydraulic governor b.high ambient air temperature c.oil leaking into turbocharger compressor end d.insufficient piston ring blow by ans.c 1249. Which of the following conditions may be attributed to a fouled turbocharger compressor inlet screen or filter? a.Decreasing scavenge air pressure b.Increasing exhaust temperatures before the turbine c.Reduction in engine speed d.all of the above ans.d Governor & Overspeed Control

1250. Diesel engines driving alternators operating in parallel must maintain a set freq regardless of load changes.The governor characteristics used to accomplish this is known as ________ a.actuation b.sesitivity c.compensation d.promptness ans.c 1251. Increasing the load on the engine equipped with a constant speed mechanical governor ,will cause the speed to initiaaly____________ a.increase b.decrease c.fluctuate d.remain constant ans.b 1252. How is the diesel engine operating rpm affected when a zero droop setting is selected on the governor? a.the rpm will drop to low idle when load is applied b.the rpm must be controlled by the load limit knob c.the governor has no cintroll over the rpmin this mode d.the rpm will remain the same with or without the load ans.d

1253. If the main propulsion diesel enginegovernor works irregularlywith a jerking motion,a possible cause can be________ a.a sticking fuel control linkage b.a malfunctioning overload cam c.an unlocked overspeed trip d.floating valves ans.a 1254 on a diesel engine equipped with an isochronous governor, if the speed drop control is reduced to zero setting, the engine.. A. Speed will drop drastically with any increase in load B. Will stop due to zero fuel supply C. Will stall upon application of load D. Speed will remain fairly constant despite load changes Ans: D 1255 the required amount in the change of speed necessary to Governor will make a corrective movement is known as .. A. speed droop B. sensitivity C. stability D. promptness Ans: B 1256 air bubbles in a hydraulic governor can cause..

A. sluggish response

B. speed droop variation C. isochronous governing D. sensitivity increases Ans: A 1257 which of the listed governer operating characteristics is to be isochronous? A. zero speed droop B. positive speed droop C. negative speed droop D. varying speed droop Ans: A 1258 governor hunting is caused by ..

A. governor under control B. excessive speed droop C. insufficient speed droop D. governor over control Ans: D 1259 a continuous fluctuation of the speed, due to over control Governor, is known as .. A. hunting B. sensitivity C. promptness

D. speed droop Ans: A 1260 a direct acting, pneumatically controlled governor for a diesel engine Operates in a range of 0.7 to 3.5 bar. The fuel rack position is at 20mm When the governor air pressure is 2.1bar.if the governor air Pressure changes to 1.4bar, the fuel rack is at A.13millimeters B.17millimeters C.22millimeters D.24millimeters Ans: A 1261 after each speed change , the compression of the diesel governor speeder spring is return to a constant value ,is of the amount of the amount of movement of the fuel control mechanism engine load. Hence , this results in A. speed droop governing B. isochronous governing C. high sensitive governing D. relay-type governing Ans: B 1262 an over speed trip stops a diesel engine when the engine . A. runs out of fuel B. has low lubricating oil pressure

C. exceeds a set maximum speed D. has high cooling water temperature Ans: C 1263 in a simple hydraulic governor with speed droop, oil under is maintained ready for use in the . A. power piston B. governor sump C. spring-loaded piston accumulator D. pressure pilot valve assembly Ans: C 1264 internal combustion engines are to be fitted with governors to prevent the engines from exceeding the rated speed by more than ... A.10 percent B.15 percent C.20 percent D.25 percent Ans: B 1265 which of the listed governor characteristics will greatly affect load sharing relationship between paralleled diesel generator A. sensitivity B. power C. speed droop D. compensation

Ans: C 1266 when the prime movers of two parallel generators are equipped with mechanical-hydraulic governors ,and are operating within their designed range, the unit with the least amount of speed droop will .. A. pick up more of any increase in load B. pick up less of any increase in load C. share an equal amount of any increase in load D. drop an equal amount of any decrease in load Ans: A 1267 a change in engine speed is required before a governor is make a corrective movement of fuel rack. this aspect of is commonly expressed as a percent and is known as A. governor sensitive B. governor promptness C. speed droop D. isochronous governing Ans: A 1268 the direct acting mechanically governor used with some small diesel engines, controls fuel flow to the engine by . A. governor flyweight action on a pilot valve which controls fuel injection B. governor flyweight motion acting on fuel controls through suitable linkage C. positioning a butterfly valve in the fuel delivery system D. positioning a servomotor piston attached to the fuel controls

Ans: B 1269 sensitivity for a diesel engine governor is described as the . A. percent of speed change necessary for corrective action be control B. ability to maintain desired engine speed without speed fiow C. governors speed of response to variations in engine load D. ability to maintain constant speed regardless of engine load Ans. A 1270 the ability of the governor to prevent fluctuations in engine speed is termed A. sensitivity B. stability C. promptness D. speed droop Ans: B 1271 an over correcting and unstable engine governor operation as A. droop B. dead banding C. dash potting D. hunting Ans: D

1272 for most diesel propulsion and generator engines, the over speed trip device will stop the engine by.. A. moving the governor control to stop B. shutting off the lubricating oil supply C. tripping the governor emergency stop lever D. shutting the fuel supply Ans: D 1273 a directly connected or geared main propulsion diesel engine be fitted with a / an . A. constant speed governor B. variable speed governor C. isochronous hunting governor D. nutating disk governor Ans: B 1274 an AC diesel generator incapable of being paralleler with the main bys normally employs an isochromous governor in order to .. A. increase speed droop in proportion to load B. maintain a frequency of 60 cycles per second C. increase or decrease engine speed upon load demand D. prevents attempts to parallel Ans : B 1275 which of the speeder springs listed is more suitable for a governor installed on an engine operating over a wide speed range?

A. spiral B. conical C. cylindrical D. helical Ans: B 1276 in a simple mechanical governor, the .

A. centrifugal force rotates the ball-head B. flyweight centrifugal force is balanced by spring force C. fiy weight centrifugal force is balanced by hydraulic pressure D. speeder spring alone actuates the fuel control rod Ans: B 1277 an over speed trip serves to ..

A. stop the engine by cutting off the cooling water supply B. stops the engine by closing the air in take C. slow the engine but not stop it d. slow the engine to half of normal load ans: B 1278 if the speeder spring of a main propulsion diesel engine governor breakes while operating at full load, the engine RPM will.. A. increase until the over speed trip actuated B. hunt until stabilized by the droop rod C. decrease to a slight lower value

D. remain the same until manually changed Ans: C 1279 a diesel engine is equipped with an isochronous hydraulic governor. A decrease in load will cause the engine speed to .. A. decreases only B. increases only C. decreases slightly then return to orginal speed D. remains constant Ans: D 1280 the hunting of the diesel engine may be caused by ..

A. excessive speed droop B. insufficient speed droop C. excessive sensitive D. low governor power Ans: D 1281 if an engine operates at 900 RPM at no load, and at 870 RPM at full load, the speed droop is .......... A.0.031 B.0.034 C.0.037 D.0.04 Ans: B

1282 which of the following statements best describes the operational characteristics of an isochronous governors? A. they are suitable for use of main propulsion units B. they strive to maintain a constant prime mover speed for all values of steady load C. they cause a propotional drop in prime mover speed as the load is increased D. they have poor sensitivity at low RPM ans: B 1283 a diesel engine is fitted with a pneumatically actuated governor having an operating range of 0.7to2.4 bar. If the air pressure to the governor is increased to 2.8 bar, the fuel rack position is A.10mm B.14mm C.15mm D.20mm Ans: D 1284 governor used on diesel engines to limit the load must be equipped with A. B. C. D. a fixed maximum fuel stop a variable maximum fuel stop pivotless centrifugal fly balls a proportional action compensation mechanism

ans: B 1285 the principle characteristics of an isochronous governor as it will .

A. B. C. D. ans: D

slow the machine down as load is increased shut down the engine if it over speeds display excessive speed droop maintain a constant speed with variations of loads

1286 which of the following devices is common to both mechanical and hydraulic governors? A. direct linkage between the ball- head and flux rack B. a servo meter C. a compensating device D. flyweights Ans: D 1287 which of the following device is a common basic element with nearly all mechanical governors? A. power piston B. control rack C. weights acted on by centrifugal force D. isochronous droop spring Ans: C 1288 on most diesel engines, the governor controls the output speed by A. controlling the amount of fuel injected into the cylinders B. varying the speed of the turbocharger C. adjusting the compression stroke

D. changing the time of the fuel injection camshaft Ans: A 1289 the governor controlling a diesel engine modulates crankshaft RPM by adjusting the . A. intake air supply B. turbocharger speed C. fuel injection pumps D. engine speed droop Ans: C 1290which of the items listed causes a direct acting mechanical governor to operate the engine fuel control linkage? A. hydraulic oil pressure B. servo meter action C. fly weight centrifugal force D. relay motion Ans: C 1291 a spring- loaded centrifugal flyweight governor responds to reduce engine load wit an immediate increase in . A. pilot valve oil pressure B. speeder spring force C. compensation needle valve clearance D. centrifugal force on the fly weights Ans : D

(A) An incorrect diesel governor speed droop adjustment (B) A faulty reverse power relay within the main circuit breaker assembly (C) Unsyncronized isochronous load distribution adjustments (D) A different speed setting on each unit Ans A 1294 the overspeed trip device installed in some diesel engines is automatically actuated by (A) Spring force (B) Hydraulic pressure (C) Centrifugal force (D) Mechanical linkage Ans C 1295 the most common contaminate of governor hydraulic fluid is (A) Moisture (B) Dirt (C) Acid (D) Air Ans B 1296 the purpose of the compensating adjustment used in a diesel engine hydraulic governor is to (A) Compensate for low oil level (B) Increase governor promptness (C) Prevent governor hunting (D) Limit engine load Ans C 1297 during a routine round of a diesel engine governor,you must observe a low oil level in the governor slump,if there is no visible sign of external leakage,you should suspect the cause to be a/an

(A) Leakage through the governor drive shaft oil seal (B) Leakage through the power piston oil seal (C) Uncovered sight glass ventilation orifice (D) Defect in the sight glass gasket Ans A 1298 a large change in ambient temperature,or using an oil of a viscosity different than the one recommended by the manufacturer in a mechanical hydraulic governor,will result in the need to adjust the (A) Pilot valve opening (B) Compensating needle valve (C) Compensating spring valve (D) Accumulator spring tension Ans B 1299 Where one or more diesel driven AC generators are operating in parallel,reducing the value of speed droop to zero on one unit will allow that unit to (A) Gradually reduce speed as load is applied (B) Change load without changing speed (C) Automatically divide and balance the loads (D) Effectively anticipate the amount of fuel required to bring the engine up to the proper output to accept the increased load Ans B 1300 which of the following adjustment is always required whenever the diesel engine governor oil has been drained and removed (A) Speed droop (B) Compensation (C) Idle speed setting (D) Load limit control

1301 if the compensating needle valve of a hydraulic governor is opened more than necasary the governor will (A) Have a larger than normal dead band (B) Produce excessive speed response to a load change (C) Respond slowly to any change in engine load (D) Stabilizize engine speed at the new governor setting Ans B 1302 if the load on a diesel engine equipped with an isochronous hydraulic governor is increased,after compensation is performed by the governor,the engine speed will (A) Remain the same (B) Increase (C) Decrease (D) Fluctuate Ans A 1303 trapped air was bled from the hydraulic system of a diesel engine governor while it had been operating at idle speed.oil was added to restore the correct level and the air vent plug tightened.the compensating needle valve should then be gradually (A) Opened until hunting is eliminated (B) Closed until it is approximately 1/16 of a turn open (C) Closed to cause the engine to hunt in order to purge trapped air from the new oil (D) Closed until engine hunting is eliminated Ans D 1304 IF a hydraulic governor has been refilled with oil,the engine should be operated until it reaches normal temperature then air should be purged and the (A) Rack position should be adjusted (B) Compensating needles should be opened fully

(C) Compensating needle valve should be adjusted to stabilize operation (D) Speed limit device should be adjusted Ans C 1305 Friction developing between the moving parts of a governor,governor linkage and control valve will cause the governor to (A) React with insufficient speed droop (B) Fail to react to small speed changes (C) Have excessive sensitivity to small speed changes (D) Remain in the neutral position ANS B 1306 if the operating speed of a diesel engine increases without an apparent change in the engine control settings,you may suspect a (A) Clogged intake air intercooler (B) Control air leak (C) Leaking air starting value (D) Malfunctioning governor Ans C 1307 The major cause of trouble in a mechanical-hydraulic governor is contamination of the hydraulic fluid by (A) Dirt (B) Fuel oil (C) Governor cooling water (D) Fuel oil tars Ans A 1308 adjustments to the compensating needle valve in a hydraulic governor should be made with the engine at (A) Maximum power at a normal load (B) Maximum power and load under normal conditions (C) Half speed and normal temperature

(D) Normal operating temperature without a load Ans D 1309 on a diesel engine equipped with a hydraulic speed control governor,hunting in many cases can be corrected by adjusting the (A) Accumulator spring compression (B) Balance piston (C) Compensating needle valve (D) Propotional piston Ans C 1310 a diesel governor engine is hunting. After changing the oil the governor is flushed and the compensation needle is adjusted but the hunting persists. You should now (A) Check air intake manifold pressure (B) Calibrate the fuel pump rack settings (C) Set the speed droop adjustment to zero (D) Carefully check for binding in the governor linkage Ans D 1311 compensating needle valve adjustment to a hydraulic governor should be made with the engine (A) Running at normal operating temperature (B) Running at half speed at normal temperature (C) Running at maximum power and load under normal conditions (D) Developing maximum power at normal load Ans A 1312 if a main propulsion diesel engine hunts excessively at idle speed,you should (A) Adjust the idle speed control (B) Drain and flush the governor and replace the oil (C) Adjust the compensating needle valve

(D) Adjust the load limit 1313 which of the following methods is normally used to lubricate bearings in a small high speed diesel engine? (A) Spclearance lubrication (B) Pressure lubrication (C) Sight feed lubrication (D) Mechanicl lubricators Ans B 1314 clearance volume scavenging in a turbo charged,four stoke/cycle diesel engines are brought into position by (A) During the valve overlap period (B) With only the exhaust valve open (C) At a pressure below atmospheric (D) Without cooling the cylinders or pistons Ans A 1315 Trunk type diesel engine pistons are effectively cooled when heat is (A) Conducted through the engine block (B) Conducted to water cooled cylinder walls (C) Conducted through the piston crown (D) Losses to escaping exhaust gases Ans B 1316 how much will the jacket water temperature normally increase between the inlet and outlet of medium or high speed diesel engines? (A) Sliding the camshaft along its axis (B) Rotating the cam 180 degree (C) Rotating the cam followers 180 degree (D) Moving the idler sprockets in the drive chain Ans A

1317 which of the following conditions can cause above normal air temperatures to develop in the intake manifold of a four stoke/cycle turbocharged,diesel engine (A) Clogged air intake filters (B) Piston blow by (C) A defective aftercooler (D) Faulty exhaust valves Ans C 1318 how much will the jacket water temperature normally increase between the inlet and outlet of medium or high speed diesel engines? (A) 1 to 3 c (B) 3 to 5 c (C) 5 to 10 c (D) 15 to 25 c Ans C 1319 trunk type diesel engine pistons are effectively cooled when heat is (A) Radiated through the engine block (B) Transferred to water cooled cylinder walls (C) Conducted through the piston crown (D) Transferred to escaping exhaust gases Ans B 1320 Ring groove inserts are occasionally used on aluminium alloy pistons to (A) Reduce the ring groove wear rate (B) Seal against crankcase vapors (C) Lessen the wear on aluminium parts on the cylinder (D) Allow for the greater expansion rate of aluminium Ans A 1321 broken intake valve springs on one cylinder of a diesel engine can cause the engine to

(A) Over spend (B) Fire improperly (C) Lose oil pressure (D) Over heat rapidly Ans B 1322 Excessive lube oil consumption in a diesel engine can be caused by (A) Late combustion (B) Plugged oil wiper rings (C) Low lube oil temperature (D) Low lube oil pressure Ans B 1323 when the cold tappet clearance is less than that specified by the engine manufacturer,the diesel engine valves will (A) Open earlier than normal (B) Close earlier than normal (C) Remain open for a shorter duration (D) Fail to open when the valves are warm Ans A 1324 during the power stroke of a four stroke cycle diesel engine,most of the side thrust of a trunk type piston is absorbed by the (A) Piston skirt (B) Pinion (C) Cross head (D) Compression rings Ans A 1325 Exessive lube oil consumption can result from worn or broken (A) Piston rings (B) Valve guides (C) Valve seals

(D) All of the above Ans A 1326 Excessive piston ring wear in a diesel engine wilkl cause (A) High lube oil viscosity (B) Increased lube oil consumption (C) Low lube oil temperatures (D) High firing pressures Ans B 1327 excessive lubricating oil consumption in a running diesel engine can be caused by (A) Clogged lube oil piping (B) Excessive valve guide clearance (C) High lube oil viscosity (D) Low lube oil viscosity 1328 In a four stroke/cycle diesel engine, badly worn intake valve guide can cause excessive (A) Exhaust pressure (B) Exhaust temperature (C) Cooling water temperatures (D) Lube oil consumption.

1329 the A. B. C. D.

The camshaft on a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is used to operate

fuel injectors exhaust valves intake valves all of the above

Ans: D 1330. A diesel engine valve spring is under compression when the valve is ________I. open II. Closed A. only B.II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II ANS: C 1331 The force exerted by a valve spring to close the diesel engine valves is proportional to A. B. C. D. spring compression engine speed the natural frequency of vibration spring surge

Ans: A 1332. Exhaust pipes for separate diesel engines can be combined only when________ A. space limitations prevent separately run pipes B. Engines are small auxiliary units C. they are arranged prevent gas backflow to each engine D. A waste heat boiler is installed ANS: C 1333 Spring surge in diesel engine valve springs can result in A. increasing effective spring force

B. bouncing of the valve gear C. splitting of the valve keeper collars D. failure of the valve to open Ans: B 1334. The satisfactory operation of diesel engine exhaust valves usually depends on A. the proper back pressure B. The cooling water temperature C. Correct timing and proper seating D. Accurate metering and the exhaust temperature ANS: C 1335 The angular distance a flywheel rotates between the firing of the cylinders of a V-16, fourStroke/cycle diesel engine is A. B. C. D. 22.50 33.75 45.00 90.00

Ans: C 1336. On a medium speed main propulsion diesel engine the crankpin or crank journal bearings receive lubricating oil from A. A spindle lubricator B. An oil jet C. internal spclearanceing

D. drilled passage ways in the crank shaft ANS: D 1337 In comparison to exhaust valves, intake valves of diesel engines may be fabricated from low-alloy steels because A. the beveled edges of the intake valves provide for self-centering during seating B. intake valves utilize stellite-coated valve seat inserts which reduce wear C. the volume of air passing through intake valves is less than the volume of air passing through exhaust valves d.intake valves are iess affected to the corrosive action of exhaust valves Ans:D 1338. Multiple concentric valve springs are often used with diesel engine valves to A. Enable research and development of cam contour to be simplified B. Operate the valve gear where a larger force is normally required but space limitations restricted the use of the single spring C. allow for easier valve replacement D. Enable a total smaller valve spring force to keep the valve fit on its seat ANS: B 1339. Before shutting off the fuel supply to stop a medium or high-speed diesel engine, why is it necessary to alloy the engine to idle for a few minutes A. to let the waste heat boiler reduce its rate of steam generation B.to ensure the fuel nozzels are flushed clean c. to clear the smoke stack

D.to prevent internal damage from local overheating Ans:D 1340. Cooling water pumps driven by direct reversing diesel engines are usually of the straight impeller vane type pump with a concentric housing to A. Provide cooling water flow when the engine is running either ahead or astern B. provide the greatest pump efficiency C. prevent pump cooling from marine growth D. Prevent cavitations at the pump outlet ANS: A 1341. In a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the camshaft rotates at A.twice the crankshaft speed B.half the crankshaft speed C.the same speed as the crankshaft D.a speed independent of the crankshaft Ans:B 1342. Fuel oil begins injection to the cylinder of a four stroke cycle diesel engine during the A. Intake stroke B. Exhaust stroke C. Power stroke D. compression stroke ANS: D

1343. A piston in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine makes four strokes during each A. crankshaft revolution B.mechanical cycle of operation C.period of two combustion cycles D.cycle of two events 1344. What is the speed of the crank shaft in a four stroke cycle engine when the camshaft is turning at 750 Rpm? A. 375 Rpm B. 500 Rpm C. 750 Rpm D. 1500 Rpm ANS: D 1345. Regarding jerk-type fuel pumps as used on some auxiliary diesel engines, the delivery cutoff point is controlled with a A. delivery valve spring B.spill port for leakoff C.check valve in the guide D.helical groove on the plunger 1346. What is the crank angle between any two crank throws in the firing order of a four stroke cycle in line 8 cylinder diesel engine A. 45 B. 60 C. 90

D. 100 ANS: C 1347 The firing order of an in-line,four-stroke/cycle,six cylinder,auxillary diesel engine is 1-5-3-6-2-4.When the #1 cylinder is firing at top dead center,the #3 piston is________ A.on the intake stroke B.on top dead centre C.on the power stroke D.at bottom dead centre Ans:A 1348 Precombustion chambers air cells and energy cells in high speed small bore diesel engines all serve to increase_________ A.firing pressure B.ignition quality of fuel C.fuel/air ratio during compression D.turbulence Ans:D 1349 Which of the following statements represents the advantage of a precombustion chamber used in an auxillary diesel engine? A.Timing of injection does not need to to be exact B.tubulence is eliminated C.lower mean effective pressure are developed D.Excellent control of combustion can be attained

Ans:A 1350 In a fuel floating gudgeonpin the pin is prevented from sliding against the cylinder valves by__________ A.snap rings B.seal welding C.press fitting D.a tongue and groove Ans:A 1351 The exhaust valve opens before bottom dead centre in afour stroke engine to_________.1 allow for blow down 2.reduce pumping losses A.1 only B.2 only C.both 1 and 2 D.neither 1 nor 2 Ans:C 1352 A V-12 four stroke cycle 500 horsepower diesel engine is operating under a normal load the firing pressure are low and exhaust temperature are high.Which of the following problems is the more probable cause of this condition? A.fuel pump rack setting is too far out B.the air intake filter is missing C.the exhaust back pressure is too high D.the fuel pump rack setting is too far in Ans:C

1353 In order to keep excess oil from the intake ports in two stroke cycle diesel engines________ A.wide compression rings are used B.oil rings are located above the piston C.dense chromium plating is used D.oil rings are located near the bottom of the piston skirt Ans:D 1354 One advantage obtained from the use of aprecombustion chamber in adiesel engine is________ A.increased engine thermal efficiency B.higher peak cylinder pressure C.higher developed BMEP D.smooth combustion Ans:D 1355 The use of push rods are necessary in adiesel engine when________ A.the camshaft is located some distance below the rocker arms B.the rocker arms are pivoted near their centres C.two or more valves must be opened and closed at the same time D.hydraulic tappet clearance adjusters are used Ans:A 1356 When attempting to restart a warm high speed engine which of the following reactions can tou expect? A.excessive fuel use

B.higher than normal temperature for start up C.longer starting periods D.higher than normal lube oil pressure Ans:B 1357 Proper lubrication of the main bearings is more easily obtained in a single acting four stroke cycle diesel engine than in a single acting two stroke engine diesel engine because__________ A.bearing pressure in afour stroke cycle single acting four stroke diesel engine is continually reversed B.bearing pressure in atwo stroke cycle single acting diesel engine is continually reversed C.the maximum bearing pressure is higher un a single acting two stroke cycle dieswwel engine D.two stroke cycle diesel engines require more complicated lubrication piping Ans:A 1358 Cams used to activate mechanically operated air starting valve on four stroke diesel engine should have which of the valve lift profiles listed? A.Abrupt lift with ashort open period abrupt valve seating B.gradual lift with ashort fully open period and accelerated valve closing C.abrupt lift giving full valve opening for a long period with agradual valve seating D.gradual lift giving full valve opening for a long period with a gradual valve seating Ans:C

1359 In adiesel engine with the set to specifications the shape of the cam determines the valve________ A.point of opening B.speed of opening C.lift from its site D.all of the above 1360 Which type of gudgeon pin uses bearings in the piston bosses but fixed to the small end of the connecting rod? A.semifloating B.full floating C.solid D.fixed Ans:A 1361 A turbocharged four stroke cycle diesel engine has a larger valve overlap than a naturally aspirated four stroke cycle diesel engine in order to increase the A.temperature of the exhaust gases B.energy supplied to the turbocharger C.air pressure to the intake manifold D.cooling effect of the exhaust valves Ans:D 1362 to reduce the weight of the reciprocating parts pistons of high speed engines are made considerably shorter.This results in__________ A. less piston slap and quiter running

B.increased crankshaft bearing wear C.slightly greater piston waer D.decreased side pressure 1363 valves in the cylinder head of a diesel engine are opened by the direct action of the_________ A.exhaust pressure B.valve spring pressure C.rocker arm movement D.gudgeon pin movemen Ans:C 1364 High speed,multicylinder,diesel engines commonly use counterweights placed opposite to the crankpins to_______ A.prevent bearingloads B.provide dynamic balance by equalizing centrifugal force C.counteract inertia forces D.provide a balance of rocking couples around the crankshaft Ans:B Page 71 1365. a four stroke cycle six cylinder in-line diesel engine has a firing order of 153624.when cylinder #6 is firing at top dead center,piston #4 is -------------A. B. C. D. At top dead center On the compression stroke At bottom dead center On the intake stroke

Ans.d 1366.in a diesel engine closed fresh water cooling system employing a radiator proper water temperature can be obtained by A. B. C. D. Ans.a 1367.in an auxilary diesel engine by pass type lubricating oil system,the main lube oil pump forces--------A. B. C. D. Ans.b 1368. If a four stroke/cycle diesel engine is running at 1550 RPM, the speed of the camshaft will be__________ A. 525 RPM B. 775 RPM C. 1550 RPM D. 1800 RPM Ans. B All of the oil used by engine through a filter Some of the oil used by the engine through a filter Some of the oil usedby the engine through the centrifuge Cylinder clearance volume Adjusting the radiator louvers Passing cooling water through a space heater Piston cooling water through the lube oil cooler Piping exhaust gases across the radiator front

1369. An inline engine having a 225mm bore and more than eight cylinders will________ A. incorporate the use of two explosion relief valves B.have three explosion relief valves C. have atleast eight explosion relief valves D. not be required to have explosion relief valves Ans.B 1370. An advantage of aluminium pistons, when compared to cast iron pistons is____________ A. greater high temperature strength B. better heat conductivity C. greater weight per cubic cm D. increased resistance to wear Ans. B 1371. An electric heater built into some smaller diesel engines is used to_________________ A. raise lube oil viscosity for easier starting in cold weather B. increase air inlet temperature C. increase compression ratio D. increase jacket water temperature for easier starting in cold weather Ans.D 1372. In a bypass type filtering system for a medium or high speed diesel engine, the lube oil bypassing the filter______________

A. returns directly to the suction side of the pump B. returns directly to the sump C. flows to the engine bearings D. flows through a second-stage strainer, reheater , and returns to the sump

1373. The camshaft on a four stroke/cycle diesel engine provides a means to operate the ____________ A. fuel injectors B. exhaust valves C.intake valves D.all of the above Ans.D 1374. In a single acting, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine , the power impulse in an individual cylinder occurs______________ A. once every crankshaft revolution B. once every two crankshaft revolution C. once every piston sroke D. twice every piston stroke Ans.B 1375. If fuel injection to a four stroke /cycle diesel engine begins earlier than designed, ignition may be delayed because the ______________ A. cylinder compression pressure may not be high enough

B. cylinder compression temperature may be too high C. fuel oil injection pressure may not be high enough D. scavenge and purge process is incomplete Ans.A 1376.Air motion is induced in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine cylinder to improve air fuel mixing and is known as __________________A. su percharging B. Scavenging C. turbulence D. swept volume charging Ans.C 1377. One of the most methods in preventing a diesel engine piston pin from contacting the cylinder wall is by the use of________________ A. non-floating pin B. tape rod bosses C.snap rings D. offset drilling Ans.C 1378. In the operating cycle of a four stroke/cycle diesel engine, blow down to exhaust manifold pressure must occur before the piston begins the exhaust stroke to avoid__________________ A. Pressure losses B. exhaust pulsation

C. excessive scavenging D. Pumping losses Ans.D 1379. Exhaust pipes of multiple engine installations are not to be inter connected , but are to be interconnected, but are to be run separetely to the atmosphere ________________ A.unless arranged to prevent the return of gases to an idle engine B. to apoint not lower than the highest load line C. at a location segregated from other ventilation systems D. and shall be protected by a rain guard or similar device Ans A 1380.Proper lubrication of the main bearings is more easily obtained in a single acting , four stroke/cycle diesel engine than in a two stroke/cycle diesel engine because_________________ A. the direction of pressure on the journals in four stroke engines is continuously reversing , whereas in two stroke engines it is a constant B. positive feed lubricators are installed on all bearings of four stroke engines , whereas as a spclearance feed system is used on two stroke engines. C. four stroke engines usually utilise a heavier grade of fuel oil than two stroke engines D. two stroke engines usually consume less lube oil than four-stroke engines Ans.A 1381. During the power stroke, the side thrust of a trunk type piston is a result of the angle____________

A. formed by the connecting rod and the cylinder centre line B. formed by the piston in relation to the piston pin C. at a location segregated from other ventilation systems D. and shall be protected by a rain guard or similar device Ans.A 1382.Auxiliary diesel engines can be automatically shut down as a result of________________ A. low lube oil temperature B. low lube oil pressure C.High exhaust temperature D.High cooling water pressure Ans.B Page 72 1383.An emergency diesel generator should automatically shut down in the event of_______________ A.Dangerous overspeeding B. a loss of lube oil pressure C.the activation of the fixed Co2 system for the emergency generator space D. All of the above Ans.D 1384.Prior to starting most medium-speed propulsion diesel engines, which of the procedures listed should be observed? A.the expansion tank should be topped off

B. the fuel filters should be changed C. the thermostatic water regulating v type piston may alves should be manually opened D.the engine should be turned over slowly with the indicator cocks open. Ans.D 1385. During warmup the expansion of valve stems due to engine heat,is allowed for by the____________ A. Valve springs B. hydraulic governor c.tappet clearance d.cooling system Ans.c 1386.high lube oil temperature developing in a diesel engine can result form_______________ A. B. C. D. High oil pressure Excessive bearing end play Plugged oil control rings Engine overload

1387.in a medium speed diesel engine,a trunk type piston may be cooled by_______ .i. oil circulation through passage in the piston crown ii.heat transfer through piston rings and liner wall A. B. C. D. I only Ii only Either I orii Neither I nor ii

Ans.c 1388.the shape of a cam on a diesel engine determines the valves_____________ A. B. C. D. Ans.d 1389.one end of a cylinder for a medium or high speed diesel engine is sealed by the piston and rings ,theother end is sealed by the__________________ A. B. C. D. Ans.b 1390.the side pressure per unit area,resulting from the angularity of the motion of the connecting rod,depends primarily on the____________ A. B. C. D. Ans.b 1391.in a four stroke /cycle diesel engine,after the completion of the power stroke,the piston will move_______________ A. Up and draw in a fresh air charge B. Down to burn off fuel C. Down to compress the fuel air charge Weight of the piston Length of the piston Length of the cylinder liner Speed of the engine Crankcase Cylinder head Valve cover Engine frame Point of opening Speed of opening Lift from its seat All of the above arecorrect

D. Up and force out the exhaust gas Ans.d 1392.during the diesel engine power stroke,the side thrust of a trunk type piston is a result of the angle__________ A. B. C. D. Ans.a 1393.which of the listed design features is found in an exhaust valve and not in a intake valve? Alloy steel construction A. B. Beveled edges on the valve head C. Low alloy steel construction D. Peppet type design E. 1394.a connecting rod in a four stroke cycle diesel engine is subject to ______________ A. B. C. D. Ans.b 1395.a disadvantage of four stroke/cycle diesel engine is A. Higher working temperature of piston and cylinder B. In use of scavenge ports C. Fewer power strokes per revolutions of the cranckshaft Tension load twice each crank shaft revolution Compression load during power and compression strokes Inertia load once every four crankshaft revolutions Bending loads at bottom and top dead center Formed by the connecting rod and cylinder center line Of the bevel on the piston control rings Formed by the crank arm and crank pin Formed by the master and link connecting rod

D. Part of the fuel is burned as the piston is moving away from top dead center Ans.c 1396.in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine the intake valve opens____________ A. B. C. D. Ans.a Before TDC and close afterBDC After TDC and close after BDC Before TDC and close before BDC After TDC and close before BDC

FOUR STROKE ENGINE-MAINTAINANCE 1397.Increasing the valve clearance between a valve stem and rocker arm ,will result in the valve__________ A. B. C. D. Ans.c 1398.if the oil control rings were installed upside down on a diesel engine piston,which of the following conditions would result? A. B. C. D. Ans.a Excessive oil pumping would occur The rings would lend to overheat The rings groove would be blocked Tendancy for ring breakage is increased Closing later Opening sooner Staying open for a shorter period of time Staying open for a longer period of time

1399.which of the listed problems would be indicated by an accumulation of water in one cylinder ,in addition to the crank case of an ideal diesel engine? A. B. C. D. Ans.c 1400.if a clicking sound is being produced from within the valve compartment of a diesel engine,the cause may be____________ A. B. C. D. Ans.d 1401.if there is a clicking sound in the valve compartment of a diesel engine the cause may be____________ A. B. C. D. Ans.b 1402.water accumulating in the crankcase of a diesel engine could indicate______________ A. B. C. D. A cracked cylinder liner Excessive water in the fuel A leeking intercooler Excessive moisture in the scavange air A worn gudgeon pin Excessive tappet clearance Worn connecting rod bearing All of the above A loose valve stem and guide Excessive tappet clearances A stuck valve All of the above Excessive condensation in that cylinder Water in the fuel system Cracked cylinder liner Leaking lube oil cooler

Ans.a

1403.a sudden drop in compression pressure in one cylinder of a diesel engine can be caused by a.a leaking fuel injector nozzle b.bourdon gauge c.heexcessively early fuel injection d.malfunctioning valves ans ;d 1404.if the piston groove drain holes for the oil control rings become clogged which of the following is likely to occur ? a.the oil control rings will seat improperly and wear rapidly b.the piston will overheat due to insufficient lubrication c.excessive oil will remain on the cylinderwall d.light brown smoke will emanate from the engine exhaust ans;c 1405.if you increase the clearance between a valve stem and rocker arm which of the listed conditions will occur ? a.valve will open later b.valve will close later c.amount of fuel injected will be increased d,amount of fuel injected will be decreased

ans;a 1406.bearing clearances in small high speed diesel engines should be measured using a.gauge blocks b.plasti gauge c.feeler gauge d.round solder wire ans.b 1407.a loud clicking noise occurring from wirhin the valve compartment of an operating diesel engine would indicate a.wom valve seats b.tight rocker arm springs c.excessive tappet clearance d.weak rocker arm springs ans;c 1408.on small diesel engines a noticable decrease in the time interval between the replacement of the tube filter cartridge indicates a.piston ring blow by b.dirty air filter c.excessive oil pressure d.excessive oil temperature ans.a

1409.to check the setting of the overspeed trip on a diesel powered generator you would use a a.tachometer b.torisionmeter c.dynomometer d.pony bral ans.a 1410.immeadiately after starting a small highspeed diesel engine you should check the a.cooling water temperature b.lube oil temperature c.fuel pressure d.lube oil pressure ans.d 1411.increasing the exhaust valve tappet clearance of a diesel engine will result in the exhaust valve opening A.later and closing earlier B.later and closig later C.earlier and closing earlier Ans.A 1412.Afault thermostatic bypass valve,in adiesel engine cooling System,can result in

A.excessive time required for warming-up B.excessive freshwater corrosion C.scale formation on the saltwater side D.saltwater mixing mixing with the fresh water Ans.a 1413.when using a fuel with a higher than normal sulphur content in an auxilary diesel engine you should a.maintain higher than normal jacket water temperature b.change the tube oil more frequently than normal c.maintain a higher air box temperature than normal d.maintain a higher air box pressure than normal ans.b 1414.which of the following problems can cause excessive consumption of the lubricating oil in a diesel engine? A.dirty lube oil filters b.excessive piston ring wear c.excessively high lube oil viscosity d.excessively low lube oil temperatures ans;b 1415.if the intake or exhaust valve stem clearance is found to be excessive in addition to too little movement of the rocker arms you should check for a.collapsed hydraulic valve litres b.loose valve spring locks

c.worn valve springs d.broken valve springs ans;a 1416.which of the following problems represents one possible cause of high lube oil consumption in a four stroke diesel ingine? a.wom intake valve b.pitted precombustion chambers c.loose valve tappets d.high exhaust back pressure ans.a 1417.the service life of a wom aluminium piston for an auxillary diesel for which no spares are readily available can be extended by a.turning down the piston skirt to concentric values b.knurling the piston skirt surface c.building up the piston skirt with a liquid epoxy material and then rematching d.increasing the dimensional of the ring land grooves ans ;b 1418.which of the changes in the valve timing listed should be carried out when a naturally aspirated four stroke diesel engine is converted to super charged engine ? a.retard the intake valve opening and advance the exhaust valve closing period b.advance the intake and exhaust valve opening period c.advance the intake valve opening and retard the exhaust valve closing periods

d.retard the intake and exhaust valve closing peroid ans;c 1419.a loud clicking noise from the valve compartment of an operating diesel engine would indicate a.worn valve seats b.worn main beatings. c.excessive valve clearance d.weak rocker arm springs ans.c 1420.excessively worn or polished ends on a diesel engine valve spring indicate a.burned exhaust valves b.excessive spring compression c.spring surge d.worn valve seats ans.c 1421.excessive valve clearance will cause a valve to open a.earlly and close early b.early and close late c.late and close early d.late and close late ans.c

1422.in a diesel engine blow by is a result of combustion gases leaking into the crankcase past the a.gudgeon pin bushings b.compression rings c.cylinder liner seals d.cylinder liner sealing ring ans.b 1423.reducing the clearance between a valve stem and rockar arm will result in the valve a.having a shorter duration of opening b.having a longer duration of opening c.closing sooner d.opening later ans;b 1424.excessive vibration in an operating diesel generates may be causing by a.electrical overload b.surging at governed rmp c.loose engine mounting bolts d.coolant leaking into the cylinder ans.c 1425.if you were inspecting the valve springs on an auxillary diesel engine.your best indication of impending spring failure would be a.a glazed surface on the spring

b.nicks in the protective coating c.a build up of sludge deposits d.cracks in the surface of the spring ans ;d 1426.if the valve tappets in a diesel engine are set at greater clearances than those specified by the engine manufactur those valves will a.open late and close early b.open late and close late c.fail to open when the engine is cold d.fail to open at normal operating temperature ans.a 1427.the overspeeding of the diesel engine driving an electrical genarator could cause a.low voltage trip to trip b.reverse power trip to trip c.damage to windings d.excessive exhaust temperature ans.c 1428.excessive piston ring wear in a diesel engine will cause A.high tube oil viscosity b.abnormal lube oil consumption c.low lube oil temperature

d.high firing pressures ans.b 1429.wom diesel engine intake valve guides can result in a.increased engine breathing efficiency b.excessive tappet clearance c.excessive lube oil consumption d.lower than normal fuel consumption ans.c 1430.in a diesel engine the spring force required for proper valve operation is determined by a.maximum firing pressure b.minimum firing pressure c.cam contour d.length of the string ans.c 1431.if an auxilary diesel engine coolant temperature is higher than normal but the thermostat is determined not to be defective you would suspect a a.cavitation erosion in the water jackets b.excess corrosion in hibitor in the coolant c.dirty jacket water cooler d.defective turbocharger ans.c

1432.in a trunk typr diesel engine piston the thickness of the head of crown is determined by the 1strength requirment 2.heat dissipation requirment a.1only b.2only c.both 1and 2 d.neither 1nor 2 1433.heat damage to fuel injection nozzles on small high speed diesel engines can be prevented by a.employing fuel oil as a cooling medium b.preventing hard carbon deposit on nozzle tips c.avoiding fuel oil temperature d.ensuring good mettallic contact ans.d 1434.tappet clearance refers to a.clearance between valve spindle and guide b.compression of the valve springs c.clearance between valve seat inserts d.clearance between top of valve stem ans.d 1435.which of the following precautions must be taken if an electrical immersion heater is used a.the coolant temperature must be maintained at 180 b.thermostatic by pass valves must be oppenes before engine starts

c.pressure cap must be removed while the engine is secures d.electrical power to the heater must be secured before cooling system is drained ans.d 1436.if the tappet clearance on a diesil engine is set improperly which the following statements represents a.too little clearance will cause noicy operation and excessive wear b.too much cle.arance will cause valve to open and close late c.too little clearance may prevent the valves d.too much clearance may prevent combusion loss of compression ans.c 1437.bearing clearances in small high speed diesel engines should be measured with a.gauge blocks b.plastigauge c.feeler gauge d.round solder wire ans.b 1438.in an auxilary diesel engine the reason for knurling the pistonto a.improve skirt lubrication b.allow for expansion c.transmit forces evently d.improve the piston seal

ans.a 1439.when the cold tappet clearance is less than that specified by the manufactur diesiel engine valves a.open later than normal c.close later than normal d.fail to open when the valves are warm ans.b 1440.if clearance between a piston and the cylinder wall is excessive piston slap will occur the slap itself is caused by a.alternation of side thrust b.a break down of the lube oil film on wall c.wom piston boss piston pin bearings d.pressure in the combustion space ans.a 1441.excessive tappet clearance in an auxilary diesel engine will cause the valves to open a.later and close sooner b.sooner and close later 1442.poor quality fuel being used in a turbo charged medium speed engine could result in a.hard starting b.excessive fuel consumption

1441 C. sooner and closer sooner D.later and closer later. Ans: a 1442 c.loss of power d.all the above ans:d 1443 cold clearances between the skirt of an aluminium piston ans the cylinder liner is about______________ a.twice aslarge as with a casr iron piston b.the same size as with a caste iron piston c.half as large with the cast iron piston d.the same as the crown of an aluminium piston ans:a 1444 improperly fitted piston rings in the diesel engine can cause ____________ a.excessive lube oil consumption b.lower than normail lube oil temperature c.higer than normal exhaust back pressure. d. excessive crankshaft endplay. Ans:a 1445 a four stroke cycle turbocl arged,1000 horsepower disel engine has been operating under load. The load suddenly increases.causing excessive back exhaust smoke and a rapid rise in the tube oil temperature in response to this condition,you should_____________

a.reduce load b.check your exhaust c.adjust cooling water temperture. d.increase the lube oil flow ans:a 1446 a 16 cylinder main propulsion diesel engine operating at 90% of fuel load. All cylinder exhaust cylinder indicated at 450 degree celsius except the no.7 cylinder which is indicated at 550 degree celsius all fuel racks are at 2122mm except no.7 which is at 16mm. a.replace and retime no.7 fuel pump. b.pull no.7 cylinder piston and examine the rings. c.examine the governor linkage for binding. d.check the intake manifold pressure for evidence of burnt intake vaves. Ans:a 1447 irregular engine speed in a diesel generator can be caused by a.high generator load b.low fuel viscosity c.high injection pressure d.binding in the fuel control linkage. Ans:d. 1448 Decreasing the exhaust valve clearance of a diesel engine will cause the exhaust valve to open____ A. Earlier and have less lift.

B. Earlier and remain open longer. C. Later and greater lift D. Later and have less duration Ans:B 1449 a 16 cylinder diesel engine is opertaing at 75%load .all exhaust tempertaure are between 400 and 450 degree except the #3 cylinder reading of 300 degree celsius.all fuel rack settings are between 21 and 22 millimetes with the #3 rack at 17mm.What will you do? A.reduce engine load B.stop the engine and change out the #3 fuel nozzle c.increase the #3 rack setting and watch the exhaust temperature D.stop the engine and adjust the #3 cylinder pump timing. Ans:C

AUTOMATION-INSTRUMENTATION 1450 why do most temperature control valves in diesel engine closed freshwater cooling systems vary the flow of jacket water through the cooler instead of through the engine? A.changing the rate of flow in the jackets could caouse localized hot spots. B.emergency hand control would not be possible if water flow through the jackets were controlled. C.excessive cooling would take place in the heat exchangers at high loads. D.Excessive cavitation erosion would take place in the cooles.

1451 Which of the following statemets is true concerning pressure limit switches and pressostats installed on auxillary boilers? A.they are bimetallic elements sensing temperature differentials corresponding to pressure changes. B.they consists of a bellows assembly,linked with a snap action switch.through a pressure adjusting mechanism. C.they automatically relieve excessive steam pressure by acting switch,through a pressure adjusting mechanism. D.they automatically restart the burner sequence via the high water level signal Ans:B 1452 If the combustion control system of an automatically fired auxillary boiler fails to relight the burner after a normal shut down,you should check for a/an______________ A.low steam pressure B.high voltage on the ignition electrode C.open air damper D.faulty photocell detector 1453 a student flame failure in an operating auxillary boiler,equipped with an automatic combustion control system and burning light fuel,coluld be attributed to a_____________ A.dead or malfunctioning step up transformer B.faulty ignition cable connector C.loose connection on the photocell D.rapid fuel viscosity increase

Ans:C 1454 in an automatically fired auxillary boiler,restarting from the normal shutdown cycle in response to steam demand , is initiated by a/an _____________ A.modulating oressostat, sensing both steam pressure and temperature B.pyrostat measuring decreased steam pressure and temperature. C.pressostat measuring only the steam pressure D.electrode sensing water level Ans:C 1455 In a diesel engine cooling system, the high temperature alarm contact maker will be activated on excessively highwater discharge temperature from the ____________ A.raw water pump discharge B.expansion tank outlet C.cooling water heat exchanger outlet D.engine lacket water outlet Ans:D 1456 ignition failure in an automatically controlled auxiliary boiler can be caused by________ A.carbon deposits on the electrode B.excessive fuel oil temperature C.pressostat measuring only the steam pressure D.brickwork failure

Ans:A 1457 the flame safegaurd controls of a large automatically fired auxillary boiler may consists of a ___________ A.stack switch B.pyrostat C.photoelectric cell D.thermistor Ans:C

1458: Ignition failure in an automatically controlled auxiliary boiler could be caused by ________. A. B. C. D. Carbon deposits on the flame scanner. High fuel oil temperature. Low fuel oil temperature. High steam pressure.

Ans: A. 1459: ignition failure in an auxiliary boiler can be caused by _________ A. B. C. D. Carbon deposits on electrodes A jammed open oil solenoid Excess fuel pressure at the nozzle An excessively long purge cycle

Ans: A

1460: which of the listed failures, occurring in an automated diesel generator system, should cause an audible alarm at the engine room control station? A. B. C. D. Low cooling water outlet temperature High lube oil pressure Low lube oil temperature Low starting air preasure

Ans: D 1461: an emergency diesel generator cooling system is equipped with an automotive type thermostat bellows loses its charge, the thermostat bellows loses loses its charge, the thermostat will ________ A. B. C. D. Open, and the coolant temperature will increase Open, and the coolant temperature will decrease Close, and the engine coolant temperature will increase Close, and the coolant temperature will decrease

Ans: C 1462: when an auxiliary boiler is on the line the output of the flame scanner can be checked by placing a microammeter in series with the photoelectric cell circuit. The readings on high fire should be ________ A. B. C. D. Higher than those at low fire Equal to those at low fire Lower than those at low fire Lower than those at low fire, but the generated voltage will be higher Ans: A

1463 Diesel engine automated control systems may utilize sensing devices of dual function with sensing range providing both alam and engine shut down capability.which of the key points listed would only require an alarm sensor? A.lube oil pressure and temperature

B.jacket water pressure and temperature. C.engine overspread D.lube oil sump level Ans:D 1464 the burner assembly on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler fitted with variable pressure atomizing burners ,maintains steam pressure by _________ A.cycle on and off B.changing fuel oil return pressure C.changing the speed of a rotary cup D.varying air pressure supplied to the nozzle Ans:B 1465 if the combustion control system of an automatically fired auxillary boiler fails to sustain burner ignition after a normal shutdown,you should check for a/an________ A.faulty photocell detector B.low steam pressure C.high voltage on the ignition electrode D.open air damper Ans:A 1466 a three way thermostatic control valve regulates the diesel engine cooling water temperature by passing a portion of the water_____________ A.around the engine B.around the cooler

C.to the expansion tank D.overboard 1467 the primary function of a flame safeguard system as used on an automatically fired auxiliary Boiler ,is to the boiler is to prevent___________ A.accidental dry firing and overpressure B.uncontrolled fires in the furnance C.explosions in the boiler furnance D.overheating of the pressure parts. Ans:C 1468 all automatically fired low pressure heating boilrs must have an automatic_________ A.fuel cutoff as a result of low water B.pressure control regulators C.feedwater control valve D.superheat control system 1469 the fuel supply system to an automaticalluy auxillary boiler,will be automatically shutdown if the boiler_________ A.salinity is abnormally high B.steam demand is too high C.water level is abnormally low D.feedwater flow is low

1470 automatic burner shutdown is an auxillary boiler, as a result of a component failure in the flame Safeguard controls ,will A.prevent the boiler from automatically relighting B.eliminate the need for furnance purging C.cause automatic restart after a purge period D.cause an explosion in the boiler furnance Ans:A 1471 In a diesel engine closed freshwater cooling system ,the amount of coolant flowing through the heat exchanger is controlled by the _________ A.suction pressure regulator B.themostatic bypass valve C.seawater temperature D.water level in the expansion tank Ans:B 1472 under which of the following conditions must the combustion control system for a small automatic auxillary boiler secure the burner? A.High water level B.low steam pressure C.flame failure D.high fuel oil temperature Ans:C

1473 temperature control valves installed in the jacket cooling water system of a diesel engine ,modulates the rate of water flow through the______________ A.cooling water pump ` B.nozzle cooling passages C.cylinder jackets D.heat exchanger Ans:D 1474 At the beginning of the prepurge period on an automatic auxillary boiler equipped with a programmed control system, the until will not restart if airflow is not sensed and_________ A.the damper is not sufficient opened B.the damper is not fully closed C.oil pressure is not sensed D.water pressure is not sensed Ans:A 1475 after a normal or safety shutdown,automatic combustion control systems for an auxillary boiler are designed to prevent the immediate refiring of a burner in order for the_________ A.furnance to be repurged B.electric charge to builtup in the ignitor C.fuel pump to restart D.drum level to stabilize Ans:A

1476 which of the following types of feedwater regulators is commonly used with a water-tube natural circulation auxillary boiler? 1477 Automatic combustion control systems for auxiliary boilers are designed to cycle burners on and off in response to be____________

1478.If the operating element of a thermostatic valve installed in a diesel engine cooling system malfunctions ,it may result in_______ A.a low level in the engine expansion tank B.excessively high coolant pressure C.improper temperatures D.malfunctioning of the jacket water heater Ans:C 1479.Automatic combustion control systems for some auxiliary boilers are designed to cycle burner on and off in response to________ A.fuel supply pressure B.fuel return pressure C.steam pressure D.furnace air pressure Ans:C 1480.Engine protection by means of an alarm or shutdown control can be obtained with devices that are sensitive to_________ A.temperature B.pressure C.engine speed D.all the above 1481.Control of the main propulsion diesel engines can be shifted from the engine room to the wheelhouse from the_______________ A.wheelhouse control station

B.engine room control station C.captains office D.chief engineers office 1482.To test the operation of the flame failure switch of an operating automatically fired auxiliary boiler,you should______________ A.de-energise the high voltage ignition system B.moves the igniter away from the normal firing position C.close the manual fuel valve with burner firing D.shift the control to low fire Ans:C 1483.Electrically operated safety devices on auxiliary diesel enginesfunction to stop the engine by______ A.increasing the volume of intake air B.shutting off the fuel supply C.increasing the engine back pressure D.overspeeding the engine Ans:B 1484.The programmed control system of an automatic auxiliary boiler will terminate the light off process during the prepurge period if air flowbis not sensed and________ A.the damper is not sufficiently open B.the damper is not fully closed C.oil presure is not sensed

D.water pressure is not sensed Ans:A 1485.On auxiliary boilers using individual flame scanners to monitor the main and pilot flames,the main flame scanner should be sighted to_______ A.detect pilot flames that are incorrectly positioned B.view the refractory directly opposite the main burner C.avoid detecting the pilot flame D.view the main flame in its outer periphery Ans:C 1486.Automatic combustion control systems for some auxiliary boilers are designed to cycle burners on in response to________ A.low fuel pressure B.fuel return pressure C.low steam pressure D.furnace air pressure Ans:C 1487.If the flame of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler tends to move away from the burner tip whwn the firing rate is changed from low to high .you should_______ A.decrease the fuel pressure B.adjust damper linkage to slow the opening rate of the dampers C.adjust damper linkage to length then the purge period D.adjust the photocell to observe the new flame position

1488.Which of the following conditions will cause only one of the burner solenoid valves to close on an automaticlly fired , two burner unit,auxiliary boiler? A.loss of the forced draft fan B.low boiler water level C.high boiler water level D.a faulty coil in one the solenoid valves Ans:D 1489.While an auxiliary boiler is operated at design load,which of the following actions will occur if the automatic cumbustion control system detects a steam pressure drop? A.more burners will be lighted off B.the registers will open fully C.the fuel oil valve and air damper will open wider D.the steam flow will be automatically regulated Ans:C 1490.The main propulsion diesel engine jacket water temperature rises above normal,with the raw water sea suction and the expansion tank water level being normal.Which of the following problems is most likely the cause? A.faulty thermostatic bypass valve B.eroded zinc pencils in the heat exchanger C.steam formation in the expansion tank D.excessive leakage from jacket water pump seals Ans:A

1491.constant capacitypressure atomising fuel oil burners installed on automatically firedauxiliary boilers,respond to variation in load demand by__________ A.automatically increasing the fuel/air ratio B.automatically cycling the burner on and off C.responding to the boiler high and low water level limit switches D.regulating the fuel oil service pump discharge pressure Ans:B 1492.Burner ignition failure in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler would be caused by__________ A.a burned out solenoid in the oil supply valve B.high temperature excess air C.incorrectly setting the hotwell dump valve D. an incorrectly positioned burner snubber assembly Ans:A 1493.An automatically fired auxiliary boiler is required by regulations to be shut down as a result of ____________ A.low boiler pressure B.low water level C.wide flame cone angle D.high fuel oil pressure Ans:B

1494.If the combustion control system of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler fails to restart from the normal shutdown mode,you should check for_________ A.broken or grounded high tension leads B.a faulty ignition cable connector C.an incorrect electrode setting D.all the above Ans:D 1495.When the steam pressure drops below a set value on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler,fitted with rotary cup atomzers the combustion control system will________ A.increae the fuel oil control valve opening B.increase the rotary cup speed C.decrease the back pressure regulating valve opening D.decrease the supply steam control valve opening Ans:A 1496. The jacket water temperature in a diesel engine closed fresh water cooling system is normally controlled by _______ A.regulating the level of corrosion inhibiter in the primary cooling system. B.the level of freshwater expansion tank. C.varying the engine load to meet temperature requirments. D.the operation of thermostatic value Ans:D

1497.On an automatically fired auxiliary boiler , the steam pressure limit switch is wired in to the burner electric circuit to___________ A.energised flame scannercircuit when high boiler pressure is reached B.sound and alarm whwn the burner is shut off C.shut off the burner when cutoff pressure is reached D.maintain smoke less fuel oil atomisation Ans:C 1498.A failure of any component of a flame safeguard controll for an auxiliary boiler will result in______ A.furnace explosion B.automatic burner shut down C.uncontrollable firing D.automatic restart Ans:B 1499.the fuel oil supply system to an automatic auxiliary boiler,will automatically shut down if the boiler_____ A.steam demand is high B.salinity is high C.safety value simmers D.burner flame is extinguished Ans:D 1500.Control of the fuel oil metering value in an autamatically fired auxiliary boiler is accomplished by a______

A.pressure magnifying device in the steam coil outlet B.signal from feedwater electrode C.metering device in the air supplyline D.steam pressure sensing device with linkage to the damper air vanas Ans:D 1501.The pressostat is installed on a auxiliary boiler to sense steam pressure changes,it______ A.controlls the flow feedwater to the boiler B.monitors the boiler high water level C.secures the fires when a fusible plug burns out D.automatically regulates the quandity of oil and air flow to the burner Ans:D 1502.Which of the automatic boiler controlls listed should be tested prior to lighting off oa auxiliary boiler? A.automatic bottom blow value B.low water level cutoff switch C.voltage output of the ignition transformer D.insulation resistance readings in the ignition system high tension leads Ans:B 1503.The photo electric cell installed in a automatically fired auxiliary boiler burner management system________ A.opens the burner circuit upon sensing a flame failure B.must be bypassedat low firing rates

C.requires mechanical linkage to secure theburner fuel supply D.detects a flame failure by monitoring radiant heatfrom glowing refractory Ans:A 1504.If the jacket water temperature in a auxiliary diesel engine cooling system is lower than normal,the probable cause is _______ A.air binding of the engine cooling system B.a cracked water cooled exaust manifold C.blockage in heat exchanger D.faulty operation of the thermostat Ans:D 1505.The diesel engine control can be obtained by the bridge___________ A.at an time B.only after the engine room control station is switched to bribge control C.whenever the secondary station is switched to bridge control D.with the approval of the chief engineer only Ans:B 1506.The temperature at which an adustable bellows type thermostat valve is set by____ A.changing the position of the actuating bulb B.replacing the bellows with a heavier spring C.varying air loading pressure to the bellows D.change in spring compression to oppose bellows

Ans:D

POWER TRANSMISSION,GEARS AND CLUTCHES 1508.Where diesel engine speed and clutch controls are combined into one operation by a single control lever,movement of the lever from the stopposition to the ahead position will FIRST_________ A.decrease the engine speed B.increase the engine speed C.engage the clutch D.disengage astern clutch Ans:C 1509.The control system for a controllable pitch propeller can be programmed _________.1.to produce a maximum combined propeller and engine efficiency between pitch and a given engine speed.2.for a continuous operation of the engine at pre set conditions A.1 only is correct B.2 only is correct C.both 1 and 2 are correct D.neither 1 or 2 are correct Ans:C 1510.A diesel engine is operating at 1800 RPM and driving a propeller at 600RPM.What is the speed reduction ratio A.0.3021 B.3.00 to1

C.3.33 to 1 D.3.3 to 1 Ans:D 1511.The torque transmitted by an electromagnetic slip coupling is depenbent upon excitation and the _______ A.engine speed B.harmonic frequency C.amount of slip D.resonance Ans:C 1512.Which of the couplings listed will prevent shock loads from being transmitted to an engine? A.grid B.dog type C.friction D.hydraulic Ans:D 1513.In most marine single reduction gear units ,the spur gear is driven by the ______ A.quillshaft B.hellical gear C.pinion gear D.spur gear

Ans:C 1514. Hydraulic couplings will transmit torque equal to the input torque by means of energy changes in a rotating vertex of liquid. For the vertices to form , there must be A. slip between the impeller and runner B. less than two percent slip between the impeller and runner C. axial thurst generated by the runner pinion shaft D. momentary torsional vibration transmitted by the driving impeller 1515. Helical reduction gears , as used with main propulsion drive trains, are constructed so that several teeth are meshed at the same time to.. A. eliminate propeller shaft end thrust B. translate heavy load into high speed output C. provide smooth continuous power transmission D. allow construction with fewer gear teeth Ans. C 1516. which of the following characteristics is true relative to meshing spur gears? A. the gear of large diameter will rotate at a smaller RPM. B.both bears will operate in same direction C. the teeth on the large gear are larger than the teeth in smaller gear D. power can be transmitted in 90 angel Ans. A 1517. gear-type flexible couplings are often used in diesel engine drive strains because they. A. require no lubrication under normal operating conditions B. compensate for grass misalignment in the drive train

C. are able to translate high torque ,even where slight misalignment exists D. will rapidly disconnect the engine from the line shaft Ans. C 1518. when used with reversing reduction gears, medium-speed diesels engine should be bolted to their foundations with fitted bolts at the drive end and clearance bolts in other locations by A. maintain alignment when ships hull is working in heavy seas B. ensure engine vibrations correspond to the natural freguency of the hull C. permit the engine to expand away from the driven equipment as the engine heats up and expands D. maintain engine thrust bearing clearances Ans. C 1519. the best method fpr determining the amount of eccentricity or offset misalignment between the disconnected propeller shaft coupling flange and rotation gear output flange is by A. straight edge laid across the flange edges B. thickness gauge between the separated flange faces C. bridge gauge to check the position of each flange in relation to other D. dial indicator mounted on one flange indicating any misalignment of the other flange Ans.D 1520. A flexible coupling is located between the.. A. engine and the pinion B. lineshaft and tailshaft

C. pinion and the bull gera D. thrust bearing and the worm gear Ans. A 1521. reduction gears casings are vented in order to A. allow windage to exit for cooling the gears B. avoid a build of pressure within the gear case C. avoid lube oil foaming within the case D. allow for proper lubrication of the friction clutch shoes Ans. B 1522. which of the types of reduction gearing listed is the best suited for medium speed main propulsion units? A. hypoid B. helical C. cyclical D. spur Ans. B 1523. misaligment of the of the drive shaft and propeller shaft fianges can be detected by using a dial indicator or A. inside micrometer B. feeler gauge and straight edge C. adjustable trammel D. sighting device

Ans. A 1524. which of the bearing types is listed is most commonly used in smaller vessel main propulsion reduction gears as thrust bearings A. ball bearings B. poured bearings C. sleeved bearings D. tapered roller bearings Ans. D 1525. when more than one propulsion diesel engine is connected to a single propeller shaft through Reduction gears ,the gears are usually .. A. B. C. D. single reduction double reduction triple reduction quadruple reduction

Ans.A 1526. which of the following statement is correct concerning a hydraulic coupling? A. rapid declutching is impossible B. accurate alignment between the rotating members is extremely important C. torque is controlled by the volume of in the coupling D. torosional vibration from the engine are transmitted directly to the hull by the coupling Ans.C

1527. one advantage of hydraulic clutches over mechanical clutches in diesel engine installation is A. the power is transmitted at a very high efficiency of 60% B. the torosional vibrations are transmitted directly to the reduction gears C. each clutches has a separate oil gland for reverse operation D. no mechanical connection exists between the driven systems Ans. D 1528. The magnetic lock between the armature and field in an electromagnetic coupling is established by.. A. controlled engine speed B. energizing the field coils C. brush contact with the armature D. rotating the primary rotor Ans. B 1529.in reducing engine speed to an efficient propeller speed by the use of reduction gears, A. speed and torque are reduced B. speed is reduced and torque remains unchanged C. speed is reduced and torque is increased D. speed is sometimes unchanged while torque is increased Ans. C 1530.when changing the direction of propeller shaft rotation in a diesel land equipped with a pneumatic clucth , you must , pause at neutral to allow the..

A. fuel lack to readjust B. engine to slow down C. propeller to stop D. clutch to deflect Ans.D 1531.Airflex clutches are used to transmit power from a diesel engine to the propeller shaft .a restricted orifice is used in the control air system of this unit to A.decay deflation of the clutch being disengaged B.delay inflation of the clutch being engaged C.reduce the deflation time of both clutches D.reduce the inflation time of both clutches ANS:B 1532.The power loss associated with slip in fluid coupling appears as. A.chattering in the driving member B.heat in the hydraulic fluid C.vibration in the driving member D.leakage around the ring valve ANS:B 1533.slippage of an air operated friction clutch can result from. A.an overloaded engine B.prolonged slow speed operation

C.weak disc springs D.newly installed friction blocks ANS:A 1543.proper operation of the main engine reduction gear set recquires the operator to monitor.. A.the sump oil level B.oil flow sight glasses C.bearing temperatures D.all the above ANS:D 1544.when air is delivered under pressure to one of the glands of an airbladder clutch,the.. A.inside diameter of the clutch gland increases B.inside diameter of the clutch gland decreases C.gland rotates out of contact with the drums D.clutch begins to rotate with the engine ANS:B 1545.to guarantee that a reduction gear bearing is receiving proper oil supply,you should check the A.lube oil temperature at the cooler outlet B.lube oil strainer magnets\ C.bearing lube oil temperature D.lube oil pressure to the bearing

ANS:C 1546.when transmitted by a reduction gear ,diesel engine speed is reduced and the torque available for work.. A.remains the same B.is reduced C.is increased D.is eliminated ANS:C 1547.which of the couplings listed is normally not repairable,and is usually replaced if completely damaged? A.flexible disk-ring coupling B.gear-type coupling C.grid spring coupling D.block and jam coupling ANS:B 1548.when passing through mesh contact ,the teeth of a reduction gear first go through a series of actions best described as.. A.galling B.squeezing C.sliding D.slipping ANS:C

1549 .what type of reduction gear would most commonly be used with twin medium-speed propulsion diesel engines driving a single shaft? A.single reduction,planetary B.single reduction, single input C.single reduction ,double input D.double reduction,double input,articulated ANS:C 1550 .The air bladder clutch used with some reversing drive gears,consists of. A.twin-disk clutch plates B.jaw-type clutch plates C.multi-plate friction plates with sliding collars D.two independent clutches ANS:D 1551 .in using reduction gears to obtain efficient propeller speeds,. A.they must be located at the after end of the engine B.they can only be used with one engine at a time C.they eliminate the need for controllable pitch propellers D.they are connected to the engine with a flexible coupling ANS:D

1552) some medium and high speed diesel engine require reduction gear units to provide a useful propeller speed. In most reduction gears, the spur gear-------

a) must churn the oil in the sump. b) is connected to the propeller unit. c) is driven at the highest rpm. d) compensates for alignment variations between the engine and the pinion gear. Ans) b. 1553)although slip in pneumatic clutches is normally undesirable in modern pneumatic clutch arrangements.some reduction gear units are provided with an optional slip clutche which is used to an advantage in---------a)reducing high speed torque vibrations b)controlling the warm up of clutche friction surface. c)obtaining menouvereing speed below engine idle speed. d)limiting shock loads transmited to the engine in heavy weather. Ans) c. 1554)the volume of the air supply line between the control valve and the clutch varies with the -------a)size of the clutch. b)volume of the supply between the control valve and the clutch . c)frequency of engagement. d)all of the above ans) d. 1555)on of the most comman causes of reduction gear failure is gear wear caused by scoring as aresult of -------------a)surface of the gears

b)an on inadequate lube oil film, c)plastic of the gears. d)fretting corrosion from water comtamination. Ans) b. 1556)in an electromagnetic slip coupling ,the slip------a)reduces magnetic pull caused by non concentric electromagnets.. b)reduces resonance and accentuates the turning moment. c)transmits electro magnet flux through the primary circuits. d)generates the low frequency current which exites the secondary electromagnet. Ans) d. 1557)which of the following statements represents an advantage of an electromagnet clutch. a)it aids in maintaining the power factor. b)slip is held to a minimum when reversing shaft rotation. c)engine torsional vibrations to the divert shaft are eliminated. d)large misalignment can be tolerated between the shaft and engine coupling. Ans) c. 1558)one advantage of electromagnet couling is-----a)torsional vibrations are reduced. b)torque increases with a decrese in excition current. c)the couling rapidly responds to sudden changes of load.

d)excitation and induction power posses appear as change in torque instead of rotational speed between the primary and the secondary elements. Ans) a.

Cooling systems 1559)diesel engine jacket water is used in the distillation process as the ----------------a)coolant for the distiilates b)coolant for the brinw cooler c)means of heating the feed water d)primary means of procing a vaccum within the distiller ans) c. 1560)in any diesel engine closed freshwater cooling system, the lowest pressure axists as the-----------a)jacket water outlet b)cooling water pump outlet c)heat exchanger outlet d)expansion tank atmospheric vent. Ans) d. 1561)the expansion tank for a diesel engine closed cooling system is designed to maintain a constant head on the system and----------a)reduce water temperature b)reduce water turbulence

c)provide an air cushion d)allow for an increase in water volume as the engine warms up ans) d. 1562)a closed freshwater cooling system is commonly used with marine diesel engine because the---a)a need for water treatment is eliminated b)cooling water temperature differential is greater c)cooling water pumps are directly reversible d)jacket water temperature I more easily controlled ans) d., 1563)which of the following statements describes the function of the expantion tank in a diesel engine cooling system? a)maintain a constant head on the system b)reduce the likelihood of air or steam pockets formation c)provides a low pressure point for the addition of makeup cooling water d)all the above ans) d. 1564)the outlet from a expansion tank of a closed fresh water cooling system should piped to the ---------a)cylinder head water outlet header b)cylinder jacket inlet main c)heat exchanger inlet connection d)jacket water pump suction line

ans) d. 1565)high diesel engine cooling water temperatures can be caused by the ----------a)a worn water pump b)not enough coolant c)air in the cooling system d)all of the above ans) d. 1566)high diesel engine cooling water temperatures can be caused by-------a)air In the cooling system b)an overhauled water pump c)correct amount of coolant d)no air Ii the cooling system ans) a. 1567)higher than normal jacket water temperatures occurring in all cylinders of a diesel engine can result from a ----------a)oil suction line restriction b)correct amount of coolant c)cavitation erosion in the water jackets d)clogged sea suction strainer ans) d. 1568)the highest pressure in any closed diesel engine freshwater cooling system is at he ----------

a)jacket water outlet b)expansion tank inlet c)heat exchanger inlet d)cooling water pump outlet ans) d. 1569)which of the following statement is correct concerning diesel engine cooling water system? a)each engines must have its own cooling water pump capable of providing cooling for all ranges of operation b)propulsion engine with a bore exceeding 200mm ar to be fitted with a means to display the cooling water temperatures of each cylinder c)suitable strainers are to be fitted between the circulating pumps and the heat exchangers when sea water is used direct cooling d)at least two independent sea suction are to be provided for supplying water to the engine jackets or to the heat exchangers. Ans) b. 1570)which of the following statements is correct for the design and installation if the diesel engine colling water systems? a)an alarm device with audible and visual signals is required for all the cooling water systems b)propulsion engines with bore 200mm are to be fitted with cooling water thermometer at each cylinder c)each totally enclosed cooling systems shal be provided with a suitable head tank d)drain cocks are to be provided at the lowest point of all the cylinder water jackets.\

ans) d. 1571)in a diesel engine jacket cooler water ,with sea water cooling the fresh water ,the------------a)sea water temperature must never be warmed than 40F b)jacket water pressure should be greater than sea water pressure c)jacket water temperature must be less than 60F d)jacket water pressure must be less than the sea water pressure ans) b. 1572)jacket water heaters are used on diesel engine to ------------a)help the engine start easily in cold weather b)maintain the proper jacket water pH c)maintain the proper expansion tank water level. d)keep the engine room warm ans) a. 1573)the device allowing for the change in volume of the cooling water I a propulsion diesel engine closed cooling system is the -----a)fresh water expansion tank b)sea water expansion tank c)thermo static expansion tank d)jacket water cooler accumulater ans) a. 1574)in a closed cooling water system for a turbocharged .four stroke cycle diesel engine ,fluctuating waster pressure can be caused bu the

a)improper venting of the cooling system b)carrying the expansion level water too high c)a totally clogged impeller in the cooling water pump d)an incorrectly sat coling system temperature control ans) a. 1575)the expansion tank in a diesel engine closed cooling fresh water system is located at---A)the highest point in the system b)the lowest point in the system c)or near the floor plate level d)or near the tank top level ans) a. 1576)in a closed cooling system which of the problems can cause the water pressure to fluctuate a)an open in the cooling system b)a fouled sea chest c)a restricted water passage in the engine d)air entrained in the cooling water ans) d. cooling system maintenances 1577)the interior of some salt water heat exchangers are protected from corrosion by the use of -------

a)aluminium plates b)lead cathodes c)copper baffle plates d)sacrificial zincs ans)d. 1578)corrosive on inhibitors and/or soluble oils are added to the diesel engine cooing system to ------a)maintain low pH in the cooling water b)reduce the cooling water temperature c)increase colling water hardness d)form a protective film on metal surface ans) d. `1579)when checking zinc in a saltwater cooled heat exchanger,you should ---------a)paint the zincs to stop corrosion. b)insulate the zinc to alter the temperature c)replace the zinc if they are 50% consumed d)file the zinc to change the shape ans)c 1780a diesel engine cooling water system with a pH factor of 3.0 indicates the condition of ---------a)slight acidity b)slight alkalinity

c)axcessive alkalinity d)axcessive acidity ans) d. 1581)which of the listed effects would the film of alkaline chromate have on the metal surface of the cooling system of a diesel engine? a)increase the rate of heat transfer b)retard the flow of cooling water c)protect metallic surface from corrosion d)tends to increase the corrosion ans)c. 1582antifreeze solution containing ethylene glycol should not be mixed with corrosion protection oils as the resultant mixture -----------a)is dangerously flammable b)promote scale build up c)may cause frothing d)has a higher chloride content ans)c. 1583)if the coolant temperature of closed cooling water system for a diesel engine gradually increases the trouble usually is a)a broken shaft on the fresh water pump b)an excessive accumulation of scale in the heat exchanger c)an incorrect thermostatic element operating range d)lube oil in the cooling water

ans)b. 1584)ethylene glycol when used as a coolant in a closed system for a diesel engine,is more advantages than untreated raw water because it-----a) provides a constant pH below 7 b)provides better vapour phase cooling c)has a higher freezing point and a lower boiling point d)has a lower freezing point and higher boiling point ans)d. 1585)in a diesel engine cooling water system ,a pH of 6.0 indicates a---a)slightly acidic condition b)slightly alkaline condition c)over treatment of water d)neutral condition of water ans)a. 1586)failure to ensure proper vanting of the cooling system of a diesel engine can result in------a)axcessive air charge density b)priming in the expansion tank c)failure of raw water pump shaft seals d)local overheating and/or internal corrosion ans)d. PAGE 83

1587. If the jacket water temperature of an operating diesel engine suddenly rises above the normal, the cause can be attributed to a. An overfilled expansion tank. b. Excess chrome treatment of the jacket water. c. A clogged raw water section. d. Cavitations erosion of the heat exchange tube. Ans : C 1588. If the raw water supply pressure for a diesel engine cooling system below the normal, you should check for a a. Broken thermostat b. Clogged sea strainer. c. Blow heat gasket. d. Cracked head. Ans: B

MISCELLANEOUS QUESTIONS 1589. When reassembling the bowl of a disk- type centrifuge, the bowl or locking ring is rotated a. Clockwise, due to the bowl rotating clockwise b. Clockwise, due to the bowl rotating counterclockwise c. counterclockwise, due to the bowl rotating clockwise d. counterclockwise, due to the bowl rotating counterclockwise. Ans : C

1590. Which of the listed contaminated will be satisfactory removed from the fuel oil by centrifuging? a. Sludge b. Diesel oil c. Lube oil d. Gasoline Ans : A 1591. Which of the following condition is most likely to occur if oil containing moisture is continuously fed to the purifier operating as a clarifier? a. The purifier must be operating at the higher temperature. b. The purifier must be operated at a higher speed. c. The purifier will gradually change operation to separation. d. The bowl will eventually fill with water. Ans : D 1592. If fuel oil were discharged from the waste water outlet of a fuel oil disk type centrifuge, operated as a separator, you should a. Remove the discharge ring b. Reprime purifier c. Slow the centrifuge to its proper speed. d. Install an additional discharge ring. Ans : B 1593. A centrifuge satisfactory remove which of the following contaminants from fuel oil?

a. Gasoline. b. Water. c. Lubricating oil. d. Sulphur compound. Ans : B 1594. If the bowl of a disk type centrifugal purifier when operated as a separator is not primed, the a. Oil has a tendency to emulsify in the bowl. b. Purifier will act as a clarifier at the discharge ring. c. Oil will be lost through the water discharge ports. d. Oil solids will be deposited only at the intermediate top disks. Ans : C 1595. Which factor determines the ring dam size for a fuel oil, tubular bowl type, centrifugal purifier? a. The viscosity of the fuel. b. The quantity of the water to be removed from the fuel. c. The specific gravity of the fuel. d. The quantity of the dirt to be removed from the fuel. Ans : C 1596. The output pressure of a diesel engine lube oil is regulated by an a. Relief valve. b. Metering valve.

c. Variable speed pumps drive. d. Crevice in the lube oil header. Ans : A 1597. The lube oil is used in a diesel engine is a. Volute pumps b. Centrifugal pumps. c. Diaphragm pumps. d. Gear pumps. Ans : D 1598. How does water enter the crankcase of a diesel engine? a. Through the crankcase exhauster. b. As water vapor contained in blow by. c. Demulsifying lube oil passing through the main bearings. d. Condensation from vapor formed in the expansion tan. Ans : B 1599. Sacrificial zinc anodes are used on the saltwater side of diesel engine heat exchangers to a. Reduce electrolytic action on heat exchanger metals. b. Keep heat transfer surfaces shiny and clean. c. Prevents rapid accumulation of marine growth. d. Provide a protective coating on heat exchanger surfaces. Ans : A

1600. Cooling water pumps driven by direct-reversing diesel engines are usually a. Curved impeller vane with tangential outlet. b. Curved impeller vane with concentric outlet. c. Straight impeller vane with concentric housing. d. Straight impeller vane with tangential housing. Ans : C 1601. Which of the following problem will cause above normal cooling water temperature in a diesel engine using a closed freshwater cooling system? a. An air leak in the header tank cover. b. Benzotrialole found in the primary water. c. Eroded baffle in the cooler. d. Low level in the expansion tank. Ans : C 1602. Scale and dirt accumulation in the waterside of a lube cooler will be indicated by a gradual increase in the lube oil a. TBN number. b. Viscosity c. Temperature d. Foaming. Ans : C 1603. Cooling water pumps driven by direct reversing diesel engines are usually of the straight impeller vane type pump with a concentric housing is a. Facilitate bi-directional operations.

B. provide the greatest pump efficiency. c. Prevent pump clogging from the marine growth. d. Prevents cavitations at the pump outlets. Ans : A 1604. In a bypass lubrication system for a diesel engine, the dirty oil line to the centrifuge should be taken from the a. Lube oil pump suction line. b. Lube oil pump discharge line. c. Bottom of the lube oil pump. d. Outlet from the lube oil header. Ans : C 1605. The depth of fuel oil in a tank is normally measured through the a. Vent line. b. Overflow line. c. feed line. d. Sounding tube. Ans : D 1606. Standby or emergency diesel generators day tanks should always be kept full to reduce the possibility of a. Sediment contamination. b. Fuel filter clogging. c. moisture formation.

d. inadequate transfer pump suction head. Ans : C 1607. When centrifuging heavy fuel oil, an important factor to consider is the --------- I. flow rate, II . Viscosity of the fuel oil a. b. c. d. I only is correct. B. II is only correct. C. both I and II are correct. Neither I nor II. Ans : C

1608. Valves used in diesel engine fuel oil pressure piping are to be a. so constructed as to permit packing under pressure. b. solenoid released upon the failure of engine lubrications. c. either of the gate or globe valve value. d. forge constructed under the approval of the marine inspector. Ans : A 1609. Heavy residual fuel oil are heated prior to centrifuging to a. reduce fuel weight. b. increase specific gravity. c. seperate fuel from lube oil. d. reduce fuel viscosity Ans : D 1610. Lube oil pumps taken suctions from the sump of the most small marine engines usually

a. of the diaphragm type. b. of the centrifugal type. c. of the positive displacement type. d. independently driven by electric motors. Ans : C 1611. Which of the listed types gasket material should be used on high pressure fuel oil on diesel engines? a. fiberglass. b. sheet asbestos. c. neoprene. d. different type centrifuges are required for the main engines and gear lube system Ans : D 1612. A centrifuge is normally used to purify a. cooling water. b. fuel oil c. sea water. d. diesel intake air. Ans : B 1613. If the cooling water temperature and the lube oil temperature in diesel engines are too high, the causes can be a. the dirty lube of strainer. b. internal water leak.

c. an oil suction line restrictions. Excessive wear of the cooling water pump. Ans : D 1614. Which of the listed substance can be satisfactorily removed from diesel fuel by centrifuging? a. sludge. b. gasoline c. fuel oil d. lube oil. Ans : A 1615. When fuel oil is accidently mixed with lube oil which of the following processes can be used to seperat them? I. filtering ,II. Setting a. I only. b. II only c. either I or II d. Neither I nor II. Ans : D 1616. Whether using a centrifuge or simple filer, oil cleaning and filtration will be be the most effective when the oil is at a. high temperature and high viscosity b. high temperature and low viscosity c. low temperature and high viscosity d. low temperature and low viscosity.

Ans : B 1617. A centrifugal fuel oil purifier should be shut down if a. more sealing water is needed. b. the cover clamp needs lightening. c. the purifier has a bad vibration when started. d. water is discharged from the overflow lines. Ans : C 1618. The most effective method in removing water from diesel oil is by a. centrifuging the fuel b. using it in the engine. c. heating the fuel tanks. d. Straining the fuel. Ans : A 1619. For optimum results, centrifugal purification of heavy fuel should be accomplished with the fuel at the lowest practicable. a. throughput. b. addictive percent. c. cetane number. d. TBN number. Ans : A 1620. Valves and fittings are used with the diesel engine fuel oil pressure piping may be threaded in sizes up to and including 60 mm O.D , n=but screw unions.

a. are to be used pressure lines in sizes 33mm O.D. and over. b. over 33mm O.D. will be permitted on lieu of flanged connections c. shall not be used in any instances where the fitting is subjected to excessive vibratiuons. d. are not to be used pressure lines in sizes 33mm O.D. and over. Ans : D

1621 Which of the following conditions will indicate a need for a finishing cut to be taken on the pump shaft? A roughness B deep ridges C corrugations D all of the above Ans: a 1622 in machine shop practice a center gage is used for checking the angle of A drill points B screw threads C screw thread pitch

D 60 thread cutting tools Ans:d 1623 very small irregularities on the seat and disc of a globe valve may be manually repair with the valve in place by the process known as --------------------A honing B lapping in C refacing D spotting in 1624 if a drill press is used to completely bore through a metal plate feed pressure on the drill should be eased as the bit break through the bottom of the hole to prevent----------------------A drill bit breakage B under sizing holes C string the spindle D dulling the drill 1625 Before the longitudinal carriage feed of a lathe is engaged , you must be certain the .. A spindle clutch is disengaged B carriage clamp screw is loosened C Carriage stop clamp is tightened D Thread dial indicator is zeroed Ans :b 1626 which of the devices listed should be used to reshape a grinding wheel?

A .a round nose tool B .an oil stone C .a wheel dreesing tool D .a sharp nose tool 1627 The tape produde by a lathe tape attachment is determained by setting the ___________ A .gude bar B. automatic croos feeld C .tail off center D .compond rest angle 1628 A thread die will be easier to start if the end of the piece of material to be threaded is slightly _____________. A. peened B. reamed C. center drilled D. chamfered Ans.:D 1629 To properly remove packing from a valve stuffing box, you should use a _________. A. sharpened rod of silver solder B. packing puller C. chisel and hammer D. screw driver

Ans.:B 1630 Tapping threads into a blind hole should be finished by using a____________ A. short tap B.taper tap C.plugtap D.bottoming tap Ans:D 1631 Which of the following definitions accurately describes tool feed when referring to lathe work? A.The distance the tool advances with each revolution of the work B.The distance from the bottom of the cut to the uncut surface of the work piece C.The distance the workpiece circumference moves past the cutting tool point in one minute D.the chip length that will be removed from the work in one minute Ans:A 1632 The pitchof a screw is the_________________ A.Angle formed by the adjacent flanks of a thread B.number of threads divided by the length of the threaded portion of the screw C.distance between corresponding points on adjacent threads D.Angle of taper formed by the centerline of the screw and the crests of the thread Ans:C

1633 The diameter of a hole drilled for tapping threads into a piece of stock should be_______________ A. B. C. D. Larger than the tap diameter Smaller than the tap diameter The same size as the tap diameter The same size as the bolt diameter Ans:B 1634 A tapered shank drill is removed from the drill press spindle with a_______________ A.taper punch B.drill drift C.vice grip D.leather mallet Ans:B 1635 Machine bolts are identified by their_______________________ A.taper punch B.drill drift C.vice grip D.leather mallet Ans:B 1636 Diamond point chisels are best used for cutting___________ A.oil grooves in bearings B.v-grooves and inside sharp angles C.holes through metal plate D.keyways having square corners Ans:B

1637 When a lathye is used for thread cutting,the number of threads per inch produced is determined by the speed relationship between the_______________ A.drive motor and spindle B.spindle and feed rod C.leadscrew and head stock spindle D.lead screw and feed rod Ans:C 1638 To remove a hand held right-handed straight cut reamer after it has gone all the way through a hole ,you should_________ A.turn the tap wrench clockwise,simultaneously raising the reamer B.tap the reamer out with a softfaced hammer C.turn the tap wrench counter clock wise,simultaneously raising the reamer. D.work the reamer side to side to dislodge it Ans:A 1639 The proper file for a finishing cut on softmetal,such as brass,is the__________ A.smooth cut file 1640 to properly install a new blade in a hand hacksaw frame,the_________ A.teeth should point toward the handle B.warding file C.mill file D.Second cut file Ans C 1641the name plug,bottom,and tapper refer to__________ a.pipe fitting b.measuring instrument c.machinists hand taps

d.drill press parts Ans:c 1642round split dies are usually adjustable t________ a.allow threading on over sized stock b.control the diameter of thread cut c.to help start the die squarly on the round stock d.allow threading up to sholder Ans:B 1643for cutting thin tubing or sheet metal,the proper hacksaw blade should have__________ a.the teeth pointing towards the handle b.the blade and teeth are of all hard quality c.14 teeth per inch d.32 teeth per inch Ans:D 1644A Metal file has become clogged with fillings and should be cleaned with a file_________ a.craper b.card c.oilstone d.dressing tool Ans:B 1645tapes and dies used for threading pipes is___________ a.not hardened b.not fluted c.tapered d.straight Ans:C

1646copper tubing is best cut with the________ a.tubing cutter b.handhacksaw c.pipe cutter d.flare cutter Ans:A 1647If you are cutting external thread by hand and you start the die with an angle then the thread will___________ a.be out of round on work b .be cut crooked on the work c.be rough weak an d easly broken d.straighten out after the third revolution Ans:B 1648the tool used to expand and bell the ends of small diameter Copper tubing is__________ a.adjustable tube roler b.adjustable belling tool c.flaring tootl d.tubing expander Ans:C 1649before boring a blind tapered hole, a good shop practice to follow is to________ a. Use a taper remer b. Drill to a large diameter of the taper c. Drill to a small diameter of taper d. Straighten out after the third revolution Ans: B 1650 when coming to the end of a cut using hacksaw you should_________ a. stop applying the cutting fluid

b.reduce cutting speed and pressure c.change to a fine cut blade d.increese cutting speed and pressure Ans:B 1651the complete tool used formanually cutting thread on the pipe is called________ a.tool and die b.stock and die c.tap d.chaser Ans: B 1652which of the following punches can be used to free a tapered pin frozen in the hole a.drift punch b.aligning punch c.center punch d.prick punch Ans:A 1653 to properly make and fit a new gasket to a flange you should___________ a.place the gasket over the frange and knock off the excessive material with lead mallet b.Remove excess gasket material by trimming with scissors or tin snips c.make up the flanged joint to make an impression on the flang surfaces to insure a patern for proper alignment d.cut grooves into the flang with a chisel to ensure good gasket contact ans.b 1654 the terms rough coarse bastard second cut,smooth and dead smooth refers to __

a.shape of the file b.coarseness of file teeth c.size of the file d.cuts of the file ans.b

1655the term rough , coarse , bastard ,second cut ,smooth and death refer to_______ a.shape of file b.coarseness of the file teeth c.size of the file d.cuts of the file Ans: B 1656 for great accuracy some micrometer have a verner making it possibleto to read in increment of_______ a.one hundred of a millimeter b.one thousandth of a millimeter. c.one tenth of a millimeter d. one thousand of meter Ans: B 1657a flower reat be used with a lethe to machine a.large diameter stock between the centre b.threads on long slender shaft c.work mounted on the lathe carrieage d.round stock to a finished dimension Ans:B 1658 Many micrometers are equipped with a ratchrd stop at the end of the thimble to .

A.click at each increment of measure B.prevent the user from closing the tool with too much force C.stop the spindle from sliding out of barrel D.eliminate ratchet movement Ans:B 1659 To commence cutting threads with a metal lathe,you should engage the A.feed-change lever B.split or half nut C.back gear lever D.thread-chasing dia Ans:B 1660 The correct torque value for a micrometer torque wrench is reached when A.The scale is read on the handle B.the dial is read on the handle C.an audible click is heard and handle releases D.a dial lights on the handle Ans:C

1661 what basic dimensions are used in describing machine bolts ? A Diameter and length only B Diameter and cross section only C Diameter length and number of threads per inch D Diameter head size and shoulder length Ans: C 1662 A micrometer would be used to measure A micro seconds B round stock diameter C electrical resistance D low voltages Ans: B 1663 To safely change spindle speeds on a lathe you must first A disengage the the spindle clutch B engage the feed change lever C disenge the feed reverse lever D stop the lathe rotation 1664 The rotating part of a micrometer is the known as A anvil B barrel C frame

D thimble Ans: D 1665 A twist drill gage can be used to measure the drills A length B diameter C clearance angle D web thickness Ans : B 1666 when knurling a piece of work on a lattle,it is important to A operate the lathe at the slowest spend B use plenty of oil C mount the knurling tool securely in the tool post D all of the above Ans : D 1667 if all of the metals listed below are two inches in diameter ,wich of those listed can be cut with the highest operating lathe speed? A cast iron B machine steel C aluminum D soft brass Ans : C

1668 for proper support when turning a long thin piece of work between lathe center s you should use a A faceplate B steady rest C draw-in collet chuck D compound rest Ans : B 1669 after cutting a piece of tubing to be flared you should A remove inside burrs with a reamer B rough up the outside surface of the tube end with a file C flare the tube before removing the burrs D crimp the tube end in order to slip on the fitting Ans : A 1670 shim stock thickness is measured by a/an A shim gage B feeler gage C outside micrometer D inside micrometer Ans :C 1671 the best method of determining the number of threads per inch of a bolt or screw would be through the use of a A thread tool gage

B machinists scale C screw pitch gage D screw thread micrometer Ans : C 1672 the temper is likely to be drawn out of a chisel edge when you A hold it next to a wet grindig wheel B soak it in hot oil for lengthy periods C grind the cutting angle too small D grind it for long periods of time with too much pressure Ans : D 1673 to get an accurate inside measurement of the diameter of a inch hole you should use a/an A depth micrometer B inside micrometer C small hole gauge D inside spring caliper Ans: C 1674 solder used for joining metal surfaces should have a A fusing point much higher than that of the metal being joint B melting point much higher than that of the metal being joint C coating of borax flux to raise the melting point D composition of lead and tin if the solder is the hard type

Ans :B 1675 the proper use of flat chisel is for cutting A inside corners B slots or keywayes C half- round grooves D flat stock Ans : D 1676 soldering flux aids the soldering process by A softening the metals B fusing the metals C removing oxides D hardening the metals Ans : C 1677 the best type of chisel to use for cutting a keyway is the A round nose chisel B flat cold chisel C diamond point chisel D cape chisel Ans: D 1678 In an oxygen acetylene welding out fit ,the torcn tip orifice size__________ (A) Depends on the hose length (B) Determine the amount of acetylelne and oxygen fed to the flame

(C) Can be varied by rotating the tip\ (D) Depends on the regulator flow rate Answer: (B) 1679 When welding are burning with a oxygen acetylene ,the acetylene workin preaasure must not exceed (A) 0.1 bar (B) 0.3 bar (C) 1 bar (D) 1.6 bar Answer 1680 Acoolent is usually used when cutting metal in a power hacksaw to prevent the____________ (A) Heat of friction (B) Blade from over heating (C) Blade from bending (D) Cut from clagging Answer (D) 1681 a weld with triangular cross sections is used to join two surfaces at right angles to each other, and is called a __________ A. B. C. D. Ans: d 1682 if you have to completelif you have to completel grind a new point on a high speed drill,which of the following could happen if it is cooled in cold water immediately after grinding? Seam weld Plug weld Lack weld Fillet weld

A the edges will be dulled B the 59angle will be lost due to metal contraction C cracks may appear in the metal D the cutting surface will become annealed by the cold water Ans : c 1683 which of the following procedures is used to bring a hole to finished size with high accuracy? A coring B boring C broaching D reaming Ans :d 1684 which of the devices listed can be used to measure any angle on a blueprint or drawing? A vernier B protractor C planimeter D compass Ans: b 1685 when welding mild steel with a shielded metal-arc electrode and getting only shallow penetration you should A use a lower current B speed up your electrode travel

C use larger electrodes D increase the amperage Ans:d 1686 before drilling a hole in a piece of metal the location of the hole center should be A marked with chalk B prick punched C scribed d blued Ans: b 1687 which of the factors listed governs the intensity of heat required for any given welding job? A the strength of the bond only B the strength of the bond and the welding process being used C the type of metal being joined only D the type of metal being joined and the welding process being used Ans: d 1688 which of the following statements is correct concerning welding sequences? A first weld the joints that will tend to contract the most B first weld attachments which will restrain points of maximum contraction C make a weld across an unwelded plate joint in adjoining members D each successive welded part should be restrained to lock in stresses and avid cracking Ans:A

1689 a taper tap iscorrectly used for A starting threads in a hole B producing tapered threads in a hole C deepening the extent of existing threads in a hole D finishing the threading operation in a blind hole Ans:a 1690 a screw driver should never be used as a A pry bar B chisel C punch D all of the above Ans: d 1691bail peen hammers are sized according to their A overall length B head weight c face diameter D peen head size Ans: b 1692 a tap marked 1/4-20 will cut a thread A inch in diameter with a pitch of threads per inch B inch long having a total of 20 thresds C a total of 20 threads with a pitch of inch D 1/20 of an inch long and inch in diameter

Ans:a 1693 the Phillips screwdriver has a blunt end and flukes with an angle of A 10 B 45 C 30 D 60 Ans :c 1694 when using a handheld hacksaw blade should have A only when cutting thin wall tubing B only when cutting carbon steel C only when cutting conduit D at all times Ans:d 1695 the main difference between a common lathe dog and a sagety lathe dog is that the latter A is more easily centered B has a headless set screw C has a spring loaded catch D allows for misaligned center holes Ans:b 1696 for cutting cast iron or soft steel the proper hacksaw blade should have A 14 teeth per inch

B 18 teeth per inch C 24 teeth per inch D 32 teeth per inch Ans:a 1697 which of the files listed is produced with two safe edges? A mill B pillar C half round D knife Ans:b 1698 screw drivers designed for electrical use should have A longer than normal shanks B larger than normal shanks C shorter than normal shanks D insulated handies Ans: d 1699 the length of a file is always measured exclusive of the A edge B tang C point D heel Ans:b

1700 which of the screwdrivers listed is designed for the precision assembly of small parts? A ratchet B jewelers C cabinent-tip D square-sanked Ans:b 1701 when cutting sheet metal too thin to be held in your hand while using a hand held hacksaw the sheet metal should be placed between two A blocks of steel B blocks of wood C pieces of sand paper D pieces of cloth Ans: b 1702 the type of tooth set on a hacksaw blade where the teeth are continuosly staggered with one to the left and one to the right is known as A alternate B double alternate C raker D wave Ans:a 1705 protective equipment to be used while carrying out oxyaceylene welding should always include________

A. goggles B. ear plugs C. non sparking tools D. steel toe safety shoes Ans. A 1706 before welding is permitted on a fuel tank, it must be certified or declared__________ A. safe for personnel B. safe for hot work C. not safe for personnel D. not safe for hot work Ans. B 1707 why is a covering applied to a welding electrode, rather than using a rare electrode? A. Protect the welder from electric shock B. Prevent arc blow C. Shield the arc during the welding process to prevent, oxidation D. Stabilize the electron emission rate and produce uniform temperatures in the heat affected zone. Ans. C 1708 you should never watch the arc generated during electric arc welder with the naked eyes because___________ A. serious flash burns will result

B. arc blow will burn your face C. the fumes are highly toxic D. slag and metal splatter will get in your eyes Ans. A 1709 Some of the hazards of working with electric power tools may be avoided if the operator insures that__________ A. they are properly grounded B. eye shields and gloves are worn C. loose clothing and jewellery are not worn D. all of the above Ans. D 1710 If a bolt or stud were to break off flush at the surface, which of the listed action must be done to begin its removal? A.tap the bolt with a starting punch extractor B. heat the bolt with an oxacetylene torch C. drill a hole in the center of the broken stud D. use a screw extractor only Ans. C 1711 To ensure the stock is running true in a lathe ,you should use a A. center gage B. gage block C. dial indicator

D. micrometer Ans. C 1712 When using a whell dressing tool to true up a griding wheel,you should always ----------------------A. lubricate the dressing tool B. operate the grinder in neutral C. remove the tool rest from the grinder D. wear goggles to protect your eyes Ans. D 1713 A manual process used to remove small irregularities by grinding the contact surfaces together of a value , is called --------------------------A. spootting-in B. honing C. lapping in D. refacing Ans. C 1714 While reaming the hole , the reamer should not be turned backwards if the hole has not been fully reemed because____________ A. the cutting edges may be damaged B. turning in the wrong side will cause chatter C. the shank will loosen in the tap wrench D. reverse rotation will make the hole size oversize Ans. A

1715 An eroded globe valve dick can be repaired by____________ A. taking a light cut in the lathe B. sandblasting with light weight grit C. dressing the seat cover with crocus cloth D. scrapping with a bastard file Ans. A 1716 After a piece of pipe is cut, the opening in the end should be cleaned out with a ___________ A. pipe reamer B. pipe cleaner C. taper tool D. hole cleaner Ans. A 1717 After a piece of pipe been cut, a good shop practice to ream out the burr left in the pipe. This is done to_______________ A. make a taper for starting the threading die B. make a taper required for pipe threads C. remove tool marks which could interfere with flow D. prevent the burr from restricting flow in the pipe Ans. D 1718 An acetylene pressure regulator should never be adjusted to maintain pressure exceeding 1bar (103.4kPa) because___________ A. the release valve will lift

B. the fusible plug will blow out C. rapid depletion of acetylene is hazardous D. this gas becomes extremely unstable under this condition Ans. D 1719 When using a hand die to cut threads on brass stock, the threads can be dry cut or be lubricated with____________ A. graphite and oil B. white lead C. lard oil D. kerosene Ans. C 1720 The term referring to the number of teeth per inch on a hackshaw blade is known as the____________ A. set B. rake C. pitch D. thread guage Ans. C 1721 Some of the hazards associated with air-operated power tools may be avoided if the operator would____________ A. inspect the hoses for cracks and other defects B. remove jewellery and loose clothing C. bleed air pressure from the lines before breaking the connection

D. all of the above Ans. D 1722 All portable electric tools should have a ground connection to prevent_____________ A. electric shock if the tool is shorted B. burning out the motor from an overload C. overloading the motor from a short D. grounding the plastic case through a short Ans. A 1723 A wrench that completely surrounds a nut , or bolt head is an________________ A. B. open end wrench C. tappet wrench D. box wrench Ans. D 1724 Which of the wrenches listed is least likely to slip off a bolt head or nut? A. B.box and wrench C. crescent wrench D. spanner wrench Ans. B

1725 A lathe dog fitted with a headless set screw, is known as a ______________ A. clamp lathe dog B. standard lathe dog C. safety lathe dog D. common lathe dog Ans. C 1726 A thread chaser is a tool that should only be used for______________ A. restering damaged threads B. enlarging existing threads C. cutting original threads D. straightning tappered threads Ans. A 1727 Which of the wrenches listed practically eliminates the possibility of its slipping off while tightening a nut or bolt? A. open end wrench B. box end wrench C. crescent wrench D. monkey wrench Ans. B 1728 To drill a hole round stock perpendicular to the axis of the piece the stock should be mounted in a ____________ A. collet

B. v-block C. clamp D. morse sleeve Ans. B 1729 If you are hand tapping holes in cast iron , you should___________ A.tap the holes without cutting oil B. flood the tap with mineral oil C. chamfer the edges of the holes D. start tapping with a plug tap Ans. A 1730 A hacksaw blade is normally placed in the saw frame with the__________ A. maximum possible tension on the blade B. teeth pointing away from the handle C. blade tooth set adjusted for maximum cutting width D. teeth angled toward the saw handle Ans. B 1731 To accurately cut the proper size gasket for installation in a pipeline, You should use__________ A.tin snips B. a jack knife C. a gasket cutter D. a pair of nail clippers

Ans. C 1732 When listed by pitch, which of the hacksaw blades listed would be the most suitable for cutting thin tubing? A.14 teeth per inch B.18 teeth per inch C.24 teeth per inch D.32 teeth per inch Ans. D 1733 Oxygen and acetylene cylinders should always be stored ____________ A. B. C. D. Upright with the cylinder caps screwed on Horizontal with the cylinder caps screwed on Upright with the cylinder caps off Horizontal with the cylinder caps off

Ans. A 1734 Protective equipment while carrying out oxyacetylene welding should Include the use of ___________ A. B. C. D. Goggles Cotton gloves Trousers with deep pockets Wool jackets

Ans. A 1735 When using a portable droplight,you should always ensure that the_______________

A. bulb is protected by a shield or guard B. extension cord is always yellow and clearly marked FOR DROP LIGHT USE ONLY C. bulb capacity does not exceed 75 watts D. all the above Ans. A 1736 Cracks may be prevented from developing at the corners of welded plating inserts by______________ A. squaring the corners B. rounding the corners C. plug welding the corners D. slot welding the corners Ans. B 1737 Safety glasses should be worn when______________ A. using a hand portable grinder B. scrapping paint with hand scrapper C. using a hammer and chisel D. all of the above Ans. D 1378 Internal pipe threads are cut with________________ A. dies B. reamers

C. taps D. tap drills Ans. C 1739 Which of the following practices is considered to be safe for the handling and use of compressed gas cylinder? A. using oxygen as a substitute for compressed air for pneumatic tools B. routinely greasing or lubricating the valves on oxygen cylinder C. the storage of the cylinder in a well ventilated compartment D. cracking the valve on a hydrogen cylinder to clear dust and dirt Ans. C 1740 When machining a long piece of work between centers, you must_________________ A. make sure that the lathe dog is securely jammed in the slot of the face plate B. correct for expansion of the work by readjusting the tail stock center C. make sure that work is only supported by the headstock center D. make sure that the tailstock is tight against the work Ans. B 1741 If the point angle of a drill is less than 59, the _____________ A. hole will be drilled too large B. hole will take longer to drill C. drill will not center properly D. drill will cut undersized

Ans. B 1742 As the drill bit is being fed into a metal work piece, a squeaking sound from the tip of the bit indicates________________ A. the bit is too large for the tip B. the bit tip has not been properly ground C. insufficient force has been applied on the drill bit D. a continos chip is being taken by the drill bit D. all the above Ans D

D. all the above Ans D

1745. Phillips

What is the distinguishing difference between the

and the reed and prince type screwdrivers? A. The diameter of the shanks B. The angle of the tip flukes C. The overall length of the screwdriver D. None of the above Ans . B

1746. to

In order to minimize distortion in a weldment due

shrinkage you should A. use intermittent welds rather than continuous weld wherever possible B. make fewer passes with larger elec rods as opposed to a great number of passes with small electodes C. use restraining forces such as champ, jigs and fixtures D. all the above Ans D 1747 . Safe welding practice requires A. Checking the areas for items to catch fire B. That a fire watch to be posted C. Checking for explosive gases D. All the above Ans D 1748. A hacksaw blade will break if A. the rate of cutting is too great B. the blade becomes loose in the frame C. too much pressure is applied to the blade

D. all the above Ans D 1749. filler material used in acetylene cylinder? A. it reduces the danger of explosion B. it chemically reacts with acetone to produce acetylene C. it neutralizes the gas to render it harmless D. it is fire resistant and reduces fire hazards Ans A 1750. minute while using a hand held hacksaw will generally A. Sharpen the blade B. Cause the blade to cut faster C. Dull the blade D. Not change how the blade cuts Ans C 1751. short section of teeth bent in opposite directions? Which term applies to a hacksaw blade having Sawing faster than a rate of 40 to 50 strokes per Which statement describes the function of the

A. Alternate B. Double alternate C. Rake D. Wave Ans D 1752. Acetylene should never be used at pressure in excess of 1 barg (15psig) because the A. acetylene cylinder have a maximum allow pressure of 15 psig B. fusible plug will blow out C. r elief valve will lift D. slightest shock could cause an explosion Ans D 1753. When gas welding or burning the acetylene working pressure must be kept below 15psi to prevent a possible A. explosion B. torch back fire C. torch flameout D. acetone fire Ans A 1754. The term rough coarse , bastard, second cut

,smooth and

dead smooth refer to the A. distance between the parallel cuts of a file B. size of the file C. coarsness of file teeth D. both A and C are correct Ans D 1755. Which of the screwdrivers listed to protect small Screwdrivers A. magnetic screwdriver B. torque limiting screwdriver C. variable speed screwdriver with a Jacobs chuck D. constant rpm screwdriver with a Jacobs chuck Ans B

1756.

When arc welding you can reduce the chance

dangerous electric shock by A. Using insulated electric holders B. Wearing dry welding gloves C. Avoiding wet damp areas while using arc welding equipment D. All the above Ans D

1757. teeth

Which of the files listed will have coarsely spaced

A. Second cut B. Dead smooth cut C. Bastard cut D. Smooth cut Ans C

1758. Which of the files listed is provided with only one safe edge A. Mill B. Pillar C. Half round D. Bastard Ans D 1759. cutting lubricants necessary to use A. Lard oil B. Soluble oil C. Kerosene D. None of the above Ans D For drilling or machining cast iron, which of the

1760. and

Which of the following screwdrivers listed is faster

most convenient when tightening many screws A. Square shank B. Offset C. Ratchet D. Standard Ans 1761. C When using a chisel you should A. Wear gloves B. Hold tool tightly C. be certain it is a non sparking type D. wear safety glasses Ans D 1762. A file coated with oil slowed always A. cause file to over heat B. cause the file to slide across the work and prevent fast cleaning C. cause dust and metal particle to collect in the teeth D. both B and C are correct

Ans 1763. shaft of a

D The tools used to remove a ball bearing from the

motor is called a __________________________ A. slugging wrench B. gear pulley C. drift pin D. come along Ans: B 1764. Pushing the file endways under pressure under work is called A. Stroke filing B. Cross filing C. Draw filing D. Standard form filing Ans B 1765. edge of a drill bit is the result of the drill having A. Too much cutting speed B. Not enough cutting speed Rapid wear on exteme outer corner to the cutting

C. Too much clearance angle D. Not enough margin width Ans C 1766. All straight shanked twist drills must be mounted or held in a A. drill socket B. tapered sleeve C. drill chuck D. Morse sleeve Ans 1767 listed does not have to be lubricated A. Tool steel B. Cast iron C. Mild steel D. Cast steel Ans B 1768. with the teeth The blades for power hacksaw should be installed C When drilling holes in a metal which of the material

A. Pointing either towards or away from the motor end of the machine B. Pointing away from the motor end of the machine C. Pointing towards the motor if using a 4 or 6 tooth blade or away from the motor 10 or 14 tooth blade D. Pointing towards the motor end of the machine Ans D 1769. When internal threading or piping where the work

permit the tap to run entirely throughout can begin and end taping of the hole by using a A. Taper tap B. Plug tap C. Bottoming tap D. Fishing tap Ans D 1770. Setting up a welding job, where the work is positive pole and the electrode in negative pole for the arc is known as an A. Straight polarity welding circuit B. Inert arc welding circuit C. Shielded arc welding circuit

D. Reverse polarity welding circuit Ans A 1771. Needle nosed pliers are best used for A. strip insulation from electric wire or perform cable B. perform work in tight places ordinary pillars cannot C. cut recessed cotter pins D. tighten electrical wire clamp Ans B 1772. Which material can be drilled at an high speed A. aluminium B. medium cast iron C. copper D. high speed steel Ans A 1773. A pipe or stillson wrench function when A. the bite is taken midway up in the jaw teeth B. the wrench jaws are at widest open ssetting C. a maximum pull is exerted with one hand D. an extension is placed on the wrench hand Ans A

1774. A tool used for measure, or laying out angles is called a A. trammel B. protractor C. micrometer D. calliper rule Ans B 1775. Large size pipe can be easily rotated with a A. chain pipe wrench B. monkey wrench C. basin wrench D. strong back Ans A 1776. When securing an oxy acetylene cutting outfit for an extended period you should close the A. Hand valves on the torch only B. Cylinder valves only C. Cylinder valves and close torch valves 4to 5 pounds of pressure in the horses D. Cylinder valves and close torch valves when pressure in horses and regulators is zero Ans D

1777. Which of the chisel listed should be used for oil grooves A. diamond point B. flat cold C. round nose D. square nose Ans C

1778. To determine the diameter of the small hole which of he listed tool must be used A. A center gauge B. Whe gauge C. Micrometer D. None of the above Ans C 1779. Which of the following procedure should be used with a chisel having a mushroom head A. Remove the ragged edge by grinding B. Do not strike the mushroom portion C. Use only light hammer blows with the chisel D. Knock of the ragged edge with a hammer

Ans 1780. you

A To measure the diameter of a piece of round stack

should use a A. Dial indicator B. Wire gauge C. Micrometer D. Circular side rule Ans B 1781. To set the dividers to a proper radius t\you should use a A. micrometer B. scribing circle C. steel rule D. callipers Ans 1782. C

Which of the instrument listed below is used to

measure the gauge of a piece of a sheet A. Gauge calibrator B. Wire gauge C. Inside micrometer

D. Circular mil Ans B

1783. When drilling a hole in a piece of work chucked in a lathe Should mount a drill chuck in the A. A compound rest B. cross feed C. tail stock D. head stock Ans C 1784. A tail stock dead center has been given the name because it A. is dead center to the tail stock spindle B. does not revolve C. must be removed by claiming in the chuck D. fits into the dead center of the work piece Ans B 1785. The lathe steady rest in normally used for supporting one end of a A. short heavy casting held in a three jaw chuck

1786. correct

For boring holes in mild steel and general work, the

Included angle of a drill point is A. 29 B. C. 1819. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS REPRESENTS THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN A FOUR-JAW INDEPENDENT CHUCK AND A THREE-JAW UNIVERSAL CHUCK? D. A. THE JAWS ON THE THREE-JAW CHUCK CAN BE INDIVIDUALLY ADJUSTED E. B. THE JAWS ON THE FOUR-JAWS CHUCK CAN BE INDIVIDUALLY ADJUSGTED F. C. THE THREE-JAW CHUCK WILL HOLD SQUARE ROUND AND IRREGULAR SHAPES IN EITHER A CONCENTRIC OR AN ECCENTRIC POSITION G. D. SINCE THE THREE-JAW UNIVERSAL CHUCK IS AUTOMATICALLY SELF-CENTERING, IT IS ALWAYS MORE ACCURATE THAN THE FOURJAW INDEPENDENT CHUCK H. ANS:B I. 1820. WHEN DRILLING HOLES LARGER THAN INCH, DRILLING A SMALLER HOLE FIRST IS A GOOD PRACTICE. THIS IS CALLED A PILOT HOLE, AND THE PILOT DRILL SHOULD HAVE A DIAMETER-----------------------J. A.SLIGHTLY LARGER THAN THE WEB THICKNESS OF THE LARGER DRILL K. B. EQUAL TO AT LEAST THE DIAMETER OF THE LARGER DRILL L. C. SMALLER THAN THE DEAD CENTER OF CHISEL EDGE OF THE LARGER DRILL M. D. SMALL ENOUGH TO ENSURE THE MAXIMUM CUT BY THE LARGER DRILL N. ANS:A

O. 1821. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS IS TRUE CONCERNING A RADIOGRAPH TAKEN ON A LARGE WELDED PIPING REPAIR? P. A. A DISCONTINUITY IN THE FORM OF A CRACK WOULD APPE\AR AS A THIN LIGHT LINE AGAINST THE DARK BACKGROUND OF THE FILM Q. B. POROSILY, A DISCONTINUNITY CAUSED BY ENTRAPPED GAS, WOULD OCCUR AS VARIOUS SIZED ROUND DARK SPOTS R. C. AS LONG AS THE PLANE OF A CRACK IS NOT IN DIRECT ALIGNMENT WITH THE DIRECTION OF RADIATION, DETECTION IS CERTAIN S. D. ALL OF THE ABOVE T. ANS;B U. 1822. WHICH OF THE PRECAUTIONS LISTED SHOULD TO BE OBSERVED WHEN WORKING WITH OXY-ACETYLENE WELDING EQUIPMENT? V. A. BOTTLES SHOULD BE LABELED AIR AND GAS W. B.KEEP CYLINDERS AWAY FROM EXPOSURE TO COLD TEMPERATURES. X. C. KEEP OXYGEN REGULATORS AND VALVES COATED WITH A LIGHT FILM OF OIL Y. D. KEEP GAS CYLINDERS SUPPORTED SO THAT THEYT CAN NOT TIP OVER Z. ANS:D AA. 1823. WHEN USING A PORTANBLE DROPLIGHT, YOU SHOULD ALWAYS INSURE THAT ----------------------------------BB. A. THE BULB IS PROTECTED BY A SHIELD OR GUARD CC. B. THE EXTENSION CORD IS YELLOW AND CLEARLY MARKED DD. C. THE BULB CAPACITY DOES NOT EXCEED 75WATTS EE. D. ALL OF THE ABOVE FF. ANS;A GG. 1824. WHICH PRACTICES SHOULD BE FOLLOWED AT ALL TIMES WHEN USING AN ELECTRIC GRINDING MACHINE? HH. A. WEAR GOGGLES OR FACE SHIELD

II. B. BE CERTAIN THAT THE FRAME IS PROPERLY GROUNDED JJ. C. BE PROPERLY TRAINED IN THE USE OF THIS TOOL KK. D. EACH OF THE ABOVE PRACTICES LL. ANS;D MM. 1825. THE PROPER TOOL USED FOR CUTING NEW EXTERNAL THREADS IS CALLED A THREAD--------------------NN. A. CHASER OO. B. DIE PP. C. BROACH QQ. 1826. CAREFUL HANDLING OF COMPRESSED GAS BOTTLES SHOULD INCLUDE -----------------------------RR. A. STOWLING TO AVOID THEM FROM CRASHING INTO ONE ANOTHER SS. B. KEEPING THEM AWAY FROM FLAME HIGH HEAT AND DIRECT SUNLIGHT TT. C. KEEPING THE VALUE PROTECTION CAPS IN PLACE D. tap Ans: B D. all of the above Ans: D 1827 Hidden edges in objects are represented in blue prints by . A. B. C. D. a thin solid line a thick solid line dashed lines having alternating long and short dashes dashed lines having approximately equal length dashes

Ans: D 1828 The operation of machining a uniformly roughened or checked surface on round stock in a lathe is called.. A. checkering

B. crosshatching C. knurling D. swaging Ans: C 1829 The welding process using an electric arc developed between a flux covered electrode and the metal being welded is known as .. A. B. C. D. flux cored arc welding resistance spot welding shielded metal arc welding submerged arc welding

Ans: C 1830 To properly use a lathe crotch center to drill an oil hole in a bushing you would mount the crotch center in the A. B. C. D. compound rest head stock tail stock chuck

Ans: C 1831 which of the screw driver tips listed will fit screws with a four way or cross type slot? A. B. C. D. Standard screw driver Philips screw driver Reed And Prince screw driver Both B and C are correct

Ans: D 1832 The tool used to prepare copper tubing for the installation of fittings is called a

A. B. C. D.

Swaging tool Stretcher Flaring tool Spreader

Ans: C 1833 When the installation breaks down within a metal encased, portable, electric tool .. A. Added safety features are built into the receptacle to allow continued use of the tool B. Care should be taken to insert the plug correctly when energizing the tool C. You should stand on a grounded deck plate before energizing the tool D. Line voltage may be placed on the tool casing make it dangerous to operate Ans: D 1834 Edges on objects not visible in the view shown are represented in blueprints by A. B. C. D. Ans: C 1835 Which of the following listed pressures is the maximum acetylene gas pressure that can be safely used in gas welding ? .................... A. B. C. D. Ans: B 10 psi 15 psi 25 psi 35 psi Thick solid line Dashed line having alternating long and short dashes Dashed lines having approximately equal length dashes Hidden edges are not represented because they are hidden

1836 The type of tooth set on a hacksaw blade where two adjoining teeth are staggered to the right, then two to the left, and continue to alternate in this manner is known as . A. B. C. D. Ans: B 1837 A drilled hole is accurately finished to size with a A. B. C. D. Center drill Finish drill Broach Reamer Alternate Double Alternate Racker Wave

Ans: D 1838 When using a hand held hacksaw the correct maximum rate of speed for cutting should be. A. B. C. D. Ans: C 1839 Double cut files are used for .. A. B. C. D. Quick removal of metal Finish work Rough work Both A and C 10 to 20 strokes per minute 80 to 100 strokes per minute 40 to 50 strokes per minute 70 to 80 strokes per minute

Ans: D

1840 Using a file without a handle may result in A. B. C. D. Ans: B 1841 which of the files listed will have closely spaced teeth for finishing to a smooth surface? A. B. C. D. Ans: A 1842 When mounted in a hand held hacksaw frame, which of the blades listed could cut smoothly through a metal file? A. B. C. D. Ans: C 1843 A new file should be broken in carefully by filing a piece of A. B. C. D. Ans: C Monel stock using heavy pressure Brass stock using heavy pressure Bronze stock using light pressure Stainless steel stock using light pressure Wave set Hardened Rod Flexible Smooth cut Bastard cut Second cut Rough cut Your work becoming rounded Injury to your hand Overheating of the file Pinning

1844 Which of the files listed is tapered on three sides and is used to file acute internal angles? A. B. C. D. Mill Round Square Triangular

Ans: D 1845 Which of the files listed can be used for sharpening a tool? A. B. C. D. A double cut file A single cut file Any bastard cut file Only a double bastard cut file

Ans: B 1846 File lengths are determined by the .. A. B. C. D. Ans: C 1847 Which of the listed metals can usually be drilled without lubrication? A. B. C. D. Ans: B 1848 If the speed of a drill is too great the drill will. Steel Brass Monel Tungsten Overall length of the file Distance between the face and the edge of the file Distance between the point and the heel of the file Length of the tang only

A. B. C. D. Ans: C

Cut faster Cut slower Rapidly dull Not cut

1849 If the cutting edges of a drill are ground at different angles, the A. B. C. D. Ans: B 1850 Some heavy duty screwdrivers are made with a square shank to A. B. C. D. Allow it to be used as a pry bar Prevent the shank from bending Permit striking with a hammer Allow turning with a wrench Drill will not cut Hole will be oversized Hole will be undersized Drill will seize immediately

Ans: D 1851 When welding a flux is used to A. B. C. D. Ans: C 1852 A pipe or Stillson wrench should only be used on .. A. Hexagonal objects Control penetration Reduce metal fatigue and warpage Reduce oxidation Increase heat transfer

B. Round objects C. Square objects D. Flat objects Ans: B 1853 A plug tap is correctly used for.. A. B. C. D. Ans: C 1854 Prussian Blue is used to. A. B. C. D. Ans: B 1855 The center head of a combination square set is used to A. B. C. D. Ans: C 1856 A drill that wobbles while the drill press is in operation may,. A. Be bent B. Have a severely worn shank C. Have been placed in the chuck off center Check degrees of angle Find right angles Locate the center on round stock Check the angle of cutting tools Check heat exchangers for leaks in the waterside Check the fit of a seat and disc of a valve Check for leaks in a R-12 system if a Halide torch is not available Trace condensate flow in an impulse steam trap Starting threads in a hole Reversing the threads in a hole The second cut when threading a blind hole Finishing the threads in a blind hole

D. All the above Ans: D 1857. To ensure a good weld ,post heating is required whenever an arc weld repair is made______________ A. With a straight polarity rod B. With a reverse polarity rod C. To a cast component (casting) D. To a part of the ships main structure Ans: C 1858. To get an accurate measurement using a 12 inch machinists steal rule , you should measure___________ A. From the one inch graduation mark B. From the zero end on the scale C. On the narrow edge of the rule D. On the unmarked edge of the rule Ans: A 1859. A welding electrode is marked E-6010,this designation means that _______________ A. The electrode may be used in the flat position only B. The minimum tensile strength of the weld metal will be 70000psi C. Either insulated or un-insulated electrode holders may be used D. The electrode is to be used for shielded metal arc welding Ans: D

1860. Before power to a lathe is turned on , it is a good shop practice to first hand feed the carriage to ensure_____________________ A. The carriage is lubricated B. The lathe is level C. All locking devices have been released D. The work piece is secured is in the lathe Ans : C 1861. To check the thickness of a piece of thin shim stock before using it to make a bearing shim, you should use a __________ A. Feeler gage B. Micrometer C. Machinists rule D. depth gage Ans : B 1862. In order to tighten the bolts of a crankpin bearing to the exact tension specified by the engine manufacturer, you should use a/ an _________ A. hook spanner B. Dial wrench C. Offset box end D. Torque wrench Ans : D 1863. When using a deflecting beam torque wrench, the torque is ___________ A. Read on a scale mounted on the handle of the wrench

B. Read on a dial mounted on the handle of the wrench C. Indicated by an audible click D. Indicated by a release or break of the handle Ans : A 1864. Which of the following statements concerning braze welding is / are correct A. Braze welding is an exceptionally good method of repairing malleable (special heat treated) iron B. A braze welded joint should be cooled immediately with cold water or forced air draft to reduce the intensity of heat path C. Repairs to working parts are container used in chemical processes especially strong alkaline solutions are effectively accomplished with braze welding D. All the above Ans : A 1865. When welding with an oxy-acetylene outfit __________ A. Open the acetylene valve until the hose pressure is 26 PSIG B. Open the Acetylene cylinder valve only - turn and leave the wrench on the wall system C. A leaking hose must be repaired by binding tape D. A flash back of flame into the hose is normal Ans : B 1866. Solder is an alloy of _________ A. Tin and lead B. Beryllium and antimony

C. Copper and lead D. Silicon and selenium. Ans: A 1867 A. B. C. D. Tinning a soldering irons will_________. prevent the tip from overheating protect the tip from scratches add extra weight to the tip prevent tip oxidation when heated

ANS: D 1868 Flux is used when soldering, in order to_______. A. B. C. D. Decreases the melting point of the solder Make the solder flow Ensure proper tinning Clean the area

ANS: D 1869 when stock is being turned in a lathe the outside diameter is reduced By an amount equal to_______. A. B. C. D. The depth of cut One half the depth of cut Twice the depth of cut Twice the rate of feed

ANS: C 1870 a chisel with mushroom head should not be used because ________. A. The chisel cannot be struck squarely

B. Pieces may fly off the chisel and injure yours eyes C. The hammer head may be chipped D. It must be held firmly by the head to strike it ANS: B 1871 soft solders have relatively low melting point and consist mainly of ______. A. B. C. D. Silver base alloys Lead base alloys Copper base alloys Nickel base alloys

ANS: B 1872 To measure the circumference of a piece of pipe, you should use a _______. A. B. C. D. Machinists steel rule Flexible steel rule Hooks rule Folding rule

ANS: B 1873 If you are cutting off a piece of stock in a lathe and the workpiece Tends to climb over the top of the cutoff tool, you should _______. A. B. C. D. Increase the lathe spindle speed. Increase the height of the tool cutting edge. Stop the lathe and tighten the chuck. Stop the lathe and lubricate the dead center.

ANS: B

1874 Generally speaking, when using a twist drill to bore a hole in metal The harder the metal, the greater should be the drills _______. A. B. C. D. Diameter. Lip clearance. Include point angle. Cutting speed.

ANS: C. 1875 A dial indicator is used to measure _______. A. B. C. D. Shaft eccentricity. Positive readings only. Scribed layout lines on vertical surface. Torque of a shaft.

ANS: A. 1876 A. B. C. D. The drill size is marked on the _______. Point. Shank. Margin. Flute.

ANS: B. 1877 When using a micrometer to measure a drill for size, you should Measure across the drill _________. A. B. C. D. Margins. Flutes. Shank. Web.

ANS: A.

1878

A small hole gauge is used in conjunction with a/an ________. A. B. C. D. Feeler gauge. Micrometer. Surface gauge. Angle gauge.

ANS: B. 1879 A. B. C. D. A micrometer screw has a pitch of ___________. 40 threads per cm. 50 threads per metre. 75 threads per mm. 100 threads per mm.

ANS: A. 1880 A. B. C. D. pipe thread taps are ______. Not hardened. Not fluted. Tapered. Straight.

ANS: C. 1881 Which of the following files will produce the finest surface on a Work piece being finished filed in a lathe? A. B. C. D. A mill file. A double cut file. Any bastard cut file. All warding files.

ANS: A. 1882 The 60 tape angle machined on work supported by lathe centers is

most easily machined by a ________. A. B. C. D. Taper attachment. Compound rest. Tailstock set over method. Head stock set over method.

ANS: B. 1883 A. B. C. D. Which the following types of files is generally used for finishing? A double cut file. A single cut file. Any bastard cut file. Only a double bastard cut file.

ANS: B. 1884 A tool used in precision work to smooth or enlarge a slightly Undersized hole, is called a ________. A. B. C. D. Round out. Round file. Reamer. Hole driller.

ANS: C. 1885 A mill file is used to _________. A. B. C. D. Produce a very fine finish by draw filing. Produce a coarse finish by push filing. File lead. File plastic.

ANS: A. 1886 Prussian blue is used for ___________.

A. B. C. D.

Grinding in valves. Spotting in valves. Lapping valves. Refacing valves.

ANS: B. 1887 A. B. C. D. A file handle is fitted to the files ________. Tang. Point. Taper. Heel.

ANS: A. 1888 The best hacksaw blade to use for cutting brass is the __________. A. B. C. D. Flexible blade. All hard blade. All soft blade. Hollow core blade.

ANS: B. 1889 When drilling blind holes with a standard drill press, the proper method of stopping the progress of the drill boring through the work is by __________. A. moving the work table B. using a depth stop C. adjusting the spindle return spring D. gaging chuck motion Ans: D

1890 Two separator work pieces are to have a taper cut with the same taper per inch using the offset tailstock method. After the first piece is completed, the tall stock offset must be changed if there is a change in the __________. A. length of the work piece B. diameter of the work piece C. angle of the cutting tool D. none of the above Ans.: A 1891 With reference to the oxyacetylene welding of high carbon steels , hardfacing ,and the welding of non ferrous alloys ,such as monel the best flame to use is termed a/an __________. A. oxidizing flame B. neutral flame C. nitriding fusion D. carburizing flame Ans.: D 1892 The designating E7028-A1 is typically located on an arc welding electrode. Which of the listed letters and/or digits correctly identifies the welding position for which the electrode is recommended ? A. E B. 70 C. 2 D. A1

Ans.: C 1893 In an oxyacetylene welding outfit, each cylinder has a regulator and two pressure gages. One pressure gage indicates cylinder pressure and the other gage is used to indicate ____________. A. B. C. D. tip pressure upstream pressure hose pressure arc pressure

Ans. : C 1894 A Work piece has been mounted between centers and a test cut machined at each end to check alignment of the lathe centers. If the test cut on the tailstock end is deeper than the test cut on the head stock end, the tail stock must be moved __________. A. away from you to correct alignment B. toward you to correct alignment C. closer to the headstock to reduce the amount of offset D. away from the head stock to decrease the misalignment Ans.: A 1895 An offset screwdriver is best used for ________. A. tightening Allen head screws only B. tightening or loosening offset type machine screws C. driving self-tapping screws only D. screws you cannot reach with a straight shaft screwdriver Ans.: D

1896 Oiling a file as a rust preventative will cause ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans.:B 1897 A grinding wheel is trued with a _______. A. B. C. D. Lathe tool Dressing tool Garnet stone Round file Overheating Pinning Fast cutting Binding

Ans. : B 1898 The edge of a file not having any teeth is known as a ________. A. B. C. D. Ans. : B 1899 One of the steps required to increase the drilling speed of a drill press is to _______. A. B. C. D. Move the drive belt to a smaller diameter motor pulley Move the drive belt to a smaller diameter spindle pulley Change the terminal connections of the drive motor Change to a larger diameter spindle Smooth edge Safe edge Flat edge Dead edge

Ans.: B 1900 Pressure-relief devices on gas welding cylinders are located in __________.

A. The cylinder valve B. The shoulder of the cylinder C. The bottom of the cylinder D. All of the above. Ans. : D 1901 An aligning punch is used to _______. A. Line of corresponding holes in adjacent parts B. completely loosen a jammed bolt C. mark centers and line in layout work D. Make a starting mark for a drill Ans: A 1902 Pipe threads are cut with a taper to ________. A. B. C. D. Prevent over tightening the joint Provide a leak proof fit Permit easily joint disassembly Produce a fine even thread

Ans : B 1903 Heavy pressure on the ends of a file cause the work surface to become _______. A. tapered B. smooth C. rough D. rounded

Ans.: D REFRIGERATION AND AIR CONDITIONING

1904 Short cycling of a refrigeration compressor refers to ___________. A. B. C. D. Frequently grounding out Frequently starting and stopping Running too fast Running too slow

Ans.: B 1905 The heat gained per pound of refrigerant in the evaporator is known as the ________. A. Latent heat of vaporization B. sensible heat C. refrigerating effect D. Specific heat of vaporization Ans.: C 1906 When liquid reaches the compressor of a refrigeration system through the suction line, the condition is called ___________. A. flooding back B. superheating C. overflowing D. recycling Ans.: A

1907 Which of the refrigerants listed is considered safe and ideal for most marine applications? A. B. C. D. Ans.: C 1908. The heat removed from the refrigerant in the condenser of a refrigeration plant is the A. Latent heat of expansion B. Sensible heat of condensation C. Heat of compression D. All the above Ans. C 1909. The FIRST thing to do to ensure that a refrigeration unit will not start while undergoing repairs, is to A. Secure and tag the electrical circuit B. Place a crow bar in the flywheel of the unit C. Inform all persons in the area not to start the unit D. Make a log book entry Ans. A 1910. In a refrigeration system, the refrigerant absorbs the latent heat of vaporization in the A. Compressor R-21 Ammonia R-12 Sulfur dioxide

B. Condenser C. Receiver D. Evaporation Ans. D 1911. The personnel working with refrigeration system, and the subject to the exposure of refrigerants should wear A. Face shield B. A respirator C. Rubber gloves D. An all purpose gas mask Ans. A 1912. The heat required to change a substance from a solid to a liquid while at its freezing temperature is known as the latent heat of A. Fusion B. Vaporization C. Condensation D. Sublimation Ans. A 1913. The only means of removing then latent heat of condensation from a refrigeration cycle is by A. Passing it through the expansion valve B. Passing the gaseous refrigerant through the heat interchanger on the suction side of the compressor

C. maintaining a high pressure on the systems receiver D. condensing refrigerant in the system condense Ans. B. 1914. The amount of moisture in a given sample of air , when compared with the amount of moisture the air could hold if totally saturated at the existing temperature of the sample ,is called A. absolute humidity B. specific humidity C. effective humidity D. relative humidity Ans. D 1915. When it is necessary to open a refrigeration system for repairs and the system will be open for more than a few minutes, the open ends of the systems should be A. dehydrated B. purged C. plugged D. evacuated Ans: D 1916. People familiar with ammonia refrigeration systems become accustomed to its odor and may forgot that the vapors A. in a low concentration can cause death B. will dissolve in perspiration and caustic burns

C. will burns or explode D. all of the above Ans. D 1917. When subjected to high heat from a open flame, or an electric heating element, which of the listed refrigerants will break down and produce phosgene gas A. CO2 B. methyl chloride C. R-22 D. Sulphur-dioxide Ans. C 1918. A refrigeration system contaminated with moisture can be affected by A. acid formation B. sludge formation C. ice in the expansion valve D. all the above Ans. D 1919. Some chlorinated flourocarbon refrigerants may decompose into a toxic irritating gas iif it is A. stored at temperature below 60 degrees Fahrenheit B. charged into a system having copper fittings C. allowed to mix with compressor oil D. exposed to an open flame or hot surface

Ans. D 1920. In a direct expansion type cargo refrigeration system, a box is normally changed from chill to freeze by adjusting the A. hand expansion valve B. compressor suction valve C. solenoid by pass D. back pressure regulating Ans. D 1921. If the suction line between the evaporator and compressor is frosting up, the cause may be due to the thermal expansion valve A. thermal bulb coming loose from the suction line B. needle valve is stuck closed C. thermal bulb is in a cold air stream D. all the above Ans. A 1922. If the refrigeration compressor crankcase is sweating, the cause may be due to A. a shortage of refrigerant B. the compressor running continuously C. liquid refrigerant returning to the compressor D. the compressor short cycling on the pressure cutout Ans. C

1923. If a refrigeration compressor crankcase is sweating, the trouble could be caused by A. excessive superheat B. a minor amount of air in the system C. normal oil circulation with the refrigerant D. the expansion valve being stuck in the open position Ans. D 1924. If the refrigeration compressor crankcase is sweating, the cause may be due to A. a shortage of refrigerant B. the compressor running continuously C. liquid refrigerants returning to the compressor D. the compressor short cycling on the high pressure cutout Ans. C 1925. Crankcase sweating in a refrigeration system is caused by A. A stuck solenoid valve B. a shortage of refrigerant C. too much oil in circulation D. too much superheat Ans. C 1926. Liquid line gas may cause erosion of the expansion valves internal components and could the valve to A. over heat

B .hunt C. freeze shut D. freeze open Ans. B 1927. If a refrigeration system compressor crankcase is sweating, you should A. Add refrigerant to the system B. adjust the thermal expansion valve to the proper setting C. adjust the float valve to the proper holding pressure D. Open the hand expansion valve Ans. B 1928 The compressor in the ship service refrigeration system is short Cycling on the high pressure cutout switch. The probable reason for This is the_____________ A. B. C. D. Discharge valves are leaking excessively Discharge valves are leaking slightly Condenser is getting insufficient cooling water flow System is low on refrigerant

Ans : c 1929 if a refrigeration compressor were short cycling on the low pressure cutout switch,The probable cause for this might be the ____________ A. B. C. D. System was overcharged with refrigerant High pressure switch was improperly adjusted Expansion valve strainers were fouled Suction valves were leaking vs lightly

Ans : C

1930 the refrigeration system compressor is short cycling on high head Pressure when the sea water cooling temperature is 22c, in this Situation, you should ____________________ A. B. C. D. Check for sufficient water flow through the condenser Purge noncondensable gases from the receiver Reset the thermostatic expansion valve Completely purge the high pressure side of the system

Ans : A 1931 when handling contaminated oil from a hermetically sealed refrigeration compressor unit that has burned out its motor, you should ________ A. B. C. D. Store the oil in the clean refrigerant drum Use rubber gloves Circulate the oil through a filter drier Remove the oil with a portable charging cylinder

1932 When a refrigeration compressor motor fails to start , the FIRST thing That should be checked for is a ___________ A. B. C. D. Loose expansion valve control bulb Low differential setting on a H.P cutout Blown fuse in the motor circuit Faulty suction pressure regulator

Ans : C

1933 The accumulation of air and other non condensable gases in a refrigeration system Will __________________ A. B. C. D. Cause a loss of the liquid seal Create a vapour lock in the liquid receiver Collect in the condenser Cause foaming of the oil in the crankcase

Ans : c

1934 if a large difference exists between the compressor discharge Pressure and the pressure corresponding to the existing condensing Temperature in a refrigeneration system, you should ________ A. B. C. D. Increasing the floe of the cooling water through the condenser Adjust the high pressure cutout to maintain the desired pressure Open the hot gas bypass temporarily to reduc e capacity Purge noncondensable gases to reduce the excess pressure

And :d 1935 when troubleshooting a refrigeration system for low head pressure, liquid Refrigerant flooding back from the evaporator is determined to the cause. It may Be necessary to ______________ A. B. C. D. Change the expansion valve adjustment Readjust the water regulating valve to increase the flow of water Purge air from the condenser Clean the water side of the condenser

Ans : a

1936 air entering an air-cooled refrigeration system is indicated by ___________ A. B. C. D. Frosting of the liquid line Higher than normal head pressure A clear sight glass Abnormally cold reefer boxes

Ans : D 1937 refrigerant is normally subcooled in a refrigeration or air conditioning system Condenser to ___________ A. B. C. D. Ans b 1938 subcooling is a method of reducing the temperature of the liquid Refrigerant below its _______________ A. B. C. D. Freezing point Floc point Condensing temperature Compression temperature Maintain adequate coil back pressure Prohibit flashing in the liquid line Reduce refrigerant volume in the system Reduce compressor discharge line losding

Ans : C

1939 flash gas formed in the liquid line of a refrigeration system may cause__________ A. B. C. D. The hot gas bypass connection at the three way valve The portion of liquid refrigerant which does not flash Expansion valve capacity to increase Pressure difference across the expansion valve to increase

Ans: b 1940 the component of a refrigerating system in which the refrigerant Vaporizes and absorbs heat is known as the ____________ Condenser Vapor generator Accumulator Evaporator

A. B. C. D.

Ans :D 1941 in the refrigeration system the heat normally producing the flash gas at the Thermostatic expansion valve, is obtained from ________ A. B. C. D. The hot gas bypass connection at the three way valve The portion of liquid refrigerant which does not flash Exposure to the high ambient temperature within the coil Exposure to the high ambient temperature of the cooled space Ans :b

1942 which of the listed statements is correct concerning refrigeration Systems? A. Dehydrators must be used continuously in a refrigeration system.

B. 25 ton refrigeration system has the same cooling effect as melting 25 tons of ice in 24 hours C. A thermostatic valve is used to control refrigerated space temperature D. The liquid receiver functions to collect and remove noncondensable gases Ans: b 1943 the term oil foaming in refrigeration practice, is used to describe the _________ A. B. C. D. Release of dissolved lubricant from the refrigerant in the crankcase Release of miscible refrigerant from the lubricant in the crankcase Sudden evaporation of entrapped air from the refrigerant liquid Sudden evaporation of entrapped moisture from the crankcase lubricant

Ans :b

1944 the refrigerant leaves the evaporator of a refrigeration system as a low pressur _____________________ A. B. C. D. Subcooled liquid High temperature liquid Oil saturated liquid Superheated vapour

Ans :b 1945 which of the listed refrigeration system system components keeps the refrigerant Circulating through the systems ? A. Expansion valve B. Condenser C. Evaporator

D. Compressor Ans : d

1946 when refrigerant leaves the receiver, it flows next on to the A. B. C. D. Evaporator coils Liquid strainer Compressor Condenser

Ans: B 1947excessive oil foaming in the crankcase of a refrigeration compressor at startup can cause

A. B. C. D.

Compressor damage from improper lubrication Refrigerant absorption by the lubricant Increased viscosity in the lubricant Carbon deposit on the compressor suction values

Ans: A

1948. If a refrigeration system, equipped with a reciprocating compressor, has a solenoid value that is leaking during the off cycle, this could cause____________ A. Low suction pressure B. High superheat in the outlet coil C. Noisy compressor operation upon starting

D. Refrigerant slugs in the receiver Ans: C 1948. If a refrigeration compressor is running continuously without lowering the temperature in the refrigerated space, the trouble may be ___________ A. A shortage of compressor oil B. Warm food in the refrigerator C. Excessive condenser cooling water D. A shortage of refrigerant Ans: D 1950. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance 1* is known as _________ A. Latent heat B. Sensible heat C. Specific heat D. Variable heat Ans: C 1951. Flooding back is a condition where the liquid refrigerant____________ A. Vaporizes in the condenser B. Reaches the compressor through the suction line C. Flashes in the liquid line D. Condenses in the receiver Ans: B

1952. Leaking suction values in a refrigeration compressor are indicated by ___________ A. Higher than normal suction pressure B. Lower than normal suction pressure C. Lower than normal evaporation pressure D. Noticeable increase in compressor noise Ans: A 1953. Badly leaking refrigeration compressor discharge values will cause_________ A. overfeeding of the expansion value B. damage to the condensor C. constant running of the compressor D. flooding of the receiver Ans: C

1954. If the suction pressure at the refrigeration compressor as below the normal, the cause can be___________ A. refrigeration overcharge B. overfeeding of the expansion value C. a restricted suction strainer D. due to short cycling of the compressor Ans: C

1955. If a refrigeration compressor has a higher than normal suction pressure, the problem could be a result of ___________ A. a minor accumulation of air or noncondesable gases in the system B. a constant loss of refrigerant value C. leaking compressor suction values D. a slightly higher than normal liquid level in the receiver Ans: C 1956. Which of the conditions listed may be an indication of an excessive amount of refrigerant circulating through the system? A. sweating of the compressor crankcase B. colder than normal solenoid value C. frosting of the evaporator D. weeping of the purge value Ans: A 1957.If a refrigeration compressor was developing a higher than normal discharge pressure, the problem could be a result of ___________ A. air or non condensable gases in the system B. leaking discharge values C. leaking suction values D. liquid refrigerant flooding bank from the cooling oil Ans: A 1958. When the refrigeration system compressor suction pressure corresponds to an elevation in coil temperature, a low pressure cutout switch

is set to automatically start the compressor, the normal stopping point of the compressor is set by adjusting the ___________ A. cut-in point of the low pressure cutout switch B. low pressure cutout differential switch C. cut-in point of the low pressure cutout switch D. high pressure cutout differential switch Ans: B 1959. If the water failure switch should fail to shut down the refrigeration compressor the refrigerant pressure will build up in high pressure side of the system to the point where the___ A. compressor discharge values would be damaged B. condenser tubes would rupture C. system relief valve would open D. high pressure cutout switch would function Ans: D 1960. The surging that occurs in a centrifugal air conditioning compressor is a result of _________ A. low pressure in the Condenser B. the existing load on the evaporator producing a thermodynamic heat exceeding the normal maximum of the compressor C. low pressure in the condenser at low load D. high pressure in the evaporator at high load Ans: B

1961. The dew point is reached when the wet temperature bulb is_________ A. equal to the dry bulb temperature B. twice the dry bulb temperature C. 38.8 c less than the dry bulb temperature D. 10c above the dry bulb temperature Ans: A 1962. If the super heat value of a thermostatic expansion value is set too low, the A. The suction line will be abnormally cold and liquid may slug back to the compressor B. The suction line will be got due to a reduced amount of refrigerant turning to the compressor C. The temperature of the refrigerant within the condenser will remain the same D. The temperature of the refrigerant passing through the sub cooler will decrease Ans: A 1963. The function of a heat interchanger used in a refrigeration system is to A. Lower the temperature of liquid refrigerant before entering the expansion value B. Reduce the possibility of liquid refrigerant from flooding back to the compressor C. Minimize sweating of the suction line D. All of the above

Ans: D 1964. Rather than design an infinite variety of valve sizes for use as thermostatic expansion values, some manufacturers use_______ A. An adjusting cap to meet the various size differences B. A flexible diaphragm C. Internal restrictions of different sizes D. A feeler bulb with an adjustable pressure line Ans. C 1965. If a liquid drying agent is used in a refrigeration system already equipped with a solid drying agent, the liquid drying agent will___________________ A. Release the moisture already trapped in the solid drying agent B. React violently with the solid drying agent C. Cause toxic gases to form in the refrigerated space D. Solidify the refrigerant oil in the compressor crank case Ans. A 1966. What maintenance may be carried out on a thermostatic expansion valve____________ A. The thermal bulb may be recharged B. The rate action may be increased C. The proportional action may be varied D. The inlet screen may be cleaned Ans. D 1967. Overcharging an air-cooled refrigeration system will cause the_________________ A. Relies valve to lift B. Compressor to run continuously C. System to automatically binge over to the hot gases deep in cycle D. Compressor to short cycle Ans. D 1968. Which statement about calibrating a newly installer thermostatic expansion valve is correct? A. The procedure requires a refrigeration wrench and y C. This procedure is done at the factory with tools not available to a mariner D. An accurate thermometer and suction pressure gauge as essential to this process Ans. D

1969. The presence of gas in the liquid line is undesirable and can be eliminated by________ A. Increasing the distance between the evaporator and condenser B. Using a larger expansion valve C. Sub cooling the liquid D. Installing the evaporator at a higher level than the condenser Ans. C 1970. Constant superheat is maintainer at the evaporator outlet of a refrigeration only by a___________ A. Solenoid B. Low pressure cutout switch C. King valve D. Thermal expansion valve Ans. D 1971. As the electric current flow to a modulating suction valve increases the__________ A. Compressive forces against the spring will increase B. Suction pressure of the compressor will rise C. Evaporator coil pressure will decrease D. Amount of super heat formed will increase Ans. A 1972. If the temperature of the ammonia has in the discharge rising and the condenser of a refrigeration system remains above 130 C, the______________________ A. Refrigeration effect increases B. Unit will cease to condense C. Vapor will cease to condense D. Process of sublimation will begin Ans. C 1973. Which piping material is recommended to be used in extra heavy duty sizes in ammonia refrigeration system construction? A. Steel B. Monel C. Bronze D. Copper Ans. A

1974. If your skin comes in contact with liquid ammonia refrigerant you should immediately_____________ A. Contact Physicians health care B. Apply an antibacterial ointment C. Flush the affected area with water D. Remove all the necessary clothing Ans. C 1975. Ammonia is lighter than air and he a leak should occur its concentration will be A. Lower near the top of an enclosed space Dependent upon available free hydrogen ions C. Of minimum importance during venting procedures D. Lower near the deal of an enclosed space Ans: D 1976 he your skin comes in contact with liquid ammonia refrigerant you should immediately A. Contact Physicians health care B. Apply an antibacterial ointment C. Flush the affected area with water D. Remove all necessary clothing Ans: C 1977. A lower thermostatic temperature setting will provide a desired degree of comfort in a room where_________ A. Low relative humidity is maintained B. Triple banded squirrel cage fans are used C. Air circulation is Maximum D. High relative humidity is maintained Ans. D 1978. The pressure in a high pressure refrigeration system about to be opened for repair should be__________ A.1 to 2 bar g B.4 to 7 bar g C.11 to 12 bar g D.0 bar g Ans: D

1979. Which of the following refrigerants will normally require water cooled compressor components? A.r-134 B. ammonia C.r-22 D. all of the above are correct Ans: All the above are correct... 1980. The flame of a sulphur candle in the presence of an ammonia leak will turn ____________ A. Pink B. White C. Yellow D. Blue Ans: B 1981 under normal conditions ammonia refrigerants should be added at the____________ A. High side of the system B. Station service connection C. Discharge service connection D. Expansion value side port connection Ans: A 1982. To service a 60 ton air conditioning package, the easiest way to determine the type of refrigerant used is to ___________ A. Use your service gage set and refrigeration card B. Look at the unit name plate C. Ask the chief engineer D. Look on the top of the TXV Ans: B 1983. Refrigerant entering the compressor of a refrigeration system should be in which of the following conditions? A. Sub-cooled liquid B. Sub-cooled vapor C. Superheated vapor D. Liquid Ans: C

1984 inhalation of high concentrations of cfcs may have which of the following effects? A. B. C. D. Drowsiness Loss of concentration Cardiac arrhythmias All the above

Ans: D 1985 refrigerant leaving the metering device in a refrigeraton system is a A. B. C. D. Ans: C Sub-cooled liquid Sub-cooled vapour Saturated vapour / vapour mixture Saturated liquid

1986

The four most commonly used refrigerants listed in order from the most damaging to the least

damaging to the ozone layer are. A R-11,R-12,R-502 and R-22 B R-22,R-12,R-11 and R-502 C R-502,R12,R-22 and R-11

D R-11,R-12,R-22 and R-502 Ans-A 1987 Large quantities of halogenated floro-carbons when released from refrigeration systems, will contribute to ozone depletion in the A Bathosphere

B Ionosphere C stratosphere D Troposphere Ans-C 1988 Which of the following is not part of the high side of the refrigeration system? A Condensor B Reciever C Accumulator D Liquid line Ans-C 1989 which of the listed chemicals which eventually reach the stratosphere and react unfavourablywith ozone? A Fluorine B Chlorine C Halogen D carbon Ans-B 1990 Which can be considered as a drop-in replacement refrigerant? A R-500 B R-123 C R-134a D none of the above

Ans-D 1991 Pressure in the control tubing of a thermostatic expansion valve depends directly upon the A temperature in the box B super heat in the tail coil C compressor suction pressure D heat transfered from the saturated liquid in the evaporator Ans-B 1992 To protect a recovery or recycling machine when removing refrigeration from a burned out system a filter drier should be installed in.. A The system liquid line B The machine inlet C The system suction line D The container inlet Ans-B 1993 In preparing to remove the air from a refregiration condenser for a large multibox water cooled system , all of the refregirant in the system should be . A at a super heated temperature B pumped to the receiver C pumped to the evaporator D at a saturated temperature Ans-B

1994 HCFC-22 has been recovered from a refrigeration system during replacement of the condenser. The refrigerant can be .. A recycled into a system that had used HCFC-11 B reclaimed as a low pressure system refrigerant C returned to the system D must be destroyed as it can no longer be used Ans-C 1995 the process of removing refregirent from a system and storing it without testing or processing is known as .. A reclaiming B recouping C recycling D recovering Ans-D 1996 Which of the following represents a low pressure refregirants as defined by EPA regulation? A R-12 B R-22 C R-502 D R-123 Ans-D 1997 When using nitrogen to pressure leak test a system, the nitrogen tank should always have a..

A cut off valve

B blue top C level indicator D regulator Ans-D 1998 In addition to the recovery of refregirant recovery machines not necessarily able to pull a vaccum can also evacuate a system of A non-condensable gases B oil C moisture D Acids Ans-A 1999 As the amount of moisture in the air increases , the difference between the dry bulb and the wet bulb temperature will A increases B decreases C remain unchanged D be greatest at dew point Ans-B 2000 Which of the refregirants listed is considered to be chlorine free? A R-12 B R-221 C R-142 D R152a

Ans-D 2001 solenoid valves used in refregiration systems may be classified as . A normal open, de-energized B normally closed , energized C normally opened or normally closed D normally energized or normally de-energized Ans-C 2002 small applications with less than 1.5kgs of refregirants should be . A liquid charged B vapour charged C either vapour or liquid charged D initially liquid charged and then topped with a vapour charge Ans-B 2003 The expansion valve used in refregiration system regulates the. A super heat of the gas leaving the compressor B back pressure in the evaporator C temperature in the refregirated space D degree of superheat of the gas leaving the evaporator Ans-D 2004 The carbon ring of a refregiration compressor crankshaft mechanical seal is held in position against the stationary ring by using a/an A spring

B elliptical retaining assembly C Belleville spring D Thrust washer Ans-A 2005 The oil observed in the sight glass of an operating refregiration compressor appears to be brownish in colour. This is indicative of B Bearing wear or piston scoring C Heat gasket breakdown D copper plating caused by moisture in the system Ans-D 2006. why should the refrigerant stored in a recovery cylinder be allowed to equalize with room temperature ? A. To prevent the rupture disk from blowing. B. This a way to check the refrigerant level in the cylinder. C. This is the only way to read refrigerant pressure accurately. D. The recovery cylinder could explode if the temperature rose too quickly. Ans-C 2007. which of the listed refrigerants has been more suitable than the other for use in a centrifugal refrigerantion compressor? A. R-11 B. R-11 C. Ammonia D. carbon di oxide.

2008. which of the listed statements describe the reason why oil foaming occurs when starting a refrigerant compressor? A. if the oil level is not initially high, the condition is the result of agitation created by the movement of the mechanical component. B. this condition is the result of th sudden low pressure created in the crankcase at start up causing release of refrigerant accumulated with in the oil. C. this will occur only the crankcase heaters are used. D. This phenomenon is inherent only in hermetically sealed units and is always provisional. Ans-B 2009. Which of the precautions listed should be taken before opening any part of a refrigeration system? A make certain that a positive pressure exists in the system to prevent entrance of moisture B find the leaks in the system with a halide torch C use the hot gases defrost line to remove frost on coils D set the heigh pressure cut out on manual to prevent automatic starting Ans-A 2010 in refrigeration system which type of contaminatior will reclamation process be unable to separate? A Mixed refrigerants B Acid C Moisture D Air Ans-A

2011 A quick method used to test a water cooled condenser for refrigerant leaks is to test the .. A Cooling water for proper pH B receiver for water content C air vents on the condenser heads with a halide torch D condenser tubes hydraustically Ans-C 2012 In vapour compression refrigeration system with a freeze, dairy,and thaw box , a solenoid valves should be installed A immediately before each expansion valve B on the inlet side of the receiver C in the liquid line bypassing the expansion valve D in the vapour bypassing the oil separator Ans-A 2013 A properly adjusted thermostatic expansion valve will have a constant valve opening under a condition of constant.. A supply pressure B suction pressure C refrigerant super heat D compressor speed Ans-c 2014 Concerning the operation of refrigeration systems, frosting or sweeting of a liquid line is usually indicative of . A high surrounding relative humidity

B a refrigerant line restriction C water in the system D proper cooling take place Ans-B 2015 An economizer , or het interchanger, is installed in a refrigeration system to A reduce the possibility of sweating of the suction line B reduce the temperature of the liquid refrigerant prior to entering the expansion valve C reduce the possibility of liquid refrigerant flooding back to the compressor D all the above Ans-D 2016 Before charging the refrigeration unit , the refrigerant charging line should be A flushed with clean refrigerant oil B purged with the refrigerant C washed with an ammonia or alcohol solution D grounded to the compressor Ans-B 2017 the amount of HCFC-123 in a storage cylinder is measured by.. A saturation pressure B volume C weight D saturation temperature

Ans-C 2018 which of the process listed would be the most satisfactory method to use to lower the humidity of air being calculated by air conditioning system? A cooling the air to a temperature just above dew point B heating the air to a point at which moisture will boil off, then recooling it C cooling the air to a point below dew point ,then reheating it D heating the air and then cooling it to a point below dew point Ans-C 2019 Water regulating valves are installed to vary the water flow through the water cooled refrigeration condensors in response to. A compressor speed B compressor discharge temperature C compressor discharge pressure D condenser discharge Ans-C 2020 in a two stage centrifugal air conditioning system the liquid refrigerant passes through the condenser directly to the . A evaporator B chiller C economizer D expansion valve Ans-C 2021 Immediately before the actual charging process is started refrigerant oil charging lines should be loosely connected and..

A flushed with clean refrigerant oil B purged with refrigerant gas C washed with an ammonia and alcohol solution D grounded to the compressor Ans-A 2022 the primary purpose of the thermostatic expansion valve in a typical multibox shipboard refrigeration system is to . A control the refrigerated space temperature B regulate the compression suction pressure C regulate the amount of refrigerant superheat leaving the evaporator D control the refrigerant temperature entering the evaporator Ans- C 2023 which of the fluids listed is normally used to condense the primary refrigerant in a shipboard central air conditioning system A air or nitrogen B seawater or fresh water C sodium nitrate brine D calcium sulphate brine Ans-B 2024. The amount of refrigerant in a storage cylinder is measured by .. A. pressure B. volume C. weight

D. temperature Ans: C 2025. The device which normally stops the refrigeration compressor before the relief valve starts to open is the A. low pressure cutout switch B. back pressure cutout switch C. high pressure cutout switch D. relief valve bypass Ans: C 2026. The lubricant oil in the sump of a secured refrigeration compressor is heated to A. reduce absorption of refrigerant by the oil B. prevent refrigerant vaporization C. Remove entrained water D. Remove wax and gum Ans: A 2027. Vapor seals used in the insulation on refrigerated spaces serve to . A. prevent Freon vapor from saturating the insulation B. hold water vapor on the cold side of the insulation C. reduce the possibility of moisture laden warm air entering the insulation D. reduce the possibility of moisture laden cold air from entering the insulation Ans: C

2028. A typically shipboard domestic multi-box refrigeration system operates with one compressor and condenser. What is the purpose of the sensing line connected to the thermal bulb at the evaporator coil outlet? A. To open or close the solenoid valve when the box temperature increases or decreases B. To open the back-pressure regulating valve when evaporator coil pressure increases C. To direct evaporator outlet pressure to the lower part of the solenoid bellows D. To transform the pressure (proportional to the coil superheat) to the thermal expansion valve Ans: D 2029. Which of the following methods is normally used to control the temperature of air distributed from individual cooling coils in an air conditioning system using a chilled water circulation system? A. A room thermostat activates an electric heater at each individual chilled air outlet when necessary. B. Varying the number of passes the air makes across the coils. C. Varying the temperature of the water through the coils. D. Varying the quantity of the water through the coils. Ans: D 2030. For the proper control of the air temperature in an air conditioning system using chilled water circulation, which of the listed conditions should remain constant regardless of load changes? A. chilled water system supply temperature. B. chilled water system return temperature.

C. Compressor discharge temperature. D. Compressor suction pressure. Ans: A 2031. In order to achieve greater dehumidification, you would adjust the air conditioning system by.1. Reducing the chief water flow through the cooling coil 2. Increase the preheater temperature A. 1 only B. 2 only C. both 1and 2 D. neither 1 nor 2 Ans: D 2032. In a large refrigeration system having more than one evaporator, a king solenoid valve should be installed and located.. A. Just after the receiver. B. Before the condenser. C. Between the condenser and receiver. D. Before the back pressure regulating valve. Ans: A 2033. A partially fouled liquid line strainer in the refrigeration system will cause . . 1. A loss of refrigeration effect 2. The strainer outlet piping to be cooler than the inlet A. 1 only. B. 2 only.

C. Both 1 and 2. D. Neither 1and 2. Ans: C 2034. When the refrigeration compressor is in the off cycle the thermal expansion valve will. A. always be wide open when the compressor restarts B. continue to operate as if the system were in operation C. remains open until the evaporator pressure equalizes, then close until the compressor restarts D. always be completely closed until the compressor restarts Ans. B 2035. The discharge valves used in refrigeration compressors are leaking badly and .. A. the reed should be reground B. The reed should be replaced C. should continue to operate at minimum efficiency D. the high pressure cut out should be readjusted to operate efficiently Ans. B 2036. The output capacity of a centrifugal refrigeration compressor may be controlled manually by. A. controlling the compressor speed B. throttling the compressor suction C. reducing the condenser water flow

D. all of the above methods Ans. D 2037. The purpose of water failure switch in a refrigeration system is to react to the loss of cooling water by A. stopping the compressor B. by passing the refrigerant to the receiver C. closing the high pressure cut out switch D. opening the high pressure cutout switch Ans. A 2038. Which of the listed components for the refrigeration system is required for a two box system, but not for a one box system.. A. hand expansion valve B. automatic expansion valve C. high pressure cut out switch D. liquid line solenoid valve Ans. D 2039. The dehydrating agent normally used in refrigeration system is. A. slaked lime B. sodium chloride C. activated alumina D. calcium chloride Ans. C

2040. If the atmospheric pressure decreases while the air temperature remains constant, the air will.. A. gives up moisture as condensation B. Have greater capacity to absorb moisture C. Become supersaturated at high relative humidity D. absorb less free atmospheric moisture Ans. B 2041. Which of the fluids listed is suitable as secondary refrigerant.. A. methyl alcohol B. brine C. Carbon-di-oxide D. cuprous chloride Ans. B 2042. Which of the listed materials can be used as a refrigeration system A. silica gel B. activated alumina C. anhydrous calcium sulphate D. All of the above Ans. D 2043. Capacity control of a centrifugal refrigeration compressor can be accomplished by..

A. varying the speed of the compressor B. varying the suction pressure C. varying the condenser water flow rate D. all of the above Ans. D 2044. To add refrigerant to the high side of an air conditioning system, you should introduce the refrigerant through the. A. discharge service valve as a vapour B. control service valve as a liquid C. charging valve as a liquid D. condensor purge valve as a vapour Ans. C 2045. When multiple refrigeration evaporators are served by the same compressor and operate at different temperatures, the pressure in the coldest evaporator is A. higher than the pressure in the warmest evaporator B. the same as any evaporator in the system C. lower than the pressure in the warmest evaporator D. controlled by adjusting the thermal expansion valve Ans. C 2046. When adding oil to the refrigeration system you must be certain that A. all air is removed from the pump and fittings

B. the suction strainer is not blocked C. the discharge pressure is not too high D. the condenser is secure Ans. A 2047. The pressure in a low pressure refrigeration system about to be opened for repair should be. A.10 to 12 psig B.4 to 7 psig C.0 to 1 psig D.25 inches of hg vacuum Ans. D 2048. The back pressure regulating valve used in a refrigeration system serves to.. A. maintain a constant pressure in the suction line heat exchanger B. limit the minimum pressure in the evaporator C. limit the maximum pressure in the suction line heat exchanger D. maintain a minimum discharge head on compressor Ans. B 2049. After a refrigeration plant has been opened for repairs, it is advisable to purge air from the system by.. A. slightly opening the purge valve on the condenser B. cracking the valve bonnet assembly on the thermostatic expansion C. turning over the compressor fly wheel with the suction line valve open

D. Loosening the purge connection attached to the receiver head Ans. A 2050. A purge connection installed on the refrigerant side of a water cooled condenser is used to. A. free tubes of accumulated scale. B. Charge the system with refrigerant. C. Remove non condensable gases D. ensure positive air circulation Ans: C 2051. The charging of a refrigerating system should be carried out by adding.. A. Refrigerant vapor to the receiver only. B. liquid refrigerant to the low side only C. liquid refrigerant to the high side only D. liquid refrigerant to the high or low side Ans: C 2052. When the temperature in a refrigerated space rises above its normal set point, which of the listed actions should occur FIRST? A. The thermal expansion valve will close B. The compressor will start C. The solenoid valve will open D. The automatic defrost timer will activate Ans: C

2053. Unless designed for such operation, two compressors should not be operated in parallel in a refrigeration system because the. . A. Operation of two compressors will overload the expansion valve B. condenser pressure will be too high causing condenser failure C. lubricating oil may be transferred from one compressor to the other D. evaporator would fail due to low suction pressure Ans: C 2054. The thermal bulbs for expansion valves used in air conditioning systems are charged with. A. fluids other than the system charge B. the same refrigerants as the system C. a mixed charge of fluids D. mercuric sulphate Ans: B 2055. A purge recovery is used in a centrifugal air conditioning or refrigeration system to. A. purge lube oil from the liquid refrigerant B. Recover water purged from the system C. separate foul gases from the receiver D. purge non condensable gases without losing refrigerant Ans: D 2056. In addition to pressure, most refrigerant compound gases are also calibrated in

A. saturated gas temperature B. superheated gas temperature C. absolute temperature D. absolute pressure Ans: A 2057. Which of the listed conditions would cause the thermal expansion valve to open? A. Rise in the gas temperature within the cooling coils B. compressor cutting out C. compressor cutting in D. A drop in the temperature of the cooling coils Ans: A 2058. In refrigeration systems with multiple evaporators, the metering of refrigerated space is accomplished by A. the king expansion valve B. individual coil expansion valve C. a solenoid valve in the liquid line D. individual back pressure regulating valves on all but the coldest box Ans: B

2059. The primary purpose of the liquid line strainer used in a refrigeration system is to prevent drift and scale from entering the A. solenoid and expansion valves

B. compressor and receiver C. condenser liquid line D. evaporator coil piping Ans: A 2060 Excessively tight drive belts installed between a motor and a refrigeration compressor pulley may cause _________ A. B. C. D. Overheated bearings Unnecessary motor loading Noisy All of the above

Ans: D

2061 Air conditioning duck-work begins at the large mixing chamber called the_________ A. B. C. D. Exhaust chamber Plenum chamber Intake chamber Vapor chamber

Ans: B

2062 If the people in an air conditioned room complain of begin too coll,the trouble might be that the _________ A. B. C. D. Preheater has failed to cutout Air velocity is too low Relative humidity is high Relative humidity is too low

Ans: D

2063 The dew point of air is reached when the wet bulb temperature is the ___________ A. Twice the dry bulb temperature B. 5 c above the dry bulb temperature C. 3 c above the dry bulb temperature D. Equal to the dry bulb temperature Ans: D 2064 In reference to air conditioning, when air attains the max. amout of moisture it can hold at a specific temperature, it is said to be____________ A. B. C. D. Superheated Saturated Condensed Convected

Ans: B

2065 If air at 35 c dry bulb temperature and 50% relative humidity is conditioned to 24 c dry bulb temperature and 50% relative humidity, it is an eg. Of ___________ A. B. C. D. Ans: C Cooling only Cooling and humidifying Cooling and dehumidifying Adiabatic cooling

2066 When the relief valve opens it discharges high pressure refrigerant vapor to the ____________ A. B. C. D. Ans: D 2067 Diclorodifluoromethane in vaporized in the presence of an open flame, will form ____________ A. B. C. D. Ans: B Carbon dioxide gas Phosgene gas Triclorodifluoromethane Sulphur dioxide Liquid strainer Refrigerant inlet of the condenser Inlet side of the evaporator Suction side of the compressor

2068 A pressure drop in the liquid line of a refrigeration system may cause___________ A. B. C. D. Ans: C The solenoid valve to seize The compressor to hunt Flash gas to form in the liquid line The expansion valve to freeze open

2069

Moisture is removed from air refrigeration system by ____________

A. Bleeding refrigeration from the condenser B. Opening a drain petcock on the oil separator

C. Condensing the water in the heat exchanger D. Using a dehydrator cartridge Ans: D

2070 In an operating refrigeration system low on refrigerant, a liquid line sight glass will_________ A. B. C. D. Be clear Be blue Be light green Show bubbles

Ans: D

2071 A. B. C. D.

Moisture entering a typical refrigeration system by_________ Boil in the condenser Be removed by the liquid line strainers Cause sweating and frost on the evaporator coils Freeze in the expansion valve

Ans : D

2072 Some refrigeration systems have chemical moisture indicators installed in conjunction with the sight glass in the liquid line. If excess moisture is present in the system, the indicator will___________ A. B. C. D. Activate the driers Change color Secure the compressor Add a predetermined amount of liquid drier

Ans: B

2073 In a refrigeration, where multiple evaporators are operating at different temperatures, and serviced by a single compressor and condensers, the control of individual coil temperatures should be carried out by adjustment of the__________ A. B. C. D. Thermostatic expansion valve Back pressure regulating valve King valve Box temperature solenoid valve

Ans: B

2074 A liquid indicator sight glass is useful in determining whether or not a refrigeration system is sufficiently charged. It is generally located in the _________ A. B. C. D. High pressure liquid line Low pressure liquid line High pressure vapor line Low pressure vapor line

Ans: A

2075 A liquid sight flow indicator in a refrigeration system is examined and gas bubbles are noted in motion with the fluid flow. This means__________ A. B. C. D. The system is fully charged There is air leaking in from the condenser Ice crystals are forming in the refrigerant The system contains less than a full charge of refrigerant

Ans: D

2076 Frost appearing on the evaporator coils of a multi-box direct expansion refrigeration system_________ A. B. C. D. Is best removed by means of an ice pick Will increase the refrigeration effect Can be removed by passing hot vapors through the coils Can be quickly removed by simply shutting down the coils

Ans: B

2077 In a water-cooled refrigeration system, the condenser cooling water regulating valve is controlled by__________ A. B. C. D. Temperature of the cooling water Refrigerant in the system Temperature of the refrigerant in the system Temperature of the refrigerant after compression

Ans: B

2078 When a refrigerated space reaches the desired temperature in a multibox refrigeration system, which of the listed actions will occur FIRST? A. B. C. D. The solenoid valve will close The expansion valve will open The low pressure cutout switch will stop the compression The high pressure cutout switch will stop the compression

Ans: A

2079 A totally white or yellow colored flame produced by a haide torch being used to test for refrigerant leaks indicates________ A. B. C. D. No R-12 leakage A partially clogged torch exploring tube An effective torch reaction plate A minute quantity of R-12 leakage

Ans: B

2080 A. B. C. D.

All refrigerant recovered from small appliances must be_________ Sent to a designated reclaim facility for processing Containing in a refillable recovery cylinder Destroyed as unusable Used to clean out burn-outs

Ans: B

2081 When air contains some moisture, but is not saturated, the dew point temperature is_________ A. B. C. D. Between the wet and dry bulb temperature Equal to the total heat of air Higher than the wet bulb temperature Lower then the dry-bulb temperature

Ans: D

2082 When pumping down an air conditioning system to test the low pressure cutout switch, you should_________ A. Stop the compressor

B. Secure the condenser C. Close the king valve D. Stop the circulating pump Ans: C

2083 The thermal bulb of an expansion valve that is attached to the evaporator tail coil should be__________ A. B. C. D. Installed on the bottom of the suction line Installed between the suction strainer and compressor Insulated before setting the superheat adjusting srew Insulated after installation

Ans: D

2084 A. B. C. D.

Purging is the process used to________ Eliminate moisture from the refrigeration system Separate refrigerant from oil Remove noncondensable gases from the refrigeration system Decreases the total amount of refrigerant in the system

Ans: C

2085 A. B. C. D.

In a direct expansion evaporator , the coils are _________

Covered with insulation Half covered with insulation Surrounded by air Surrounded by water

Ans: C

2086 Which of the device listed is used to limit frosting of evaporator coils on multiple box installations served by one compressor? A. B. C. D. Back pressure control valve Automatic expansion valve Capillary tube Solenoid valve

Ans: A

2087 In addition to removing water from a refrigerant, most dehydration also effectively remove entrapped_________ A. B. C. D. Acid Air Dichlorodifluoromethane Desiccant

Ans: A

2088 When you find a small refrigerant leak with a handle torch, the color of the torch flame will be_________ A. B. C. D. Orange Blue White Green

Ans: D

2089 The thermostatic expansion valve in a refrigeration system opens with pressure __________ A. B. C. D. Decreases in the evaporator Decreases in the expansion of valve control bulb Increases above the expansion valve diaphragm Increases in the solenoid valve

Ans: C

2090 When a refrigerated compartment of a multi-box system served by one compressor reaches the correct temperature control in that one compartment by a/an__________ A. B. C. D. Expansion valve Back pressure regulating valve Solenoid valve Low pressure cutout switch

Ans: C

2091 During the initial pull down of the box temperature in a refrigeration system, which of the devices listed is used to prevent excessive gas pressure at the compressor suction? A. B. C. D. Suction pressure hold back valve High pressure cutout Solenoid valve Low pressure cutout

Ans: A

2092 The device used to limit the passage of moisture through arefrigeration system is________ A. B. C. D. Humidifier Aerator Dehydrator Trap

Ans: C

2093 In an atmosphere of 100% relatively humility, the wet bulb thermometer would register a temperature_________ A. B. C. D. Above the dry bulb temperature Below the dry bulb temperature The same as the dry bulb temperature Above the dry bulb temperature, but below the saturation temperature

Ans: C

2094 When a refrigeration system is been charged through the low side, the _________ A. B. C. D. Refrigerant should be added as a vapor Suction service valve must be back seated Discharge service valve must be front seated Refrigerant drum should be turned upside down

Ans: A

2095 Copper piping has been used in refrigeration systems because_______________

A. B. C. D.

It is creep resistant at low temperatures It offers less interval friction Iron is corroded by R-12 Leaks are more easily detected in copper

Ans: B

2096 Loss of refrigerant during the purging process can be kept to a minimum by___________ A. B. C. D. Operating the dehydrator continuously Purging through the discharge service valve Cracking the purge valve briefly Closing the liquid line king valve

Ans: C

2097 In a refrigeration system, if the cooling water to the condenser fails the__________ A. B. C. D. Box temperature solenoid valve will close Expansion valve will close Compressor will shutdown King valve will open

Ans: C

2098 In a small appliance using HFC-134a you would expect to see the greatest temperature drop across the_______________ A. Evaporator B. Capillary tube

C. Compressor D. Receiver Ans: B 2099 which of the listed types of refrigeration compressors can be designed with short large diameter suction lines? A. B. C. D. Reciprocating Rotary Screw Centrifugal

Ans: D

2100 Which of the methods listed is most frequently used to control evaporator refrigerants flow rate in a shipboard refrigeration system? A. Direct expansion with constant superheat B. Indirect expansion with constant superheat C. Low side float control D. High side float control Ans:A

2102 The primary purpose of a thermostatic controlled solenoid value used in a multi-box refrigeration system is to____________ A. control the refrigerant flow to the evaporator B. bypass refrigerant flow to the evaporator C. maintain the proper refrigerant superheat D. stop the compresser when the evaporator reaches the proper temperature

Ans:C 2104 In a refrigeration system,the thermal expansionvalue sensing bulb is located___________ A. Near the evaporator coil outlet B. Near the evaporator coil inlet C. On the liquid line strainer D. At the solenoid value outlet Ans:A 2106 An operator pressure regulating valve (back, pressure, regulator) A. prevent compresser overload B. maintain a minimum evaporator pressure C. control liquid refrigerant pressure D. regulate refrigerant outlet superheat Ans:B 2107 when the solenoid valves in a refrigeration of closed the compressor will be stopped by the A.low water cutout B.low pressure cutout C.high pressur cutout D.sprin_loaded relife valve Ans B 2108 If the air temperature increases while the atmospheric remains constant the air will___________

A. have a greater capacity to absorb moisture B. absorb less free atmospheric moisture C. become supersaturated at high relative humidity D. give up moisture as condensation Ans:A 2110 In order to archive greater dehumidification with a air conditioning system you should ___________.I reduce the cooling coil temperature it increase the reheater temperature A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I and II 2112 The effective temperature of air is dependent upon__________ I relative humidity II .air velocity A. I only B. II only C. II only D. Neither I and II 2114 Which recovery phase will reduce the loss of oil during the recovery of refrigerants from small appliances such as a water cooler? A. Vapour recovery B. Liquid recovery C. Initial recovery D. Vapour liquid recovery

Ans:C 2116 One benefit of proper air circulation in a refrigerated cargo space is _______________ A. More temperature differential B. Increase moisture content C. Reduced slime and mold D. Increased density of the air Ans C 2118 Dehydrates are usually located in the liquid line of refrigeration systems in order to A. Remove oil from the refrigerant B. Prevent itching of the expansion valve C. Reduce compressor discharge line sweating D. Prevent liquid slugging in suction line AnsB 2101 The safest and quickest method of adding refrigent to a refrigent system is to add the refrigent throuh the A.discharge service vlave as a vapor B. suction service valveas a liquid C.charging valve as a liquid D.condensor relief valve as a vapour Ans C

2103 The purpose of running a refrigeration compressor in short intermittent spurts when starting a system after a prolonged shutdown is to A.allow the refrigent vapor cycling system B.insure proper operation of the compressor C.let the refrigeratin compartment cool gradually D.determine actual compressor oil level Ans B 2105 prior to making repairs on an evaprator located in a large multibox refrigeratin system ,you should remove the refrigent by A.pumping it from the system to be clean empty drum B.draining the system through the purge valve connected C.pumping all refrigent to the reciver D.exhausting it to the atmosphere Ans C 2109 Refigeration isolation valves are of double seated type in order to ___________ A. Allow for the operation as a suction or discharge valve B. Permit repacking under pressure C. Conserve space D. Allow for removal or replacement without ahutting down Ans:B

2111 Subcooling of the refrigerant to reduce the percent off gas is accomplished___________ I as the refrigerant passes through the expansion valve II in most water cooled condensers A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I and II Ans:B 2113 One of the primary steps in assisting someone who has been overcome by ammonia vapours is to___________ A. Ioosen all clothing B. Provide the victim with smelling salts C. Rinse the affected area with water D. Give the patient plenty of fresh air Ans:D 2115 To test for a suspected large refrigerant leak from a refrigeration system in a enclosed area,you should____________ A. Apply liquid ammonia to the suspected leak B. Apply a soap solution to a area of the suspected leak C. A halide leak detector to all piping joints D. Apply a hydroststic test with water Ans:B Ans B

2117 The high pressure cutout switch will stop the refrigeration centrifugal compression when there is A.stoppage of condensor cooling water flow B.fouled condensor tubes C.excessive air in the system D.all of the above Ans D 2119 Aliquid line solenoid valve controls refrigent flow to the evaprator by A.throtting the refrigent B.fully opening or closing C.sensing the superheat in the tall coil D.sensing the temperature in liquid line Ans B 2120 Low side passive charging of a refrigeration system may be speeded up by A. Warming the service cylinder with a torch B. Warming the service cylinder with a hot water C. Inverting the eservice cylinder D. Include the eservice cylinder Ans:B 2122 The thermostst controlling the operation of the solenoid valve to a refrigerated box senses___________ A. Evaporator coil inlet temperature B. Evaporator coil outlet temperature

C. Compressor discharge temperature D. The refrigerant box temperature Ans:C 2124which material should be used for ammonia refrigeration system evaporator cooling coil construction? A. Copper tubing with copper fins B. Copper tubing with aluminium fins C. Aluminum tubing with copper fins D. All the above may be used Ans:C 2126 The temperature in a refrigerated space is controlled by adjusting the thermostat connected to the__________ A. Suction line solenoid B. Thermostatic expansion valve C. Liquid line box solenoid D. Low pressure cutout switch Ans:B 2128 The water regulating valve installed in a refrigeration system is operated by the ____________ a. Compressor discharge temperature b. Compressor discharge preassure c. C.solinoil d. Sensing line from tail coil

Ans .b 2130 When used as refrigent , ammonia contaning moisture will act as corrosive mixture to_______________ A, steel component B,brass and broze metals C,stain less steal components D, all of the above are correct 2132 In an operating ,water cold , multi box refrigeration system, both low discharge and high succession preassure are being simultaneously experienced the porbable cause for this condition is a or an A,over charge refrigerant the system B, fouled shell and tube condence C, improper super neat adjustment on the low side D, discharge reliet valve leaking back to the suction side 2134 Refrigerant recovery equipment that is considered as being system dependent_____________ A. Must have its own power source B. Recovers refrigerant with the aid of components in the system C. Are portable units D. Can only recover liquid refrigerant Ans:B

2136 If u find the pressure of a R-12 refrigeration to bre worked on is 0 bar g___________ A. only recover the vapour refrigerant B. only recover the liquid refrigerant C. require liquid and vapour refrigerant D. do not recover the refrigerant Ans:B D.Sensing the temperature in the liquid line 2121, the invidiual box temperature of a multi box referensation syatem are controlled by .. A. B. C. D. ans.B 2123, Charging liquid CFC-11 into a system under a heavy vaccum could cause.. A. B. C. D. the purge unit to operate system secondary refrigerant to freeze air and moisture to enter the receiver rupture disk to rupture expansion valves solenoid valves back-pressure valves regulation of the cooling water

ANS. B 2125,

When checking the oil level in a refrigeration compressor, the most accurate reading is obtain A. B. C. D. immeadiately after purging immeadiately after charging after being secured for 3 hours with the sump heater secured immeately after shutdown following the prolonged period of operation

ANS.d 2127,

Standard driers used in many container type refrigeration systems may contains A. B. C. D. ANS.c 2129, The maximum level of moisture permitted an operating refrigeration system is. A. B. C. D. ANS.d 5 parts per million 8 parts per million 10 parts per million 15 parts per million activated charcoal or silica gel special chemicals to increase adsorbtion rates activated alumina or silica gel all the above may be used

2131 The thermal expansion valve reacts directly to the __________

A. temperature in the space being cooled B. liquid temperature pressure at the solenoid valve C. pressure drop at the evaporator coils D. refrigerant gas superheat at the coil outlet Ans:D 2133 When hot gas defrosting a refrigeration system one way to overcome the possibility of a large slug of liquid refrigerant entering the compressor suction is to use the installed________________ A. subcooler B. liquid extractors C. re-evaporator D. drain lines Ans:A 2135 The suction pressure which control the refrigeration compressor operation is actuated by_____________ A. pressure acting on the bellows B. temperature acting on the bellows C. temperature acting on a thermal element D. pressure acting on a compressor valves 2137When taking readings at the suction service valve of an operating refrigeration compressor_____________ A. the pressure or temperature reading is only required as the refrigerant is saturated B. the pressure and temperature reading is required as the refrigerant is probably sub cooled

C. the pressure and temperature reading is required as the refrigerant D. is un important as accurate readings at this location cannot be obtained Ans:C 2138 If a low pressure cutout switch will cause compressor in a refrigerant system to short cycle if the ___________ A. Refrigeraton valve thermal bulb loses the charge

2139, If the electric coil to a refrigeration system modulation valve develops an open the valve will .. A. Move to the open position due to the flow of refrigerant across valve orifice B. move to the open position due to the spring pressure acting upon the amature. C. tend to move to a centered position ,there by maintaining box temperature. D. remain in whatever position it was in prior to developing the open ANS; B 2140. the liquid line ,thermostatically controlled, solenoid valve is operated in response to the . A .superheat in the tail coil. B .temperature of the box. C. compressor suction pressure. D. compressor discharge pressure ANS; B.

2141. most refrigerants are originated primarily from which of the following base molecules? A. ammonia and carbon dioxide. B. ammonia and ethane. C. methane and sulfur dioxide. D. ethane and methane. 2142. refrigerant recovery cylinders are color coded.. A .gray top and yellow lower body B. gray top and light blue lower body C .light blue top and yellow lower body D. yellow top and gray body 2143.one function of the thermal expansion valve is to A. act as a pilot from the solenoid valve B. regulate the amount of refrigerant flow to the coil C. regulate the water flow D. turn the compressor off and on 2144. All refrigerant recovered from burned out small appliances must be A. sent to a designated reclaimation facility for processing. B. contained in a refillable cylinder C .destroyed although it can be reused D .used to clean burn- outs

2145. which of the following refrigerants is an interim retrofit replacement for R11? A.R-500 B.R-134a C.R-12 D.R-123 2146. when a thermostatic expansion valve is installed in a container refrigeration system , the sensing bulb may not require insulation if the bulb is installed. A. outside of the cooled air stream B. in the cooled air stream C. on the tail end of the condenser outlet pipe. D.at the mid horizontal level of the vertically run tail coil 2147. If passive recovery is used on a refrigeration unit a non operating compressor, the recovery should be made through................ A. high side only B. low side only C. high and low side only D. venting to atmosphere cannot be recovery. 2148. Which of the following instrument is used to measure the rate of air flow. A. thermometer B.Anemometer C. Psychrometer

D.Areometer 2149. Which current to the refrigeration system modulating valve is increased the. A. valve is moving to a more open position B. temperature of the box is increasing C. suction pressure of the compressor is increasing D. amount of the air flow through the condenser is decreasing 2150. Which of the refrigerants listed is considered as a suitable replacement for R-11? A. R-22 B. R-123 C. R-134a D. R-227 2151. Which of the refrigerants listed is considered as a suitable and limited ozone producing alternative for R-11? A. R-22 B. R-123 C. R-134a D. R-227 2152. Moisture is removed from CFC-12 using a recycler by.. A. Bleeding noncendensables off B. opening a drain petcock on the oil separator C. condensing the water in the condenser

D. using a dehydrator cartridge 2153. Of the four refrigerants CFC-11,CFC-12 HFC-134a and HCFC-22, HCFC-22 operates at the A. lowest system pressure with the lowest boiling point B. highest system pressure with the lowest boiling point C. lowest system pressure with the highest boiling point D. highest system pressure with the highest boiling point 2154. When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a refrigeneration compressor, extreme care must be taken to prevent A. any lubricant from contacting the carbon syrface that would cause the expulse of the saturated tellon film B. dirt and foreign particles from coming in contact with thw highly polished sealing surfaces C. the telfon film from being damaged by the corrosive effects of excessive handling D. shaft scoring due to improper use of the installation tools provided with the seal kits 2155.The watch engineer finds the cargo refrigeration compressor has blown the shaft seal. In the saturation he should.. A. secure the compressor at the once and close the suction anddischarge valve B. pump the system down and isolate the loak C. close the suction valve secure the compressor and then place the shaft seal D. tighten the shaft seal packing to reduce leakage sloe the compressor and operate the espansion valves by hand and repairs can be made

2156. Routine maintaneance on a central control rool hermetically sealed air conditioning unit should include.. A. changing the air filter B. recharging the system C. changing compressor lubricant D. renewing container vacuum. 2157. HCFC-123 presents health threats to service technician which may include its. A. flammability as a liquid B. freezing in the compressor C. toxic threats D. being caustic and strong offensive odor 2158. the most cost effective method of recovering refrigerant from chiller with more than 2.5 kgs of refrigerant to meet EPA requirement is to use a A .liquid pump B. vapor recovery machine C .liquid followed by vapor recovery D. vapor followed by liquid recovery ANS; C 2159. in an air conditioning system , low head pressure associated with a reciprocating compressor can be the result of . A .broken valve springs B. tight drive belts

C. high line voltage D. air in the system 2160.an obstructed expansion valve may be indicated by an incompletely cooled evaporator and A .a higher than discharge pressure B. frosting at the evaporator inlet C. a decrease in the amount of frosting across the drier D. frosting at the suction side of the compressor 2161. if a thermostatic expansion valve is adjusted for too high a superheat value.. A. all of the system liquid will follow to the evaporator coil. B. an insufficient amount of liquid will be fed to the evaporator C. an excessive amount of liquid will be fed to the evaporator D. only the required amount of refrigerant will enter the evaporator regardless of the required superheat value ANS; B 2162. if a thermostatic expansion valve is adjusted for too low a superheat value.. A. the efficiency of the unit will be increased B. too much liquid will be passed back to the evaporator C. the box temperature will increase causing an expansion of the volume of air D. the refrigeration effect will increase contributing to uncontrolled box temperatures

ANS; B 2163.any air mixture whose dew point remains constant will also have an unchanging. A.dry bulb temperature B. .wet bulb temperature C. specific humidity D. specific volume 2164. a Re heater in an air conditioning system functions to . A. control inlet air inlet temperature B. control inlet air inlet volume C. maintain relative humidity at15% D. restore conditioned air temperature to a comfortable level ANS; D 2165 a water regulating valve control the refrigeration condenser cooling water flow in response to condenser. A . cooling water outlet temperature B. liquid refrigerant outlet temperature C. liquid refrigerant outlet pressure D. refrigerant vapor inlet pressure ANS;D 2166. in a refrigerant plant one purpose of the receiver is to .. A. cool refrigerant gas

B. super heat the cool refrigerant C. store the refrigerant D. condense the refrigerant ANS;C 2167. oil separators installed in refrigeration system serves to. A. remove excess oil from the system B. remove all entrained in high pressure liquid lines C .return oil entrained in refrigerant vapor back to the compressor crankcase D. all of the above 2168. properties of a good refrigeration oil include . A. low wax content B. high pour point C. high viscosity D. all of the above ANS:A 2169. the receiver used in refrigeration system .. A. stores liquid refrigerant B. collects the non condensable gases C. allows refrigerant sub cooling D. prevents compressor surging ANS; A 2170. the purpose of the low cutout switch is to ..

A. maintain liquid refrigerant at the suction of the compressor. B. maintain a preset suction pressure to the compressor. C. start and stop t he compressor at preset operating pressures D. operate minimum efficiency. ANS; C 2171. the sensing line for the low pressure cutout switch to a refrigeration system is located.. A .in the chill box B. before the receiver C. on the suction side of the compressor D. on the discharge side of the compressor ANS: C 2172. The purpose of refrigeration system low pressure cut out switch is to A. protect the compressor from liquid flood back B. protect the compressor from low discharge pressure C. start and stop the compressor upon system demand D. start the compressor after a drop in the evaporator pressure Ans: C 2173. the temperature of the refrigerant in the evaporator coil depends mostly upon the A. refrigerant pressure in the evaporator B.cooling water temperature to the condenser

C. heat load in the refrigerator compartment D. solenoid valve in the liquid line Ans.A 2174. one cause of high head pressure occurring in a refrigeration system can be. A. insufficient cooling water to the condenser B. a low refrigerant charge in the system C. the liquid valveis open too much D. high evaporator superheat Ans.A 2175. The oil separator used in a ship board refrigeration system is located between the A. compressor discharge valve and the condenser B. condenser and the receiver C. receiver and the king valve D. receiver and the expansion valve Ans.A 2176. An oil separator is a device used to remove oil from the . A. liquid refrigerant B. receiver C. gaseous refrigerant D. expansion valve

Ans. C 2177. Low compressor head pressure in a refrigeration system can be caused by A. insufficient condenser cooling water B. excessive condenser cooling water C. air in the refrigeration system D. excessive refrigeration in the system Ans .B 2178. If the head pressure of reciprocarinf refrigeration compressor is excessive. A).the relief valve should open befor e the high pressure cutout B)the relief valve should open and allow the excess refrigerant to flow to the receiver C)the high pressure cutout switch should operate before the relief valve opens D)you should close in on the suction valve Ans.c

2179. A low refrigeration compressor discharge pressure can be caused by.. A. warm food in refrigerator B.waste zinc plates in the condenser C.leaky compressor discharge valves

D)faulty door gaskets on the refrigerator 2180)High suction pressure to a refrigeration system compressor is caused by A)the expansion valve is insufficiently opened B)the exPansion valve being open too wide C)the king valve is insufficiently open D)a dirty dehydrator Ans)B 2181)If a refrigeration compressor had developed a high suction pressure, the proble m could be a result of .. A)a minor accumulation of air or noncondesable gases in the system B)a leaking king valve C)a clogged subcooler D)liquid refrigerant flooding back from the coling coil Ans)d 2182)when a refrigeration compressor has developed a high head pressure as a result of a refrigerant overcharge you should A)increase the amount of cooling water to the condenser B)decrease the amount of cooling water to the condenser C)add more refrigerant to the system D)remove some refrigerant from the system Ans)d

2183)which of the following problems could cause the high pressure cutout switch to shut down the compressor in a refrigeration system? A)a shortage of liquid refrigerant B)excessive frost on the evaporator C)excessive condenser cooling water D)insufficient condenser cooling water flow Ans)d 2184)which of the conditions listed could cause excessively low refrigerant pressure at the compressor suction? A)insufficient flow of condenser cooling water B)the system is low on refrigerant C)the solenoid valve to the chill box is frozen in the open positon D)the high pressure cutout switch is inoperative Ans)b 2185)an excessive charge of refrigerant in an aircooled refrigeration system can cause. A)oil foaming in the compression B)higher than normal suction and discharge pressures with a higher box temperature C)higher than normal Discharge pressure with a normal box temperature D)the compressor to run continuously Ans)c 2186)noise in a refrigeration compressor can be causedby

A)wom bearings and piston pins B)slugging due to flooding back C)to much oil in circulation D)all of the above Ans)d 2187)a warme, than normal compressor suction line might be caused by A)insufficient lubrication B)insufficient refrigerant c)excess refrigerant D)excessive opening of the expansion valve Ans)b 2188)which of the conditions listed will cause a refrigeration compressor to run constantly without simultaneously decreasing the temperature in the refrigerated space? A)shortage of refrigerant oil B)slight shortage of refrigerant C)excessive condenser cooling water flow D)faulty expansion valve Ans)b 2189)if a substantial difference is maintained between the refrigerant the temperature and the box air temperature within the refrigerated compartment, this may result in .. A)slugging in the condenser

B)the evaporator coil to frost C)the compressor to short cycle D)the thermal expansion valve to malfunction Ans)b 2190)the low pressure side of a refrigeration system is considered to exist from the .. A)expansion valve to the compressor B)receiver to the expansion coil C)expansion valve to the evaporator D)condenser to the expansion valve Ans)a 2191)if the discharge valves on a refrigeration compressor are leaking badly, the compressor should A)run continuously B)not start C)have high discharge pressure D)short cycle on the high pressure switch Ans)a 2192)if the evaporator coil of a single box air cooled refrigerator accumulates frost, the compressor wil most likely. A)run continuously B)short cycle on low pressure cutout C)short cycle on high pressure cutout

D)fail to start Ans)b 2193)in a compression refrigeration cycle, the temperature of refrigerant experiences its greatest decrease in the.. A)evaporator B)compressor C)expansion valve. D)condenser Ans)c 2194)a refrigerant with oil in solution has a. A)higher boiling temperature for a given pressure than does a pure refrigerant B)lower boiling temperature for a given pressure than doesa pure refrigerant C)boiling pressure equal to thant of a pure refrigerant at a given pressure D)boiling point will not be affected by entrained oil Ans)a 2195)the temperature of a refrigerant gas is the highest.. A)at the compressor discharge B)at the compressor suction C)in the expansion valve D)in the receiver Ans)a 2196)refrigerant is circulated through a refrigeration system by the..

A)compressor B)condenser C)expansion valve D)evaporator Ans)a 2197)if condensation collects and drips off an evaporator coil , the temperature of the coils is A)a maximum of 21*f B0above 0*c but below the dew point C)21*f but above the dew point D)below 32*f and below the dew point Ans)b 2198)thermostatic expansion valves can be adjusted for . A)suction pressure only B)head pressure only C)superheat only D)suction pressure and box temperature Ans)c 2199)refrigerant enter the condenser as a .. A)high pressure liquid B)low pressure vapor C)high pressure vapor

D)low pressure liquid Ans)c 2200)which of the listed components is considered to separate the high pressure side of a refrigeration cycle from the low pressure side of the cycle? A)the condenser and the expansion valve B)the king valve and the solenoid valve C)the compressor and the expansion valve D)the condenser and the solenoid valve Ans)c 2201)the sudden reduction of pressure occurring within the crankcase of a refrigeration compressor during starting causes the .. A)sudden evaporation of wax crystals in the lubricant B)sudden evaporation of entrapped air in the lubricant C)release of refrigerant from the oil.refrigerant mixture D)release of dissolved lubricant from the refrigerant Ans)c 2202)which of the following statements is correct concerning a typical shipboard multi-coil refrigeration system? A)the liquid receiver functions to collect and remove noncondensable gases B)a thermostatic expansion valve is used to control refrigerated space temperature C)refrigerant temperature in an evaporator is directly releated to refrigerant pressure

D)dehydrators must be used continuously in a refrigeration system Ans)c 2208)foaming of the oil in a refrigeration compressor crankcase is caused by.. A)refrigerant boiling out of solution from the lube oil B)liquid refrigerant flooding the compressor and system C)lube oil viscosity being reduced by refrigerant dilution D)compressor suction pressure suddenly increasing Ans)a 2204)a cracked diaphragm in a thermostatic expansion valve will cause the valve to. A)return to a neutral position B)flood the evaporator C)open D)close Ans)d 2205)if a refrigeration compressor will not start, the reason may be A)the pressure regulating valve is not closing B)an excessive lack of a refrigerant in the system C)badly leaking a discharge valves D)worn piston rings Ans>b

2206)sludge may be formed in the oil in the crankcase of a reciprocationg air condition compressor as a result of.. A)refrigerant bubbles in the lube oil B)refrigerant reducing the lube oil viscosity C)oxidation of the lube oil from overheating D)reducing the floc or cloud point of the oil Ans)c 2207)the refrigeration compressor in a water cooled refrigeration system is shor cycling on the high pressure cutout switch one reason for this could be the.. A)system is low on refrigerant B)high pressure cutout switch is improperly adjusted C)discharge valves are leaking slightly D)discharge valves are leaking slightly D)discharge valves are leaking excessively Ans)b 2208)air trapped in a refrigeration system using a water cooled condenser is usually indicated by.. A)unusually high head pressure when compared to the existing temperature of the liquid refrigerant B)high than normal liquid level in the receiver C)unusually lower than normal discharge peressure when compared to the existing temperature of the liquid refrigerant D)higher than normal liquid refrigerant temperature

Ans)a 2209)a refrigeration unit will tend to short cycle when operating .. A)under heavy loads B)during hot gas defrost C)under light loads D)during starting conditions Ans)c 2210)sludge may form in the crankcase of an air conditioning compressor as a result of .. A)bubbling refrigerant B)overheating and oxidation C)lowered operating temperatures D)reducing the cloud or fl0c point Ans)b 2211)excessive circulation of the lubricating oil with the refrigerant in a refrigeration system will cause. A)carbon deposits on the compressor suction valves B)the evaporator temperature to increase C)rapid corrosion of the thermal expansion valve D)no operating problems Ans)b 2212)if a refrigeration crankcase compressor were shor cycling on the low pressure cutout switch, the cause might be that the.

A)system was overcharged with refrigerant B)system was low on refrigerant C)suction valves were leaking slightly D)relief valve was leaking slightly Ans)b 2213)if a liquid sight flow indicator in a refrigeration system shows gas bubbles in motion passing inside of the glass, there is A)too much refrigerant in the system B)oil entrained in the refrigerant C)less than a full charge of refrigerant in thesystem D)ice crystals forming in the refrigerant Ans)c 2214)the temperature at which water vapor in the atmosphere begins to condense is called. A)dew point temperature B)condensation temperature C)psychometric temperature D)absolute humidity temperature 2215)which of the problems listed could be indicated if a refrigerant liquid line is full of bubbles? A)proper refrigerant charge B)faulty expansion valve C)insufficient refrigerant

D)solenoid valve stuck open Ans)c 2216)which of the listed operations will cause an automatically controlled refrigeration compressor to restart? A.closing of solenoid valve B. Closing of the expansion valve C. An increase in the suction pressure D. Decreacing the suction pressure Ans: c

2217)salt water is typically provided to a refrigeration system to. A. Closing of the solenoid valve

A.cool the expasion valve B.Prevent refrigerant super heating C. condense the refrigerant gas d.prevent the motor heating Ans :c 2218 :R-12 is generally considered to be safe,nontoxic,non flammable,and nonexplosive refrigerant. It can, however, become highly toxic when A.Superheated outside the system B. In contact with an openflame

c.heated to the boiling point D. All of the above Ans: B 2219: In the presence of the open flame and hot surfaces,chlorinated flourocarbon refrigerants decomposes and form A.Petroleum cycle B.Phosgene gas C.water vapour D.carbon monoxide Ans:B 2220: ammonia when used as a refrigerantis valuable because of its high efficiency, it is however A.toxic B.flammable C.explosive D.all of the above Ans:D 2221: for safe storage,the maximum allowable temperature to which refrigerant bottles should be exposed is .. A.37.8c B.52c C.66c D .79c

Ans:B 2222 which of the following terms represents the form of heat removed from the refrigent in the condenser of a refrigation systrm? A.Latent heat of vapourisation. B.heat of compression. C.superheat. D.all of the above Ans:d 2223:when air at a given temperature,contains the maximum amount of moisture for that temperature,the air is said to be A.superheated B.saturated. C.condensing. D.evoporating. Ans:b 2224:which of the following factors will have the greatest effect on the heating load within a conditioned space? A.solar gain B.infiltration and ventilation air C.occupants inside the space D.entertainment equipment within the space. Ans:b

2225:The pressure range between the system cut in and cut out pressures in the refrigeration unit is known as A.opposing operational drag B.pressure distribution. C.differential. D.system purge. Ans:c 2226:when using a sling psychrometer to determine relative humidity ,the indicated difference between the dry bulb and the wet bulbreading is the A.relative humidity B.dew point C.wet bulbdepression D.partial saturation temperature Ans:c 2227:cold storage compartments used for frozen os chilled foods,may be eqipped with medium velocity air coolers to establish rapid convention and to A.prevent shrinkage and drying of stored foods B.deliver cooled air to all areas of the compartment C.prevent air from being cooled below the dew point D.eliminate all noxious odors in the compartment Ans.B 2228.which of the following statements is correct concerned a halide torch leak detector?

A.the probe should be moved rapidly over the area of a suspected leak B.the torch is effective in locating large leaks only C.the frame will turn green in the presence of r-12 D.a refrigerant gas mask must be worn while using the torch Ans.c 2229:which of the locations listed would be considered as the most common place to install a dryer in a refrigeration system? A.between the compressor and the condenser B.between the thermal expansion valve and the evaporator C.in the suction line D.in the liquid line Ans:D 2230:Cylindrical drier installed in halocarbon refrigerant systems should be arranged A:so that the liquid enters at the top and leaves at the bottom when locatedin the liquid line B. so that the liquid enters at the bottom and leaves at the top when locatedin the liquid line C. so that the gas enters at the bottom and leaves at the top when locatedin the liquid line D.horizontally if the drying agent is calcium oxide Ans:B 2231:if the flame of a halide leak detecting torch burns yellow which of the problems listed is indicated?

A.a restricted exploring tube B:a refrigeration leak C:a faulty reactor plate D:normal operation Ans:A 2232:tubing connections for refrigeration systems may be made by A:flaring B:soldering C:silver brazing D:all ob the above Ans:D 2233:in a small appliance using HFC-134a you would expect to see the greatest temperature dpor across the A:evaporator B:receiver C:compressor D:condenser Ans:d 2234:when air is at its dew point and there is no change in either the temperature or preesre,the air A:has a low absolute humidity B:has a lowest relative humidity

C:cannot give up its moisture D:will gain no additional moisture Ans:D 2235:In a refrigiration system ,the amount of superheat absorbed by the refrigerant is adjusted at the A:compressor B:condenser C:evaporator coil D:expansion value Ans:D 2236:which of the following statements is true concernung the use of dehydrator in refrigeration system? A:dehydrators must be used continuously B:dehydrators are usually installed in the liquid line C:Dehydrators are used when pumping down the system D:dehydrators are used when purging the system Ans:B 2237:The thermal expantion value installed in the refrigeration sytem is controlled by A:the solenoid valve energizing coil B:regulating the king valve C:a thermal bulb on the evaporated coil D:an electrically operated controller

Ans:C 2238:the thermostat controlling a refrigerated cargo box two way soleonoid valve senses A:evaporator coil inlet temperature B:tha refrigerated box temperature C:evaporator coil outlet temperature D:degree of refrigerant superheat Ans:B 2239:A dehydrator installed in a refrigeration system is used to remove A:noncondensable gases and vapours B:oil from the refrigerant C:refrigerant from the oil D:moisture from the system Ans:D 2240:A soleinoid valve used in a refrigeration system should be installed A:with the axis of the solenoid horizonte sensing temperature of the box and upstream of the thermal expansion valve B:upright sensing temperature of the box and upstream of the thermal expansion valve C:upright sensing temperature of the box and downstream of the thermal expansion valve D:upright sensing superheat of the tail coil and upstream of the thermal expansion valve

Ans:B 2241:The normal operation of the refrigeratin compressor should be to cycle on A:in response to the low pressure cutout switch and off in response to the high pressure cutout switch B:in response to the high pressure cutout switch and off in rseponse to the low pressure cutout switch C:and off in response to the low pressure cutout switch D:and off in response to the high pressure cutout switch Ans:C 2242:If the compressor must be operated in parallel in order to maintain the box temperature ,a care ful watch should be kept on the A:discharge pressure gauges of both compressors B:suction pressure gauges of both compressors C:expansion valves of both evaporator coils D:oil levels in both compressor crankcase Ans:D 2243:when starting a reciprocating refrigerant compressor that has been shutdown for a period of time , you should manually throttle the A.sea water valve B.king valve C.suction valve D.expansion valve

Ans:C 2244:leaking discharge reed valves in a refrigeration compressor should be A.reground B.relapped C.replaced D.rewound Ans.c 2245:what is the colour of the flame produced by a halide torch when there is no refrigerant present? A.orange B.blue C.red D.green Ans: B 2246:When a refrigiration compressor is in the off cyclethe thermal expasion valve.. A.is always wide open B.is always completely closed C.is open only until evaporator pressure is eqalised D.operates as if the system were in operation Ans:D

2247:some hot gas deforst system reheat the refrigerant just prior to its returning to the compressor to A.increase the circulation of liquid refrigerant B.prevent chill shocking the compressos suction valves C.improve the effience of the expansion valve D.reduce the damaging effects of liquids slugging Ans:D 2248:When adding oil to a refrigeration system pre cautions must be taken to ensure that A:to compressor suction pressure is not too high B:all aims is purged from the pump and charging fitting C:the high pressure cutout switch is held open to prevent accidental starting D:the condenser is completely shutdown first Ans: B 2249:If a refrigeration system were short of refrigerant ,the condition would result in A:continuous running of the compressor B:high suction pressure C:high discharge pressure D:short cycling of the compressor on the water failure switch Ans:A 2250:If only the chill box solenoid valve remains open the refrigeration compressor will eventually be stopped by

A:chill box thermostatic temperature switch B:low water cutout switch C:low pressure cutout switch D:high pressure cutout switch Ans:C 2251:When the sensing bulb of a thermostatic expansion valve is charged with a fluid different from the charge used in the system ,it is said to be A:blended charged B:straight charged C:mixed charged D:cross charged Ans:D 2252:which of the valves is listed is normally closed when charging the refrigeration system through the high side? A.dehydrator inlet valve B.liquid line king valve C.suction line valve D.thermal expansion valve Ans:B 2253:in a vapour pressure compression type refrigeration cycle the refrigerant temperature decreases the most in the . A.evaporator B.condenser

C.compressor D.expansion valve Ans:D

2254)in a refrigeration system,silica gel is used in the .. A)condenser B)dehydrator C)liquid strainer D)hygrometer ANS.B 2255)if the compressor is heard to knock while pumping down the low side for repairs, this is an indication of.. A)worn piston rings B)faulty bearings C)air being introduced to the system

D)foaming of the crankcase oil ANS.D

2256.A device used to hold open the refrigeration suction compressor suction valve that normally draws gas from suction manifold, but returns it to suction line without compressing it is called a-------------A.discharge line byepass B.cylinder unloader C.suction line bypass D.relief valve ANS.B 2257.When Two Refrigerated spaces in a refrige ation system are served by a single compressor,yet Are maintained at different temperature, a back pressure regulating valve serves to provide-----------A.a higher pressure in the evaporator coil in the colder box B.a higher pressure in the evaporator coil in the warmer box C.a lower pressure in the evaporator coil in the warmer box D.equal pressure in the evaporator coil of both box ANS:B

2258. A common secondary refrigerant useed in air conditioning systems abroad ship is---------------A.R-123 B.water C.nitrogen D.carrene ANS.B 2259.Refrigerant flow through a thermostatic expansion valve is gretest when the--------------------A.evaporator is warm and empty of refrigerant B.evaporator is cold and empty of refrigerant C.low side and high side pressure are equal D.low side pressure and thermal element pressure equalize ANS:A 2260.In refrigeration system,air is purged at the--------------A.expansion valve B.filter C.evaporater D.condenser ANS:D 2261.Thermostatic expansion values are opened---------------------A.by spring pressure and closed by refrigerant pressure

B.by refrigerant pressure and closed by spring pressure C.and closed by spring pressure D.and closed by refrigerant pressure ANS:B 2262which of the listed substance is used as an absorbing agent in the Shipboard dehydration of refrigeration systems? A.Ethylene glycol B.Sodium bromide C.silica gel D.Methyl glycol ANS:C 2263.The purpose of heating the oil in the sump of a secured refrigeration compressor is to----------------A.reduce the absorption of refrigerant by the lubricating oil B.prevent acidic pitting C.remove entrained water D.remove wax and gum ANS:A 2264.A partially fouled liquid line strainer in therefrigeration systerm will cause-------------i. an increase in the percent of flash gas ii. Desireable subcooling of the liquid. A.i only B.iionly

C.both i and ii D.neither i norii ANS:D 2265.which of the design features listed for a refrigerationvalve are used to reduce the possibility of loss of refrigerant from the system? A.back seating B.valve caps c.packless diaphragms D.all the above ANS:D 2266. A thermostatic expansion valve is designed to respond to----------------A.refrigerated space temperature B.compressor suction pressure C.vapour discharge pressure in cooling coils D.superheat in the tail coil ANS:D 2267. . A thermostatic expansion valve is designed to maintain constant-------------A.refrigerant flow B.box temperature C.outlet superheat D.coil pressure ANS:C

2268. three of the refrigerants covered under the low pressure system regulations are-----------A.CFC-11,CFC-113and CFC-114. B..CFC-11,CFC-113andH CFC-123. C.CFC-11,CFC-114andH CFC-123. D.CFC-11,CFC-114and H CFC-502 ANS:B 2269.WHEN ADDING OIL TO A REFRIGERANT SYSTEM,PRECAUTIONS MUST BE TAKEN TO ENSURE THAT.................. A.THE COMPRESSOR SUCTION PRESSURE IS NOT TOO HIGH B.ALL AIR IS PURGED FROM THE PUMP AND CHARGING FITTINGS C.THE PRESSURE CUTOUT SWITCH IS HELD OPEN TO PREVENT ACCIDENTAL STARTING D.THE CONDENSER IS COMPLETELY SHUTDOWN FIRST ANS:B 2270.A REHEATER,AS USED IN AIR CONDITIONING SYSTEM, IS DESIGNED TO CONTROL THE.. A.CHILLED WATER TEMPERATURE B.DEW POINT TEMPERATURE C.PRIMARY AIR TEMPERATURE D.DRY BULB TEMPERATURE ANS:D

2271.A SECONDARY REFRIGERANT COMMONLY USED IN SHIPBOARD AIR CONDITIONING SYSTEM IS.. A.METHYL CHLORIDE B.WATER C.CARBON DIOXIDE D.TRICHLOROETHYLENE ANS:B 2272.A ROOM NUMIDISTAT INITIATES THE LOWERING OF THE HUMIDITY OF THECONDITIONED SUPPLY AIR TO SPACE,WHILE THE ACTUAL PROCESS IS ACCOMPLISHED BY A.RAISING THE COOLING COIL TEMPERATURE AND LOWERING THE REHEATER TEMPERATURE B.RAISING BOTH THE COOLING COIL TEMPERATURE AND THE REHEATER TEMPERATURE C.LOWERING BOTH THE COOLING COIL TEMPERATURE AND THE REHEATER TEMPERATURE D.LOWERING THE COOLING COIL TEMPERATURE AND RAISING THE REHEATER TEMPERATURE ANS:D 2273.NEWLY DEVELOPED REFRIGERANTS,USED TOREDUCESTRATOSPHERIC OZONE DEPLETION,ARE SOMETIMES REFERED TO AS AZEOTROPIC.THIS MEANS THAT THE RESULTING LIQUID A.WILL CONDENSE AT A TEMPERATURE LOWER THAN THE BOILING POINT OF THE COMPONANT WITH THE LOWEST BOILING POINT

B.BOILS AT A TEMPERATURE EQUAL TO THE BOILING POINT OF THE COMPONENT WITH THE LOWEST BOILING POINT C.WILL CONDENSE AT A TEMPERATURE EQUAL TO THE HIGHEST CONDENSATION POINT OF THE COMPONENT WITH A CONDENSATION POINT EQUAL TO ANY ONE OF THE COMPONENTS D.BOILS AT A TEMPERATURE INDEPENDENT OF ANY INDIVIDUAL COMPONENTS IN THE MIXTURE ANS:D 2274.IF A REFRIGERATION COMPRESSOR WERE SHORT CYCLING ON THE LOW PRESSURE CUTOUT THE SWITCH, THE CAUSE MIGHT BE THAT THE.. A.SYSTEM WAS OVER CHANGED WITH REFRIGERANT B.SYSTEM WAS LOW ON OIL C.SUCTION VALVES WERE LEAKING SLIGHTLY D.SYSTEM WAS LOW ON REFRIGERANT ANS:D 2275.THE PROHIBITION AGAINST THE VENTING OF HALOGENATED FLOROCARBON REFRIGERANTS TO THE ATMOSPHERE REQUIRES THAT, AT A MINIMUM THE REFRIGERANT MUST BE. A.RECOVERED B.RECLAIMED C.RECYCLED D.DESTROYED ANS:A

2276.IF THE DISCHARGE VALVES ON A REFRIGERATION COMPRESSOR ARE LEAKING SLIGHTLY,THE COMPRESSOR WILL A.RUN CONTINOUSLY B.NOT START C.SHORT CYCLE ON THE WATER LOW PRESSURE SWITCH D.SHORT CYCLE ON THE HIGH PRESSURE SWITCH ANS:A 2277.CONSIDERING EQUAL CAPACITIES,WHICH REFRIGERATION SYSTEM CAN EMPLOYED THE SMALLEST COMPRESSOR? A.AMMONIA B.CARBON DIOXIDE C.DICHLORODIFLUOROMETHANE D.MONOCHLORODIFLUOROMETHANE ANS:A 2278.WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM VOLUME TO WHICH REFILLABLE REFRIGERATION CYLINDERS SHOULD BE FILLED? A.60%FULL B.70%FULL C.80%FULL D.90%FULL ANS:C 2279. IN ADDITION TO MOISTURE,A REFRIGERANT DEHYDRATOR CHARGED WITH SILICA GEL IS DESIGNED TO ABSORB..

A.REFRIGERANTS B.ACIDS C.NONCONDENSABLE GASES D.REFRIGERANT OIL ANS:B 2280.WHICH REFRIGERANT LISTED HAS THE HIGHEST LATENT HEAT PER KG? A.R-22 B.AMMONIA C.R-134 D.SULFUR DI OXIDE ANS:B 2281.THE CHEMICAL FORMULA FOR OZONE IS REPRESENTED AS.. A.0 B.02 C.03 D.0Z ANS:C 2282.AVERAGE CONDENSING PRESSURES OF AN AMMONIA REFRIGERATIONSYSTEM RANGE BETWEEN A.8 AND 11 BAR g B.9 AND 11.5 BAR g C.9.5 AND 12 BAR g

D.10 AND 13 BAR g Ans:D 2283.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DEVICES IS THE SAFEST TO USE WHEN LOCATING AMMONIA LEAKS? A.LITMUS PAPER B.SULPHUR CANDLE C.HALIDE TORCH D.ALL OF THE ABOVE ARE RECOMMENDED ANS:A 2284.PURE ANHYDROUS AMMONIA IS CONSIDERED NONCORROSIVE TO A.IRON ONLY B.STEEL ONLY C.COPPER-BEARING METALS D.NONE OF THE ABOVE ARE CORRECT ANS:C 2285.FOR MOST REFRIGERATION SPLIT SYSTEMS THAT USE ONE SIGHT GLASS,A GOOD LOCATION FOR THE SIGHT GLASS IS JUST A.BEFORE THE COMPRESSOR SUCTION LINE B.AFTER THE COMPRESSOR DISCHARGE C.UPSTREAM OF THE CONDENSER D.UPSTREAM OF THE LIQUID METERING DEVICE ANS:D

2286.OVERFILLING A REFRIGERANT CONTAINER IS EXTREMELY DANGEROUS BECAUSE OF THE HIGH PRESSURE GENERATED.THE GENERATION OF PRESSURE IS THE.. A.VAPOR PRESSURE OF THE REFRIGERANT B.DISCHARGE PRESSURE OF THE RECOVERY COMPRESSOR D.DISCHARGE PRESSURE FROM THE RECOVERY CYLINDER ANS:C 2287.A FLAPPER VALVE,ALSO KNOWN AS A BEAM VALVE,IS FREQUENTLY USED IN REFRIGERATION COMPRESSOR DISCHARGE VALVES,AND IS DESIGNED TO.. A.FEED DISCHARGE PRESSURE TO THE SUCTION LINE B.AID IN HOT GAS DEFROSTING C.PASS LIQUID SLUGS D.EQUALIZE SYSTEM PRESSURE FOR COMPRESSOR CYCLING ANS:C 2288.WHAT IS THE EQUIVALENT TONNAGE OF A REFRIGERATION SYATEM RATED AT 48,000 BTU PER HOUR? A.2.5 B.3 C.4 D.5 ANS:C 2289.R-12 HAS BEEN SUITABLE REFRIGERANT FOR USE IN HIGH TEMPERATURE APPLICATIONS WITH

A.RECIPROCATING COMPRESSORS B.ROTATORY COMPRESSORS C.CENTRIFUGAL COMPRESSORS D.ALL OF THE ABOVE ANS:D 2290.IF YOU KNOW THAT A REFRIGERTION SYSTEM IS LEAKING REFRIGERANT,YOU WOULD FIRST.. A.RECOVER THE REFRIGERANT B.CHARGE THE SYSTEM C.LOOK FOR THE TRACES OF OIL D.EVACUATE THE SYSTEM ANS:C 2291.WHICH OF THE DEVICES LISTED WILL INDICATE THE PROPER OPERATION OF A REFRIGERATION SYSTEM DRYER? A.DRYER SENSING BULB B.MCLEOD GAGE C.PARTICULATE TEST D.MOISTURE INDICATOR ANS:D 2292.IN A MULTI-EVAPORATOR REFRIGERATION SYSTEM, A SOLENOID VALVE IS INSTALLED IN THE LINE BEFORE.. A.THE RECEIVER B.EACH EXPANSION VALVE

C.THE CONDENSER D.THE OIL SEPARATOR ANS:B 2293.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS REGARDING REFRIGERATION SYSTEMS IS/ARE TRUE? A.IN ANY REFRIGERATION SYSTEM,OIL AND REFRIGERANT ARE ALWAYS PRESENT B.REFRIGERANT IS THE WORKING FLUID AND IS REQUIRED FOR COOLING C.THE MAIN PURPOSE OF THE OIL IS TO LUBRICATE THE COMPRESSOR D.ALL OF THE ABOVE ANS:D 2294.IN A REFRIGERATION SYSTEM,THE CONDENSER COOLING WATER REGULATING VALVE IS DIRECTLY CONTROLED BY THE. A.TEMPERATURE OF THE COOLING WATER B.COMPRESSOR DISCHARGE PRESSURE C.AMOUNT OF THE REFRIGERANT IN THE SYSTEM D.TEMPERATURE OF THE REFRIGERANT AFTER EXPANSION ANS:B 2295.IN A REFRIGERATION SYSTEM WITH A THERMOSTATIC EXPANSION VALVE,THE COMPONENT INSTALLED AFTER THE MEETING DEVICE IS THE. A.EVAPORATOR B.RECEIVER C.COMPRESSOR

D.SOLENOID VALVE ANS: A

2296. how doses a refiregiration solinoid valve differ from a modulating valve? a. A solienoid valve can only be installed in liquid lines b. A liquid line solinoid valve is either completely opened or closed where as modulation valve is positioned according to the strength of the appalied electrical siginal c. solienoid valves are only used in low voltage refirigi ration control systems while modulation valves are used in high voltage applications. d. both valves operation in exatly the same manner, only the manifacturer teriminalogy is the differentating factor. Ans:B 2297.What differentiatessystem-dependerand self contained recovery devices in refirigi ration systems? A. self contained recovery devices can only be used on large CGSandHCFC units. B. self contained recovey devices usally contain a compressor systemdependent recovery devices do not.

C. the system compressor must be working to use system dependent devices, the system compressor may or may not be operational when self contained devices are used. D. there is no difference between the devices. Ans:B 2298. when air is at its dew point it is at its _ A.lowest absolute humidity B. lowest releative humadity C. higest absolute humidity D. higest releastive humidity Ans:D 2299. The refirigirents referred to as CFCS are_ A. fully haloginated. B. partially haloginated C.not haloginated at all D. completelly filled with hydrogen atoms. Ans:A 2300. if u find any extremely large refirigirant leak while using a halide torch your flame will_ A. B. C. D. Ans: C Change from blue to orange. Flare up and remain lightend Probably go out Stay blue.

2301. CFC refirigi rants exposed to high temperature or direct flame will decompose and may produce_ A. B. C. D. Methyl chloride Ammonia Hydro fluric acid Completely filled with hydrogen atoms

Ans:C 2302. in a chilled water air conditining unit usci[procating compressor, the refirigirating effect of the primary refrigerent canbe incresed by_ A. B. C. D. Incresing refrigerent pressur in the coil Incresing chilled water flow through coller Subcooling the refirigerent in the condensor Super heating the refrigerent in the compressor Ans:C

2303. The movement of the armature with in a modulating valve are used on some refrigeration system Is opposed by the. A. B. C. D. ans:D 2304.alkyl benzene iso 32 CST refrigernt oil is misible and suittable to use with A. B. C. D. R22 R32 R134 R143 Pressur of the flash gas developed. Vaccum formed as the refrigerent flows through the valve. Weight of the armature. Spring force

Ans:A

2305. the speed of a belt driven ventilation fan can be incresed with out changing the motor speed by using A. B. C. D. Small dia fan Smallerdia drive pulley Larger dia fan Larger dia drive pulley

Ans:D 2306. a un tagged refrigerent cylinder it is light sky blue and the refregerent it contains is A. B. C. D. CFC 12 CFC11 HCFC2 HFC134a

Ans:D 2307. ina refrigeration system the bulb for the thermal expansion valve is always located A. B. C. D. In middle of the evaparater coils Near the evaporator coil outlet Near evaporator coil inlet Beginning of the bottom row of evaporator coil

Ans:B 2308. refrigiration system using forced air circulation evaporator coil have tendency to cause rapid de hydration of foods unless A. B. C. D. A complete change of aire takes placer with in each 30 s interaval Foods are packed in coragated storage boxes Air is circulated with min temp cahange A humidifier is installed inrefrigiration system

Ans:C 2309. coil of refrigiration oil can indicate various operating conditions of compressor refrigiration system I nwhich it is usedblack oil can be indication of A. B. C. D. Copper plating cost by moistures Bearing or piston scoring Carbonisation resultiong in air in the system Gas cut break down

Ans:C

2310. to add refrigerent to a low side of air conditing system used through their A. B. C. D. Suction service valve as a vapor Suction service valve as a liquid Discharge service valve as a vapor Charging valve as a liquid

Ans:A

2311.the color of the oil observed in the o perating refrigeration compressor experiencing ber\aring wear or piston scoring would appear_ A. B. C. D. Grey or mettalic color Black Clear ,heavier particles would gravitate to the bottom of the sump .As a light blue green

Ans:A 2312. replacing the thermo static valve sencing ulb it is neccesary to A. Apply light film of oil to increase heat transfar B. Apply light film of oiul to prevent oxoi\dation

C. Apply heavy coating of greesa to function asa heat sink D. All of the above Ans:B 2313. expansion valve maintaenence should include A. B. C. D. Cleaning of in line filters Ensuring that the bulb goo contact in suction line Checking that thermal bulb is correct location all the above

ans:D 2314. which chemical symbol represent ammonia A. B. C. D. AM3 AMM3 NM3 DNH3

Ans:D 2315. when the opening or closing compressor service and line valvs on atypicalrefrigi ration system,you_ A. B. C. D. Should turn valves slowly to avoid thermasl satress due to low temp Must first remove remove the seal cap Should examine the gasket frequently to ensure tat is flat Should never tighten the packing gland

Ans:B 2316. which of the refriregerence listed as a boiling point of 33c at atmospheric pr. A. Methyl chloride B. So2

C. Nh3 D. Brine Ans:C 2317. if a refrigiration system is over charged with ref regerenton result will be A. B. C. D. Low suction High normal compressur head pressur Increase system operating effeicency Short cycling on low pressur

Ans:B 2318. if the super heat valve of thermo expansion valve is adjusted to high the A. B. C. D. Box temp will continious ly rise Rate at condensation occurs Suction line of a compressor will abnormally warm Rate of condensation occurs on the evaporator coil will increase

Ans:C 2319. a small obstruction at the thermo static expansion valve inlet will result in which of the following conditions. A. Suction pressur fluctiation B. Hunting asa indicated by fluctuations of the dischargr pressur C. Expansion valves are designed to pass small foreign particals to adverse condirtion will occur D. Ice is the sole cause of this and weill soopn melt due to super heat adverse condition occur Ans:A 2320. the relative humadity can be deter mined by usuing a sico metric chart and a

A. B. C. D.

Hydro meter Sling psychrometer Anaroid baro meter Compond baro meter

Ans:B 2321. if a refrigiu ration compressor in amulti box system runs continusly the cause might be highpressur A. B. C. D. High pressur switch stucdk in the closed position Clooged mechanical scale trap Shortage of ref rege rent Defective thermal bulb

Ans:C 2322. respiratory heat is a term appalied primarily to which of the following cargoes A. B. C. D. Fresh vegatables Meat Frozen vegatabels All of the above

Ans:A 2323. if the thermal bulb of an expansion valve is in correctly placed at the center of the coil I instead of the end it will_ A. B. C. D. Increase the capacity of the coil Increase super heat of the bulb Deliver more refregerent to the coil Decrease the capacity of the coil

Ans:D 2324. the ref rigeration system low pressur cut out switch is actuated by

A. B. C. D.

An electric system manager A sensing ulb at the tail coil of the evaporator Pressur changes in the suction line Failure of the king solenoid wall

Ans:C 2325. a one ton air conditioning system has which of the listed operating characteristics A. B. C. D. It forcess 1,000kgs of refregerent through through the evaporator per day It forces 1,000 kgs air per hour across the avaporator coils It cooling power equals is that of melting point 1,oookg of ice per day It contains 1,000kgs of refregerant

Ans:B 2326. An increasing heat pressur in an refregerent system without any corresponding change in the cooling water inlet temp woulds probabely caused byA. B. C. D. Restriction in refregerent piping Air and non condensable gases in the condensor Water in the refre gernt Flooding book of liquid refrigerent from the evaporator

Ans:B 2327. a thermo static expansion valve is propally controling evaporator super heat adjusting this valve to the lower suprendent will result ina\an_ A. B. C. D. Ans:B Evaporaer pressue decerease Evaporaor coil over feed Evaporaer capacity increase Expansion valve diapharm rupture

2328. an imporatnt consederation in selecting inan lubricationg oil for use in a refrgeration compreeso\r is for the oil to A. B. C. D. Have a high viscosity index Mix readily with refregernt Have high freezing point Low pour point

Ans:D 2329. a pressur drops through the refregerent line may cause A. B. C. D. A solinoid valve 2 ceese Compressor to hunt Formation of flasg gas in liquid line Expansion valve to freeze open

Ans:c 2330. which of the problem listed wold cause the discharge temp of a oR 12 refrigeration comnpressor to increase A. B. C. D. Thermal expansion valve frozen open Suction gas heat exchangerby passed Condensor closed or foulded High pressur cut out switch inoperative

Ans:C 2331. which of the conditiopns listed is one indication of an excessive amountb of refregernt in the system A. B. C. D. Safety valve lifting Prolenged duribg Short cycling Oil absorbed in the crank case

Ans:C2332. If the suction pressure for an operating refrigeration compressor is below normal cause may be A .an excess of liquid refrigerant B. the expansion valve overfeeding C .a fouled compressor suction strainer D. the compressor short cycling ANS ;C 2333.If one box in a multiple box direct expansion type refrigeration system was experiencing an excessively low temperature this could be a result of A. liquid refrigerant returning to the compressor B. excessive frost on the cooling coils C. a leaking hand expansion valve D. an oversized expansion valve ANS:C 2334. In a refrigeration system equipped with a reciprocating compressor and a water cooled condensing unit, leaking compressor discharge valves will result in A. refrigerant flooding of the compressor B. low suction pressure D. low heat pressure ANS:D 2335.If R-12 is maintained at approximately 8kg/cm2 when discharged by the compressor, which of the listed values would represent its saturation temperature?

A. -18c B. 6c C.10c D.37.8c ANS:D

2336. If you change from a low pour point lubricant to a highpour point lubricant in a refrigeration system A. compressor lubrication will be improved B. oil will not leave the crankcase C. compressor valves will be damaged D. oil may congeal in the evaporator ANS:D 2337. To correct the condition of slugging and flooding back in a refrigeration system, it may be necessary to A. re-adjust the discharge pressure B. clean the expansion valve screen C. add refrigerant D. adjust the expansion valve a ANS: D 2338.If a refrigeration system were short of refrigerant, the condition would result in A. continuous running of the compressor

B. high suction pressure C .short cycling of the compressor on the water failure switch ANS:A 2339. Frost appearing on one set of evaporator coils of a multi-box, direct expansion type refrigeration system A. increase the value of superheat to the fluid leaving the coils B. will assist in increasing the refrigeration effect C. can be removed by passing hot vapors through the coils D. can be quickly removed by simply shutting off fluid flow to the coils ANS;C 2340. which of the condition listed represents the greatest effect of excess frost accumulation on the evaporator coils? A. keeps the refrigerated space coolers B. Reduces the efficiency of the plarit C. takes the load of the compressor D. has no affect on the system ANS; B 2341. in the refrigeration system a shortage of refrigerant is indicated by A. the compression short cycling on high pressure cut but switch B. high suction pressure C. high head pressure D. bubbles in the sight glass

ANS; D 2344.the refrigerant gas returning the compressor should be A. superheated B. saturated C. dense D. flooded ANS;A 2345.in which of the listed refrigeration system components does superheating of the refrigerant take place A. expansion valve B. evavorator C. drier D.receiver ANS;B 2346.under normal conditions,the refrigerant enters the compressor in an operating refrigeration system as a A. liquid B.dry saturated gas C.wet saturated gas D superheated vapor ANS;D 2347.excessive oil foaming in the crankcase of a refrigeration compression can result in

A. overheated compressor bearings B. excess lube oil viscosity C. carbon deposits on the compressor diston rings D. wax crystal forming in the oricant ANS;A 2348.in a refrigeration system foaming of the crankcase oil may cause the A. expansions valve to overfeed B. compressor to knock C.water regulating valve to fall D.crankcase drains to plug ANS ;B 2349.which of the listed characteristics can be applied to R-12 vapor ?. A.it is corrosive B.it odorless C.it is visible as a blue fog D . it has a distinctive taste ANS ;B 2350.sludge may form in the lubricating oil crankcase of a reciprocating air conditioning compressor as a result of A.wax precipitation in the lube oil B.contamination by dust scale or moisture C.refrigerant bubbles in the lube oil

D.refrigerant reducing the lube oil viscosity ANS ;B 2351.the presence of bubbles in a refrigeration system liquid line may A. promote refrigerant deny cration B. be absorbed in the receiver C.cause low condensing pressure D.carry moisture and lead to corrosion ANS;D 2352.the compressor in an air cooled condensing refrigeration system is short cycling on the high pressure cutout switch a probable reason for this is the A.system overcharged with refrigerant B.the system is low on refrigerant C.discharge valves are leaking excessively D.discharge valves are leaking slightly ANS;A 2353.which of the listed statements is a characternstic of the liquid charged power element used with thermostatic expansion valves A.at the designed operating temperature the liquid refrigerant charged has changed to a vapor B.the liquid refrigerant tends to collect at the bellows or diaphragm and reduces the valve sensitivity C.the sensing bulb is empty of liquid refrigerant charged at the designed operating temperature

D.the sensing bulb is never emptied of liquid refrigerant under normal operating condition ANS ;D 2354.if a refrigeration compressor is short cycling on high pressure you should A.purge the concernser if the water side is dirty B.check for proper water flow through the condenser C.increase the high pressure cutout setting D.reduce the cooling water flow ANS ;B 2355. a constant hissing sound at the thermal expansion valve will always indicates A.proper refrigerant control B.a faulty refrigerant control valve C.a lack of refrigerant D.the flow of 100% liquid refrigerant passing to the evaporator ANS:C 2356. which of the problems listed could cause erosion of the expansion valve disks and seats? A. overcharging the system with refrigerant B. Faulty compressor suction valve C.failure of the high pressure cutout D. Flash gas formed in the liquid line ANS:D

2357.Refrigeraion system compressor crankcase sweating is an indication of A. insufficient lube oil circulating through the system B. excessive circulation of lube oil through the system C. insufficient refrigent in the system D. an overworked compressor ANS:B 2358. A refrigeration system compressor crankcase is sweating of unusually cold. this is an indication of A. a shortage of refrigerant in the system B. air in the system C. an accumulation of liquid refrigerant in the crankcase D. a shortage of oil in the crankcase ANS: C 2359. sweating of the refrigeration system compressor crankcase is caused by A .too much superheat B .insufficient superheat C .suction pressure too low D.exessive refrigerant returning to the compressor ANS:D 2360. the effect of high vapor superheat in refrigeration system is a A.Increased capacity of the compressor B.more efficient operation of the thermal expansion valve

C.decreased of the compressor D.loss of receiver caoacity ANS:C 2361. on all vessels equipped with refrigeration units of over 0.566 cubic meters(20 cubic foot) capacity A. a gas mask suitable for protection against each refrigerant used ,or a self contained breathing apparatus must be provided B. it is the solo responsibility of the chief engineer to accertain at all members of the engineering department are familiar with the use of gas of breathing apparatus C.spare charges shall be carried for atleast 50% of each size and variety of gas masks and or self contained breathing apparatus D.all of the above ANS ;A 2362.frosting or sweating of the suction line of the reciprocating refrigeration compressor indicates a condition which could result in severe damage due to A.minor amounts of oil in the refrigerant B.liquid slugging C.insufficient refrigerant D.a failed heat interchanger ANS;B 2363.which of the following statements is correct concerning the testing of an R-12 refrigeration system for leaks an enclosed compartment ?

A.to gain sensitivity the largest possible flame should be used with the halide torch B.the flame of a halide torch will turn blue in the presence of R-12 C.halide torches are usefull in locating very small R-12 leaks D.rapid leak testing is possible with the halide torch since there is no time lag between the time air enter the exploring tube until it hits the reactor plate ANS ;C 2364.which of the following statement regarding low pressure reciprocating air compressor valves is correct ? A.a relatively large clearance space is required for the valves B.mechanical operating valve gear is required to open and close the valves C.only the suction valve requires a push rod and rocker arm mechanism for valve operation D.due to the physical construction of the valves a relatively small cylinder clearance of required ANS ;D 2365.the principal purpose of subcooling liquid refrigerant prior to its entering the expansion valve is to A.increase the refrigerating effect by decreasing the amount of flash gas B.allow the refrigerant to enter the throttling device in a saturated condition C.increase the refrigerating effect by increasing the amount of flash gas D.minimize the temperature drop of the liquid as it passes through the solenoid valve to the outlet side

ANS;A 2366)when you adjust a thermostatic expansion valve A)refrigerant must beledoff the sensing line before adjustments are made B.all refrigerant must be pumped before adjustment are made C.time must be allowed for condition to stabilize in the evaporator before further adjustment are made D.all refrigerant routed through the dehydrator while change the super heats setting Ans)c

2367)each pressure vessel containing refrigerants which may be isolated sahall be A)subject to annual hydrostatic tests to be performed in the presence of a marine inspector B.protected by a relief valve set to relief at a pressure not exceeding 1.10%to the maximum allowable working pressure of the vessel C.store in a upright position in addition to being secured so as to prevent accidental release of the refrigerant with in a confinement space D. protected by a relief valve set to relief at a pressure not exceeding maximum allowable working pressure of the vessel Ans)d 2368. when removing the primary refrigent from a system using water as a secondary refrigerant, its important to follow which procedure to safeguards the equipment?

insure that the water does not become contaminated with the oil in the direct contact heat exchangers A. insure that the water and the refrigrants separator id functioning properly B. insure that the water is drained or continually circulating to avoid freeze up C. leave some refrigerant in the system to prevent the water from contamining the refrigerant if there is leak ANS;C 2369; if the combination indicator and the sight glass indicates an accumulation of moisture within the system which of the listed procedures would be the most practical to follow? A. secure the system ,dissemble and de ice the expansion valves B. close the king valve, pump down the system , isolate the drier remove and replace with the new drier C. purge the entire system to the atmosphere replace the drier D. none of the above ANS;B 2370; THE RECIVER USED IN THE REFRIGRATION SYSTEM -------A. stores the liquid refrigrants B. collects non condensable gases C. allows refrigrants to be sub cooled D. prevents liquid refrigrants ANS; A 2371;which refrigeration system will require the sue of an oil trap? A. brine B. ammonia C. methyl chloride

D. all the above ANS;B 2372; which of the following refrigrants is considered to be the oldest in use? A. methyl chloride B. sulphurdi oxide C. ammonia D. carbon di oxide ANS;A 2373;a refrigerant used in a mechanical refrigeration system should have? A. HIGH BOILING POINT B. HIGH FREEZING POINT C. LOW SPECIFIC HEAT D. LOW BOILING POINT ANS;D 2374; all refrigrants systems must be protected with a --------A. PRESSURE RELIF DEVICE B. REFRIGRANT RECIVER C. HIGH PRESSURE CUTT OFF D. CLOG OF OIL TRAP ANS;A 2375 apurge cycle is required on all pressures because -----------A. such chiller can operate at high pressure B. EVACUATION OF ALL AIR FROM CHILLER IS NOT POSSIBLE C. chillers are not used D. no refrigrants are used 2376. moisture in the refrigent may -------------A. freeze on the expansion valve seat and reduce the flow of the liquid refrigent

B. emulsifying the oil in the condenser C. freeze in the king valve D. clog the trap ANS;A 2377; an ammonia leak will turn moistened pink litmus paper __________ A. orange B. red C. purple D. blue ANS;D 2378; to prevent motor overload during start-up of a hermetically sealed centrifugal system , the compressor suction gas variable inlet guide vanes remains--------A. closed until the motor is connected B. opened until the motor is connected C. closed until the motor is connected across the line at full voltage and current drawn is below loaded D. opened until the motor is connected ANS;C 2379; a slight glass is installed in the liquid line to indicate the condition of the refrigent charge may also indicate-----------A. condition of expansion B. moisture in the system C. condition of the compressor suction valves D. condenser temperature ANS;B

2380; the primary purpose of the thermostatic expansion valve as used in most plants to-------------------------A. regulate refrigerant B. not proper superheated C. maintain a constant degree of superheated at the evaporation coil outlet D. maintain constant evaporator 2381; the primary function of a pressure regulator installed in a system is to ---------A .limit the minimum evaporator pressure to ensure excessively low box temperatures cold coil temperatures are not reached B. maintain an constant temperature C. maintain an evaporator D. adjust an compressor suction pressure to load demandsANS; A 2382. a large evaporator coil has been determined to have a pressure drop of 0.3bar g can be compensated for by -------- 1. adjusting the thermostatic expansion valve spring compression and raising the super heat valve 2. installing an externally equal A.1 only B.2 only C.both 1 and 2 D. neither 1 nor 2 Ans; B 2383. the compressor used in an air cooled air conditioning systemis short cycling. A service check determines the suction pressure is above the normal cut in point

with an exceptionally high head pressure and high superheated at the evaporator. This proabab A.loosely fitted compressor drive belt B.partially opened liquid service valve C.reduction in condenser airflow (dirty condenser) D.fully closed discharge service servic e valve ANS;C 2384. in an refrigeration system , once the compound gage manifold lines areattached to the service connections, you should as certain that the valves on the gauges manifold are closed and then------------A. open the discharge valve service port closing the service valve B.continue to backseat the discharge service valve by turning it clockwise C. open the discharge valve service port by closing the service valves approximately 1\4 to 1\2 of a turn D.open only the valves connected to the discharge service service fitting on the outlet of the king valve ANS;C 2385.the addition to the outermost scale on the lowside compound gauge fitted to the portable service manifold. There are often one or more other scales on the faces of the gauges ,these are-------------A. pressure scales for different refrigents B.pressure scales for variying ambient temperatures C.temperature scales for variying ambient temperatures D.temperature scales for different refrigents

ANS;D 2386. when repairing a refrigretion system, a swedge would be used to carryout which of the following operations? A. swedges are used during to remove any sweated edges formed on the tubing while soldering B. swdges are used during the breaking in of refrigation compressed and drive motors C. a swedge is no longer used with reparing systems due to progressive changes in the tool industry D. swedges can be used to expand an end of one tube to fit onto a tube of the same external diameter ANS;D 2387; which of the installation steps listed is necessary for the proper operation of the thermostatic expansion valve? A. clean off oxidation from the surfaces of the suction line and sensing bulb with fine cloth B. clean outlet pipe and secure bulb tangentially to the flow of refrigants C. remove excess lengths of the sensing bulb capillary tube from the device to increase the sensitivity D. heat shrink insulating material around the device once the bulb has been properly secured ANS;B 2388. an economizer or heat exchanger in a refrigeration system , using a reciprocating compressor functions to----------A. reduce the possibility of the liquid refrigrants slugging the compressor

B. raise the temperature of the liquid refrigerant C. cool the suction vapour returning to the compressor D. raise the refergant saturation temperature in the evaporation ANS;A 2389.in an air conditioning system ,moisture is removed from the air by------------A. filters B. seprators C. ducted traps D. dehumidifiers 2390. a large evaporator coil has been determined to have a pressure drop of 5psig and can be compensated for by---------------A. increasing compressor volumetric efficiency B. producing higher compression pressures C. both a and b D. neither a nor b ANS;D 2391; A PARTICULAR SPACE IS AIR CONDITIONED BY A TON WATER COOLED SYSTEM ,WHILE TROUBLESHOOTING THE SPACE IS FOUND TO BE TOO WARM AND THE COMPRESSOR IS NOT OPENING. A. a liquid line service valve is partially closed B. the expansion valve feeler bulb is loosely clamped to the suction line C. the suction pressure control contacts are stuck open

D. a suction line is linked or partially obstructed and blocking refrigerant circulation ANS;C 2392;double trunk piston are used in some refrigrants to reduce refrigrants boil off by----A. increasing volumetric efficiency B. producing higher compression pressures C. Minimizing free contact between refrigrants and the oil in the crankcase D. Eliminating the need for a shaft seal E. ANS;C 2393;hot gas bypass is one of the methods used to----------A. relive excessive compressor head pressure B. produce flash gas at the expansion valve C. reduce flooding of the reciver at the loads D. defrost the evaporator coils ANS;D 2394. when multiple refrigrants boxes are maintaining individual temperatures and supplied by a single refrigeration compressor the individual box temperatures are controlled by the----------A. suction valves B. solenoid valves C. expansion valves D. compressor speed ANS;B 2395. the best time to check the oil level in the compressor in a typical refrigeration system is when the compressor is stopped after a longperiod of running ,this is because the------------A. oil has had time to mix properly withnthe refrigrants

B. refrigerant has had time to separate from the oil C. oil trap has been able to return sufficient oil to the sump D. oil heaters are secured thereby , ensuring that a false level is not read ANS;B

2396 The presence of flash gas in the high pressure lines of arefrigeration system is undesireable because ________ I erosion of the txv valve seat can be increased .it refrigeration system capacity will be reduced. A.1 only B.11 only C.both 1and 11 D. neither 1nor 11 Ans;c 2397 Insection of the water-sides of chillers and condenser for leaking tubes should be conducted on A regular basis .how frequently on a minimum basis should these insections be conducted A once a month B once every six month C once a year D once every other year Ans B

2398 a multiple evaporator coil unit is equipped with a suc tion-pressure regulating valve . This valve must be by passed when pumping down the system for repairs because reduction of suction pressure would cause the valve to_______________ A rupture B open C close D chatter Ans;c 2399 toi prevent the unnecessary loading of an air-conditioning system while maintaining the designed dry bulb temperature and relative humidity in an air conditioning system, you should A admit only enough fresh outside air to provide proper ventilation B reduce the air reheating system load C lower the compressor head pressure D operate the purge recovery until continuously Ans A 2400 when purging a gage manifold,which of the fittings listed is normally tightened fast ? A. The hose fitting at the discharge valve is fighten ed last after purging the low pressure line B. The fitting at the discharge and suction valves of the compressor are both closed simultaneously to pre vent objective cross flows C. The hose fitting at the suction service valve is tightened last afterpurging the center connection.

d. the low pressure Ans;c 2401 in a refrigeration system, which of the following statements describes the actions occurring when a solenoid value used in conjunction with an un loader head is energized? A. The solenoid valve directs high pressure gas to the value lifting devices raising the suction value off its seat and causing one specific cylinder to become un loaded B. The solenoid valve directs high pressure gas to the underside of the piston, causing it to raise And allowing the recircling ports to be opened C. When the solenoid valve becomes energized the valve ports become closed allowing discharge Pressure to built up pressure above the piston shifting it and causing it to unload D .the solenoid valve allows the refrigerant to pass from the suction chamber to the top of the Unloaded piston causing the piston to lift and unload the cylinder Ans:D 2402 which of the following statements describes the accepted method for testing a thermostatic expansion valve A .heat the bulb by using a halide torch are similar device and observe the valve stem movement b. remove the power head from the unit heat the bulb with a torch while using as a scale to measure the distance the diaphragm as moved

C. chill the bulb in the ice water while observing the compressor for an increase in suction pressure D. place the sensing bulb in the in ice water and then warm by hand change at observe flood through and temperature change at the suction line Ans:D 2403 during test to discover why a refridgeration compressor is running excessively it is determined that the refrigerator space temperature is nearly normal the suction is slightly normal ,and the head pressure is low in this situation you A. leaking door gaskets B. high cooling water temperature C. air in the system D. a shortage of refrigerant Ans:A 2404 .a refrigeration system is equipped with reciprocating compressor and a water cooled condensing Unit if the system is over charged the resulting high head pressure will be caused by A. the expansion valve overfeeding the evapourator B. the leaking compressor suction valve C. an incorrectly adjusted high pressure cutout D. refrigerant flooding the condenser Ans:D

2405. A reciprocating refrigeration compressor may be tested for leaking discharge valves by stopping the compressor ,turning the discharge service valve all the way in , and then turning the compressor overby hand. If the discharge valves are leaking ,the comp A. rising and falling with each stroke B. increasing with each stroke C. decreasing with each stroke D. decreasing to a vacuum Ans:A 2406. one refrigeration is equal to A.45kcal/hr B.500kcal/hr C.3,024kcal/hr D.750,000kcal/hr Ans : C 2407 Moisture in a refrigeration system can cause A . freezing the expansion valve closed B. corrosion of system piping C. improper temperature regulation D. all of the above Ans:D 2408The ratio of the weight of moisture contained in a given volume of air ,to the weight of moisture

That the same sample would hold if saturated , is called the A. B. C. D. Absolute humidity relative humidity Specific humidity Total humidity

Ans: B 2409 how is water travelling along the shaft of a centrifugal pump prevented from entering the shaft bearing? A. B. C. D. Ans: B 2410 which of the listed types of pumps is NOT likely to be installed in main drainage or evacuation System? A. B. C. D. Reciprocating pump Centrifugal pump High pitch rotary vane pump Educator pump Ans:C Shaft seal Water finger Drain hole Lantern ring

2411 why are removable sleeves installed on centrifugal pump shafts? A. they make it easier to replace the pump shaft packing B. They can be economically replaced as they wearout. C. they can be removed when it is necessary to lighten the weight of the pump D. They increase the strength of the pump

Ans:B 2412 A boiler forced draft pressure gage indicates 15 cms of water. This corresponds to a pressure Of A.150 mm WG B.200 mm WG C.300 mm WG D.500 mm WG Ans:A 2413 An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most often caused by A. B. C. D. Defective intake valves Clogged suction strainers Scarred cylinder walls Clogged drain valves Ans:B

2414 Increasing the speed of a rotary pump above its rated speed will result in which of the following Conditions to occur? A. B. C. D. Loss of suction Increased clearances Decreased clearances Decreased slippage Ans:B

2415 . Propeller pumps are used primarily where there is a need to move a large volume of liquid . However, their use is limited by a max total head of_______

A. B. C. D.

6 to 12 meters 10 to 17 meters 12 to 20 meters 17 to 24 meters Ans:c 2416. if a centrifugal pump is driven by a constant speed electric speed and produces a discharge pressure less than designed , the cause is probably_______ A. excessive pump speed B.excessive suction speed C. worn wearing rings D. gross pump misalignment Ans:C 2417. which features of a centrifugal pump reduce the need for renewing worn impellers and pump casings A.close radial clearance beteen impeller hub and casing B. low stational speed of impeller C. removable end plate D. replaceable impeller and casing wearing rings Ans:D 2418.a centrifugal pump may failure to delover water when 1st started if the _________ A.water seal pipe is plugged B.pump is not primed C.seal ring is improperly located D.impeller is felled ANS.B 2419.when piston rod packing presits in leaking on reciprocating steam pump the cause may be_________ A.a loose tapet collar B.clogged suction strainer C.an open snitter valve D.mis alignment of the cross head guide

ANS.D 2420.if u were operating a centrifugal water with warm wearing rings the_________ A.pump would be very noisy B.pump would vibrate excessively C.pump would develop in sufficient flow D.stuffing box would leak excessively. ANS.C 2421. the pump packing gland has been tightend by small incriments by small incriments until the gland has bottomed . which of the actions listed should be carried out next if the leakage continues to be excessive? A)replace all of the packing B.replace with larger cross sectional turns of packing C.replace the soft packing with packing turns that are covered with lead wrap D.continue to add more turns of packing Ans.D 2422.a centrifugal pump vibrates excessively during operation upon disassembling the pump it is found that the impeller is out of balance without an available spare, you should. A.drill holes through the heavy side of the impeller until it balances B.weld counterweights to the light side of the impeller C.remove metal from the heavy side by machinging in a lathe D.acid ah and scrape the heavy side unitl it balances Ans.C 2423.if the discharge valve is closed before the drive motor is stopped which of the following types of pumps will most likely to be dragged? A,centrifugal B.gear C.propeller D.turbine Ans.B

2424.inorder to properly remove air from the casing of a centrifugal pump when starting the pump should have a.. A.positive head B.neagative suction head C.mechanical seal D.vent valve attached to the casing at the top of the volute Ans.D 2425.air leakage between the shaft and stuffing box packing in a centrifugal pump is prevented by A.a compressed packing gland B.a lantern rings between the packing rings C.a liquid seal D.the stuffing box gland Ans.C 2426.the suction force principle of operation is a typical characteristic of.. A.centrifugal lpumps B.jet pumps C.propeller pumps D.reciprocating pumps 2427.assume identical impeller diameter width and speed which of the following impellers will produce the greatest liquid velocity? A.a single stage straight vane impeller B.a single stage curved vane impeller C.a dual integral impeller unit oprating at 10% lower space 2428.most pump manufacturers recommend that the suction piping dimension for centrifugal pumps be A.one size smaller than the pump suction nozzle B.the same size as the pump suction nozzle C.one size larger than the pump suction nozzle D.A dual impeller with multiple stepped vanes Ans. B

2429) A latten ring is A. the bottom ring in a set of piston rings B. the oil slinger on a spring bearing C. used to distribute seal water through out the pump stuffing box D. the lifting ring on each running light Ans. C 2430) A pump is defined as a device that A. produces pressure B. imparts energy to a fluid to move it from level A to level B C. creates a vacuum to move a liquid in all installations D. is to develop a pressure differential Ans. B 2431) In Which of the following description would centrifugal pump impeller cavitations most likely occur if the impeller diameter ,rotating speed and liquid temperature are the same? A. In the second stage of a two stage pump B. A single stage impeller with straight vanes C. A single stage impeller with curved vanes D. A two stage pump with an operating speed 100RPM less than spectified Ans. C 2432) Most pump manufacture recommended that the discharge piping for centrifugal pumps be one size larger than the pump discharge nozzle to

A. reduce the pump discharge pressure B. reduce the frictional losses due to fluid flow C. increase the pump discharge pressure D. allow rapid venting of entrained air Ans. B 2433) The purpose of the wearing rings used in a centrifugal pump is to A. prevent an internal explosion in the pump when it is overheated B. enable a visual inspection of the pump while it is running C. insure a proper alignment of the pump coupling to the driver D. accommodate for friction between the impeller and casing Ans. D 2434)clearances between the impeller hub and causing of a centrifugal pump are checked with the use of A. wooden wedges B. an accurate set of feeler gages C. a machinists rule D. a deptin micrometer Ans. B 2435) The first step when beginning to set the slide valves on a duplex reciprocating pump is to A. open the relief valve to prevent accidental starting B. ensure the balance piston is on the down stroke

C. center the steam piston in the cylinders D. measure the present port openings to ensure reassembly will be the same Ans. C 2436) The basic function of the centrifugal pump impeller is to A. directly increase the pressure of the liquid being pumped B. directly increase the velocity of the liquid being pumped C. convert the potential energy of the liquid to kinetic energy D. separate air from the liquid being pumped Ans. B 2437) Which of the following methods applies to how a vacuum is created by a jet pump or an educator? A. centrifugal force converted into potential energy B. a reciprocating plunger directly applying force to a liquid C. a rapidly moving stream of fluid passing through a nozzle D. a propeller drawing a fluid through a venture nozzle Ans. C 2438) The total energy of stroke in a reciprocating steam pump can be adjusted by A. increasing or decreasing the number of packing rings around the piston rod B. variations in the throttle adjustment C. twisting the stay rod in a clockwise direction D. changing the setting of the tappet collars on the operating rod

Ans. D 2439) which of the following centrifugal pump components converts the liquid kinetic energy of velocity to the potential energy of pressure? A. impeller B. electric motor C. volute D. eye Ans. C 2440) If a bilge pump is able to develop vacuum but is unable to sufficently pump out the bilges, you would check formal of the following EXEPT A. the circuit breaker B. for leaks in the suction piping C. relief valve is not properly seated D. the suction strainer Ans. A 2441) one of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the discharge valve closed, is that the A. motor overload will open B. relief valve will open C. pump will overheat D. motor will overheat Ans. C

2442)If an operating bilge pump is developing good vacuum, but is unable to discharge any water , which of the following problems is the most probable cause? A. the wearing rings are excessively worn B. the suction strainer is clogged C. the discharge valve is clogged D. the shalt is worn. Ans. B 2443) Ina centrifugal pump, the seal piping directs liquid from the discharge side of the pump to the A. packing gland B. wearing ring C. stuffing D. lantern ring Ans. D 2444) In a reciprocating pump, the position of the pilot valve is controlled by the position of the A. main steam piston valve B. piston in the steam cylinder C. cushioning valve D. governor valve spindle Ans. B 2445) which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal pumps?

A. they are particularly suited for pumping high viscosity fluids B. they are started with the discharge valve opened C. the flow of liquid is developed by imparting energy due to the rotating of an impeller D. they are always mounted in a horizontal position Ans. C 2446) A centrifugal pump attempting to develop flow against a closed discharge valve has a/an A. capacity of 0% B. efficiency of 100% C. internal slippage of 0% D. shut off horsepower rating of 100% Ans. A 2447) The capacity of a rotary pump, delivering a constant viscosity fluid will decrease when the discharge pressure is increased due to A. decrease suction pressure B. increase suction pressure C. reduced slippage D. increased slippage Ans. D 2448) If an centrifugal pump operating with a positive suction head becomes air bound your FIRST response should be to A. vent the casing

B. close the discharge C. tightness the packing D. reprime the pump Ans. A 2449) If you have a simple acting reciprocating pump making 100 strokes/minute with a 60 diameter cylinder a 7 stroke operating with a 90% volumetric efficiency what is the capacity of this pump? A. 105gpm B. 39gpm C. 77gpm D. 107gpm Ans. B 2450) Generally, centrifugal pumps operating without a positive suction head must be primed before they will move liquid on their own. The priming is usually accomplished with a A. regenerative pump B. rotating liquid piston pump C. jet pump D. turbine pump 2451) A recirulating or bleed offline is installed on a centrifugal pump in order to A. establish a back pressure at the labyrinth seal to eliminate leakage B. equalize pressure on both sides of the suction valve disc C. prevent the pump from overheating when operating at shutoff head

D. decrease the net positive suction head Ans. C 2452) To thoroughly pump out the bilges using a horizontally mounted centrifugal pump, the A. pump must always be primed B. volute must impart a radial and rotary motion of the water C. suction side connection must guide the liquid to the lantern rings D. stuffing box should not be allowed any water leakage Ans. A 2453) A cracking noise coming from a centrifugal pump casing is an induction of A. insufficient packing B. an oversized lantern ring C. excessive suction lift D. reversed pumping rotation Ans. C 2454) Excessive wear on a centrifugal pump shaft sleeve will A. cause severe vibration when the pump is operating B. cause excessive leakage past the packing gland C. cause damage in the stuffing box D. allow interstage leakage in the pump casing glands Ans. B

2455) Excessive wear on the packing rings nearest the pump packing gland while the rings nearest the impeller the remain in good condition is caused by A. failure to insert and individually seat the rings on rings one ring at a time B. insufficient tightening of the packing gland C. failure to tighten the packing gland in a single adjustment D. cutting the rings nearest the gland too short Ans. A 2456) It is possible to mount a double suction centrifugal pump impeller with the vanes in the wrong direction . This would cause the pump A. head capacity to improve B. discharge to be reversed C. efficiency to decrease D. slippage to decrease Ans. C 2457) Radial thrust developed in high pressure centrifugal pumps can be eliminated by the use of A. single volutes B. a single diffusion nozzle C. a diffusion ring D. a modified thrust bearing Ans. C 2458) The usual symptoms of cavitation in a centrifugal pump is A. noise and vibration

B. an increase in pressure C. an increase in suction pressure D. lifting of the relief valve Ans. A 2459) If misalignment between a pump and its and its driving source exceeds that specified by the pump manufacture the shaft A. flexible coupling will absorb all such misalignment B. total end float travel will be excessive C. lateral float will be greatly increased D. bearings will be overloaded and will fail Ans. D 2460) If the shaft packing for a centrifugal pump requires replacement more frequently than normal , a possible cause may be A. worn bearings B. worn mechanical seats C. a pump suction D. wrong direction of pump rotation Ans. A 2461) when shifting suction from one fresh water tank to another if the fresh water pump loss suction you should A. loosen the mechanical seal B. vent the pump casing C. check the discharge strainers

D. all the above Ans. B 2462) which of the listed types of steam end piston rod packing should be used in a steam reciprocating pump? A. reinforced rubber packing B. wire impregnated high temperature packing C. low pressure braided asbestos packing D. high pressure graphite packing Ans. D 2463)which of the following conditions will prevent a shipboard pump from achieving its maximum suction lift? A. leaks developed in the suction piping B. friction losses as a result of improperly sized pipe C. gases or vapors released in the liquid as a result of greater normal pressure drops D. all the above Ans. D 2464) liquid is kept from leaking out at the shaft ends of a helical gear pump by A. overlapping spaces between gear teeth B. a roller bearing C. a stuffing box D. the use of shaft end caps Ans. C

2465) Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps handling toxic of highly flammable liquids that cannot be permitted to escape into the atmosphere? A. Conventional stuffing box B. External mechanical seal C. double mechanical seal D. Rubber bellows mechanical seal

2466) If you heard a cracking sound occurring within a centrifugal pump, the most probable source of the noise would be the A. shaft sleeves B. discharge volutes C. wearing rings D. pump suction Ans:C 2467)closed impellers differ from open impellers in that closed impellers. A)allow liquid to enter the eye from one direction only B)have side walls which extend from the eye to the outer edge of the vane tips C)have small impeller eyes D)are not vented above the impeller eye Ans)b 2468)the factors that determine the service life of packing in a pump will include which of the following conditions?

A)type of pump B)condition of the shaft C)length of time in use D)all the above Ans)d 2469)foot valves are primarily designed to .. A)give a pump motor or driver positive protection when operating in a shutoff condition B)provide a means of supplying sealing fluid for the impeller shaft stuffing box C)enable a pump and its suction line to remain primed prior to starting the pump D)afford the pumping system protection against water hammer and surging Ans)c 2470)a centrifugal bilge pump requires priming. A)primarilt to lubricate the shaft seals B)due to the inability of this type of pump to lift water to cover the suction (eye)of the impeller C)to initially upload the pump by having its head pressure equal to discharge pressure D)in order to overcome the potential energy of water in the discharge line Ans)b 2471)to maintain design discharge pressure from a centrifugal lpump the design clearance must be maintained between the A)shaft and impeller

B)motor and pump shaft C)casing and impeller wearing rings D)lantern ring and impeller Ans)c 2472)in a direct expansion type multi-box refrigeration system the compressor is set up to cycle on and off by the.. A)pressurestaf B)high pressure cutout C)solenoid valve D)low lpressure cutout switch Ans)d 2473)the static suction lift of a pump is the difference in elevation between the.. A)centerline of the pump and the level of the liquid in the suction well when the source of liquid is below the pump B)centerline of the pump and the suction liquid level when the source of liquid is above the pump C)centerline of the pump and the level of the discharge liquid D)liquid level of the suction and discharge Ans)a 2474)which of the following statements represents the advantage of rotary pumps as compared to reciprocating pumps? A)the high discharge pressure of the rotary pumps permits a larger volume of fluid kper unit time than the reciprocating pump

B)rotary pumps are capable of pumping more fluid than reciprocating pumps of the same weight C)rotary pumps occupy only one half the space of reciprocating pumps D)rotary pumps eliminate discharge slippage of the pumped liquid while this does not hold true for a reciprocatingpump Ans)b 2475)which of the listed devices is used to control the admission of steam to the steam cylinder of a reciprocating pump? A)valve operating differential B)crosshead arm C)pump rod D)pilot valve and operating rod Ans )d 2476)a distinguishing feature of an educator, when compared to other pumps is the.. A)discharge end being smaller than the suction end B)small size of impeller C)lack of moving parts D)ease at which the wearing rings may be changed Ans)c 2477)which of the devices listed is common to all types of pumps? A)a power end and fluid end B)a propeller and educator

C)a volute and impeller D)a turbine and piston Ans)a 2478)lantern rings are provided on centrifugal pumps to.. A)allow illuminated inspection of shaft and packing B)provide a passage for the stuffing to sealing liquid C)adjust leakage at the shaft gland D)allow for distortion of wearing rings Ans)b 2479)if a centrifugal lpump vibrates and is noisy when operating the cause could be. A)worn gland sealing shaft B)worn wearing rings C)a bent shaft D)reversed pump coupling Ans)c 2480)which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of the liquid entering a pump? A)allow illuminated inspection of shaft and packing B)provide a passage for the stuffing be sealing liquid C)adjust leakage at the shaft gland D)allow for distortion of the wearing rings

Ans)b 2481)excessive lost motion in the valve mechanism of a duplex reciprocating pump will cause the A)pump to short stroke continuously at both ends of the stroke for both cylinders B)pistons to stop in mid stroke C)pump to operate sluggiably D)cushioning valves to wear Ans)c 2482)one of the main functions of wearing rings as used in a centrifugal pumps is to.. A)maintain radial alignment between the pump impeller and casing B)absorb all impeller shaft end thrust C)prevent water leakage to the atmosphere D)prevent wear of the pump casing and or impeller Ans)d 2483)the seal piping obtains liquid from the discharge side of the pump and directs the liquid to the.. A)packing gland B)wearing ring C)stuffing D)lantern ring Ans)d

2484)which of the pumping systems listed for use aboard ship will most likely use a propeller type pump? A)fluid power transmission system B)main circulating system C)steering gear system D)fuel oil service booster system Ans)b 2485)when securing a steam reciprocating pump,which of the valves listed should remain open? A)steam supply valve B)steam exhaust valve C)steam cylinder drain valve D)water cylinder drain valve 2486)on many modern tankers which of the following devices is used to reduce cargo pump leakage to the pump room bilge? A)flinger rings B)mechanical seals C)shaft sleeves D)clipper seals Ans)b 2487)which of the following intervals must the cargo pump relief valves of tank vessels be tested? A)prior to each fuel discharge operation

B)atleast once each voyage C)atleast once a year D)at each bieonial inspection 2488)which of the following intervals do regulations require the remote cutout for the fuel oil service pumps to be tested? A)prior to each sailing B)once each month C)at each fire and boat drill D)at each inspection for certification Ans)d 2489)you suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship and begin to slowly close the discharge valve.your suspicion is confirmed when the A)discharge valve is closed off and there is no change in the discharge pressure B)discharge valve is 80%closed and the relief valve lifts C)suction valve is closed off and the discharge pressure begins to decrease D)suction is closed off, yet the relief valve does not lift Ans)a 2490)if a centrifugal pump is driven by a constant speed prime mover and produces a flow rate less than the designed specifications the cause could be.. A)suction absolute pressure greatly exceeds corresponding vapor pressure of liquid being pumped B)excessive suction head

C)pump packing gland misalignment D)worn wearing rings Ans)d 2492)when repacking a reciprocating pump with more than four rings of packing the packing is cut square installed with the ends abutted and each succeeding ring staggered with the butted ends A)45*apart B)90*apart C)120*apart D)180*apart Ans)b 2492)what would be the probable cause if a pump were unable to maintain necessary discharge pressure to a system?failure of the coupling used on a close coupled pump II)fracture of one packing gland bolt A)I only B)II only C)both I and II D)neither I nor II Ans)d 2493)wht would be the result of throtting the suction valve to the point where the flow was less than that recommended by a centrifugal pump manufacture?I.the discharge head would be reduced.II)the pump would begin to cavitate A)I only

B)II only C)both I and II D)neither I nor II Ans)b 2494)what would be the probable cause if a pump were unable to maintain necessary discharge pressure to a system?I.failure of the internal parts of the pumpII)failure of the system relief valve A)I only B)II only C)both I and II D)neither I norII Ans)c 2495)mechanical shaft seals used on water service pumps require lubricaton of the seal faces to minimize deposits of foreign matter on those surfaces which of the following pressures and lubricants are required? A)water under rogative pressure B)water under positive pressure C)oil under positive pressure D)oil under negative pressure Ans)b 2496)reduced capacity accompanied by vibraton and noise at the suction of a centrifugal pump resuts from cavitation in the fluid being pumped cavitation describes the formation of . A)vapor pockets

B)water hammer action C)fluid friction D)steam knock Ans)a 2497)a liquid is being transferred by a centrifugal pump as the liquid passes through the volute its velocity decreases and.. A)its pressure increases B)its pressure decreases C)the potential energy decreases D)the kinetic energy increases Ans)a 2498)after renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, the packing should be seated, then the packing gland nuts A)left in that position B)loosened until the gland clears the stuffing box C)tightened to compress the packing D)loosened and then retightended until they are only finger tight Ans)d 2499)which of the following statements is true regarding a positive displacement rotary pump? A)theoretically there is no limit to shut off head pressure B)thereoreitcally is self priming

C)the discharge side should be protected against excessive pressure build up via a relief valve D)all of the above Ans)d 2500)a centrifugal pump gradually develops insufficient discharge pressure. What correction action is required? A)replace the wearing rings B)throttle in on the discharge valve C)replace the wearing rings, shaft, and impeller D)throttle in on the suction valve Ans)a 2501)if a centrifugall pump develops insufficient discharge pressure as a result of worn wearing rings, which of the folwoing correction actions is required? A)replace the rings B)throttle in n the discharge valve C)alwys repqlace the wearing rings and the impeller as a set D)throttle in on the suction valve Ans)a 2502)if a centrifugal pump sealing line becomes restricted while operating under a negative suction head(suction lift)the inner end of the stuffing box will b e A)under a vaccum and air will tend to leak in to the pump B)sealed by the fluid being pumped and no leakeage will occur

C)under pressure and fluid will tend to leak in to the pump d)sealed by the seal cage or pump lantern ring Ans)a 2503)when adding packing to a seal involving motion you must be careful to prevent. A)excessive friction in the joint B)wear of the moving part 2504)heavy wear in a particular area of the inner circumference packing ring may be caused by A)a high suction head B)rotating rings C.deterioration of the packing due to excessive tightening D. all of the above Ans: D 2505 What would be the result of throttling the suction valve to the point where the flow was less than that recommended by a centrifugal pump manufacturer? I. The designed discharge head would be reduced. II. The packing life would be greatly reduced. A. B. C. D. I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II

Ans B 2506 The shaft sleeves have recently been replaced on a centrifugal salt water service pump. The packing gland is now drawn tightly up against the casing.

Despite the use of standard procedures to tighten the packing gland, water continuous to pour out along A. B. C. D. The sleeves O ring seals were not installed Suction head pressure has become excessive The sealing water flow to the stuffing box is blocked Only two suctions of the lantern ring were installed

Ans A 2507 A double suction centrifugal pump impeller has been installed in the reverse direction, and will ___________ A. B. C. D. Have a greater head capacity Operate with increased impeller efficiency Discharge through the suction side of the pump casing Require more power to turn the shaft

Ans D 2508 If a centrifugal pump were continually operated with the discharge valve closed, the ________________ A. B. C. D. Motor controller overload would open Pump would eventually overheat Relief valve would continuously cycle open Motor would overheat

Ans B 2509 If the viscosity of the liquid being transferred remains constant as the discharge pressure increases, the rotary pump ______________ A. B. C. D. Capacity will increase Capacity will decrease Suction pressure will increase Suction pressure will decrease

Ans B 2510 If it were necessary for you to replace the bearings of the condensate pump, the trouble could be the result of ___________ A. B. C. D. Misalignment A plugged water seal line Salt water contamination of the condensate Worn out rings

Ans A 2511 Pitting the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused by _______________ A. B. C. D. Cavitation Electrolysis Abrasion Corrosion

Ans A 2512 Charring or glazing of the inner circumference of the packing rings in a centrifugal pump, is caused by _________ A. Under tightening the packing B. Failure 2513 One of the many problems occurring with centrifugal pump shaft packing is the excessive wear on the rings nearest the packing gland. If the rings nearest the impeller remain in good condition during the same operating period, the wear is most likely cause A. B. C. D. Insufficient lubrication of the lantern ring Packing rings rotating in the stuffing box Over tightening the packing in one adjustment Some rings being cut too short

Ans C 2514 When new, a rotary pump is designed to have 0.00mm clearance between the rotors and the pump casing in order to develop a 180 LPM flow rate at 21bar. After one year of operation the clearance has increased to 0.02mm, with the discharge pressure A. B. C. D. Less than 180 LPM because of increased clearance 180 LPM because the pressure is unchanged Greater than 180 LPM because of reduced slippage Greater than 180 LPM because of increased efficiency

Ans A 2515 If it were necessary for you to frequently replace the packing on the main condensate pump, the trouble could be the result of _____________ A. B. C. D. Running at a low speed for a long time Excessive condensation recirculation Defective causing gasket Worn bearings

Ans D 2516 When the danger of freezing exists, all steam driven reciprocating pumps and deck equipment should be _________ A. B. C. D. Cycled at least once a day Cycled once every 4 weeks Cycled once every week Watched carefully while idle

Ans A 2517 A twin screw, rotary, positive displacement pump is provided with timing gear, if it were possible to change the lead (pitch) of the screws, which of the following statements would represent the true effect on the pump characteristics?

A. B. C. D.

The longer the lead, the lower the flow rate The shorter the lead, the higher the potential The longer the lead, the lower the axial velocity The shorter the lead, the higher the inlet pressure requirements

Ans B 2518 Which of the following valve arrangements permits the reciprocating pump liquid piston to take suction from the suction chamber, and simultaneously discharge through chamber during the up and down strokes? A. Two sets of suction and discharge valves in the liquid cylinder B. Two sets of valves, one set each for suction and discharge located in the water chest C. One set of valves in the water chest and the other set in the liquid chamber D. Two relief valves, one in each of the liquid cylinder Ans B 2519 The discharge rate or the capacity of a centrifugal pump will vary directly as the ______________ A. B. C. D. Change in the impeller diameter Square of the impeller diameter Cube of the impeller diameter Impeller efficiency for large changes in its size

Ans A 2520 The discharge head of a centrifugal pump will vary directly with the ______________ A. B. C. D. Change in impeller diameter Square of impeller diameter Cube of impeller diameter Impeller efficiency for large changes in the size of the impeller

Ans B

2521 Theoretically, a double suction impeller is in hydraulic axial balance, in actually this balance is rarely achieved due to ______________ A. B. C. D. .. . Badly worn bearings At loose stuffing box gland

Ans C 2522 Centrifugal pumps, used to handle hot liquids, must have a minimum flow through them under all operating condition s. This flow serves to ____________ A. An unbalanced force extended from the direction of the impeller nearest the driving motor B. Unequal or non uniform flow to the suction eyes of the impeller housing C. Excessive sealing water flow to the stuffing block D. Flexible shaft design which causes rapid wear of the outboard shaft bearing Ans B 2523 To operate a centrifugal free pump at reduced capacity, you should ________________ A. B. C. D. Readjust the relief valve Throttle the suction line Throttle the discharge valve Open the priming line

Ans C 2524 Sealing lines provide sealing liquid flow to the stuffing box of a centrifugal pump ______________ A. To help lubricate the shaft packing B. To limit the outflow of seawater from the stuffing box of a pump provided with a high suction head C. In place of sealing gages

D. In place of mechanical seals Ans A 2525 The centrifugal pump component responsible for converting the mechanical energy of the liquid being pumped, to that of kinetic energy is the __________ A. B. C. D. Electric motor Volute Impeller Diffusion nozzle

Ans C 2526 The total static head of a system resisting the operation of a centrifugal pump is the difference in elevation between the ____________ A. B. C. D. Discharge liquid level and the suction liquid level Discharge liquid level and the pump centerline Suction liquid level and the pump centerline Suction submergence level and the pump discharge

Ans A 2527 When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the following precautions should be observed? A. B. C. D. Replace all of the packing rings Block off the sealing water connection Be certain that all packing is fitted loosely to the shaft For good lubrication apply a fine grade lapping compound between the shaft and packing

Ans A 2528 To safely remove the piston rod packing from the steam end of reciprocating pump, you should ____________

A. B. C. D.

Use a packing hook Open throttle valve and blow the old packing out Do nothing, as this type of pump utilizes O-rings in lieu of packing Open the steam chest and pr the packing loose with a scraper

Ans A 2529 Most pump manufacturers recommended that the discharge piping for centrifugal pumps be ___________ A. B. C. D. One size larger than the pump discharge nozzle The same size as the pump of discharge nozzle One size smaller than the pump discharge nozzle Installed with a short radius elbow, at the pump

Ans 2530 An advantage if the helical gear pump over a simple pump is that the helical gear pump is capable of __________ A. B. C. D. Maintaining a steadier speed Delivering liquids over greater distances Operating for longer periods of time Producing a smoother discharge flow

Ans. D 2531 When installing a new rotary pump, the suction piping should ______________ A. Of the same diameter as the pump suction connection B. At least one size larger than the pump suction connection C. The next size smaller than the pump suction connection sloped to the pump D. Ans B

2532 The function of a centrifugal pump double volute casing is to ________________ A. Reduce radial thrust to the impeller B. Double the liquid velocity through the pump when compared to a single volute C. Reduce hydraulic end thrust D. Provide the effect of multi staging Ans A 2533 Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or pullers be avoided on bronze or brass shafts, rods, plunges or sleeves? A. B. C. D. Heat transfer is restricted Scoring may result Valve seat will be damaged Bonnet corrosion may result

Ans B 2534 During the inspection conditions of a low pressure pump, the wearing ring is determined to have a clearance of 0.3mm - 0.4mm, you should ____________ A. B. C. D. Replace the worn wearing ring Install a new oversized casing ring Machine the worn wearing ring and refit Leave the existing wearing rings in place

Ans D 2535 Operating a rotary pump at speeds in excess of design requirements could cause ________________ A. B. C. D. Decreased clearance between rotating parts Decreased slippage to the suction side of that pump Air bending in the discharge ports Erosion and excessive wear

Ans D 2536 Which of the following conditions would prevent a steam reciprocating pump from delivering its rated capacity? A. B. C. D. Excessive suction lift Air trapped in the discharge expansion chamber A leaking sniffer valve allowing air to enter the suction side of the pump All of the above

Ans A 2537 Permanent centrifugal pump shaft damage due to erosion, corrosion and wear at the stuffing box is usually prevented by _______________ A. B. C. D. Wearing rings Renewable sleeves A hardened sprayed metal coating Internally flooded lantern rings

Ans B 2538 If a centrifugal pump operating with a positive suction head vibrates, or becomes nosy, the cause could be ______________ A. B. C. D. Excessive pump speed Worn wearing rings Air leakage into suction line Insufficient venting

Ans D 2539 Which of the following is NOT an identifiable characteristic of a steam reciprocating pump? A. Direct-acting B. Diffuser C. High pressure

D. vertical Ans: B 2540 The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be referred to as the ______________ A. B. C. D. Total head Discharge head Net positive suction head Suction head

Ans : B 2541. To absorb the wear resulting from impeller rotation and abrasives in the liquid, a centrifugal pump is usually fitted with .. A. Tantern rings B. Barings C. Casting volutes D. Wearing rings Ans D 2542. If the capacity of a centrifugal pump decreases gradually over a long period of time you should replace the . A. Packing glands B. Mechanical seals C. Tantern rings D. Wearing rings Ans D 2543. If the existing vapour pressure is subtracted from the indicated pressure at the pump suction the remainder is the .. A. Pump head B. Total suction head

C. Discharge head D. Apparent net positive suction head Ans D 2544. Which of the listed conditions can lead to cavitations in a centrifugal pump? A. Vapour pockets formed in the suction flow stream B. Rough casting volute surfaces C. Worn wearing rings D. Heavy fluid in the flow stream Ans A 2545. Water leaking from a pump packing gland is kept away from the bearing housing by use of.. A. Shaft sleeves B. Lantern rings C. Water fingers D. Water seals Ans C 2546. One of the main differences between the various types of screw pumps is in the A. Stuffing box diameter B. Direction of rotation of the screws C. Pitch of the screws D. Type of the driving gears Ans. C 2547. With respect to centrifugal pump impellers, which of the following descriptions represent the correct centrifugal pump classification? A. Single stage or multi stage B. High pressure or low pressure C. Open or close coupled

D. Horizontal or vertical Ans A 2548. A centrifugal pump designed to handle a liquid with a temperature of 120deg celcius or greater must be provided with.. A. A semi mechanical seal B. Helical grooved wearing rings C. Self adjusting packing D. A liquid seal line Ans D 2549. The function of seal cages or lantern rings installed in the centrifugal pump stuffing box is to. A. Cool the shaft B. Lubricate the packing C. Seal air from entering along the shaft D. Distribute the sealing liquid within the stuffing box Ans D 2550. What is a function of the wearing rings used in most centrifugal pumps? A. Absorb erosion or high velocity discharge stream B. Seal pump shaft against entry of air C. Isolate the discharge side from the suction side D. Dampen the turbulent discharge flow Ans C 2551. The brake horsepower of a centrifugal pump will vary directly as the A. Diameter of the impeller B. Square of the diameter of the impeller C. Cube of the diameter of the impeller D. Impeller efficiency for large change in size of the impeller

Ans C 2552. Primary function of a centrifugal pump volute is to.. A. Develop a high velocity liquid B. Convert velocity to pressure C. Limit hydraulic and thrust D. Initiate flow Ans B 2553. If the flow of water from centrifugal pump is allowed to be stopped by closing the discharge valve while the pump continues to run for an indefinite period, the A. Relief valve will open B. Water pressure will lower continually to shut off head C. Water pressure will tend to rise continuously D. Liquid may over heat and vaporize And D 2554. Static suction head of a horizontal centrifugal pump is the difference in elevation between the.. A. Discharge liquid level and the suction liquid level B. Discharge liquid level and the pump center line C. Suction liquid level and the pump center line D. Suction submergence level and the pump discharge Ans C 2555. Which of the material listed is used as the dynamic seal materials on mechanical seals installed on most centrifugal pumps used in water service A. Copper B. Copper and carbon C. Carbon D. Bronze

Ans C 2556. When a reciprocating pump is operating at maximum speed, the cushioning valves should be.. A. Wide opened B. Half opened C. opened D. Almost completely closed Ans D 2557. After the installation of new impeller wearing rings by pressing them on to the pump impeller hub it is advisable to . A. Dynamically balance the shaft and impeller B. Check the shaft and impeller assembly on centers to see if the ring surfaces are true C. Visually inspect the rings after about an hour of service D. All of the above Ans B 2558. When renewing the shaft packing on a centrifugal pump equipped with an external liquid supply, you should A. Always turn down the shaft in a lathe to ensure a snug fit B. Ensure the lantern ring is aligned with the sealing supply opening C. Check the stuffing box for irregularities with a dial indicator D. Make sure the seal cage is always positioned at the base of the stuffing box Ans B 2559. Which of the following statements concerning deep well cargo pumps is correct? A. A pump room is not necessary B. The impeller is located at the upper end of the shaft C. Special priming provisions are necessary

D. The prime mover is connected at the lower portion of the shaft Ans A 2560. Which of the listed pumps is not a positive displacement pump? A. Centrifugal B. Reciprocating C. Gear D. Rotary Ans A 2561. The diffusion ring installed in many high pressure centrifugal pumps, such as feed pumps A. Eliminates axial thrust B. Imparts kinetic energy to the water passing through the pump C. Alleviates the need for a double suction impeller D. Eliminates radial thrust to the impeller Ans D 2562. The three basic parts of any educator are the nozzle, the suction chamber and the. A. Injector B. Compressor C. Diffuser D. Siphon Ans C 2563. To prevent air pockets from forming in a centrifugal pump suction line installed angled from normal, any gate valve should be installed with the A. Bonnet above suction pipe centerline B. Centerline above the suction pipe centerline C. Stem pointing upward at right angles to the pipe D. Stem horizontal or pointing downward below the pipe

Ans D 2564. Devices which utilize the rapid flow of a fluid to entrain another fluid and thereby move it from one place to another are called________ A. Mixed flow pumps B. Jet pumps C. Volute pumps D. Centrifugal pumps Ans B 2565. If u heard a cracking noise in a centrifugal pump , the most probable cause of the problem would be ___________ A. Insufficient speed B. Cavitations C. Excess discharge pressure D. Excessive net positive suction head Ans B

2566. Excessive wear on a centrifugal pump shaft sleeve will_______ A. Cause new packing to be torn and scored B. Cause severe pump vibration at operating speed C. Damage the packing gland stuffing box D. Damage the pump causing interstage seals Ans A 2567. Operating a rotary gear pump far below its rated speed when handling low viscosity liquids ,will cause its volumetric efficiency to_____ A. Increase steadily as the moving gears develop less vibration B. Decrease to where the pump no longer develops flow C. Remain unchanged due to its positive displacement characteristics D. Fluctuate due to the amount of slip variation

Ans B 2568. One of the many troubles occurring with centrifugal pump shaft packing is the excessive wear on the rings nearest the packing gland, while the rings nearest the impeller remain in good condition .this wear may be caused by ____________ A. Air entrained in the fluid pumped B. Packing rings rotating in the stuffing box C. Some packing rings being cut too short D. Improper adjustment of the gland nuts Ans D 2569. The capacity of the rotary pump ,when operated at a constant speed will decrease with an increase in the pump_________ A. discharge volume B. suction pressure C. steeped speed D. rotor clearances Ans D 2570. inspection of a low pressure gear pump for cavitations will usually be indicated by a wear pattern____ A. along the inlet side of the housing B. along the discharge side of the housing C. at the extreme upper and lower peripheries of the housing D. even throughout the entire periphery of the housing when matched machined gear sets are used Ans A 2571. The capacity of a centrifugal pump can be increased by the installation of a larger diameter impeller .Another means of increasing the pump capacity is to_________ A. Increase speed

B. Increase the size of the cardent assembly C. Reduce wearing ring clearances D. Change the pump to a close coupled arrangement Ans A 2572. Which of the following conditions would be hazardous if you were using two centrifugal pumps to discharge a flammable liquid? \ A. Both pumps operating at the same speed and discharging into a common line B. Each pump operating at a different speed and discharging into a common line C. Both pumps operating at the same speed taking suction from a common line D. Each pump operating at a different speed and taking suction from a common line Ans B 2573. Excessive air leakage into the suction side of a centrifugal pump would be indicated by which of the following operational problems? A. The pump delivers full capacity when started, but gradually slackens off to an abnormally low flow B. The pump packing gland overheats after short operating periods C. The motor overcurrent protective device continually shuts the pump down D. Pounding noises can be heard at the pump suction chest Ans A 2574. Increasing the speed of a centrifugal pump will result in an increase in its capacity. Another means of increasing the capacity of a centrifugal pump is to increase the __________ A. Diameter of the discharge piping , with all other factors remaining the same B. Diameter of the suction piping , with all other factors remaining the same C. Width of the impeller only

D. Diameter of the impeller Ans. D 2575. One of the disadvantages of screw-type positive displacement rotary pumps is that they have_____________ A. High internal velocities B. Performance characteristics sensitivity viscosity change C. Low tolerance for entrained air and gasses D. Low range of flows and pressures Ans B 2576. A centrifugal pump, normally operated under a positive suction head, has its impeller replaced by one with a larger suction eye. What effect will this change have on the pump? A. The pump motor will electrically trip off the line B. The pump will deliver more gallons per minute at the same RPM C. The pump will deliver less gallons per minute at the same RPM D. The capacity in gallons per minute will not be affected by the impeller suction eye size Ans B

2577. If a horizontal centrifugal pump becomes air bound ,the pump should be vented at the_____________ A. suction line B.discharge flange C.top of volute D.bottom of thecasting Ans C 2578.A centrifugal pump operating against a closed discharge valve has a/an A.capacity of 100%

B.efficiency of 0% C.internal slippage of 0% D. shut off horsepower rating of 100% Ans B

2579. which of the listed statement is correct concerning the starting of centrifugal pumps? A.they should always be started with the discharge valve closed. B. they should always be started with the discharge valve opened. C.A primary pump is always required to food the impeiler suction. D. they should always be started with the sealing line valves closed. Ans A

2580. If a centrifugal bilge pump were continually operated with the discharge valve closed the_____________ A. motor overload would open B.relief valve would open C.pump would eventually overheat D.motor would overheat Ans C

2581. Reduced capacity ,accompained by vibration and noise at the suction of a centrifugal pump is a result of _____________

A.cavitation B.water hammer C.fluid friction D.steam knock Ans A

2582. When operating with a negative suction head , which of the following types of pumps will require priming? A.recriprocating B.centrifugal C.rotary D.gear Ans B

2583. The function seal cages .or lantern rings installed in the centrifugal pump stuffing boxes ,is to ________ A.cool the shaft B.lubricate the packing C.seal air from entering along the shaft D.distributing the sealing liquid within the stuffing box 2584. A centrifugal pump must have a stuffing box liquid sending line and seal cages installed if the pump____________ A. suction head is high , and is handling cool, debris, free liquid

B. Is handling a liquid with the temperature of less than 66c C. suction lift exceeds 250mm hg vac D. Discharge is less than 2kg/cm Ans C

2585. If a centrifugal pump is being driven by a steam turbine and the discharge valve is closed off,the pump will_____________ A.slow down B.run cooler C.speed up by 5% until the discharge valve is reopened D.no longer continue to internally convert the resultant energy impaired to the pump Ans D

2586. The proper design of a centrifugal pump must be include a seal cage and sealing line when the pump_____________ A. Takes suction from a low temperature pressurized tank B. Takes suction from the hot well C. Is handling a liquid at less than 66c D. Has a high positive suction head Ans D

2587. one of the three available salt water service pumps is in operation with a sea water temperature of 10c.The cooling temperature of all systems supplied by this pump appear to be high.Therefore,you should _____________ A. one need to start a second pump and operate it in parallel B.start a second pump and place it on line ,close the discharge valve on the original pump and watch for a rise in the discharge pressure C.after starting the second pump open the casting vent valve of the first pump,then secure the first pump D. after starting the second pump secure the first pump and do nothing else with the salt water service system Ans B

2588. Two individual centrifugal pump impellers of the same diameter, width, and rotating speed are to be compared, one is cast with straight vanes, the other with curved vanes, which of the following statements is correct? A. The straight vane impeller develops a higher level of kinetic energy B. The straight vane impeller has the potential for producing the greater discharge pressure C. The curved vane impeller is less likely to develop cavitation D. The curved vane impeller will develop a greater increase in the liquid velocity Ans D

2589. A centrifugal pump produces flow with a resulting discharge head by energ y conversion .It is typical for the energy conversion to follow the order of_____________

A. mechanical energy to kinetic energy to potential energy B. mechanical energy to potential energy to kinetic energy C. potential energy to mechanical energy to kinetic energy D. kinetic energy to mechanical energy to potential energy Ans A

2590. which of the following statement about pump operations is not a correct statement? A. in order for a fluid to be pumped, a fluid must be made to flow B. a substance must be cold in order for it to be pumped C. The kinetic energy imparted by the pump can be used to force a liquid through a hydraulic system D. A pump must receive its energy from an external source. Ans D

2591. The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is operating as designed ,is to___________ A.closely observe the pump discharge temperature B. close off the discharge valve and watch for a rise in pressure C.momentarily close off the suction valve and watch for a rise in pressure D.use a clamp on ammeter and compare the readings to past records Ans B

2592. Which pump installation would require an external source of sealing water? ___________ A. Main circular pump jacket water cooling B. Salt water service pump C. Auxiliary condensate pump D.Bilge pump Ans D

2593. If two centrifugal pumps ,driven by two independent electric motors,operating at unequal speeds are discharging an inflammable liquid through a common discharge line ,the higher speed pump may cause the slower pump to ___________ A. stop B. Turn backward C. Overheat D. overspeed the driving end Ans C

2594. when replacing packing rings in the stuffing boxes of reciprocating pump piston rods ,the ends of the rings should be cut __________ A. square B.beveled C.step -designed

D.diagonal Ans A

2595. what should be done if localized scoring is discovered on a pump shaft sleeve during routine maintenance inspection ? A. Reassemble the pump and provide more water leak oh for lubrication B. Check for parallel alignment of the sleeve radial face to the sleeve bore C. Reassemble the pump and set the governor to obtain a slower speed D. Connect the cause of scoring and install a new shaft sleeve Ans D

2596. A multistage centrifugal pump can be BEST Described as having__________ A. two or more impeliers housed together in one casing and mounted on a single shaft B. a single stepped impelier mounted in a progressively staged casing C.a large radial clearance between the impelier and casing D. Ans

2597. A pump shaft that is bent are distorted should normally be __________ A. repaired by a suitable welding process B. straightened by applying heat and torsion

C. Reconditioned by metalizing and machining D. replaced with a satisfactory spare Ans D

2598. An increase rotor clearances in a rotary pump will __________ A.increased discharge pressure B.decrease pump capacity C.decreased pump cavitation D.decrease reaction ring clearance Ans B

2599. which of the units of measurements listed below are used to express positive and negative suction heads when calculating head or hydraulic horse power ? A. Inches of mercury for positive head and feet of water for negative head B. feet of water for positive heads and inches of mercury for negative head C. Inches of mercury for both positive and negative heads D. Fee of water for both positive and negative heads Ans D

2600. positive displacement , helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil because __________

A.stuffin g boxes eliminate the leakage problem usually associated with other gear pumps B.it is not necessary to closely maintain design clearances with this pump C.they are essentily self-priming and produce a high suction in D.these pumps are designed with extreme tooth angles Ans C

2601. The static suction head of a pump Is the __________ A. Distance of the suction liquid level above the center line of the pump B. Distance the suction liquid level is below the center line of the pump C. force necessary to over come frictional losses in the pump and piping D. amount in inches of mercury the total suction head is below atmospheric pressure Ans A

2602. how does viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation of a spur gear pump? A.the viscosity of the fluid is relatively unimportant in the pump operation B.the pump can be used only for fluid of high viscosity C.the pump can be used only for light oils D.the pump cannot handle fluid more viscous than lubricating oil Ans A

2603. To maintain the design discharge pressure of a centrifugal pump the clearance between the __________ A. impeller and lantern ting is critical B. impeller and casing wearing rings is critical C. packing box and packing gland is critical D. gland seal and packing gland is critical Ans B

2604. A spur gear pump should be operator with the discharge valves ____________ A.slightly opened B.throttled C.fully opened D.half way opened Ans C

2605. As sometimes utilized with centrifugal pumps operating with a high suction lift , foot valves are primarily designed to __________ A. give the pump motor , or driver ,positive protection when operating in a shutoff condition B. provide a means of supplying sealing fluid for a impeller shaft stuffing box C. enable the pump and its suction line to remain primed prior to starting the pump

D. afford the pumping system protection against water hammer and surging Ans C

2606. Positive displacement ,helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil because _________ A.stuffing boxes eliminate the leakage problems usually associated with other gear pumps B.helical gear pumps are essensially self priming and produce high suction lift C.closely maintained design clearances in the pump is not necessary D.helical gear pump are designed with extreme tooth angles Ans B

2607. Which of the following problems will occur when the suction valve is throttled on a centrifugal pump not designed to operate in this manner ? A. the pump will immediately overheat and seize B. Pump efficiency is reduced and cavitation will be induced C.the pump packing will fail causing irrepairable damage to the pump shaft D. pump capacity is reduced and over all efficiency will be increased Ans :B

2608. A centrifugal pump with a double volute casing operated at greater than design capacity .will__________

A. be less susceptible to shaft deflection than a simillar pump with a single volute casing operated under the same conditions B.be more susception toshaft deflectionthan a similar pump with a single volut casing operated under the same conditions C. develop excessive radial trust and resultant shaft deflection D. develop excessive radial trust and resultant impeller deflection Ans :A 2609. which of the following statement represent the main different between a stuffing box gland and a mechanical seal for sealing the shaft of a centrifugal pump? a.packed stuffing box gland are subject to wear ,but mechanical seal are not b. packed stuffing box gland must be cooled by the liquid being pumped but mechanical seal do not require cooling ans c 2610)in most horizontal centrifugalpump casting wearing things are prevented from----------a)swelling the wearing rings into rings b) a.packed stuffing box gland are subject to wear ,but mechanical seal are not c)usin one down to the slide of the rings then fitting the pin into a hole of the casting using grow d)using a externalto the ring&using upper casting half to trap that when the casting are clean blent ans:d 2611. when the centrifugal pump is operated with a positive section head,the inner end of the stuffing box is -----------

a. under a vacuum &air tends to leak into the pump through shaft and through the stuffing box b. under the preesure &fluid tends to lead from the pump along the shaft &through the shuffing box c. sealed by a vacuum &no leakage will occurs d. sealed by the seal cage or pump lantern ring ans b 2612. which of the following statement is correct with regards to the operation of the centrifugal cargo pump? a. oil is discharge from the centre of impeller through the outlet b. gravity causes the oil to flow towards discharge c. the self priming feature of the centrifugal pump enable it to draw its own section as its starts d. the discharge capacity varies directly with the speed of the impeller ans.d

2613. pump efficiency may be lost as a result of -----------a. air ehtering the pump through a pin hole leake in the discharge manifold b. a leak in a gasket on a suction slide of the pump c. the suction valve in the wide open position d.the pump being installed too close to the suction tank ansb

2614. centrifugal pump are designed with sealing lines---------a. to prevent the fluid being pumped from pounding out of the stuffing box b.in place of mechanical seal c.in place of sting rings d.to prent air from entering the pump casing acting shaft ans:d

2615. which o f the following action should be taken if during a routline maintenance inspection of a centrifugal pump,localized scoring on a pump shaft sleeve is detected? a. correct the cause of the scoring and repair the sleeve or replace with new one b.reassemble the unit &provide more water leak off for proper lubrication c. check for parallel alingnment of the sleeve radial faces to the sleeve bores d. reassemble the unit &adjust the governer to obtain a slower speed ans .a 2616. to prevent overheating &scoring of the shaft after repacting the stuffing box which of the following procedure will carried out? a.tighting the pacting is small increment while the pump is operated b.tightening the gland in a flame and the backing if off slightly d)operating the pump slowly and applying oilfreely to use shaft until the packing it properly sealded

2617. why the discharge preesure of a herringbone gear pump steadier than the discharge pressure of the simple spur gear pump? a. clearance between the gear teeth &casing is smaller b. the geer teeth ar smaller than those of the simple spur gear pump? c. once discharged phase begins before the previous discharge phase has been completed d. the herringbone gearpump as 4 spear gears instead of 2 Ans: c2618)why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone gear pumpsteadier than the discharge pressure of a simple spur gear pump? a)cleareance between the gear teeth and casting is smaller B)the gear teeth are smaller than those of the simple spurgerar pump c)one discharge phase begins before the previous discharge phase has been completed D)the herringbone gear pump has four spur gear instead of two Ans)c

2619. Lead wrapped flexible packing, rated for temperature of 232 c and shaft up to 1000rpm will not be suitable for use with--------a. monel metal shaft b. steel shaft c. bronze ans:c 2620)which of the listed parts is used in a lobe type rotary pump to reduce the wear of the lobe edges?

a)gibs b)spur gears c)casing gears d)liner plates ans)a

2621.the process of removing mouiture from air is know as ----------a. humidification b. de humidification c.develop excessive radial thrust &resultant shaft deflected d. develop excessive radial thrust &resultant impeller deflected ans:a 2622)increasing the moisture content of conditioned air is known as A)moisturizing B)dehumidification c)vaporizaaiton d)evaporation ans :b

2623)a first stage unloader installed in a low preesure air compressor is unable to completely retract this will result in -----------a)overheatin of discharge valve

b)loss of moisture in air charging the receiver c)frequent lifting of the intercooler relief valve d)an abnormally low intercooler pressure Ans:d 2624)a viscous film of oil collecteb between the valve face &seat of low pressure reciprocation air compressore will===== a)prevent the valve from wire drawing b)retard the opening &closing of the valve c)have no effect on compressor operator d)provide quieter valve operatio ans:b

2625)The purpose of an air compressor unloading device is to-----------a) drain water from the air receiver b) drain water from the cylinder c) delay the compression process until the motor is upto speed d) check pump alignment ans: c 2626)over pressurization of an air compressor intercooler is preventer the -----------a)aftercooler relief valve b)intercooler relif valve

c)last stage unloaded d)first stage unloaded ans:b

2627) air blowing from the intake air filter of an operation air compressor indicates------------a) broken inlet valve b) broken discharge valve c) pulsation in the air distribution system d) over load of air distribution system ans :a 2628)one method of unloading a low pressure air compressor at start up is accomplished by ----------a)holding the LP discharge valve open b)the use of a precharged accumulator c)using a temporarily opening cylinder clearance pocket d)temporaliy discharge to the air receiver ans:c

2629)in a low pressure air compreesor the loss of volumentric efficiency normally result from----------a)adiabatic compreesor in the innercooler b)heating of air leaving the cylinder

c)inaccurate valve timing d)constant enlargement of the clearance expansion volume ans:b 2630)to obtain maximum efficiency two stage air compressor are usually--------a)horizontally mounted b)never fitted with intake filters c)fitted with intercooler d)operated in an unloaded condition at all times ans:c

2631)pump efficiency may be lost as a result of A)air entering the pump through a pin hole leak in the discharge manifold b)a leak in a gasket on the suction side of the pump c)the suction valve in the wide open position d)the pump being installed too close to the suction tank ans:b 2632) which of the listed operated condition would have the greast effect on the volumetic efficiency of an operation reciprocating air compressor? a)the density of the air entering the compressor b)the temperature of the air entering the compressor c)the desighed rotating speed of the compressor d)a leaking head gasket

ans:d

2633)which of the following problem would beThe probable cause for the fault operation of a reciprocation air compressor suction valve? a)carbon build up in the piston ring belt b)fault operation of a cylinder unloader c)compressor operating in an area of high relative humidity d)lifting of intercooler relif valve ans:b 2634) which of the following problem can result in below normal pressure in the intercooler of an operating low pressure air compressor? a)defective pressure pilot valve b)defective receiver relif valve c)leaking intake valve on the high pressure cylinder d)leaking discharge valve on the low pressure cylinder ans:d

2635)if an electric motor driver air compressor fails to start,it may be due to a--a)leaking discharge valve b)jammed sution valve c)tripped overload relay d)broken discharge unloader

ans:c 2636)excessive lube oil consumption in a reciprocation air compressor an indication of-----------a)leakage in the aftercooler b)leakage in the innercooler c)broken piston rings d)defects in the high pressure unloaded ans:c

2637)if the driver belts on an air compressorfails to start ,it may be due to a ----a)spraying oil on the belts b)tightening the belts c)loosening the belts d)instslling wide belts ans:b 2638)on small low pressure air compressor the cylinder are usually lubrication by the---------a)splash method b)mechanical force feed lubrication c)detached sump method d)internal cooling passage in the cranks&connecting rods ans:a

2639)the piston displacement rate of a reciprocating air compressor be modified by changing the---a)piston speed b)compressor capacity c)volumetric efficiency d)total pressure ans:a 2640) air compressor receiver should be blow down at least -------------a)yearly b)quarterly c)monthly d)daily ans:d

2641)intake valve installed on most reciprocation low pressure air compressore are actuated by the pressure differential between the air in the cylinder &the pressure-----a)of the air on the extrenalside of the valve b)of the push rod&rocker arm assembly c)sensed by the receiver low pressure limit switch 2642) when the compressed air reservoir is placed in line with an air compressor &is used as an aftercooler the reservoir must be----------

a)fitted with a manhole b)frequently drained of condensed water c)fitted with a moisture trap at a inlet

sensed be the intercooler diaphragm valve Ans. A 2643. A knocking sound emitted from an unloaded air compressor a probably caused by A. damaged intake valves B.excessively tight mounting bolts C. insufficient cylinder lubrication D. a loose poison Ans. D 2644. The cylinders and intercoolers of most low pressure air compressors are cooled by A. Water B. oil C. air D. co2 Ans. C 2645. An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler and an after cooler to A. inject water vapor into the compressed air B. prevent overheating of first compressed air C. increase compressor efficiency and economy D. reduce the compressed air charge density Ans. C 2646. A squealing sound occurring from within an operating reciprocating air compressor is an A. compressor overload B. motor overload C. tight compressor bearings D. badly leaking bearings Ans. C

2647. If the capacity of a reciprocating air compressor gradually drops off the cause could be A. leaking compressor valves B. a clogged air filter C. worn cylinder liners D. all the above Ans. D 2648. If there is a sudden drop in the capacity of a reciprocating air compressor, you should check for A. broken compressor valves B. worn piston rings or cylinder liners C. excessive compressor speed D. a defective pressure switch or pilot valve Ans. A 2649. Reciprocating air compressor bearing failure may result from A. a misaligned crankshaft B. over tightened drive belts C. contaminated sump oil D. all of the above Ans. D 2650. Operating a reciprocating air compressor without an air filter will cause A. a broken compressor valves B. worn piston rings or cylinder liners C. excessive compressor speed D. defective pressure switch or pilot valve Ans. A 2651. Which of the following frequent maintenance procedures is required of compressed air receivers? A. a close watch on the temperature. B. constant cleaning to remove oil and dirt C. constant testing of the relief valves D. frequent draining of water Ans. D 2652. The heat of compression is partially removed from compressed air by A. intercoolers B. aftercoolers C. compressor water jackets

D. all the above Ans. D 2653. An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler to . Increase the efficiency of the compressor . Reduce the cylinder operating temperature A. only B. only C. Both and D. Neither nor Ans. A 2654. If a reciprocating air compressor has a knock occurring in a frequent with its operating RPM The cause is probably A. Misalignment or worn main bearings B. Insufficient cylinder lubrication C. Defective or poorly fitted valves D. All the above Ans. A 2655. According to the regulations all pressure vessels other than unfired steam boilers shall be Protected by relieving devices that prevents the pressure from rising more than above the maximum allowable working pressure A. 5 percent B. 10 percent C. 15 percent D. 20 percent Ans. B 2656. A compressor operating with an accumulation of dust and grease on the surface of an intercooler Would result in decrease in volumetric efficiency of the compressor higher volume of air to Be discharged to the receiver A. only B. only C. Both and D. Neither nor Ans. D

2657. One of the main differences between a propeller pump and a centrifugal pump is the absence of a A. volute in the centrifugal type pump B. volute in the propeller type pump C. velocity nozzle in the centrifugal type pump D. reciprocating piston in the centrifugal type pump Ans. B 2658. If the intercooler of a low pressure air compressor becomes fouled either internally or externally The A. Total capacity will be reduced B. Volumetric efficiency will be reduced C. Discharge will decrease D. Normal running time will be decreased Ans. B 2659. Why should a person performing maintenance on an air compressor wire and tag a system valves Closed? A. To prevent the unexpected B. To protect the equipment C. To protect the operator performing maintenance D. Each of the above is correct Ans. D 2660. If the foundation bolts of a reciprocating air compressor are loose which of the conditions below Will occur ? A. The driver belts will squeal B. The unloaders will jam shut C. The compressor will vibrate D. The intercooler will leak Ans. c 2661. Intercooling of a multistage air compressor provides the advantage of reducing the work of Compression on the succeeding stages and A. Condensing part of the original water vapor content B. Reducing the maximum piston loads C. Increasing the volumetric efficiency

D. All the above Ans. D 2662. When one belt of multiple V-belt compressor drive requires replacement all the belts must be Replaced because A. The old belts will otherwise carry all the loads B. New belts are shorter than old belts C. The new belts have a tendency to slip D. All the above Ans. B 2663. The safety heads of most large reciprocating compressors are held in place by A. discharge pressure in the safety returns line B. large Teflon gaskets C. heavy coil springs D. tack welding on the sides Ans. C 2664. A sequealing sound generated by an operating reciprocating air compressor would indicates A. loose drive belts B. badly leaking valves C. compressor interstage leakage D. tight drive belts Ans. A 2665. Which of the following is the probable cause for a motor driven low pressure reciprocating air Compressor to repeatedly trip the circuit breaker upon starting? A. Defective pressure switch B. Leaking suction unloader C. Compressor starting against full load D. Compressor starting without any load Ans. C 2666. When air compressor are arranged for automatic operation the cylinders can be unloaded During starting and stopping by A. bypassing the discharge to suction B. fitting depressors which hold the suction valve plates on their seats

C. step unloading the cylinders in a multi-cylinder machine D. all of the above Ans. D 2667. If a ship service air compressor failed to unload, the A. a compressor would dangerously over speed B. air receiver pressure would be excessively low C. circuit breaker may open on starting D. compressor would pump lube oil Ans. C 2668. Aftercoolers are used with air compressor to A. reduce the temperature of compressed air B. decrease the density of compressor air C. dampen pressure pulses in the discharge air D. ensure complete expansion of the compressed air Ans.A 2669. Leaking valves in a low pressure reciprocating, air compressor can resul, from A. excessive compressor discharge pressure B. operating the compressor at excessive speed C. uneven piston stroke in the compressor D. abrasion by dust and dirt Ans. D 2670. If a ship service air compressor operating in intermittent service were failing to unload, the A. compressor would stop abruptly when power was secured B. compressor would run continuously C. air receiver indicated pressure would be excessively low D. compressor would require more than the normal amount of lubrication Ans. A 2671. Excessive lube oil consumption air compressor can be caused by A. using a slightly dirty air filter B. using oil having an excess viscosity C. intercooler or aftercooler leaks D. carrying the level higher than normal Ans. D

2672. Which of the following problems could cause air to blow out through the inlet air filter of A running compressor? A. Excessive compression in the cylinder B. A broken intake valve C. A dirty inlet filter valve D. An improperly adjusted discharge valve Ans.B 2673. After disassembly the safest way to remove carbon deposits from air compressor inlet and discharge valves is to use A. ammonia B. diesel oil C. gasoline D. naphtha Ans. B 2674. If an air compressor is used to supply air primarily to the combustion control system and Other pneumatic controllers, the entire system is known as the A. control air system B. forced draft air system C. supply air system D. ships service system Ans. A 2675. A dirty intercooler on the ship service air compressor will result in A. decreased compression ratio B. higher than normal power consumption C. unloader malfunction D. water in the lubricating oil Ans. B 2676. Slipping drive belts on a ship service air compressor is a probable symptom of A. low tube oil viscosity B. fouled intercoolers C. a failed unloader D. high air receiver pressure Ans. C

2677. A dirty intercooler on an air compression will cause A. damage to the unloader operating diaphragm B. an increase in current flow to the motor C. high pressure in the receiver and refrig-a-filter D. an excessive consumption of crankcase oil Ans. B 2678. Air line lubrications are used in compressed air systems to lubricate A. the suction and discharge valves B. tools and equipment served by compressed air C. air line reducing valves D. all of the above Ans. B 2679. If an air compressor is used to supply compressed air to outlets throughout the engine Room and on deck of a vessel, the system is known as the A. combustion control air system B. supply air system C. ships service air system D. low pressure deck air system Ans. C 2680. Which of the following statements represents the path of air flow passing through a typical two stages, low pressure, reciprocating, air compressor A. intercooler, L.P. cylinder H.P. cylinder and air cleaner B. L.P. cylinder air cylinder, intercooler and H.P. cylinder C. Air cleaner, L.P. cylinder, H.P., cylinder and intercooler D. Air cleaner, L.P. cylinder, intercooler, and H.P. cylinder Ans. D 2681. When one belt of a multiple V-belt requires replacing it will be necessary to A. ensure the proper belt dressing is applied B. ensure the seasoned belts are reinstalled in their proper sequence C. season the new belt prior to installation D. replaces the entire belt set 2682. A knocking sound from one cylinder of an operating compressor indicates A. a defective or broken high pressure unloader

B. a loose valve plate C. excessive overload D. no compression

2683. which of the following statement describes the function of an air compreeser intake filter ? A.protects against pressure on the air inlet valve float b.provides a positive preesure on the air inlet valves. c.prevents lubricating oil contamination of the compreesed air supply. d.protects aginst the damaging effects of airborne solid particles. Ans:d 2685 . In addition to a preesure gage and a relief valve an air receiver should be fitted with a? a.sight glass and manhole b.thermometer and sight glass c.thermometer and manhole d.drain connection ans:d 2687 if you have a duplex double acting reciprocating pump making 160 strokes/minute,with a 6 diameter cylinder,a 9 stroke and operating with 85% volumetric efficiency,what is the capacity of this pump? a.150 gram b.225 gram

c.300 gram d.75 gram ans:c 2689 a compressor operating with an accumulation of dust and grease on the surface of an intercooler would result in_______i,a high consumption of lube oil ii higher than normal air pressure in the receiver A.i only b.ii only c. both I and ii d. neither I nor ii ans:a 2691 a v-belt that is too high will cause excessive wear of both the belt and the______ a. b. c. d. Shaft of the prime mover Compresser slave pulley Main bearing of the compressor Prime mover drive pulley Ans:a

2693 For any given volume of compresed air produced by a multiage air compressor interage cooling will_____________ A I only B IIonly C both Iand II D Neither IorII

2695 If the intercooler relief valve lifts whild an aircompresser is operating under load you should check for -_________ a.defective pressure swicht or pilot valve b.a leak in the intercooler piping c.leakage through the low pressure unloadercontrol diaphragm d.leaking high pressure discharge valves ans:d 2697 leaking valves in an air compressure can be result of _____________ a.excessive discharge pressure b.abrasion dust,anddr ift c.excessive compresser speed d.irregular compression strokes ans:b 2699 the pressure developed in the high pressure cylinder of reciprocating air compreser in order to assure an output near the end of it compression stroke is ___________ a.the same as the line discharge period b.below the line discharge pressure c.constant through the discharge period d. above the line discharge pressure ans:b 2684 an important point of consideration when reaplacing the dry type intake filters on the air compresser is to______

a.use the same wetting oil on the element as is used in the compresser lubricating system b.install a smaller size filter to allow for an expansion of the element c.install only filter consistisng of a treated paper element d. select the proper size filter so that air flow is not restrict ans: d 2686 a reciprocating air compresser is running roughly and vibrating excessively indicating that the __________ A. B. C. D. compresser over loaded motor is overloaded foundation bolts are loose belts are too tight

ans:c 2688 a compresser operating an accumulation of dust and grease on surface of an inter cooler would result in _____________I the motor to run warmer than usual ii.lower density air discharge to the receiver a.i only b.ii only c.both I and ii d.neither I nor ii ans:a 2690 the unloading of an air compreesor may be provided by__________i.holding the intake valve off its seat ii.temporarily relieving the inercooler to the atmosphere a.i only

b. ii only c.both I and ii d. neither nor ii ans:c 2692 operating a reciprocating air compressor without an air intake filter can result in an __________ a.compressor should run continuously b.immediate clooging of the intake c.possible explosion in the compressor d.deposit of carbon on the valves ans:c 2694 if a ship service air compressor failed to unload the__________ a.compressor would run continuously b.air receiver pressure would be excessively low c.belts could slip when starting d.compressor would pump lube oil ans:b 2696 a leaking suction valve in the second stage of two stage,high pressure,air compressure can cause excessively high_________ a.second stage discharge pressue b.first stage discharge pressure c.pressure in aftercooler

d.compressor final discharge temperature ans:b 2698 condensate must be drained periodically frpm the air compressor receives to prevent_________ a.secondstage cylinder lockup b.oil sump contamination c.faulty operation of pneumatic valves d.corrosion of air receiver baffles ans:c 2900 the volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating air compressor,is the ratio of the_______ a.adiabatic work of compression to the indicated horsepower b.work of isothermal compression to the brake horsepower of the motor c.air indicated horsepower from indicator cards to the brake horsepower input d.actual amount of air discharge by the compressor to the therotical volume swept by the movement of the compressor piston ans:d 2701 the air charge leaving an intercoller or aftercooler of an air compressor can be expected to be a.superheated b.supercooled c.at or below due point

d.all of the above ans.c 2703 air compressor cylinder unloaders enable the compressor to.. a.vary their speed according to temperature and load b.start and come up to speed before air compression begins c.charge speed according to overload demands d.reduce compressed air charge density ans b 2705 if one can drive belt on air compressor is found to be worn you should a.replace the belt only b.replace all of the belts c.dress the worn belt d.adjust belt tension ans b 2707 carbon deposits forming on the discharge values of an air compressor are caused by oil deterioration under high pressure. The first step in reducing these deposits would be to a.reduce the discharge temperature b.increase the compression ratio c.use a high viscosity oil d.increase the oil volatility

ans.a 2709 unloading of a low pressure, reciprocating, air compressor at start up can be accompolished by . a.holding the L.P discharge valve open b.the use of precharged accumulator d. temporarily discharging back to the compressor intake ans.d 2711 on a medium pressure differential piston, reciprocating air compressor, lubrication of the pistons/cylinders is usually accomplished a.by the splash method b.with metering type cylinders c.gravity fed lubricators d.lube oil flow from the bearing lube oil system ans.b 2713 which of the listed valves types is typically used as inlet and discharge valves on modern low pressure air compressor ? A. B. C. D. poppet rotary reed sliding ans:c

2715 according to regulations, a welded repair to a ships service air receiver ,other than an emergency repairs at sea, must be . a.inspected and tested by the chief engineer before it may be returned to service

b.completed and then tested at least twice prier to notifying the administrator to ask for a surveyor c.made with a backing strip to ensure full penetration d.made only with the prior approval of the administrator ans:D 2717. one function of the air receiver in a compressed air system is to A. B. C. D. dry the air discharge from the inter coller minimize the system line pistons receive exhaust air from pneumatic accessories remove all the traces from the air

2719. an unloader is installed in ona a n air compressor to

2702. the unloading system on airv compressor will A. B. C. D. ans:C 2704. regulations specify phrobit seats or disks in pressur vessel relief valves to be made of A. B. C. D. cast iron bronze brass stain less stell increase compressor discharge pressur on demand increase compressor operating speed as necessary allow the motor to run compressor opposed only by the friction reduce the compressor frictional load when starting

ans:A

2706. air compressurs are equipped with unloading systems for the purpose of A. B. C. D. lekking un loader tripped circuit breaker control line leak defective poo valve

ans:B 2708. air compreesurs are4 required with unloaing systems for the purpose of A. B. C. D. removing all the but the frictional load during starting reliving inter coolersn of high temp build ups providing high starting torque in the drive motoer seating valve plates during compressor shut down

ans:A 2710. excessively low air pressur occurring in the inter coller of a receprotation air compressor is caused by A. B. C. D. leaky discharge valves on the LP cylinder leaky discharge valls on the HP cylinder in sufficient inter cooling low am bient air pressur

ans:a 2712. broken valves strips in an operating low pressur , air compressor will cause A. B. C. D. an imdeiate crank case explosion oil contamination in the compressed air a decereasec in the compressor capacity no imdeate loss of the compressed air capacity

ans:c

2714. the function of the springs used with a channel or plate type valves for receprotaion air compressor is to A. B. C. D. open the valves during down ward slopes provide positivt closing of the valves reduce compressor discharge pulsatiuon reduce air in take &exhaust pulsation

ans:B 2716. the major difference between the discharge and the suction valves installed in most low pressur receprotation air compressors is that A. one valves seats up ward while the other seats down ward B. the reed valves used on the discharge or made substantly thicker and heavier than the suction valves C. the suction valve springs except a great tension that than the discharge valve springs D. the discharge valve spring except a greater tension than the suction vave springs ans:A 2718. cylinder inlet valve failure in the low pressure air compressor can be caused by A. B. C. D. carbon build up on the pistons from excessive lubrication compressor over speeding due to in chanceail failure in the un loader valve founding due to valve covers being excessively tight striking valves due to carbon build up on the seats

ans:d 2720. an air compressor can be un loaded at startup by

A bypass remove the high pressure stage to the low pressure stage on 100% of the air compressors B prevent excessive interstage pressure buildup C control compressor discharge pressure D remove all but the frictional load during stating Ans D 2721 Which of the following statements is true concerning the overall efficiency of air compressors? A B High pressure compressors are more efficient than low pressure compressors Mechanical efficiency of the compressor unit

C Two stage compressors are generally more efficient than single stage compressors D The volumetric efficiency is decreased in multistage compressors

Ans C 2722 Which of the following statements is true concerning V-belt drives for reciprocating air compressors? A B C D Ans Belts generally stretch slightly during the first few months of use An excessively tight belt will overloaded the bearings A loose belt will slip on the motor pulley and wear rapidly All of the above D

2723 Condensate must be drained from the intercooler and aftercoolers of an air compressors because

the cooling effect of the condensate reduces the compressor efficiency

B a danger of explosion exists whenever water is present in a compressor C D water causes erratic of pneumatic componenents the volumetric capacity of the first stage is reduced if water remains

Ans c 2724 According to regulation if a pressure vessel such as ships service air tank has defects which may impair its safety the tank shall be A hydrostatically tested at a pressure equal to the pressure of the tank B hydrostatically tested at a pressure equal to 1 times the maximum allowable working pressure of the tank C pnenumatically tested at a pressure equal to the working pressure of the tank D pnenumatically tested at a pressure equal to the 11/2 times of the design pressure of the tank Ans B 2725 Regulations require safety and relief valves for air provided with substantial lifting device, capable of lifting the disk from its seat when the pressure in the vessel is A. B. C. D. 50% of that at which the value is set to blow 75% of that at which the valve is set to blow 110% of that at which the valve is set to blow 125% of that at which the valve is set to blow

Ans:B 2726 Which of the following statement is correct when comparing the cylinder diameters of a two stage reciprocating air compressor? A. The low pressure cylinder will be smaller than the high pressure cylinder.

B. The high pressure cylinder will be smaller than the high pressure cylinder. C. The high and low pressure cylinders will be of equal size. D. The low pressure cylinder will be smaller than the high pressure cylinder but the piston stroke will be greater. Ans:B PROPELLER, SHAFTING AND STERN TUBE BEARING

2727 Differential pistons used in some reciprocating air compressor serve to provide A. B. C. D. A means of disturbing side pressures over a wider area of each cylilnder A means of unloading during start up More than one stage of compression by each piston A variable compression ratio enabling the output to be varied to suit any load condition

Ans:C 2728 the function of an unloades on a two cylinder two stage medium pressure air compressor is to A. B. C. D. Remove all but the friction load on the compressor motor when starting Prevent water accumulation in air lines Reduce motor starting voltage Vary compressor speed

Ans:A 2729 the clearance volume for a single stage compressor is defined as the space created between the A. Top of the piston and bottom side of head with the piston at BDC B. Piston and head including the space around the piston to the top of the upper ring and under the valves with the piston at TDC

C. Bottom of the piston and bottom side of the head at TDC regardless of upper ring location and valve placement D. Top of the piston and bottom side of the head at TDC as compared to that which exists between the top of the piston and bottom side os head at BDC Ans:B 2730 One cause of leaky valves in a low pressure air compressor may be attributed to A. Running with an air filter element different from that required by the original manufacturers specifications B. Excessive operating hours without carrying out preventive maintanence C. The compressor running too fast D. Excessive discharge pressure Ans:B 2731 Compared to poppet and the other mechanically operated valves which of the following advantages is gained by using a thin plate low lift type valve in an low pressure air compressor? A. They improve compression efficiency B. They operate with a minimum of noise C. They are simple and easy to replace D. all the above Ans: D 2732 if all of the air charge has been lost from ship service air receiver the compressor mechanical unloading system will A. Fail to work and the drive motor will trip the circuit breaker as the compressor will be overloaded B. Fail to work but the compressor having no load will start with little or no difficulty C. Still functionality normally at start-up

D. Still function normally but the safety interlock will stop the drive motor 2733 Which combination of the main shaft segments listed below that are located far from the main engine are connected by the inboard stern tube coupling A. Line shaft and stern tube shaft B. Line shaft and thrust shaft

C. Thrust shaft and stern tube shaft D. Stern tube shaft and tail shaft Ans: A 2734 Which of the following statements describes the purpose of the spilt inflatable seal installed aft of the primary seal assembly for the propeller shaft? A. To serve as a seal when adding packing to the stuffing box B. To allow repair or replacement of the primary seal elements when the ship is waterborne C. To eliminate leakage via the propeller shaft when the shaft is not rotating D. To provide a ready means for the entry of cooling water Ans:B 2735 the exposed portion of the outboard propeller shaft is projected against seawater corrosion by A. B. C. D. A heavy lubricant A covering of plastic, rubber, or shrunk on composition sleeve A corrosion resistant paint A layer of oxidation formed when the metal of the shaft is exposed to seawater

Ans: B

2736 One of the determining factors regulating the time interval for drawing a vessels tallshaft depends upon the design to reduce stress concentrations in accordance with class standards which construction method meets this design criteria? A. Spooned keyway and slotted key B. Stress relief grooves at the aft end of the propeller and forward end of the liner C. Keyway cut as to give a sharp rise from the buttom of the keyway to the shaft surface D. All the above Ans: A 2737 An excessive amount of water is prevented from entering a vessel using a water lubricated stern tube bearing by the use of the A. B. C. D. Ans: C 2738 if water were a semisolid the linear distance a propeller would advance in one revolution is the A. B. C. D. Ans: C 2739 the lignum vitae in a stem tube bearing is normally lubricated with A. Grease B. Oil Blade thickness fraction Mean width ratio Pitch Skew back factor Propeller hub Lignum vitae Shaft packing Labyrinth seal

C. Water D. Tallow Ans: C 2740 Which of the statement listed accurately applies to controllable pitch propeller systems? A. A pitch indicator is to be fitted on the navigation bridge for vessels 400 gross tons and above B. Independent remote control of pitch is to be provided at or near the oil distribution box. Tests of its operation are to be performed in the presence of the surveyor C. After installation in the vessel, the complete piping system is to be subjected to a hydrostatic test equal to 1.25 times the design pressure D. The arrangement of piping is to be such that a single failure in one part of the piping or pump unit will not impair the integrity of the remaining parts of the system Ans: D 2741 Compared to a constant pitch propeller, a controllable pitch propeller A. B. C. D. Ans: A 2742 The conical steel or composition cone installed on a propeller known as a fairwater cone, provides which of the following benefits? A. Reduces turbidness More efficiently uses available engine power Operates at a lower efficiency att a fixed speed Produces the same torque at lower engine power Develops its rated power at a lower speed

A. To serve as a seal when adding packing to the stuffing box B. To allow repair or replacement of the primary seal elements when the ship is waterbome C. To eliminate leakage via the propeller shaft when the shaft is not rotating D. To provise a ready meansfor the entry of cooling water Ans: B 2743 Water leaking through the stern box is used to accomplish which of the following actions? A. B. C. D. Cooling Lubrication Flushing All the above

Ans: D 2744 Some vessels are equipped with a water lubricaed tube when at sea, operating under normal conditions, the water servicevalve from the ships saltwater system to the bearing should be A. B. C. D. Ans: B 2745 The device used to retain the packing that keeps water from entering the ship through the opening where the propeller shaft passes through the hull, is called a A. B. C. D. Packing nut Hawsepipe Stuffing box Seal cage Closed and no leakage permitted across the shaft packing Closed and only slight leakage permitted across the shaft packing Open and only slight leakage permitted across the shaft packing Open and no leakage permitted across the shaft packing

Ans: C 2746 Excessive propeller vibration may occur as a result of A. B. C. D. Ans: C 2747 Which of the following statements is correct concerning requirement for propellers? A. A propellermay not be changed with one of a different pitch unless stress evaluations are supplied and permission is granted by a marine surveyor. B. When steel propellers are used zinc anodes are to be fitted on the forwarded most section of the rudder assembly C. The exposed steel is to be protected from the action of the water by filling all spaces between the cap, hub and shaft with a suitable material D. Ultrasonic examinations of the propeller may be performed in lieu of required drydocking periods, provided certified copies are distributed to the proper regulatory bodies. Ans: C 2748 Whichof the components listed is used to connect several sections of line shafting? A. Inboard stern tube couplings B. Bolts fitted through flange type couplings forged integral with the shaft sections C. Muff type outboard couplings D. All of the above types Ans: B 2749 unusuall hull or propeller shaft vibrations caused by Operating at low speed High water pressure under the hull Cavitation Operating in deep river channels

A. B. C. D.

Excessive engine speed Slop in a hydrulic clutch Slight over heating of the line shaft spring bearings High engine speed in deep water

Ans; A 2750 When the rotating shaft frequency and the natural vibrating frequency become synchronized at a particular speed, that speed is known as the A. Synchronous speed Page 145 B.Helps with lubrication C.protects the nut D.all the above Ans.c B.sympathetic speed c.critical speed d.breakway speed ans.c 2751 keyless propeller hubs secured to tailshafts by pilgrim nuts are removed by A spring loaded jacks B hydraulic pressure C heating with torch D hydraulic lever arms

Ans.b 2752 When the propeller blades are integral with the hub,the propeller is called a A. B. C. D. Built up propeller Solid propeller Controllable propeller Suction back propeller

Ans:B 2753 In order to prevent overheating of the packing in the steam tube stuffing box. A. B. C. D. the gland is properly adjusted to permit a slight leakage of sea water stave-type rubber seals are used cooling water is supplied from the fresh water cooling system the gland nuts must be tightly taken up to prevent any water leakage

Ans: A

2754. Any unusual, or new vibration in the hull or propeller shafting can be a indication of _________ A. B. C. D. clutch slippage overheated bearings high engine speed propeller unbalance

ans:D 2755 Following the withdrawal of the tail shaft,whichnon-destructive test could be used to locate cracks?1 liquid penetrant dye 2.magnatic flux

A .1 only B.2 only C.Both 1 and 2 D: nether 1 or 2 Ans C 2756 By which of the following means is force efficiently lower to vary the pitch of the blades on a modern controllable pitch propeller A: hydraulic B: mechanical C: pneumatic D: electrical Ans: a 2757 A piece is missing from one blade of a four bladed propeller and could result In A: accelerated stem bearing wear b:excessive shaft vibration c: unusual noises d: all of the above Ans D 2758 inspection of a vessels propeller durind dry docking should include (A) noting the condition of the fair water

(B) inspecting the locking device (C) Logging inspection results in the official deck log (D) All the above Ans B 2759 when the tailshaft is drawn from a vessel in drydock,which of the following inspections is required to be carried out? (A) The propeller hub taper and shaft keyway should be inspected for cracks and corrosion (B) The stern bearing alignment with the stern frame should be checked (C) The interior of the stern tube should be inspected for leaks (D) The shaft liner should be removed and inspected for cracks Ans A 2760 in a water cooled stern tube at slight leakage of water across the packing gland is provided to (A) Flush all the dirt and grit from the gland (B) Flush all dirt and grit from the bearing slaves (C) Keep the gland packing cool (D) Keep the stern tube fair water cool Ans C 2761 when a vessel is underway, a small amount of water is allowed to leak through the water lubricated stern tube stuffing box in order to (A) Flush out slit and mud which can accumulate from shallow water (B) Prevent over heating of the package (C) Ensure positive coolant flow through the strut bearing (D) Prevent seizing of the rubber strips in the bearing bushing Ans B 2762 the conical steel or composition cone installed on a propeller,known as fairway cone, provides which of the following benefits? (A) Reduce turbulence

(B) Help with lubrication (C) Protect against electrolytic corrosion (D) All the above Ans A. 2763 propeller pitch speed minus ship speed divided by the propeller pitch is termed A. B. C. D. Apparent slip True slip Pitch Propulsive efficiency

Ans: A 2764 which of the devices listed prevents water from entering a ships hull via the propulsion shaft? A. B. C. D. stern tube packing or mechanical shaft seal deflector ring and drain spring bearings oiler rings

Ans : A 2765 vessel propellers are classified as being right hand or left hand. A right hand propeller t turn Clockwise when viewed from A. B. C. D. the bow the stern the port side the starboard

Ans : B 2766 Which of the following nondestructive testing methods can be used to detect a suspended subsurface defect in a tailshaft liner?

A. B. C. D.

Dye penetrant Magnetic particle Ultrasonic All of the above

Ans : C 2767 which of the following statements best describes an oil lubricated stern tube bearing installations? A. it receives its oil supply from a branch line of the main lube oil system. B. No shaft liner is needed in the area of the babbitied bearing surface. C. the system pressure must be lowered when maneuvering in port to prevent blowing the outer oil seal. D. for precise regulation of the bearing temperature the system is required to have its own oil cooler. Ans B 2768 It is necessary to test the hydraulic system of a controllable pitch propeller. According to regulation what should be done? A. The vessel must be drydocked and the propeller removed when performing this test B. The system pressure should be prevented from exceeding the maximum allowable Operating pressure set forth by the manufacturer. C. The system should be tested at the pressure of 1 times the maximum allowable pressure. D. All necessary repairs must be approved by the chief engineer of the vessel. Ans C 2769 which of the following actions pertaining to saltwater lubricated stem lube stuffing boxes, is usually observed when the ship is expected to be in the port for an extended period? A. The stuffing box is continually flushed B. The drain connection is left opened

C. The stuffing box gland is lightened D. The packing is adjusted for greater cooling or replaced Ans : C 2770 After packing is added to the stern tube stuffing box, which of the following procedures should be observed toinsure even lightening of the glad? A. Listen for a smooth, regular sound B. Measure the distance between the gland and the stuffing box with a rule C. Judge by feeling the gland for an increase in heta as it is being D. Open the derain connection to allow seawater to flow in and make the distance even Ans : B 2771 A bronzed sleeve is secured to the propeller tailshaft by A. B. C. D. Keying Shrinking Threading Pressing

Ans : C 2772 which of the following statements represent an aperating characteristics of neoprene or rubber stern tube bearings? A. B. C. D. No stern tube packing is required The bearing is lubricated by seawater Propeller shaft vibration will not damage these bearings Neoprene bearings are less abrasion resistant that bronze bearings

Ans : B 2773. When the rotating shaft frequency and the natural vibrating frequency become synchronized at a particular speed, the speed is known as the,

A. Breakaway speed B. Critical speed

C. Synchronous speed D. Sympathetic speed Ans. B 2774. which of the following statements describes the advantage of the mechanical shaft sealing system over the stuffing box and packing method of shaft sealing for propulsion shafting?

A. It eliminates the repairing or the renewing the shaft sleeve B. It is fully automatic in operation C. It allows for the removal and reinstallation of all parts without without dismantaling the shafts D. Each of the statement above is correct Ans. D 2775. stern tubes and strut bearings lined with hardwood and rubber composition materials are lubricated with A. salt water B. graphite C. light lubricating oil D. heavy lubricating oil Ans. A 2776. the stern tube flushing connection can be used to, A. assist in flushing out all packing strips when renewing packing underway B. provide a position flow of water through the steam tube for lubricating, cooling, and flushing when required C. flush out brackish water resulting from extended in port operation D. serve as the only source of the supply of the water for the stern tube bearing Ans. B

2777. a vessel has been equipped with oil lubricated stern bearing and is undergoing a routine dry docking. Which of the following inspections should be made when the tail shaft has been drawn, A. the overall condition of the bearing surface should be examined B. the shaft liner should be inspected for cracks and tested to insure a tight fit C. the stern tube tested for cracks with dye penetrate D. all the above Ans. A 2778. one of the determining factor regulating the time interval for drawing a vessel tails shaft depending upon the design to reduce stress concentration. Which of the following factors, in part, would be considered to meet this design criteria? A. sprocketed keyway and slotted way B. stress relief grooves at the forward end of the propeller and aft end of the linear C. key way is to be cut so as to give a sharp rise from the bottom of the key way to the shaft surface D. all of the above Ans. B 2779. the purpose of the propeller fair water cone is to A. lock the propeller nut in position B. minimize water turbulence C. eliminate axial thrust D. eliminate cavitation Ans. B 2780. the tail shaft usually supported by the

A. spring bearings B. tail bearings C. stern tube bearings D. propeller bearings Ans. C 2781. regulation require a single tail shaft with water lubricated tail shaft bearings, stress relieved keyway, and fabricated from the material resisting to corrosion by sea water, to be drawn and examined once in every A. 2 years B. 3 years C. 5 years D. 8 years Ans. C

2782. on a vessel using a water lubricated tail shaft bearing, a single tail shaft without a special keyway, and not constructed of materials resistant to corrosion by sea water, the tail shaft must be drawn and examined twice within any A. 4 years B. 5 years C. 6 years D. 8 years Ans. B

2785 To anneal the copper gasket , you should heat the gasket --------------------a. b. c. d. And quench it in oil Cherry red and quench it in water And let it cool slowly in air And carbonize it. Ans : C

2786 copper is sometimes used for fluid power lines because it --------------a. b. c. d. Ans :B 2787 which of the following propeller material will not require stress relief treatment after minor repairs, straightening of the tips or the thinning of the blade edges? a. b. c. d. Ans D 2788 in certain circumstances, weldments are preheated before each pass to a. b. c. d. Ans A Reduce internal stresses Increase the temperature gradient in the weld area Allow the use of smaller welding rods Eliminate the need for post heating Manganese bronze Nickel manganese bronze Manganese nickel aluminium bronze Nickel aliminium bronze Has good resistance to high temperature Has high resistance to corrosion Withstands heavy vibration under heavy system loads Resists hardening under stress

2789 The probability of sulfide stress cracking in the presence of hydrogen sultide is greatest for----a. b. c. d. Ans B 2790 which of the listed effect represent the purpose of heat treating steel ---------a. b. c. d. Develop ductility Improve machine quantities Relieve stresses All of the above Low strength steel High strength steel Rubber sealing element Aluminium

Ans : D 2791 when using the circular magnetice particle method to non destructive test a weldment the best result are obrtained when the -------------a. b. c. d. Ans C 2792 which of the listed methods used for testing the metal, measures the ability of the metal to absorb the energy of a load rapidly applied to the member? a. b. c. d. Brinell only Charpy only Charpy and brinell Rock well and brinell Current is flowing at right angles to discontinuity Magnetic field is parallel to the discontrinuity Magnetic field is at right angle to the discontinuity Defect is located outside parallel flux path of the prods

Ans : B 2793in radiographic inspections the standard test piece included in every radiograph provides an effective check on the overall wuantity and bears a numerical relation to the thickness of he part being tested. This piece is called a/ an------------a. b. c. d. Ans A 2794Which of he non destructive testing method can beaeasily used yet with good accuracy to detect, locate, identify, and measure defects in welds and base material regardless of material type and structure? a. b. c. d. Ans B 2795 the internal force of a material which tends to resist deformation when subjected to external force is known as ----------a. b. c. d. Ans A 2796 Which of he non destructive testing method is suitable for detecting and identifying a diameter subsurface void in six inch diameter stainless steel shaft? Stress Strain Sheer strength Ultimate tensilr strength Radiography Ultrasonics Visible dye penetrant Magnetic particle Penetrometer Intensimeter Lead filter gauge Exposure screen

a. b. c. d. Ans B

Magnetic particle Radiography Ultrasonic Dye penetrant

2797. copper sheet metal that is to be used as gasket is usually annealed by heating it to cherry red colour and then a. dousing it in cold water b. cooling it slowly in air c. quenching it slowly in oil. d. drawing its temper quickly ans B 2798. reheating a hardened component to a temperature lower than the hardening temperature and then cooling is a. low temperature hardening b. case hardening c. annealing d. tempering ans D 2799. when a metal is tempered a. harder b. softer c. less brittle

d. more brittle ans C 2800. Ferrous metal are containing a. no iron b. a large percentage of copper c. a large percentage of iron d. a large percentage of aluminium ans C STEAM, HEAT AND THERMO DYNAMICS 2801. THE energy associated with molecules is known as --------a. kinetic energy b. potential energy c. mechanical energy d. thermal energy ans D 2802 A bourdon tube type steam pressure gage is fitted with a siphon loop to prevent damage from a. b. c. d. Ans A Extreme thermal stress B. the admission of condensate C. pressure shock D. differential expansion rates.

2803. Which of the following guidelines is considered to reflect good design practices of ship board steam heating systems? a. provide constant steam service for equipment operating throught the year b. provide either a common or individual reducing station for eachgroup of units requiring the same operation pressure c. run all piping so it ay drained by gravity d. all the above

ans D 2804. if the fixed orifice in the evaporator steam supply line were to be removed, the steam pressure reducing valve located upstream would a. be unable to maintain stream flow unless the proper range spring were to be installed b. be suitable for maintaining the required steam flow under all load condition. c. handle the operation satisfactorily as the control orifice develops an impedance to the steam flow. d. all the above ans A 2805. Recarding the low pressure evoperator steam control orifice in the live steam supply line, the steam at he outlet of the orifice if not properly condition will be developed as ---a. de super heated steam b. super heated steam c. saturated steam

d. poor quality steam ans B 2806. a vapor under pressure stays in contact with , and at the same temperature as the liquid from which it was generated. The vapor and the liquid in this situation are therefore, said to be in a/an a. equilibrium contact b. latent contact c. critical state d. superheated state ans A 2807. which of the following statements concerning the opertation of steam pressure reducing valves is correct a. reducing station relief valves must be lifted by hand at once a watch b. the cut valves at the outlet of the reducing valves should be throttled when in operation. c. reducing valve should be warmed up and drained before as they are adjusted d. reducing valve should be absolutely reliable and reuire no routeline maintenance. Ans C 2808. the basic function of a steam trap is to a. regulate the flow of steam leaving a heater b. limit the flow of steam leaving a heater until it has given up its latent c. limits the flow of steam a heater until it has given up its latent heat of fusion

d. eliminate steam pipe water hammer ans B. 2809. mechanical energy in transition is referred as to a. horsepower b. work. c. heat. d. velocity ans B 2810. which of the following forms of energy is usually associated with relatively large bodies or objects? a. chemical energy b. mechanical energy c. thermal energy d. electrical energy ans B 2811. the rate of heat transform from a hot region to cold region is affected most by the a. size of th hat sink b. temperature difference between the regions c. size of a heat source d. total heat of the system ans B

2812. the steam supplied to operate a steam driven reciprocating pump is usually obtained from the a. desuperheated steam line via a reducing station b. auxillary exhaust line c. main steam line via reducing station d. contaminated steam generator ans A 2813. the difference between the pressure at a point being measured and that o a perfect vaccum is known as a. internal pressure b. gauge pressure c. absolute pressure d. external pressure ans C 2814. medium temperature hot water systems have been used in place of small auxillary boilers producing 7 bar steam with a. 138oc water systems 140oc water systems c. 160oc water systems d. 171oc water systems ans C 2815. steam supply piping to deck machinaery is insulated in order to a. maintain good turbulent free steam flow through the pipe

b. prevent super heating of the steam. c. reduce the heat loss from the systems. d. contains small streaks ans C 2816. by which of the listed methods may heat be transferred from one body to another a. radiation b. convection c. conduction d. all the above ans D 2817. the definition of super heat refers to th e amount of heat necessary to raise the temperature of fluid and appliesto I vapour Ii liquids a. b. c. d. I only Ii only Both I and ii Neither I nor ii Ans A

2818. some auxiliaries are notr designed to handle auxillary steam at boilers pressure. Which of the devices listed is usually fitted in the branch line to deliver steam at the correct pressure. a. an office b. a steam pressure reducing valves

c. a nozzle valve d. a constant quantity regulating valve ans B 2819. the action of water being circulated within a natural circulation boilers is an example of what form of heat transfer? a. radiation b. conduction c. forced convection d. natural convection ans D 2820. the movement of the steam piping as a result of changes in temperature is a best compensated for the use of a. union joint b. expansion joint c. flexitsllic gasket d. rigid brackets ans B 2821. the sum of sensible heat and the latent heat of any substance is known as a. total heat

2823 a suitable location for the instillation of an impulse type steam trap would be in the_________________

a.horizontal run of drain line from the lowest point at the outlet of the heat exchanger b.steam supply line to a feedwater heater c.drain line from a high point in the main steam line expansion loop d.vacuum drag line from the atmosphere drain tank to the main condenser ans:a 2824 the operation of the thermostatic steam trap depends upon the________________ a.action of a float within a chamber b.difference in movement of two dissimilar bimetallic strips not fastened together c.fact that hot water under pressure ten is to flash into steam when its vapour pressure is rapidly reduced d.change in the amount of vapour produced within an enclosed chamber ans:d 2825 heat which brings about a change in the physical state of a substance without a change in temperature is called___________ a.specific heat b.sensible heat c.latent heat d.ambient heat ans:c

2826 the heat required to change a substance from a liquid to a gas without experiencing a temperature change is defined as the latent heat of __________ a.fusion b.vapourisation c.sublimation d.condensation ans:b 2827 how many BTUs must be added to one pound of water at 32F to raise the temperature to 212F? a.16 BTUs b.144 BTUs c.180 BTUs d.970 BTUs ans:c 2828 thermostatic steam pressure reducing valves are used in the fuel oil service system to control the_______________ a.double bottom fuel oil tank temperature b.heater supply steam flow c.pressure of the fuel supplied to the burners d.attemperator steam flow in the heater discharge circuit ans:b 2829 heat may be transferred by_________________ a.conduction

b.convection c.radiation d.all of the above ans:d 2830 power is defined as the______________ a.rate of doing work b.amount of force needed to overcome friction c.amount of work accomplished d.distance through which the object is moved ans:a 2831 insulation on deck steam piping must be installed securely as __________________ a.loose insulation contributes to steam leaks b.deck steam lines are subjected to vibration c.steam driven machinery cannot run with loose insulation d.loose insulation prevents normal pipe expansion ans:b 2832 which of the following statements represents the definition of energy? a.energy is work that has been accomplished b.energy is the capacity for producing an effect c.energy is work being done d.energy is power

ans:b 2833 which of the following terms of energy concerns the forces which binds atoms together in a molecule? a.thermal energy b.mechanical energy c.chemical energy d.electrical energy ans:c 2834 which of the following terms could be applied to the simple definition the energy of motion? a.electrical energy b.thermal energy c.potential energy d.kinetic energy ans:d 2835 which unit of measurement is used to measure mechanical potential energy? a.british thermal units b.horsepower c.kg-m d.calories ans:c 2836 thermal energy in transition is also referred to as ___________________

a.heat b.power c.horsepower d.foot-pound ans:a 2837 steam traps should be installed at the lowest outlet point of the heat exchanger in a horizontal run of pipe.which of the following installation considerations should also be maintained? a.they should be installed with their main axis horizontal b.they should be installed unpainted and wrapped in an insulation blanket c.a bypass around the trap is unnecessary if the steam input pressure never exceeds 0.7 kg/cm2 d.they should remain uninsulated and unpainted ans:d 2838 which of yhe following modes of heat transfer does NOT requires any physical contact between a warmer and a cooler substance? a.radiation b.conduction c.natural convection d.all of the above ans:a 2839 A bourdon tube pressure gage is protected from the effects of the steam entering the pressure element by a/an__________________

a.exposed , uninsulated coil in the line leading to the gage b.impulse-type steam trap in the gage line c.leather or neoprene diapharm in the gage line d.spring loaded bellows in the gage line ans: 2840 which of the following statements concerning energy is correct? a.energy can be created or destroyed b.energy may not be transformed c.the total quantity of energy in the universe is always same d.none of the above ans: 2841 the boiliong point of water in an open container at sea level is 100c if the pressure on the open container is decreased, the boiling point will _________________ a.increase b.decrease c.increase and then decrease d. decrease and then increase ans:b 2842 the difference between the pressure at a point being measured and that of a perfect vacuum is known as______________________ a.internal pressure b.guage pressure

c.absolute pressure d.external pressure ans:c 2843 which of the following best describes the thermodynamic effect on the pressure and the volume relationship with regards to saturated gases? a.as pressure decreases,volume increases b.as pressure increases,volume decreases c.as pressure decreases,volume decreases d.as pressure increases,volume increases ans:a 2844 pigtails or siphons are used to protect bourdon tube-type gages from the direct exposure to steam by _______________ a.changing the direction of the steam flow b.rapidly reducing the stream velocity c.creating a condensate seal d.bleeding off a portion of the steam ans:c 2845 how can you determine the data that the pressure vessels on your ship will require a hydrostatic test or internal inspection? a.check the boiler equipment list b.check the pressure vessel block on the certificate of inspection c.check the class certificates d.check the pressure vessel addenda to the vessels SOLAS certificate

ans:b 2846 a turbine exhaust pressure of 1.013 bar abs is equal to ___________________ a.00.000 bar g b.00.5 bar g c.01.470 bar g d.2 bar g ans:a 2847 a leaking steam trap located in the return lines from a heating system is indicated by excessive____________ a.drain tank steaming b.scale returning from the convertors c.steam pressure In the convertors d.water in the heating system ans:a 2848 admitting steam to an improperly drained heating system could result in ________________ a.cutting valve seating surfaces b.high velocity slugs of water in motion in the system c.damage due to water hammer d.all of the above ans:d

2849 a pounding noise occurring in one cylinder of a steam reciprocating general service pump could be caused by__________________ a.lower than normal supply steam temperature b. lower than normal supply steam pressure c.improper adjustment of steam cushion valves d.loss of air charge in the pump discharge plenum chamber ans:c 2850 a bourdon tube-type steam pressure gage is fitted with a siphon loop to prevent damage from the direct effects of _______________ a.pressure shock b.uneven expansion c.entering condensate d.entering steam ans:d 2851 latent heat can be defined as the heat which must be added to a substance in order to change it from a ________________ a.solid to liquid b.liquid to vapour c.solid to vapour d.all of the above ans:d 2852 which of the listed reciprocating pump parts control the position of the pilot slide valve?

a.moving tappets b.adjusting of the tappets collar c.stay rods d.movement of the main piston through the steam chamber ans:d 2853 a major controlling factor in the location of the condensate return piping from a heating system is/are______________ a.the requirement of a gravity return b. the requirement for short lateral run c. the requirement to minimize conflict with head room and other services d.all of the above ans:a 2854 the heat identified by only a change in temperature is known as _____________________ a.sesible heat b.latent heat c.total heat d.residual heat ans:a 2855 water hammer in a steam heating system can be caused by _________________ a.filling the auxillary boiler with the cold water b.steam admitte4d to a cold pipe

c. filling the auxillary boiler with the hot water d.draining a soot blower line before cracking the steam supply valve ans:b 2856 the operation of a thermostatic steam trap depends upon the ________________ a.thermal expansion of a fluid b.position of a float c.tendency of hot water to flash in to steam d.flow characteristics of a liquid as it passes through an orifice ans:a 2857 which of the listed types steam traps operates on the principle that hot water flashes to steam when its vapour pressure is rapidly reduced? a.ball float b.thermostatic c.bimettalic d.impulse ans:d 2858 which of the statements listed concerning heat transfer is correct? a.heat is always transferred at constant rate b.heat transfer rate increases as temperature difference increases c.the rate of heat transfer is not affected by temperature difference d.the high temperature region is known as a heat sink

ans:b

B.The flow of liquid to the unfired pressure vessel must be increased. C.the vapour must be removed from contact with the liquid from which it was generated. D.The operating pressure must be rated. Ans:C 2861)The latent heat of water vapor in air is dependent upon the A.dry bulb temperature B.wet bulb temperature C.dew point D.dry point Ans:c 2862)According to regulations,a boiler combustion control system may be testedA.a pressure not less than 1.25 times the maximum allowable working pressure B. a pressure not less than 1.5 times the maximum allowable working pressure C.the maximum allowable working pressure of the system D.the normal operating pressure of the system provided full loading is accomplished Ans.c 2863)Which of the listed statements describes specific heat? A.The amount of required to change the temperature of one pound of a material,one degree C

B. The amount of required to change the temperature of one pound of ice, one degree C C. The amount of required to change the temperature of one pound of butter, one degree C D.all the above. Ans:D 2864)if the system flow entering the evaporating system supply orifice has a quality of 95%which of the following would be true? A.the steam at the outlet would obtain higher degree desuper heat B.the steam at outlet would be at higher superheat than when it is supplied 100% C.the steam would obtain a lower absolute pressure than when it is supplied at quality 100% D.the entrained moisture will become a totally saturated vapour prior to any superheat being acquired by steam Ans.d 2865)Which of the following guidelines is considered to reflect good design practices for shipboard steam heating systems? A.provide orifice type bypasses for traps and automatic valves B.provide a dirtpocket and strainer ahead of the steam trap on a unit heater return C.provide all units with a dirt trap and gate valve in the supply and chec valve on the return D.wherever possible install vertical runs condensate piping Ans:B

2866)if wet steam is supplied to the air ejectors of a low pressure evaporator,the passage of the mixture through the nozzles will A.improve overall vaccum B.cause the potential level of the kinetic energy to be partially converted to thermal energy C. cause the existing level of the thermal energy to be totally converted to kinetic energy D. cause the level of the thermal energy to be converted to potential energy Ans.B 2867)Wwhich of the listed forms of heat transfer.is illustrated by the flow of combustion gases through a boiler A.Natural convection only B.forced convection only C.both natural convection and forced convection D.none Ans:C 2868)when replacing a steam pressure reducing valve what information is required for the selection? A.maximum and minimum inlet pressure B. reduced pressure or pressure range C. maximum and minimum continuous flow rates(kgs/hr) D.all the above Ans .d

2869)Which of the following forms of energy is demonstrated through the process of combustion A.Chemical energy B.mechanical energy C.thermal energy D.electrical energy Ans:A 2870)What is the potential energy of an object weighing 10 kgs at a height of 10 metres A.10 kg-mtr B.20 kg-mtr C.100 kg-mtr D. 1000 kg-mtr Ans:C 2871)the basic function of a steam trap includes which of the following processes A.regulate the flow of condensate from a heater B. regulate the flow of steam from a heater C. regulate the flow of steam to a heater D. regulate the flow of condensate to a heater Ans:A 2872)Before starting a reciprocating steam driven pump that has been ideal for a period of time you should A.open the steam line root valve

B.drain the steam cylinder C.close the steam cylinder drains D.open the liquid cylinder drains Ans:B 2873)Which of the listed method s of heat transfer takes place when two substances of different temperatures are in physical contact with each other? A.Radiation B.Conduction C.convection D.each of the above Ans.B 2874)which of the listed temperatures represents the saturation temperature for water at a saturation pressure of 1bar abs(101.34kp) A. B. C. D. 92 *c 100 *C 160 *c 220 *c Ans:b

2875)which of the following terms is used to indicated the flow of heat will resut in temperature change? A. B. C. D. Latent heat Sensible heat Convection Radiation Ans:b

2876)the eqation energy in=energy out is the simple way of stating the pricple of the A. B. C. D. Ans :b 2877 which of the following terms would best describe the temperature at which a liquid boils at a given pressure A. B. C. D. Degeree of saturation Saturation temperature Super heated temperature Degeree of supper of heat Ans:b Concervation of energy Concervation of matter Conservesion of matter to energy Cocervation of enery to matter

2878 if the air temrature in a mainifound to be 122f what would be the equivalent reading on the centigrade scale A. B. C. D. 35* 40* 45* 50* Ans:d

2879)a stopper is inserted in to the spout of a closed container in which water has been heated to a temp of 100c if addition thermal energy is imparted what changes will occur? A. B. C. D. Both temp and pressure will rise Pressure alone will rise Temp alone will rise Only a change of state will occur

Ans: a 2880)if you determine the that a steam recpicating pump is operating with too long of stroke causing the piston nut to strike the cylinder head you should A. B. C. D. Completely open the steam cushioning valves Install a smaller nut on the piston rod Adjust the value gear to manufacture specified measurements Install a shorter piston rod Ans. C

2881. Steam tables can be used to obtain the _____ A. B. C. D. Values for properties of water vapours at various conditions Specific fuel consumtion condition Steam generating capacity of a vessel boilers Machenical Efficient of main unit Ans. A

2882. The sensible heat of air is depented opon the ____ A. B. C. D. E. Dry pulb temperature Wet pulb temperature Saturation temperature Water vapuor super heat ANs. A

2883. Energy existing in a system as a result of the relative velocities of two or more objects is termed. A. potential energy B. pressure energy C. kinetic energy

D. relative energy Ans: C 2884. The heat required to raise the temperature of 1 pound of a substance 1*F is called A. its specific heat B. its latent heat C. a british thermal unit D. its adiabatic heat Ans: A 2885. The aft, starboard bilge well can not be pumped out and backflushing has not been successful. The next practical solution will be to carry out which of the following actions? A. List the ship to port in order to pump out the bilges for the remainder of the voage B. Place 75 ltrs of fuel oil tank wash into the affected bilge well for one hour to dissolve the stoppage. C. Take all necessary steps to properly and safely pump out the affected bilge well, then manuall muck it out 2886. During routine maintenance the bilge manifold valves are removed. Prior to resecuring the valve bonnets, the valve A. Disks and seats should be checked and lapped if necessary B. Bonnet fiange gasets should be renewed if they were cut or torn C. Stem packing should be renewed if the packing has hardened the glands have bottomed out or the glands cannot be tightened D. All the above

Ans:d 2887. which of the following actions should be taken first if one bilge well of a multible section bingesystem is unable to pumbed out A. B. C. D. Open the bige pump for inspection Remove each of the section manifold valves Remove only the section manifold valve to the affected bilge well Attempt to pump out another bilge well to determine if the entire systemis affected Ans:d

2888.accidental flooding of the engine room bilges by the bilge main is prevented by A. B. C. D. Stop check valves installed in the bilgeSection manifold Using a positive displacement reciprocating bilge pump Installing educators in all bilge rose boxes Installing a swing check before each bilge valve Ans:a

2889.an independent bilge suction is required for Ballads tanks Sludge tanks Machinery space bilge Gargo hold bilge Ans:c 2890)the emergency bilge suction valve is typically used A.to inject cleaning additives when the bilges are extermely dirty B.when the main condenser becomes fouled in order to provide additional cooling water circulation C.to connect the rose box to the independent bildge suction D.if the bildge become flooded and they cannot be emptied by any other means Ans:D A. B. C. D.

2891)Which of the following statements indicate compliance with regulations conserning a vessels bile system A.all bildge manifold suction shall be capable of being locally controlled from above the floor plates B.the system must be capable of operation nder all practicable conditions whether the vessel is upright or listed C.peak tanks chain lockers and deck over poak tanks mat be drained by educators,ejectors 2892)What can happen to oil based mud when contaminated with salt water? A.nothing as salt water is an ingredient of oil based mud B.small amounts can cause thickening of oil based flowing C.small amounts react with gel particles in the mud causing them to floculate

2893. regulations for bilge and ballast piping require that. A. all oil and water tanks be connected to the bilge system B . the bilge pumping system be operable under all practicable conditions\ C . peak tanks and chain lockers have separate electric pumps D .all of the above Ans. B 2894. Regulations require the emergency bilge system to.. A. be independent of the main bilge system B. be a part of the independent bilge system C. have an independent priming pump D. have a cross connection to ballast system Ans.A 2895. Referring to regulations the emergency bilge system A. has no independent primary pump B. is independent of the main bilge system C. have a cross connection to ballast system D. is part of the independent bilge system Ans. B

2896. A compound gage is typically installed on the

A. suction side of a bilge pump B. exhaust manifold of an auxillary diesel C. discharge line from air compressor D. chemical feed tank of an evaporator Ans. A 2897. If one of the bilge manifold valves is prevented from seating,the A. bilge well connected to that valve plus the second bilge well being pumped will be completely emptied B. bilge system will lose vacuum presenting other bilges from being pumped out C. aftermost bilge wells connected to that valve will siphon their contents to the forward bilge wells D. all of the above Ans. B 2898. If one of the bilge system manifold valves does not properly seat, the. A. bilge well connected to that valve plus the second bilge well being pumped will be completely emptied B. bilge system will lose vacuum presenting other bilges from being pumped out C. bilge well connected to that valve will siphonats contents to the forward bilge wells D. all of the above Ans. B

2899. The bilge system is unable to pump out the aft starboard engine room bilge well due to the bilge well suction being folded. With two feet of water over the top of the bilge well, which of the following actions should be carried out? A send the wiper into the bilge well with a scoop and pait B. remove the effected bilge manifold valve and attempt to back flush the line C. simultaneously operate all available bilge pumps D. transfer half the content of the drum of degreaser into the bilge well and pump out the bilge well with the system Ans. B 2900. When a horizontal type centrifugal pump is used for dewatering the engine room bilges, you would..I use a rotary, liquid piston type pump to obtain a prime II partially open the sea suction valve then gradually switch over to the require A I only B II only C either I or II D neither I nor II Ans.C 2901.Bilge lines led through tanks , without using a pipe tunnel must be --------A of schedule 40 pipe B C D fitted with return valves at the bilge manifolds coated with coal tar epoxy or similar corrosion resistant substance fitted with non return valves at the bilge suction Ans.D

2902. which of the equipment listed is most effective in processing bilge slops for overboard discharge A 100 ppm oily water separator B assembling the lube oil purifier as a separator and assigning it to the bilge over board C D 15 ppm oily water separator a magnetic duplex strainer

Ans.C 2903.the bilge system has been performing well however the aft starboard engine room bilge well suddenly fails to be pumped out.which of the fOllowing should be done first to determine the cost A open the bilge pump for inspection B C remove each of the manifold valves remove only the manifold valves to be affected bilge well

D attempt to pump out another bilge well to determine if the entire system is affected Ans.D 2904. you are unable to pump out the aft starboard engine room bilge well That is fouled with one foot of water over the top of the bilge well. What action should be carried out? A. send the wiper into the bilge well with a scoop and pait B. remove the effected bilge manifold valve and attempt to back flush the line C. simultaneously operate all available bilge pumps

D it is only the necessary transfer half the condense of a drum of degreaser Into the bilge well Ans .B 2905. the aft starboard bilge well is clogged,and backflushing has not been successful. The next practical solution would be to.. A change the trim of the ship to the portion order to pump out the bilges for the remainder of the voyage B place 75.7 ltrs(20 gallons) of fuel oil tank washin to the affected bilge well to clear the blockage C properly and safely empty the well with the portable pump then manually muck it out D all of the above Ans .C

Sanitary and sewage system

2906. the process of grinding, shredding ,or reducing the size of sewage particles known as .. A detension B maceration C bulking D chlorinating Ans .B

2907. In sewage treatment the term maceration refers to the process of. A breaking up solid matter into fine particles B precipitating nondecomposed waste in a collection tank C chemically adjusting the sewage Ph to 7.0 D eliminating bacterium coil from the sewage Ans A 2908. A p-type trap and drain is used A for all lavatory sink installations as no other drain type is usable B whenever the gray drain system connection is located in the deck C whenever the gray drain system connection is located in the bulkhead D as a condensate drain for a superheaters Ans. C 2909.the drains of the lavatory sinks are fitted with p-type or s-type traps is .. A reduce water velocity and minimizes erosion B create a strong siphon effect C provide a cushion of the water to reduce the effects of water hammer D provide a seal against sewer gas rising into the compartment Ans.D

2910 A vessel is in compliance with federal regulations regarding the discharge of sewage by..

A holding all sewage onboard B treating sewage in an approved system C pumping the sewage ashore to an approved container D all of the above Ans. D 2911. a pneumatic pressure tank is installed ina sanitary system to .. A reduce excessive cycling of the sanitary pump B prevent the sanitary pump from losing suction C provide a higher pressure in the system then the pump can deliver D increase water flow through the system Ans.A

2912 The flame screens installed on sewage system tank vents prevent explosions by A allowing the escape of flammable vapors B dissipating the heat of a fire C absorbing any flammable vapors in the vicinity D preventing flammable vapors from entering the tank Ans. B

2913.the process of grinding or shredding sewage into smaller particles known as A detention B comminution C bulking D skimming Ans.B

2914 A s-type trap and drain is used.. A for all lavatory sink installations as no other drain type is usable B whenever the gray drain system connection is located in the deck C whenever the gray drain system connection is located in the bulkhead D as a condensate drain for a superheaters Ans. B 2915.traps in plumbing drains are designed to help prevent .. A drain noises in the living quarters B drains clogging at the toilets C air pockets in the sewer lines D escape of odours into the living quarters Ans.D

2916 Traps at plumbing drain connections prevent A system clogging

B escape of odors C air pockets D drain noises Ans. B HEAT EXCHANGERS

2917 Machinery operating features are designed to help conserve energy. which of the following results will not contribute energy conservation? A reduction of friction B insulation of hot surfaces C lubrication of moving parts D elevation of cooler outlet temperatures Ans. D 2918.the temperature differential occring between the inlet temperature of the fluid to be cooled medium in a shell-and tube heat exchanger is greatest in which of the flow designs listed? A crosis B parallel C counter D circular Ans.C

2919 The general purpose of heat exchanger is to. A eliminate hot air from the condenser B maintain steady pressure in a system C heat or cool one fluid by means of another fluid D reduce the engine room temperature in tropical climates Ans. C 2920.the presence of scale and dirt on the salt water side of a tube oil cooler is usually indicated by A clogged lube oil strainers B seawater leaking into the lube oil system C decreasing lube oil pressure D gradually increasing lube oil pressure Ans.D.

2921 when a heat exchanger is used as a cooler excessive cooling water flow should be avoided to prevent A erosive tube failure B waterside deposit buildup C tube sheet bowing D water hammer damage Ans. A

2922.zinc anodes are installed in a marine raw-water cooling system to A inhibit oxidation B control electrolysis C prevent scaling D eliminate corrosion Ans .B 2923. In a heat exchanger excessive fluid velocity should be avoided to prevent.. A erosive tube failure B waterside deposit buildup C tube sheet bowing D water hammer damage Ans. A 2924. sacrificial zinc anodes are used on the saltwater side of the heat exchangers to A B keep heat transfer surfaces shiny and clean prevent rapid accumulation ofmarine growth

C provide a protective coating on heat exchanger surfaces D reduce electrolytic action on heat exchanger metals Ans.D 2925 The floating end of a shell-and-tube type cooler utilizes a packing ring to

A. prevent leekage past the floating end tube sheet B. dissipate heat C. baffle cooling water so it can be directed on a multiple pass D. modify to a mixer type cooler Ans: A 2926 When conducting a hydrostatic test on the distillate cooler shell of a flash type evaporator, liquid appears well inside one of the tubes. In order to correct this, you should A. reroll the tube B. seal weld the tube C. plug the tube D. all of the above would be considered satisfactory as a temporary repair until permanent repairs may be conducted Ans: C 2927 Hot water heating system converters are selected for the heating load required plus about 50% excess capacity to allow for A. start-up and scaling B. unusual high demand on the system C. increase capacity during times of peak demand D. increase steam and water contact for better efficiency

Ans: A 2928 Which copper alloys listed is commonly used in heat exchangers and possesses a high resistance to corrosion?
A. B. C. D. Red brass Manganese bronze Copper beryllium Cupro-nickel

Ans: D 2929 Erosive tube failure in a heat exchanger can result from A. high temperature B. waterside fouling C. excessive cooling water facility D. poor heat transfer Ans: C 2930
A. B. C. D.

The zinc plates are located in the

Saltwater side of the conductor Refrigerant side of the condenser Evaporator coils Suction strainer

Ans: A 2931
A. B. C. D.

Zinc rods are installed in the refrigeration system

Liquid strainer Liquid receiver Saltwater condenser Evaporator

Ans: C

2932 In a shell-and-tube type hydraulic fluid cooler the amount of heat transferred from the hydraulic fluid to the cooling water depends upon
A. B. C. D. The temperature of the hydraulic fluid The flow rate of both the cooling water and the hydraulic fluid The temperature of the cooling water All of the above

Ans: D 2933 when performing a hydrostatic test on a low pressure evaporator to determine the source of suspected air leaks you should use
A. B. C. D. Fresh water at or above the ambient temperature Circulated cold fresh water , while maintaining normal unit operating pressures Air and a soap solution to test all joints Phosphorescent hydrazine bisodium solution visible under a black light source

Ans: A 2934 The rate of heat transfer between the hot and cold fluids passing through a shell-and-tube type heat exchanger will
A. B. C. D. Remain constant along the tubes length Be greatest in a single pass counter flow heat exchanger Remain constant throughout the heat exchanger Vary from section throughout the heat exchanger

Ans: D 2935 Which of the following statement is correct concerning heat transfer?

A. Heat is given from a high temperature region known as heat sink B. Heat transfer rate is affected most by the size of the heat sink involved C. Heat transfer rate is affected most by the temperature difference between the heat source and

heat sink D. Heat transfer by radiation will occur only by mass motion of a fluid substance

Ans: C 2936 An 8-inch, globe-type, stop-check valve has been installed in the lubeoil cooler water outlet, with the flow coming in from the top of the disk. This means that
A. B. C. D. The valve will remain completely open The valve will prevent back flow The valve will never permit water flow from the lube-oil cooler The valve will allow the lube oil temperature to be 10F (5.5 C) cooler than if the valve were properly installed

Ans: C 2937 Which of the following condition must exist for heat too flow from one object to another?
A. B. C. D. The two object must be in physical contact The two object must be the same size There must be an existing temperature differential There must be an existing weight differential

Ans: C 2938 Expansion of the tube bundle in a shell-and-tube type cooler may be provided for by the

A. B. C. D.

Packing and latern rings Floating end tube sheet Shell foundation bolts Directional transverse baffles

Ans: B

2939 In a shell-and-tube type heat exchanger, the most common cause of decreased performance is

A. B. C. D.

Loose tube bundle baffle plates Failure of the baffle plate Rupture of the tube bundle Fouling on the seawater side

Ans: D 2940 Evaporators and condensers are two forms of

A. B. C. D. Heat exchangers Liquid receivers Storage receptacles Flow inhibitors

Ans: A 2941 When checking zinc plates, or pencils in the refrigerating system condenser, you should
A. B. C. D. Paint and insulate the plates to prevent corrosion Renew the plates at each inspection Replace the zincs if deteriorated by 50% File the plates to change the negative value

Ans: C 2942 In the heat exchangers, seawater pressure should be maintained lower than freshwater pressure to
A. B. C. D. Eliminate scaling problems on the saltwater side Reduce erosion of heat exchanger surfaces Ease the load on the service pump Prevent contamination should leaks develop

Ans: D

2943 Which of the statements is true concerning a radiator type heat exchanger?
A. B. C. D. Raw water is the cooling medium Water cooled exhaust elbows remove the heat The surge tank must be located a minimum of 4 feet above the highest finned tube Air flow provided by a fan is used as the cooling medium

Ans: D 2944 Heat exchanger tubes can be protected against erosion and abrasion by the use of
A. B. C. D. Metallic packing on the inlet end Fiber bushings in the ferrules Zinc pencils on the waterside Plastic tube end protectors

Ans: D

FUEL OIL PROPERTIES AND PURIFIERS

2945
A. B. C. D.

The tendency of the flammable liquid to vaporize is indicated by its

Ignition temperature Flash point Flammable range Convection index

Ans: B 2946 Which of the following statements describes the relationship between flashpoint and ignition temperature?
A. B. C. D. Both are higher than normal tempetrature The flashpoint is always higher The ignition temperature is always higher They are not necessarily

Ans: C

2947 The lowest temperature required to cause self-sustained combustion of a substance independent Of any outside source of ignition is called
A. B. C. D. Explosive range Flash point Ignition temperature Combustion temperature

Ans. Convection index 2948 In order to maximize the performance of an operating centrifuge, youcan adjust the fuel oil.. 1 viscosity 11 through put
A. B. C. D. 1 only 11only Both 1 an d11 Neither 1 nor 11

Ans. C 2949 The flash point of bunker fuel is defined as the

A. Lowest temperature at which the fuel oil will give off enough vapor to momentarily flash into flame when ignited B. Lowest temperature at which the fuel oil will give off enough vapor to continue to burn once ignited C. Temperature the fuel oil must be heated to for proper atomization D. Temperature at which the fuel oil will burn in a boiler furnace

Ans. A 2950 The flash point of a liquid is the..

A. The temperature at which it burns freely B. Temperature at which paraffin wax crystallizes out of the solution C. Lowest temperature at which it vaporizes enough to form an explosive air/vapor mixture D. Ability of a fuel to ignite upon injection into a diesel engine cylinder

Ans, C

2951 The lowest temperature at which fuel combustion becomes selfsustaining in the presence of a source of ignition is defined as the.
A. B. C. D. Auto ignition point Flash point Burning temperature Fire point

Ans. D 2952 The lowest temperature at which the vapors of a flammable liquid will ignite and cause self-sustained combustion in the presence of a spark or flame is the
A. B. C. D. Auto ignition temperature Vaporization temperature Flash point Fire point

Ans. D 2953 Which of the following statements describes the relationship between viscosity and specific gravity ?
A. B. C. D. Liquids with different viscosities will always have the same specific gravity Liquids with different viscosities will never have the same specific gravity Viscosity and specific gravity are directly proportional Viscosity and specific gravity are not related in that one does not define or limit the other

Ans. D 2954 The ash content of a fuel oil is significant to the operating engineer because it_______
A. B. C. D. Is an indication of the amount of non combustible material present in the fuel Indicates the quantity of energy released by during a unit amount of the fuel Is useful for determining proper atomization temperatures Reflects the overall thermal efficiency of the fuel oil service system

Ans. A

2955 The ash content of a fuel oil is significant to the operating engineer because it .. A. indicates the quantity of energy released by burning a unit amount of fuel B. is useful for determining the atomization temperature C. reflects the overall thermal efficiency of the fuel oil service system D. is an indication of the amount of noncombustible material present in the oil Ans: D 2956 Which of the following statements is correct concerning the flash point of a liquid?
A. B. C. D. It is lower than the ignition temperature It is the temperature at which a substance will spontaneously ignite It is the temperature at which a substance when ignited will continue to burn It is the temperature at which the released vapors will fall within the explosive range

Ans: A 2957 The lowest temperature at which the fuel oil gives off sufficient vapor to momentarily flash into Flame when ignited is defined as the
A. B. C. D. Burning temperature Ignition temperature Fire point Flash point

Ans: D 2958 the tendency of a liquid to vaporize is indicated by its

A. fire point B. pour point

C. flash point D. boiling point

Ans: C 2959 the lowest temperature at which fuel oil give off sufficient vapor to burn continuously when ignited is defined as the
A. burning temperature B. auto ignition temperature

2960 the size of the discharge ring used for the efficient operation of a disk purifier is dependent upon the
A. rated capacity of the purifier B. viscosity of the oil being purified

C. maximum design speed of that purified D. specific gravity of the oil being purified 2961. the percentage of impurities in a specific fuel oil sample is determined By A. setting in a fuel tank B. testing in a laboratory centrifuge C. burning in a calorimeter D. testing in a closed cup Ans: B 2962.The flash point of a liquid refers to the temperature A. at which a liquid will give off inflammable vapors B. at which point will burn steadily C. at which a liquid will explode D. that a liquid must reach before it flow readily Ans: A 2963. in order to maximize the performance of a centrifuge. you can adjust the 1. Number of disks in the stack . frequency shooting the bowl A.1 only B. only C. both 1 and D. neither 1 or Ans :D 2964. The temperature, in degrees celsius at which a liquid gives gives off a flammable vapor when heated in an cup tester is called the

A. Fire point B. Flash point C. vaporization temperature D. ignition temperature Ans: B 2965. the substance primarily responsible for heat loss in the combustion process is A. sulphur B. carbon C. hydrogen D. nitrogen Ans: D 2966. the flash point of a petroleum product is an indication of its A. viscosity B. pour point C. volatility D. lower explosive limit Ans: C 2967.what is the harmful of sulfur in a fuel ? A. it causes excessive smoking and soot at low firing points B. it doesnt readily burn when combined with oxygen C. it clogs fuel oil strainers more often D. it forms a corrosive acid when mixed water and vapor Ans: D 2968. the volatility of any oil may be indicated by A. the flash point B. the fire point C. the autogenous lunation point D. all of the above Ans : D 2969. in the duty of chief engineer to acquire the seal of sample fuel oil received whenever fuel oil bunkers are taken. This sample must be prevented until A. the voyage is completed B. that particular supply of oil exhausted C. it can be sent ashore to the proper oil company personal for testing and the results entered in the oil record CG-480 D. return to the first point where upon it must be sent ashore for chemical analysis and findings submitted to the nearest officer in charge, marine inspection Ans: B

Marine control systems and instrumentation

2970 . the controller set point of an automatic control system is 65 c the value closes when the out put 0 0 temperature reaches 70 c , and reopens when the temperature falls below 60 the type of positioning action in this controller is known as A. one position single point B. two position single point C. one-position single point D. two- position single point
0

Ans: D 2971. in a pneumatic automation system a unit producing a single to govern the position of the controller of the measured variable relative to the value of measured variable is said to have A. reset action B. proportional value C. two position action

D. rate action Ans: B 2972.If the loading air pressure for diaphragm controlled value drops below the designed operating pressure , the value will A. fail to stroke open B. stroke slowly through its operating range C. stroke rapidly closed D. fail to stroke through its complete range Ans : D 2973. Every automated machinery plant must have an engineers assistance alarm . power for this alarm should be taken from the A. main bus B. emergency bus C. stand by generator D. general alarm power supply Ans:D 2974. the effect of reset when added proportional controller is to A. make the controller correction proportional to the rate at which the input change takes in place B. accelerate the corrective action so as to minimize the possibility of hunting C. make the corrective action of the controller proportional to the deviation of controlled variable from the set point
D. repeat the proportional action until the controlled return to the set point Ans: D 2975 which of the following statements express the function of proportional - plus reset action?

A. The action measures the rate of time of the final control element B. The action gives control without set off under all load conditions C. The action combines proportional position action and rate action D. The action is very unstable for any thing but constant load condition
Ans :B 2976. one disadvantage of proportional position is that A. Corrective action is only proportional to off set B. Exact correction can be made only when there is no change in load C. The controlled variable is stabilized D .The corrective action is only proportional to deviation Ans :D 2977. filters are installed ahead of air line lubrication for the primary purpose of removing A. the heat is compression b. air supply pressure pulses C. moisture in the air supply D. turbuience in the air supply Ans: c 2978. the cylinder unloading mechanism used on low pressure air compressors is an example of which mode control? A. two positions

B. derivative C. integral D. single speed floating 2979. which of the listed devices would be installed at a control system air pressure reducing station? A. moisture separator B. vacuum breaker C. lubricator D. nonreturn yalue Ans: A 2980. reset control is also referred to as A. proportional speed floating control B. derivate control C. rate control D. proportional control Ans : A 2981. reset control is also referred to as A. proportional speed floating control B. derivate control C. rate control D. proportional control Ans : A 2982. the quantity or condition which is measured and controlled is known as the A. controlled variable B. manipulated point c. set point D. control point 2983. a computing relay is used pneumatic control system to A. extract square roots B. square C. divide D. all the above Ans: D 2984. The reset process control mode is also considered to be the same a 1. Proportional speed floating control derivate control A. 1 only B. Only C. Both and only D. Neither 1 nor Ans :A 2985. a mode control ,whereby the speed of motion of the final control element is linearly proportional to the derivation of controlled variable from set point , is called A. B. C. D. Rate control Derivate control Two position control Integral control

Ans : D 2986. which of the following definition can be used to define the term offset as a characteristic of controller action ? A. the period of time in which the set point and the control point coincide B. the periodic change between the set point and control point C. the variable difference between the set point and control point

D. constant difference between the set point and the control point Ans: D 2987. which of the following definitions best describes sensitivity as a characteristic of controller action ? A. the ratio of the out put in response to a specified change to the out which caused it B. The state difference between the control point and the value of the controlled variable corresponding to the set point C. The variation of the manipulated variable produced by the mode of control D. The time difference between the input change and the output change of the controller Ans: D 2988.Why is it necessary to spin the piston of a dead weight gage tester while carrying out the calibrations of pressure gages? A. Prevent formation of a vacuum B. Eliminate the formation of air bubbles C. Prevent the piston rod from sticking D. To assist in emigrating the dead weight tester Ans: C 2989. A mandatory characteristic of a pure amplifier is that A. the form of the input and output energies must be same B. the ratio of the out put to the input must always greater than the numerical value of one C. the form of the input and output energies must be different D. the action must be either integral or derivative Ans : A 2990. the control mode which the final control element is moved from one of fixed position to other is known as A. dead and action B. neutral and action C. range D. on off action Ans: D 2991. a control action which produces a corrective signal relative to the speed at which the control variable is changing is known as A. reset action B. integral action C . derivative action D.Proportional action
Ans :C

the form of the input and output energies must bethe form of the input and output energies must bethe form of the input and output energies must be

A. B. C. D.

Evaluate only the latest logged data as this is the best indication of plant status Evaluate a series of reading to obtain operating trends. Monitor off limit conditions only when announced by an audible and visual signal. secure the machine under relatively steady state conditions. Ans : B Any two pressures measured with respect to a common reference Atmospheric pressure and barometric pressure at a given point Gage pressure and ambient atmospheric pressure A perfect vacuum and the total pressure at a given point Ans : D

A. B. C. D.

2996. A. B. C. D.

If the flow rate to a linear actuator is reduced by half of the original amount, the _______________ pump discharge pressure will be reduced by a propotional amount. speed of the actuator will be reduced. Speed of the actuator will be increased. The actuator will move erratically. Ans : B The characteristic offset is inherent with which mode of control ? (1) proportional control (2) reset control (1) only (2) only Both (1) and (2) Neither (1) nor (2) Ans : A The mandatory operating characteristic of a pure amplifieris the ________ . (1) form of the input and output energy must be the Same , (2) ratio of the output change to input change must be a value greater than 1 (one). (1) only (2) only Both (1) and (2) Neither (1) nor (2) Ans : A To avoid corrosion and/or oxidation of the element, a thermometer bulb is often protected by a well or casing. In addition to Protecting the element, the well will also _____________ Cause consistently higher than actual readings Cause consistently lower than actual readings Require a longer time for the element to reach thermal equilibrium with the system being measured Increase the sensitivity of the element Ans: C reset control is considered to be the same as _____________. (1) proportional speed floating control (2) integral control (1) only (2) only Both(1) and (2) Neither (1) nor (2) Ans:C A mechanical and /or hydraulic action preventing the over-correction of the supply, while producing transient speed drop is called_____________

2997.

A. B. C. D.

2998.

A. B. C. D.

2999.

A. B. C. D.

3000. A. B. C. D.

3001.

A. stability B. hunting C. compensation D. sensitivity Ans:C 3002. A. B. C. D. What is the value of the controlled variable that the automatic controller operates to maintain Set point Control point Deviation Offset Ans : B At which of the following locations would a duplex pressure gage most likely be located ? Fuel oil service pump discharge flange Fuel oil strainer Fuel oil heater Fuel oil flow meter Ans : B Differential pressures can be measured with the use of a ___________ Diaphragm type gage Pressure transducer Manometer All of the above Ans : D In order to accurately measure very low pressure, which of the instruments listed should be used ? Compound gage Bourdon tube Manometer Deadweight gage Ans : C A pneumercator is useful in measuring ____________ Relative humidity Air pressure Liquid levels in tanks Liquid pneumercations Ans : C The instrument used to indicate the level of a fluid in a tank is called a ____________ Fluid meter Calorimeter Viscosimeter Pneumercaror Ans : D Main engine room control console alarms are to be of the self monitoring type, meaning that an open circuit to a particular alarm circuit will ___________ cause an alarm condition secure power to the indicator

3003. A. B. C. D.

3004. A. B. C. D.

3005. A. B. C. D.

3006. A. B. C. D.

3007. A. B. C. D.

3008.

A. B.

C.

secure power to the monitored device

D. automatically reclose within 10 seconds Ans : A 3009. which of the following alarms and instrumentation is not required for a vessel incorporating a controllable pitch propeller in its main propulsion system ? pitch indicator low oil temperature

A. B.

C. high oil pressure D. low oil pressure Ans : B 3010. A. B. C. D. A compound bourdon tube type pressure gage is capable of measuring _____________ temperature and pressure wet bulb and dry bulb temperature humidity and temperature pressure and vaccum Ans : D 3011. A. B. C. D. The instrument always used in conjuction with a salinometer pyrometer thermometer hygrometer hydrometer Ans : B 3012. A. B. C. D. The control mode that is generally not used by itself is ___________ reset control integral control derivative control two position differential gap control Ans : C 3013. A. B. C. D. a closed loop pneumatic control system always operates with __________ a fixed final control element position simple on/off control no controller feedback feedback in the controller

Ans : D

3014. A. B. C. D.

while attempting to read a tank level indicator, the mercury column drops rapidly. This may indicates _________ a leak in the gage line free surface effect in the tank an improperly calibrated gage excess air in the balance chamber Ans : A

3015. A. B. C. D.

A pressure gage pointer responding sluggishly to changes in pressure, should be repaired by _________.\ Tapping the gage housing lightly. bending the needle to free the linkage. cleaning the residue from gear teeth. greasing the hair spring. Ans : C.

3016 A. B. C. D.

A fuel oil tank pneumercator will give an inaccurate reading if the __________. Pnuemercator is recharged with the air supply open. Pnuemercator balance chamber bleed of orifice is blocked by the oil being measured. Pressure in the system is allowed to equalize. Operating cock is placed in the vent position when the system is not in use Ans : B

3017. In an automation system increasing or decreasing the loading pressure by a set amount is known as ___________ A. B. C. D. positioning proportioning biasing controlling Ans : C Moisture and impurities can be removed from pneumatic systems by using ____________ air intake heaters desiccated suction strainers multi-orificed suction valves resistance- temperature type Ans : C A compound gage is used for measuring pressures both above and below _______________ absolute pressure latent pressure flow pressure atmospheric pressure Ans : D The type of gage most commonly used to measure pressure is the _____________ bimetallic type diaphragm type multi-orificed suction values resistance-temperature type

3018. A. B. C. D.

3019. A. B. C. D.

3020. A. B. C. D.

Ans:c 3021. A. B. C. D. Temperature measurement is an indication of the _________________________ level of heat intensity total heat of a substance flow pressure atmospheric pressure Ans:A

3022. In the operation of a proportional-plus-reset controller, the proportional action___________ I opposes the reset action during decreasing error transients II aids the reset action during increasing error transients A. I only B. IIonly C. Both I andII D. Neither I nor II Ans:c 3023 Prior to testing the pyrometer circuit wiring for continuity with a multimeter, you should disconnect the pyrometer because______________ A. The driving voltage of the meter, batteries can damage the circuit meter B. The pyrometer total resistance can damage the ohmmeter C. The eactance of the pyrometer will give a false meter reading D. Meter current running through the pyrometer will permanently magnetize the pyrometers pointer Ans:A 3024. A proportional band or range adjustment to a bourdon tube pressure gage is accomplished by _____________ I adjusting the effective moment arm length between the end of the bourdon tube and the quadrant gear fulcrum II adjusting the pointer position. A. B. C. D. I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II Ans:A

3025. A set point adjustment to a bourdon tube pressure gage is accomplished by _____________I adjusting the effective moment arm length between the end of the bourdon tube and the quadrant gear fulcrum II adjusting the pointer position relative to the A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II Ans:B 3026. In checking the level of a tank , three pneumercator readings have been taken. If each reading is higher than the last, this indicates that __________ A. B. C. D. excessive charging air was supplied insufficient charging air has been supplied the relief value is sticking the tubing between the tank and the gauge has a leak Ans:D

3027. Devices such as a pressure gage that are subject to continous expansion and contraction are affected by hysteresis. This is a natural process that _______________ A. allows a material to return to its exact original shape B. permits a resilient material to return to its almost original shape C. allows a resilient material to resist permanent deformation D. is directly related to a materials elastic in it Ans:B 3028. In a automation system the effect of a control action sensed by a controller is known as ______________ command input insufficient charging air has been supplied the relief value is sticking the tubing between the tank and the gauge has a leak Ans:B 3029. A pneumercator is an instrument used to indicate______________ A. air pressure in the diesel engine starting circuit A. B. C. D.

B. phosphates in boiler water C. tank fluid level D. micro ohms in condensate 3030. The value of the controlled variable, which under any fixed set of conditions the automatic controller operates to maintain is known a ______________ A. reset point B. control point C. deviation D. off set Ans:B 3031. The steady state difference between the control point and the value of the controlled variable corresponding with the set point is known as _____________ A. dead band B. control point C. deviation D. offset Ans:D

3032. A control action which produces a corrective signal relative to the length of time the controlled variable has been away from the set point, is known as.. a. integral action b. proportional action c. rate action d. derivative action. Ans a. 3033. While calibrating a bourdon tube pressure gage. All readings are found to be 0.7 kgs higher throughout its entire range adjustments should be made by a. increasing the sector to pivot point length b. resetting the pointer on its shaft c. decreasing the sector to picot point length d. increase the set screw length ans. B 3034. offset is an inherent characteristic of which of the following types of control modes?

a. two position b. proportional c. reset d. rate ans. B 3035. the meat box temperature control circuit, as used in the ship service refrigeration system, is an example of a. two position control b. single speed floating control c. proportional control d. reset control ans. A 3036. A mode of control, whereby the position of the final control element s linearly proportional to the rate of change of the controlled variable, is called a. reset control b. integral control c. two position control d. derivative control ans. D 3037. when a controller is provided with reset rate adjustment, a change in this adjustment results in a change of the . a. desired value of the proportionally controlled variable b. floating rate of the proportional-speed floating component

c. value representing the readjusted controlled variable d. desired prepositioned value of the controlled medium ans. B 3038. the two most common gases used in pneumatic systems are a. compressed air and nitrogen b. helium and nitrogen c. oxygen and hydrogen. D. oxygen and acetylene ans. A 3039. When reset action is added to proportional action. a. aids the reset action during decreasing error transients b. aids the reset action during increasing error transients c. opposes the reset action during increasing error transients d. reset action are completely independent of one another in the controller operation ans. B 3040. Automatic control valves for steam service require periodic maintenance inspections because they a. are subjected to high compressive stress b. are subjected to a wide range of temperatures and pressures c. continuously throttle steam resulting in wire drawing and erosion of the valve. d.receive high pressure air from the pilot valve

ans.c 3041. When reset action is added to proportional action. a. the proportional action opposes the reset action during decreasing error transients b. the proportional action opposes the reset action during increasing error transients c. the proportional action assists the reset action during decreasing error transients d. the proportional action and the reset action are completely independent of one another in the controller operation ans. A 3042. When a controller with proportional position action is used to control a process, a load change will cause the controlled variable to stabilize at some value other than the set point value. The new point at which the controlled variable stabilizes is .. a. offset b. deviation c. control point d. load point ans. C 3043. Which of the following control actions, when combined with proportionalposition action, wil eliminate manual repositioning of the set point for each load change to produce an automatic reset action? a. Neutral band B. floating action

c. reciprocal d. rate action ans. B 3044. A rotameter, when used to indicate the rate of fluid flow in distilling plants, is essentially an area meter consisting of a a. movable float riding on a rod centered in a tapered tube b. piston uncovering a port whose opening is directly proportional to fluid flow c. movable orifice plate venture tube and high pressure tap d. rotating vane transmitting nutating motion to a counter mechanism ans. A 3045. double seated, pneumatically controlled, regulating valves exhibit good balancing characteristics essential for low-sensitivity applications because.. a. high pressure enters between the seats and creates equal, but opposing forces b. they employ a specially fabricated diaphragm c. the feedback control signals balance the opposing forces acting on the diaphragm d. the special diaphragm motor spring resists pressure changes ans. A 3046. The probable cause of erratic operation of a pneumatically controlled steam pressure reducing valve is a. the range spring has become weakened b. an incorrect loading pressure supplied to the power unit c. a partially restricted loading air pressure line

d. a pinhole in the power diaphragm. Ans. C 3047. A compound Bourdon tube gage is capable of measuring pressure and a. humidity b. vacuum c. temperature d. density ans. B 3048. If you turn the handwheel clockwise of a spring-loaded, internal pilot , reducing vavle, you will a. compress the adjusting spring against the diaphragm b. release spring tension from the diaphragm c. increase steam pressure to the reducing valve d. decrease spring tension in the main valve ans. A 3049. How may the response time for a thermometer using a protective will be reduced? a. fill the well with nitrogen b. fill the well with water c. drill small holes in the well d. pack the space around the bulb with graphite. Ans. D

3050. Why is it necessary to have the weight bearing piston of a deadweight gage tested spinning when testing a gage for proper calibration? a. Minimizes piston drag and reduces tester error b. Prevents vibration errors in the gage tester. C. Minimizes piston speed and reduces tester error. D. Allows trapped air below the piston to escape ans. A 3051. The portion of a mechanism that utilizes manual positioning, or automatic indexing is known as a detent. An example of a detent used aboard ship can be found in a/an. a. rheostat b. engine order telegraph c. valve handwheel d. fuel/air ratio control knob ans. D 3052. Biasing in a pneumatic automated combustioncontrol system, refers to a set amount of increase or decrease in the . a. control pressure b. loading pressure c. supply pressure d. rate relay pressure ans. B 3053. If you suspect that a gage is sticking and giving an inaccurate reading you should. a. blow out the gage lie with compressed air b. lap the gage body with a wrench . c .remove the gage bezel and slightly move the needle

d. replace the gage or have it calibrated and. D 3054. The moisture sensitive element of a humidistat can be made of. a. hair b. copper c. plastic d. steel ans. A 3055. A pneumercator tank gage utilizes a. a bourdon tube indicator b. a balance chamber c. an electronic sensing line d. all the above ans. B 3056. A pyrometer is capable of producing a voltage by a. chemical reactor b. light striking a photo sensitive substance c. heating a junction of two dissimilar metals d. squeezing crystals of certain substances ans. C 3057. A solenoid valve is operated by magnetic action through. a. suction pressure at the compressor

b. an electrically energized coil c. superheat at the evaporator outlet coil d. a vacuum operated bellows ans. B 3058. In the operation of a proportional-plus-reset controller the proportional action I and the reset action are completely independent of one another II opposes reset action during decreasing error transients a. I only b. II only c. both I and II d. neither I nor II ans. B 3059. In the operation of a proportional-plus-reset controller the proportional action..I. aids the reset action during increasing error transients II and the reset action are completely independent of one another.. a. I only B. II only c. Both I and II d. neither I nor II ans. A 3060. To ensure an accurate pneumercator reading you should a. purge the balance chamber to remove any liquid b. read the bottom of the mercury meniscus

c. take the reading with operating cock in the vent position d. make certain the tank has been bled of air ans. A 3061. A pneumercator measures the liqueid level in a tank by sensing.I head pressure II liquid density a. I only b. II only c. both I and II d. neither I nor II ans. A 3062. When checking the level of a fuel oil tank using a pneumercator, the intial reading obtained can be quickly verified by. a. repeating the process and getting the same again b. sounding the tank with a tape coated with a fuel indication paste c. a guage reading of zero when the control handle is in the purge position d. a guage reading equal to supply air pressure when the control handle is in the purge position ans. A 3063. The control mode where the position of the final control element has a liner relationship with the position or value of the controlled variable, is known as a. two position control b. proportion control c. reset control

d. rate control ans. B 3064. The range of values through which the input can be varied without initiating an output response is known as a. deviation b. offset c. sensitivity d. dead band .. ans. d 3065. The ration of output response to a specified change in the input is known as a. primary feedback b. deviation c. sensitivity d. dead band ans . c 3066. A proportional band or range adjustment of a bourdon tube pressure gage is accomplished by a. adjusting the effective moment arm length between the bourdon tube and the quadrant gear fulcrum b. adjusting the pointer position relative the shaft on which it is mounted c. changing out the pointer pinion d. flattering the cross-section of bourdon tube

ans. A

3067. The set point adjustment of a bourdon tube pressure gage is accomplished by. a. adjusting the effective moment arm length between the bourdon tube and the quadrant gear fulcrum b. adjusting the pointer position relative the shaft on which it is mounted c. adjusting the pointer position by bending the free end of the pointer d. flattening the cross section of bourdon tube ans. B 3068. Which of the following control modes is generally not used by itself A. two position action B. propositional action C. Integral action D. derivation action Ans. D 3070. Which of the following elements is common to all indicating instruments A. an electrical input B. a bourdon tube C. reset button D. a calibrated scale

Ans. D 3072.Which of the following propotional band values most closely approaches on- off control? A. 0.1 B.0.02 C.1 D.5 Ans.B 3074. Increasing the reset rate of a proportional plus reset controller A. narrows the proportional band B. widens the proportional band C. repeat the proportional action more frequently D. increase the stabililty 3069. A pure transducer utilizes A. integral action B.rate action C. propotional action D. derivative action Ans. C 3071.the mode of control employed by an alarm circuit is a A. 2 position control B. single speed floating control

C. proportional speed floating D. reset control Ans. A 3073. The response line installed in a pneumatic action controller functions two A. monitor the accuracy of the measuring element B. provide a feedback signal for accurate final element positioning C. regulate the air supply in the line to the nozzle D. re adjust the total spring force in the air control relay Ans. B 3075. The two position single point action controller has been adjusted to minimize cycling and would only be suitable for A. constant load conditions D.increase the stability of the controller Ans. C 3076. The amount of charge of a controlled variable , that is necessary to cause a specific change in the position of final control element depends upon the A. differential gap adjustment B. range of value opening C. proportional band adjustment of the controller D. form of the controlled medium Ans. C 3078. A penumercator is used to indicate fuel oil

A. pressure B. level C. temperatue D. flow Ans. B 3080. when the vessels steering wheel on the navigation bridge is turned thedifference existing between the position of the wheel and that of the rudder is known as A. proportional band B. the error signal C. reset signal D. feedback Ans. B 3082.a compound gage is used to measure B.intermitted load conditions C.wide temperature fluctuation D.rate action only Ans A 3077.a controller with floating action has a controlled variable where the range of values produces no motin of the final control element . this range of values is called A.nutral zone B.

C.control point D. offset Ans A 3079.a pyrometer is generally used to measure A.grains of moisture per cubic foot of air B salinity concentration of condensate C.stack temperature D.level of fluid in a tank Ans C 3081.the gage most commonly used aboard ship to measure high pressure is the A.volitile liquid type B.diaphragm actuated type C.bourdon tube type D.resistance temperature type AnsC

A.temperature and pressure B.humidity and temperature C.pressure and vacuum D.pressure and humidity Ans C

3084.a primery element with flow measurement devices highly suitable for liquids containing solids in suspension is a A.concentric orifice B.convergent nozzles C.venturi tube D.pilot tube Ans C 3086.which of the listed characteristics is typical of a strip chart graphic recorder A.time graduations fan out from the center B.data charts are more easily stored than the circular charts C.variable being measured is drawn on rectangular coordinates Dstrip charts are more difficult to read than circular chart Ans C 3088.on tank vessels using an automatic tank wells ,free moment of the tape is normally checked by A.removing the side plate B.operating the hard clutch C.comparing with a hand tape A.adjust the tape weight 3083.any restriction in the instrument air piping of a pneumatic control system will A.delay transmission of the air signal B.increase the transmitted air signal intensity

C.reduce the transmitted air signal value D.accelerate transmission of air signal Ans A 3085.restrictions occurring in the small oreifices of pneumatic control system components can be caused by A.moisture in the compressed air supply B.exessive dryness in the compressed air supply C.pressure surging in the compressed air receiver D insufficient lubrication of the system component Ans A 3087.when the pressure on a compound gage is released, trhe gage pointer is returned to zero psig by action of A.bourdor tube B.spring return arm C. compound diaphragm D.compansating spring Ans B

D.using litmus paste

3090.on tank vessels using an automatic tape well for gaging tanks,the hand clutch is used to

A.adjust the tape weight B.lower the thieving rod C.rollup the tape D.callibrate the tank Ans C 3092.Most solenoid valves are actuated by A.a spring B.an electromagnet C.the force of gravity D .refrigerant pressure Ans B 3094.the vessels steering gear is a classic example of a positioned type automation system.the variable input is provided through the steering wheel and the rudder position is fed back to the operating mechanism.the difference between the input signal an A.system differential B.proportional band C.error D.command input Ans C 3096.when a bourdon tube pressure gage is tested and found to be inaccurate , adjustment must be made to obtain the correct readings .

3089.with regards to fluid flow control,an advantage of pneumatic control systems over electrical control systems is A.practically no limit to the power available for a given system B.no transmission losses C.low energy input D.continued control through temporary electrical power losses Ans D 3091.which of the following statement is correct concerning the instrumentation or alarms provided at the main control station for an automated main propulsion plant? A.nonvital alarms are separated from vital alarms B.provisions are made through simulation or actual condition for testing all audible and visual alarms and indicating lights C.all alarm circuits should be in operation when the system is online D.all the above Ans D 3093.the type of gage most commonly used to measure pressure is the A.bimetallic type B.diaphragm type C.bourdon tube type D.resistance temperature type Ans C

The distance between the pointer spindle and the link connection to the sector gear will be changed when the A.pointer doesnot travel the correct distance as test weight is added B. proportional amount of pointer travel for each weight added is correct,but the total reading is wrong C.reading is correct only at the working pressure. D.reading are correct only at the minimum and maximumends of scale Ans A

3095.when the pressure applied to a bourdon tube type pressure gage is reduced to atmospheric pressure,the tube will begin to bend towards the centre of arc.small variations develop preventing the tube form returning to its exact original shape due to the A.hysterisis B.compression c.homiostatious deformation D.gas eddys Ans A

SHIP CONSTRACTIONS,REPAIRS AND REGULATIONS 3097. THE GASKET AND BROKEN STUDS HAVE BEEN REPLACED ON A TANK MANHOLE COVER.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING METHODS IS SATISFACTORY FOR TESTING THE REPAIRING? A. PRESSURIZE THE TANK WITH O.7KG/CM2 AIR,SOAP THE REPAIRED AREA WATCH FOR VISIBLE SIDNS SIGNS OF LEAKAGE OR BUBBLES B.FILL THE TANK WITH WATER VIA THE BALLEST PUMP UNTIL THE IMAGE READING CORRESPOUNDS TO THE MAXIMUM DEPTH OF THE TANK C.HOSE TEST THE REQUIRED AREA WITH MINIMUM OF 7 KG/CM2 WATER PRESSURE D.FILL THE TANK VIA THE BALLEST PUMP UNTIL THE WATER FLOWS FROM THE VENT VENT LINE OPENING ON DECK. ANS:C

3098. THE GARBOARD STROKE IS LOCATED ---------------------------A.AT THE VERY BOTTEM CENTER B.JUST UNDER THE SHEER LINE C. AT EACH SIDE OF THE KEEL D.AT THE TURN OF THE BILGE ANS:C 3099.VERTICAL TRANSVERSE STRUCTURES ARE KNOWN AS ----------------------------A. PILLERS B.FLOORS C. CEILINGS D.STANCHINS ANS:B 3100. THE END PIONT FORMED BY ADJOINING PLATES IN A HULL PLATING STROKE IS PROPERLY IDENTIFIED AS A-----------------A.BRACKET B.SCRAPH C. LAP D. BUTT ANS:D 3101. STRUCTURAL MEMBERS USED TO SUPPORT AND TRANSMIT DOWNWARD FORCE OF THE LOAD AND DISTRIBUTE THE FORCE OVER THE LARGE AREA ARE CALLED-------------------------

A.PILLERS B. STANCHIONS C.COLUMNS D.ALL TH EABOVE ANS:D 3102. THE WELDED JOINT LOCATED BETWEEN TWO PLATES IN THE SAME STARKE OF A HULL PLATING IS CALLED AS---------------------A. B. C. D. BRACKET SCRAF LAP BUTT

ANS:D
3103.VERTICAL SUPPORT MEMBERS USED TO STRENGTHEN BULKHEADS ARE CALLED--------------------A.STIFFNERS B.PANELS C.STANCHIONS D.BRACKETS ANS:A 3104.THE DOUBLE BOTTOM IN A VESSEL IS A SPACE COMPRISED OF----------------------A. PLATINGFORMING THE ENGINE ROOM TANK TOP B.DOUBLER PLATING INSTALLED OVER THE FLAT KEEL PLATE C. A WATERTIGHT BOUNDARY FORMED BY THE INNER BOTTOM D.COMPARTMENTS BETWEEN THE INNER AND OUTER BOTTOMS ANS:D 3105. THE INNER BOTTOM OF THE SHIP IS THE -------------------A. PLATING FORMING THE ENGINE ROOM TOP B. DOUBLER PLATING INSTALLED OVER THE FLAT KEEL PLATE C. A WATERTIGHT BOUNDARY FORMED BY THE INNER BOTTOM D. COMPARTMENTS BETWEEN THE INNER AND OUTER BOTTOMS. ANS:A 3106. A SHOT OF ANCHOR CHAIN HAS THE LENGTH OF --------------A.6 FATHOMS B.12 FATHOMS

C.15 FATHOMS D. 45 FATHOMS ANS:C 3107. THE PART OF THE ANCHOR WINDLASS THAT ENGAGES THE ANCHOR CHAIN FOR LIFTING IS CALLED -------------A.WARPING HEAD B.FAIRLEAD C.WILDCAT D.CAPSTAN ANS:C 3108. WHICH OF TH EFOLLOWING PRECAUTIONS SHOULD WE USE IN DRY DOCK A.LIQUID SHOULD NEVER BE TRANSFERRED BETWEEN TANKS WITHOUT CONSULTING THE DOCK MASTER B. IF SEA VALVES HAS BEEN DISASSEMLED,ALLALL BOONNETS HAS TO CHECKED FOR LEAKAGE WHEN THE SHIP IS RELOADED C.BEFORE REFLOATING ,ALL CHEST STRAINERS SHOULD BE VERIFIED AS HAVING BEEN REPLACED D.ALL THE ABOVE ANS:D 3109. THE COLLISION BULKHEAD IS LOCATED IN ------------------------A. ON THE BRIDGE DECK B. BETWEEN THE PASSENGERS AND CARGO AREAS C.AT THE STEM OF THE SHIP D.AS TH EFIRST BULKHEAD AFT OF THE BOW IN THE SHIP ANS:D 3110. REGULATIONS REQUIRE TANK SOUNDING TUBES TERMINATING ABOVE THE WEATHER DECK OF THE CARGO VESSEL TO BE FITTED WITH A-------------------A. GLOBE VALVE B. STOP- CHECK VALVE C.GATE VALVE D. SCREW CAP OR PULG ANS : D 3111. ACCORDING TO THE REGULATIONS ,HOW MANY MEANS OF ESCAPE MUST BE PROVIDED IN SPACES WHERE THE CREW CREW MAY BE QUARTED OR EMPOLYED A. TWO,BOTH OF WHICH MUST BE THROUGTH WATERTIGHT DOORS B.TWO,BOTH OF WHICH ARE LOCATED AS CLOSE TOGETHER AS POSSIBLE TO CENTRALIZE ESCAPE ROUTES C.TWO,ATLEAST ONE OF WHICH SHALL BE INDEPENDENT OF WATERTIGHT DOORS D.TWO,BOTH OF WHICH MUST BE VERTICAL LADDERS TERMINATING I N LOCKED WATERTIGHT SCUTTIES ANS:C 3112. THE PURPOSE IN CONSTRUCTING A PIPE TUNNEL ABOARD A VESEL IS TO------------------------A.INSULATE PIPING FROM AMBIETENT TEMPERATURE B.PROVIDE CONVENIENT GROUPING OF ALL PIPING LEADING FORE AND AFT FROM THE MACHINARY SPACE FOR EASY ACCESS AND CONTROL

C.ENCLOSE ALL PIPES LEADING TO A SINGLE FORWARD COMPARTMENT IN THEIR OWN ENCLOSURE D.SEGRATE A PIPE FROM THE COMPARTMENT THROUGTH WHICH IT PASSES ANS:D 3113. WHO IS RESPONSIBLE FOR ENSURING THAT SOMEONE IS ASSIGNED TO CLOSE THE WATERTIGHT DOORS IN AN EMERGENCY A. CREW MEMBER B.MASTER OF THE VESSEL C.CHIEF ENGINNER D.CHIEF MATE ANS:B 3114. WHEN A NEW SECTION OF SHELL PLATING IS BEING INSTALLED THE PROPER WELD SEQUENCE MUST BE FOLLOWED TO---------------------A.MINIMIZE SHRINKAGE STRESSES AND HARMFUL DISTORTION B. ENSURE THET ALL WELDMENTS DOWN AND C.PROVIDE GRREATEST RESTRAD IN THE WELD D.ENSURE THAT ALL HORIZONTAL WELDMENTS ARE COMPLETED FIRST ANS:A 3115. WHEN REMOVING ONLY A PORTION OF AN ENTIRE HULL PLATE WITH AN INSERT LATE, WHICH OF THE LISTED GUIDELINES SHOULD BE FOLLOWED? A.HE INSERT PLATE SHOULD COVER ATLEAST ONE FOLL FRAME SPACE B.HE LINES OF NEW WELDING SHOULD ,WHERE POSSIBLE ,HE IN EXISTING LIN ES OF WELDING C.HE CORNERS YHE INSERT PLATE SHOULD BE SQUARE D.HE INSERT PLATE SHOULD BE ATLEAST 9/16 THICK ANS: 3116. A VESSELS IMMEDIATE PROTECTION IN THE EVENT OF A BROKEN STERN TUBE IS A/AN ______ A. AFT COLLISION BULKHEAD B. STERN FRAME BULKHEAD C.AFTER PEAK BULK HEAD AFT MACHINERY SPACE WATERTIGHT BULKHAED ANS : C 3117. WHEN THE SHIPS BULKHEAD ARE REINFORCED AGAINST BENDING AND BULGING THE BULK HEADS ARE PROVIDED WITH ______________ A.STANCHIONS B.ORDERS C. STIFFENERS D. ABBITS ANS:C 3118. IN MODERN SHIP CONSTRUCTION HIGH TENSILE STEEL (HTS) MAY BE PERMITTED IN _______________ A.THE STEER STRAKE B. THE KEEL STRAKE C.THE MARGIN STRAKE

D.ALL OF THE ABOVE ANS : D 3119. WHICH OF THE LISTED STATEMENT S CORRECTLY RFLECTS THE REQUIREMENTS FOR STEEL USED IN LOW TEMPERATURE APPLICATIONS ABOAD SHIPS? A. A STEEL ACCEPETABLE FOR SERIVCE AT 19.5 IS NOT ACCEPETABLE FOR SERVICE AT 10 B. THE WORDS LOW TEMPERATURE ARE TO BE MARKED LEGIBILY AT EACH END OF THE FINISHED PLATE C.NO SPECIAL PROCEDURES ARE REQUIRED D.ANY STEEL ACCEPECTABLE FOR A PARTICULAR MINIMUM SERVICE TEMPERATURE IS ALSO ACCEPECTABLE FOR HIGHER SERVICE TEMPERATURE ANS:D 3120:IN SHIP CONSTRUCTION BEAMS ARE TRANSVERSE GRIDERS WHICH PROVIDE SUPPORT TO -----------------------A. BULKHEADS B. DUCKHOUSE STRUCTURES C. DECKS D. VERTICAL FRAMES

ANS:C
3121.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS IS CONCERNING THE REGULATIONS REGRADING INTERNAL COMBUSTION ENGINE EXHAUSTS , BOILER AND GALLERY UPTAKES ,AND SIMILAR SOURECES OF IGNITION ? A. THEY MUST BE CLEAR OF AND SUITABLY INSULATED FROM ANY WODDWORK OR OTHER COMBUSTIBLE MATTER B. all exhausts and uptakes shall run as close as possible to the vertical and shall exit the machinery space at a point above the highest load line C. THE GENERAL CONSTRUCTION OF THE VESSSEL SHALL BE SUCH AS TO MINIMIZE SMOKE HAZARDS INSOFAR AS IS REASONABLE AND PRACTICABLE D. THIS PROTECTION SHALL BE SUCH AS TO BE CAPABLE OF PREVENTING AN EXCESSIVE TEMPERATURE RISE IN THE SPACE CONTAINING THE EMRGENCY SOURCE OF ELECTRIC POWER ANS:A 3122. ACCORDING TO REGULATION A C CLASS DIVISION, BULKHEAD OR DECK SHALL BE CONSTRUCTED_________________________ A. WITH APROVED INCOMBUSTIBLE MATERIALS AND MADE INTACT FROM DECK TO DECK AND TO SHELL OR OTHER BOUNDARIES B. OF APPROVED INCOMBUSTIBLE MATERIALS, BUT NEED MEET NO REQUIREMENTS RELATIVE TO THE PASSAGE OF FLAME C. THAT IF SUBJECTED TO THE STANDARD FIRE LEST THEY WOULD BE CAPABLE OF PREVENTING THE PASSAGE OF FLAME FODSR ONE HALF HOUR D. THAT IF SUBJECTED TO THE STANDARDS FIRE TEST THEY WOULD BE CAPABLE OF PREVENTING DTHE PASSAGE OF FLAME OR SMOKE FOR ONE HOUR ANS:B 3123. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CLEARANCE READINGS SHOULD BE TAKEN AND RECORDED IN DRY JOCK?\ A. THE CLEARANCES BETWEEN THE ROPELLER BLADE TIPS AND THE HULL B. THE CLEARANCES BETWEEN THE PROPELLER HUB AND THE FAIR WATER CONE C. THE RUDDER BEARING CLEARANCES

D. THE CLEARANCES BETWEEN THE STERN TUBE PACKING GLAND AND THE RETAINING RING ANS:C 3124. SUPPORT OF SIDE PLATING IS PROVIDED PRIMANILY BY TRANSVERSE _______________ A. BEAMS B. GIRDERS C. FRAMES D. BULKHEADS ANS:C 3125. IN SHIP CONSTRUCTION, THE SHELL PLATING IS ARRNAGED IS ARRANGED IN STRAKES AND ASSIGNED LETTER DESIGNATIONS. IF THE STRAKES WERE LETTERED A THROUGH KTHE K STRAKE WILL BE ___________________ A. AT THE TURN OF THE BRIDGE B. THE KEEL STRAKE C. THE DROP STRAKE D. THE SHEER STRAKE ANS:D 3126. IN SHIP CONSTRUCTION, THE STRAKES ARE GIVEN LETTER DESIGNATIONS BEGINNING WITH THE LETTER A THE A STRAKE IS ADJACENT TO THE ____________________ A. DECK EDGE STRAKE B. KEEL C. TURN OF THE BILGE STRAKE D. SHEER STRAKE ANS:B 3127. IN SHIP CONSTRUCTION, THE SHELL PLATING IS ARRANGED IN STRAKES., WITH FOUR OF THE STRAKES BEING SPECIFICALLY INDENTIFIED BY NAME. THE STRAKE NEXT TO THE KEEL IS IDENTIFIED AS THE ____________________ A. KEL STRAKE B. GARBOARD STRAKE C. BRIDGE STRAKE D. SHEER STRAKE ANS:B 3128. IN SHIP CONSTRUCTION, WHICH OF THE LISTED STRENGTHENING MEMBERS ACGT TO SUPPORT THE DECKS? A. PILLARS B. GIRDERS C. BULKHEADS D. ALL OF THE ABOVE ANS:D 3129. IN SHIP CONSTRUCTION, THE HULL FRAME MEMBERS EXTENDING ATHWARTSHIP ARE CALLED____________________ A. DECK FRAMES B. STRINGER FRAMESV C. LONGITUDINAL FRAMES D. TRANSVERSE FRAMES ANS:D 3130 THE URPOSE OF SWASH BULKHEADS IS TO ______________________ A. MINIMIZE THE EFFECT OF A LISTING CONDITION

B. RESTRISDCT FLOODING WITHIN A TANK C. SEPARATE CARGOES IN A COMMON TANK D. REDUCE LIQUID MOVEMENT WITHIN A TANK ANS:D

3131 If high relative humidity is maintained In a cargo hold there is a significant possibility that ________ I there will be an accumulation of static electricity II. mold will grow and contaminate the cargo
A. B. C. D. I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II

Ans: B 3132 The depth of fuel oil in a double bottom tank is measured through the ________
A. B. C. D. vent line depth gage manhole cover sounding tube

Ans: D 3133 regulation require that any tank ship making a voyage of over a48 hour duration must have certain tests conduceted more than 12 hour prior to leaving port meeting this requriment includes thetesting of the___________ A.means comunication between the bridge and engineroom B.tire pump relief value C.water tight door to the shaft dally D.emergency lightining system Ans: A

3134 pillar cross sections of I ,H, or circular are used construction in location where there are large expanses, void intermediate decks and bulk heads, such as in cargo holes and engine rooms .A supporting pillar which becomes bent out of ver
A. B. C. D. not be critical until the vertical angle approaches 15 loose practically all of its strength as a support most likely expenses shear stress failure if not reinforced immediately not poce any problem, provided there are no cracked welds connecting it to any adjoining strength members

Ans: B 3135 in order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out, specific portion of the chain are colour coded and wrapped with wire. The second short the chain is painted ________ A: white on the detachable link B: red for two links on either side of the detachable link C: white for two links on either side of the detachable link D: red on the detachable link Ans: C 3136 In order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out specific portions of the chain are color coded and wrapped with wire. The first shot of chain is painted_________
A. white on the detachable link and red on each link to either side of the detachable link B. white on the detachable link and white on each link to either side of the detachable link C. red on the detachable link and red on each link to either side of the detachable link D. red on the detachable link and white on each link to either side of the detachable link

Ans:D 3137 The tester end is the _________

A. B. C. D.

tooped end of a mooring cable end of the chain shackled to the anchor fixed end of the mooring cable fastened to the mooring winch drum end of the anchor chain fastened to the vessel

Ans:D 3138 A shot of anchor chain is equal to_______

A. B. C. D. one chain link one -90 foot segment 90 fathoms one 15 foot segment

Ans:B 3139 All of the links in the next to the last inboard shot of chain are painted _______
A. B. C. D. yellow white red orange

Ans:A 3140 Stanchions prevent the entire deck load from load being carried by the _______
A. B. C. D. bulkheads stringers frames and beam brackets deck longitudinals

Ans: C 3141 According to the regulations ,a B class bulkhead shall be constructed ________
A. of steel or equivalent metal construction suitably stiffened and made intact from deck to deck and to shall or other boundanes

B. of approved incombustible materials, but need meet no requirements relativeto the passage of flame C. that if subjected to a standard fire test, they would be capable of preventing the passage of flame for one half hour D. that if subjected to a standard fire test, they would be capable of preventing the passage of preventing the passage of flame and smoke for one hour

Ans: C 3142 The material design, construction and workmanship of main and auxiliary machinery shall _______(46 CFR)
A. determine the necessity of duplication and application of redundant systems B. be examined and approved by the Port State Control Officer of the port in which the vessel is being constructed C. be atleast equivalent to the standards established by the American Bureau of Shipping or other recognized classification society D. prevent the possibility of operator injury due to inefficient construction practices and appropriate material testing procedures

Ans: C 3143 According to regulation , an A class division, bulkhead or deck shall be constructed________
A. with approved incombustible materials and made intact from deck to deck and to shell or other boundaries B. of approved incombustible materials, but need meet no requirements relative to the passage of flame C. that if subjected to the standaard fire test, they would be capable of preventing the passage of flame for one half hour D. that if subjected to the standard fite test, they would be capable of preventing the passage of flame and smlke for one hour

Ans: D 3144 The bleeder plug , or docking plug located on a motor vessel double bottom tank is used to_______
A. indicate when the tank is pressed up B. provide a secondary means of tank sounding C. Vent air from the tank when bunkering

D. Empty the tank when in drydock

3145 in ship construction beam brackets are triangular plates joining the deck beam to a..
A. B. C. D. Bulkhead Frame Stanchion Deck longitudinal

Ans.b 3146 the duties of the chief engineer upon taking charge of the department includes
A. B. C. D. Preparing a list of engine department personel for the the markets signature Taking acouple personal inventory of all engine room spare parts Determining any vital engineroom equipment is inoperatvie Obtaining a valid certification of inspection from the cosgaurd

Ans.c 3147 reinforcing frames attached to a bulkhead are called

A. B. C. D. Side longitudanals Intercostals Stiffeners Brackets

Ans.c 3148 if a life boat which allows a life boat to descend to the water at an excessive speed you should____
A. B. C. D. Remove unneccesary weight from the boat Adjust the centrifugal break machine Adjust the david mounted limit swithches Engage the motors friction clutch bands

Ans. B

3149 when a vessil is dryed docked for inspection which of the following valves are required to b e opened during the this period
A. B. C. D. Ballast pump manifold valves High and low section values on fuel oil setting tanks Bottom blow skin value balls main and auxillary boilers Cooking water controls on refrigration condensers

Ans. C 3150 sounding tubes and access openings for fuel oil tanks on cargo vessels are permitted by the regulations to be located in which of the listed spaces?
A. B. C. D. Washroom Laundrings Slop sinks Corridors

Ans.d 3151 on small passenger vessels , seperation of machinery on fuel tanks sapces shall be .
A. B. C. D. Provided between each of the space by water tight and vapour tight bulk heads Seperated from accomadation spaces by water tight bulk heads Not considered as essentials seperation from accomadation spaces by non continuous bulk heads

ans. B 3152 regulations require remote controls for stopping machineries driving fuel oil service pumps .these controls shall be .
A. B. C. D. Located at the control ptrol Provided with the locked cover Accseble to authorized personal only Protected against accidental operation

Ans. D 3153 the location of the vessels frame station may be optained from which of the listed drawings __________

A. profile B. base line Ans.A

C.cross section D.but tock

3154 where should you to find writing plates ?

A. B. C. D. In bow of the ship of the water line On the bottom of a fuel are ballest tank under the sounding tube Under the counyer above the propeller blade tips On the coffer dam man hole

Ans.B 3155what colour is used to indicuate the last short anchor chain?
A. B. C. D. Red White Blue Yellow

Ans.A 3156the principe purpose of an anchor windlas chain stopper is to____

A. B. C. D. Tigh of yhe warping head lines Absorb the breake thrust of the anchor windlas Hold the anchor chain while riding at anchor lock the intermediate clutch shaft to the wildcal

ans.C 3157 according to regulation ,the cargo pump shaft on tankers pierce the bulkheads..
A. readily accessible gas tight glance shall be provided B. compressed air shall be used as the primary means to discahrge cargo C. pressure gague or manometer shall be installed on the bulkhead to ensure the gas tight seal in maintain D. the glance are to be kept under continuos section with power ventilation

ans. A

3158. in merchant ship construction , the term scantilings refers to A. a factor of safety involved with the hog and sag charecterestics of the hull B. hull guided strenght in terms of standard model C. D. Ans. C 3159 the structural member of hull extending in a fore and aft direction are called__________
A. B. C. D. frames joiners longitudinels knees

designed size of beams, stiffeners and shell platind ICE strength classification of the hull

ans.c 3160the minium member of crue member is prrmitted by law to opperate your vessel can be determined by checking the _____________
A. B. C. D. manning certificate class certificate masters crew list masters law group

ans.A 3161which of the fpllowing is ooperated from the main engine room console on an automator vessel?
A. B. C. D. Fire pump and lubeboil pump Lubeoil pump and distiling plant Distilling plant and shaft alley door Shaftalley door and fixed CO2 to relase

Ans.

3162expantion times used in hot water heating system may be of the open or closed type. What would be the normal temperature range of the water?
A. B. C. D. 80c to 100c 104c to 118c 127c to 138c 160c to 182c

Ans. 3163 which of the following statement describes the function of an alarm annunciator on an engine room alarm panel?
a) An alarm condition causes a light and siren to come on which remain on until the machinary is secured b) A flashing light comes on, followed by an audiable alarm. When an alarm acknowledged button is depressed the audiable alarm is silenced and light stays on c) An alarm condition gives an audiable and visual alar signal,bothof which are secured when the alarm acknowledged button is depressed d) An alarm condition causes a flashing light to come on, followed by an audiable alarm acknowledge button is depressed, the warning light is extinguished

Ans B 3164 according to regulation a standard fire is one..

a) b) c) d) Of many initial operating tests performed on newly commisioned boilers Which is used to determine the flash point of various marine fuels Which develops a serious of temperature relationships in atest furnace In which all emergency firefighting and releated safety equipment are tested

ans c 3165 with refrence to a vessels structural integrity the most significant characterictic of a cryogenic liquid is its
a) b) c) d) Capability of causing brittle fractures Highly corrosive action on mild steel Vapour cloud which reacts violently with saltwater Toxically at atmospheric pressure

Ans a

3166 with regard to opening and closing of watertight appliances not fitted with a remote operating control or alarm system which of the following is the master or a person in charge of a modu required to enter in th logbook?
a) The time required to close the appliances b) The reason for opening or closing each appliances c) The name of the person performing the opening and closing and closing of such appliances d) The fact that the hull indicators functioned or not

Ans b 3167 the purpose of bilge keel is to.

a) b) c) d) Lower the center of gravity of ship Reduces the amplitude of the roll Reduce pitching Reduce yawing

Ans b 3168 which of the following describes the purpose of a striker or doubler plate?
a) Provides a surface for the surface for the application of force or the installation of machinary b) Provides landing surface for the sounding bob of a tank sounding tape c) Absorbs machinary vibration d) Prevents valve stern over travel

Ans b 3169 in order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out.specific portion of the chain are color and wrapped with wire. The third shot of chain should have..
a) Three turns of wire wrapped around the detachable link b) Three turns of wire wrapped around the stud of the third link oneach side of the detechable link c) Three turns of wire wrapped around the stud of the link on each side of the deteachable link d) One turn of wire wrapped around the stud of the third link on each side of the deteachable link

Ans b 3170 aboard tankers the term category A machinary space as defined by regulation means any spaceincluding trunks and tucts to space containing
a) Internal combustion machinary used for main propulsion b) One or more oil fired boilers or fuel units c) Internal combustion machinary used for purpose other than main propulsion where the total collective power is at least 500 brakehorsepower d) All the above

Ans d 3171 if high relative humidity is maintained in a cargo hold,there is a significant possibility that.I there will be an accumlation of static electricity II mold will grow and contaminate the cargo
a) b) c) d) I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II

Ans b 3172 if auxilary machinary vital to the main propulsion system is not provided with independent duplicate systems , which of the systems listed would satisfy regulations if servicedby two pumps?
a) b) c) d) Main condensate Lube oil service Fuel oil service All the above

Ans d 3173 which of the following machinery remote control shutdowns is required to be tested during each regular inspection for certification?
a) Forced draft fan b) Induced draft fan c) Fuel oil transfer pump

d) Allthe above

Ans d 3174 all of the links in the last shot of anchor chain are painted
a) b) c) d) Yellow White Red Orange

Ans c 3175 if a vessel is not provided with duplicate service systems, which of the systems listed the regulations if the serviced by two pumps?
a) b) c) d) Main condensate Fuel oil service Lube oil service All the above

Ans d 3176 the hulls of most modern towing vessels constructed today are fabricated from
a) b) c) d) Wrought iron High alloy steel Mild steel Corrosion resisting steel

Ans c 3177 when any vessel is drydocked,examination shall be made of the propeller..
a) b) c) d) Fairwater cone and hull anodes by the chief engineer assigned to the vessel Propeller coupling and flange fasteners by the authorized inspector of the repair facility Keel and stabilizing fins by a registered marine engineer Stern bushing , sea connection and fastenings if deemed necessary by the class surveyor

Ans d

3178 The penetration of watertight bulkhead and watertight deck by rigid nonmetallic piping is prohibited except when a.fairwater cone and hull anodes by the Chief Engineer assigned to vessel b.propeller coupling and flange fasteners by the authorized inspector of the epair facility c. keel and stabilizing fins by a registereg marine engineer d. stern bushing,sea connection and fastening if deemed result by the class surveyor ans : a

3179

In ship construction,a large number of watertight bulkheads result in

a.increased capacity to set flooding boundaries b.decreased capacity to set fioooding boundaries c. reduced compartmentation d.greater deck load capacity ans : a 3180 regulation require fresh weter tank vent terminating with in the machinery space to terminate well above the deep loat line unless the a.vent are fitted with suteble mechanical closures b.tenk have no boundaries in common with the hull c.vent are fitted with ball float check vales or an equivalent automatic closure device d.tank are fitted with suitable pressure vacuum relief value ans : b 3181 regulation prohibit aircompressor from being lacate in a.a space with in three meters of a cargo valve b. a space in whih cargo hose is stowed

c.an enclosed space containing cargo piping d.all of the above ans: d 3182 who responsiblefor completing the station bill or muster list and posting it in a visible area aboard the vessel a. b. c. d. Chief engineer Master Psc inspector None of the above Ans:b

3183when a vessel is in drydock the vessel engineer should a.examine the contion of the propeller b.chip and paint all hull projection zines c. install new docking plugs in all cofferdams d. inspects the hull for hogging or segging ans:a 3184 according to the regulation when reach rods to tank value pass through the deck stuffing box at this joint must be a. b. c. d. Grounded with bonding straps Water tight Gas tight Made of neon or nonmetallic material Ans : c

3185 when installing a new independent fuel tank for the emergency lighting unit which of the following statements must be strictly adhered to in accordance with regulation a. the tank must be located on an open deck or in an adequately ventilated metal compartment in which the ambient temperature never exceeds 150 c b. iron or steel tanks shall be galvonised on the interior to prevent the formation of rust if any condensation should occur

c. the fuel tank should be adequately supported and branched to prevent movement and insulated from the vessels common ground to insure against static electricity d. all of the above ans: a 3186how often should cargo oil pump relief valves on tank vessel to be tested a. b. c. d. prior to each cargo discharge operation at least once each voyage at least once a year at each biennial inspection ans:c

3187 machinery driving fuel oil transfer and fuel oil service pumps must be fitted with a remote means of stopping the machinery from a. b. c. d. within the space concerned outside the space concerned the throttle station within the fireroom ans:b

3188 A cofferdam is a/an _________________ a. b. c. d. empty space between tank tops and bilges cement baffle in a fresh water tank tank for storing chemicals empty space separating compartments to prevent the content of one compartment from entering other compartment Ans:d

3189 The outer strake of the inner bottom on each side of the ships is called the _______________ a. rider plate b.outer plate c.margin plate d. stealer plate ans:c

3190 In the longitudinal framed ship , the longitudinal frames are held in place and supported by athwartship members called ______________ a.stringers b.web frames c.pillers d.brackets ANS :b 3191 Which of the following systems according to regulations must have An emergency stop, protected with a glass anclosure , and located outside of the machinery space? a. b. c. d. A. B. C. D. Main frame pump Fuel oil service pump Main circulating/bilge injection valve All the above Ans: b Chill shocking is necessary to remove scale Leakage at the second-stage condenser Faulty operation of the brine overboard pump Carryover in the first-stage

Ans:D
A. B. C. D. Increased heat levels throughout the entire unit Decreased priming and lower salinity distillate First effect scale formation to be loosened Pressure and temperature fluctuations in the entire unit

Ans:D 3194. Which of the following descriptions best identifies the operating principal of a flash-type evaporator?
A. B. C. D. Seawater is heated to boiling temperature while under a vacuum Seawater is passed over heated plates in a thin film Heated seawater is injected into a vacuum chamber Seawater is forced through a heated educator

Ans:C 3195. Which of the listed problems could produce a high absolute pressure within a flash type evaporator?
A. B. C. D. Production of high salinity distillate Seawater feed temperature below 75 C A leak in the first stage demiste A cracked distillate pump vent line

3196. One advantage of a triple-effect low pressure submerged tube distilling plant over a double-effect unit is _________ Ans:D
A. B. C. D. Better water purity Less scale formation Less internal corrosion Greater evaporator efficiency

3197. A salinity indicating system functions on the basic principle of measuring the_______ Ans:D
A. B. C. D. Electrical inductance of water Electrical conductivity of water Specific gravity of water Hydrogen ion concentration of water

Ans:B 3198. One distinct advantage of flash type evaporators as compared to most other evaporators, is that in a flash evaporator________
A. B. C. D. High temperature distillate can be recirculated to induce additional flashing Scale formation is not more severe problem Cold shocking is more effective in removing scale Water purity is greatly increased at high capacity

Ans:B

3199. Early models of the flash-type evaporators used a separate shell and tube heat exchanger as the air ejector condenser.More recent models use a combined air ejector condenser with the ________
A. B. C. D. Distillating condenser Salt water feed heater Distillate cooler Flash chamber

Ans:B 3200. If the supplied steam pressure to the first effect of a submerged tube distilling plant is allowed to fluctuate, the distiller___________
A. B. C. D. Solenoid dump valve will trip Air ejector will operate erratically Water levels will automatically lower Brine density will increase

Ans:A 3201. Fluctuating pressures and temperatures in an evaporator will__________

A. B. C. D. Eliminate most of the scale formation in the first effect Increase the heat level in all effects Increase the probability of priming Automatically cold shock the evaporator

Ans:C 3202. The temperature of the steam flow to the saltwater feed water, in a flash type evaporator can be manipulated by a/an__________
A. B. C. D. Pressure regulator within the supply orifice Thermally actuated bypass valve Attemporator in the steam supply piping Sensor wired in with the three-way salinity dump valve

Ans:C 3203. In a two stage flash evaporator heated feedwater is vaporized in the ________
A. Feed inlet box

B. Distiller feedwater heater C. First and second stage flash chambers D. First and second stage vapor separators

Ans:C 3204. Excessive scale formation in a distilling plant may result from_________
A. B. C. D. Poor distillate quality Reduced evaporator capacity Low brine concentration Improper vacuum regulation

Ans:D 3205. A vacuum is initially created in a flash type distilling plant by ________
A. B. C. D. The flashing of the feed water The condensation of the saltwater feed Air ejectors,educators,or a separate vacuum pump Condensation of the distillate

Ans:C 3206. While at sea, the flash type evaporator is discharging the output to the distill tanks.If it becomes necessary to reduce the feed water temperature below 74 C, you should________
A. B. C. D. Continue the current evaporator operation Dump the evaporator to the bilge Secure the evaporator until the feedwater temperature can be raised to 74 C or more Raise the tripping point at the salinity indicating panel for the three-way valve

Ans:A 3207. If a flash-type evaporator was designed to operate in seawater at 24 C, and the current seawater temperature is 10 C, without readjusting any valve associated with this evaporator________
A. B. C. D. The capacity will be doubled The capacity will remain the same regardless of the seawater temperature It will probably trip off the line as a result of an excessive and violent rate of flashing It will produce the purest and lowest salinity concentration of distillate that can be produced

Ans:C 3208. Where auxiliary steam supply is not used in the process of maintaining vacuum in a distilling unit, the vacuum is usually attained by ____________
A. B. C. D. Air operated air ejectors Vacuum pumps Increasing the rate of condensation in the distiller condensers A separated suction connection to the brine overboard pump

Ans:B 3209. In the event of a power failure to the salinity panel on a flash-type evaporator, the three-way solenoid valve will__________
A. B. C. D. Be frozen in its last position Direct distillate to the fresh water tank Dump distillate to the bilge Dump distillate to the makeup feed tank

Ans:C 3210. The absolute pressure maintained in the shell of the salt water feed heater on most flash evaporators used on steam propelled vessels is_____________
A. B. C. D. Slightly less than the absolute pressure of the L.P. extraction Slightly less than the supplied live steam pressure at the reducing valve outlet Slightly higher than the second stage vacuum Slightly lower than the first stage vacuum

Ans:A 3211. Condensate formed within the firs-effect tube nest of a double-effect, low pressure evaporator, is removed by a__________
A. B. C. D. Series of baffles Crossover pipe Condensate separator Drain pump

Ans:D 3212. Steam supply for the operation of the low pressure evaporators may be obtained directly from the__________

A. B. C. D.

Main steam line Turbine extraction line Turbo-generator steam supply line Air ejector exhaust line

Ans:B 3213. The brine level in the second-stage of a flash-type evaporator is due in part to the feed rate, the rate of evaporation in both stages, and the__________
A. B. C. D. Steam flow rate to the air ejectors Float controlled level of the feed heater Capacity of the distillate pump Throughput of the brine overboard pump

Ans:D 3214. Fluctuations in the pressure and temperature of the steam supplied to the first-effect of a low pressure distilling plant will cause______________
A. B. C. D. Increased heat levels throughout the entire unit Decreased priming and lower distillate salinity First effect scale formation to be lessened Pressure and temperature fluctuations in the entire unit

Ans:D 3215. A fixed orifice plate is generally installed in the live steam supply to an evaporator. One of the functions of this orifice is to controlthe quantity of the supplied steam. A second function is to_____
A. Reduce pressure fluctuations from occurring in the steam supply to the salt water feed heater B. Produce more useful superheated supply steam C. Guarantee that the steam supply will remain desuperheated D. Produce a low salt water feed heater shell absolute pressure

Ans:A 3216. When securing a centrifugal distillate pump, which of the listed steps should be carried out first?
A. Stop the pump B. Close the pressure gage valves

C. Trip the three-way solenoid valve D. Close the sealing line valves to the pump

Ans:C 3217. A vacuum is initially established in the first and second stages of a low pressure evaporator by the use of____________
A. B. C. D. Vacuum drag from the auxiliary condensate system Individual vacuum pumps A single non-conducting air ejector A two stage air ejector

Ans:D 3218. The vapor separators installed in some distilling plants consist rows of vertical hooked vanes which remove entrained moisture from the vapor by__________
A. B. C. D. Directing the vapor through a fine metallic mesh Condensing water droplets on the metal vanes Tapping water droplets in the metallic mesh Abruptly changing the direction of vapor flow

Ans:D 3219. Where a two-stage air ejector set is used in a two-stage flash evaporator, the first-stage air ejector takes suction from the second stage of the evaporator,and the second stage air ejector________
A. B. C. D. Takes suction from the first stage of the evaporator Takes suction from the second stage of the evaporator as well Takes suction from the first stage ejector discharge Is normally idle and used mainly as a standby unit

Ans:C 3220. When the steam leaving the control orifice of the live steam supply is not conditioned, the evaporator___________
A. B. C. D. Capacity will be increased Capacity will be decreased Salt water feed heater absolute pressure will decrease significantly Salt water feed heater absolute pressure will increase significantly

Ans:B 3221. A flash type evaporator is designed to operate in 24 C seawater, if operated in 10 C sea water_________
A. B. C. D. The absolute pressures will be slightly below the predicted design absolute pressures Absolute pressure in the evaporator stages will be higher The unit will operate at reduced capacity Thermal efficiency will decrease,but brine density will increase

Ans:A 3222. Inorder to prevent salt water contamination of the distillate in a flash-type evaporator, it is important to provide a positive seal around the_____________
A. B. C. D. Spray caps Demisters Saltwater heater vents Steam supply orifice plate

Ans:D 3223. Which of the following statements describes the proper operation of a three-way solenoid trip valve on a flash-type evaporator?
A. B. C. D. The valve must be manually reset The valve will trip if the sea water feed temperature drops below 79 C The valve is interlocked to trip only on de-energization of the solenoid The valve will trip if the distillate is too warm

Ans:A 3224. Where would a salinity cell be installed in a double-effect distilling plant?
A. B. C. D. Distillate pump discharge Tube nest drain pump discharge Air ejector condensation drain All of the above

Ans:D 3225. The purpose of chill shocking an evaporator is to___________

A. Prepare for a hydrostatic test B. Stress relieve the tubes

C. Break loose scale deposits formed on the tubes D. Test for leaks in the tubes

Ans:C 3226. Which of the listed problems is occurring if a coil type high pressure evaporator constantly requires an increase in the coil steam pressure in order to maintain capacity?
A. B. C. D. The brine density is improper Heat transfer surfaces are being layered with scale Impure distillate is being produced Shell vapor pressure is constantly decreasing

Ans:B 3227. In the last effect of a multi-effect submerged tubedistilling plant rapid fluctuations of the absolute pressure tend to cause_____________
A. B. C. D. Scale formation with increased heat transfer Priming with increased salinity of distillate Slightly foaming at the distillate feed pump Improved operating conditions at the brine pump

Ans:B 3228 In which of the following types of evaporators is the control of brine density least important?
A. B. C. D. Solo shell evaporator Flash evaporators Submerged tube evaporators Basket evaporators

Ans B 3229 A multistage flash evaporators will be unable to produce consistency pure distillate if the?

A. B. C. D.

Distillate cooler is dirty Tubes of the saltwater feed heater are flooded internally Distillate meter stops Vacuum is fluctuating

Ans D 3230 When securing a centrifugal type distillate pump, which of the listed steps should be carried out first?
A. B. C. D. Close the pressure gage isolation valves Secure the casing vapor vent line Secure the stuffing box sealing water line Trip the three way dump valve

Ans D 3231 Rapid fluctuation of the last effect shell vacuum in a submerged tube evaporator can cause
A. B. C. D. Erratic air eject operation Air leaks in the tube nest Rapid scaling in all effects Priming in that effect

Ans D 3232 Improper waterside venting of the tube nest in a submerged tube evaporator can cause a/an
A. B. C. D. Fluctuating vacuum in the evaporator Loss of evaporator capacity Increased in the first effect Increased brine overboard flow rate

Ans B

3233 If a higher than normal water level is observed through the inspection port of a flash evaporator, you should suspect
A. B. C. D. A weak in the feedwater heater Improper vacuum A malfunctioning brine pump A clogged desurperheater water strain

Ans C 3234 Indicated high salinity of the distillate discharged from a flash type distilling plant will be a result of
A. B. C. D. Maintaining the proper distilling plant heat balance Carrying the brine level below normal Leaks in the demister baffles Venting of the salt water heater drain pump

Ans C 3235 In a flash evaporator, scales as a result of higher than normal temperature is most likely to occur in the
A. B. C. D. Second stage feed heater Saltwater feed heater Distillate cooler Second stage vapor separator

Ans B 3236 Irregular feeding or surging of the feed water supply to a flash evaporator may be attributed to
A. Erratic water flow through the water educator

B. A clogged vent line from the air educator condenser C. Excessive pressure in the seawater feed heater D. A dirty strainer in the saltwater feed pump suction line

Ans D 3237 If the orifice in the loop seal of a flash evaporator were to become significantly enlarged through erosion the
A. Distillate produced in the second stage would flow toward the first stage B. Evaporator absolute pressure would eventually equalize in both stages to that of the first stage C. Evaporator absolute pressure could eventually equalize in both stages to that of the second stage D. Salt water feed heater absolute pressure would increase to that of the evaporator second stage Ans C

3238 In a flash evaporator, heated water under pressure is converted into vapor by suddenly
A. B. C. D. Increasing its temperature Increasing its volume Decreasing its density Decreasing its pressure Ans D

3239 Which of the following statements represents the basic principle of operation of an electrical salinity indicator?
A. B. C. D. Measure the hydrogen ion concentration Measure the electrical resistance of the water Determines the conductivity of the dissolved oxygen Measures the voltage of the chloride ion

Ans B

3240 In the double effect submerged tube evaporator, the brine density should be prevented from falling below 1.5/32nds to minimize
A. B. C. D. Scale formation of the tube nest s Loss in capacity and maintain plant efficiency Corrosion in the evaporator Carryover in the evaporator

Ans B 3241 Vapor is produced in a flash evaporator by introducing____________

A. B. C. D. Steam through heating coils Steam through cooling coils Heated water into a high pressure area Heated water into a low pressure area

Ans D 3242 A fluctuating and unsteady vacuum in an evaporator may be caused by__________
A. B. C. D. Wet steam entering the air ejector nozzle Pinhole leaks in the evaporator tube nests Rapid scaling on the evaporator tube nests High water levels in the last effect

Ans A 3243 In the operation of a two-stage flash type distilling plant, the rate of scale formation is greatly reduced by__________
A. Operating the unit at its rated capacity B. Maintaining a relatively high feedwater temperature

C. The fact that the first-stage regulator keeps the heater shell at a constant pressure D. The fact that no boiling occurs on heat transfer surfaces anywhere in the unit

Ans D 3244 Which of the listed chemicals can be routinely used to maintain the hygienic quality of potable water?
A. B. C. D. Hydrochloric acid Chlorine Sulphuric acid Zinc chromate

Ans B 3245 When any low pressure distilling plant is operated at less than the designed vauum, the__________
A. B. C. D. Heat level drops Capacity increases Scale formation increases Distillate purity increases

Ans C 3246 Portable water piping systems installed aboard ships must be ___________
A. B. C. D. Disinfected monthly with a chlorine compound Independent of all other piping systems Cadmium lined to prevent internal corrosion Flushed each time portable water is taken onboard

Ans. B 3247

Short cycling of the portable water pump is avoided by the proper use of a ___________
A. Hydro-pneumatic tank completely filled with compressed air at system operating pressure B. Hydro-pneumatic tank filled with water C. Charge of air, at 1.4 kg/cm2 (137.9 KPa) above system pressure with the hydropneumatic tank one quarter full of water D. Charge of air, at system pressure, when the hydropneumatic tank is half full of water

Ans. D 3248 A recirculating line is provided in the potable hot water system to ____________ A. maintain uniform inlet conditions for the constant speed supply pumps B. Maintain flow rates which will eliminate fluid film formation in the piping C. Return overflow from the pressure takes back to the potable water tanks D. Maintain the desired temperature range throughout the system Ans. D

3249 Which of the following components would be necessary for the proper operation of a potable hot water system?
A. B. C. D. Circulating pump Drift pockets Sterilizer Hydro-pneumatic expansion tank

Ans. A 3250

A solenoid operated distillate bypass valve is installed in the discharge lie between a distilling plant and the potable water tanks to prevent___________
A. B. C. D. Excessively warm distillate from entering the potable tanks Salty distillate from reaching the potable tanks Overfilling and overflowing the potable tanks Contaminated water from leaving the potable tanks

Ans. B 3251 Distilled water from an evaporator may be discharged into a potable water tank_________
A. B. C. D. Through a detachable hose connection After passing through an activated charcoal filter After chemical analysis shows it is fit for consumption through a solenoid operated three-way valve

Ans. D 3252 Brine density in a distilling plant is measured with a/an_____________

A. B. C. D. psychometer salinometer anemometer sphygmomanometer

Ans. B 3253 Tube leaks in the distillate cooler of a two stage flash evaporator will result in___________
A. B. C. D. loss of second stage vacuum contamination of the distillate lower feed inlet temperature contamination of the second stage condenser

Ans. B 3254 In a flash type evaporator, all saltwater headers are vented through individual vent cocks to the___________
A. B. C. D. saltwater heater shell second \-stage condenser atmosphere second-stage flash chamber

Ans. C 3255 Why would a flash type distilling unit be more efficient when operated in cooler seawater temperatures?
A. B. C. D. steam carryover between stages is reduced Evaporator vacuum is increased The amount of available flash steam is decreased Feedwater flow from the feedwater heated is increased

Ans. B 3256 The condensers located in the various stages of a flash evaporator are cooled by_________
A. B. C. D. Distillate Seawater Brine Air

Ans. B 3257 The steam coils I a high pressure evaporator used for saltwater service should be descaled with_______

A. B. C. D.

A wire brush A needle gun A chipping hammer Soap and water

Ans. A 3258 Scale accumulation on evaporator heating surfaces will cause_________

A. B. C. D. Immediate loss of vacuum Increased distillate quality Immediate tube failure Induced evaporator capacity

Ans. D 3259 If the rated distillate production of a submerged tue type evaporator cannot be maintained with the supplied maximum steam flow rate, the evaporator__________
A. Chemical feed must be increased B. Has a serious brine leak C. Temperature switch is defective heating surfaces are scaled

Ans. D 3260 The first stage feedwater temperature and shell absolute pressure in a multistage flash evaporator is___________
A. B. C. D. Equal to the second stage feedwater temperature and shell absolute pressure Higher than the secondstage feedwater temperature and shell absolute pressure Lower than the feedwater temperature and shell absolute pressure in the second stage Higher than the second stage feedwater temperature but at a lower shell absolute pressure

Ans. B

3261 In a two stage flash evaporator operating conditions in the second stage, as compared to the first stage, are__________
A. B. C. D. Higher temperature and higher absolute pressure Higher temperature and lower absolute pressure Lower temperature and higher absolute pressure Lower temperature and lower absolute pressure

Ans. D 3262 A vacuum differential is maintained in the distillate circuit between any two stages of a multiple stage distilling plant by the use of a/an___________
A. B. C. D. Steam trap Butterfly valve Loop seal Adjustable controller

Ans. C 3263 The average salinity of normal seawater, when expressed as brine density is equivalent to_____________
A. B. C. D. 1/32nd 1.5/32nds 2/32nds 3/32nds

Ans. A c. water flashing into vapor than boiling on the heat transfer surfaces . d. opening the first-stage regulator to maintain a constant shell pressure. Ans: c

3266. Salinity cells are strategically installed in flash type distilling units to indicate the ..I presence of leaks in the flash chambers. It quantity of the distillate produced A. 1 only B.2 only C. both 1 and 2 D.Neither 1 and 2 Ans:D 3267. Partially clogged or scored nozzles in a two stage air ejector unit of a flash distlling plant could result in a .. A. fluctualting vaccum in the flash heater shell B. flooded seawater feed heater shell C. high water level in the air ejector after condenser D. manufacturing check valve in the air ejector discharge Ans:A 3268. In a flash type evaporator, an electriacal salinity cell would be installed in the A. distillate outlet from the distillate cooler B. distillate inlet to the distillate cooler C. condestate drains from the distiller feedwater heater Ans:D 3269. Small droplets of water enternaid in the flashed vapour produced in a flash type evaporator, are removed by the

A. spray pipes B. demisters C. condensers D.splash baffles Ans: B 3270. The demisters installed in a flash type evaporator serve to A. decrease the first effect distillate B. filter the condensed flash vapour C. deaerate the first and second effet distillate D. remove small water droplets enternained in the flashed vapour Ans. D 3271. In a double effect distilling plant, the brine particals remaining enternaied with the vapour produced in the evaporator first effect, are separated by A. a flash chamber B. baffles and vanes C. the vapour feed heater D. a brine pump Ans. B 3272. The inability to maintain proper vaccum in a submerged tube evaporator can be caused by A. fluctuating steam pressure to the air ejector nozzle B. improper venting of the evaporator tube nests

C. air leaks in the evaporator tube nests D. high water level in the evaporator shell Ans. A 3273. One function of the vapour feed heater in a double effect distilling unit is to A. condense part of the vapor given off in the first effect B. preheat distillate circulating to the second effect tube nest C. cool the incoming first effect evaporator feed D. condense all the distillate in the second effect tube nests Ans. A 3274. The size of the loop seal orifice for a flash type evaporator is important for maintain the control of A. the vaccum differential developed between both stages B. the absolute pressure developed between both stages C. the absolute pressure developed in the salt water feed heater shell D. maintain distillate flow between the first and second stage in order to avoid dry seal opera tion of the loop Ans.D 3275. The heated feedwater entering any flash chamber of a flash type evaporator will A. vaporize, with the unflashed water remaining at the temperature at which it entered the flash chamber B. vapourize with the unflashed water equalizing to the sapotion conditions existing in the flash chamber

C. vaporize, with the remaining water at a temperature greater than it entered the flash chamber D. boil, allowing steam bubbles to rise through the brine at the bottom of the flash chamber Ans. B 3276. If the distillate temperature from a flash type evaporator falls below 71*C A. the distillate may be directed to the storage tanks B. the automatic three way solenoid dump valve should direct distillate to the bilge C. the demisters will become scaled D. priming will occur in the first effect Ans. A 3277. On a multistage flash type evaporator, the flash chamber is A. combine as part of the salt water feed heater B.the open area above the brine levels in the first and second stages C.combined as the part of the distilate cooler D.another term used to describe the vapour fed water 3278.which of the listed conditions will cause the feed water,that has not flashed to vapour in the first stage of a flash evaporator to flow into second stage of a flash evaporator to flow into second-stage? A.gravity siphon effect B.higher vaccum in the second-stage C.difference in the brine density between first and second stages

D. lower pressure in first-stage ANS:B 3279.when a flash evaporator is being operated in extremely cold water you may need to throttle the seawater supply to A.prevent cold shocking the evaporator B.maintain the feed water temperature above the required minimum input temperature C.avoid flooding the evaporator shell D.incerase the evapoaator distilling rate ANS:B 3280. the final heating of the feedwater in a flash type distilling plant is carried out by A. low pressure steam admitted to the feedwater heater B. heat exchange in the first stage feedbox C. vaporization in the first stage chamber D. heat exchange in each stage distiller condenser Ans: A 3281. Scale accumulation on evaporator heat exchange surfaces A. increases brine density B. increases distillate salinity C. reduces metal corrosion D. reduces heat transfer Ans: D

3282. The efficiency of a flash type evaporate can be increased by A. lowering brine discharge density B. decreasing the absolute pressure of each stage C. increasing the saltwater feed heater temperature D. increasing the pressure at the spray pipe Ans: B 3283. In a two stage flash evaporator, the sea water feed temperature is increased as it passes through the A. first stage distilling condenser B. second stagedistilling condenser C. salt water feed heater D. all the above. Ans: D 3284. In the operation of a flash type evaporator equipped with air ejectors the air and noncondensable gases are evacuated from the A. first stage flash chamber B. second stage flash chamber C. first stage after condenser D. second stage distilling condenser Ans: D 3285. The quantity and density of brine discharged from the last effect of the distilling plant should be as possible to A. prevent scale accumulation on heat exchange surfaces

B. maintain a constant distillate outlet temperature C. ensure distillate quality and distilling plant efficiency D. prevent any salinity in the distillate produced Ans: C 3286. Less scale formation occurs in a flash evaporator than in a submerged tube evaporator because A. the distillate produced has greater purity B. no boiling occurs on heat transfer surfaces C. evaporation occurs at a higher rate D. the incoming feed is at a higher temperature Ans. B 3287. In a flash type evaporator, the brine overboard pump is vented directly to the A. sailwater heater shell B. first stage distilling condenser C. second stage flash chamber D. air ejector condenser Ans. C 3288. The thickness deposit of scale in a flash evaporator is most likely to occur in the tubes of the A. distillate cooler B. first stage condenser C. saltwater feed heater

D. flash chamber Ans. C 3289. The advantages of flash type evaporators, as compared to submerged tube type evaporators, include A. less internal corrosion because of lower brine density B. higher temperature evaporation for lower salinity of the distillate produced C. less scale formation in a flash evaporator D. less feedwater required for a flash evaporator Ans. C 3290. In a two stage flash distilling plant, which of the pumps listed is prevented to the shell of the second stage in order to remove vapour from the pump suction? A. Condensor circulating water pump B. feed water heater drain pump C. distillate pump D. air ejector condenser drain pump Ans. C 3291. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause water hammer in the portable water system? A. the hydre pneumatic tank being properly B. the starting of the portable water pump C. a low water level in the portable water storage tank D. rapid closing of a spring closed basin fauce

Ans: D 3292 Why will a two stage flash type distilling plant tend to operate more efficiently when operating in cold seawater?
A. The coldest seawater passing through the condenser tube bundles of the various stages increases evaporator vaccum B. The amount of heated feedwater discharged from the feedwater heater altercondeser is increased C. Fewer noncondensable gases are created by the flow of colder seawater D. More seawater is allowed to pass through the first stage overflow weir Ans. A 3293.Which of the following statements represents an advantage of a triple effect submerged tube evaporator compared to a single effect submerged tube evaporator? A. Greater purity of distillate B. Lower consumption of steam per pound of the distillate produced C. Less scale formation D. less complex to maintain and operate Ans. B

3293.Which of the following statements represents an advantage of a triple-effect submerged tube evaporator compared to a single effect submerged tube evaporator? A.greater purity B.lower consumption of steam per pound of dis late produced C.less scale fotmation D.less complex to maintain and operate Ans.B 3294.One advantage of a flash distilling plant when compared to a submerged tube is A.greater distillate purity through high temperature evaporation B.cold shocking for scale removal is not required

C.less internal corrosion because of lower brine density D.less feed water is required for equal plant capacity 3295.potable and non-potable water system aboard vessel A.may be temporily interconnected with a removal spool B.are permanently interconnected through a double stop value C.may never be interconnected by any means D.may be connected if they are used only for wash water Ans.C 3296.Which of the following statement is correct relative to distillation plant operation? A.distillation is the process of boling seawater to produce vapor which is condensed into fresh water B.evaporation is the second part of the distillation process where brine is removed C.brine is the result of condensed sea water vapor D.distillate is the product resulting from the evaporation of fresh water vapor 3297.Air leaking into a flash type distilling plant could occur through A.gasketed joints B.valve stems C.gage glass packing D.all the above 3298.When securing a flash-type evaporator for an extended period of time you should

A.fill the unit with salt water B.fill the unit with deasealing compound C.completely drain the unit D.tightly seal the unit to exclude air 3299.The steam cols in the high pressure evaporator used for salt water service should be descaled with A.a needle gun B.soap and water C.a wire brush D.a chipping hammer 3300.The rate of scale formation in a flash type distilling plant is greatly reduced by A.operating the unit at its rated capacity B.maintaining a relatively high feed water temperature 3301.Feed water supplied to a flash type distilling plant will flash to vapor in the first-stage due to the flash chamber A.pressure being lower than the saturation pressure corresponding to feed water temoperture B.temperture being higher than the evaporation temperature of the supplied feedwater

3301 c. Heat exchange surfaces being directly in the path the entering feedwater d. orifices finely atomizing the heated feedwater entering the flash chamber. Ans:a 3302
a. b. c. d.

An excessively high brine level in a flash evaporator can be caused by

Excessive brine pump motor speed An excessive brine blowdown rate Failure of the brine pump Excessive distillate pump speed Ans:c 3303 A constant pressure range is maintained in the potable water system of many vessels by using a. Constant speed supply pumps b. Variable speed supply pumps c. An air cushion in the hydro-pneumatic tank d. A pressure regular in the pressure tank discharge piping

Ans:c 3304 If the distillating plant first stage absolute pressure is higher than normal , while the second stage absolute pressure remains satisfactory , the probable fault is due to
a. b. c. d. Loss of the distillate loop seal between the stages Priming in the second stage Failure of the brine pump An air leak through a vacuum gage line in the first stage

Ans:d 3305 salinity cells are strategically installed in distillingunits to indicate the______________1. Location of a saltwater leak.2. size of the tank
a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans:a 3306 an automstic solenoid dump valve should be set to trip if the evaporator produces distillate with salt content exceeding
A. B. C. D. 1ppm 5ppm 50ppm 1000ppm Ans:d

3307 In the operation of a two- stage flash-type distilling plant , which of the pumps listed should be vented to the second stage shell in order to remove vapors from the pump suction?
a. b. c. d. Condenser circulating water pump Feedwater heater drain pump Distillate pump Air ejector condenser drain pump Ans:c

3308 If a hole were to form in the division plate between stages of a flash type evaporator__________.1. vaporaization of the feed water would continue at second stage designed saturation conditions .2. all of the distillate produced would be certain to b
a. b. c. d. 1only 2only Both Neither 1 nor2 Ans:a

3309 If a holre were to form in the division plate between stages of a flash type evaporator _________.1.vaporization of the feed water would continue .2. efficiency of the unit would only be moderately affected
a. 1only b. 2only c. Both

d. Neither 1 nor 2 Ans:a

3310 and
a. b. c. d.

priming in asubmerged lube evaporator can be caused by high water level

Low brine density Low steam pressure High absolute pressure Excessive brine density Ans:d

3311
a. b. c. d.

Carryover in aflash type distilling plant can be a result of

Faulty operation of the brine overboard pump A pressure drop through the loopseal High distillate conductivity Low distillate conductivity Ans:d

3312 evaporator priming can be caused by high water level , fluctuating steam pressure , or

a. b. c. d.

Fluctuating shell vacuum Low brine density Low feed temperature A brine overflow weir set too low Ans:a

3313 when a flash-type evaporator is to be secured for an extended period of time , the entire unit should be drained ,cleaned, and
a. b. c. d. Completely filled with salt water Filled with descaling compound Tightly closed to exclude air Vented to the atmosphere Ans:d

3314

Which of the following statements is true concerning any evaporator?

a. b. c. d.

High conductivity of the distillate indicates distillate salinity is excessive Increasing the absolute pressure of the shell will increase the distillers capacity Mesh separators are used in evaporators to filters the distillate Reducing the brine density will reduce the heat lost overboard Ans:a

3315
a. b. c. d.

A salinity indicator is used to determine the

Causes of salt contamination Location of salt water contamination Chemical makeup of feedwater Level of alkalinity in condensate Ans:b

3316 In the production of fresh water from seawater through a process of heating and cooling ,the cooling phase of the production is usually
a. b. c. d. Evaporation Distillation Dehydration Condensation Ans:d

3317 A three-way solenoid operated dump valve installed on a flash-type evaporator unit , will divert impure distillate to the bilge
a. b. c. d. Only if the cell selector switch is positioned to monitor the first stage diatillate outlet Only if the cell selector switch is positioned to monitor the final stage distillate outlet Regardless of the cell selector switch position Only if the power to the salinity panel is interrupted. Ans:c

3318. The process of boiling seawater in order to separate it into freshwater vapor and brine is defined as. A. dehydration B. condensation C. evaporation D. dissolution Ans. C 3319. The mesh type steam separators located in a two-stage flash distilling plant, function to

A. vent noncondensable gases B. recycle evaporator flash steam C. reheat the flash steam D. improve distillate purity Ans. D 3320. In a two-stage flash-type distilling plant, the mesh type vapor separators function to A. improve distillate purity B. vent noncondensable gases C. recycle evaporator flash steam D. direct flash steam into the cooler Ans. A 3321. In a double-effect distilling plant, the evaporator feed remainingentrained in the first effect vapor, is removed by A. baffles and vanes B. a flash chamber C. the second effect separator D. the vapor feed heater Ans. A

3336. In a flash distilling unit, evaporator feed (seawater) first absorbs heat in the _____ A. vapor feed heater B. air ejector conductor C. saltwater heater D. distillate cooler Ans. D 3337. In a two-stage flash-type evaporator, excess brine in the first stage automatically passes_____ A. directly to the second stage feed heater B. directly overboard through the brine cooler C. into the second stage flash chamber D. into the second stage vapor condenser Ans. C 3338. The second stage feedwater temperature and shell absolute pressure in a multistage, flash type, distillating plant is_____ A. higher than the first stage feedwater temperature and absolute shell pressure B. lower than the first stage feed water temperature and absolute shell pressure C. the same as the first stage feedwater temperature and absolute shell pressure D. not related to the feedwater temperature and absolute shell pressure Ans. B

3339. Rapid fluctuations in the shell pressure in a submerged tube distilling unit will cause_____ A. increased heat level in the entire unit B. decreased priming and high salinity distillate C. first effect scale formation to be reduced D. priming in the last effect shell Ans. D 3340. Short cycling of the portable water systems pump is prevented by using _____ A. constant speed supply pumps B. variable speed supply pumps C. variable delivery supply pumps D. a hydropneumatic pressure tank Ans. D 3341. When any low pressure distilling plant is operated with less than the designed vacuum, the_____ A. heat level rises B. heat level drops C. capacity increases D. scale formation decreases Ans. A

3342. A flash type distilling plant is more efficient than a high pressure evaporator as_____ I.vaporization of the feed water occurs in a vacuum II. Boiling of feed water occurs only once on the tube surfaces A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I or II Ans. A 3343. The primary reason low pressure evaporators produce distillate more efficiently, and with less scale formation, than high pressure evaporators is_____ A. evaporation is accomplished in vacuum B. due to the higher temperature of the incoming feed C. due to the latent heat of evaporation principle D. evaporation in a submerged medium produces more distillate Ans. A 3344. If the brine level of the double effect soloshell evaporator is the above the sight glass, which action should be taken? A. Do nothing as this is the normal operating level B. The feed rate should be reduced and the brine discharge valve opened slightly C. The brine overflow weir should be raised to allow greater outflow D. The brine section should be drained down a minimum of 150mm below the sea wateer heater bundle. Ans. B

PIPES AND VALVES 3345. The use of a needle valve in a piping system is recommened when recquiring_____ A. high pressure drops B. close regulation of flow C. no pressure drops D. no back flow Ans. B 3346. The designation schedule 80 extra strong refers to __________ A. weight of steel plate B. tensile strength of holts C. piping wall thickness D.tubing bursting strength Ans. C 3347. Piping cross-sections raging from 3 mm to 300 mm in diameter, are sized by _______ A. wall strength B. nominal inside diameter C. outside diameter D. threaded diameter Ans. B 3348. On tankers using manually operated tank valves, the deck hand wheel indicator registers the ________

A. exact lift position of the tank valve disk through 100% of its operation B. oxygen content of the tank C. approximate number of turns the tank valve has been opened D. level of oil in the tank Ans. C 3349. Which of the following can be applied to the short lengths of pipes called nipples A. Fully threaded, half threaded, long and short B. Close, short, long and tank C. Standard, extra strong, double sxtra-strong and schedule 80 D. cast, wrought, stainless and brass Ans. B 3350 Fittings used to close the end of pipes are calle pipe ______
A. B. C. D. Caps Ells Tees Closures

Ans. A 3351 Which of the valves listed will be cycled from fully open to fully closed when the handle is turned to 90 degrees?
A. B. C. D. A rising stem gate valve A globe stop valve A check valve A butterfly valve

Ans. D

3352 The valve best suited for throttling gas or liquid flow in apipeline is the ______
A. B. C. D. Gate valve Globe valve Check valve Plug valve

Ans. B 3353 As routine maintenance, the bilge mainfold valves are periodically removed and examined. Prior to resecurring the valve bonnets, the valve _______
A. B. C. D. Disks and seats should be checked and lapped if necessary Bonnet flange gaskets should be renewed if they were cut or torn Stem packing should be renewed if the packing has hardened All of the above

Ans. D 3354 On tank vessels equipped with power operated cargo tank valves the type of power operator commonly used is
A. B. C. D. Hydraulic Electric Steam Diesel

Ans. A 3355 A gate valve installed in a piping system should be used _______
A. B. C. D. In either fully closed or fully opened positions Only eith the steam facing down Only for lube oil service To throttle the flow of liquid

Ans. A

3356 Compared to globe and angle valves, gate valves

A. B. C. D. Are more suitable for throttling Operate withh little or no pressure drop when opened Are more easily removed Cannot be used for service requiring frequent operation

Ans. B 3357 Which of the listed materials have been used to manufacturepiping available in standard weight, extra strong and double extra strong wall thickness?
A. B. C. D. Plastic Copper Iron All of the above

Ans. C 3358 Which of the problems listed happen if you attempted to force open a valve frozen in position by using a wrench on the hand-wheel?
A. B. C. D. Bending of the bonnet assembly Bending of the valve stem Damage to the pressure seal Distortion to the valve body

Ans. B 3359 if used for regulating a fluid flow through a piping system , which of the valves listed could be damaged
A. B. C. D. Plug valve Globe valve Gate valve Needle valve

Ans. C 3360 Which of the valves listed below are best suited for throttling service
A. Plug

B. Globe C. Gate D. Butterfly

Ans. B 3361 When pipe is properly screwed into a tap hole, it will give the correct fit when
A. B. C. D. the pipe cannot be turned all the threads are covered half of the threads are covered all but 2 or 3 threads are covered

Ans. D 3362 Piping cross sections over 300 mm in diameter are sized by the
A. B. C. D. inside diameter wall thickness outside diameter threaded diameter

Ans. C 3363 excessive leakage and premature failure of valve packing is a result of _______
A. B. C. D. opening a valve too quickly jamming a valve in the closed position low pressure fluid flow through the pipeline a scored valve stem

Ans. D 3364 Which of the pipe materials listed below has the best resistance to internal and external corrosion?
A. B. C. D. Cast iron pipe Cast steel pipe Spiral welded pipe Centrifugally cast pipe

Ans. A 3365 To connect two legths of pipepreviously set in place, you should use a pipe _____
A. B. C. D. Nipple B. union Coupling Tee

Ans. B 3366 When in completely opened position, which of the listed types of valve will offer the least resistance to flow?
A. B. C. D. Gate valve Globevalve Double-seat poppet valve Reed valve

Ans. A

3367 An arrow stamped on the valve bodyof a water regulating valve indicates the ___________
A. B. C. D. Direction of plunger side Closed position Open position Direction of the flow

Ans. D 3368 Fabric type packing such as flack or hemp is best suited for _________
A. B. C. D. Low temperature use High temperature use Use where allignment is critical Packing valves with badly groomed stems

Ans. A

3369When assembling a run of liquid surface piping, which of the following factors should be considered?
A. B. C. D. How the type of fittings used wil affect the flow What type pf gasket material should be used What radius should be used for each bend in the run All the aabove

Ans. D 3370 Before disconnecting a joint in a pipeline you should ________

A. B. C. D. Determine the size of the gasket Hang a bucjket under the joint Have a first aid kit on hand Be sure no pressue exists in the line

Ans. D 3371 Smaal leaks in gaskets should be stopped immediately after installation because ________
A. B. C. D. The leak will probably worsen in time The gasket mwy not seal itself for several hours The leak will result in severe flange distortion Small leaks cause the pipeline to creek

Ans. A

3372 The seat of a butterfly valve will most likely be constructed of _______
A. B. C. D. Monrl Stellite A resilient material Admirality material

3375. The best gas cut material to use in cargo fuel oil lines is_________ A. sheet asbestos B. Oil-resistant sheet packing C. cork sheet packing D. unvulcanized packing ANS: B 3376. The threaded pipe fitting called street elbows have __________ A. Male threads only B. Female Threads Only C. Male and Female threads D. interpreted threads on eac end ANS: C 3377. Gate valves should not be used for throttling as A. A pressure drop will be excessive B. air bringing will develop C. the installation of an equalizing line will be nessecary D. wire drawing of the disc will result ANS: D 3378. A pipe coupling is a fitting having ______ A. Outside threads on one end and inside threads on one end B. Outside threads on both ends C. A left hand twist D. Inside threads on both sides ANS: D 3379. Which of the fittings listed should be used for the installation of piping to permit removable of the pump for servicing_______ A. coupling

B. Union C. Quick disconnect D. Nipple ANS: B 3380 .which of the gasket materials and/or type listed is used on A. spiral wound composition asbestos B. wire impregnated sheet asbestos C. rubber D. wire impregnated rubber ANS: A

3381. Which of the following statements represent the proper relative direction of flow through a globe valve A. direction of flow of valve is unimportant B. direction of flow of valve depends up on the type of seat design used in the valve C. direction of flow is from below the seat D. Direction of flow is from above the seat 3382. Which of the following statement is correct regarding grades of pipe? A. stainless steel is manufactured in four general grades B. the term extra strong is normally associated with schedule 160 steel pipe C. copper pipe is manufactured in two grades D. brass pipes is manufactured in three grades 3383. One revolution at the hand wheel of reach rod operated valve will cause the valve stern to rotate A. 1/4 of a turn B. 1/2 of a turn C. 3/4 of a turn D. 1turn
th th th

3384. Gate valve should not be for throttling as. A. The pressure drop will be excessive B. Air binding will develop C. The installation of an equalizing line will be necessary D. wire drawing of the disc will result ANS; D 3385.Which of the valves listed below permits flow in only one direction? A. gate value B. globe value C. check value D. plug cock ANS; C 3386.Allowances may be made for the expansion in piping by the use of expansion joints or A. unions B. retractable flanges C. union bulkhead fittings D. bends or loops in the line ANS; D 3387.on tankers will manually operated tank valves, the type of value most commonly used is the A. butterfly valve B. globe valve C. gate valve D. check valve ANS; C 3388.valves used in the machinery space piping system, and constructed with threaded valve stems, must be A. right-hand opening (clockwise)

B. left-hand closing (counterclockwise) C. right-hand closing (clockwise) D. direction of opening and closing is unimportant ANS; C 3389.the movement of steam pipingas as result of changes in temperature,is compensated for by the use of A.expasion joints B.flexitallic gaskets C.rigid brackets D.union rings ANS;A 3390.which of the problemlisted could be happen,if you attemptedto force open a valvefrozenin by posistionby using a wrench on the handwheel A.over compression of the package B.bending of valve stem C.rapid corrosion of the valve disc D.cracking of gaskets upstream of the valve ANS;B 3391. Which of the valves listed should be used either in fully opened or the fully closed position? A. A gate valve B. a globe valve C. any check valve D. any needle valve 3392. Before making up a flanged joint, you should_____ A. Be certain that the flangs line up squarely B. cut grooves in the flange face with a chisel C. heat the pipeline o expand the bolt holes C. Have a second spare gasket on hand

ANS: B 3393. Joints in pipelines must be properly aligned before they are connected because___________ A. excessive strain on the joints will result if they are misaligned B. misalignment permits excessive expansion C. the pipe will be completely blocked by even the slightest amount of misalignment D. condersate accumulates rapidly when flanges are not properly aligned Ans. A 3394. The valve which is most suited for regulating the flow through a pipeline is a_______ A. gate valve B. globe valve C. swing-check valve D. plug-cock valve. Ans. B

A. be completely opened with the hand wheel locked hard at the end of the last opening B. be opened to the end of the last opening turn then rotate the wheel in the closing direction by approximately of a turn C. be opened by of the total number of turns available from full closed to full open D. be opened as much as needed , regardless of how little the gate has been moved from its seat Ans: B STEERING 3413. the action necessary to transfer the steering control from the wheelhouse to iocal control in order to use the steering gear room wheel is to__________

A . align the trick wheel to the rudder angle position B . set the six-way control valve in the wheel position C. open the power transfer switch before engaging the trick wheel D . always place the rudder in the midship position to engage the trick wheel Ans: A 3414 . as the designed rudder angle have been achieved,as a result of the original command input ,the steering gear follow up mechanism is_________ A . in motor , providing a null point B . not in motion ,thus provide a null input C . in motion providing an input to place the main pump on maximum stoke D . in motion providing an input to place the main pump at null stoke Ans: D 3415. if one hydraulic pump of an electro-hydraulic steering unit fails the vessels steering can be initially and best maintained by using ___________ A . trick wheel B . accumulator C . standby pump D . telemotor Ans: C 3416 . when there is no movement of the ram on an electro hydraulic steering gear ,the tilting box of running pump is_______________ A . set of maximum torqe

B . on the purge and vent stoke C . in the neutral position D . rotating backwards Ans: C 3417 . when the helm demands a 20 right rudder movement from an electro hydraulic steering gear , which of the listed action will be the FIRST action to happen when this rudder position is attained? A . the six-way valve opens B . the steering service pump motor is stopped C . the follow-up gear takes the pump off stoke D . the cylinder relief valve bypass oil to the suction side of pump Ans: C 3418 In an electro-hydraulic steering system,rudder movement is maintained in close synchronization with the steering wheel position by means of the_____________ A .trickwheel B .follow-up control C .six-way valve D .Rapson slide Ans: B 3419 Which of these listed , when used onan electro-hydraulic steering gear,keeps the movement of the rudder closely in step with the steering wheel? A .The follow-up gear

B .The rudder angle indicator C .The synchronous electric transmitter D .A rudder angle switch Ans: A 3420 Your vessel is departing at 1800 hours on a voyage of more than 45 hours duration .Regulations require that the steering gear be examined and tested no earlier than____________ A.0600 hours B.0900 hours C.1200 hours D.1500 hours Ans: A 3421 The follow up gear on an electro-hydraulic steering gear_____________ A .relieves excessive fluid pressure B .takes the pump off stroke when the desired rudder angle is obtained C .allows for rudder movement faster than the movement of ships wheel D .returns the rudder to amidships when the wheel is released Ans : B 3422 which of the following statements concerning the operation of a single acting hydrallic ram is correct?
A. Hydrallic force is applied simultaneously in two directions against the ram directional ports. B. The single acting ram is both extened and retracted by means of hydrallic force.

C. The single acting ram is not retracted by means of hydrallic force. D. Hydrallic force applied to a single acting ram results in a pulling motion.

Ans : C 3423 Which of the following types of hydrallic pumps would be used in a steering system?
A. Lobe B. Screw C. Radial piston D. Volute. Ans: C

3424 When air becomes trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system the _______ A. Rudder will respond sluggishly B. Hydraulic rams will overspeed C. Slight glass will show bubbles D. Ram relief valves will lift Ans: A 3425 Air trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system should be indicated by the _______ A. The pump overspeeding B. An improper rudder response C. Bubbles in the side glass D. Ram relief valves lifting

Ans: B

3426 while inspecting the steering system of the sea , you should check for _________ A. Air bubbles in the sight glass B. Any leaks in the system C. Over travel in the rudder angle indicator D. Lost motion in rams Ans:B 3427 when the steering wheel is turned,oil is directed to the steering gear rams to_________ A. Modulating the oil flow with the six way valve B. Moving the automatic pressure differential valve C. Moving the receiving telemotor which regulates the two way valve D. Varying the eccentricity of a floating ring or angle of the tilting box Ans: D

3428 The function of the hydraulic telemotor transistor used in the eletro hydraulic steering system is to___________ A. Transistor the rudder angle to the bridge indicator B. Prevention the control linking from striking the stops when hard over C. Automatically purge all entrained air from the system D. Sent hydraulic signals to the receiving unit

Ans: D 3429 A solenoid , direct acting , three-position , spring centered , directional control valves is used in hydraulic system to control a linear actuator . with the actuator under load there is no movement however , when the load is removed the actuator can be cycle A. One or both of the centering springs has broken and the spools has jammed in the valve body B. One or both the solenoid coils has sustained an open C. The pump coupling is damaged and the pump is un able to attain its rate speed of rotation D. The pump coupling has sheared and the motor is over speeding Ans: C 3430 When the helm angle position is changed the series of corresponding events of the steering gear which include ______ (i) legth of the time steering gear pups remains on the stoke is proportional to the helm angle input (ii) system pressure being higher A. (i) only B. (ii) only C. Both (i) and (ii) D. Neither (i) and (ii) Ans: A 3431 On an electro hydraulic steering gear, which of the listed devices will keep the rudder from over traveling the bridge signal? A. Rudder angle indicator B. Follow-up gear

C. Electric transmitter D. Rudder angle limit switch Ans: B 3432 When the helm is turned on the navigation bridge, which of the listed actions will be the first response in the steering room on a ship equipped with an electro hydraulic steering gear? A. The pump goes off. B. The 6 way valve aligns itself with the running pump C. Both port and starboard cables are energized D. The synchronous receiver turns, duplicating the helm motion Ans: D 3433 Air-trapped in the fluid of a steering system may be indicated by _______ A. The steering pumps overspeeding B. A jammed open relief valve C. A constantly occurring improper rudder response D. Excessive ram pressure Ans: C 3434 Most hydraulic steering gears are fitted with relief valves which ______ A. Function when the rudder is amidships B. Relieve excess whip pressure from the hydraulic oil system C. Protect the pipng assembly from external rudder shock D. Relieve excessive telemotor pressure

Ans: C 3435 In an electro-hydraulic system, rudder shock is limited by A. A differential gear B. Return springs C. A hydraulic accumulator D. Relief valves Ans: D 3436 rudder motion is prevented from exceeding the movement of the steering wheel by the A. Return springs B. Six-way valves C. Follow up gear D. Differential gear Ans: C 3437 When the steering gear is in operation, you should ________ A. Check hydraulic oil levels every hour B. Check the rams for over-heating C. Check for excessive oil leakage rams D. Drain water from telemotor cylinders each watch Ans: C 3438 When the desired rudder angle is attained by a typical double ram electrohydraulic steering gear the _______

A. Ram relief valves bypass oil to stop rudder system B. Six-way valve shifts to the neutral flow position C. Steering pump electric motor is de-energized by the transfer switch D. Follow up gear takes the hydraulic pump off stroke Ans: D 3439 If a severe leak develops in the electro-hydraulic steering gear, which of the listed conditionscould result? A. Loss of vessel steering B. Overheating of the gyro-compass C. Jamming the six-way valve D. Jamming of the follow-up device Ans: A 3440 a power failure in the hydraulic system of a compact type steering gear would cause the rudder to _________ A. Swing 35deg right or left B. Remain locked in its last position C. Move to the middle ship position automatically D. Jam against the rudder emergency stops Ans:B 3441 regulation require that an indicating light ,located at the propulsion control station , beilluminated if there is an overload that would cause overheating of the_________ A. Forced draft bowler motion

B. Fuel pump motion C. Steering gear motion D. Condensate pump motion Ans: C 3442 a vertical shaft having a rudder attached to its lower end and having a yoke quardrant or tiller fitted to its upper portion by which it may be turned is the________ A. Rudder frame B. Rudder post C. Rudder stock D. Stern post Ans: C 3443 dual eletro-hydralic steering units usually operate________ A. With both pumps on the line at the same time B. With one pump on the standby C. With the follow up gear disconnected D. Only when the rudder is moved amidship Ans: B 3444 under normal operating condition the rudder us hydraulically locked unless__________ A. the manual trick wheel is engaged for steering B. the variable stroke pump is off stroke C. the ruder order is given by control system

D. an electric power system failure occurs at the steering gear Ans: C 3445.when the helm angle position is changed,the series of corresponding events of the steering gear will include ________i. rate of steering gear ram movement will be proportional to amount of helm angle input II. Degree of tiliting plate box wi a.I only b.Iionly ANS B 3447. in an emergency ,the electro-hydralic streeling units can be directly controlledby the________ a.trick wheel b.rapson slide ans-a 3448.in an eletro hydrlic streeling system damage due tonrudder shock is prevented by_____________ a.buffer springs b.relif values ans-b 3449.regulation requrierthat pior to deparature on a three day voyage the streeling gear whistile,and communications system between the bridge and engine room must be tested pior to depature no erlier than_________ a.1 hours b.4 hours

c.8 hours d.12 hours ans.d 3450.hydralic pumps most commanly used in steering are of the _________ a.lobe type b.screw type c.axile piston type d.volute type ans.c 3451.the purging of air from an eletro hydralic steering gear unit is necessary when_________ a.the system has been filled with new oil b.the rudder angle indicator does not match the helm position 3452.air trapped in the hydralic fluid of a streeling system would be indicated by___________ a.an improper rudder respons b.hammmering noises in the equipment or transmission c.popping or sputtering noises d.all the above ans.d 3453.regulatin system hydralic strelling gear system to be equipped with a means of steadying the rudder in an emergency ths may be accomplised with___________

a.a sutible arrangement of stop vales in the main piping b.a postive arrangement of block and tackles powered by winches ans.a 3454.according to regulation which of the following state is correct reggarding the steering requrierment for a vessel over 75 meters in length a.hydralic structural rudder stops are mandatory b.on hydralic type steering gears a suitable arrangement of check values c.having two indepdentent pumps and connections d .allow the above ans .d 3455.regulation makes certain requrierments regarding overcurrent protection steering gear feeder circuits____________ a.a circuit breaker with instantaneous trip b.motor running over current pritection ans.a 3456.eletric eletro hydralic streeling gear motars are requried by regulation to be________ a.served by a sinle two conductors cable b.served by two feeder circuits ans.b 3457.of the equipent listed below which is not to tested more than 1__________ a.steering gear b.emergency generator

c.all internal vesselpower control communication and alarms d.all the above ans.a 3459.which of the listed system related to an engineer alarm panel is requried to be indicated by a continously illuminated light while in operation a.dearating tank low level b.port or starboard steering gear motor running 3460.relation of the steering wheel on the bridge intial oil pressure begains applied to the steering gear arms______________ a.moving the automatic differential value b.varying the angle of a tilling box or occentrictly of a floating ring ans.b 3461.an ac synchronous tranismission type remote steeriling control system consists of a _________ a.transister at the streeling slation and a reciver at steering engine b.reversible motor at the steering station geard to the stearing pumps ans.a 3462.the purpose of the six way vale used in an eletro hydralic steering system is to__________ a.redirect hydralic fluid flow when changing over pump b.parallel rudder motion to the steering wheels ans.a

3463.according to regulation a power driven auxiliary streeing gear for a vessel capable of a 12 knots service speed must be able to met the rudder movement ______ a.6 knots b.7 knots ans.b 3464.a power driven auxilary steering gear requried by regulations capable of putting the rudder ovr 15 on one side to 15 the other side with the vessel running ahead_-----------a.7 knots b.10 knots ans.b 3465.regulation requrr that eletric andeletro hydalic streeling gear motors shall be __________ a.served by two eletric power feeder circuits b.served by single two conductor cable ans.a 3456.rudder position is shown on the bridge by the ___________ a.rudder angle indector b.follow up gear

ans.a 3469.in an eletro hydralic streeing gear system when will the variable displacement pump be placed on stroke________

a.when the six way value is opened b.when the rudder ahe position of the whel released ans.a HYDRAULICS AND DECK MACHINERY 3470.in a radial piston pump, reversal and control of fluid flow are accomplished by moving the _____________ a.floating ring b.cylinder body ans.a 3471.the usval number of single acting piston used in a variable strokes axial piston pump is ____________ a.7or9 b.9or11 ans.a 3472.dryseal threads typically used for tubeing to pipe connectors and threaded piping in hydralic system are ___________ a.radial plunger b.floting ring ans.b 3473.the size of flexible hose used in a hydralic system is indicated by _______ a.the inside diameter of the tube b.the numerical designation found on the skin of the hose ans.b

3474.to charge a blader type hydralic accumulator___________ a.remove all hydralic system pressure and bring the pneumatic pressure to the accumulator preloaded pressure b.remove all hydralic system pressure and bring the pneumatic pressure to the system design pressure ans.a 33475.before doing any work on a hydralic system equipped with accumulators you should____________ a.bleed the accumulators and purge with oxygen b.bleed off all stored energy from accumlators

3476. In application, which of the listed sealing devices is most similar to an o-ring? A. V-ring B .Cup seal C. U-RING D. quad ring Ans. D 3477. As a rule of thumb when pressure is applied to hydraulic oil,the oil will A .not be compressed as liquid are not compressible B. reduce in volume by 1% for every 7bar increment C .increase in volume by 1% for every 70bar increment D. reduce in volume by % for every 70bar increment Ans.D 3478.The purpose of an accumulator in a hydraulic system to. A. Collect any dirt in the system B.Collect fulid from any small leak

C.Preheat the fluid during cold weather D.Store potential energy in the form of hydraulic fluid under pressure in the system Ans.D 3479.Obstructed usction passage in the casing or pintle of a radial piston hydraulic pump will cause the. A.pump back pressure to decrease B.pump return and discharge pressures to equalize C.pumped fluid volume to decrease D.pump discharge flow to drop to zero Ans:C 3480.In which of the listed hydraulic system components could an O-ring seal be satisfactory used in providing a seal? A.high pressure pump shaft casing B.low pressure pump shaft casing C.linear actuator without nylon insert D.relief valve spool Ans:D 3481.Before performing any maintenance on a hydraulic system storing energy in an accumulator,you should.. A.pressurize the system to test for leaks B.bleed oil all pressure within the system C.operate the machine unit it reaches normal temperature D.disconnect the pump pressure control switch Ans:B 3482.When installing a hydraulic hose,which of the following precautions should be taken? A.the hose should not be twisted B.the hose should be protected with a sleeve if it is subjected to rubbing C.there should be some slack in the hose D.all of the above

Ans:D 3483.to convert vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor,which of the following would have to be done? A.double the casing the thickness B.install an enlarged control ring around the rotor C.provide small springs between the vanes and the base of the vane slots D.provide one additional slot and vane Ans:C 3484.A reservoir,as used in hydraulic systems aboard ship,is used to store hydraulic oil. Another function is to.. A.act as a shock absorber B.maintain the stored oil under pressure C.act as a base or foundation for the powerunit D.eliminate pressure serges in the system Ans:C 3485.The amount of the cushioning effect developed within a hydraulic cylinder is determined by the. A.position of the directional port in the cushion cavity B.adjustment of the cushion cavity check valve C.design shape of the cylinder ends D.settind of the cushioning adjustment needle valve Ans:B 3486.Strainers are commonly used in hydraulic systems to A.protect the pump from fine soluble contaminants B.prevent solid particles from entering the pump C.prevent solid particles from entering the filter D.protect the directional control valves Ans:B 3487.A hydraulic system directional control valve fitted with detent will

A.have a infinite number of valve positionsn B.usually be shifted into three specific positions C.be able to be varied through out the travel of the valve spool D.have an offset,directional control only Ans:B 3488.aAn O-ring seal in a hydraulic system will begin to leak when it has lost its interference fit due to. A.compression set or wear B.low fluid pressure C.high fluid low D.low fluid temperature Ans:A 3489.Purging air from a hydraulic system is necessary when. A.adding small amounts of oil to the system B.the system has been overheated C.the system has been drained and then filled with new oil D.the system has been idle for along period of time Ans:C 3490.One function provided by a hydraulic accumulator is to. A.provide an area wher air can separate from the oil B.provide an area to separate solid contaminants from the oil C.acts as an oil and oil water separator D.absorb shocks occurring in the system Ans:D 3491.Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the A.reservoir expansion chamber B.hydraulic pumping flexibility C.atmosphere as heat

D.fluid as an friction Ans:C 3492.The movement of heat within a fluid ,caused by the application of thermal energy,is called.. A.radiation B.conduction C.convection D.condo-radiation varying the position Ans:C 3493.How can the change of contaminating hydraulic fluid be decreased when working oil hydraulic systems? A.clean the fittings before they are disconnected B.place drip pans under leaky filtings C.seal any cracks in lines with permatex D.coat all threads with graphite oil Ans:A 3494.The delivery rate of an axial piston hydraulic pump is controlled by varying the position of the A.sliding block B.pintle C.reaction ring D.tilting box or swash plate Ans:D 3495.If a hydraulic pump is producing a noisy whine when in operation,the cause may be. A.an air leak in the pump suction line above the oil level in the reservoir B.low viscosity in the hydraulic fluid C.an oil laek across the pump shaft packing D.due to the wrong direction of rotation of the hydraulic motor Ans:A

3496.if the pump in a hydraulic system produces a low rumbling noise while in operation,this is a probable indication of. A.internal system fluid leakage B.air passing through the pump C.strained hydraulic fluid D.excess internal slippage Ans:B 3497.which of the listed conditions will occur if the discharge pressure of a rotary pump is increased from the designed 3.50kg/cm2,while maintaining the same RPM? A.the pump capacity will be decreased B.the pump capacity will be increased C.pump efficiency will be increased D.internal liquid slippage will be reduced Ans:A 3498.If the relief valve on the discharge side of a hydraulic pump lifts, the caused could be A.a low load on the unit B.a clogged pump suction strainer

C.a blockage in the line between the pump and hydraulic motor D.the hydraulic motor turning too fast Ans:C 3499.cavitation in a hydraulic pump is indicated by noisy pump operation and can be caused by a/an. A.high fluid level in the reservoir b.hydralic fluid low floc point c.excessive discharge pressure from the pump d.clogged suction strainer in the reservoir 3500.return lines in a non-pressured hydraulic system reservoir should enter the tank well below the fluid surface level to.. a.prevent foaming

b.prevent moisture accumulation c.prevent vacuum formation d.accommodate thermal expansion ans.a 3501.an internal bypass is provided on somehydraulic system suction strainers to help reduce the possibility of.. a.aeration of the oil b.contamination of the oil c.pump cavitation d.spongy actuator movements ans:c 3502:overheading of a hydraulic system may be a result of. a.changing pump oischarge pressure in response to normal load variations b.a high oil level c.incorrect fluid viscosity d.continued slow recirulation of the oil ans:c 3503.a reservoir is used in a hydraulic system to.. a.store fluid until required by the system b.provide a place for air to separate out of the fluid c.provide a place for contaminants to settle out d.all of the above ans:d 3504.an orifice-check valve placed in a hydraulic system is used to. a.regulate the fluid flow in either direction b.restrict movement of hydraulic fluid in one direction,but allow free movement in other direction c.allow free movement of hydraulic fluid in both directions

d.allow a restricted fluid flow in one direction only a.condensation on inside walls b.heat retention of working fluid c.frequency of working fluid d.all of the above ans:d 3506.in a typical hydraulic system a baffle is installed in thereservoir to .I ensure proper lubrication of the hydraulic pump II.assit in the removal of solid contaminants entrained in the returning oil a.I only b.II only c.both I and II d.niether I and II ans: c 3507. in a typical hydraulic system a baffle is installed in thereservoir to . I. provide a critical reduction in free surface effect hydraulic pump II. Assit in retaining the hydraulic oil to provide heat removal a. I only b. II only c.both I and II d.neither I and II ans: b 3508. as a general rule of thumb the reservoir used in a hydraulic system should have a capacity , when at normal level, approximately equal to A. two to three times the normal flow rate through the system b.the flow rate through the system c. ten times the flow rate through the system d.the pump gym ans: A 3509. which of the following problems occurring in a hydraulic system can be caused by the use of an oil having a viscosity lower than specified ?

A.seal deterioration b.fast response and hunting c.increased power consumption d.oil film breakdown ans:c 3510. which of the devices listed would be considered a hydraulic system directional control valve? A.counterbalance valve B.offset two position valve C.sequenceing valve D. unloading valve Ans.B

3511. Why a hydraulic linear actuator fitted with a cushioning device? a.to regulate actuator speed through the entire stroke length. b.to sloe the action of the piston preventing shock and damage due to hammering effects c. to allow the pump to temporarily operate at a pressure 10% above the relief valve setting without lifting the relief valve d.all of the above ans:b 3512.a hydraulic fluid flow circuit controlling linear actuator speed with the pump operating below maximum operating pressure is known as the a.metered-in circuit b.metered-out circuit c.bleed -in circuit d.bleed -off circuit ans:d 3513.a hydraulic fluid flow control circuit controlling linear actuator speed during extension, with the pump operating at system pressure, is known as a .

a.metered-in circuit b.metered-out circuit c.bleed-off circuit d. bleed-in circuit ans: a 3514. the determining factor for the strength of a flexible rubber hydraulic hose is the a.external cover b. synthetic rubber inner tube 3515.the by-products of oxidation ,as a result of water contamination of hydraulic oil,are generally.. a. removed by cellulose type filters b.gums,varnishes,and acids

C. braided layer D. teflon sleeve Ans : C 3516. When normal operating pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil in a highpressure system, the oil ___________ A. viscosity will increase B. viscosity will decrease C. volume will increase D. floc point will increase Ans: A 3517. If a radial piston hydrolic pump fails to deliver rated fluid volume, the cause can be_______ A. contaminated fluid B.pitted thrust ring

C. worn pintle bearing D. odstruted suction passage Ans: D 3518. Which of the listed pressure-control valves would be used in a hydraulic system system to temporarily divert some, or all of the pump discharge until the flow was required? A. counterbalance valve B. unloading valve C. compound, pressure-relief valve D. sequence valve Ans:B 3519. An axial position pump differs from a radial piston pump as the pistons are positioned__________ A.radailly from the shaft B. parallel to each other and to the shaft C. parallel to each other but at a right angle to the shaft D. at an angle other and to the shaft Ans: B 3520. Which of the divices listed would be considered a hydraulic system directional control valve? A. three-position valve B. sequence valve C. unloading valve

D. counterbalance valve Ans: A 3521. The speed of a radial piston hydraulic MOTOR is controlled by varying the ________ A. amount of cylinder block offset with respect to the rotor B. fluid flow rate discharge to the motor C. length of the motor piston stroke on the power cycle D. pintle discharge rate to the suction side of the pump Ans: B 3522. Which gears must be maintained in proper alignment to prevent____________ A. overhead of the lube oil B. over speeding of the motor\ C. wear on the breaking system D. damage to the teeth Ans: D 3523. A check run on a hydraulic anchor windlass during long periods of inactivity should be carried out to___________ A. prevent chemical breakdown of hydraulic fluid B. remove condensation from the fluid reservoir C. pprevent the anchor from seizing the hawspipe D. renew the internal coating of lubrication Ans: D

3524. a mooring winch should be equipped with mechanical brakes capable of holding___________ A. haif the breaking strength of the mooring line B. the full breaking strength of the mooring line C. the maximum expected tention of the mooring line D. 50% over the working tension of the mooring line Ans: B 3525. The torque rating of fluid poer motor is expressed in___________ A. RPMs under a given load condition B. Newtons-metre at a given pressure C. Newton-metre per piston stroke D. Newton-metre per rate of input flow Ans:B 3526. The delivery rate of a variable stroke axial piston hydraulic pump is controlled by varying position of the ___________ A. slide block B. tilting box C. pintle D. reation ring Ans:B 3527. When changing to afire resistant hydraulic fluid in a system, it is important to check the compatibility of the new fluid with the systems ________________ A. seals

B. metals and plating C. Paint D. all the above Ans:D 3528. Directinal control valve used in hydraulic pump is cotolled by varying the position of the ___________ A. manually B. mechanically C. electrically D. all d above 3529. The baffle plate used in the reservoir of a hydraulic system serves to _________ A. reduce fluid turbulence at the pump suction B. minimize the amount of contaminated deposited from retrun line entering the system C. minimize the entrance air through the pump inlet line D. all the above Ans: D 3530. Which of the valves listed is not considered to be a hydraulic system directional contor valve? A. Two-position valve B. Three-position valve C. Detented-position valve

D. Counterbalance valve Ans:D 3531. Energy imparted to the hydraulic fluid in an operating hydraulic system is stored in the_________ A. accumulator B. actuator C. ram D. reservoir Ans:A 3532. in a typical hydrau/lic system, return lines to the reservoir are _______. I. terminated at or just above the normal level II. Placed as far from the pump suction as possible A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I and II Ans:B 3533. Proper interal lubrication of a hydraulic anchor windlass left idle for extended periods can be accomplished by______ A. performing a check run on the unit at regular intervals B. testing the hydraulic fluid for proper pH C. checking the reservoir for proper level D. cleaning strainers at regular intervals

Ans: A 3534. Which of the following devices is not considered to be a pressure vessel? A. Low pressure evaporator B. Deaerting feed heater C. Hydraulic fluid power cylinder D. Fuel oil heater Ans: C 3535. Which of the devices listed is considered to be a hydraulic system directional control valve? A. Unloading valve B. Counterbalance valve C. Detented position valve D. Sequencing valve Ans:C 3536. If an anchor has been idle for some time , you should________ A. repack all valve stems B. lubricate it prior to uuse C. replace the foundation bolts D. balance the warping heads Ans:B 3537. Which of the following is the most common type of valving element used in hydraulic system directional control valves?

A. Nutating disk B. Sliding spool C. Elongation ball or cone D. Restricted orifice poppet Ans: A 3538. A device incorating a variable avariable orifice placed in series with a check valve in ahydraulic system, is used to__________ A. allow free movement of hydraulic fluid in both directions B. allow fluid flow in one direction only C. allow throttled fluid flow in one direction only D. restrict hydraulic fluid flow in both direction Ans:A 3539. Water allowed to accumulate in the hydraulic system oil will cause an oxidation process producing by products which are normally__________ A. gums, acids, and varnishes B. removed by cellulose type filters C. neutralized by oil additives D. not removed by absorbent filters Ans: A 3540. Hydralic machinery failures are commonly caused by contamination of the hydraulic fluid and ___________ A. fluid friction B. fluid turbulence

C. component misalignment D. pressure surges Ans:C 3541. The purpose of a resistor valve, as it is used in a hydraulic hatch cover system is to _______ A. prevent oil backflow to the actuators B. prevent the hydraulic pump from overheating C. control the speed of the hatch cover movement while closing D. resist the oil supply to the hatch cover not in use Ans: C 3541. The purpose of a restrictor valve, as it is used in a hydraulic hatch cover system, is to_________. A. prevent oil back flow to the acutators B. prevent the hydraulic pump from over heating C. control the speed of the hatch cover movement while closing D. restrict the oil supply to the hatch covers not in use Ans: C 3542. prolonged operation of a hydraulic pump in a cavitating condition can cause _________. A. The hydraulic fluid to become over heated B. The fluid motor to become over loaded C. The relief valve to hum D. A wide variation in fluid pressure surges

Ans: A 3543. The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump can be changed only by___________. A. changing the angle of the tilting plate B. changing the speed of the pump C. moving the slide block and rotor D. moving the shaft trunnion block Ans: B 3544. When renewing sections of pipe in a hydraulic system, the normal pipe size of the piping always indicates the _________. A. actual inside diameter B. actual outside diameter C. wall thickness D. size for threaded connections Ans: D 3545. Which of the following problems will occur if the internal drain at either end of a hydraulic , two-way, speed-type directional control valve cylinder were to become plugged? A. The reservoir would become vapor bound B. The valve would be placed in hydraulic lock C. The spring loaded relief ports would open D. The buffering chambers would be unable to function Ans: B

3546. return lines to hydraulic system reservoirs should__________. A. end the return line as far as practicable from the pump suction B. end the return line as close to the pump suction as possible C. provide a P or S trap in the return line as close to the reservoir as possible to trap sediment from entering the tank D. connect the return lines directly to the cleanout and inspection plates to limit the number of openings on the reservoir Ans: A 3547. If dirt is allowed to contaminate the sump of a hydraulic deck crane, which of the following problems will occur? A. All the seals in the hydraulic lines will immediately blow out B. The sheating on the hydraulic lines will fracture C. cold hydraulic fluid D. a clogged air vent filter on the oil reservoir Ans: D 3548. The delivery rate of an axial piston hydraulic pump is controlled by varying the position of the ________ A. tilting box B. slide box C. pintle D. reaction ring Ans:A

3549. A gradution decrease in the discharge pressure of an operation hydraulic pump can be caused by ____________ A. the four-way control valve failing to shaft B. the bleeder valve sticking in the open position C. cold hydraulic fluid D. a clogged air vent on the reservoir Ans:D 3550. If you are given the lob of adding hydraulic fluid to a mooring which and are not certain us to the type of fluid to use, you should _________ A. add fluid that is the same color as the fluid in the reservoir B. add turbine oil because it is always a good substitute C. add any oil that has the same viscosity as the hydraulic fliud D. check the which manufacturers instruction book Ans: D 3551.Hydraulic system reservoirs are often fitted with a combined filler/breather cap. If the breathe elements becomes fouled, the _________. A. reservoirs will becomes pressurized B. reservoirs will be subjected to a partial vacuum C. flow through the return lines will be stopped D. actuator response time will be halved Ans: B 3552. The oil in a cargo which gear box should be sampled periodically to_________.

A. prevent the gear box from leaking B. prevent the oil from becoming inflammable C. make sure it has not become contamined D. make sure the motor bearings are lubricated Ans: C 3553. A filter used in a multi-operation hydraulic system would most likely be located ____________. A. at the pump suction B. between the pump and the directional control valves C. between the control valves and the actuators D. in the actuator returnlines Ans: B 3554. Which of the valves listed is not considered to be a hydraulic system directional control valve? A. sequencing valve B. two-position valve C. Three position valve D. spring-centered valve 3555. Flexible host under pressure in a hydraulic system will_________. A. tend to twist about its long axis B. Expand in length and in diameter C. contract to length and expand in diameter

D. flex at right angles to the applied pressure

3556.The pressure of an operating hydraulic system,as indicated by a pressure gauge,is a result of the fluid flow overcoming A.internal resistance to flow B.resistance of the internal components C.the load applied to the system D.all of the above Ans:D 3357.Which of the listed pressure control valves would be used to establish the maximum operating pressure of a hydraulic system A.pressure reducing valve B.unloading valve C.Counterbalance valve Ans:D 3358.Which of the listed pressure control valves would be used to permit the completion of one action of a hydraulic system before a second would be permitted A.counterbalance valve B.Unloading valve C.sequence valve D.pressure-reducing valve

Ans:C 3559.Which of the listed pressure control valves is used in a hydraulic system to prevent the stray movements of a vertical load unit required A.Pressure reducing valve B.counterbalance valve C.Unloading valve D.sequence valve Ans:B 3560.Which of the following statements describes the function of a reservoir used in a hydraulic system A.Dissipate heat B.Trap foreign matter C.Seperate air from the oil D.All of the above Ans:D 3561.Hydraulic system tubing should be anchored every three or four feet to prevent A.excessive pump cavitation B.expansion and contraction of the tubing C.tube fitting leaks from vibration and pressure surges D.tube flexing at right angles to the applied fluid pressure Ans:C

3562.When a linear actuator(cylinder) is being retracted without an applied load,the pressure on the oil leaving the cap end will be

A.zero B.inversely proportional to the speed of retraction C.inversely proportional to the flow rate at the rod end D.increased as the speed of retraction increases Ans:D 3563.If you install a new hydraulic hose in a hydraulic system, the hose must be long enough to allow for contraction to prevent A.failure of the hydraulic hose B.excessive flow through the line C.friction in other areas of the hydraulic system D.overheating of the hydraulic fluid Ans:A 3564.Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing a hydraulic oils viscosity A.pour point B.cloud point C.vaccum D.pressue Ans:D

3565.sluggish response or action of the hydraulic actuators may be a result of A.insufficient load B.excessively high oil viscosity C.relief-valve pressure setting too high D.reservoir level being maintained two inches above normal Ans:B 3566.The rubber bladder or separator bag installed in a hydraulic accumulator should only be filled with A .pure water B.pure oxygen C.dry nitrogen D.dry hydrogen Ans:C 3567.Flanged joints in hydraulic system piping are commonly made leak proof by A.seal welding the matting flange surfaces B.installing suitable gaskets or O-rings C.leather wipers installed with the flange seals D.enclosing the flanged connection in a container Ans:B 3568.The component which is used to thoroughly separate small,fine,dust like particulate contamination from hydraulic fluid is an A.accumulator B.filter

C.seperator D.strainer Ans:b 3569.The clutch band of a constant tensioning mooring which must be set up light enough to drive the winch drum and should slip only when A.excessive loads are placed on the winch B.minimum pull is being exerted by the winch C.automatic operation of the winch is desired D.wire is retrieved at the maximum rate Ans:A 3570.New piping and tubing to be installed in a hydraulic system can be safely decreased by using A.alcohol B.a water based detergent C.carbon tetrachloride D.a special petroleum solvent Ans:D 3571. The portion of a hydraulic hose that determines its overall strength is the A. inner tube B. braided inner layer(s) C. outer cover D. outer armor

Ans:B

3572.For the various sizes of tubing and wall thickness used in a hydraulic system,the inside diameter can be determined if it is remembered that the inside diameter equals the outside diameter less A. the wall thickness B.1.5 times the wall thickness C. 2 times the wall thickness D. 2.5 times the wall thickness Ans:C 3573.An axial piston,variable stroke pump is used in a vessels hydraulic steering gear.under pressure oil continually outs from between the valve plate/cylinder barrel and will A. cause loss of hydraulic oil from the system B.result in extreme damage to the pump C.cause damage to the pump if not continually drained from the pump casing D. result in the system high side pressure to substantially drop off Ans:C 3574.When the tilting box of a variable stroke axial-piston pump is perpendicular to the pump shaft which of the following conditions will exist A. the pistons reciprocate B. the B end cylinder barrel rotates C. there is no fluid flow

D. power is transmitted hydraulically Ans:C 3575. Which of the following problems may be encountered by using an oil having a viscosity higher than that specified for an oil heating hydraulic system A. external seal leakage B. hunting due to fast response C. hydraulic oil film breakdown D. increased power consumption Ans:D 3576. The component used in a hydraulic system to store potential energy in the form of hydraulic fluid under pressure is the A. ram B. accumulator C. piping D. pump Ans:B 3577. The hydraulic oil most likely to thin out when hot and thick when cool Would have a viscosity index of A.20 B. 40 C. 60 D. 80

Ans:A 3578. A bent axis , variable stroke, axial piston pump produces a greater capacity than a comparable tilting box type axial piston pump,because the A. piston diameters are smaller B. length of stroke is greater C. RPM is doubled D. discharge/return line diameter are arranged differently Ans:B 3579. Both the direction of flow and fluid flow rate of a variable displacement radial piston pump are determined by the relative pistons of the A. pump shaft and central valve B. pump shaft and horizontal ports C. floating ring and pump shaft D. floating ring and cylinder body Ans:D 3580.A hydraulic accumulator,used in a hydraulic system is designed to A. stroke fluid under pressure B. act as the main fluid reservoir C. provide the only means of overpressure relief D. act as the singular source of fluid replenishment to a system Ans:A 3581. what is the minimum permissible flashpoint of hydraulic fluid used a system which operates at 17.6kg/cm2(250psl)

A. 93oC B. 102oC C. 149oC D. 157oC Ans:D 3582. A valve installed in a hydraulic system to manipulate the reversal of fluid flow,is called a A. relief valve B. reservoir valve C. directional control valve D. regenative valve Ans:C 3583. A valve installed in a hydraulic system to control the reversal of fluid flow is called a A. relief valve B. . reservoir valve C. directional control valve D. power valve 3584. Compensated flow control,or constant flow valves are used in hydraulic systems to A. compensate for major leaks in the system B. maintain the original fluid viscosity C. allow for changes in pressure and temperature within the system

D.assure constant fluid temperature 3585. Plug valves installed in hydraulic system are most suitable for use as A. main supply line throttle valves B. variable flow control valves C. two position flow control valves D. check and choke valves Ans:C 3586. Hydraulic machinery failures are commonly caused by misalignment Of the system components and by A.Hydraulic fluid contamination B. excessive fluid friction C. turbulent fluid flow D. fluid pressure surges Ans:A 3587. In the design of hydraulic piping equipment,consideration is given to minimize turbulence in the hydraulic fluid,as this will cause A. molecular fluid vibration B. energy losses C. wide pressure variations D. mechanical damage to control valves Ans:B

3588.One function of a replenishing pump installed in many pressure closed hydraulic systems, is to supply fluid flow to A. the reservoir B. a servo control circuit C. position a manually controlled valve D. the main system accumulators under all operating conditions Ans:B 3589. Setting the relief valve opening pressure in a hydraulic system lower than the required operating pressure will result in A. accelerated action of the system components B. over heating of the system C. overspending of the hydraulic pump D. extended system life Ans:B 3590. Leakage of hydraulic fluid from around the shaft of a hydraulic motor may be caused by A. permanent loss of pump suction B. worn shaft seals C. high level in the oil pump D. low motor RPM Ans:B 3591. Which problems can offer if the break band lining of a wildcat brake becomes excessively worn

A. the driving engine will overspeed B. the anchor will immediately drop C. the clutch will over heat D. the brakes effectiveness will be reduced Ans:D 3592. If the pump for a hydraulic anchor windlass is overheating the cause may be A. excessive drive motor speed B. excessive pump discharge pressure C. too low of a tilting box angle D. in sufficient drive motor speed Ans:B 3593.An improperly maintained filter used in a hydraulic system can A. reduce or stop the output action of the actuator B. allow all metal particles to enter the power unit C. rupture the pump discharge piping D. all of the above 3594. Which of the valves listed is NOT considered to be a hydraulic system directional control valve A. spring centered valve C. unloading valve C. three position valve 3595. Over heating of a hydraulic fluid in an electro-hydraulic anchor

Windlass can result from a/an

A. Overload on the pump motor B. Low fluid level in the reservoir C. Low fluid viscosity around the shaft seal

C. assists the complete removal of hydraulic oil from the system prior to opening for major or minor repairs D. prevent damage due to agitation and overheating of oil accumulated in the casing as a result of minor internal leakage Ans: D
d. two-position valve ans. B 3696. As the general rule of thumb,the reservoir used in a hydraulic system should have a capacity ,when at the normal level, approximately equal to Two to three times the normal flow rate through the system. The flow rate through the system. Ten times the flow rate through the system. The number of gallons a pump can circulate in one minute. Ans. A

A. B. C. D.

3697.Hydraaulic systems typically operated for intermittent service donot require the use of oil coolers and would include all of the following exept.
Constant tension mooning which system . Hatch cover system Water tight door system. Internal combustion engine hydraulic starter system. Ans.A 3598.Pressure in an operating hydraulic system is developed. A. Only by the pump as its primary function. B. By resistance to the fluid flow through the system. A. B. C. D.

C. By the thermal input to the systems fluid. D. Solely by the charge applied by the accumulators. Ans.B

3599.In which of the listed hydraulic systems will the installation of an oil cooler be necessary?
A. B. C. D. Constant tension mooring winch system. Hatch cover system. Water tight door system. Internal combustion engine hydraulic starter system. Ans.A

3600.If you install a hydraulic hose on a unit and fail to leave sufficient room for expansion , which of the following problems will develop?
A. B. C. D. The hose may pull loose from its fitting . The components connected to the hose will be damaged. The hydraulic unit will fail to acquire any power. The hydraulic fluid will overheat and breakdown. Ans.A 3601.When new piping section have been fabricated for installation in a hydraulic system,prior to installation the piping should be? A. Cleaned using a water based detergent. B. Descaled by using a pickling solution. C. Hydrostaically tested to 100% of maximum working pressure. D. All the above. Ans.

3602.While at anchor, the anchor chain should be secured by the?

A. B. C. D. Wind lass break only. Chain stopper or riding pawl. Riding spindle. Anchor shackle. Ans.B

3603.If the pump for a hydraulic anchor windlass Is over heating , the cause may be?
A. Increased pump speed.

B. Excessive pump discharge pressure. C. Too low of a tilting box angle. D. Low pump speed. Ans .B

3604.If a hydraulic pump is over heated, the cause may be ?

A. B. C. D. Excessive internal slip page in the pump. Low discharge pressure and fluid flow. Excessive fluid level in the hydraulic reservoir. Operation of the pump at 100% efficiency. Ans.A

3605.When normal operatin pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil usedin a high pressure system, the oil?
A. B. C. D. Viscosity will decrease. Volume will increase. Volume will decrease. Pour point will be redused. Ans.C

3606.Increased internal leakage in addition to poor hydraulic system response,and inadequate lubrication, is the result of?
A. B. C. D. Pump bearing in poor conditon . Excessively worn actuator-piston packing. Broken directional control valve centering springs. Low hydraulic oil viscosity. Ans.D

3607.In high pressures, an O-ring has a tendancy to extrude into the clearance space between the mating parts of a hydraulic actuator.Which of the listed components is used to prevent extrusion?
A. B. C. D. Doube seal ring. Lathe cut ring. Backup ring Static washer.

Ans .C

3608.A solinoid direct acting three position spring centred directional control valve is used in a hydraulic system to control a linear actuator. When the remote push button depressed to extent the actuator it fails to move even though the pump is in op?
A. B. C. D. A spring at one spool end has broken and jammed preventing the spool from shifting. The extend solinoid coil has developed an open. The pump coupling is damaged and pump is unable to turn at its required speed. Any one of the above will cause the actuator to not move. Ans.D

3609.A solinoid direct acting , three position , spring centered ,directional control valve is used in hydraulic system to control a linear actuator. Midway through extension, the push button is relaesed ,but the actuator continues to extend slowly,which of?
A. A centering spring has broken and jammed the spool movement preventing the spool from recentering. B. One of the two solinoids has sustained an open in its respective coil. C. The pump coupling has been damaged preventing the pump from developing its required operating speed. D. The detect mechanism has failed ,preventing the valve from operating . Ans .A

3610.Air entrained in the hydraulic fluid, or trapped in an actuator will cause the actuators to move with a jerky motion, This action is a result of?
A. The trapped air being compressed to a pressure above the maximum pump discharge pressure , then re-expanding and lowering in pressure after the actuator moves. B. The cyclic expansion and contraction of air due to the motion of the actuator. C. Air being capable of moving loads more effectively than a liquid.

D. Air providing better lubrication of internal components ,found in hydraulic systems,than hydraulic fluids. Ans.B

3611.In order for the hydraulic pump installed in a constant flow system to maintain adequate flow , the pump suction should?
A. Be provided with three to five inch in the vertical suction line to prevent pump starvation should the stainer become fouled. B. Be arranged to develop a maximum vaccum of approximately 10^n of mercury . C. Be arranged to develop the theoretically maximum attainable vaccum. D. Be take directly off the reservoir bottom without regard to filters or strainers. Ans.B

PAGE-194 3612.Which of the following precautions should be observed concerning the introduction of a fire resistant fluid into the hydraulic sysems ?
A. B. C. D. Deterioration of paints ,seals, metals and electrical insulation may occur. Fluid viscosity always increases as a normal result of its use . Decreased wear rates of components is an advantage of its use. Only chemically active filters may be used, Ans.A

3613.Which of the following statements is/are true regarding hydraulic pumps in general?
A. Variable volumes can be obtained with gear pumps only by variable of the pump drive speed. B. A radial piston pump houses sliding pistons in a stationary cylinder block through which passes a rotating pintle or ported shaft. C. The amount of fluid displased per revolution of an axial piston rotatory pump is dependent on the angle formed between the cylinder block and the valve plate. D. All the above. Ans.A

3614.Which of the listed components of a hydraulic systems would enable the pump to be temporarily shut down,and yet still provide an instantaneous sourse of hydraulic force?
A. B. C. D. Modulator. Pressure compen sator valve . Accumulator . Sump Actuator. Ans.C

3615.Overheating of the hydraulic fluid in an electro hyraulic anchor windlass may indicate pump cavitation caused by?
A. B. C. D. Overload of the pump motor. Low oi level in the reservoir. Low fluiod viscosity existing only around the shaft seal. High oil level in the pump. Ans.B

3616.When the hydraulic control lever for a deck winch is placed in the neutral or off position ,the spring set break on the fluid motor drive shaft is ?
A. Engaged by spring action and only released by hydraulic pressure. B. Released by spring action and hyraulically locks the winch when the drum ceases rotating . C. Engaged by spring action and is insured to be locked in place by hydraulic pressure. D. Opened hydraulically and held open by spring action when ever the electrical supply is secured. Ans.A

3617.Hydraulic hose assemblies are permitted by regulation to be installed between two points of relative motion?
A. Provided proper releasing mechanisms are availableto enable quick disconnect capabilities. B. But shall not be subjected to torsional deflection under any conditions of operations. C. Provided the entire length of the device is visible to the operator at a times.

D. To prevent the formation of loading stresses. Ans.B

3618.Some fluid filters used in hydraulic systems are designed to cope with increasing pressure differentials by?
A. B. C. D. Diverting the flow automatically to the standby filter of the duplex unit. Automatically bypassing the the fluid via an internal valve arrangement. Automatically securing the system . Diverting the pump discharge directly back to the suction. Ans.B

3619.Hydraulic cranes must be properly warmed up before being operated because?

A. B. C. D. Warm-up allows the hydraulic system to become charged with oil. Warm-up allows the relief valves to be properly tested. Hydraulic trainers opeate only during the warm-up period. Hydraulic fluid must be at the proper viscosity. Ans.D

3620.Lint from cleaning rags can be harmful to hydraulic systems because the lint?
A. B. C. D. Can cause rusting of internal parts. Breaks down hydraulic fluid. Can clog filters and promote component leakage. Solidifies and causes cracked lines. Ans.C

3621.With an increase in temperature , the volume hydraulic fluid ?

A. Contracts.

B. Remains the same. C. Remains constant if pressure decreases. D. Increases. Ans.D

3622.If you attempt to tighten a leaking hyraulic fitting with pressure on the system you will ?
A. B. C. D. Be successful every time. Find that the pressure will prevent the components from from being tightened. Cause the system to vibrate. Dislodge any scale in the tubing and it will damaga the system. Ans.B

3623.A fluid power system is considered to be fail safe if a component failure will result in ?
A. B. C. D. Continues operation of the system. A safety interlock produsing a regulated shut down of the system. The guaranteed and efficient operation of the system at all times. A slow and controlled release of the loading so as not to endanger personnel.

Ans.D

3624.A hydraulic cylinder is fitted with a cushioning device. The piston abrubtly slows towards the end of the stroke ,then continues to creep to the completion of its stoke.which of the following represents the probable cause?
A. B. C. D. The cusion adjustment needle valve is open too far. The cusion adjustment needle valve is not open sufficiently. The exhaust oil is flowing freely through the cushion nose. The rod wiper is jammed in the cusion spear. Ans.B

3625.When it is necessary to start an axial piston hydraulic motor under conditions where the hydraulic fluid is colder than the lowest temperature recommended for proper operaton , you should operate the system at ?
A. B. C. D. Minimum speed until the normal operating pressure is reached. Neutral stroke until all of the air has been vanted. No load until the normal operating temperature is reached . Maximum torque to attain rapid warm-up. Ans.C

3626.A casing drain is provided for axial piston and bent axis variable stoke pumps to?
A. Vent off any accumulated air from the system. B. Drain off any accumulated water from the pump casing prior to its being started. C. Assist the complete removal of hydraulic oil from the system prior to operating for major or minor repairs D. Prevent damage due to agitation and overheating of oil accumulated in the casing as a result of minor internal leakage

Ans:D

3627.A fluid power system shall be so designed ?

A. That power functioning of any unit shall not be affected by the back pressure in the system. B. To maintain a back pressure throughout the power cylinders operating range. C. Such that the operation of any unit in the system will provide for sufficient back pressure D. None of the above

Ans:A

3628. During the repair and overhaul of the pump relief valve ,used in a hydraulic system ,the set point was reduced by 7bar . Which of the following statements

describes the result of the following statements describes the result of the set point being lowered? A. The pump discharge pressure will remain at the same pressure prior to the relief valve being repaired B. the solenoid controlled, three position , spring centered control valve response will be quicker C. the fluid viscosity will increase during operation D. the movement of any system actuator will now be slower Ans: D 3629. Which of the following statements represents a disadvantage associated with a spool-type , the solenoid direct operating directional control valves ? A. back pressure on the outlet line must be steady to drain the lower spool chamber B. the valve sealing surface is often damaged through excessive throttling action C. the spool does not have hydro cushion capabilities to handle shock. D. Close fitting spools occasionally stick due to the accumulation of hydraulic oil residues Ans.D 3630. Which of the following statements describes the actions of an axial piston motor with a full deflection variable position tilting box? A. control over speed, direction and stopping would be better than having the pump equipped with the tilting box B. maximum speed when rotated in the hauling in direction would be obtained with the tilting box just prior to neutral stroke , while pay out would be the opposite

C. maximum torque ,when rotated in the pay out direction would be obtained with the tilting box just prior to the neutral stroke , while hauling in would be the opposite D. maximum speed in either direction of rotation would be achieved just beyond of neutral stroke , making reversal of direction difficult Ans.D 3631. Air entrained in the hydraulic fluid , or trapped in an actuators will cause the actuators to move with a jerky motion. This action is a result of. A. the trapped air being compressed to9 a pressure above maximum pump discharge pressure then re-expanding and lowering in pressure after the actuator moves B. the trapped air being compressed to operating system pressure as the actuator moves allowing the air to re-expand , then repeating the process C. air being capable of moving loads more effectively than a liquid D. air providing better lubrication of internal components , found in Hydraulic Systems , than hydraulic fluids Ans . B 3632. a flare-type tubing connector is used in the hydraulic hatch-cover system and has developed a slight leak . To stop the leak you should . A. keep the system in operation and tighten the flare nut B. replace both the tubing sections and the fitting C. stop the system and use only one wrench to tighten the flare nut D.shut down the power unit and use two wrenches to avoid damaging the tubing when tightening

3633. If a hydraulic system is in continuous operation , and is equipped with an air cooled heat exchanger , the fan should .. A. be in continuous operation as long as the main pump prime mover is in operation B. come on only after the main pump prime mover is secured C. be controlled by a thermostat to maintain the oil temperature at loss than 87.8 degree celcius(190F) D.never be needed , expect when when the ambient temperature exceeds 32.3 degree celcius(90F ) Ans. A 3634.A pre charged bladder-type accumulator used in a hydraulic system,can be potentially dangerous if .. A.the charging valve stem breaks while at normal working pressure B.the inert gas is exposed to hydraulic oil C.the bladder contains the top of the poppet D.it is pre charged with free nitrogen Ans. A 3635.According to Regulations,nonmetallic flexible hoses used as supply and return lines to hydraulic system component must have.. A.the working pressure of the system stamped on one of the end fitting B. the working pressure of the system stamped on both the end fittings C.an inner tube construced of steamless reinforced polyster braid D.a dessigned bursting pressure of atleast four times the maximum working pressure of the system

Ans.D 3636.The hydraulic system of a deck which has been drained,fushed and refilled with hydraulic fluid.An erratic knocking noise from the hydraulic motor when the winch is started indicates . A.the fluid level in the reservoir is too high B.air trapped in the system C.clogged suction line fluid filters D.abrasive matter circulating in the oil Ans.B 3637.when comparing a bent-axial position ,variable stroke hydraulic pump, to a variable angle tilting box ,axial position pump where the numbers ,diameter,rotating speed of the pistons are the same.The significant differrence is the.. A.maximum capacity B.maximum pressure C.minimum pressure D.minimum capacity Ans.A 3638.When fire safe or fire resistent fluid is to be used in a hydraulic system ,it is important that A.the resultant pressure due to the increase in fluid viscosity,is not excessive B.the fluid does not dissipate too much heat C.the fluid be compatible with all the seal materials used D.separate lube oil supply be furnished for the hydraulic pump

Ans.C 3639.Overheating of an oil in a hydraulic be caused by A.continuous ,unnecessaryand excessive pump discharge pressure B.an increase in the number of the hydraulic fluid film layers C.insufficient external pump slippage D.fluctuating pump discharge pressure in response to normal load variations Ans.A

Page-196 3640. In a fixed displacement axial piston hydraulic motor the speed is varied by A. regulating the ratio between torque and speed via the torque limiter at the motor B. directing the motor output flow through a bypass line C. maintaining a constant flow and pressure input D. controlling the input flow rate Ans. D 3641. After installing a new hydraulic pump in a system , what special attention should be given to the hydraulic system? A. the relief valves in the system should be readjusted B. the filters and strainers should be checked frequently C. all system pressure should be readjusted

D. the system should be drained and renewed with a fluid of different operating characteristics Ans. B, 3642. Ahydraulic fluid flow control circuit , used to control linear actuator speed during retraction , with the pump operating at above maximum pressure , is known as a. A. metered -in circuit B. metered -out circuit C. bleed -in circuit D. bleed off circuit 3643. In a typical hydraulic system , return lines to thereservoir are terminated below the normal oil level toprevent ..1.foaming of the oil 2.condensation of warm oil vapours upon return A. 1 only B. 2 only C. both 1 and 2 D. neither 1 and 2 Ans. A 3644. According to Regulations an accumulator is a/an. A. device in which bilge water may be stured prior to being pumped ashore B. unfired pressure vessel is which energy is stored under high pressure in the form of a gas and hydraulic fluid C. industry accepted term for the equipment which is used to collect oily bilge liquids

D. test products in which the relieving capacity of the safety valves are verified Ans. B 3645. Archiemedes principle states that the resultant pressure acting on a body immersed in a fluid A. acts vertically upwards through the centre of gravity of the displaced fluid and us equal to the fluid displaced B. will causes the body to have a reduction in mass equal in magnitude to the effective mass of the structure located above the line of floation C. is proportional in magnitude and direction , regardless of the direction originally developed when the object was submerged D. is applied equal and in all directions throughout the vessel in which it is contained Ans. A 3546. Air trapped in one end of a hydraulic actutator may be indicated by. A. erratic or jerky motion of the actuator B. a pump discharge pressure that is consistant , but higher than normal C. consistently faster response or movement of the actuator D. over speeding of the pump Ans . A 3647. The major source of chemical contaminants in hydraulic fiuid is. A. microscopic steel shavings B. abrasive waste C. anti-oxidant compounds

D. oxidation by-products 3648. While starting a hydraulic anchor windlass , you observe that hydraulic pressure does not develop not develop in spite of the proper operation of the electric drive motor . Which of the following actions should you take FIRST to restore pressure? A. make certain that the hydraulic reservoir is filled to the proper level B. Inspect the disc break on the electric motor for proper operation C. Check the electric motor for an open overload relay contact D. check for full voltage supply to the electric motor Ans a 3649. In order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out, specific portions of the chain are colour coded and wrapped with wire. A red painted detachable line would be found between the..

A. B. C. D.

Number 1and 2 shots of chain Number 2 and 3 shots of chain Number 3and 4 shots of chain All the above

Ans A LUBRICATION AND ANTIFRICTION BEARINGS 3650. The term pour point is defined as the lowest temperature at which the lubricating oils will flow A. Rapidly B. By gravity C. through a standard orifice at a specified temperature

D. has a rate of 60 cc per second Ans B 3651. Which of the following statements is used to describe the term base in reference to the greases? A. Texture of the grease under load B. Temperature at which the greases softens or melts C. Type of soap used in its production D. Temperature below which the grease will be ineffective as a lubricant Ans C 3652. A grease lubricated ball bearings or roller bearings will run cooler if the grease. A. fills only 10% of all void spaces within the bearings B. has a high grease penetration number(is hard) C. is thinned with a suitable lubricating oil D. is heated prior to packing the bearing Ans . B 3653. In a compression type grease cup , the lubricant is forced into bearing A. gravity B. spring C. force D. A zerk fitting Ans..B

3654. Which of the processes listed consumes the greatet amount of power while producing the greatest amount of heat? A.Overcoming sliding friction B. Overcoming rolling friction C. Overcoming fluid friction D. Overcoming oil wedge friction Ans. A 3655. The packing installed in the pump stuffing box is lubricated by. A. gravity and feed oil cups B. grease cups C. hand during installation D. leakage through the stuffing box Ans. D 3656. An organic solid lubricant, such as graphite , is suitable as an oil additive when used in 3657. The best method of fixing a winch motor bearing of the sealed type that is running hot is to A.machinery bearings subjected to high temperatures B.antifriction bearings on general service pumps c.bearings subjected to fluctuating loads d.line shaft bearings Ans.A

3658 Adsorption filters are not commonly used in steam turbine or diesel engine lubricating systems because they A.utilize exotic and expensieve filtering media making them too costly for use. B. are only effective at temperatures below 37.8 c C.can adsorb no more thanfive times their weight I water. D.remove additives from the lube oil Ans.D 3660. The construction of the main propulsion engine lube oil sump should . A.have no plating joints at 90 B.retain the lube oils as long as possible before it recirculates through the system C.provide drain/return lines that are no greater than 600 mm from the pump suction D. be provided with only a perfectly horizontal bottom. Ans.B 3662. the ability of lubricating oils to resist viscositychanges during temperature changes is indicated by the . A.American petroleum institute number B.Viscosity index number C.Seconds Saybolt furol number D.seconds saybolt Universal number Ans.b

3664. the flash point of most lube oils used in a main lubricating system should be approximately A.27c to 38c B.60c to 71c C.121c to 149c D.177c to 232c Ans.D 3666. Which of the filter/ strainer units listed permits you to clean the element while leaving the system on the line? A.Simplex B.Duplex C.Canister D.Bypass Ans.B 3668 The function of lubricating oil is to.. A.reduce friction between two units. B.provide uniform distribution of bearing wear C.reduce the accumulatio of harmful detergents. D.maintain a constant oil temprature output at each bearing Ans.A 3670. The neutralization number of lube oil used in the machinery has exceeded its permissible range,therefore it will be necessary to

A.centrifuge the oil B. add makeup oil C.renew the entire oil supply D.operate the machinery at reduced power Ans.c 3672. a grease gun is generally used to lubricate a. A.condensate pump ball bearing B.main shaft bearing C.main turbine bearing D.diesel engine wrist pin bearing Ans.A 3674 A graphite additive type grease is best suited for .. I.low temperature applications.II.High tempearature applications A.I only B.II only C.Both I and II D.neither I nor II Ans.B 3676 dirt should not be allowed to contaminate a grease lubricant beause the.. A.bearings will leak oil easily B.dirt will cause corrossion of bearing C. Grease will become inflammable.

A. B. C. D.

Add grease through zerk fitting Allow the winch to run at lower speeds Replace the bearing with a new one Apply a light oil to the bearing housing

Ans.C 3659 although lube oils are useed in main lubricating services systems should have a relatively high flash point to avoid ignition,they can create smoke and fire hazards when they, A.are exposed to vacuum B.come in contact with extremely hot surfaces C.are reduced in temperature tojust above the pour point D.Become extremely agitated or aerated Ans.B 3661. Design charateristics of lubricating oil sump tanks will include . A.installation of baffles to prevent excessive sloshing of oil. B. sufficient capacity to contain all lube oil in system except for th e contents of gravity tank. C.cooling coils made of welded seamlesssteel pipe. D.the bottom of the sump should be integral with the shell plating. Ans.a 3663. which of the additives listed is used to reduce the foaming tendency of lube oil.? a.emulsifiers

B.suppresents C.Deppresents D. Extreme pressure Ans.B 3665. which of the lubricants listed is the best to use on a reciprocating pump rod? A.Engine oil B. Oil mixed with Kerosene C.Graphite and oil D.Vegetable oil Ans.C 3667. which of the additives listed will maintain the suspension of fineresidue particles in lube oil? A.Floo point B.Suppresent C.Dispersant D.all of the above Ans.c 3669. the function of lubricating oil is to. A.maintain even distribution of bearing wear B.maintain a constant oil temperature C.maintain a pressurized flui d film between moving surfaces

D.remove entrained water Ans.C 3671.. With regardsto the viscosity of lube oilin an operating system under normal load, the highest viscosity should occur.. A.just prior to entering the lub oil cooler B.at the lube oil cooler outlet C.at the main lube oil pump discharge D.at the narrowest pointof hydrodynamic wedge Ans.D 3673. An example of antifriction bearing is a A.rubber cutlass strut bearing. B.line shaft or spring bearing C.Kingsbury thrust bearing D. Ball bearing Ans.D 3675.The lubrication of high speed precision bearing depends upon a system that produces.. A.adequent quantity at sufficient pressure B.high detergent oil with pressure additives C. constant viscosity lubrication D.a minimum of 15 psi to all parts of system Ans.A

3677. same questionas abovePage 198 D.dirt is very abrasive when mixed with grease Ans.a 3678. The tendency for lubricating oil to thin out at high temperatures and thicken at low temperatures will be characterized by a .. A.low viscosity index B.High viscosity index C.High neutralization number D. Low demulsibility quality Ans.A 3679. Which of the following conditions should be used to support the .to change the lube oil when there has been an increase in the neutralization number? A.A decrease in the viscosity of oil B.An increase in the viscosity of oil C.A change in the cloud point D. A change in the floo point Ans. B 3680. Oil emulsification in engine lubricating oils will tend to. A.decrease sludge formation in lubricating oil B.cause water to separate from oil C.improve the lubricating oil viscosity D.displace lubricating oil required in areas of friction

Ans.D 3681. which bearing will carry the load on two small pointsdiametrically opposite to each other? ANeedle B.tapered roller C.Roller D.ball Ans.D 3682one characteristic of a lubricating oil adversely affecting the results of centrifuging is A.High TBN value B.High oil floo point C.low oil demulsibility D.low oil neutralization number Ans.c 3683. in most pump and pump motors overpacking the ball bearings full of grease will result in A.moisture emulsification of the bearing grease B.insufficient circulation and overheating of grease C. proper grease circulation to cool the bearing D. sliding friction between balls and races Ans.B 3684. Main propulsionengine lube oil oil sumps should be constructed..

A.so as to never be integral with the main engine foundation B.with a sloped bottom C.only of nonferrous noncorrosive metals D. with drain/return lines ferminating just above or at the desiged normal level Ans. B 3685The greatest difference between absorbent and adsorbent filters is that adsorbent filters is.. A.will remove additives from the lube oil B.soak up liquis contaminants directly into the filter media C. do not create pressure drops in the lube oil system D.attract or have liquid contaminants stick to the surface of filter media. Ans.B 3686.Antifriction bearings should not be excessively lubricated because A.the bearings will require immediate flushing B.dirt will accumulate inside the bearings C.excess lubrication will result in slippage D. the bearing will overheat Ans. D 3687..if a ball bearing for a centrifugal pump is completely packed with grease. A.the bearing may heat up B.grease may flow out of seals C. early failure might result

D.all the above Ans. D 3688.Antifriction bearings may be removed undamaged from a shaft by using an arbor press,or wheeler puller with a A.ring gage B.split die C.Split washer or backup ring D. jack screw Ans.c 3689.An additive used to improve the ability of lube oil to reduce friction is known as an. A.suppresant additive B.dispersant additive C.Extreme pressure additive D.viscosity improver additive Ans.c 3690.the graphite in a bearing lubricant compound of graphite grease,acts as a A.low temperature sealer B.moisture barrier C.filter to smooth surface irregularities D.coolant to carry away heat Ans.C

3691.when removing roller bearings from a shaft,the force of the puller must be applied to the bearing.. A.outer race.. B.raceway C.inner race D.retainer plates Ans.c 3692.demulsibility of a lube oil is defined as.. A.the ability of oil to separate from water B.the temperature at which oil flows rapidly C.a measure of the water in the lube oil system D.an emulsion of different grades of oil Ans.a 3693.same question as above 3694. A lubricating oil with a high viscosity index number is most effectively used A. in only very high temperature installations B.as an additive to depress pour point C.as an additive to slow oxidation D.where a wide range of temperature variation exist Ans.d 3695. which of the additives listed is used to lower the pour point of lubricating oil?

A.emulsifiers B.Suppresents C.deppresents D.Extreme pressure Ans.c 3696.which of the following statements is correct about the viscosity of lubricating oil? A.Viscosity will increase as temperature increases B.viscosity is am easure of fluid internal resistence to flow. C.viscosity will decrease as temperature decreases D.viscosity is not dependant of temperature Ans.B 3697.Additive commonly found in turbine lubricating oil include A,antifoaming agents B.oxidation inhibitors C.extreme pressure additives D.all the above. Ans.D 3698. The amount of fluid friction or internal friction inherent in a mineral lubricating oilis reflected as a measure of its . (no choices given) 3699.A lube oil filter can be used to remove most contaminants from the lube oil.A contaminant which will remain in the lube oil after filtering is .

B. Allow for longitudinal expansion of the crankshaft as the unit warms up C. Prevent longitudinal thrust in the crankshaft D. Reduce torisional vibration in the crankshaft Ans B 3738. a good quality lubricating oil used in any machinery should be

A. Acid free B. Capable of emulsifying C. A rapid oxidizer D. Additive free Ans. A

3739. which of the listed types of bearing is an example of a half bearing? A. Piston pin bushing B. Thrust bearing C. Spring bearing D. All the above Ans c

3740. if a continues and steady flow of lube oils provided, which of the listed pressures represent lowest supply pressure at which small high speed bearing can be safely s the lubricated? A. 0.1 kg/cm2 B. 0.3 kg/cm2 C. 0.6 kg/cm2 D. 1 kg/cm2 Ans.A 3741.if the chemical analysis of a lube oil sample taken from the main propulsion machinery indicates an neutralization number the A. Acidity has increased B. Viscosity has decreased C. Demulisibility has improved D. Foaming is guaranteed to occur Ans A 3742. why do roller bearings have higher loading capacity than ball bearing? A. They are installed with tighter clearance B. They are subjected to less pitting and metal fatigue C. Hey have a higher tolerance for high speed application D. They have a greater contact area Ans D 3743. which of the listed tcols should be used to remove a tapered roller bearing from a shaft?

A. An arbor press B. A steel drift pin and hammer C. A acetylene torch and a hammer D. A tapering come-a-long Ans A 3744. The size of ball and roller bearing can be identified by the

A. Rolling member size B. Inner race cone width C. Manufacturers numerical code D. Outer ring width Ans C 3745. a filler commonly mixed with grease , such as graphite acts

A. as a mild abrasive B. To smooth surface irregularities C. To lower the friction coefficient D. All the above Ans D 3746. which of the following statements best describes the filtering ability of a fine mesh lube oil strainer?

A. A 200 mesh will prevent passage of smaller particles than a 100 mesh wire cloth B. A 200 mesh screen has finer wires than 100 mesh wire cloth C. A 100 mesh wire cloth will prevent passage of smaller particles than 200 mesh screen D. A 200 mesh screen and a 100 mesh wire cloth prevent passage of small size particles, but each allow a different number of particles to pass through Ans A 3747. a grease drop point is

A. How far a standard metal cone will penetrate into the sample in 5seconds when dropped B. How uniform and thick the spread of an ounce of grease is when ten dropped from a height of 5 feet C. The temperature that a sample of grease begins to liquefy D. The length of time a 50 gram sphere will be held in place from the underside of a surface coated with 25 millimeters of the grease sample Ans C 3748. after adding grease to a ball bearing with a handheld grease gun, you should A. Run the machine with the bearing housing drain plug open for a short while B. Close the bearing housing and add a little extra grease to compensate for air pockets in the bearing C. Remove the grease fitting and leave open to allow excess grease to escape

D. Save the used grease for analysis Ans A 3749. When referring to grease, penetration number is A How many seconds was required for a cone to penetrate the sample B. The temperature at which a cone would bigin to penetrate athe sample C. The temperature at which the grease would become sufficiently fluid to fill the voids of a standard ball bearing D. The depth to which a cone would penetrate a sample of grease in 5 seconds. Ans D 3750. A journal rotating in its bearing relies on hydrodynamic principles for lubrication. Under steady load condition , the journal rotating in the bearing will assume a position A. at bearing bottom center B. concentric in the bearing C. At bearing top center D. eccentric in the bearing Ans D 3751. Machinery with ball bearing designed to be filled with grease should have the relief plug temporarily removed while grease is being added. This plug should remain out until the machinery has been operated and sufficiently warmed up to ensure that

A. A path of expansion is provided for the grease B. All air pockets are veined from the grease

C. Dirt and grit are flushed from the bearing housing D. The grease is properly distributed within the bearing Ans.A 3752. Solid containments are prevented from entering the main lube tube oil system by way of the main engine sump through the use of

A. Fine mesh screening placed around the pump suction line en the sump. B. Baffles installed without limber or lightening holes to trap the vehicles C. a suction inlet located approximately 10 inches(254mm) above the sump bottom D. a 10 inches (254mm)dome installed just below the suction inlet and provided within one inch of the dome. Ans. C 3753. As the speed of an oil lubricating ball bearing increases, fluid friction, due to churning, generates heat and should be avoided

A. Adding more lubricant until the ball bearing is completely covered with a layer of oil. B. Reducing the quantity of lubricating until only a mist of oil is presented on the ball bearing. C.maintaining a continuous fluid filim of oil on the bearings D.intiallings oil rings on the ball bearings Ans.B Page 202

3754. Which of the following statements is correct concerning antifriction bearing installed in pumps?

a. b. c. d.

The inner race should be free to be turn on the shaft The outer race should be free to turn in its housing Alignment is not a critical factor in their installation They are usually pressed on to their shafts Ans.d

3755. A drop test is carried out on a sample of grease by a. Allowing a suspended cone to drop into a sample of grease for five seconds and determining the depth of penetration b. Dropping a one ounce grease sample for one meter, and observing the resulting spread pattern uniformly of thickness, consistency of thickness and consistency of texture c. Allowing a sample of grease to drop into a cup of ambient temperature and determining the time necessary for occur D. Determining the temperature at which a grease sample liquefies when heated and drops from a cup through a bottom orifice. Ans.D 3756. Which of the following statements describes the characteristics of precision manufactured roller bearings? a. They have a relatively high power loss due to friction b. They are well adapted to variable speed operation c. Their lubrication is complicated and requires constant attention Ans.c

3757. Which of the following statements is correct regarding on oil regarding with a high viscosity index a. A large change of viscosity occurs with a minor change in temperatures b. No change in viscosity occurs with any change in temperatures c. Very little change in viscosity occurs with a significant change in temperature Ans. C 3758. Which of the following lube oil filters would be considered acceptable for use with todays high detergent additive type oils a. Cotton waste packed in perforated metal containers or cylindrical cartridges b. Cylindrical elements containing fullers combined with cellulose c. Foamed poly urethane of the impingement type supported on perforated metal rings d. Chemically treated paper and waste in cartridges ans .a 3759. Which of the following problem will occur if a disk type centrifugal lube oil purifier is not properly primed prior to admitting to follow the bowl? a. Contamination of the lube oil by emulsification will result b. The lube oil will not be subjected to the proper centrifugal force c. The lube oil will over heat and flash d. Oil will discharge from the heavy phase discharge port and be washed ans .d 3760. In a refrigeration system, the amount of refrigeration admitted to the evaporator is directly related to

a. The compressor discharge pressure b. Condenser cooling water temperature c. The solenoid valve differential pressure d. The super heat of the refrigerant in that \coil ans.d 3761. In a flash distilling unit evaporator(sea water) absorbs in the a. Vapour feed water b. Air ejector condenser c. Salt water heater d. Distillate water ans.d 3762. The value of controlled variable which under any fixed set of conditions the automatic controller Operates to maintain is known as a. Set point b. Control point c.Deviation d. Offset ans.b 3763. A fuel tank on a barge has been certified by a marine chemist as being safe for man and safe for life, this condition may change if a. The ambidient temperature changes

b. A product leaks into the certified tank c. Muck, sludge, or scale in the tank given off additional vapours d.all the above ans.d 3764.in the event of an exhaust fire most dry chemical and carbon dioxide gally range fixed extinguishing systems areatomically activated through the action of a stain less steel cable spring and a a. Fusible link b. Stack switch c. Thermostal d. Pyrostat ans.a 3765. Which of the listed fire extinguishing agents would be suitable for use on an oil fire, but dangerous on an electrical fire? A. co2 b. Water fog c. Halon d. Dry chemical Ans.b 3766. The horizontal and ft movement of a vessel is called a. Yaw b. Sway c. Heave

d. Surde ans.d

3767 which of the following conditions will allow for a work vest to be substituted for an Lifejacket in the total count of the required lifesaving gear?
A. B. C. D. When it is approved by the master. When working near or over the water When stowed away from the ring buoys A work vest may never be counted as a lifejacket

Ans : D 3768 what safety information can be found in the fire control plan that is posted or available In bookle form on your ship?
A. B. C. D. Location of fire doors Location of the remote means of stopping fans Particulars of the fire detecting system All the above.

Ans : D 3769 when involved in fighting a fire aboard a ship with an aluminum superstructure. It is important to remember that aluminum structures exposed to the high heat __________ A. B. C. generate poisonous fumes Are more susceptible to collapse than steel structures are susceptible to spontaneous ignition

D. Ans :B

all the above.

3770 the fire protection provided for the propulsion motor and generator of a diesel electric Drive vessel is usually a _____________
A. B. C. D. Fixed foam extinguisher Fixed co2 system Steam smothering system Carbon tetrachloride extinguishing system

Ans : B

3771

when administering artificial respiration to an adult, the breathing cycle should be Repeated about ______________
A. B. C. D. 12 to 15 times per minute 18 to 20 times per minute 20 to 25 times per minute As fast as possible

Ans : A 3772 the most common cooling agent used for fighting fires on tank vessels is __________ A. B. C. D. Ans : C carbon dioxide flue gas water steam smothering

3773 a disadvantage of using co2 for fire fighting is that ________________ A. B. C. D. Ans: A 3774 approved buoyant work vests may be carried aboard tank vessels and shall be worn by Crew members _____________
A. B. C. When working near or over the water under unfavorable working conditions Under the supervision and control of designed ships officers As substitutes for the approved life preservers during routine drills weather permitting when a vessel is moored pierside D. All the above

the co2 does not cool the fire the cylinders are regulated pressure vessels they are not effective on class B fires they are not effective on class C fires

Ans: B

3775 according to regulations, all merchant vessels are required to have muster lists and are To be posted _______________
A. B. C. D. On the navigating bridge In the engine room In the crew accommodation spaces All of the above

Ans : D

3776 when required to work where there may be explosive gases ,you should use tools which Are ____________
A. B. C. D. Approved by the coast guard High carbon steel Fixed with a ferrous cover Non sparking

Ans : D 3777 A. B. C. D. Ans: C 3778 an acceptable method of dealing with accumulated oil found in the pump room bilges is To _______________
A. B. C. D. Transfer the oil to the sea chest Pump the oil into slop tanks Discharge the oil over the side on an outgoing tide Pump the oil into a clean ballast tank

the vertical motion of a floating vessel is known as _____________ surge sway heave pitch

Ans : B

3779 when applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR,the sternum should Be depressed about _______________

A. B. C. D.

inch or less to 1 inch 1 to 1 inches 1 to 2 inches

Ans : D 3780 personnel who are moving or handling material aboard ship should NOT follow which of The listed practices?
A. B. C. Signaling that all personnel are clear before lifting or lowering material Examining material for sharp edges or protruding points before handling Closing,tagging or securing valves that permit entrance of steam , water or air into a fitting or other equipment D. Throwing materials from high places to the deck

Ans : D 3781 halon extinguishers used on a class C fire should be directed at the _________ A. B. C. D. Ans :D 3782 ________ A. B. C. when taking tank soundings, coating the tape with chalk helps to base of the equipment top of the equipment power source source of the fire

better identify the correct reading show the depth of any water in an oil tank make the tape roll easier

D. Ans:A

reduce possibility of sparks

3783

when completing the ballasting operation of a containinated tank, which of the following problems must be guarded against?
A. B. C. D. Back flow of contaminated water Loss of pump suction Excessive tank pressure due to closed vents Motor overload due to high discharge head

Ans:A 3784 to release the davit cable of a davit launched liferaft ,you must__________ A. B. C. D. Ans:A 3785 A. B. C. D. Ans :B pitching is angular motion of the vessel about which axis? longitudinal transverse vertical centerline pull the release lanyard pull the hydraulic release push the release button pull on the ratchet handle

3786 A. B. riser C. D. Ans:D

a segregated ballast system is a sys tem where _________ all ballast is processed through the oily water separator ballast is taken on and discharged through a separate main deck

ballast and cargo tanks are separated by cofferdams all ballast lines,tanks and pumps are independent of those used to oil

3787 A. B. C. D. Ans:D

what information must be entered on the muster list? names of all crew members use and application of special equipment listing of approved emergency equipment duties and station of each person during emergencies

3788 the most essential element in the administration ofCPR is ______________ A. B. C. D. to have the proper equipment for the process the speed of treatment the administration of oxygen the treatment for traumatic shock

Ans:B 3789 A. B. C. D. Ans:D 3790 in addition to weighing the cartridge, what other routine maintenance is required for a Cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguisher?
A. B. C. D. Weigh the powder in the canister Discharge small amount to see that it works Check the hose and nozzle for clogs Check the external pressure gage

you should deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft to ____________ keep the liferaft from capsizing navigate against the current keep personnel from getting seasick stay in the general location

Ans:C

3791 angular motion about the longitudinal axis of a vessel is known as ___________ A. B. C. D. Ans:D pitch surge sway roll

3792 safety is dependent on orderliness and cleanliness.order may be maintained by _______ A. B. for-sea C. together D. Ans:A 3793 when administering artificial respiration it is of the utmost importance to___________ A. B. C. D. Ans:B 3794 A. B. C. D. Ans:B when entering a compartment which is on fire ___________ you must wear rubber gloves the flames should be beaten back from the door with water fog a straight stream of water should be used to cool the door a straight stream of water should be used to cool the fire fighters use the mouth-to-mouth method clear airways use rhythmic pressure method know all approved methods storing all items in an assigned place storing all items in a common storage container except those ready-

tagging all items according to their age and then storing them

disposing of worn-out items

3795 there are two disadvantages to co2 when used as a total flooding firefighting Agent.one of these is the limited quantity avaivable and the other is _________
A. B. the C. D. Co2 pump It breaks down under extreme heat to form poisonous gases There is no effect on a class A fire even in an enclosed space The lack of cooling effect on heated materials It cannot be used in a dead ship situation without electrical power available and

Ans:A 3796 the maximum draft to which a vessel can legally be submerged is indicated by the _____ A. B. C. D. Ans:A 3797 after abandoning a vessel,water consumed within the first 24 hours ________________ A. system B. C. D. Ans:A will pass through the body with very little being absorbed by the load line mark certificate of inspection muster list tonnage mark

will help to prevent fatigue it breaks down under extreme heat to form poisonous gases helps to prevent seasickness

3798 a fire extinguishing product produced by first mixing a foam concentrate with water To produce a foam solution ,then mixing the foam with air is termed _______________
A. B. C. D. Light water Halon 81 Chemical foam Mechanical foam

Ans :D

3799 angular motion about the vertical axis of a vessel is known as __________________ A. B. C. D. Ans:A 3800 if a leak in an oil hose coupling cannot be stopped by tightening the coupling bolts, you should _______________ A. B. C. D. Ans :D notify the coast guard of a potential oil spill reduce plumping pressure to reduce the leakage rate spread absorbent material on deck beneath the leak notify the terminal operator then shut down and repair the leak yaw surge sway roll

3801

load line regulations are designed to insure that a vessel has adequate structural strength and sufficient __________________
A. B. C. D. Life saving equipment Stability Mooring tension Riser tension

Ans :B 3802 the necessity for administering artificial respiration may be recognized by the victims ________________
A. B. C. D. Vomiting Blue color and lack of breathing Irregular breathing Unconscious condition

Ans : B

C. Mechanical foam D. High velocity fog Ans: C 3805 An oceangoing ship of 350 gross tons, contracted for January 1976,and not equipped with an oily water separator ,all bilge slops may be retained
A. B. C. D. Onboard in the ships bilges In the forward peak tank In the pur fier reservoir In a cofferdam

Ans: A

3806 Drinking salt water will.

A. B. C. D. Be safe if mixed with fresh water Prevent seasickness Promote urine excretion Protect against heat cramps

Ans:C 3807 GM cannot be used as an indicator of stability at all angles of inclination because
A. B. C. D. M is not fixed a t large angles There is no M at large angles G is not fixed at large angles There is no G at large angles

Ans: A 3808 The most frequent incidents of tanker pollution occurring during tanker operations is.
A. B. C. D. Due to collisions Routine discharge of oil during ballasting and tank crude oil washing Loading and discharging Due solely to groundings

Ans : C 3809 Each fire pump on a cargo ship must have a pressure gage located
A. B. C. D. At the pump discharge At the manifold connection At each fire station discharge At the pump station

Ans: A 3810 If vomiting occurs during a resuscitation effort, the best immediate procedure to follow is..

A. Ignore it and continue mouth to mouth ventilation B. Pause for a moment until the patient appears quiet again, then resume mouth to mouth ventilation C. Switch to mouth to mouth ventilation D. Turn the patients body to side, sweep out the mouth and resume CPR

Ans: D 3811 When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed
A. B. C. D. Straight overhead At the vessel whose attention you want to attract Into the wind At about 60 degrees above the horizon

Ans: D 3812 Oil pollution regulation (MARPOL) require any transfer , or discharge of oil, or oily mixtures can be recorded in the ..
A. B. C. D. Pollution control record Bridge log Oil record book Masters log

Ans: C 3813 Which of the listed fire fighting agents and associated applications provide the largest shielding effect for the fire fighter..
A. B. C. D. Straight stream of water Light water and foam mixture Low velocity water fog Carbon dioxide interface

Ans: C 3814 A vessel should normally behave as if all of its weight is acting downward through the centre og gravity and all of its support is acting upward through the

A. B. C. D.

Keel Center of buoyancy Tipping center Amidship section

Ans:B 3815 One of the uses for low velocity fog is to .

A. B. C. D. Help produce mechanical foam Break apart class A combustibles Sweep burning liquids overboard Act as a heat shield to protect the fire fighter

Ans: D 3816 The value of maximum righting arm is dependent upon the position of the center of buoyancy and the
A. B. C. D. Longitudinal center of gravity Transverse center of gravity Downflooding angle Vertical location of the center of gravity

Ans:D 3817 Which of the following must be eliminated to prevent accidents?

A. B. C. D. Unsafe actions Orderliness Frequent inspections Good work habits/practices

Ans:A 3818 Repair of vital machinery and services related to an emergency on a cargo ship should be accomplished (in sequence) ..
A. B. C. D. After control of fire , flooding, and structural repairs Immediately before emergency is under control After control of fire , but before control of flooding After stability is restored

Ans: A 3819 Fire extinguishers designated by the Roman numerals I and II are..
A. B. C. D. Portable units Semi portable units Fixed systems Compact systems

Ans : A 3820 Combustible gas indicators measure the presence of combustible gases as a percentage of the
A. B. C. D. Flash point Upper explosive limit Lower explosive limit Fire point

Ans:C 3821 A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding only

A. B. C. D. With puncture wounds When all other means have failed When the victim is unconscious To prevent bleeding from minor wounds

Ans:B 3823 Low velocity water fog is used in firefighting as a..

A. B. C. D. Cooling agent Smothering agent Barrier against radiant heat All the above

Ans: D 3823 Which of the fire fighting foams listed would require the mechanical mixing of air and foam concentrate?
A. Protein foam

B. Synthetic and alchohol foams C. Aqueous film forming foam(AFFF) D. All the above

Ans: D 3824 If a ship is supported on the crest of a wave amidships,the vessel is subjected to ..
A. B. C. D. Pitch poling Hogging stresses Sagging stresses Yawing stresses

Ans:B 3825 To avoid excessive electrostatic effect in the crude oil washing process,due to the presence of water in the crude oil washing fluid,the contents of any tank to be used as a source of crude oil for washing must first reduce a portion of the tank content

A. B. C. D.

One-half meter One meter One and one half meters Two meters

Ans:B 3826 A fuel/air mixture below the lower explosive limit is too.
A. B. C. D. Rich to burn Lean to burn Cool to burn Dense to burn

Ans:B 3827 Which of the listed conditioned can be considered as the single greatest cause of accidents?

A. B. C. D.

Speed Excessive knowledge or skill Human error Excitement

Ans:C 3828 AA continual change in the list or trim of any floating vessel indicates .
A. B. C. D. NegativeGM Progressive flooding Structural failure An immediate need to counterflood Ans:B

3829 Te fire hydrant outlet may be positioned from the horizontal to any position pointing
A. B. C. D. 45 upward Vertically upward 90 upward Vertically downward

Ans:D 3830 To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be..
A. B. C. D. Kept in normal containers Discarded as soon as possible Cleaned thoroughly for reuse Kept in the paint locker

Ans:B 3831 Water log is an effective fire extinguishing agent because it.
A. B. C. D. Has a great cooling ability Will completely remove the toxic fumes from the air Will completely remove combustible vapours from the air Does not leave a harmful residue on electrical machinery

Ans:A

3832 With regards to the metacentric height ,whoch of the following statement is true?
A. B. C. D. it is used to indicate the quality of initial stability it is located below the centre of buoyancy it is measured vertically above the centre of buoyancy its determination is the objective of inclining experiment

Ans:A 3833Regulations require inflatable liferafts to be equipped with

A. B. C. D. a first aid kit an instruction manual a sea anchor all of the above

Ans:D 3834 In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be controlled by..
A. B. C. D. applying direct pressure submerging the wound in lukewarm water cooling the wound with ice applying a tourniquet

Ans:A 3835 Damage stability of a ship is the stability .

A. B. C. D. Which exists when the wind speed is less than 50 knots Before collision After flooding At survival draft

Ans:C 3836 Good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fire by .

A. Allowing better access in an emergency B. Eliminating potential fuel sources C. Eliminating trip hazards

D. Improving personal qualifications

Ans:B 3837 A definite advantage in the use of water as a fire extinguishing agent is its ability to.
A. B. C. D. Alternate expansion and contraction as water in liquid state becomes vapour Absorb smoke and gases as water is converted from a liquid to vapour Rapidly contracts as water is converted from liquid to vapor Vaporize and rapidly expand as water absorbs heat

Ans:D 3838 Which of the listed initials is used to represent the indicator of initial stability?
A. B. C. D. GM KG KM GZ

Ans:A 3839 Immediately after extinguishing a fire with CO2 ,it is advisable to..
A. B. C. D. Use all CO2 available to cool the surrounding area Standby with water or other agents Thoroughly ventilate the space of CO2 Jettison all burning materials

Ans:B 3840 Which of the following must be carried out In order to manually launch an inflatable liferaft not designed for float-free operation?
A. B. C. D. It will be easily launched by simply breaking the weak link Decreases the hydrostatic release button It is easily launched by cutting the container securing straps It is only necessary to attach the weak link to the vessel

Ans:B

3841 Each fire hydrant is required to have at least one spanner wrench and at least one .
A. B. C. D. hose rack or reel all-purpose nozzle foam applicator pc axe

Ans:A 3842 Force within a mobile offshore drilling unit have caused a difference between the starboard and port drafts.This difference is..
A. B. C. D. list heel trim flotation

Ans: A

A.1 inch B.2 inches C.3 inches D.3 inches Ans: B A.have the patient lie down and cover the wound when the bleeding stops B.stop the bleeding clean medicate and cover the wound C.apply an ice pack to the wound and cover it when the bleedingstops D.apply a hot towel to purge the wound,then medicate and cover it Ans.B

3845. which of the following symptoms may be observed in a victim of cardiac arrest as a result of electric shock? A. weak pulse at wrist or neck B.flushed face C.respiration is weak or has stopped D.all of the above symptoms Ans :C 3846.heavy smoke is observed to be issuing from the partially open door of the paint locker,the FIRST firefighting attack should be to A.leave the door and vents open,but release the CO2 flooding system B.open the door to evaluate the extent of the fire C. enter and use a portable extinguisher D.secure the door and vents, then manually release the co2 Ans :D 3847. #REF A. B. C. D. Ans : #REF! #REF! #REF! #REF! #REF!

3848. if the cause of a sudden severe list or trim is negative initial stability counterflooding into empty tanks may A. increase the righting moment

B.cause an increase in the right arm C.bring the unit to an upright aquilibrium position D.cause the unit to flop to a greater angle Ans :D 3849. the important initial stability parameter GM is the A. metacentric height B. height of the metacenter above the keel C. height of the centre of bouyancy above the keel D. height of the centre of gravity above the keel Ans :A 3850. on a cargo ship , a fire drill shall be conducted once every A.week B.month C.crew change D.other week Ans :A 3851. during the fire drill on a ship , which of the following actions is required to be carried out? A.each fire pump is to be started B.the lifeboat is to be lanched and operated C.an inventory of rescue and fire equipment is to be taken D.an inspection and inventory of fire hoses is to be made.

Ans :A 3852. as a last resort ,a tourniment can be used to A.hold a victim in a strecher B.stop uncontrolled bleeding C.hold a large bandage in place D. restrain a delirious victim Ans :B 3853. after using a co2 fire axtinguisher, it should be A.put back in service if some co2 remains B.hydrostatically tested C.retagged D. recharged Ans :D 3854. you are preparing to administer closed chest cardiac massage on a victim of electric shock. Which of the following actions is NOT a recommended procedure? A.placing the victim on his or her back and exposing the chest B.giving cardiac massage without artificial respiration C.rocking so that a controlled amount of body weight goes through your arms and hand to their breastbone D.placing one hand across victims breastbone so that the heel of the hand covers the lower part Ans :B 3855. a slow and easy motion of a ship in a seaway is an indicator of

A.smallGM B.low center of gravity C.a shiff vessel D.large GZ Ans :A 3856.if a cargo ship takes a sudden severe list or trim from an unknown cause , you should first A.determine the cause before taking countermeasures B.assume the shift is due to off centre loading C.counterflood on the side opposite the list or trim D.assume the cause is environment forces Ans :A 3857. the abbreviation GM is used to represent the A.height of the metacenter B.righting arm C.righting moment D.metacenter height Ans :D 3858. automatic mechanical ventilation shutdown is required for co2 system protecting the A.machinery spaces B.cargo compartments

C.living quarters D.galley Ans :A 3859.if a person suffers a simple fracture of a limb , you should A. attempt to set the fracture B. prevent futher movement of the bone C.apply a tourniquet without delay D.alternatively apply hot and cold compresses Ans : B 3860. you can find the location of your abandon ship post by checking the A.certificate of inspection B.muster list C. vessels logbook D.vessels documentation Ans : B 3861. stability is determined principally by the relationship of the crntre of gravity and the A. aft perpendicular B. center of buoyancy C. keel D. center of flotation Ans : B

3862. in the event of a fire ,automatic activation of a fixed co2 extinguishing system can result in which of the following areas? A.machinery space B.paint locker C.cargo hold D.all the above Ans : D 3863. stability is determined principally by the location of two points in a vessel the center of buoyancy and the A.metacenter B.geometric center of the water plane area C.center of gravity D. center of flotation Ans : C 3864.where form extinguished systems are provided on a ship ,each machinary flat in the space must have a/an A.coaming B. alarm C. drain D. fire sensor Ans : A 3865. the muster list shows each crew lifeboat station , their duties during abandonment , basic instructions and

A.all emergency signals B.instructions for lowering the survival capsule C. the time each weekly drill will be held D.work schedule Ans : A 3866. you are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the lower arm which of the listed actions should you take ? A. apply a tourniquet to control bleeding then align the bones and splint B. apply traction to the hand to keep the bones in line , splint and apply a pressure dressing C. force the ends of the bones back into line , treat the bleeding and sprint D. apply a bulky , sterile , pressure dressing to control bleeding , then apply a temporary sprint and place the victim in bed Ans : D 3867. in any major personal injury , first aid is to include the treatment of the injury and what additional treatment ? A. application of CPR B. removal of any foreign objects C. administration of oxygen D. treatment for traumatic shock Ans : D 3868. the use of which fire extinguishing agent involves covering the burning surface by deflecting the agent from a bulkhead to avoid undue agitation ?

A. foam B. dry chemical C. carbon dioxide D. halon 1301 Ans : A 3869. which of the following is NOT a treatment for traumatic shock ? A. keep the patient warm , but not hot B. have the injured person lie down C. massage the arms and legs to restore circulation D. relieve the pain of the injury Ans : C 3870. a class B fire is extinguished using foam by A. cooling the surface B. replacing the fuel C. smothering the fire D. all the above Ans : C 3871. when entering the pump room of a tank vessel to rescue an unconscious person , which items of the equipment listed are you required to be using ? A. protective clothing and explosion-proof flashlight B. flame safety lamp and resuscitation equipment C. combustible gas indicator and canister gas mask

D. self-contained breathing apparatus and lifelines Ans : D 3872. which of the following treatments is used for traumatic shock? A. administer CPR B. administer fluids C. open clothing to allow cooling of the body D. keep the victim in a sitting position Ans : B 3873. flooding of any snips compartment , resulting in a serious loss of reserve buoyancy will always A. increase the trim B. change the free surface effect C. decrease ship stability D. cause a serious list Ans : C 3874. a crew member has been overcome by toxic fumes in the pump room. Which of the following actions should be taken before entering the pump room to rescue the victim ? A. put on an approved self-contained breathing apparatus B. have someone stand by the entrance C. wear a lifeline D. all the above Ans : D

3875. what is the usual effect of moving weight from low in the vessel to above the main deck ? A. the stability is increased B. the draft is increased C. the stability is decreased D. the reverse buoyancy is decreased Ans : C 3876. which of the following is considered as the correct action for the rescue of an unconscious person from a compartment containing an unsafe atmosphere ? A. wear an approved self-contained breathing apparatus B. attack a lifeline to the rescuer C. have someone stand by outside the compartment D. all the above Ans : D 3877. if the result of loading a ship is an increase in the height of the center of gravity , there will always be an increase in the A. metacentric height B. righting arm C. righting moment D. vertical moments Ans : D 3878. if a vessel losses its reserve buoyancy , it will be A. float upright with the main deck awash

B. capsize and float on its side C. remain unaffected if the hull remains intact D. most likely sink Ans : D 3879.since accumulations of hydrogen sulfide gas can be dangerous to personnel , it is important to know that this gas is A.lighter than air B. heavier than air C. a yellow gas that is easily recognized D. midly toxic 3880. the purpose of the inclining experiment on a ship is to determine A. lightweight and lightweight center of gravity location B. the position of the center of buoyancy C. the position of the metacenter D. the maximum load line

3937. On a tank vessel, which of the following substances would be burning in class B fire ? A. B. C. D. Oil Wood Rags Electrical wiring Answer: A

3939.Dry chemical extinguishing agents are effective when used A. with any foam extinguishing agents B. strictly in a cooling capacity

C. with any other dry extinguishing agents D. materials that contain their own oxygen Answer: D 3941.Radiation can spread a fire by A. B. C. D. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ships metal burning liquids flowing into another space heated gases flowing through ventilation systems the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space Answer: D

3943.Fire hoses should always be stowed at the fire main in a manner which allow A. B. C. D. all sections to be quickly connected the nozzle end to be run out to the fire all sections to be quickly drained the nozzle and fittings to be easily and quickly inspected cable Answer: B

3945.The off-load release system on a survival craft is designed to be activated A. B. C. D. when there is no load on the cable when there is a load on the cable only the doors are closed when the engine is started Answer: A

3947.If the engine of a survival craft does not start, check to see A. B. C. D. if the fuel valve is open if the air supply system is open if the water sparkler system is open if the limit switch is one your dri Answer: A

3949.Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will A. B. C. D. reduce your drift rate keep the survival craft from turning over aid in recovering the survival craft increase your visibility Answer: A

3951.To properly maintain fire hoses, you should

A. B. C. D.

keep them rolled tightly in the rack with female coupling protected keep exterior linings damp by periodic washdowns thoroughly drain them after each use keep them partly filled with fresh water Answer: C

3953.A class C fire would most likely occur in the A. B. C. D. engine room bilges main switchboard paint locker rag bin Answer: B

3955.When fighting a fire with a dry chemical extinguisher you should always A. B. C. D. direct the stream of chemical towards the base of the fire attack the fire from the leeward side bounce the chemical onto the fire from adjacent structural members spray the chemical across the top of the flames Answer: A

3957.If water is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you should first A. abandon the survival craft 3938.Fire detecting systems on merchant vessels may be ranged to sense A. B. C. D. smoke rate of temperature rise ionized particles all of the above Answer: D

3940.Steering a survival craft broadside to the sea could cause it to A. B. C. D. capsize run smoother run faster sink Answer: A

3942.Which of the following conditions is a symptom of heat stroke A. cold and moist skin, high body temperature

B. cold and dry skin, low body temperature C. hot and moist skin, high body temperature D. hot and dry skin, high body temperature Answer: D 3944.When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air, they are used for A. B. C. D. personnel air supply additional floatation priming the sprinkler system filling the self-righting bags Answer: A

3946.A fire hose should be stowed in its rack with the A. B. C. D. hose sections disconnected foam nozzle attached all-purpose nozzle attached hose sections rolled separately Answer: C

3948.Small oil spills on deck maybe prevented from entering the water by A. B. C. D. keeping the drip pans empty plugging all scuppers and drains placing floating booms alongside the ship closing ullage openings between soundings Answer: B

3950. To effectively treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion, you should A. B. C. D. administer artificial respiration put him in a tub of ice water give him sips of cool saline solution take his blood pressure Answer: C

3952.During the towing of a survival craft, a lookout should be on station to A. B. C. D. release the towline in an emergency help the helmsman steer look for food and water check water level in the bilge Answer: A

3954.When retrieving the survival craft, the winch operator should stop the winch and check A. B. C. D. that all personnel are seated in the craft that the cable has not jumped any grooves on the drum which way the wind is blowing the hydraulic fluid level before lifting Answer: B

3956.Releasing oil from the sea anchor of a survival craft may A. B. C. D. keep the propeller from being fouled increase propeller speed help calm spray given off from the waves in the vicinity of the craft increase the holding power of the sea anchor Answer: C

3958.The air cylinder bottles in the survival craft should be refilled with A. oxygen

3920.It shall be insured that the fuel tank of each motar propelled life boat is emptied and the fuel is changed atleast once every A 3months B 6months C 12months D 24months Answer C

3921.If a boiler has been laid up dry for an extended period it will be unsafe to enter the steam and water drum immediately after it has been opened for as they are may be A insufficient oxygen to support life B heavy concentration of sewer gas C excessive carbondioxide in the drum D toxic gases from organic decomposition Answer A 3922.When treating a chemical burn you should flood the burned area for atleast A 5minutes B 10minutes C 15minutes D 20minutes

Answer A 3923.In addition to the life jacket stowed in places that they are readily accessible life jacket must be stowed at

A mess room B each life boat C each manned watchstation D each fire station

Answer C 3924.Before entering any space that has been sealed oxygen level should be tested what level of oxygen in space is equal to fresh air A 0.18

B 0.198 C 0.208 D 0.218

Answer C 3925.In the material of the substance involved in the class B fire can be burning A diesel oil B magnesium C dunnage D electrical insulation

Answer A 3926.Which of the following precations should be taken in treating burns caused by contact with dry lins A water should be applied in a fine spary B the burned area should be immersed in a water C the entire burn area should be covered with ointment D before washing the lime should be brushed away gently

Answer D 3927.The document certifying the correctness of the load line marks on aship is called A certificate of inspection B load line certificate C certificate of documentation D solas certificate

Ans b 3928.A load line assigned to the shipto insure adequate stability and A mooring tension B riser tension C lifesaving equipmemt D structural strength Ans d 3929.Burning paint,turpentine or greases would be example of which of the following classesof fire A class a B class b C class c Classd Ans b 3930.The international oil pollution prevention certificate is valid for a period of A.one year from the date of issue B.two years from the date of issue C.three years from the date of issue D.fous years from the date of issue Ans:D 3931.Where would you find a FCC authorization for transmitting on your rigs EPIRB? A. B. C. D. Ans:A 3932.After having activated the emergency position indicating radio deacon you should On the ship station license. On the side of the EPIRB transmitter I the radio log On the certificate of inspection

A. B. C. D. Ans:D

Turn it off for five minutes Turn it off and on at five minute interval Turn it off during day light hours Leave it on continuosly

3933.A class b fire would most likely occur in the . A. B. C. D. Main switch board Engine room bilge Breathing compartment Electric fresh water transfer pump

Ans :b 3934.With no alternative but to jump from the ship the correct posture should include A. Holding down the life jacket against the chest with one arm crossing the other covering the mouth and nose with the hand and feet together B. Knees bent and held close to the body with both arms around legs C. Body straight and arms straightly at the sides for feet first entering into the water D. Both hands holding the life jacket below the chin with knees bent and legs crossed Ans :a 3935.Which of the following classes of fire would probably occur in the fire room bilges A class a B class b C class c Classd Ans b 3936. In the typical automatic fire alarm system which of the listed actions will cause An indication of the fire to be given in the annunciator cabinet? A. B. C. D. A rising temperature will activate the thermostat The fire alarm test push button is operated A manual fire alarm box is activated All the above

Ans :d

4027 when taking samples of a tank atmosphere with an explosimeter you should ____
A. B. C. D. Only sample around the deck longitudinals as gases are lighter than air Sample only near the ullages openings as all vapour accumulate there Avoid sampling in the vicinity of deep webs to prevent false readings Sample as much of the tank as possible especially at the bottom

Ans- D 4028 when whistle signals are used as commands for llaunchings the lifeboats one short blast means __
A. B. C. D. Use flot-free method only Lower all boats Raise all boats Drill is over secure all boats

Ans B 4029 in cleaning up an oil spill the use of straw fibers would be an ex of which type of oil removel?
A. B. C. D. Chemical agent removal Mechanical removal Absorbant removal None of the above

Ans-C 4030 most important to remember when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand is to___
A. B. C. D. open the CO2 inflation valve open the raft cointainer ensure that the operating cord is secured to the vessel inflate raft on vessel then lower it over the side

Ans-c 4031 what information can be obtained from a marine chemists certificate on tank barge?
A. B. C. D. Number of free extinguishers required onboard Quality of barge cargo Tanks which are safe to enter when certificate was issued Barge stability info

Ans-C 4032 symptoms of sugar diabetes include___

A. B. C. D. Increased appetite and thirst Decreased appetite and thirst Gain in weight Elevated temperature

Ans-A 4033 hydrocarbon vapors are detected by use of ____

A. B. C. D. Flames safetly lamp Combustible gas indicator Gasometer Oxygen indicator

Ans-B 4034 what statement about immersion suits is false ?

A. Suit should be worn only when abandoning ships B. Suits is received from manufacturer in an outer a storage bag that should be used aboard ship for storing suit C. Front zipper should be lubricated accordingly to manufacturers specifications D. Immersion suits provides protection against hypothermia even if ther is small leak

Ans-A 4035 ullage reading in the distantance given point at ____

A. Sounding tube to either side of track

B. Top of tank down to bottom of tank C. Top of liguid down to tank bottom D. Top of sounding tube down to surface of liquid

Ans-D 4036 infiatable liferaft is hand launched by____

A. B. C. D. Pulling a cord Cutting the wire restraining bands Removing the rubber packing strips Throwing the entire cointainer overboard

Ans-D 4037 If a person with diabetes has been injured symptoms of onset of a diabetic coma would include___
A. B. C. D. Reduced appetite and thirst Sneezing and coughing Excessive thirst and fever Slurred speech and loss of coordination

Ans-C 4038 most effective method in the use of co2 fire extinguisher is fir discharge to be directed at ___
A. B. C. D. Middle of fire Top and sides of a fire Base or nearest edge of a fire Highest flames of fire

Ans-C

4039 chemical material as listed on a material safety data sheet that can undergo sudden and violent release of pressure and heat is called ___
A. Combustion B. Explosive C. Flammable

D. toxic

Ans-B 4040 when firing a prototype distress signal it should be aimed ___
A. B. C. D. Into wind Straight ahead At vessel whose attention you want to attract Approximately 60deg above the horizon

Ans-D 4041 oil transfer procedures aboard a tanker transferring oil are not required to cointain ___
A. Name of the person designated as person in charge of transfer B. Line diagram of the vessel oil transfer piping C. Special procedures for topping off tanks

Ans-A 4042 which of the following operations should be carried out when launching an inflatiable liferaft by hand Ans make sure operating cord is secured to the vessel before throwing it over the side 4043 materials listed on a material saftely data sheet that violently self reacts under commonly occurring conditions is called ___
A. B. C. D. Pyrophic Toxic Explosives Unstable

Ans-D 4044 Most beneficialassistance for a person having an epileptic convulsion is to ___ Ans Keep him from injuring himself

4045 what is purpose of explosimeter

A. To identify combustible gases B. To detect combustible gases

Ans-B 4046 bayonel catch on an all purpose nozzle is used to latch in ____
A. Mechanical form nozzle B. Mechanical foam pick up tube C. High velocity fog tip

Ans-c 4047 what terms is listed on a material saftety sheet to describe a chemical that can produce life threatening health hazard
A. B. C. D. Low toxicity Recommended toxicity Moderate toxicity High toxicity

Ans-D 4048 your vessel is taking on bunkers from a shore side facility if oil begins from one one tank vent which of the following actions should be taken Ans signal the shore control point to shutdown 4050 which health hazard term is listed on a material safety data sheet is to indicate that contact with substance will freeze body tissue on contact Ans Cryogenic 4053 which of following symptoms would be indicated if a persons appendix ruptured Ans mussle tensserness in entire abdomen 4054 physical data term on a material safety data sheet describibng if a liquid is lighter or heaver than water is ____

Ans specific gravity 4055 the all purpose is capable of producing a solid stream of water ____ Ans and high velocity water fog 4056 which of following conditions is NOT a function of covered lifr boat pressuired air supply Ans pressurissesthe water spray system 4057 if you wish to remove an inflatable from its cradle to free it is by Ans pushing the plunger on the center of hydrostatic release 4058 ewhen you notice oil on the water near your vessel while taking on fuel you should first Ans Stop loading 4059 when a patient is suspected of having appendicitis the pain should be relieved by Ans keeping a ice bag over the location 4060 ethylene oxide has a lower explosive limit of 2% and an upper explosive limit of 100% By volume of air this means Ans there is no possible ethyelene oxide concentration in air which is too rich to burn 4061 according to regulations a person who discharge plastic or garbage mixed with plastic is liable for_____
A. B. C. D. Civil penality A fine Imprisonment for 5 yrs All the above

Ans-D 4062 seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking motions which affect fluids in the ______
A. B. C. D. Stomach Lower intestine Inner ear Bladder

Ans-C 4063 a chemical that causes a substantial proportion of exposed people or animals to develop an allergic reaction in normal tissue after repeated exposure is listed on material safely data sheet (MSDS) as a A B C D Ans: c 4064 A B C D Progressive flooding on a ship may be indicated by ballast control alarms excessive drift excessive list or trim a continual worsening of list or trim Skin contact hazard physical hazard sensitizer skin absorption hazard

Ans : A 4065 using a sea anchor will

A B C D

reduce the drift rate of the liferaft keep the liferaft from turning over aid in recovering the liferaft increases your visibility

4066 while taking on fuel , notice oil on the water around the vessel which of the following actions should be taken FIRST? A B C D Ans: A 4067 the primary corcern in aiding a back injury patient is A B C D Ans:B 4068 the most practical method of extinguishing a class Afire ,involving burning dunnage ,is to use A B C chemical foam a hand portable co2 extinguishers purple k powder and light water relieving thepatients pain by giving aspirin or stronger medication avoiding possible injury to the spinal cord by incorrect handling preventing convulsions and muscle spasms cause by the injury providing enough fluids to prevent dehydration stop fueling notify the dispatcher notify the terminal superintendent determine if your vessel is the source

D Ans:D

water

4069 in order to produce a high velocity water fog using an all purpose nozzle,you must A B C D Ans:A 4070 which of the following should NOT be done for a person who has fainted ? A B C D Ans:C 4071 if an incorrect entry were made in the oil record book ,youshould A erase the entry and rewrite it provide fresh air loosen clothing elevate head stimulate face with cold water pull the nozzle handle half way back push the nozzle handle completely forward insert an in-line fog applicator change to small nozzle tip after changing the position of the nozzle handle

B notify the ship s officer-in-charge C completely black it out and make the correct entry alongside D draw a single line through the wrong entry and initial it Ans:D

4072 generally,when lifting an inilatable liferaft back aboard ship,you would use the A B C D Ans:A 4073 a crack, located in the shell plating of a ship,may be temporarily prevented from increasing in length by A B C D Ans:A 4074 which of the following procedures canbe used for checking for spinal vord damage to an unconscious patient? A . Beginning at the back of the neck and proceeding to the buttocks press the spine to find where it hurts B prick the skin of the hands and the soles of the feet with a sharp object to check for reactiom C selectively raise each arm and leg and watch patients face to see if he registers pain. D roll patient onto his stomach and prick along the length of his spine to check reaction drilling a hole at each end of the crack installing welded brackets across both ends v-groving and welding from both sides of the crack cutting a square notch at each end of the crack towing bridle main weather cover external lifelines righting strap

ANS:B 4075 First aid treatment for battery acid or alkali burns especially in the eyes includes A flushing with large amounts of fresh water and seeking medical attention ashore or by radio B wiping the affected area with a clean dry cloth and resting quietly for several hours C drying the acid or alkali with a rag followed by applying a light cream D all of the above may be acceptable treatments depending on the severity of the burn Ans: a 4076 where would you look to find out what your duties are during a fire? A SOLAS regulations B certificate of inspection C muster list D ships articles Ans:c 4077 when off loading a garbage to another ship your records must identify that ship by name and____________ A home port B operator name of record C official number D master name

ANS:c 4078 the best means ofcombating an oilfire on the surface of the water surrounding a vessel tied to the pier isto use
a. b. c. d. Water fog over the fire Solid water steams directly into thefire Dry chemical around the fire Foam directed against the vessel side

Ans:d 4079 in the order to find out which life boat you are aasinged you should look at the.. A.fire control plan b.Certificate of inspection

c.muster list d.shiop articles ans:c 4080 after the launching an inflatable raft should be kept dry inside by a.opening the automatic drain plugs b.draining the water pockets c.using the electric bilge pump d.using the bailers and cellulose sponage ans:d 4081what is the required gas supply capacity of an inert gas system? a.125% of forced draft rate

b.125% of shore side loading rate c.125% of cargo pump capcity d.125% of fan capacity ans:c 4082an inert gas system is desing ed to reduce the possibility of tank explosion by.. a.eliminating sparks and fire in the vicinity of cargo tanks b.removing all hydrocarbon gases from thecargo tanks c.blanketing cargo tanks with inert foam d.reducing the oxygen concentration below levels necessary for combustion ans:d 4083. Firehose can be used for purpose other than firefighting service when________. A. used for portable water service B. used for drills and testing C. determined by the chief engineer D. approved by Master Ans: B 4084. The three positions of an all-purpose fire nozzle are____________. A. forward off, center fog, back: solid stream B. forward: solid stream, center, fog ,bag: off C. forward: fog , center, solid stream, back: off

D. forward: off, center: solid stream, back:fog Ans: A 4085. A vessel sailing through the specific special areas may discharge or dispose of___________. A. incinerated ash at anytime B. fairly dense material that will sink, i.e. metal cans or glass bottles at anytime C. victual waste when at least 12 nautical miles from shore D. absolutely no garbage at anytime Ans: C 4086. Where there are multiple accident victims ,which injuries should be the FIRST to receive emergency treatment ? A. Major multiple fractures B. eye injuries C. Back injuries with spinal cord damage D. Airway and breathing difficulties Ans: D 4087. Where there are multiple accident victims , which type of injury should be the first to receive emergency treatment? A. Serve shock B. Eye injuries C. Burns D. Major multiple fracture Ans: A

4088. The purpose of the four water pockets, located on the underside at each corner of the raft ,is to ________. A. stow rain water , these four spaces will not take up valuable space B. act as stabilizers by filling with sea water as soon as raft is inflated and in an upright position C. hold the fresh water required by regulation to be provided in the raft when packed D. none of the above Ans: B 4089 in managing a situation involving multiple injuries ,the rescuer must be able to A.provide the necessary ineducation B.rapidly evaluate the seriousness of obivious injurious C accuratetly diagonise the ailment or injury D prescribe treatment for the victim Ans:B 4090 when an oil fire has been extinguished ,the surfaceof the oil should be kept covered with foam to prevent A air from contacting the oil vapours permitting reignition B boiling of the heated oil C spontaneous combustion below the oil surface D toxic fumes from escaping to the surface Ans:a

4091 after an injury ,which of the following can be determinate by examining the condition of a victims pupils ? A the degree of pain being suffered B the degree of vision impairment C wether or not the brain is functioning properly D whether or not the victims blood pressure is normal Ans:c 4092when fighting an oil or gasoline fire ,which of the listed fire extinguish agents should NEVER be sprayed A .high velocity fog B .dry chemical C .low velocity fog D .steam smothering Ans : b 4093 what is the primary purpuose of a spint applied in frist aid? A .reduce pain B .control bleeding C .immobblize a frature D .reset the bone Ans :c 4094 bleeeinding from a vein may be ordinary control by ________ A .pinching the wond closed

B .applying direct pressure to the wond C .heavy application of a disinfectant D .pouring ice water directly into the wound Ans .b 4095 on most make of inflamablie liferaft the batteries to operate the light on the inside of the raft can be made to last longer by ___________ A .unscrewing the bulb during the daylight B .operting the switch for the light C .taking no action as there is no way of preserving power D taking no action as they shut off automatically in daylight Ans:b 4096 fires resulting from spontaneous combustion are usually caused by the improper disposal of A cigarette butts B oily rags

C burner torches D lighted mathes Ans:b 4097 immediately after a class Bfire has been extinguished by the use of foam ,crewmen should A carefully apply a low velocity fog over the foam blanket B tade through the faom blanket to evently distribute the foam

C be careful not to disturb the foam blanket D sweep the foam blanket overboard and secure firefighting equipment Ans c 4098 in all but the most severe ceases bleeding from a wound shoude be controll by ______________ A .applying a tourniquet B .cooling the wound C .submering the wound in lukewarm water D .applying direct pressure ot the wound Ans .d
4099. A person suffered from laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing What would u do next ? Apply a torniqiuet to prevent bleeding from restarting. Apply a pressure bandage over the dressing. Remove any small foreign matter and apply antiseptic. Administer fluid to assist the body in replacing the lost blood. Ans: B according to regulations, a pressure-demand, open circuit, self contained breathing apparatus shall have a minimum of air supply. 30 45 60 90 Ans: A minutes and direct pressure.

A. B. C. D.

4100.

A. B. C. D.

4101. A. B. C. D.

spontaneous combustion can occur in Paint thinner in an open can. Fuel accumulated in the bilge. Oily rags stored in an unvented compartment. Gasoline stored in steel drums. Ans: C the rescuer can best provide an air-tight seal during mouth-to- mouth resuscitation by pinching the victims nostrils and Cupping a hand around patients mouth. Keeping the head elevated. applying his mouth tightly over the victims mouth. Holding the jaw down firmly.

4102. A. B. C. D.

Ans: B 4103. A. B. C. D. which of the following listed fire extinguishing agent would be incorrect for the direct use on a gasoline or oil fire ? A solid stream of water. Low velocity water fog. High velocity water fog. Mechanical fire fighting foam. Ans: A which of the following below is classified as grade E combustible liquid ? Benzene. Bunker C. Very light naphtha. Most commercial gasoline. Ans: B which statement is FALSE regarding halon as a fire extinguishing agent? It is more effective than CO2. It leaves no residue. It is non corrosive. It is always non toxic. Ans: D which of the circumstances listed is an exception to the garbage discharge requirements in Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 ? The garbage t be discharged will sink. Garbage accumulated onboard has exceeded storage space. A person falls overboard, and a plastic ice chest is thrown for floatation. The destination port or terminal cannot receive garbage. Ans: C the most likely place for a fire to start through the process of spontaneous combustion is in An electric switchboard. The pressure tanks. The fuel oil tanks. The oily rag bin. Ans: D when welding or burning is aboard a vessel, you must be certain that the space A. B. C. D. Is properly vented. Contains no oil in the bilges. Has no oil in the bilges. All the above. Ans: D you are fighting a class B fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed At the seat of the fire, starting at the edge. Over top of the fire. At the main body of the fire. To bank off a bulkhead onto the fire. Ans: A if a small fire initially breaks out in the engine room bilges, in which of the following sequences should the fire extinguishing agents or systems be used ?

4104. A. B. C. D.

4105. A. B. C. D.

4106. A. B. C. D.

4107. A. B. C. D.

4108.

4109. A. B. C. D.

4110.

A. B. C. D.

Fixed CO2, semi-portable CO2, then hand portable CO2. Semi-portable CO2, fixed CO2, then hand portable CO2. hand portable CO2, Semi-portable CO2, then last as a resort fixed CO2 system. hand portable CO2, fixed CO2, then last as a resort semi-portable CO2 system. Ans: C which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature ? Foam. CO2. Water stream. Water foam. Ans: B

4111. A. B. C. D.

4112. you are about to enter a compartment to investigate a suspected smoldering fire. If youre not wearing a self contained breathing apparatus, you should test the compartments atmosphere to determine is/are A. B. C. D. sufficient oxygen to to sustain human life. An explosive mixture in the compartment. A toxic atmosphere in the compartment. All the above Ans: D liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their Shape. Shallow draft. Large sail area. All the above. Ans: D all the following are the part of fire triangle except Fuel. Oxygen. Heat. Electricity. Ans: D a tourniquet should be used to control bleeding ONLY With puncture wounds. When the victim is unconscious. When all other means have failed. To prevent bleeding from minor wounds Ans: C the best way to combat an engine room bilge fire is through the use of a Dry chemical extinguisher and solid stream water. Foam extinguisher and low velocity water. Foam extinguisher and solid velocity water. Foam and soda acid extinguisher. Ans: B the date of each fire and boat drill conducted on ship must be recorded In the official log book. In the operations manual. On the certificate of inspection. On the muster list.

4113. A. B. C. D.

4114. A. B. C. D.

4115. A. B. C. D.

4116. A. B. C. D.

4117. A. B. C. D.

Ans: A 4118. A. B. C. D. to produce a low velocity water fog spray with all-purpose fire hose nozzle, you must Push the nozzle handle completely forward. Change the fire pump discharge pressure. Pull the nozzle handle completely back. Insert a low velocity fog applicator. Ans: D which of the following practices should be avoided since it represents a fire hazard? Smoking near the burner front. Smoking near the machine shop. Stowing oily rags in a paint locker. Stowing acetylene bottles in a vertical position. An: C when administering mouth to mouth resuction to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many rates per minute?

4119. A. B. C. D.

4120. A. B. C. D.

Ans: C 4121. A. B. C. D. when taking on fuel it is important to remember that petroleum vapours are Not volatile unless the ambient air temperature exceeds 32oC Lighter than air and dissipate rapidly. Unlikely to ignite except in the presence of an open flame. Heavier than air and may enter bilges and/or deckhouse. Ans: D if you hear the sound of air escaping from the liferaft jus after it has inflated, you should Quickly hunt for the hole before the raft deflates. Check the sea anchor line for a tear if the sea is rough. Check the painter line attachment for the tear caused by initial opening. Not panic as the relief valves allow excess pressure to escape. Ans: D the only portable equipment permitted in a compartment which is not gas free is a lamp that is Battery fed. Self contained. Approved explosion proof. All the above. Ans: D

4122. A. B. C. D.

4123. A. B. C. D.

4124. the fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system has been activated to extinguish a large engine room bilge fire. When is the best time to vent the combustible products from engine room ? A. B. C. D. Immediately after the fire is extinguished. One half-hour after the fire is extinguished. After the metal surface have cooled down. Before any personnel in fireman outfit reenters the engine room. Ans: C which dangerous condition should be kept in mind after usin a portable CO2 extinguisher on a small oil fire on the engine room floor

4125. plates ?

A. B. C. D.

Possible surfocation from the CO2. Forgetting to secure the engine room ventilaton system. CO2 gas being drawn into nearby engine or air compressor intakes. Rekindling of the fire. Ans: D petroleum vapors are heavier than air and A. B. C. D. Will normally dissipate rapidly. Will always form explosive vapors below 0oC ambient. May collect in ships bilge. Are of no concern of the wind is blowing. Ans: C

4126.

4127. A. B. C. D. 4128. A. B. C. D.

which portable fire extinguisher is recharged in shore facility ? Dry chemical(cartridge-operated) water(cartridge-operated) water(pump tank) carbon dioxide. which extinguishing agent is best for use in electrical fire Foam Co2 Dry chemical Water fog Ans: B you have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which of the following procedures should be used during a prolonged period in a

4129. liferart ? A. B. C. D.

Wet clothes during day to decrease perspiration. Get plenty of rest. Keep the entrance curtains open. All the above. Ans: D it is necessary to cool the bulkheads and decks surrounding a compartment where there is fire in order to Cool the metal below. Form a dense coating of smothering stream. Prevent oxygen from reaching the flames. Prevent the fire from spreading by the conduction of heat. Ans: D which of the listed extinguishing agents is NOT suitable for fighting a liquid paint fire ? Dry chemical. Foam. Water. Carbon dioxide. Ans: C as its temperature rises, the volume of fuel oil in the tanks will Remain the same. Increase. Decrease. None of the above.

4130. A. B. C. D.

4131. A. B. C. D.

4132. A. B. C. D.

Ans: B 4133. A. B. C. D. if you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is Drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter. Find some wood for fire. Get the provisions out of raft. Set the raft back out to sea so someone may spot it. Ans: A combustible material stored in a compartment adjacent to a compartment where there is a fire may be ignited. This ignition can

4134. occur by A. B. C. D.

Heat convection through the adjacent bulkheads. Combustion gases carried through the ventilation system. Direct convection of the heat emitted by the adjacent fire. Heat radiated from the deck or bulkhead by the adjacent fire. Ans: D the spreading of fire as a result of heat being carried through a vessels ventilation system, is an example of Conduction Convection Radiation Windage

4135. A. B. C. D.

Ans.B

4136. A. B. C. D.

if the water level is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you should first Abandon the survival craft. Check for cracks in the hull Shift all personnel to stern Check the bilge drain plug

Ans. D 4137. Which of the listed type of fires would the in the illustration, be suitable for extinguishing? A. Mattress fire B.Fire in an electronics console C. Small oil fire on the engine room floor plates D. Fire in an ullage opening Ans. C fire extinguisher, shown

4138. The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering a liferaft is to A. assist in sleeping B. reduce appetite by decreasing nauses C. prevent loss of body moisture by vomiting D. prevent impaired judgement due to motion-induced deliriousness. Ans.C 4139. If a fire ignites in the engine room as a result of a high pressure fuel oil leak, you should FIRST A. secure the ventilation B. find a soda acid extinguisher C. shut off the fuel oil supply D. secure he generator Ans. C 4140. When abandoning ship, after launching the motor life boat you should A. plot course for nearest land B. go only with the direction of the sea. C. stay in the immediate area D. go in one direction until the fuel gets over 4141. The four basic components of a fire are fuel, heat, oxygen and a chain reaction. Which of the following statements best describes what must be eliminated to extinguish a fire ? A. Any one component can be eliminated to extinguish a fire

B. Any two components must be eliminated to properly extinguish a fire. C. Any three components must be eliminated to properly extinguish a fire. D. All four components must be eliminated o extinguish any fire. Ans. A 4142.Which of the following statements holds true for both co2 and H-ion 1301 fixed extinguishing systems? A. A cylinder is considered satisfactory if its weight is within 10% of the stamped full weight of the charge. B. If a protected space is ventilated mechanically, the ventilation system must be automatically shutdown by the release of the agent C. To avoid confusion during an emergency situation, there should be only one action necessary(such as a single pull box) to activate the system. D. all of the above. Ans. B 4143. A sprinkler head activated by the melting of a fusible link is installed on a ship. Which of the following statements is true regarding these devices? A. sprinkler heads installed in the living spaces would have a higher melting point fusible link than those installed in the galley. B. sprinkler heads installed in the living spaces Would have a higher melting point fusible link than those installed I the living spaces. C. sprinkler heads installed in the galley and living spaces would have the same fusible link melting point. D. None of the above , sprinkler heads with fusible links are prohibited aboard vessels.

Ans. B 4144. If a fire occurs in the boiler room as a result of a leaking fuel line, you should FIRST A. notify the engineer on watch B. isolate and secure the piping C. throw sand on the fire D. extinguish the fire using a combination nozzle with applicator. Ans. B Ans. B 4145.A fire cannot exist if which of the listed elements is removed from the fire? A. oxygen B. Fuel C. Heat D. All the above 4146. Which of the following hazards is associated with the handling of petroleum products? A. Fire B. Explosion C. Asphyxiation D. All of the above 4147. Breathing problem vapors is hazardous and may cause A. temporary blindness

B. permanent deafness C. severe internal bleeding D. unconsciousness and death 4148. When making entries in the oil record book , all quantities should be A. recorded as cubic meter with a conversion to barrels B. verified by the chief engineer C. recorded directly from the oil discharge monitor. D. consistently recorded through the oil record book in one specified unit (gallons, barrels, cubic meters) Ans. D 4149.When combating an oil fire in a deep tank aboard ship, water fog can be used to extinguish the fire and A. contain the burning liquid B. prevent any deformation of the tank top C. cool the surrounding metal D. eliminate flammable combustion gases Ans. C 4150.Which of the listed tanks presents the greatest potential for an explosion? A. A full tank of diesel oil B. A partially filled tank of diesel oil C. A full tank of lubricating oil D. A partially filled tank of hydraulic oil Ans. B

4151.On a vessel with lifeboats on both sides , the No.2 lifeboat would be located A. forward of lifeboat No.4 on the starboard side B. forward of lifeboat No.4 on the port side C. aft of lifeboat No.1 on the starboard side D. All the above 4152. Which of the following conditions is true concerning a inflammable liquid with a concentration above the upper explosive limit? A. The mixture is too lean to burn. B. The mixture is too rich to burn. C. The vapor is about to explode. D. Conditions are perfect for combustion Ans. B 4153. The No.2 lifeboat on a tanker would be found A. forward port side B. forward starboard side C. aft of No.1 life boat port side D.aft of No. 1lifeboat starboard side 4154. The FIRST course of action in fighting a fire in a cargo or fuel oil tank is to A. secure all openings to the tank. B. discharge an intial of co2 with a hand portable extinguisher . C. direct a fire hose into the tank and energize the fire main D. spray the tank boundaries with a fire hose to promote cooling

Ans. A 4155. While working in the engine room, you hear seven short blasts followed by one long blast on the ships whistle supplemented by the same signal on the general alarm bells. You should A. start the fire pump to charge the fire alarm B. standby the main console and await order from the engineer on watch C. go to your fire station D. go to your lifeboat station. Ans. D 4156. Which of the following steps should normally be taken first by those who have boarded a life boat in an emergency situation? A. Ration food and water supplies B. Take anti-seasickness pills C. determine position and closest point of land D. Check pyrotechnic supplies Ans. D 4157. Before attempting to put out a class C fire involving an electric driven centrifugal pump, you should FIRST A. insulate your shoes B. ground the fore hose C. secure its power supply D. start the fire pump Ans.c

4158. Gasoline is a flammable liquid whose vapors are A. heavier than air B. toxic C. highly explosive D. all the above Ans. D 4160. When fighting an electrical fire, you should first A. stop ventilation to the area B. stop the vessel C. secure electrically to the circuit D. apply co2 to the fire Ans. C 4161. If the buoyant force on a ships hull is equal to or greater than the displacement tonnage , the ship will A. require ballest added to only the port side tanks B. be down by the head C. sink D. float Ans. D 4162. Diesel fuel is relatively safe to handle due to its low volatility , but the fumes will self-ignite and continue to burn steadily if the fuel is heated to the A. flash point

B. auto ignition point C. volatility point D. upper explosive limit Ans. B 4163. When a vessel is inclined due to an external force, such as the action of seas in which no cargo shifts , the tendency of the vessel to return to its original position is caused by the shift in A. center of buoyancy B. center of gravity C. center of floation D. meta centric radius Ans. A 4164. Class C fires may be combated using a A. dry chemical extinguisher B. carbon dioxide extinguisher C. halon extinguisher D. all of the above Ans. D 4165.Which of the following represents the emergency signal for fire aboard ship? A. More than six short blasts and one long blast on the whistle. B. Continuous blast of the ships for a period of not less than 10 seconds supplemented by the same signal on the general alarm.

C. Three short blasts of the whistle supplemented by the same signal on the gene alarm D. More than six short blasts and one long blasts on the whistles supplemented by the same signal on the general alarm. Ans.B 4166.which of the listed fire extinguishers should be used on an electrical board on ship? A. dry chemical extinguisher B. carbon dioxide extinguisher C. halon extinguisher D. all of the above. Ans.C 4167. Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed is the safest to use when combating a class c fire? A. co2 B. foam C. water fog D. aid Ans. A 4169. A continuous blasts of the whistle for a period of not less than10 seconds , supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds, would indicate a A. fire B. collision

C.man overboard D. flooded compartment Ans. A 4170. Before making any welded repairs to the internals to the internals of a vessels fuel tank in a port, the tank must be examined by A. the chief engineer B. the master of the vessels C. a certified marine chemist D. the insurance under writer Page 225

4171. The principle effect of liquid free surface is dependent upon the volume of displacement of the vessel and the .. A) Height of liquid in the tank B) amount of liquid in the tank C) dimension of liquid surface D) weight of liquid in the tank ANS; D 4172. A fuel tank is considered to be gas free when the tank is. A) inerted with carbon dioxide for 24 hours B) free for most flammable gas concentration C) thoroughly ventilated for at least 24 hours

D) free for dangerous concentration of flammatle or toxic gasses ANS: 4173. Vessel stability is greatly affected when water or fuel tank are partially filled as a result of the A) free surface effect B) free communication effect C) increase of buoyancy D) decrease in draft ANS: A 4174. Which of the following precautions are necessary when using any electrical equipment in a hazardous location such as a pumproom? A) the pump room is to be gas free B) the adjacent compartment are to be gas free C) each compartment where flammable gas is expected to accumulate is to be closed and secured D) All the above ANS: D 4175. TO PREVENT AN EXPLOSION when the pump room is not been certified gas free and repairs are to be carried out the only type of portable electric equipments allowed in the pumproom would be an approved A) explosion proof self contained battery powered lamp B) hp electric hand drill C) drop lamp and explosion cords

D) portable hand grinder ANS: A 4176. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROCEDURES should be used to a cartridge operated dry chemical free extinguisher? A) make certain that the pressure cartridge has not been punctured

C) Ensure the dry chemical is not become cacked D) ALL the above ANS: D 4177. proper maintenance of dry chemical fire extinguisher will include. a)adding water to the powdered b) painting the co2 cartridge red c) puncturing the co2 cartridge d) shacking the extinguisher to loosen the caked up portion of the powder ANS: D 4178. AVESSEL whose fuel tanks are half full is subjected to.. a)free surface effect b)serious lose of reserve buoyancy c) sevore sagging d)severe hogging ANS: A

4179. WHEN reentering an engine room that has been flooded by co2 with the investigation team should initially. A) leave the access door partially open b) enter from lowest level c) enter from the highest level d) attempt to operate machinery ANS: C 4180. liquid petrolieum product will become electrically charged as a result of the .. a) splashing or spraying of oil into a tank b) movement of water droplets in an oil filled tank c) oil moving through the pipe lines d)all the above ANS: D 4181.fuel tank should never be filled by liquid through an open hatch or manhole because.. a) excessive fuel vapour will be released b) static electricity could be generated generated by falling through vapour laden air c) spillange of fuel could be occur with an open hatch d)water contamination of the fuel could occur ANS: B

4182. When the petroleum product are handled static electrictycan be generated by a)splashing or agitation of the fluids b) excessive pressure of the fluids c) low temperature fluids only d)low viscosity fluids only ANS: A 4183. the state of charge of a store pressure type dry chemical fire extinguisher can be readily determined by.. a) visual inspection of the pressure gage b)weighting the cylinder c) removing the lid and checking the level of dry chemical d) weighting the co2 cartridge ANS A 4184. WHEN fueling it is important to ground the ship with regard to static electricity therefore you must connect the a) fuel hosebefore the bonding cable b) bonding cable only if sparks are seen c) bonding cable before the fuel hose can been connected d) bonding cable through the ground fault circuit breaker ans:c 4185. to minimize the possibility of an explosion caused by the discharge of static electricity the vessel should

a) be electricity grounded to shore piping b) have its electrical equipment insulated from its structure c) have crew member use flashlight lamp rather than ac in vapour filled areas d)have cr4ew members use flame safety lamps during entry to areas that may be contain explosive fumes ans: a 4186. the correct method for connecting a grounding cables or bonding cables is to .. a) open switch connected ground cables close switch and connect cargo hose b) connected ground open switch and connect cargo hose c) close switch connect cargohose open switch and connect ground cable d) connect ground cable connect cargo cable hose, open switch and then close switch ans: a 4187. which of the following statement describes the advantage of using a halon fire extinguisher versus a co2 fire extinguisher? a) halon cools rather than smothers fine b) halon is more effective than co2 c) halon can extinguisher combustible metals fire d) halon is not toxic and safe to breatheunder all condition ans:b 4188. you may improve a vessel stability by a) keeping the fuel tanks topped off

b)increasing thefree surface tanks atleast half full c) keeping the fuel tanks at least half full d) keeping at least one tank empty for slopes ans: a 4189. the inclining experiment conducted on a merchant ship is the method for dertermining the exact location of the a) ships displacement in the sea water b)position of ship centre of gravity of buoyancy c) position of the ship centre of buoyancy d) position of the ship metacentre ans: b 4190. which statement is true concering halon 1301 fire extinguishing equipment? a) the agent is highly toxic under all condition b) the agent is less effective than co2 c) halon extinguishing the fire smothering d) the agent is a colour less odorlessgas ans: d 4191. if a vessel rolls to the stateboard side and there are no movable or moving weight onboard the centre of gravity will.. a)move to port b) move to state board c) move directly down

d) stay in the same position ans: d 4192. if weight added at the keel the ship centre of the gravity will. a) move down b) move up c) merge with the metacentre d)pass through the centre of flotation ans: a 4193. the stability of the vessel is normally the greatest when all fuel and water tanks are full because the.. a) centre of the gravity is lowered b) centre of buoyancy is lowered c) reverse buoyancy is uncharged d) hull freedom is increased ans: a 4194. if you have to abandon ship the EPIRB can be used to. a) hold the life boats head up into seas b) generate orange smoke c) seal leaks in rubber rafts d) send radio homing signal to searching aircraft ans: d

4195. what is the major advantage of the demand type self contained breathing apparatus? a) theeqipment is light weight and the wear can work without difficulty in confined spaces b) the average operating time is over an hour c) the speed with it can be put into operation is round 5seconds d)the regulator is designed to prove the user with quick adjustment to their supply by knob located near the pressure hose connection ans: c 4196. to operate a co2 fire extinguisher equipped with a squeeze grip handle you are to remove the locking pin and. a) raise the lower grip b) invert the extinguisher c) depress the upper grip d) rotate the cutter disc valvewheel ans: c 4197. annual servicing of a hand portable co2 fire extinguisher includes .. a) insoecting the pressure guage to ensure the needle is within operating range b) weighting the cylinder and recharging if weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight of the cylinder c) hydrostatic testing of the cylinder d)discharging ,cleaning inside and recharging ans: b

4198. while donning the self contained breathing apparatus you discover that the air cylinder pressure gage and the breathing differ from each other by 35bar which of the listed action you consider as appropriate? a)replace the defective gauges with a news pair from the sparts inventory b) replace the air cylinder with afull spare cylinder c) assume that the lower reading is correct d) take the average of the two gauges as the correct pressure ans: c 4199. which of the following statements describes the correct procedure for closing a water tight door? a) loosely set up one opposite side from the higes snugly set up two dogs on the hinge side than evenly set up the remaining dogs b) loosely sets up two dogs adjacent to the hinges snugly set up one dog on the opposite side set up all the remaining dogs c) snugly set up two dogs on the opposite side from two hinges then evenly set up all theremaining dogs d) loosely set up one dogs on the hinge side snugly set up two dogs on the opposite side from the hinges then evenly set up all the remaining dogs ans: a 4200. which of the fire extinguishers listed is to be weighed annually and sent ashore for reacharging if the weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight of the full charge? a) foam b) soda acid c) dry chemical

d) carbon di oxide ans: d 4201. portable carbon dioxide fire extinguishers must be recharged a) when the remaing charge volume is less than 90% of the required volume b) at each biennial c) at each annual inspection d) when the charge weight is 10% less than the required weight ans: d 4202. With of the load line marks the reason for the placements of mark WNAis a) more severe weather is expected in the north atlantic in winter b) more freeboard is required in north atlantic in winter c) lessdraft is allowed in the north atlantic in winter d)all the above ans: d 4203 Water pressure on the hull of a ship is greater at the A. bow B. stem C. keel D. boot topping Ans. C 4205 To prevent overpressurization when loading liquid petroleum

Products,cargo tanks should be filled with a/an

A. B. C. D. Pressure vacuum valve Ullage opening Overpressurization valve Equalizing line

Ans: A 4206 Pressure-vacuum relief valves on tank vessel cargo tanks should be Kept in good working order to prevent
A. B. C. D. Escape of explosive vapors Oil spillage on deck Entry of burning substances Damage to tank boundaries

Ans: D 4207 which of the precautions listed should be observed when taking on Diesel fuel?
A. B. C. D. Secure all lighting to the main deck Provide a portable fan to blow away fumes Prohibit smoking in the area Display a black triangle during daylight hours

Ans: C 4208 After ballasting a fuel tank, which of the listed valves should you Close FIRST?
A. B. C. D. Tank manifold filling valve Pump discharge valve Deck filling valve Sea suction valve

Ans: D 4209 During fueling operations oil is detected in the water adjacent to

your vessel. If however,it is determined to be from some source other than your vessel,you should
A. B. C. D. Secure operations until the exact type of oil is determined Make an entry in the oil record book to that effect Notify the port control All of the above

Ans: C 4210 The load on the top system used on many crude oil carriers, is to provide a method for
A. Calculating the ullage in the cargo tanks B. Loading ballast by gravity C. Maintaining clean ballast cargo tanks,and the loading of new cargo into the slop tank D. Calculating the ratio of cargo expansion in a cargo tank

Ans: C 4211 If you are loading a low temperature petroleum cargo you must Insure that
A. B. C. D. There is room for expansion The vents are sealed Vapor baffles are installed All of the above

Ans: A 4212 One consideration for determining the safest maximum rate at which bunker fuel may be removed is by the
A. B. C. D. Type of fuel transfer Size of the fuel storage tanks ashore Distance to the fuel storage tanks ashore Number of tanks to be filled

Ans: D 4213
A. B. C. D.

Fire main outlet valves,or hydrants shall be installed

In screened enclosures in all passageways Where they are protected from weather In a protected location to prevent cargo damage Pointing downward or horizontal to prevent cargo damage

Ans: D 4214 your ship has run aground and it is necessary to determine wheather or not a compartment has flooded. Therefore , you should
A. B. C. D. Open the watertight door and take a quick look Open the hatch dogs on the side away from the hinges Tap the bulkhead with a hammer to check for a water level Feel the bulkhead to see if it is hot

Ans: C 4215 If flammable liquids are being pumped with a centrifugal pump, you Should
A. B. C. D. Stop the pump immediately if it becomes vapor bound Throttle the discharge valve to assure positive pumping Vent the pump casing continuously to expel vapors Gag relief valves to prevent recirculating and heating of the liquid

Ans: A 4216 when preparing to pump flammable liquids with a centrifugal pump, You should
A. B. C. D. Lift the relief valve by hand to check its operation Draw a small quantity of liquid to prime the pump Have a standby pump running with the discharge valve closed Check for gland leakage and any fire hazard Ans: D

4217

Tankers carrying cryogenic cagoes , such as LNG ,are fitted with gas detector systems alarmed at 30% of the lower explosive limit.If the gas detector alarms sounds ,this means

A. The detector sensor is sampling a space where the cargo vapor Concentration is 30 percent by volume B. An explosion is about to take place C. The detector is sampling a space in which 30 percent of the atmosphere is explosive D. A flammable vapor concentration exists at the sample point, but it is too lean to burn

Ans: D 4218 An LNG carrier has an approved type of gas detecting system to detect methane leaks in the
A. B. C. D. Barrier spaces Cargo handling rooms Boiler burner supply piping All of the above

Ans: D 4219 which of the following statements describes how the main bank of CO2 bottles is released into an engine room from most fixed CO2 fire extinguishing systems?
A. B. C. D. Manually releasing the bottles in groups of four CO2 pressure from the pilot cylinders Steel wire trigger lines provided to all bottles in the main bank Remote pull cables provided to each group of four bottles in the main bank

Ans: B 4220 During fueling operations which of the listed precautions should be

Taken when topping off fuel tanks?

A. B. C. D. Reduce the pumping rate by closing the deck filling valve Close all overflow valves Place 20 litre containers under all flange connections in the fuel line Reduce the pumping rate and sound tanks frequently as the level rises

Ans: D

4221

When a fuel tank is being topped off during bunkering operations the tank valve should be closed

A. Slowly to prevent surge stresses B. To prevent gas from escaping through the pressure vacuum relief valves C. After the shore pumps are stopped D. Rapidly to prevent overflow

Ans: C 4222 The amount of expansion space to be left in a fuel tank when fuel oil Is being received , is determined by the
A. B. C. D. Quantity of the fuel to be received Flash point of the fuel as it is received Fuel temperature as it is received Viscosity of the fuel being received

Ans: C 4223 According to regulations, when loading , or discharging oil in bunk at a dock , which of the following signals must be played?
A. B. C. D. A red flag (day), red light (night) A yellow (day), red light (night) A green flag(day), green light (night) A signal is not required for discharging oil, only gasoline

Ans: A 4224 According to pollution prevention regulations , tank vessels are required to have a means of emergency shutdown. This device
A. B. C. D. Shuts off the main propulsion plant Shuts off the firefighting foam systems Stops the flow of oil to shore facility or other vessel Secures electrical power to all motors

Ans: C 4225 The emergency shutdown requirements of pollution prevention regulations apply to
A. B. C. D. Condensate pumps Air compressors Induced draft fans Cargo transfer systems

Ans: D 4226 where will you find the procedures for the reporting of oil discharge into the water?
A. B. C. D. The vessels certificate of inspection The vessels oil record book The vessels oil transfer procedures The vessels international oil pollution prevention certificate

Ans: C 4227 Portable carbon dioxide fire extinguishers should be sent ashore to be recharged
A. When the remaining charge volume is less than 90% of the required VOLUME B. At each inspection for certification C. At each annual inspection

D. When the weight loss exceeds 10%of weight of charge

Ans: D 4228 Inert gas systems fitted on tank vessels must be fitted with an alarm to give an audible and visual warning when the oxygen content of the inert gas exceeds
A. B. C. D. 4% by volume 8% by volume 12% by volume 16% by volume

Ans: B 4229 What is the required combined capacity for all fans in an inert gas system as related to the cargo pumps?
A. B. C. D. 0.5 0.75 1 1.25

Ans: D 4230
A. B. C. D.

Waste oil from the lube oil sumps of machinery may NOT be
Drained into the vessels bilges Reclaimed for other uses Held in a slop tank Purified and then reused

Ans: A 4231
A. B. C. D.

The purpose of deck seal in an inert gas system is to prevent

Flammable vapors from entering machinery space Flue gas escaping to atmosphere Inert gas escaping to atmosphere Air entering inert gas system

Ans: A 4232 The pollution prevention regulations state that ships oily bilge Slops may be pumped in port only if the
A. B. C. D. Local port authority gives permission Local port authority has completed the required pollution inspection Discharge is led to a slop barge or shore side tank Engineer on watch has signed the declaration of inspection

Ans: C 4233 Your vessel has run aground and upon taking fuel oil tank soundings , you find that a fuel tank level has increased . you therefore should suspect
A. B. C. D. Condensation in the fuel tank A crack in the hull position of the fuel tank A load of bad fuel Contamination from the saltwater flushing system

Ans: B 4234 According to regulation, a single layer flame screen of corrosion resistant wire is required to be of at least a mash of
A. B. C. D. 8x8 10x10 20x20 30x30

Ans: D 4235 A new ocean going ship of 2000 gross tons having an inoperative oily water separator may dispose of its bilge slops by
A. Holding its slops onboard until they can be pumped into the city Sewer system

B. Circulating them through the lube oil purifier to remove water and Debris C. Holding its slops onboard until they can be discharged to a shoreside Reception facility D. Pumping them into a settling tank for separation before pumping the oily water residue overboard

Ans: C 4236 Which of the following statements represents the correct action to take when three crew members discover a fire?
A. One man report the fire , and the other two men fight the fire B. One man report the fire , one man fight the fire , and one man evacuate and secure the area C. One man report the fire , one man fight the fire , and one man act as a Safetly observer D. All three men fight the and report it immediately after it is

extinguished Ans: B 4237 In an oil pumping operation where pumping connections are made up of flanged hoses the weakest link is the
A. B. C. D. E. Flange Hose Stud Bolt hole

Ans: B 4238 While on watch in the engine room , you hear a continuous sounding of the alarm. which of the following actions should you take?
A. Make an entry in the official logbook B. Open the master control valves on the fixed CO2 system C. Start the fire pump and check discharge pressure

D. Secure auxiliary condenser overboard discharge

Ans: C

Page 238 4239: According to Pollution Prevention Regulations, no person May connect or engage in any other critical oil transfer operations unless_______ A. B. C. D. The designated person-in-charge is present. That person holds a tankerman endorsements. That person holds a license as master , mate or engineer. That person holds a valid port security card.

Ans: A 4240: Which of the actions listed should be taken by the engineer on watch when the general alarm is sounded continuously for 10 seconds? A. B. C. D. Engine room ventilation should be started. Main engines should be secured. The fire pump should be started. The fixed CO2 system should be activated.

Ans: C 4241: Pollution Prevention Regulations specify that the person-in-charge of bunkering is responsible for the ________ A. B. C. D. Vessel draft Quantity of fuel received. Quality of fuel received. Communications with terminal operator.

Ans: D 4242: According to Pollution Prevention Regulations, how much hose should you use in transferring oil in bulk? A. Twice the distance between ship and dock. B. One and one half times the distance between ship and dock. C. Not over 300 feet (91.4 m) of hose.

D. Sufficient for maximum vessel movement without straining the hoses. Ans: D. 4243: The term oily mixture, as defined in the Pollution Prevention Regulations includes__________. A. B. C. D. Sludge. Oily ballast water. Bilge slops. All of the above.

Ans: D. 4244: Which of the following represents the maximum percent of oxygen, by volume, required to be achieved by a ships inert gas system, prior to the commencement of crude oiltank washing? A. B. C. D. 0.06 0.08 0.1 0.12

Ans: B. 4245: Each inert gas system gas main must have an automatic shut down valve at the outlet of the gas production plant. This valve must close automatically upon_________ A. B. C. D. Cargo pump failure Blower failure Deck seal low water level Low inert gas temperature

Ans: B. 4246: Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen indicators ?

A. The instrument is capable of providing an immediate accurate reading of any space with no delay. B. Prolonged exposure to gases such as CO2 may affect the accuracy of the indicator. C. A cotton filter placed in the end of the sampling tube prevents damaging the instrument when exposed to strongly acidic gases. D. All of the above. Ans: B. 4247: An inert gas system incorporating a separately fired inert gas generator shall be provided with visual and audible alarms to indicate failure of the power supply to the generator, the automatic control system, and ____________ A. B. C. D. Cooling water flow. Combustion air temp too low. High sea water temp. Insufficient fuel supply.

Ans: D. 4248: Which of the following liquids can ordinarily be discharged overboard without being processed through an oily water separator? A. B. C. D. Cargo tank ballast Segregated ballast Engine room bilges Cargo pump room bilges

Ans: B. 4249: People should be protected from the rotating parts of the machinery by _________ A. Vents B. Bright lights C. Reflective tape

D. Guard Ans: D. 4250: The word discharge as used in Pollution Prevention Regulations applies to oil_______ A. B. C. D. Leaked into navigable waters Poured into navigable waters Pumped into navigable waters through a fixed piping system All of the above.

Ans: D. 4251: Why is it important for fuel oil tanks not to be topped off when loading cold oil? A. Increased viscosity of the product needs higher loading pressure, which increases the chance of a spill. B. Air pockets may cause the fuel to bubble out of the ullage hole. C. The chance in its specific volume when headed may cause an overflow. D. The fueling valve may become stuck closed and cause the fuel oil to spill before the valve can be opened. Ans: C. 4252: The trim of a vessel is the ______ A. B. C. D. Valve of the mean draft Degree of list Amount of roll Difference in fore and aft drafts.

Ans: D. 4253: Which of the following statements is true concerning a Halon 1301 fixed extinguishing system?

A. The quantity of Halon supplied would be less than the quantity of CO2 for the same space protected. B. CO2 gas is used to propel the halon to the space on fire. C. The Halon must be agitated occasionally to ensure that it does not cake up D. All if the above. Ans: A. 4254: Regulations require that life jackets shall be ______ A. B. C. D. Provided for each person onboard Provided for all personnel on watch Readily accessible to persons in the engine room All of the above.

Ans:D. 4255: The most critical time for preventing an accidental oil spill during bunkering , is when the________ A. B. C. D. Tanks are being topped off. Fuel begins to come aboard. Hoses are being blown down. Hoses are being disconnected.

Ans: A. 4256: Where would you look to find out what your duties are during a fire? A. B. C. D. Ships articles Muster list Certificate of inspection Manning Certificate.

Ans: B. 4257:When administering only mouth-to-mouth resusoitation,you shoud continue the victims ventilation rate at how many inflations per minute?

A. B. C. D.

4 8 12 20

Ans: C. 4258:Which of the listed classes of fires should be extinguished with a water fog? A. B. C. D. Class A and B Class A and C Class Band C Class A,B,and C

Ans: A. 4259:The zipper of an immersion suit should be lubricated with _____________ A. B. C. D. Paraffin Oil Graphite Vegetable oil

Ans: A 4260:The blocking open or absence of fire dampers can contribute to ___________ A. B. C. D. The accumulation of explosive gases Faster cooling of the fire The fire spreading by way of the ventilation system Fixed foam systems to be ineffective

Ans:C 4261:Topping lifts and runners supporting flexible cargo hoses should be made fast to the ____________

A. B. C. D.

Capstan Gypsy head Cleats Manifold riser

Ans: C 4262:The purpose of the vessel inclining experiment is to ____________ A. B. C. D. Determine the location of the metacenter Determine the lightweight center of gravity location Verify the hydrostatic data Verify data in the vessels operating manual

Ans:B 4263:Atificial respiration to an adult should be administered ____________ A. B. C. D. 4 to 3 times per minute 12 to 15 times per minute 20 to 30 times per minute At least 30 times per minute

Ans: B 4264:Whivh of the firefighting agents listed is the least hazardous to personnel? A. B. C. D. Co2 Steam Water Carbon tetrachloride

Ans: C 4265:The external flotation bladder or an immersion suit should be inflated _________ A. Before you enter the water

B. After you enter the water C. After one hour in the water D. After you notice that your suit is losing buoyancy Ans: B 4266:The principlr personnel hazard unique to Halon fire extinguishers is ________ A. Displacement of oxygen B. Skin irritation C. Inhaling topic vapours produced when exposed directly to a flame for extended periods D. Eye irritation produced immediately after discharge from cylinder Ans: C 4267:Air gap is the vertical distance between the bottom of the hull and the___________ A. B. C. D. Still water level Wave crest Wave crest plus the charted water depth and tidal corrections Wave crest plus the charted water depth,plus tidal corrections and storm surge

Ans : A 4268:which of the listed conditions could cause a dangerous reduction in oxygen in a shipboard compartment? A. B. C. D. Fire Rustingor the drying of paint Decomposing organic material All of the above conditions

Ans: D

4269: Horizontal transverse motion of a vessal is known as __________ A. B. C. D. Pitch Surge Sway Heave

Ans: C 4270: As aprecaution against oil spills when topping off fuel tanks, you should _________ A. B. C. D. Close the deck filling the valve to reduce the pumping rate Close all tank vents to prevent overflow Fill the tank to the bottom of the expantion trunk Notify the shore pumping station to reduce the pumping rate as tanks near full capacity

Ans: D 4271: the signal emergency stations is __________ A. B. C. D. A 30 second on-30 second off alternating signal The continuous ringing of the general alarm signal An intermittent ringing of the general alarm for not less than 10 seconds Announced over PA system

Ans: C 4272: When administering chest compression during CPR ,at what part of the victims body should the pressure be applied? A. B. C. D. Lower half of the stemum Tip of the stemum Top half of the stemum Left chest over the heart

Ans: A

4273: Dry chemical fire extinguishers may be effectively used on which of the listed classes of fires? A. B. C. D. Class A only Class B only Class B and C only Class A and C only

Ans :C 4274: When removing the cap from a sounding tube, the sound of air escaping indicates A. B. C. D. The tank is full The tank may be partially flooded The tank level has dropped The tank is completly flooded

Ans: B 4275: when the height of the metacenter has the same value as the height of the center of gravity, the metacentric height is equal to __________

4276: If a liferaft should capsize, ____________ 4315 No outlet on a fire hydrant may point the horizontal ,in order to_____ ___ A.avoid kinking the hose B.avoid personal injury during connection C.make connecting easier D. prevent spray on electical equipment

Ans :A 4316 Aqueous film formingfirefighting foam is also known as _________ A.chemical foam B.high-expansion foam C.mechanical foam D.all the above Ans:C 4317 When water fog is used as an extinguishing agent ,the fire is extinguished principally by the ___________ A.isolation of the fuel B.absorption of heat C.displacement of gases of combustion D.exguishment of incipient smoldering Ans:B

4318

A person reports to you with a fishbook in their thumb .the accepted procedure for removing it should be to____________ A.pull it with pillers B.cut the fom around the hook C.push the barb through ,cut it off ,and then remove the hook D.have a surgeon remove it Ans: C 4319 A vessel is subjected to hogging when it ___________ A.has its main deck under compressive stress B.has its bottom plating under tensile stress C.is supported on a wave whose crests are at the bow and stem D.is supported on a wave whose crest is amidships Ans: D 4320 Which of the actions listed and instituted on your part will have the greatest lasting effect on the crew with respect to safety? A.posting posters illustrating practices B.showing video tapes of actual accidents C.incorporating safety practices in daily routine D. publishing comprehensive safety rules Ans:C

4321 At which of the listed tank locations should you obtain oxygen content readings prior To tank washing ? A.at the hatch coaming and tank bottom B.At the hatch coaming and middle of the tank C.at the middle and the bottom of the tank D.at the center of the ullage and one meter below deck Ans:D 4322 When a floating vessel inclines to an angle slightly greater than the angle of loll,it will______________ A.capsize B.incline further C.flop to the other side D.return to the angle of loll Ans:D 4323 Which of the following fire extinguishing agents has the greatest capacity for heat absorption?

A.water fog B.dry chemical c.chemical foam D.Carbondi oxide Ans:A

4324 Initial stability refers to the vessels stability___________ A.at small angles of inclination B.when loadedd with minimum deck load C.when at transit draft D.when GZ is zero Ans:A 4325 Over hauling a fire in the living quarters on a vessel must include A:to check for fire or lingering sources of heat B:evacuation of the vessel C:immediately sounding the all clearsignal D:operation of the emergency generator Ans:A

4326 Which of the of following must be carried out in order to launch and inflate and inflatable life craft? A:pull on the hydrostatics release,pull on the sea painter B:push on the hydrostatics release,pull on the sea painter C:push on the hydrostatics release,push on the sea painter D:pull on the hydrostatics release,push on the sea painter Ans:B

4327 Which of the document listed will describe life saving equipment located aboard your vessel? A:station bill B:certificate of inspection C:forecastle card D:clearence paper Ans:B 4328 The maximum draft to which a cargo ship may be safely is called___________

A:mean draft B:calucated draft C:deep draft D:load line draft Ans:D 4329 A fire main system must have enough fire hydrants for each accessible space to be reached with____________ A: a low velocity spray applicater B:a water spray or solid stream C:Atleast two spray pattern of water D:atleast 1.75kg/cm2 delivered pressure Ans:C

4330 The preffered method of controlling external bleeding is by A:apllying direct pressure on the wound B:elevating the wounded area C:Applying pressure on a pressure point

D:applying a tourniquet above the wound Ans:D 4331 With damaged floating vessels,the most important consideration is the preservation of__________ A:bilge pumping capacity B:reserve buoyancy C:level attitude D:in stability Ans:B 4332 You have found a person laying prone and not breathing.an electric wire is touching the vicitim.which of the actions listed is the FIRST thing you should do? A:shut of the power or remove the wire from the person B:immediately begin artificial respiration C:immediately begin cardiac massage D:leave the accident scene and summon medical assistance Ans:A

4333 Water applied as a fogcan be more effective than water appllied as a solid streambecause___________ A:given amount of water can absorb more heat when it is in the form of fog B:it reduces the amount of water that must be pumped into the ship to fight a given fire C:it does not have to hit the seat of fire to be effective D:all the above Ans:D 4334 The stability term for the distance between the center of the gravity to the metacenter,when small angle stability applice is known as _______________ A:metacentric height B:metacentric radius C:height of metacenter D:righting arm Ans:A 4335 On a cargo ship,firefighting eqipment must be inspected once every____________ A:three months B:six months C:twelve months

D:eighteen months ANS:C

4336 Bleeding from a veln can be characterized as___________________ A:dark red and slow B:bright red and slow C: bright red and spurting D:bright red and spurting ANS:A 4337 After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed co2 system,the next immediate action is for the space to be ________________ A:opened and burned material removed B:left closed with vents off untill all boundaries are cool C:checked for the proper oxygen level D:opened and doused with water to prevent reflash ANS:B 4338

Control valves for a co2 fire existinguishing system may be located with in the protected space when_________________ A:it is impractical to locate them outside B:there is also a control valve outside C:the co2 cylinders are also in the space D:an automatic heat sensing trip is installed ANS:c

4339 If the cause of severe list or trim is due to off center ballast,counterflooding into empty tanks will______________ A:increase the righting moment B:increase the righting arm C:increase list or trim D:decrease list or trim ANS:D 4340 As a fire fighting medium co2 can be dangerous under certain condition as it can cause____________ A:hallucinations B:burns and blistering

C:undulation D:carbon monoxide poisoning ANS:B 4341 The important stability parameter KG is defined as ______________ A:metacentric height B:height of the metacenter above the keel C:height of the center of buoyancy above the keel D:height of the center of gravity above the keel ANS:D

4342 A quick and rapid motion of a floating vessel in a seaway is an indication of __________________ A:largeGM B:high center of gravity C:excessive free surfaces D:smallGZ ANS:A

4343 A person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries should______________ A:be assisted in walking around B:be examined then walked to a bunk C:not be moved but made comfortable D:not to all0wed to lie down where injured but moved to a chair or bunk ANS:C 4344 The object of a plugging holes below the waterline on a ship should to____________ A:eliminate all water entering through the hole B:only plug holes in machinery or other vital spaces C:reduce the entry of water as much as possible D:plug the largest holes first ANS:C

4345 What is the function of the small gas accumulator cylinder attached to the discharge piping of the engine room fixed co2 system ?

A:it absorbs the pressure shock to the piping resulting from the initial release of co2 B:it delys the release of co2 in to engine room C:it directly activates the warning siren in the engine room D:it controls the rate of discharge of co2 in to engine room ANS:B 4346 A co2 fire extinguisher is checked by __________________ A reading the gage pressure B weighing the extinguisher C discharging a small amount of co2 D checking for breaking inspection seals ANS:B 4347 Your assigned emergency stations aboard by vessel can be found on the ships______________________ A clearance papers B permit to proceed C certificate of inspection D muster list ANS:C 4348

You should operate a fixed system co2 system opening the control value to the space protected and____________ A visually checking to see that co2 is discharging through the piping B operating a separate control to release co2 C listening for the sound of the warning siren D modulating the proper amount of co2 from individual bottles ANS:B 4349 Operation of the release control on a fixed co2 fire extinguishing system ,must automatically____________ A release co2 to the protected space B secure all mechanical ventilation in the protected space C sound the genera alaram signal for a fire D sound the alaram in the ballast control room ANS:B 4350 In order to release co2 to the machinery spaces ,you must physically open the engine room________ A control value and actuate the alaram B co2 releasing value and actuate the alaram C controlvalue the open co2 releasing value D control value and shut off the engine room ventilation ANS:C

4351 How often must fix co2 fire extinguishing systems be inspected to confirm the cylinders are with in 10% of the stamped full charge weight______

A Quarterly B simiannually C annually D bInnually Ans:c 4352 Portable halon fire extinguishing used may charged with_______ A halon 1301 only B halon 22 only C halon 1211 only D Halon 1301 or 121 4355 The usaual method for effectively applying foam on a fire is by A. B. C. D. spraying directly on the base of the wire flowing the foam down the vertical surface sweeping the fire before you with the foam spraying directly on the surface of the fire

Ans: B 4356 At all angles of inclination the true measure of a vessels stability is A. the tacentric height

B. displacement C. righting moment D. inclining moment Ans: C 4357 The weight of the liquid displaced by the vessel floating in sea water is A. B. C. D. weight required to shrink the vessel total weight of the vessel displaced submerged volume reserve buoyancy

Ans: B 4358 The inspection of the portable fire extinguisher must be A. B. C. D. accomplished by an authorized servicing representative recorded by the person in charge completed every six months all the above

Ans: B 4358 when the height of the metacentre is lesser than the height of the centre of gravity a vessel Has what type of stability? A. B. C. D. Stable Neutral Unstable Positive

Ans: C

4360 On a cargo ship equipped with a combination detection-carbon dioxide system the presence of fire is indicated on the cabinet simultaneously in two places #3hold upper between decks containing bagged coffee beans, and #4 tower hold containing fertilize A. Open the three-way valves to each, space simultaneously B. Open the applicable three-way valve for #3 hold and fight the fire in #4 hold in water C. Open the applicable three-way valve for #4 hold after discharge secure the valve;then open the applicable valve or #3 hold D. Activate the pilot CO2 cylinders, directing the discharge to #3 hold then to #4 hold through the three-way valve Ans: C 4361 Foam extinguishes a fire by A. B. C. D. Chemically absorbing the oxygen Smothering the burning material Chemically absorbing the burning material Releasing large amounts of carbon dioxide

Ans: B 4362 When the height of the metacetre is the same at the height of the center of gravity, the upright equilibrium position A. B. C. D. Stable Neutral Unstable Negative

Ans: B 4363 Which of the following condiditions is a symptom of a person in shock? A. Warm and dry B. Warm and damp

C. Cold and dry D. Cold and damp Ans: D 4364 Foam extinguishes a fire by A. B. C. D. Destroying the burning materials Chemical recation with the burning material Absorbing the burning material Smothering the burning material

Ans: D 4365 which of the following conditions is NOT a symptom of traumatic A. B. C. D. Shook deep breathing Pale and cold skin Weak and rapid pulse Restlessness and anxiety

Ans: A 4366 Extinguish an oil fire when using foam is a result of A. B. C. D. Cooling Dampening Smothering Vapour absorbtion

Ans: C 4367 which of the following procedures is always recommended in the rescue of an unconscious person from a compartment containing safe atmosphere? A. Have the resources wear an approved self-contained breathing apparatus B. Have the rescuers carry in a stokes basket for the victim C. Have the rescues carry an emergency first aid kit for the victim

D. Have the rescuers carry a combustible gas analyzer Ans: A 4368 When treating a person for shock you should wrap the victims in warm coverings to A. B. C. D. Decrease body heat Preserve present body heat Avoid self inflicted wounds caused by spastic moments Protects the persons from injury during transportation

Ans: B 4369 A person who observes an individual fall overt ard from the ship should A. B. C. D. Immediately jump into the water to assist the individual Call for help and keep the individual in sight Run to radio room to send an emergency message Go to the control room for the distressflares

Ans: B 4370 The reverse buoyancy of the vessel varies directly with changes in the A. B. C. D. Vessel face Freeboard Rolling period None of the above

Ans: B 4371 Increasing the free surface of a confined liquid has the effect of raising the A. B. C. D. Uncontrolled KG Virtual height of the center of gravitv Metacenter Metacentric height

Ans: B 4372 High concentrations of hydrogen sulphide gas are most dangerous to personal because they can A. B. C. D. Paralyse your breathing system Paralyse your breathing system Cause eye inflammation Cause dizziness

Ans: B 4373 Which of the following is true concerning the actions of properly organized rescue party for removing an unconscious victim from a tank containing toxic vapours? A. The victim should not be moved until the extent of his victims determined B. The victim should be fitted with a canister type OBA as soon as possible C. The rescue party should provide the victim with oxygen or fresh air immediately D. The tank vapours should be tested with an eexplosimeter before personal enter Ans: C 4374 After an accident the victim may go into shock and die which action should be taken to prevent shock Slightly elevate the head and feet A. Keep the person awake B. Keep the person lying down and at a comfortable temperature C. Give the person a stimulant to increase blow flow Ans: C 4375 Any is upper limit switch used when raising an life boat

A. B. C. D.

To prevent the davits from pulling up against the stops To assist in cranking in the lifeboat To keep the tricing lines from releasing or getting tangled To stop the lifeboat from being lowered

Ans: A 4376 The empty weight of a 100pound(45.4)kg cylinder in a fixed co2 system is 130 pounds (58.9kg) what is the minimum total acceptable weight of cylinder before recharging is required A. B. C. D. 200 lbs (90.7kg) 210 lbs (95.2kg) 220 lbs (99.8kg) 230 lbs (104.3kg)

Ans: C 4377 T he maximum concentration of hydrogen sulfide to which workers may be regularly exposed without adverse effects is A. B. C. D. 10 ppm 20 ppm 40 ppm 80 ppm

Ans: B 4378 When the engine room fixed co2 is activated Which of the following action should be taken first in the automatic fuel oil and ventilation shutoff has failed to operate? A. Manually operate the remote shut down controls B. Activate an additional co2 bottle to increase pressure on pressure switch plunger C. Send someone down to manually secure the fuel oil pumps D. Discharge extra carbon dioxide into the engine room

Ans: A 4379 Firefighting foam is only effective when the foam A. B. C. D. Penetrates to the bottom of the fire Is kept saturated with low velocity water fog Mixes with the burning fuel oil Completely covers the top of the burning liquid

Ans: D 4380 The difference between the initial trim of a vessel and a trim after a change in load has occurred is known as A. B. C. D. Trim change of trim final trim change of draft

Ans: B 4381 When fighting a fire on deck with foam, you should A. B. C. D. play the foaming stream directly on the burning oil play the foam stream of nearby vertical vessel structures only use the foam on flowing liquids play the foam stream on the caseof the fire with whirling motion

Ans: B 4382 A weather tight on a ocean going ship must not allow water to penetrate into the unit A. B. C. D. in 50 knot winds in 70 knot winds in 100 knot winds in any sea condition

Ans: D 4383 Which of the following ship machinery space operation is required to be logged in the oil record book A. B. C. D. ballasting or cleaning of fuel oil tanks shifting suction of main fuel pump to reserve fuel oil tank changing out sprayer plates to adjust for steam domand daily inspection of engine room bilges

Ans: A 4384 In firefighting the term PROTECTING EXOOSURES means A. B. C. D. protecting firefighters from the direct exposure to heat keeping flames from burning at the tank vents protecting exposed area of the superstructure from flames taking measures to prevent the spread of fire from the involved compartment to an adjacent compartment

Ans: D 4385 Chemical foam is most suitable for use on a fire involving A. B. C. D. oil burning insulation hot bulkheads electoral machinery

Ans: A

4386 the

For an upright vessel draft is the vertical difference between the keel and

A. waterline B. freeboard deck

C. plimsol mark D. amidships section Ans: A 4387 A. B. C. D. First, second &third degree burns are classified according to area of the body burned source of heat causing the burn layers of skin affected size of the burned area

Ans: C 4388 Aqueous film forming foam (AFFF), commonly known as light water, is especially suitable for fighting A. B. C. D. oil fires in the engine room bilges class B fires in paint lockers any class D fire all the above

Ans: A 4389 the approval period for a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan expires after 4390 When treating a person for third degree burns,you should

4409. A vessel would most likely develop a list if you were _____________ A.burning fuel from a centerline tank B.using water from two equally sized tanks on either sides of the centerline simultaneously C.using fuel from tanks on the port side only D.using water from the fore peak tank Ans. C 4410.it shall be insured that each life boat on a cargo ship is lowered to the water,launched and operated atleast every _________ ? A.month B.two months C.three months D.six months Ans. C

4411.How should halon fire extinguisher be used to extinguish an electrical fire? A.apply by bouncing agents off nearby bulk heads B.use a quick sweeping motion towards the base of the fire. C.always direct discharge at the source of the fire D.it shoudnt be used on an electrical fire. Ans. C 4412.which of the following types of bearings is designed to limit end movement and carry loads applied in the same direction as the shaft axis? A.Rigidly mounted reduction gear bearing B.segmental pivoted-shoe thrust bearing C.self aligning radial bearing D.spherically-seated radial bearing Ans. B 4413.Chemical burns are caused by skin coming in contact with? A.acids or alkalies B.diesil oil C.acids but not alkalies D.Alkalies but not acids Ans. A 4414.which of the following statements is true concerning the halon 1301fire extinguishing agent? A.the agent is highly toxic as stored in pressurized cylinders

B.the agent is loss effective than carbon di oxide C.Halon extinguishes the fire by a chain breaking reaction D.the agent cannot be used on electrical fires because it leaves a residue Ans. C 4415.Which of the fire extinguishing agentslisted uses a chain breaking action to put out a fire? A.Halon 1211 B.Halon1301 C.Purple K D.all the above Ans. D 4416.The person on aship who is responsible for maintaining the engineering spaces in a clean and sanitary condition is the? A.person-in-charge B.chief engineer or engineer in charge C.senior mechanic or mechanic in duty if no senior mechanic designated D.senior electrician or electrician on duty if no senior electrician designated Ans. B

4417.Compliance with the terms of the load line certificate on the ship is the responsibility of the __________ ? A.Chief officer B.Chief engineer C.Officer in charge

D.Master Ans. D 4418.Periodic surveys to renew the load line assignment for a ship must be made at intervals not exceeding ___________? A.18 months B.two years C.three years D.five years Ans. D 4419.Since electrical burn victims have been subjected to electric shocks,the first medical response is to check for _________ ? A.indication of broken bones B.breathing and heart beat C.location of burns D.bleeding injuries Ans. B 4420.Halogenated fire extinguishing agents such as Halon 1301 extinguishes fires by ________ A.cooling B.producing excess co2 C.breaking the chain reaction D.foaming action Ans. C

4421.What should you do with your emergency position indicating radio beacon if you are in a life rsft conditions? A.bring it inside the life raft and leave it on B.bring it inside the life raft and turn it off until the storm passes C.leave it outside the life raft and leave it on D.leave it outside the life raft but turn it off Ans. A 4422.when a rescuer discovers a burn victimin the vicinity of electical equipment or wiring,his first step is to? A.flush water over any burnt area over the patient B.apply ointment on the burnt areas of the patient C.shut down electrical power in the area D.remove the patient fom the vicinity of live electrical equipment or wiring Ans. C 4423.After being launched from a ship,a totally enclosed survival craft which has been afloat over a long period of time,requires? A.frequent opening of hatches to permit entry of fresh air B.regular checks of bilge levels C.use of ear plugs to dampen engine noise D.frequent flushing of the water spray system with fresh water Ans.B 4424.Basic emergency care for an electric burn is to A.flood the burn with water for two minutes

B.brush away the charred skin and wrap the burnt areas C.cover the burnt area with a clean cloth and transport the patient to a medical facility D.apply ointment or spray to the burnt areas and wrap with a clean cloth Ans. C 4425.the purpose for the bag or box on top of some survival craft is to A.right it in case of capsize B.increase area for radar detection C.act as a sail in case of a power loss 4426.a person has an electrical burn,after checking his breathing and pulse A.look for a second burn,which may have caused by the current existing body B.locate the nearest water source and flood the burn with water for five minutes C.remove any dirt or charred skin from the area of the burn

Page 23

A.one year B.two years C.four years D.five years Ans. D A.submerge the area in cloud water

B.make the person stand up and walk to increase circulation C.cover the burns with thick sterile dressing D.break blisters and remove the dead tissue Ans. C 4391.The hand break of a life boat which is ___________ ? A.Manually disengaged when hoisting a boat B.applied by dropping the counterweighted lever C.controlled by the centrifugal brake mechanism D.automatically engaged if lowering speed is excessive 4392.the centrifugal brake mechanism incorporated in a life boat handling which is intended to _____________ A.automatically stop the boat if electric power fails B.mechanically stop the boat if the hand brake fails C.hold the load suspended during the lowering operations D.automatically control the speed of lowering by gravity 4393.a device for preventing sparks or flames from entering a tank,yet permitting the free passage of gasses is___________ A.gas absorption detector B.pressure vacum relief valve C.flame screen D.sacrifical anode Ans. C

4394.a ship board oil pollution emergrncy plan is required of___________ A.all vessels regardless of size and commercial application B.any barge or other ship,which is constructed or operated in such a manner that no oil in any form can be carried aboard C.an oil tanker of 150 gross tons or above or other ship of 400 gross tons or above D.an oil tanker of 400 gross tons and above,or other ships of 150 gross tons and above Ans. C 4395.a fine mesh wire screen is fitted to tank vent pipes to prevent____________ A.passage of flames to the tank B.entry of rodents into the tank C.debris stopping up the vent pipe D.embers from a fire entering the tank Ans. A 4396.which of the toxic gasses listed is a product of incomplete combustion,and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment? A.carbon di oxide B.hydrogen sulphide C.carbon monoxide D.nitric oxide Ans. C 4397.each firemans outfit and spare equipments on a ship must be stowed________

A.in a locked cabinet in a machinery space B.in an unlocked cabinet in the machinery space C.in a separate and accessible location D.at a fire hydrant location Ans. C 4398.why are flame screens an important safety device? A.they provide a dead air space within a fuel tank B.they accelerate the dispersal of fuel vapours C.they prevent the passage of flames from or into closed spaces D.they smoothen flames once a fire has been started Ans. C 4399.if a crewman sudffers a second degree burn on the arm,you should______________? A.drain any blisters B.apply antiseptic ointment C.scrub the arm thorougly to prevent the infection D.immerse the arm in cold water Ans. D 4400.on a ship,a cadet or space containing the controls or valves for the fixed firefighting must be_________ A.posted with instructions on the operation of systems B.ventilated and equipped with explosion-proof switches

C.painted with red and black diagonal stripes D.equipped with a battrery powered source of emergency lighting Ans. A 4401.on a ship the locker or space containing the self containing breathing apparatus must be ___________ A.located in close proximity to the main controlling station B.equipped with battery powered emergency lighting C.marked SELF- CONTAINED BREATHING APPARATUS D.all the above Ans. C 4402.each hand portable fire extinguisher carried on a ship must be marked with_________ A.the name of the unit on which it is located B.the date that it was installed on the unit C.the names of the individuals qualified to use it D.an identification number different from other extinguishers on the unit Ans. D 4403.in the oil record book,a comprehensive list of operational items are grouped into operational sections.Each section is confined by a/an A.section B.abbreviation C.letter D.all the above

Ans.

4404.A minor heat burn of an eye should be treated by_________ A.gently flooding with water B.warming the eye with moist warm packs C.laying the person flat on his back D.mineral oil drops directly on the eye Ans. A

4405.Severe airway burns will cause____________ A.nausea B.reddening of cheeks C.complete obstruction of respiratory passages D.nosebleed Ans. C 4406.which of the listed substances is susceptible to spontaneous combustion? A.coal B.scrap rubber C.leather D.all the above Ans. D 4407.which is the best way to ensure adequate oxygen is present for entry into a seldomly used cargo tank? A.test tank atmosphere with a combustible gas indicator

B.observe the amount of rust deposited on the tanks surface C.ventilate the tank with fresh air and test with an oxygen indicator D.open the manhole cover for approximately ten minuted Ans. C 4408.the FIRST action in the treatment of a person suspected of having airway burns is to____________ A.move him into a cool location B.confirm and maintain an open airway C.apply cool damp dressing to his neck D.have him drink cool liquids Ans. B Page 242 4427. normally fire hose shold be stowed with the a. female end connected with the hydrant b.male end attached with the hydrant c.female end connected to the nozzle d.female end and nozzle arranged to be quickly run out of the fire ans A

4428 . to prevent the spread of fire by convection a.cool the bulkhead around the fire b.remove combustables from the expolsure c.close all openings to the area

d.shut off all electrical powers ans c 4429. if an oil spill occurs on deck, you should a.cover the area with foam b.cover the area with absorbant material c.wash down immediately with afire hose d.wash down immediately with an oil dispersing solvent ans b 4430. which of the burning materials would be described a a class Bfire a.acetylene b.lube oil c.grease d.all of the above ans d 4431. dry chemical extinguishing agents extinguish a fire a.coling the fuel belove ignition temperature b.smothering and removing oxygen from the fuel c.breaking up the molecular reaction d.removing the fuel by absorbing the heated vapors ans c 4432. at the speed of six knots the fuel aboard a survival craft should aist a.8 hours

b.12 hours c.24 hours d.48 hours ans c 4433. with the air supply on, the air pressure in the survival craft wil be a.changing in relationto speed of the craft b.less than outside air pressure c.greater than outside air pressure d.equal to outside air pressure ans c 4434. which of the listed conditions is a symtoms of sun stoke a.temperature falls below normal, b.temperature is high , pulse is strong and rapid c.temperature is high , pulse is slow and ffeble, d.temperature falls below normal, pulse is rapid ans b

4435. aboard a survival craft, ether can be used to a.start the engine in cold weather b.aid in helping personal breath c.prime the sprinkler system d.prime the air supply ans a

4436. the back up system on an electric start survival craft is a.hydraulic system b.pneumatic system c.spare battery d.hand crank ans d

4437. if the survival craft is not loaded to full capacity, the personnel should be a.loaded more on port to forward b.loaded equally on both sides with more forward c.loaded equally on both sides with more on aft d.allowed to sit anywhere ans c

4438. when a resque vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, the person in charge of the survival craft should a.tie up to the rescue vessel b.transfer only those personnel who are not seasick c.wait for calmer weather berore transferring personnel d.transfer all personnel immediately ans c

4439. when an electrical fire has been extinguished with a dry chemical agent there is aiways a possibility of the a.machinary suffering thermal shock damage

b.fire being rekindled by spontaneous combustion c.electrical contacts or relays being rendered inoperative d.chemical crystals suffocating the fire fighter ans c 4440. the survival craft engine is fueled with a.kerosine b.unleaded gasoline c.diesel oil d.liquied gas ans c

4441. during an abandonment or drill, the first person to arrive at the survival craft should a.pass out food and water to personnel b.open the doors and sprinkler system c.activate the emergency release handle d.open the doors and prepare the craft for boarding ans d 4442. which of the following meathod should not be used toprevent aclass A fire in a topside compartment, with steel bulkhead from spriding to the adjustment compartment ? a.sweep all exterer surfaces with water fog until the fire is reportedly extinguished

b.sweep all exterer surfaces with a solid stream of water until the fire is reportedly extinguished c.sweep all exterer surfaces with a solid stream of water until the fire is no longer produced secure the nozzl e ,and repeat as necessary d.sweep all exterer surfaces with water fog until the steam is no longer produced, secure the nozzle , and repeat as necessary ans d 4443. while retrieving the survival craft , the engine should be stoped a.when the craft clears the water b.when the cable has been attached c.on approach to the platform d.at the embarkation ans a

4444. when retrieving the survival craft , helmsman should instruct the cecrwman to a.check the fuel level b.open the doors c.take the lifejackets off d.check that hooks are fully locked in place ans d

4445 Small oil spills on deck can be kept from contaminating the A. into the Vents B. Closing the lids on the vents

c. plugging the scuppers d. Keeping plugs in the sounding pipes Ans c 4446 A class c Fire would occur in A . bedding b. pipe insulation c. paint d. a generator 4447 Acrew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of both feet. You a. should be the feet in warm water b. Warm the feet with a heat lamp c. warmthe feet at room temperature d. rub the feet to restore circulatiuon ans a 4448 the best way to effectively use a dry chemical type fire extinguisher in fire is to a. it flow down event on all burning surface b. discharge a steam at the base of the fire starting at a near edge and use side to side sweeping motions c. play the stream of adjacent vertival surface until the area is blanketed d. use concentrated amount in small locations and put the fire out in sections ans b

4449 when transferring survivors from a survival craft to a rescue vessal a. personal on craft should be board the rescue vessal b. climb on top of the survival craft while waiting for their turn to transfer to the rescue vessal c. remain seated inside the survivalcraft and make the transfer one person at a time d. enter the water and swim over the rescue vessal ans c 4450 except in rare cases it is impossible to extinguish aship board fire by a. removing the heat b. removing the oxygen c. removing the fuel d. interrupting the chain reaction ans c 4451 the ventilation system about your vessal at fire dampers restraind by fusiable line which of the following statement the fusable lin is true a. automaticaly open after a fire is extinguished and reset the damer b. fusable link must be replaced at every inspection for certification c. fusable links are tested by applying a source of heat to them d. fusible link must be replaced if a damper is closed ans d 4452 if a fire house is left unattended under pressure with the nossile shut of the fire house will a. burst under pressure

b. last about violently c. remains motionless d. become elongated by 125% ans c 4453 a health hazard listed on amaterial safety data sheet that can cause cancer in exposed individual is called a a. carcinogen b. cryogenic c. irritant d. mutagen ans a 4454 a fire occurring in the windings of an over loaded electrical motor is concided a a. class A fire b class B fire c calss C fire d. class d fire 4455 which of the listed method is the most effective to fight a fire on the open deck of a vessal if using a dry chemical fire a. approch the fire from the windward side b. direct the extinguisher discharge at the base of the fire c. move the discharge stream back and fourth rapid sweeping motion d. all of the above

ans d 4456 fire dampers prevent the fire spreading through the process of a. convection b. conduction c. radiation d. direct contact ans a 4457 which of the following is least likely to cause the ignition of the fire of the fuel vapours a. static electricity b. an open running electric motor c. loose wiring d. explosion proof lights ans d 4458 if emergency welding repairs must be made to the upper area of a fuel tank the tenk or adjacent compartments may need to be a. gas freed b. united c. filled with water d. all of the above as necessary ans d 4459 a fire in a electrical generator is considerd to be

a. class A b. class B c. class C d. class D ans c 4460 the flammable limit of methane by volume is 5% to 15% if the combustable gas indicator reading is 50% when sampling a compartment containing methanr a flammable vapour concentration at the sample point is a.0.5% by volume b.2.5% by volume c.7.5% by volume d.50% by volume ans b 4461which of the following statement is not true concerning life jacket a. they come in two sizes child and adult

4462 besides heat fuel and oxygen which of the following is necessary for a fire to exist a. chain reaction Page 242

4461 B. They are required to be of a highly visible color

C. The life jackect will always support an unconscious wearer in an upright position D. They must be able to support the wearer in an upright position

Ans. C 4462 B. C. D. Ans. A 4463 In order to retrieve an inflatable liferaft and place it on deck, you should heave on the A. B. C. D. ANS: 4464 A. B. C. D. life lines righting strap sea anchor towing bridle D. The symptoms of heat exhaustion are _______________. Slow and strong pulse Flushed and dry skin Slow and deep breathing Pale and clammy skin Thermal action Chemical Action Pyrotechnical reaction

ANS: D. 4465 The vapour explosive range of gasoline by volume is 1.0% to 6.0% in air. If a gasoline tank is sampled with an explosimeter. And the reading obtained is 30% L.E.L the vapor concentration at the sample point is .. A. B. C. D. 0.3% by volume 0.6% by volume 1.3% by volume 6.3% by volume

4466 Which type of wrench listed is used to disconnect fire hose couplings? A. B. C. D. locking wrench Spanner wrench Crescent wrench Pipe Wrench

Ans. B 4467 The Class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential to extinguish the fire is A. B. C. D. Class A Class B Class C Class D

Ans. B 4468. Extra chemicals maintained aboard the vessel for producing chemical foam, should be stored.................

A. B. C. D.

in a freezer in a cool dry place at a temperature not less than 80oF in open bins

Ans. B 4469 If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be .. A. B. C. D. spread apart as far as possible Held as tightly against your chest as possible in a kneeling position extended straight down and crossed at the ankles

Ans. D 4470 If a crew member faints, you should . A. B. C. D. lay him down with his head slightly raised administer a liquid stimulant Lay him down with his head lower than his feet attempt to stand him upright to restore consciousness

Ans. C 4471 Which of the tools listed is designed for connecting and disconnecting fire hose couplings? A. B. Vise grips Channel locks

C. D.

Spanner wrench Pipe Wrench

4472 When should food or water be provided to survivors after boarding a lifeboat or lifeaft? A. B. C. D. After 12 hours After 24 hours After 48 hours Some food and water should be consumed immediately and then not until 48 hours later

4473. With no alternative but to jump from the vessel the correct posture should include.. A. holding down the down jacket against the chest with one harm crossing B. knees bend and held closed to the body with both arms around the legs C. body straight and arms tight at the said for feet 1st entry into the water D. both hand holding the life jacket below chin with knees bend with legs crossed 4474. A liferaft which has inflated bottom up on the water .. A. should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder holding the righting strip and leaning back ward B. should be righted by standing on the life line holding the righting straps and leaning backward C. will right itself when the canopy tube inflate D. must be cleared of the buoyant will right itself

4475. Which of the following condition must be before a marine chemist will issue a certificate for compartment to be safe for hot work A. the residues in the compartment must not be capable of producing any toxic gas B. the concentration of combustible gases in the compartment atmosphere must be less C. the toxic gases in the compartment must be with in concentration D. all of the above 4476. The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is a/an. A. vigorous shacking B. sequence of back blows C. precaadial thump D. ammonia inhalant 4477. if a inflatable life raft inflates upside down u can right it by A. pushing p on one side B. standing on the CO2 bottle straps and throwing C. getting at least 3 or 4man to push on the side of CO2 D. doing nothing 4478. when collecting condition for drinking water A. a sponge used to mop up and store salt B. only condensation on the bottom of canopy C. it should be strained through a oven D. chlorine tablet should be used to make it drink

4479

when the concentrations of gas n the sample is above the 100% Explosive reading on the meter shown in the illustrations , then _____. A. The admosphere at the sample point consists of 100% flammable gas B. The meter is defective C. No further increase in vapor concentrationsatthe sample point is possible D. The flammable vapor concentrations at the sample point is above the lower explosive limit ANS: D

4480

if an inflatable liferaft is overturned , it may be righted by_______. a. b. c. d. Filling the stabilizers on one side with water Releasing the co2 cylinder Pushing up from under one end Standing on the inflating cylinder and pulling on the straps on the underside of the raft

ANS: D 4481 if you must enter the water on which there is on oil fire , you should ________. A. Protect your lifejacket by holding it above your head B.ENTER the water on the windward side of vessel C.keep both hands infront of your face to break the water surface when Diving head first D.wear very light clothing Ans: B

4482 According to the pollution prevention regulations (MARPOL) , which of the following statements is correct regarding the fuel oil containment under the oil filling connection section A. The containment may be fixed or portable depending upon the vessel B. The containment drains must have quick closing valves to be closed in the leakage or failure of any part of transfer connection C. All containment drains must lead to a common , fixed drain tank D. Containment drains are prohibited from leading to a common tank Ans: A

4483

sea water may be used for drinking __ __________

A.at a maximum rate of two ounces per day B. after mixing with an equal quantity of fresh water C. if gather durinr or immediately after a hard rain D. under no circumstance Ans: D 4484 Which of the hydrogen gases represents the greatest threat to personnel safely in an engine room where the exhaust is leaking from a diesel engine A. Carbon di oxide

B. Carbon monoxide C. Carbon trioxide D. Hydrogen sulfide Ans: B 4485 combustible gas indicators measure the percentage of the concentration of lower explosive limit of gases . If the hydrocarbon content of sample exceeds the upper explosive limit___________. A. The needle will rise slowly to and remain at maximum reading B. The needle will move rapidly to and remain at maximum reading C. The needle will move to the maximum reading and return to zero immediately Ans:C D. It will not be detected 4486 When a rescue vessel approaches a lifeboat in heavy seas, the person charge of life boat should___________ A. B. C. D. Rosebox Sea chest or pool piece Sluice valve Fire pumping stuffing box Ans:B

4487 A small fire is reported in the forward cargo hold on a vessel equipped with a combustion smoke detection carbon dioxide fixed fire extinguishing system.After ensuring the space is un occupied and properly sealded off, you should NEXT_________ A. Operate the control head mounted on the main pilot cylinders B. Close all three ways valve levers that are in the detecting position with the exception of the valve(S) to the involved space

C. Open the three way valve whose number (on the handle) corresponds with the line index chart number for the on fire D. Lock the smoke detector indicator on the monitoring line , which automatically activates the CO2 exitinguishing system Ans: C

4488 When a rescue vessel approaches a life boat in heavy seas, the person in life boat should ___________ A. B. C. D. Transfer all personnel immediately Tie up to the rescue vessel Wait for calmer weather before transferring personnel Transfer only those personnel who are not seasick Ans: C

4489 If a cargo tank has not been certified as gas free A. Entry without a breathing apparatus may be made at the top of the tank since petroleum vapours are heavier than air B. A man may work safely without breathing apparatus in cold weather as vapours are less volatile C. Breathing apparatus would not be necessary in an emergency as you would only be in the tank a short time D. Fresh air breathing apparatus should always be used Ans: D

4490 A crewman has suffered a blow to the head and various symptoms indicate a concussion.Proper treatment should include__________ A. Turning the victims head to the side to his airway open B. Positioning the victim so the head is lower than the body C. Giving the victim water but no food

D. Placing a pillow only under the victims head Ans: A

4461 B. They are required to be of a highly visible color

C. The life jackect will always support an unconscious wearer in an upright position D. They must be able to support the wearer in an upright position

Ans. C 4462 B. C. D. Ans. A 4463 In order to retrieve an inflatable liferaft and place it on deck, you should heave on the A. B. C. D. ANS: 4464 life lines righting strap sea anchor towing bridle D. The symptoms of heat exhaustion are _______________. Thermal action Chemical Action Pyrotechnical reaction

E. F. G. H.

Slow and strong pulse Flushed and dry skin Slow and deep breathing Pale and clammy skin

ANS: D. 4465 The vapour explosive range of gasoline by volume is 1.0% to 6.0% in air. If a gasoline tank is sampled with an explosimeter. And the reading obtained is 30% L.E.L the vapor concentration at the sample point is .. E. F. G. H. 0.3% by volume 0.6% by volume 1.3% by volume 6.3% by volume

4466 Which type of wrench listed is used to disconnect fire hose couplings? A. B. C. D. locking wrench Spanner wrench Crescent wrench Pipe Wrench

Ans. B 4467 The Class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential to extinguish the fire is A. B. C. D. Class A Class B Class C Class D

Ans. B 4468. Extra chemicals maintained aboard the vessel for producing chemical foam, should be stored................. A. B. C. D. in a freezer in a cool dry place at a temperature not less than 80oF in open bins

Ans. B 4469 If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be .. A. B. C. D. spread apart as far as possible Held as tightly against your chest as possible in a kneeling position extended straight down and crossed at the ankles

Ans. D 4470 If a crew member faints, you should . A. B. C. D. lay him down with his head slightly raised administer a liquid stimulant Lay him down with his head lower than his feet attempt to stand him upright to restore consciousness

Ans. C 4471 Which of the tools listed is designed for connecting and disconnecting fire hose couplings?

A. B. C. D.

Vise grips Channel locks Spanner wrench Pipe Wrench

4472 When should food or water be provided to survivors after boarding a lifeboat or lifeaft? A. B. C. D. After 12 hours After 24 hours After 48 hours Some food and water should be consumed immediately and then not until 48 hours later

4473. With no alternative but to jump from the vessel the correct posture should include.. A. holding down the down jacket against the chest with one harm crossing B. knees bend and held closed to the body with both arms around the legs C. body straight and arms tight at the said for feet 1st entry into the water D. both hand holding the life jacket below chin with knees bend with legs crossed 4474. A liferaft which has inflated bottom up on the water .. A. should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder holding the righting strip and leaning back ward B. should be righted by standing on the life line holding the righting straps and leaning backward C. will right itself when the canopy tube inflate

D. must be cleared of the buoyant will right itself 4475. Which of the following condition must be before a marine chemist will issue a certificate for compartment to be safe for hot work A. the residues in the compartment must not be capable of producing any toxic gas B. the concentration of combustible gases in the compartment atmosphere must be less C. the toxic gases in the compartment must be with in concentration D. all of the above 4476. The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is a/an. A. vigorous shacking B. sequence of back blows C. precaadial thump D. ammonia inhalant 4477. if a inflatable life raft inflates upside down u can right it by A. pushing p on one side B. standing on the CO2 bottle straps and throwing C. getting at least 3 or 4man to push on the side of CO2 D. doing nothing 4478. when collecting condition for drinking water A. a sponge used to mop up and store salt B. only condensation on the bottom of canopy C. it should be strained through a oven

D. chlorine tablet should be used to make it drink 4479 when the concentrations of gas n the sample is above the 100% Explosive reading on the meter shown in the illustrations , then _____. E. The admosphere at the sample point consists of 100% flammable gas F. The meter is defective G. No further increase in vapor concentrationsatthe sample point is possible H. The flammable vapor concentrations at the sample point is above the lower explosive limit ANS: D 4480 if an inflatable liferaft is overturned , it may be righted by_______. e. f. g. h. Filling the stabilizers on one side with water Releasing the co2 cylinder Pushing up from under one end Standing on the inflating cylinder and pulling on the straps on the underside of the raft

ANS: D 4481 if you must enter the water on which there is on oil fire , you should ________. B. Protect your lifejacket by holding it above your head B.ENTER the water on the windward side of vessel C.keep both hands infront of your face to break the water surface when Diving head first D.wear very light clothing Ans: B

4482 According to the pollution prevention regulations (MARPOL) , which of the following statements is correct regarding the fuel oil containment under the oil filling connection section E. The containment may be fixed or portable depending upon the vessel F. The containment drains must have quick closing valves to be closed in the leakage or failure of any part of transfer connection G. All containment drains must lead to a common , fixed drain tank H. Containment drains are prohibited from leading to a common tank Ans: A

4483

sea water may be used for drinking __ __________

A.at a maximum rate of two ounces per day B. after mixing with an equal quantity of fresh water C. if gather durinr or immediately after a hard rain D. under no circumstance Ans: D 4484 Which of the hydrogen gases represents the greatest threat to personnel safely in an engine room where the exhaust is leaking from a diesel engine

E. F. G. H.

Carbon di oxide Carbon monoxide Carbon trioxide Hydrogen sulfide

Ans: B 4485 combustible gas indicators measure the percentage of the concentration of lower explosive limit of gases . If the hydrocarbon content of sample exceeds the upper explosive limit___________. E. The needle will rise slowly to and remain at maximum reading F. The needle will move rapidly to and remain at maximum reading G. The needle will move to the maximum reading and return to zero immediately Ans:C H. It will not be detected 4486 When a rescue vessel approaches a lifeboat in heavy seas, the person charge of life boat should___________ E. F. G. H. Rosebox Sea chest or pool piece Sluice valve Fire pumping stuffing box Ans:B

4487 A small fire is reported in the forward cargo hold on a vessel equipped with a combustion smoke detection carbon dioxide fixed fire extinguishing system.After ensuring the space is un occupied and properly sealded off, you should NEXT_________ E. Operate the control head mounted on the main pilot cylinders

F. Close all three ways valve levers that are in the detecting position with the exception of the valve(S) to the involved space G. Open the three way valve whose number (on the handle) corresponds with the line index chart number for the on fire H. Lock the smoke detector indicator on the monitoring line , which automatically activates the CO2 exitinguishing system Ans: C

4488 When a rescue vessel approaches a life boat in heavy seas, the person in life boat should ___________ E. F. G. H. Transfer all personnel immediately Tie up to the rescue vessel Wait for calmer weather before transferring personnel Transfer only those personnel who are not seasick Ans: C

4489 If a cargo tank has not been certified as gas free E. Entry without a breathing apparatus may be made at the top of the tank since petroleum vapours are heavier than air F. A man may work safely without breathing apparatus in cold weather as vapours are less volatile G. Breathing apparatus would not be necessary in an emergency as you would only be in the tank a short time H. Fresh air breathing apparatus should always be used Ans: D

4490 A crewman has suffered a blow to the head and various symptoms indicate a concussion.Proper treatment should include__________ E. Turning the victims head to the side to his airway open

F. Positioning the victim so the head is lower than the body G. Giving the victim water but no food H. Placing a pillow only under the victims head Ans: A

4523. A liquid as listed below on Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), having a flash point below 100.F (37.78C) is called a/an__________ a. viscous liquid b. explosive liquid c. combustible liquid d. flammable liquid ANS:D 4524. If a diabetic suffers an insulin reaction and is conscious . he should be given _________ a.soda crackers and water b. orange juice or a candy bar c. an ounce of whiskhy d. a glass of milk ANS:B 4525.An instrument used to detect explosive gas air/mixture ,usually measures the concentration in terms of the lower explosive limit and is known as a_________ a. toxic vapour meter b. flame safely lamp c.gas absorption meter d.combustible gas indicator ANS:D

4526.A person manning a fire hose under pressure with an all purpose nozzle attached ,should be aware that the nozzle is most difficult to control when the handle position is changed from ______ a. solid stream to fog b. shut to solid stream c. low velocity to high velocity fog d. fog to shut ANS:B 4527.Which of the following items is NOT required to be contained in the vessels oil transfer procedures? a. a line diagram of the vessels oil transfer piping b. the number of persons on duty during oil transfer operations c. any special procedures for topping off tanks d. the location and capacity of all fuel and cargo tanks on the vessel ANS:D 4528.If a raft is said to be released manually ,where should the operating cord be attached before throwing the raft overboard? a. do not attach the cord to anything but throw it over board with the raft container b. to some fixed object on the shipe c. stand on it with your foot d. to the special pad eye on the raft davit launcher ANS:B 4529.Most lifeboats are equipped with _______ a. unbalanced rudders

b. balanced rudders c. contraguide rudders d. straight rudders ANS: A 4530.The maximum lowering speed for a life boat on the gravity davits must not be more than____ a. 21mtr per minute b. 35mtr per minute c. 78mtr per minute 4531 The flammable limits of an atmosphere are the _________

A. Two temperature between which an atmosphere will self-ignite B. Upper and lower percentage of vapuor concentration in an atmosphere which will burn if an ignition source is present C. Upper and lower pressures between which an atmosphere will not burn D. Two temperatures between which an atmosphere will burn if an ignition source is present Ans. B 4532 A high velocity fog nozzle will produce the most effective spray pattern when the water pressure is not less than________ A. B. C. D. 25kg/cm2(241.3 kpa) 42kg/cm2(413.6 kpa) 52kg/cm2(517.0 kpa) 7kg/cm2(689.4 kpa)

Ans. D 4533 For which of the listed classes of fire combination would carbon dioxide be most suitable as the extinguishing agent?

A. B. C. D. Ans. B

Class A and class B Class B and class c Class A and class C Class C and class D

4534 The transfer procedures for oil products are required to be posted_______ A. B. C. D. In the pilothouse In the officers lounge In the upper pump room flat Where they can be easily seen or readily available

Ans. D 4535 which of the items in the lifeboat equipments listed would be the most suitable for night signaling to a ship on the horizon? A. B. C. D. A red parachute flare A red handheld flare A flashlight A lantern

Ans. A 4536 A chemical material as listed on a material safety data sheet (MSDS), that can spontaneously burst flame when exposed air at temperature below 130.F(55.5C) with no ignition source needed is called_______ A. B. C. D. Explosive Pyrophoric Unstable Flammable

Ans. B

4537 If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable liferaft is not periodically serviced and becomes inoperable , it will fail to ________ A. B. C. D. Set the water lights on immersion Release the dyemarker from the liferaft Free the liferaft from the vessel Break the seal on the carbondioxide cylinder

Ans. C 4538 A. B. C. D. A fire in a pile of linen is considered to be a class

A fire B fire C fire D fire

Ans. A 4539 Appendicitis symptoms include cramps or pains in the abdomen located in the _______ A. B. C. D. Lower left side Lower left side Upper left side Upper right side

Ans. B 4540 If the chemical material is a mixture, what must the material safety data sheet (MSDS) identify? A. B. C. D. Paints or coatings that are caf to use with it The name of each hazardous ingredient Other similar mixtures of liquids, solids or gasses None of th above

Ans. B

4541 The high velocity fog tip used with the all purpose firefighting nozzle should always be_________ A. B. C. D. Slowed separately in a clip or rack at each fire station Attached to the all purpose nozzle by a chain Coated with heavy grease to prevent corrosion Painted red to be identified as emergency equipment

Ans. B 4542 Most enclosed lifeboats or covered survival capsules will automatically right themselves if they capsize. This Will occur when which of the following exists? A. B. C. D. The lower ballast tanks are filled with water The fuel tanks are not less than half full The passengers are strapped to their seats The sea anchor is deployed to windward

Ans. C 4543 The explosive range of a mixture of flammable vapors and the air lies between the upper and lower explosive limits. These explosive limits are specified as a percentage of ______ A. B. C. D. Flammable vapor by volume in air The lower limit of explosibility of the mixture Oxygen present to support combustion The temperature of the flash point

Ans. D 4544 A hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft ___________

A. Must be wet before it release B. Should be kept in a watertight cover except in emergency C. Will inflate in the raft in its cradle if operated manually

D. Must to be submerged to a cert in depth to release automatically Ans. D 4545 The physical data term on a material safety data sheet (MSDS) hat indicates if the vapor formed by the material is lighter or heavier than air is called _______ A. B. C. D. Vapor pressure Vapor gravity Vapor level Vapor density

Ans. D 4546 In a closed container of liquid the force exerted by vapor on the walls of the container above the liquid surface is called ________ A. B. C. D. Storage pressure Vapor pressure Over-pressure Reactive pressure

Ans. B 4547 A chemical material as listed on the material data sheet (MSDS). That reacts with water or moist air and produces a health or physical hazard is called _______ A. B. C. D. Water-reactive Toxic Flammable Combustive

Ans. A 4548 The physical difference of the water spray patterns developed by high velocity tip and low velocity applicator is due to _________

A. B. C. D.

A difference in water pressure The method of breaking up the water stream The type of fire being fire fought The capacity of the fire pump

Ans. B 4549 A. B. C. D. A lifeline must be connected to the liferaft__________

A the bow A the stern It the iniddle A around

Ans. D 4550 The significant difference between the high velocity fog tip and the low velocity fog applicator used with the all purpose nozzle is the______________ A. B. C. D. Difference in available water pressure Number of personnel required to effectively use each of them Degree to which the water stream is broken up Ability to exclude free oxygen

Ans. C 4551 A health hazard term listed on a material safety data sheet (MSDS) that at indicates allergic like reaction in some people after repeated exposure is_____________ A. B. C. D. S In contact hazard S insitizer P irophorichazard C idizer

Ans. B

4552 The explosive range of methance is 5% to 15% by volume in air.this means a vapor/air mixture of________ A. B. C. D. 3 percent methance by volume is too rich to burn 20 percent methance by volume is too lern too burn 10 percent methance by volume is too rich to burn 5 percent methance by volume will given a reading of 100 percent L.E.L on a combustible gas indicator

Ans. D 4553 A. B. C. D. A vessel which is subjected to hogging has its ___________

Main deck under compressive strees Main deck plantig under strake strees Bottom plate under compressive strees Bottom and deck planting under compressive strees

Ans. B 4554 A. B. C. D. synptoms of seasickness include_________

Fever and thrist Nausea and dizziness Stomatch cramos and diarrhea Reddening of skin and hives

Ans. B 4555 carbon diozide extinguishers must be recharged when the weight is less than? A. B. C. D. 0.8 0.85 0.9 0.95

Ans. C

4556 what information can be obtained from a marine chemistscertificate issued to an offshore supply vessel? A. B. C. D. The vessels stability information The tanks which were safe to enter when the certificate was issued The number of fire extinguishers required to be aboard The quality of fuel in the vessels tanks

Ans. B 4557 Each personal flotation device light on a ship that has a nonreplaceable power source must be replaced_______________ A. B. C. D. Every six months after initial installation Every 12 months after initial installation Every 24 months after initial installation On or before the expiration date of the power source

Ans. D 4558 an inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a sinking vessel.which of the following occurs automatically after the painter trips the co2 bottles to inflate the raft? A. B. C. D. The sea anchor is deployed The floor inflates If upside down the craft will right The painter detaches from the raft.

Ans. A 4559 tank stripping is accomplished more effectively by using a___________ A. A multistage centrifugal pump B. The load on top system

4560 The combined fan discharge rate in an intert gas system is related to the____________ A. Shoreside loading rate B. Maximum cargo pump discharge rate

4595 if a victim is unconscious, you should first look for evidence of ___________________ A. High fever B. Head injure C. Broken limbs D. Irregular breathing Ans : D 4596 which of the fire extinguishing agents listed can be used to effectively combat a class B fire_________ A. B. C. D. Dry chemical Co2 Foam All of the above

Ans: D 4597 to prepare a low velocity fog applicator for use,____________________ A. Replace the high velocity tip with the fog applicator and pull the handle the middle position B. Insert the applicator in the solid stream outlet of the all-purpose nozzle and pull the handle back half way C. Replace the high velocity tip with the applicator and pull the handle back all the way back D. Insert the applicator in the solid stream outlet of the all-purpose nozzle and pull the handle back to the solid stream position Ans : A 4598 which statement is true regarding halon as the fire extinguishing agent? A. It is more effective than co2 B. It leaves no residue C. It is noncorrosive D. All of the above Ans: D 4599 the vapors given off by heated fuel oil are flammable, explosive, and ____________________ A. Lighter than air B. Heavier than air C. Odorless D. Non toxic Ans: B 4600 generally which of the following gases is used to inflate life rafts? A. Co2

B. Oxygen C. Nitrogen D. Compressed air Ans: A 4601 if it becomes necessary to pump bilges while a vessel is in port. Which of the following procedures should be followed? A. Pump only if the discharge is led to the shore tank or barge B. Pump only during the hours of darkness C. Pump only on the outgoing tide D. Pump only the as much as is necessary Ans: A 4602 when fighting a fire in an enclosed space, the hose team should crouch as low as possible to _______________________ A. Protect themselves from smoke B. Obtain the best available air C. Allow the heat and steam to pass overhead D. All of the above Ans: D 4603 if flammable vapors have penetrated a gas free space. Which of the following actions would be the most hazardous thing to carry out ? A. Opening switches in the space to de-energize circuits B. Closing switches in the space to operate vent fans C. Leaving electrical circuits energized in the space D. Securing all power to the space from a remote location Ans: A

4604 a low velocity fog applicator is retained in an all-purpose nozzle by a bayonet joint. The application is prevented from rotating in the joint by______________ A. Water pressure B. A locknut C. A keeper screw D. A spring-loaded catch Ans: D 4605 diesel fuel vapors ____________ A. Cannot be ignited by a spark unless the vapor is in a confined space B. Are non toxic in all concentrations C. Cannot be ignited by a spark unless they are at their auto ignition temperature D. Are heavier than air Ans: D 4606 you have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in buoyancy tube. Which of the following statements identifies the cause of this situation? A. The salt water is activating the batteries of the marker lights on the canopy B. The inflation pump is in automatic operation to keep the fuels full inflated C. A deflation plug is partially open allowing the escape of co2 D. Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon stop Ans: D 4607 two peoples are administrating CPR to the victim. How much times per minute the chest should be compressed? A. 30

B. 45 C. 60 D. 80 Ans: C 4608 you are administrating chest compressions during CPR. Where on victims body should the pressure be applied? A. Tip of the sternum B. Top half of the sternum C. Lower half of the sternum D. Left chest over the heart Ans: C 4609 the MOST important element in administering CPR is______________ A. Having the proper equipment for the process B. Treating for shock C. Administering of oxygen D. Starting the treatment quickly Ans: D 4610 most totally enclosed lifeboats are equipped with which of the following? A. A hydraulic start diesel engine B. Tanks for the storage of drinking water C. Ballast tanks to prevent the boat from capsizing D. Auxiliary mechanical propulsion Ans: A 4611 the oxygen indicator is an instrument that measures the ____________ A. The amount of oxygen in the atmosphere of a confined space

B. Amount of combustible gas as a percentage of the lower explosive limit in a confined space C. Concentration of co2 as a percentage of oxygen in a confined space D. None of the above Ans: A 4612 a simple precaution to reduce the possibility of accidental fires in the paint locker is to ______________ A. Label the fixed fire fighting system B. Store paint cans on metal shelves only C. Not allow oily rags to accumulate in the space D. Place a portable fire extinguisher immediately outside the locker Ans: C 4613 a characteristic of most petroleum vapours is that they are _____________________ A. Lighter than air B. Not explosive at low temperatures C. Heavier than air D. Inert in stable air Ans :C 4614 if more one liferaft is manned after the vessel has sunk_____________________ A. Each raft should go in a different direction in search of land B. The possibility of a search aircraft finding you is increased by spreading out C. Reduce the number of rafts by getting as many people as possible into as few rafts as possible D. Tie each of the rafts together and try to stay in a single group Ans :D

4615 when a ship is abandoned and there are several liferafts in the water ,one of the FIRST things to be done is_______________ A. Separate the rafts as much as possible to increase chances of detection. B. Transfer all supplies to one raft. C. Transfer all the injured to one raft. D. Secure the raft together to keep them from the drifting apart . Ans :D 4616 An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible vapors removes oxygen and provide a heat and smokes screen is __________________ A. Halon 1301 B. Dry chemical C. Water fog D. Carbondioxide Ans :C 4617 During annual inspection ,each none metallic oil transfer hose must not burn ,bulge, leak, or abnormally distort under a static liquid pressure of at least __________________ A. 7bar B. The pressure of the relief value setting C. The pressure applied by the shore side pump D. 1 times the maximum allowable work pressure Ans :D 4618 The most effective way of applying carbon-di-oxide from a portable extinguisher to a fire is by _________ A. Forming a cloud cover over the flames

B. Discharging the carbon-di-oxide into the heat of the flames C. Directing the gas at the base of the flame in a slow sweeping motion D. Bouncing the discharge off an adjacent bulkhead just above the burning service. Ans : C 4619 Where should muster list be posted? A. In crews accommodation spaces B. on the navigating bridge C. In the engine room D. All the above Ans : D 4620 In the fire main system , quick cleaning strainers are located at the _________ A. B. C. D. Pump situation Pump discharge Fire hydrants Hose nozzle

Ans : C 4621 While a drifting in a inflatable liferaft in hot , tropical weather___________ A. The canopy should be defected so that it will not block cooling breezes B. The pressure value may be periodically opened to prevent excessive air pressure C. Deflating the floor panels may help to cool personal D. The entrance curtains should never be opened Ans : C 4622 The heat generated by a fire will be transferred through a bulkhead or head as a result of _______

A. Conduction B. Radiation C. Convection D. Advection Ans : A 4623 Quick cleaning strainers are installed in the fire main system at individual fire hydrants to ______ A. Prevent rust and foreign matter from entering the system piping B. Prevent rust and foreign matter from entering the hoses and nozzles C. Protect the fire pumps from becoming clogged with marine growth D. Filter out some of the salt in an effort to reduce pipeline scaling Ans : B 4624 What effect will transferring fuel oil from #1p double bottom to #3p double bottom have on trim of a vessel? A. The mean draft will increase B. The mean draft will decrease C. The forward draft will decrease D. The after draft will decrease Ans : C 4625 How are solid materials kept from fouling a fire hose nozzle? A. Using a cadium chloride coating B. Use of inline system strainers C. Replacements of valve seats at each fire main station D. Periodic shut down and backflush of fire main Ans : B 4626 which of the listed extinguishing agents could be used to fight a class b fire involving the duct work for the galley stove? A. CO2 B. Dry chemical C. Halon

D. All the above Ans : D 4627.When fighting a liquefied natural gas fire ,you should _________ A.use only carbon di oxide B. use only dry chemical C. extinguish the fire then secure the source of gas D. secure the source of gas then extinguish the fire ANS: D 4628. One of the first actions to be taken by survivors when they have boarded an inflatable liferaft is to __________ A. Stream the sea anchor B. Take an anti-seasickness pill C. Open the pressure relief valve D. Drink atleast one can of water ANS:B 4629.A fire can be extinguished by removing________ A. The heat B. The fuel 4630. which of the following conditions are true concerning shipboard extinguishing systems? A. Carbon di oxide and halon are both effective fixed systems that protect against class C fires B. Flammable gas fires are not extinguished by fixed systems ;controlled buring is recommended until the fuel source can be shut off.

b. returned to the pain locker c. covered with a fine mesh screen to protect from ignition sources

d. continuously kept in closed containers all the time. Ans b 4631 the first step to take in fighting engine room fire resulting from a rupurted fuel oil service line is to A .evacuate all engine room personnel b. fight the fire with hand portable extinguishers c. activate the main co2bank d. stop the flow of leaking fuel oil ans : d 4632 petroleum vapors are dangerous

a. only if the source of vapour is above its flash point b. only if the vapor is between the upper and lower explosive unit c. only if oxygen concentration is below 16 percent d. at all times due to their toxicity ans: d 4633 engines for life boats are required to have sufficient fuel to operate for how many hours a. 6 hours b. 12 hours c. 18 hours d. 24 hours ans: d

4634 the three basic elements necessary for any fire are a. heat gas and flames b. fuel heat and oxygen c. fuel nitrogen and fuel d. fuel oil, nitrogen and oxygen ans: b 4635 when launching a life boat , frapping lines should be rigged a. before the griges are realesed b. before the boat is moved frm the davits c. at the embarkation deck d. after the boat in the water ans: c 4636 when a combating a deck fire due to a leaking cargo line you should first a. blanket the cargo spill with foam b. apply co2 on the burning fuel at its source c. stop the transfer of cargo d. prevent the spread of fire with a foam dam ans: c 4637 a. b. c. d. the sea painter of the life boat should be led forward and outside of all obstructions forward and inside of all obstructions up and down from main deck to the foremost point on the ship

ans : a 4638 a. b. c. d. an oxygen indicator will detect the amount of oxygen in the space the presence of harmful amount of carbon monoxide concentrations of explosive gas all of the above ans: a

4639 frapping lines are fitted to lifeboat davits to a. reduce the swinging of the life boat as it is being owered from the embarkation level b. secure the life boat in the davits when in the stowed position c. hold it to the ships side until the tricing lines are passed d. be used as a safety line in an emergency ans: a 4640 frapping lines are a. secure the life boats in the davits when in the stowed position b. bring the life boat close along side the rail in the embarkation position c. give the occupants a safety line when the boat is being lowered from the embarkation level d. reduce the swinging of the life boat at the embarkation level ans: d 4641 when more than six short blasts and one long blast of the ships whistle, accompanied by the same signal on the general alarm bell is sounded , the signal is for a. b. c. d. fire and emergency boat recall man overboard boat stations ans: d

4642 in fighting a fire in a fuel tank the first action you should attempt is to a. b. c. d. secure all source of fresh air to the tank begin transferring the fuel to other tanks top off the tank to force out all vapours station someone at the fixed co2 release control ans: a

4643 which of the life boat parts listed must be painted bright red a. b. c. d. hatches releasing gear hooks compass ans: b

4644 which of the actions listed should be taken first to control an oil fire in a fuel oil tank Page 252 4649 Burning electrical insulation is best extinguished by A. B. C. D. soda acid foam Water fog Carbon dioxide

Ans. D 4650 If a fire occurs in an electrical cable, in which the inner layers of insulation, or the insulation covered by armor is burning, you should .. A. B. Secure power to the cable Cut the cable with an insulated cable cutter

C. D.

separate the two ends All the above

Ans. D 4651 Portable tank cleaning machines are usually provided with a water supply from the A. B. C. D. inert gas scrubber fireman mucking supply system pumproom sea chest

Ans. B 4652 When a vessel is inclined, the tendency for it to return to its original position is caused by the .. A. B. C. D. movement of the center of gravity movement of the center of buoyancy toward the low side of the vessel upward movement of the center of floatation increased free surface in the buoyant wedge

Ans. B 4653 To fight a class C fire, you should use Carbon dioxide or .. A. B. C. D. Mechanical foam dry chemical chemical foam chemically treated saw dust

Ans. B 4654 If a CO2 fire extinguisher is not readily available, which of the listed fire extinguishers would be best suited to combat a small electrical fire in a switchboard? A. B. C. D. Dry Chemical Halon Low velocity fog steam

Ans. B 4655 By definition, combustible liquids are liquids which A. B. C. D. spontaneously ignite are highly volatile with a flash point of 0oF have a flash point of 80oF or higher give off flammable vapors at or below 80oF

Ans. C 4656 Which of the following signals represents the emergency signal for a fire aboard merchant vessel? A. Rapid blowing of the ships whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds, supplemented by the same signal on the same signal on the ships bell Rapid ringing of the ships bell for a period of not less than 10 seconds, supplemented by the same signal on the general alarm A continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds, supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds.

B.

C.

D.

A rapid ringing of the ships bell for a period of not less than 10 seconds, supplemented by the same signal on the ships whistle.

Ans. C 4657 Which of the listed fire extinguishers is recommended for use on an electrical switchboard fire? A. B. C. D. CO2 ABC dry chemical CO2 Propelled foam All the above

Ans. A 4658 Which of the petroleum products listed has the lowest flash point? A. B. C. D. Hydraulic oil Lubricating oil Diesel oil Refrigeration oil

Ans. C 4659 A vessels stability is greatly reduced by liquid free surface. Which of the listed conditions would develop the greatest adverse effect? A. B. C. D. Tanks which are 95% full Tanks which have been pressed up to full capacity Tanks which have been completely emptied Tanks which are 40% full

Ans. D

4660 What first aid is appropriate for skin contact with tank residue from a cargo of leaded gasoline? A. B. C. D. Cover the affected area with petroleum jelly Immerse the area in a solution of boric acid Wash the area with soap and water immediately Administer a strong stimulant and treat for shock

Ans. C 4661 Any single ships compartment sustaining partial flooding with free communication to the sea will A. B. C. D. increase reserve buoyancy decrease the free surface effect seriously reduce stability result in the ships sinking

Ans. C 4662 A tank or compartment is considered gas free when it is free of dangerous concentrations of .. A. B. C. D. All flammable liquids any combustible liquid flammable or toxic gases all cargo oil

Ans. C 4663 The powder in a dry chemical fire extinguisher . A. is always ready for use and requires no attention

B. C. D.

may cake up and fail to discharge property if not occasionally agitated deteriorates to an unusable condition within three years puts out the fire with its cooling action

Ans. B 4664 When any tank or compartment is partially filled with a liquid free to move as the ship rolls, the free surface effect is present. This condition will usually .. A. B. C. D. increase reverse buoyancy reduce ship stability Cause a permanent list Change the ships trim

Ans. B 4665 Adverse effects due to free surface will results when .. A. B. the vessel is trimmed by stern the vessels draft is decreased exposing more surface area to the wind and current

4666 Before a shipboard fire can be declared completely out, which of the following steps is/are essential? A. B. The cause of the fire is to be known The fire area is safe for men to enter without a breathing apparatus

4667.If there has been a fire in a closed unventilated compartment it may be unsafe to enter because of__________

A. unburned carbon particles B .excess nitrogen C. a lack of oxygen D. excess hydrogen Ans: c 4667. on a newly constructed oceangoing vessel of 10,000 gross tons equipped with an approved 15ppm only water separator, and bilge monitor continous record must be___________ A. kept readily available for 1year only B. detached monthly for enclosure in the oil record book C. maintained onboared for not less than 3 years D. initialised after each engineering watch by the watch engineer ans: C 4668. If you find that the pressure cartridge on a dry chemical fire extinguisher has been punctured you must ________________ A. replace the pressure cartridge B. replace the chemical agent C. have the unit hydrostatically tested D. weigh the pressure cartridge to determine if it must be replaced Ans : A 4669. free surface effect occurring in tanks should e avoided to ________________ A. reduce hogging and sagging B. maintain staility C. prevent oil pollution D. all of the above Ans: B

4670. When handling petroleum products, static electricity is generated by moving machinery and ______________ A. a grounded person B. the flowing petroleum liquids C. stray electric currents D. a short circuit Ans.B 4671. Which of the following methods will reduce the possibility of producing an electrical spark? A. using a cargo hose with a built in electrical bonding wire B. connecting a bonding wire between the shoreside piping and the vessel C. placing an insulating flange or a section of nonconducting hose in hose setup D. all of the above Ans.D 4673.One advantage of a catridge operated dry chemical extinguisher over that of a stored pressure chemical extinguisher is the former__________________ A. be easily recharged aboard ship B. has a longer operating time C. can be discharged further from the fire D. is lighter in weight Ans. A 4674.How can the build up of static electricity be prevented so that a static spark does not ignite flammale vapours? A. each machine and hose involved in the operation should be grounded B. all electrical near and around the fueling operations should be opened C. dehumifier used in spaces containing flammable liquids will significantly reduce the possibility of static being generated

D. static neutralises can be used to reduce ionisation in the air Ans.A 4675.where would u expect to find a charged mist on a tanker? A. in a common vent header during tank ballasting B. in a cargo tank during butterworthing C. in a cargo tank during inerting operations D. in the overflow line while topping Ans.B 4676.an electrically charged mist will be found in a__ a. diesel engine cylinder b. cargo tank during butterworthing c. fuel tank vent outlet d. flash evaporate flash chamber ans:b 4677.in order to find out which lifeboat you are assighned,you should look at the____ a. certificate of inspection b. muster list c. ships artcles d. fire control plan ans:b 4678.which of the following statement is true

a. the agent is extremely toxic in any concentration b. the agent leaves no residue c. the agent extinguishes a fire by smothering d. all the above ans:b 4679.you can generally improve the vessels stability in a hazardous situation by____ a. pumping double bottoms to the forepeak b. ballasting deep tanks c. transferring ballast athwarships d. deballasting double bottoms ans:b 4680.which of the following statements is true a. agent is considered nontoxic at room temperature in low concentration b. the agent is less effective than co2 c. halon primarily extinguishes the fire by cooling d.the agents cannot be used on electrical because it leaves a residue ans:a 4681.a vessels stability normally increases when tank are ballasted because the vessels__ a. center of gravity is lowered b. center of buoyancy is lowered

c. reserve buoyancy is increased d.freeboard is increased ans:a 4682.event of a collision water tight may be lost if a. sounding tube cap from a damaged tank is missing b. the dogs on the man hole cover are secure c. you have recently replaced a gasket in a water tight door d. you operate the de watering system from a flooded compartment Ans a 4683.wen checking the liquid level in a tank .u should position yourself____ a.on the windward side of the opening. b.on the leeward side of the opening. c.at a right angle to the wind direction d.so that the obstruction of your body will protect you from the fumes ans:c 4684.which fire extinguisher is most prone to freezing when stowed in low temperature a.halon 1211 b.carbon dioxide c.foam d.dry chemicals ans:c

4685.the bypass value on a self contained,demand-type,breathing apparatus bypasses___ a.the regulator in an emergency b.the breathing bag containing excessive pressure c.o2 to the atmosphere d.the regenerator in an emergency ans:a 4686.to use a portable co2 fire extinguisher,you must first___ a.turn the tank upside down b.pull the locking pin c.open the value on the side of the tank. d.shake thoroughly ans:b 4687.which of the component listed are interchangeable between different backpack demand-type self-contained breathing ,apparatus produced by various manufacture? a.the facepiece b.the regulater c.the air cylinder d.all the above ans:d 4688.which of thr listed fire extinguisher cannot be easily recharged aboard ship? a.sooa acid

b.co2 c.dry chemical ,cartridge-operated d.foam ans:b 4689.the safe and efficient use of the facepiece of a demand type self contained breathing apparatus is directly influenced by___________ A.the donning of the facepiece B.the stowing of the facepiece C. the maintainence of the facepiece D. all of the above Ans.d 4690.before the seas get rough,it is a good safety practice to__________ A. secure loose gear B. move quickly about the strip C. increase lighting D. shutdown auxiliary equipment 4691.when the alarm bell on a demand type breathing apparatus sounds how much air supply remains? A. a 45 minute supply of air B. a 23 minute supply of air C. a 1 minute supply of air D.less than 1 minute supply of air

4692.which of the following conditions represents a particular advantage of using a pressure demand type self-contained breathing apparatus in an atmosphere that is immediately dangerous to life or health? A. the positive pressure in the facepiece prevents contaminated air from entering the facepiece B. the average operating time for most air cylinder is over an hour C. the equipment used is lightweight and easy wear a reducing physical strain on the wearer D. the equipment is compact is compact and the wearer can work in confined spaces without difficulty. Ans. A 4693.which of the following statements is correct concerning fire hoses used within the machinery spaces of cargo vessels? A. the fire hoses must be in 25mtr lengths B. the fire hoses be 1 inches in diameter or less C. the fire hoses must be of lined type D. the fire hoses must all be fitted with approved 5/8 inch nozzles Ans. C 4694.special transportation hazards of bulk LPG include__________ A. frost burns to flesh B. high toxicity in small quantities C. noxious odours D. all of the above

4695.according to regulations which of the following conditions is true concerning the construction and/or operation of pressure vacuum relief valves? A. valve bodies discs spindles and seats must all be made of bronze or a corrosion resistant material B. pressue vacuum valves for cargo tank s shall not be less than 2 inches nominal pipe size C. where springs are employed to actuate the valve discs the springs are to be either plated or fabricated of a corrosion resistant material D. the design and construction of the valves is such that they must be removed for overhauling insuring there will be no vent blockage which could during a repair period. Ans. A 4696.fire main outlet valves or hydrants located on exposed decks shall be_________ A. behind glass or a suitably marked enclosure B. protected against freezing or be fitted with cutout valves and drain valves C. opened up and internally examined at each coast guard biannual inspection for certification D. all the above Ans. B 4697.when u have completed bunkering operations the hoses should be_______ A. blown down with inert gas B. drained into drip pans or tanks C. stowed with their ends open for venting

D. steam cleaned and flushed with hot water Ans. B 4698.when should you expect to find an insulating flange in a fueling hose? A. when transferring LNG B. when a bonding caole is employed C. when static electricity is not expected to be a problem D. when the terminal is equipped with a cathodic protection system Page 259 Page 255 4701. A fire station located in engine room is required to have_________. A. a spanner wrench suitable for the size of hose at that station. B. lined or unlined hose depending upon its location. C. a 2mtr or 3mtr low velocit fog applicator. D. all the above 4702. the safety rate of bunkering heavy fuel oil is directly related to the_______. A. type of fuel transfer pump aboard B. temperaure of the fuel oil being received C. size of he fuel sorage tanks ashore D. distance from the fuel oil sorage anks ashore 4703. In a compartement tha has been completely flooded the greatest pressure will be exerted____. A. along he bottom of any bulkhead

B. at the centre of all bulkhead C.along the top of any bulkhead D. on the overhead of all he compartement Ans: A 4704. When using portable tank cleaning machines he hoses may be disconneced when______. A. the machine is inside the tank B. the machine is not inside the tank C.a sailor is sanding by the machine D. the hoses has been partially drained Ans: B 4705. After taking on fuel oil, the hoses should be disconnected and ______. A. draped over the fantail to dry out B. drained over the side and washed out C. drained into the bilges and washed out. D. drained into the bucket of fuel tanks. Ans: D 4706. After transferring fuel to another vessel, hoses should be drained _______. A. to the bilges B. over the side C. into a bucket D. all he above

Ans: C 4707. span gas is used abroad liquified natural gas carriers to______. A. inert the barrier space B. calibrate the gas leak detectors C. odorize the cargo D. detect leaks in cargo piping Ans: B 4708. too prevent the overflow of cargo tanks due o expansion you should top off______. A. to the bottom of the expansion trunk B. to within 1% to 3% of its capacity C. to within 3 to 8 cm of its capacity D. 3 to 8 cm from top of the vent pipe Ans: B 4709. the mos critical part of the bunkering operation which can result in an oil split is when the________. A. hose joint are made up B. tanks are being topped off C. system is being lined up D. pumping operation is being started Ans: B 4710. after fuel tanks have been topped off which of the listed procedures should be followed next?

A. the pressure vaccum relief valve should be reset B. the anks shoud be made seaworthy to prevent contamination C. the tanks should be sounded to make sure the levels are not rising D. the tanks should be marked Ans: C 4711. regulaion for carbon dioxide fixed fire extinguishing systems require________. A. a seperate supply of CO2 be provided for each space protected B. the total supply of CO2 to be at least sufficient for the space requiring the greatest amount C. the total supply of CO2 be equal to the gross tonnage of the vessel divided by 30 D. all the above Ans: B 4712. regulations state that any space containing charged CO2 cylinders shall be properly ventilated to prevent a temperature higher than________. A. 1300F (54.50C) B.1400 F (600C) C.1500F(66.60 C) D.1600F(71.10C) 4713. which of the signals listed is required to be displayed during the day while loading fuel? A. a red flag

B. a yellow flag C. a red and yellow flag D. a red light Ans: A 4714. the pollution prevention regulation requires an emergency means of stopping the flow of oil during oil transfer operation. That emergency mean may be a/an A. manually operated quick valve B. self-closing automatic disconnect fitting C. emergency pump control on he cargo deck D. automaic pressure sensitive oil flow regulator Ans: c 4715. which of he listed function is the purpose of a gas scrubber in an inert gas generation system? A. cools the inert gas B. maintain the oxygen content at 5% by volume C. drains off satic elecricity in the inert gas D. maintains the water seal on the gas main Ans: A 4716. while your vessel is fueling you notice that the transfer hdse has developed a large bulge. Which of the following action should be taken according to regulation if you are the peron in charge? A. wrap the bulge area with nylon line

B.stop the transfer of the fuel C. report the incident to the master D. simply order new hose for the next fueling operation Ans: B 4717. regulations permit which of the following sysem to be used for fire prevention and the simultaneous inerting of cargo tanks on tank vessel? A. an inert gas system B. the deck foam system C.the fixed CO2 system D. a fixed water spray system Ans: A 4718.prior to entering a shipboard compartement containing spilled sewage you should est the atmosphere in the compartement for________. A. hydrogen sulfide B. methane gas C.oxygen D. all the above Ans: D 4719. which of the following methods is used to supply inert gas from a flue gas sysem to he cargo tanks? A. exhaust gas pressure B. high capacity fan C. inert gas compressor

D. natural aspiraion Anss: B 4720. the pollution prevention regulaion prohibit draining________. A. waste oil into the slop tanks. B. lube oil purifier ino the bilge C. fuel oil heaters into bucket D. lude oil trainers into drip pans. Ans: B 4721. open tank ullage holes which are not gas free must be protected by________. A. flame screens B.warning signs C. PV valves D. stop check valves Ans: A 4722. Bilges may be pumped________. a. on the outgoing tide b. overboard after dark c. overboard through an oily water seperator d. anyiime in an emergrncy i.e, main engine lube oil failure 4723. according to regulations new tanks vessels enroute beyond he 50 mile limit may not discharge any oily mixture into the sea from a cargo tank or cargo pump room unless________.

a. the quantity of oil discharged into the sea does not exceed 1/30000 of the total quantity of cargo carried on board b. anchored outside the breakwater c. discharging oil at a rate not exceeding 200 litres per nautical mile d. the quantity of oil dicharged into the surrounding waters does not exceed 1/600000 of the total quanity of cargo carried onboard Ans: a 4724. the device used preventing the passage of flames into enclosed spaces is called a________. a. flame relief valve b. flame sopper c. safety valve d. flame arrestor ans: d 4725. a low velocity fog applicator is held in an all purpose nozzle by a bayonet joint. The applicator is prevented from roating in the joint by________. a. water pressure b. a keeper screw c. a spring loaded catch d. a lockout ans: c 4726. in port after chemically cleaning a fuel oil tank, you should dispose of the waste oil by________.

a. pumping it into the sewer connection b. centrifuging and reclaiming it c. circulating it through an oil and water seperator d. discharging it into a slop barge or holding tank ans: d 4727. as soon as you hear the fire and emergency signal you should ensure that the________. a. ring buoys are thrown overboard b. engines are stopped c. fire pumps are started d. life preservers have been issues o everyone ans: c 4728. which of he following acions should be taken by the engine room watch when the general alarm is sounded continously? a. the fire pump hould be started b. the boiler fires should be executed c. the fixed Co2 system should be initiated into action d. the endine room ventilation should be secured. Ans: a 4729. which of the listed operations must be personally supervised by the person in charge while taking on fuel? a. posting of declaration of inspection in a conspicious space under glass b. topping of any being loaded

c. disposing overboard all waste oil or slops from drip pans d. periodic sampling during the loading o ensure unifoemiy. Ans: b 4730. during topping off of bunker tanks the loading rate mus be personally supervised by the________. a. terminal operator b. person-in-charge c. master d. engineer in watch ans: b 4731. when bunkering operation are completed the hoses should be________. a. drained into drip pans or tanks b. blown down with nitrogen or inert gas c. steam cleaned and flushed with hot water d. slowed with their ends open for vening ans: a 4732. the term oil as used in the pollution prevention regulation means________. a. fuel oil only b. crude oil only c. liquified petroleum gas d. petroleum oil of any kind

ans: d 4733. where are remote readouts for oxygen concentration pressure and temperature oof an inert gas required to be located? a. bridge and engine control consoles b. bridge and tanks being inerted c. main deck and engine control consoles d. cargo control and engine control consoles ans: d 4734. an oxygen indicator will detect________. a. concentrations of explosive gas b. an oxygen deficiency in a space c. he pressure of harmful of carbon monoxide d. all the above ans: b 4735. during loading and discharging operaion in addition o when the cargo tanks have been properly filled each inert gas system must be capable of maintaining a minimum gas pressure of________. a. 50 millimeters of water pressure b. 25 millimeters of water pressure c. 00 millimeters of water pressure d. 5 millimeters of water pressure

4736. an international oil pollution prevention(IOPP) certificate ceases be valid on a ship when______. a. the ship change its por of documentation b. the certificate exceeds 2 years from the dae of issue c. an intermediate survey as required is not carried out d. the vessel owners cease to belong o IMO(Internaional Maritime Organisation)

4737 Used engine oil may be properly disposed of by____________ A draining it into the bilges B discharging it to dock oil waste station C pumping or throwing it over the side in port D dumping it in a gasoline fuel tank ANS B 4738 According to regulations,all exposed and dangerous places,such as gears and machinery shall be properly protected with______________ A covers B guards C rails D all the above ANS D 4739 What safety precautions should be observed by the crew while working around machinery in an engine room? A They should wear safety shoes

B They should wear ear protection C They should wear jewelry D All the above ANS D 4740 According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations,which of the following qualifies as a discharge of oil? A Leakage of oil to the water by an improperly blanked transfer hose B Spilling oil on the main deck and having it flow over the side C Pumping oil overboard through a fixed piping system D A ll the above ANS D 4741 Vessel stability can be adversely affected by_____________ A increasing the free surface effect B decreasing the free surface effect C ballasting down by the bow D ballasting down bu the stern ANS A 4742 Which of the following represents the maximum percent of oxygen by volume,required to be achieved by a ships inert gas system,prior to the commencement of crude oil tank washing? A 0.06 B 0.08 C 0.1

D 0.12 ANS B 4743 Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with corrosion resistant wire mesh screen to_____________ A prevent dirt from entering the tank B dissipate fumes leaving the vent C prevent flames from entering the tank D prevent accidental overflow ANS C 4744 You are alone and administrating CPR to an adult victim.H ow many chest compessions and how many inflations should you administer in each sequence? A 5compressions, then 1 inflation B 15compressions, then 2 inflations C 20compressions, then 3 inflations D 30compressions,then 4 inflations ANS B 4745 A Vessel which is subjected to sagging_________ A has its main deck under tensile stress B has its bottom plating under tensile stress C is supported on a wave whose crest is amidships D is said to be under a form of transverse bending ANS B

4746 Automatically closed fire dampers installed in the vessels ventilation system are operated by the use of a_________ A remote operated valve B fusible link C Co2 system pressure switch D heat or smoke detector ANS B 4747 The horizontal port,or staboard movement of a vessel is called___________ A yaw B sway C surge D heave ANS B 4748 If a cup of oil is spiled during fueling and causes a sheen upon the water it ___________ A must be reported to the fire department B must be reported to the port control authourities C must be reported to the harbour master D need not be reported since the spill was less 250 barrels ANS B 4749 in accordance with regulations ,approved buoyant work vests ___________________________

A should be stowed in engineering spaces in lieunof approved life preserves because they are less bulky and permit free movement in confined spaces Bmay be used as a substitute for approved life preserves during routine drills ,but never during an emergency C should not be stowed where they could be confused with life jackets in an emergency D all of the above ANS C 4750 prior to entering a cargo pump room,you should ensure that __________ A the forced ventilating system is operating B the cargo pumps are secured C no monocarbon gases are present D the oily water seperator is de energized ANS A 4751 To safeguard the operator and other personnel working on or near a hoisting operation ,operation,which of the following precautions should be observed? A Keep a load on the hoist until all personnel are finished working B Set the load on a movable dolly when transportation may be needed C Have one man keep a hand on the load to steady it D Insure that the lifting gear capacity is not exceeded ANS D 4752Which of the following statements describes one of the functions of the ballasting system?

A To permit flooding of any fuel oil storage tank on any class ship B To use it as a secondary service system C To store reserve feed or portable water for extended cruises D To stabilize the ship by flooding certain designed tanks with seawater ANS D 4753 The angular movement of a vessel about a horizontal line drawn from its bow to its stern is_________ A pitching B rolling C heaving D swaying ANS B 4754 To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping system,you should FIRST_________ A open sea suction valves,then start the cargo pump B start the cargo pump,then open sea suction valves C open block valves,then start the cargo pump D open slunce valves,then start the cargo pump ANS B 4755 The resculer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth ventilation by pinching the victims nostrils and__________ A cupping a hand around the patients mouth B keeping the head elevated

C applying his mouth tightly over the victims mouth D holding the jaw down firmly ANS C 4756 Why is it necessary to cool the bulkheads,decks,andoverheads surrounding an involved compartment fire? A Cool the metal below its ignition temperature B Form a dense coating of smothering steam C Prevent oxygen from reaching the flames D Prevent the fire from spreading by heat conduction ANS D 4757 An immersion suit should be equipped with a/an_______________ A air bottle for breathing B whistle and handled flare C whistle strobe light and reflective tape D whistle handled flare and sea dye marker ANS C 4758 Portable Halon extinguishers used on a classBfire should be directed__________________ A at the top of the flames B at the base of the fire near the edge C in short,quick bursts D toward the upward side of the fire

ANS B 4759 When taking soundings the tape should be lowered and brought back quickly to__________________ A reduce the time the sounding tube is open B avoid creating a spark C lessen the effect of roll or pitch on the reading D lessen the effect of heave on the reading ANS C 4760 Which of the following conditions represents the appropriate time for seating off distress flares and rockets? A Only when there is a chance of them being seen by rescue vessels B At half-hour intervals C At one hour intervals D Immediately upon abandoning the vessel ANS A 4761 A straight stream of water should be used to extinguish___________________ A galley grease fires B fuel oil fires C burning bedding materials D a fire in the paint locker ANS C 4762 Rolling is the angular motion of the vessel about what axis?

A Longitudinal B Transverse C Vertical D Centerline ANS A 4763 Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done_______________ A without losing the rhythm of respiration B only with the help of two other people C by not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutes D at ten minute intervals ANS A 4764 Which of the listed types of fires should be extinguished with a straight stream of water? A Bilge B Mattress C Vertical D Switchboard ANS B 4765 When is it required for a dry chemical fire extinguisher to be recharged? A After each use B When the air temperature exceeds 32*C

C Every six months D Every 12 months ANS A 4766 You are transferring fuel from a supply vessel to your ship .If you close off tank in the line of tanks being filled,the flow rate to the other open tanks on the same line will_________________ A increase B decrease C stop D stabilize ANS A 4767 The termsegregated ballast is defined in the Pollution Prevention Regulations as ballast water introduced into a/an_______________ A tank that is completely separated from the cargo oil and fuel oil systems B fuel setting tank for segragration from lighter fluids C oily water separator for segregration D isolated tank for analysis because of its noxious properties ANS A 4768 For a floating vessel ,the center of buoyancy and the metacenter are in the line of action of the buoyant force__________________ A only when there is positive stability B only when there is negative stability C only when there is neutral stability

D at all times ANS D 4769 Before CPR is started on the victim,you should______________ A establish an open always B treat any bleeding wounds C insure the victim is conscious D make the victim comfortable ANS A 4770 When entering a burning compartment and equipped with a fire hose and an all purpose nozzle,you should first direct_________________ A a straight stream into the center of the space B the high velocity fog into the center of the space C the high velocity fog at the overhead to absorb heat D the high velocity fog at the deck to cool it for entry ANS C 4771 The free surface effects of a partially full tank in a floating vessel decrease with the ___________ A surface area of the tank B displacement volume C draft of the MODU D height of the tank above the keel ANS B

4772 A load line for a cargo ship is assigned by the______________ A P&I club B Ministry of Surface Transport C Corps of Engineers D a recognized classification society approved by the Administration ANS D 4775 Horizontal fore or aft motion of a vessel A. Pitch B. Surge C. Sway D. Roll Ans: B 4776 according to pollution prevention regulations (MARPOL) if a cargo Hose shows a small leak in its fiber you may transfer oil after. A. The terminal foreman is notified. B. The hose is replaced. C. The hose leak is securely wrapped. D. The drip pan is placed under the leak. Ans: B 4777 When two people are administrating CPR to a victim , how manytime Per minute should the chest be compressed? A. 15 B. 30 C. 60 D. 80 Ans: C 4778 to effectively and safely combat a passage way fire. A. Two hose teams should attack the fire from opposite direction B. The fire should be attacked from above if possible. C. Fire should be attacked form only one direction. D. Water must not be used if the passage way is above the metacentric height. Ans: C 4779 spaces protected by a fixed co2 system must be equipped with an

Alarm which is to sound---------------A. for the first 20 seconds co2 is being released into the space B. for the least 20 seconds prior to release of co2 C. during the entire period that co2 is being released D. if all doors and ventilation are not secured . Ans: D 4780 what must be accurately assess the potential for progressive flooding after a vessel has been damaged . A. the integrity of the water type boundaries . B. the capacity of the water sprinklers system. C. The operation of machinery space blige level alarms. D. All the above. Ans : B if a leak in fueling hose coupling cannot be stopped by lightening The coupling joint , you should A. reduce the pumping pressure to reduce the leakage rate B. stop the fueling operation and correct the leak C. spread absorbent material on deck beneath the leak in order to confine it D. notify the local port authority of a potential oil spill Ans:B 4782 when using the rain water collection tubes on a liferaft , the first collection should be , A. passed around so all can drink, B. poured over board because of salt washed of the canopy, C. saved to be used ,at later time, D. used to boil food. Ans: B 4783 Low velocity fog extinguishes a fire by A. smothering and washing out B. smothering and cooling C. cooling and washing out D. none of the above Ans:B 4784 when small angle stability , when external force is exist the buoyant force is assumed at vertically upwards to the center of buoyance and through 4781

A. B. C. D.

center of gravity, center of floatation metacenter metacentric height Ans:C

4785 A. B. C. D.

After a person has been revived by artificial respiration, they should Be walking around until he is back to normal given several shots of whiskey kept lying down and warm allowed to do as he wishes Ans:c the low velocity fog applicator is used in fire fighting to apply large droplets of foam cool and smother the fire breakup burning emburs extinguishing hard to reach electrical fires , Ans :B

4786 A. B. C. D.

4787 The passive safety device installed on each Halon fire extinguishes Cylinder o prevent its over pressurization is called a A. safety valve B. relief valve C. rupture disc D. control head Ans:C 4788 A. B. C. D. the jettisoning of topside weight from a floating vessel serves which of purposes listed it returns the vessel to an even keel it reduces free surface effect. It lower the center of gravity . It raises the center of gravity, Ans: C

4789 In order for you to operate your vessels crude oil wash system, the Cargo tanks to be washrd must be A. opened to the atmosphere for ventilation B. gas free C. inerted D. full of cargo Ans: C 4790 oil population regulation (MARPOL) requires any transfer or discharged of oil or oily mixtures to be recorded in A. bridge log B. masters log C. engine room log D. oil record book. Ans :D 4791 where multiple fire pumps are installed , they may be used for other Purposes provided that one pump is A. on line and in operations at all times to the fire main B. kept available for use on the fire man at all times C. capable of being quickly connected to the fire main with a suitable pipe spool D. rated at or above 125psi Ans.B 4792 in order to initiate CPR on a drowning victim A. start chest compressions before the victim is removed from the water B. drain water from the lungs before ventilation C. begin mouth to mouth ventilation D. do not tilt the head back since it may cause vomiting Ans: C 4793 inspection of a Halon fire extinguisher involves checking the hose Handle , nozzle ,and A. easy sight glass B. weighting of the extinguisher C. the service technicians report D. the last date it was charged Ans: B 4794 which of the following is correct statement with respect to inserting an airway tube

A. B. C. D.

only a trained person should attempt to insert an airway tube a size#2 airway is correct size for an adult the airway tube will not damage the victims thorat inserting the air way tube will prevent vomiting Ans:A

4795 The piece of equipment shown in the illustration is used with a fire Hose to produce A. high velocity fog B. mechanical foam C. low velocity fog D. light water Ans:B 4796 after using a portable halon fire extinguisher if should be A. put back in service if more more than 50% of charge remains B. repainted C. hydrostaticaly tested before resuse D. discared Ans: D 4797 A floting vessel will behave as if all of its weight is acting downward Through the. A. center of gravity b. centre of buoyancy c. center of flotation d. metecenter Ans.A 4798 in a crude oil washing system ,according to regulation each cargo tank shall be fitted with a sufficient number of a machine such that those areas unwashed by direct impingement shall not execeed 10% for horizontal area A. 5% for vertical area s B. 10% for vertical areas C. 15% for vertical areas D. 20% for vertical areas Ans:C 4799 To turn over a life raft that is floating upside down you should Pull on the

A. canopy B. manropes C. seapainter D. righting lines Ans D 4800 which of the following conditions can contribute to accidents A. Good housekeeping B. Inspections C. Unsafe conditions D. Intelligent work habits 4801 Class b EPIRB transmit on frequencys that are mentioned by.. A. orbiting satellite in space B, commercial radio stations C. private,commercialand military aircraft D. commercial fishing vessel Ans.C 4802 which of the following procedures is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is overich explosive or too lean to support combustion A. Use the open flame test on a small sample that has been taken from the tank B. Send a gas sample ashore for library analysis C. Enter the tank with a Teledyne oxygen analyser D. Use the explosive Ans: D 4803 The master or the captain who is in charge of cargo ship must record the date Of each emergency lighting system power system the condition of each and performance Of the equipment A. on the certificate of inspection B. on the muster list C. in the operations manual D. in the office log Ans:D 4804 in the absence of external forces the center of gravity of a floating Vessel is located directly above the A. Metacenter B. Amidships C. Center of flotation

D. Geometric center of displaced volume Ans: D

4805 A vessel that is subjected to hogging.. A. has its main deck under compressive stress B. has its main deck plating under tensile stress C. has its bottom plate under tensile stress D. has its bottom plating under ductile stress Ans:B 4806 the sea painter of an inflatable liferaft Should be A. Free running on deck B. Faked out next to the case C. Secured to a permanent object on the deck via a weak link D. Stowed near the raft Ans: C 4807 Water ballast placed in a tank that has been crudeoil washed, but Not water rinsed , shall be regarded as A. clean ballast B. dirty blast C. segregated ballast D. crude oil Ans: B 4808 at all angles of inclination the metacenter is located A. Vertically above the center of buoyancy B. Vertically above the center of gravity C. At the intersection of the upright vertical center line and the line of action Of buoyant force D. Geometric center of the underwater volume Ans: A 4809 According to MARPOL regulation , all ships are required to Prepare , submit and maintain an A. synthetic plastic discharge plan

oil discharge plan shipboard oil pollution emergency plan vapour recovery procedures plan Ans: C 4810 a person has suffered a laceration of the arm . serve bleeding has been Controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure .which of the following Actions should be taken next? A. Apply a tourniquet to prevent the bleeding from restarting B. Apply a pressure bandage over the dressing C. Remove any small foreign matter and apply antiseptic D. Administer fluids to assist the body in replacing the lost blood Ans: B 4813 the term arrival ballast refers to _______? a. brackish water ballast b. dirty ballast c. clean ballast d. any form of sea water ballast ans c 4814 the volume of vessel above the ewater line that can be made water tight is? a. displacement volume b. reserve bouyance c. gross tonnage d. net tonnage ans b 4815 when fire pumps are used for purpose other than firefighting, each pipe connection to the other(other than the branch line used for deck washing) must have a

B. C. D.

a. check valve installed in the line b. shutoff valve near the manifold near the pumo c. quick d/c union with in 10 feet of the pump d. regulator set in the line at 8.8 kg/cm2 ans b 4816 bleeding from a wound may ordinarily be controlled by a. applying pressure on the wound b. heavy disinfectant application c. pouring ice water directly d. pinching the wound closed. Ans a 4817 stability after the unintentional flooding of a compartment on a cargo vessel is called a. intact stability b. initial stability c. immersion stability d. damage stability and d 4818 as per MARPOL , the ship board oil pollution emergency plan must include_________? a. all info provided in the oil record book. b. an explaination and purpose of the plan

c. a one line schematic of the plan to be implimented d. the operating instructions for any and all oily water separator installed aboard the vessel and b 4819 when compared to others water fog has a. the greatest ability to form foam. b. the greatest cooling ability c. will completely remove toxic fumes from the air d. will completely remove combustible vapors from air and b 4820 the quality of initial stability is indicated by a. GM b. KM d. maximum allowed KG ans a 4821 an initial attempt to to extinguish a galley fire may be made by using______? a. water. b. mechanical foam system c. the range hood extinguishing system d. fire dampers only ansc

4822 which of the following is the method to release an inflatable life raft by hand from an ocean going vessel? a. connect the stainless steel linkto the vessel b.pull the line (painter) from the container and make it fast to the cleat provided c. open canopy relief valves d. remove the raft from the container to permit complete inflation and b 4823 the wooden plug fitted tightly on vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from A. filling completely b. developing free spaces c. developing free space moments d. collapsing ans a 4824 the anglr to which a floating vessel with a negative initial meta centric height, lies while at rest in still water is the angle of_______? a. trim b. yow c. heel d. loll ans d 4825 on a cargo ship size I & II fire extinguishers are considered_____? a. fixed systems

b. steam generated c. hand portable units d. semi portable units ans c 4826 the upward force of displaced water is known as______ a. buoyancy b. dead weight c. draft d. free board ans a 4827 blood flowing from a cut artillery will appear_____ A. dark red and steady slow B, bright red and a constant flow c. dark red on spurts d. bright res in spurts ans c 4828 one of the precautions when fighting galley fire is__________ a. contamination of food b. spreading of fire through machinery space c. the loss of stability d. the igniting of grease fire in the range hood ventilation system ans d

4829 actuating the CO2 system should automatically shut down a. fuel supply only b. exhaust ventilation only c. supply of exhaust ventilation d. mechanical and natural ventilation ans c 4830 the stamped full weight of a 45 kg CO2 cylinder is 142 kg. what is the total minimum height of the cylinder before it must be recharged? a. 128 kg b. 133kg c. 133kg d.138 kg ans d 4831 during counterflooding to correct a severe list or trim aggravated byon off center load, the cargo ship suddenly takes the list or trim to the opposite side, you should a. continue counterflooding in same direction b couter flood in opposite direction c. immediately stop counter flood d. deballast from the low side ans 4832 if the alarm in the fixed CO2 system sounds in the engine room you should_______

a. leave space immediatlly b. start the fire pump c. make certain that the CO2 starts flowing into the space d. immidiatly assist the fixed system by discharging all portable units as well. Ans a 4833 which represents height of the center buoyancy a. BK b. HB c. CB d. BM ans b 4834 how often are fire hoses required to be tested? a. ones a week b. ones a month c. ones a year. c. ones in each drill ans c 4835 what is the primary purpose of applying splint in the first aid? a. control bleeding b. reduce pain. c. immobilize the fracture. d. reset the bone

ans c 4836 a Crude Oil Wash system is considered as______ a. a water operated butterworth syste, b. a mechanism that filters and purifies crude oil c. a Butterworth system using crude oil instead of water as the cleaning system d. a clean up for pump room bilges ans c 4837 a CO2 extinguisher has lost 10% of its charge it now must be a. used at the earliest opportunity b. hydrotested c, recharged d. weighed again in one month ans c 4838 before releasing the CO2 in the machinery space the alarm for the fixed co2 system must sound for atleast a. 20 secs b. 40 secs c. 60 secs d. 30 secs ans a 4839 a co2 fire extinguisher must be weighed a. monthly

b. quarterly c. semi annually d. annually ans d 4840 a compound fracture is a fracture in which a. more than one bone is broken b. one bome is broken in more than one place c. causes internal bleeding d. causes external bleeding at the sight of the fracture ans d 4841 which of the following would be the most serious> A. compound b.greenstick c. closed d. crack ans a 4842 which of the folloeing concerning chemical foam is true a. formed as a result os reaction b/w dry powder and water b. it is used on fires in main propultion electric motors c. formed by rapid mixing of foam liquid, water and air d. used in fighting only chemical fires, ans a

4843 in positive stability GZ reps a. b. c. d. Ans c 4844 in the fixed CO2 system Pilot cylinders are used for a. direct CO2 in the pilot house b. activate individual groups of CO2 bottles in a pre determined time delay sequence c. activate the main bank all at ones d. automatically activate the main bank if the abnormal heat rise is detected ans c 4845 to keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning the ship they must a. be placed in the middle of the circle formed by other survivors b. float on the water with arms extended for maximum area c. remove the life jacket and hold on to the un injured survivor d. ship sea water at interval of 15 mins ans a 4846 if you have to abandon a ship and jump in water, your legs must be a. spread apart as far as possible b. held as tightly against your chest as possible Righting moment Center of gravity Righting arm Metallic height

c. in a kneeling positon d. extended straight back and crossed at the ankles ans d 4847 when discharging the main bank of fixed CO2 into the major engine room fire CO2 pressure is used to a. discharge each bottle b. sound a general alarm c. secure the ventilation fan dampers d. all of the above ans a 4848 when should the emergency position indicating beckon must be activated after abandoning the ship? a. immediately b. after an hour c. only when another vessel In sight d. only after sunset ans a 4849 flooding of any compartment in the ship leading to loss in reserve buoyancy will always a. increase ship stability

Page 271 B. safe for men not safe for fire

c. not safe for men safe for fire d. not safe for men not safe for fire ans: B 4963 The flammable limits of benzene are 1.4% to 8.0% by volume in air. If a reading of 50% of the lower explosive limits is obtained.using the meter shown in the illustration. Thevapor at the sample point is A. 3.3% by volume B. in the flammable range C. too rich to burn D. too laan to burn Ans: D 4964: after life boat has reached the top of the davit hends, the davit arms begin moving up the tracks until movements is stopped by the a. hoist man b. limit switch c. brake handle d. preventer bar ans: B 4965 Which of the following procedures is NOT recommended which it is necessary to swim through an oil fire? A. wear as much as clothing as possible B.enter the water feet first and legs together c.swim iol the the same direction as the wind is blowing D.cover your eyes with one hand when entering the water Ans:C 4966: if ignited,which of the listed materials , would be a class bfire? a. magnesium b. paper c. wood

d. diesel oil ans: D 4967the function of the lifeboat davit switch is to a.control the decent rate of the lifeboat b.control the ascent rate of the lifeboat c.cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat nears the final stowed position d.cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat reaches the davit bumpers Ans:C 4968: to determine whether or not an adult victim has a pulse the rescuerer should check for the pulse at the a. carotine artery in the neck b. femoral artery groin c. brachian artery in the arm d. radial artery in the wrist ans: A 4969 Provided every effort is used to produce.as well as preserve body moisture content by avoiding prepration.how long is it normally possible to survive without stored quantity of water? a.up to 3 days b.8 to 15 days c. 15 to 20 days d.25 to 30 days ans:B 4970: you will find a limit switch on a a. life raft cradle b. radial davit c. sheath-screw davit d. gravity davit

ans: D 4971 A class D fire would be considered as burning a.wood b.oil c.electrical equipment d.magnesium Ans:D 4972: the flammable limits of kerosene is 0.7% to 6.0% by volume in air.if a tank having contained kerosene is tested with the combustable gas indicator, shown in the illustration ,and a reading of 50% is obtained ,this means a. insuffient oxygen exists in the space to support life b. atmosphere contains 50% kerosene vapours by volume in air c. the sample is below the lower explosive limit d. the sample contains approx. 3.0%kerosene vapour by volume ans: C 4973 An unconscious person should NOT be a.placed in a position with the head lower than the body b.gives an inhalation stimulant c.givesn somethings to drink d. treated for injuries. Ans: c 4974: why is it essential to introduce co2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system , into a large engine room , as quickly as possible? a. the fire may warp the co2 piping b. to keep the fire from spreading through the bulk heads c. updraft from the fire tends to carry the co2 away d. co2 takes the long time to disperse toall porioons of a space ans: C

4975when a helicopeter is lifting personnel from an enclosed lifeboat,the other individuals in the boat should a.enter the water in case the person being from the sling b.stand on the outsides of the boat to assist the person being lifted c.remove their lifejackets to prepare for their transfer to the helicopter d.remain seated inside to provide boby weigth for stability ans:D 4976: which of the hazards listed is of a primary concern, other than fire damage, associated with a class c fire? a. susceptible to relflash b. electrocution or shock c. explosion d. deep seated fire ans: B 4977 the reading of a combustible gas indicates the percentages of the a.concentration of the flammable gas in a compartment b.lower explosives limits of a flammable gas concentration c.upper explosives limits of a flammable gas concentration d.concentration by weight of nonflammable gas in a compartments ans:B 4978: the fire main system should be flushed with water ,whenever possible to a. help to destroy marine growth b. identify loose pipe joints c. prevent corrosion of valve stems d. eliminate cracking of fire hose lining ans: A 4979 one of the disadvantange of using carbon dioxide to extinguish a fire in an enclosed space is a.the snow which is sometime discharged along with gas is toxic

b.prolonged exposure to high concentration of CO2 gas causes soffacations c.rapid dissipation of the co2 vapour d.the co2 gas is lighter than air and a large amount is requiredto extinguish a fire near the deck. Ans:b 4980: inflatable liferafts are provided with a. a portable radio b. an oil lantern c. canned milk d. a towing bridle ans: D 4981the good approach to the personnel safty is to assume that all tanksang pumprooms are potentially dangerous. You should immideatly an area whenever A.you have irratations in eyes,nose ,throat b.you smell an unusual odour c.you experience an abnormal bodily sensation d.any of the condition above occur ans:D 4982: in reviving person has been overcome by gas fumes,which of the following treatments wouldyou avoid using? a. giving stimulants b. prompt removal of patients from the suffocating atmosphere c. detremine the need for , and administer CPR if appropriate d. keeping him warm and comfortable ans: A 4983when testing the atmosphere of the compartment with a combustable gas indicator , the operator must remember that a.most petroleum vapours are lighter than air and accumulate the deck latitudinals

b.the indicator garantes a safe atmosphere for a maximum of two hours c.the meters scale indicates only the upper explosive range d.the indicator tests only the atmosphere at the suction tube ans:a 4984: lower level fire mainsstations in the engine room should undergo regular routine maintanence including a. operating the self cleaning strainers once a day b. flushing out the hydrants with full fire main pressure c. repacking valve sterns at three month intervals d. a weekly replacements of fire hose fittings ans: B 4985 when any fire has been extinguished with carbon dioxide there is always the dangers of the a. Fire being reignited by residual damage b. Machinery suffering thermal shock damage c. Dry ice crystal clogging the machinery d. Atmosphere containing a dangerous charge of static electricity Ans:A 4986: a safely feature providing on all inflatable liferafts is a. overhead safety straps b. built in seats c. internal releasing hooks d. the use of water stabilizing pockets ans: D 4987 when operating gravity davits a. The gripes should be released after the boats is moving b. The davits should always be hand cranked the last 12 inches into the final stowed position c. The boats are generally lowered by surging the falls around crucuiform bits

d. The tricking pendent should tripped prior to releasing the gripes Ans:B 4988: which of the following can result in an oxygen deficiencyin a closed space? a. rusting b. cargo residue c. fuel oil residue d. all of the above ans: D 4989 combustable gas indicator are used to tndicate the flammable gases or vapours in atmospheres. As a safty feature they are equipped with a. An audiable signaling devices b. An inflatable bag c. A pressure reliveing devices d. Flame arrest Ans:D 4990: which of the following conditions would be true if a serious leak developed in the main line of a horizontal, looped, fire main system? a. it would not be possible to provide water beyond the point where the break occurred b. the ruptured section could be isolated allowing water to be delivered to all other parts of the system c. the capability of the system would be greatly reduced to the drop in line pressure butstill remain operational through the use of the alternate loop d. full fire main pressure could be maintained but only on one sideof the vessel through the use of either the fore or aft isolation valve ans: B 4991 if you continue to wear extra clothing when entering the water after abandoning your vessel ,it will a. Weigh you down

b. Preserve body heat c. Enduce your body heat d. Make it more difficult to breath Ans:B 4992: the operating cord on a inflatable liferaft also serves as a a. lifeline b. painter c. progue d. marker ans: B 4993 the purpose of the wire stretched between the lifeboat davit heads is to a. Keep the movement of the davits at the same speed b. Keep the davits from slipping when they are in the stowed positon c. Prevent the vibration during lowering the boat 4994: a tank has been sealed an unventilated for a long period of time which of the following conditions does this indicate? a. the tank is safe to enter b. the tank is especially dangerous to enter c. carbon monoxide is present

D. support the manropes Ans: D 4995 The most common type of containment device for spilled oil on the water is the use of-----------A. B. C. D. Straw Booms Skimmers Chemical dispersants

Ans :B D. Water vapor present when the tank was sealed has oxidized Ans: B

4996 Which of the following signals is used to report for boat stations or boat drills? A. More than six short blasts followed one long blast of the whistle B. A continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds C. One long blast followed by three short blasts of the whistle D. Three short blasts of the whistle Ans: A 4997 Combustible gas indicator detect flammable gases or vapors present in the atmosphere by an intricate system which includes --------------A. B. C. D. Ans: A 4998 How may a cargo tank atmosphere be tested for explosive gases? A. Use the open flame test on a small sample that has been taken from the tank B. Sent a gas sample ashore for laboratory analysis C. Enter the tank with a teledyne oxygen analyzer D. Use an explosimeter Burning vapors Metering the vapor Measuring the vapor volume Weighing the vapor

Ans: D

4999 Before you initiate the engine room fixed CO2 system to extinguish a serious fire you would ------A. B. C. D. E. Start the emergency dieselrning Stop the main engine Evacuate all engine room personnel Turn of electrical power

Ans: C 5000 After having thrown the liferait and stowage container into the water the liferaft is inflated by----------A. pulling on the painter line B. forcing open the container which the CO2 C. hitting the hydrostatic release D. using the hand pump provided Ans: A

5001 which of the following statements concerning immersion suit s is correct? A. All models will automatically turn an unconscious person face-up in the water B. The immersion suit seals in all body heat and provides protection against hypothermia for weeks. C. The suit will still serviceable after a brief (2-6 seconds) exposure to flame and burning

D. The wearer of the suit is no way restricted in body movement and the sum may be donned well in advance of abandoning ship Ans :C 5002 Persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison are given large quantities of warm,soapy water or warm salt water to ---------------------A. induce vomiting B. absorb the poison from the blood C. neutralize the poison in the blood D. increase the digestive process and eliminate the poison Ans: A

5003 in cleaning up an oil spill, the use of chemical agents would------------A. B. C. D. Ans: C 5004 If fuel is burned from only the starboard tanks, the ship will-------------------A. go down by the head B. list to starboard C. trim by the stern D. list of port Ans: A Absorb the oil for easy removal Remove the oil from the water Disperse or dissolve the oil in the water Not affected the oil

5005 A raft should be manually released from its cradle by-------------------A . cutting the straps that enclose the container B. removing the rubber sealing strip from the container C. loosening the turnbuckle on the securing strap D. pushing the button on the hydrostatic release Ans: D 5006 A fire is a pile of canvas would be classified as a------------------A. class A B. class B C. classC D. classD Ans: A

5007

Which of the following best defines First Aid? A. B. C. D. Medical treatment of internal injuries Setting of broken bones and transport of victim Emergency treatment of the injury at the scene Dosage of medications and application of bandages

Ans: C 5008 Which of the following terms is the minimum temperature at which a liquid, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet(MSDS),gives off sufficient vapour concentration to ignite in the presence of an ignition source? A. explosion point

B. flash point C. fire point D. danger point Ans: B

5009 While at your lifeboat station, a signal consisting of two short blasts of the ships whistle is sounded.This indicates ------------A. B. C. D. Ans: C 5010 which of the following statements concerning immersion suits is FALSE? A. They should be worn while working on deck if the possibly exists being washed overboard. B. The suit is received from the manufacturer in a bag intended to be used for storage of the suit on board ship. C. During the annual inspection and maintenance ,the zipper should be lubricated with bees wax or paraffin. D. A small leak of water in to the suit will destroy the protective qualities against hypothermia. Ans: D Abandon ship Commence lowering boats Stop lowering boats Secure from boat stations

5199 if the over flow tank high-level alaram sounds whilethe fuel oil tank are being topped off, the engineer should__________ A close the static leg filling valve B close the over flow tank filling valve C reduce the fuel oil pumping rate D stop the fuel oil pumping operation Ans D 5200 To avoid shock pressures in the fuel oil filling hoses while you are topping off tanks,the_________ A loading rate should be decreased B oiler should sound all tanks continously C hoses should be looped D tank vent valves should be clear ANS A 5201 A cylinder used for storing co2 in a fixed fire fighting system, must be hydrostatically retested and restamped every ____________ A once in every calender year B 5 years

C 8 years D 12 years ANS D 5202 which of the following statement is correct concerning fixed carbondioxide fire extinguishing systems ? A a separate supply of carbondioxide must be provided for each space protected B the piping shall be used for no other purpose exceed that it may be in corporated with the fire detecting system C distribution piping within the space shall be proper oned from the supply line t0 give the proper throttling to the outlet D all the above ANS B 5203 The componenet in an inert gas system used for cleaning the gas of solid and sulphur combustion products, while simultaneously cooling the inert gas , is called the ____________________ A fillter B Cooler C Scrubber D Purifier Ans C 5204 the fire extinguishing action of co2 comes mostly from _________ A breaking the fire chemical chain reaction B smothering C cooling

D isolating the heat from the fuel Ans b 5205 the lengthening of a crack formed in the shell plating of a ship may be prevented by ___________A welding brackets across both ends of the crack B chipping out and slots welding the entire crack C drilling a hole at each end of the crack D cutting a square knotch at each end of the crack Ans c 5206 the high concentration of hyrogen sulphide gas is most likely to be found in which of the locations listed ? A fire room bilges where hydrazine has accumalted B sea weage compatment bilges where leaked seaweage has accumulated C engine room bilges where chemical cleaners and solvents have accumulated D emergency battery storage compartment where discharged gases have accumulated Ans b 5207 the blowers of an inert gas generation system aboard a tanker,will be automatically secured if ______________ A normal water supply at the water seal is lost B the temprature of the inert gas beign delivered to the cargo tanks is more than 65c C the cooling water supply to the scrubber is lost

D all of the above Ans d 5208 when pumping sour cruds which gas should be tested for prior to entering the cargo pump room to reapair a leaking pump? A benzene B carbon monooxide C hydrogensulphide D tetraethyl lead Ans c 5209 after allowing for pressure losses,the pressure-volume capacity of an inert gas blower must be able to maintain a pressure,in any cargo tank,with a minimum of ________________ A 50 ml of water B 100 ml of water C 150 ml of water D 200 ml of water Ans b 5210 the pollution prevention regulations prohibing draining __________________ A fuel oil burners into buckets B oil transfer hoses into buckets C fuel oil strainers into the ships bilges D lube oil strainers into the fixed drip pans

Ans c 5211 flame screens used on ullage openings prevent flames from entering a tank by ___________ A reducing the cross sectional area of the opening B restricting the flow of gases through the opening sea C creating turbulence in the exiting gas stream D dissipating heat from the flame into the sorrounding metal Ans d 5212 following a grounding you can best determine that a slack fuel oil tankhas been holded by ___________________________ A sounding the tank B waiting for the vessel to list C examining tank boundaries D checking fuel oil strainers Ans a 5213 when cargo oil tanks are cleaned by crude oil washing while in port____________________ A provision should be made for a shore side holding tank or an onboard slop tank B water should be allowed to settle before discharge overboard C fitters should be installed in bilge strainers to observe oil befofe discharge overboard D the dock superviser need not be notified before discharging oily mixtures overboard

Ans a 5214 at the earliest indication of fire aboard your vessel ,you must FIRST_______________ A locate the fire B determine which type of fire is burning C sound the alaram D fight the fire Ans c 5215 a fire mans outfit carried on board cargo vessels ,must have a ___________ A canister-type gas mask B fresh air breathing apparatus C self contained breathing apparatus D combustible gas indicator Ans c 5216 while on watch in the engine room you hear a continous sounding of the genral alaram.which of the following actions should you take first? A canister-type gas mask B fresh-air breathing apparatus C self-contained breathing apparatus D combustible gas indicator Ans C

5217 pollution prevention regulations state that no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless ______________________ A hoses are supported so that couplings have no strain on them B a sample has been taken from the oil being received C an oil containment boom is available for immediate use D each part of the transfer system is blown through with air ANS: A 5218 when the general alarm is sounded continuosly, the engine room personnel should _______________________________ A proceed to their man over board stations B start the fire pump C put on life jacket and go to their abandon ship stations D secure the propulsion diesel engines and evacute the engine room ANS: B 5219 as soon as you hear the fire and emergency signal you should ensure that __________________________ A the ring buoys are thrown overboard B the engines are stopped C the fire pumps are started D everyone is suited in an approved life preserver ANS:C

5220 when fuel tanks are being topped off,the person incharge of bunkering is directly responsible for the ________________ A loading rate B vessel draft readings C quality of fuel received D temprature of fuel received ANS :A 5221 the term oil as defined in the pollution prevention regulations means_______________________ A petroleum in any form B animal or vegetable based oil C noxious liquid substances designated under ANNEX II of MARPOL 73/78 D all of the above ANS A 5222each inert gas system must be designed to supply the cargo tanks with a gas or mixture of gases that has an oxygen content by volume of ________________________ A 5% or less B 10% or less C 15% or less D 20% or less ANS A

5223 each inert gas system must be equipped with the following instruments : oxygen concentration indicator and recorder, pressure indicator and recorder, and temperature indicator . the point of measurement for these instruments must be located _________________ A after the regulating valve B down stream of the blowers C scrubber outlet D up stream of the liquid filled breaker ANS B 5224 to determine that a compartment that contains suffient oxygen to sustain life,you should use a/an ________________________ A explosi meter B oxygen indicator C fresh air indicator D all of the above ANS B 5225 each ship having an inert gas must have a portable instruments to measure concentrations of hydro carbon vapour in inert atmospheres and also to measure _______________________ A nitrogen B oxygen C carbon-di-oxide D water vapour ANS B

5226 the upper limit of sulphurdioxide permited to be maintained in the inert gas should not exceed______________ A B C D ANS D 5227 if a fuel tank levels are found to have incresed after a grounding, you should suspect_______________ A a damaged pneumecator line B a puncture, crack,or hole in the skin of the vessel C improper record keeping of fuel transfer activities D contamination of the contaminated steam supply system ANS B 5228 regulations require geers, couplings, fly wheels, and all machinery capable of injuring perrsonnel shall be____________________ A protected with adequate covers or guards B indentified by yellow and black warning signs C conspicuously indefied as to their particular hazard D located vwhere they may not be easily contacted ANS A 5229 the explosive range of a mixture of flammable vapours is specified as a percentage of_________________

A flammable vapour by volume in air B oxygen present to support combustion C the temperature of the flash point D the lower limit of explosibility of the mixture Ans A 5230 what operational limitation should the user of a self-contained breathing apparatus be concerned with using a device? A the weight of the unit changes the users center of gravity B the lens of the face piece reduces the pheripheral vision C the attached lifeline limits the users mobility D all of the above are correct Ans D

5027. A combustible gas indicator is used to determine___________________ A. if there is sufficient oxygen to support life B. the toxicity of flammable gases or vapors C. the amount of CO2 present in flue gas D. the presence of flammable gases or vapors in the air Ans. D

5028. Which of the following visual distress signals is acceptable for daylight use only? A. handheld red flare B. self contained rocket propelled parachute red flare C. orange smoke signal D. red aerial pyrotechnic flare Ans. C 5029. Your vessel is taking on fuel oil when a small leak develops in the hose and you have ordered the pumping stopped. Before resuming pumping you should___________________ A. notify terminal superintendent B. place a large drip pan under the leak and plug the scuppers C. repair the hose with a patch D. replace the hose Ans. D 5030. What is the purpose of the liferaft hydrostatic release? A. to release raft from the cradle automatically as the ship sinks B. to inflate the raft automatically C. to test rafts hydrostatically D. None of the above Ans. C

5031. According to regulation, grinders or comminutors used for the discharge of garbage between 3 and 12 nautical miles from the nearest land must be ___________________ A. provided with flush back capabilities insuring the passage of all ground particles through a final control element B. provided on all vessels that may operate on the great lakes and shall discharge under the highest load line of the vessels C. capable of reducing the size of garbage so that it will pass through a screen with openings no greater than 25millimeters D. capable of processing all garbage generated onboard the vessel including all deck and engine department refuse Ans. C 5032. Material listed on a material Safety Data Sheet referring to more than one chemical is called a__________________ A. mixture B. combination C. multi-material D. toxin Ans. A 5033. While loading bulk oil, you notice on the water rear the barge, which of the following actions should you carry out first? A. Search the vessels for leaks B. notify terminal superintendent C. stop loading

D. notify the port authorities Ans. C 5034. Before entering a fuel tank that has been cleaned, it should be checked with an oxygen indicator and a/an_______________ A. orsat apparatus B. flame safety lamp C. Halide torch D. combustible gas indicator. Ans. D 5035. When a patient is suspected of having appendicitis, the primary action is to _______________ A. give patient a laxative to relieve pain B. give patient morphine sulphate to relieve pain C. evacuate patient to a hospital D. give patient aspirin with a glass of water Ans. C 5036. The upper explosive limit of a mixture of flammable vapors and air is defined as_______________ A. that concentration above which there is just enough flammable vapor to produce an explosion B. that concentration above which the mixture is too rich to burn C. the percentage of flammable vapor by volume in air sufficient to create an explosion

D. the percentage of oxygen present in the air sufficient to support combustion Ans. C 5037. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which of the following statements is correct should the boat be enveloped in flames? A. the ventilators will automatically close by the action of fusible links B. The diesel engine will take its air supply from outside the lifeboat to prevent asphyxiation of the crew C. A water spay system to cool the outside of the boat is operated by a high volume manual pump D. A pressurized air tank will provide approximately ten minutes of air for the survivors and the diesel engine Ans. D 5038. Victual waste is______________ A. the final discharge of sewage treatment plans B. any garbage that comes from food provisions C. the resultant sludge that is collected after waterwashing a boiler D. the final waste product of a manufacturing process Ans. B 5039. Most totally enclosed lifeboats are equipped with____________________ A. tanks for the storage of drinking water B. ballast tanks to prevent the boat from capsizing C. buoyant bars and paddles D. auxiliary mechanical propulsion

Ans. C 5040. According to regulations, Which of the following statements is accurate concerning the discharge of garbage? A. the discharge of plastic or garbage mixed with plastic into any waters is permitted B. the discharge of dunnage , living and packing materials that do not float is prohibited within 25 nautical miles of the nearest island. C. the discharge of all garbage is prohibited in the navigable inland waters and in all other waters within three nautical miles of the nearest island D. All of the above are correct Ans. C 5041. Which of the following devices listed will prevent an inflated liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 35 meter deep? A. The hydrostatic release B. A shear pin C. A rottmer release D. removing the oxygen Ans. D 5042. If you detect oil in the water around your vessel while discharging fuel, the first thing to do is_____________ A. try to find out where the oil is coming from B. call the Master C. have the pump man check the discharge piping D. shutdown operations

Ans. D 5043. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by____________________ A. removing the fuel B. removing the heat C. interrupting the chain reaction D. removing the oxygen Ans. A 5044. A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should first be _______________________ A. placed in a sitting position with the head lowered to the knees B. kept standing and encouraged to walk slowly and continuously C. given a glass of water and told to return to work after 15minutes of rest D. directed to move to a cool space unassisted Ans. D 5045. When the height of the metacentre is less than the height of the centre of gravity, a vessel has what type what type of stability? A. stable B. neutral C. Negative D. positive Ans. C

5046. If the metacentric height is small, a floating ship will________________________ A. be tender B. have a quick and rapid motion C. be still D. yaw Ans.A 5047. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations, which of the following actions should be taken FIRST? A. close the valves at the transfer manifold B. notify the person in charge of the shore facility C. shut down the transfer operation D. sound the fire alarm Ans. C 5048. A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should first be _______________________ A. given a mild seawater solution to drink to replace salt and fluids B. kept standing and encouraged to walk slowly and continuously C. given a glass of water and told to return to work after 15minutes of rest D. moved to a cool room and told to lie down Ans. D 5049. The symptoms of a fractured back are __________________

A. leg cramps in the muscles B. pain and uncontrollable jerking of the legs and arms C. vomiting and involuntary urination or bowel movement D. pain at the site of the fracture and possible numbness or paralysis below the injury. Ans. D 5050. To fight a large class A fire contained in a closed compartment, the nozzleman should open a door enough to insert the hose nozzle and initially_______________ A. sweep a straight stream around the compartment B. hold the nozzle steady while applying a straight stream in the area where he suspects the source of the fire to be C. sweep a fog stream around the compartment D. hold the nozzle steady and direct a fog stream in the area where he suspects the fire Ans. C 5051. Which statement regarding garbage disposal is correct? A. records for ground garbage disposal are not required when disposal into the sea occurs more than 25 miles offshore B. discharging or transfer of garbage while in port to a shore facility must be recorded. C. maintaining records for the incineration of garbage aboard ship is not required D. the recording of garbage disposal should include the approximate weight. Ans. B

5052. When dumping garbage into the sea, other than special areas _______________ A. the Port State control must be notified for each occurrence B. records must be provided and maintained for two years C. an entry into the official log book must be made D. no record is required if dumping is carried out more than25 miles offshore and there is no included plastic material Ans. B 5053. How much warning must be provided by the CO2 warning alarm before CO2 is discharged into a space? A. 5 seconds B.10 seconds C. 15 seconds D. 20 Seconds Ans. D 5054.CO2 extinguishes a fire by ________________ A. a blanket of bubbles formed on the surface of the fire B. smothering C. cooling D. isolating the heat from the fuel Ans. B 5055. You can find the location of your abandon ship post by checking the________________

A. vessels logbook B. vessels documentation C. muster list D. Certificate of inspection Ans. C 5056. The lights on the outside of the canopy of an inflatable liferaft operate______________ A. by turning the globe clockwisestances B. by a switch at each light C. by a light sensor D. automatically when the raft is inflated Ans. D 5057. When administering first aid you should avoid ____________________--A. any conversation with the patient B. instructing bystanders C. unnecessary haste and appearance of uncertainity D. touching the patient Ans. C 5058. The best extinguishing agent for fighting a burning mattress fire is the use of_________________ A. carbon dioxide B. water in a solid stream

C. foam D. dry chemicals Ans. B

5059. Normal mouth temperature is____________________ A. 96.4F B. 97.5F C.98.6F D.99.7F Ans. C 5060. Which of the following fire extinguishing agents is best suited for use on a large class B fire occurring on the open deck of a vessel? A. CO2 B. Aqueous film forming foam C. dry chemical D. steam smothering system Ans. B 5011 To launch a liferaft by hand, you should--------------

A. cut the casing bands throw the liferaft over the side and it will then inflate B. detach the operating cord, throw the raft over the side and it will then inflate C. cut the casing bands, throw the raft over the side and pull the operating cord D. throw the liferaft over the side and pull the operating cord

Ans: D 5012 A fire involving trash and paper waste would be classified as a------------A. classA B. classB C. classC D. classD Ans: A 5013 A liquid as listed on Material Safety Data Sheet(MSDS)having a flash point at above 100F is called a/an---------------A. explosive liquid B. combustible liquid C. flammable liquid D. viscous liquid Ans: B 5014 If an emergency pump control is used as the emergency shutdown on a tank vessel,it must stop the flow of oil through------------------A. the main deck manifold B. the facility C. the pump D. a mean that is not dependant on electrical power Ans C

5015

When should distress flares and rockets be used?

A. only when there is a chance of them being sighted by rescue vessels B. they should be set off at half-hour intervals C. they should be set off at one-hour intervals D. immediately upon abandoning the vessel Ans: A 5016 Physical data on a safety data sheet(MSDS) which describes chemicals that produce health effects requiring medical attention where damage may be permanent but is neither life threatening nor seriously disabling, is called--------------A. moderate exposure level B. high toxicity C. high exposure level D. moderate toxicity Ans: D

5017

Burning wood is considered to be which of the listed classes of fire?

A. class A B. class B C. class C D. class D Ans:A

5018 A specific document identities a chemical,listing its physical properties,health hazards,required controls, firefighting procedures,clean up methods,waste disposal and the safe handling and storage requirements. This document is a---------------A. hazardous chemical information sheet B. physical/chemical characteristics documents C. material safety data sheet D. hazardous chemical loading document Ans: C

5019 epilespsy is a chronic nervous disorder charecterised by ________________ A. severe nausea and cramps B. Muscular convulsions with partial or complete loss of consciousness C. sudden thirst and craving for candy D. severe agitation and desire to get out of close spaces Ans B 5020 Which of the following statements describes the correct method to use when applying CO2 from a portable fire extinguisher? A. bounce the CO2 off the bulkhead B. apply CO2 to the base of the flames in a sweeping motion C. Apply the CO2 to the center of the flames with a beating motion

D. Direct the CO2 in as near a vertical upward direction as possible Ans: B

5021 when using a handheld smoke signal in a life boat ,you should ______________ A. Activate the signal on the downwind side B. activate the signal on the upwind side C. activate the signal inside the boat D. activate the signal at the stern Ans: A 5022 A chemical material as listed on a material safety data sheet (MSDS) that supplies oxygen required to start or support fire is called a/an..

A. irritant B. polymerization hazard C. oxidizer D. toxin Ans: C 5023 As a vessel sinks to a depth of 5 meters, the hydrostatic trip releases the life craft container from its cradle by _________________ A. breaking the weak link B. releasing the tie-down strap

C. pulling the operating cord D. releasing the co2 canister Ans: B 5024 which of the statements listed is accurate concerning fire involving carbon tetrachloride? A. it will explode if exposed to a flame B. phosegene gas may be formed if it comes in contact with hot metal C. it will burn rapidly once ignited D. you cannot use water to fight the fire because it will react with the carbon tetrachloride Ans: B 5025 prior to the lifeboat,the most important item to check is the ____________ A. oars B. sail C. boat plug D. life preservers Ans:

5026 While providing assistance to victim of an epileptic seizure, it is most important to. A. move a patient to a comfortable bed B. get professional medical advice for further medical care C. keep the patient awake and make him walk if necessary to keep him awake

D. Remove any soiled clothing and put the patient in a clean bed Ans: a patient awake and make him walk if necessary to keep him awake D. Remove any soiled clothing and put the patient in a clean bed Ans: 5027. A combustible gas indicator is used to determine___________________ A. if there is sufficient oxygen to support life B. the toxicity of flammable gases or vapors C. the amount of CO2 present in flue gas D. the presence of flammable gases or vapors in the air Ans. D 5028. Which of the following visual distress signals is acceptable for daylight use only? A. handheld red flare B. self contained rocket propelled parachute red flare C. orange smoke signal D. red aerial pyrotechnic flare Ans. C 5029. Your vessel is taking on fuel oil when a small leak develops in the hose and you have ordered the pumping stopped. Before resuming pumping you should___________________ A. notify terminal superintendent B. place a large drip pan under the leak and plug the scuppers

C. repair the hose with a patch D. replace the hose Ans. D 5030. What is the purpose of the liferaft hydrostatic release? A. to release raft from the cradle automatically as the ship sinks B. to inflate the raft automatically C. to test rafts hydrostatically D. None of the above Ans. C 5031. According to regulation, grinders or comminutors used for the discharge of garbage between 3 and 12 nautical miles from the nearest land must be ___________________ A. provided with flush back capabilities insuring the passage of all ground particles through a final control element B. provided on all vessels that may operate on the great lakes and shall discharge under the highest load line of the vessels C. capable of reducing the size of garbage so that it will pass through a screen with openings no greater than 25millimeters D. capable of processing all garbage generated onboard the vessel including all deck and engine department refuse Ans. C 5032. Material listed on a material Safety Data Sheet referring to more than one chemical is called a__________________ A. mixture

B. combination C. multi-material D. toxin Ans. A 5033. While loading bulk oil, you notice on the water rear the barge, which of the following actions should you carry out first? A. Search the vessels for leaks B. notify terminal superintendent C. stop loading D. notify the port authorities Ans. C 5034. Before entering a fuel tank that has been cleaned, it should be checked with an oxygen indicator and a/an_______________ A. orsat apparatus B. flame safety lamp C. Halide torch D. combustible gas indicator. Ans. D 5035. When a patient is suspected of having appendicitis, the primary action is to _______________ A. give patient a laxative to relieve pain B. give patient morphine sulphate to relieve pain C. evacuate patient to a hospital

D. give patient aspirin with a glass of water Ans. C 5036. The upper explosive limit of a mixture of flammable vapors and air is defined as_______________ A. that concentration above which there is just enough flammable vapor to produce an explosion B. that concentration above which the mixture is too rich to burn C. the percentage of flammable vapor by volume in air sufficient to create an explosion D. the percentage of oxygen present in the air sufficient to support combustion Ans. C 5037. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which of the following statements is correct should the boat be enveloped in flames? A. the ventilators will automatically close by the action of fusible links B. The diesel engine will take its air supply from outside the lifeboat to prevent asphyxiation of the crew C. A water spay system to cool the outside of the boat is operated by a high volume manual pump D. A pressurized air tank will provide approximately ten minutes of air for the survivors and the diesel engine Ans. D 5038. Victual waste is______________ A. the final discharge of sewage treatment plans B. any garbage that comes from food provisions

C. the resultant sludge that is collected after waterwashing a boiler D. the final waste product of a manufacturing process Ans. B 5039. Most totally enclosed lifeboats are equipped with____________________ A. tanks for the storage of drinking water B. ballast tanks to prevent the boat from capsizing C. buoyant bars and paddles D. auxiliary mechanical propulsion Ans. C 5040. According to regulations, Which of the following statements is accurate concerning the discharge of garbage? A. the discharge of plastic or garbage mixed with plastic into any waters is permitted B. the discharge of dunnage , living and packing materials that do not float is prohibited within 25 nautical miles of the nearest island. C. the discharge of all garbage is prohibited in the navigable inland waters and in all other waters within three nautical miles of the nearest island D. All of the above are correct Ans. C 5041. Which of the following devices listed will prevent an inflated liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 35 meter deep? A. The hydrostatic release B. A shear pin

C. A rottmer release D. removing the oxygen Ans. D 5042. If you detect oil in the water around your vessel while discharging fuel, the first thing to do is_____________ A. try to find out where the oil is coming from B. call the Master C. have the pump man check the discharge piping D. shutdown operations Ans. D 5043. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by____________________ A. removing the fuel B. removing the heat C. interrupting the chain reaction D. removing the oxygen Ans. A 5044. A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should first be _______________________ A. placed in a sitting position with the head lowered to the knees B. kept standing and encouraged to walk slowly and continuously C. given a glass of water and told to return to work after 15minutes of rest D. directed to move to a cool space unassisted

Ans. D 5045. When the height of the metacentre is less than the height of the centre of gravity, a vessel has what type what type of stability? A. stable B. neutral C. Negative D. positive Ans. C 5046. If the metacentric height is small, a floating ship will________________________ A. be tender B. have a quick and rapid motion C. be still D. yaw Ans.A 5047. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations, which of the following actions should be taken FIRST? A. close the valves at the transfer manifold B. notify the person in charge of the shore facility C. shut down the transfer operation D. sound the fire alarm Ans. C

5048. A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should first be _______________________ A. given a mild seawater solution to drink to replace salt and fluids B. kept standing and encouraged to walk slowly and continuously C. given a glass of water and told to return to work after 15minutes of rest D. moved to a cool room and told to lie down Ans. D 5049. The symptoms of a fractured back are __________________ A. leg cramps in the muscles B. pain and uncontrollable jerking of the legs and arms C. vomiting and involuntary urination or bowel movement D. pain at the site of the fracture and possible numbness or paralysis below the injury. Ans. D 5050. To fight a large class A fire contained in a closed compartment, the nozzleman should open a door enough to insert the hose nozzle and initially_______________ A. sweep a straight stream around the compartment B. hold the nozzle steady while applying a straight stream in the area where he suspects the source of the fire to be C. sweep a fog stream around the compartment D. hold the nozzle steady and direct a fog stream in the area where he suspects the fire Ans. C

5051. Which statement regarding garbage disposal is correct? A. records for ground garbage disposal are not required when disposal into the sea occurs more than 25 miles offshore B. discharging or transfer of garbage while in port to a shore facility must be recorded. C. maintaining records for the incineration of garbage aboard ship is not required D. the recording of garbage disposal should include the approximate weight. Ans. B 5052. When dumping garbage into the sea, other than special areas _______________ A. the Port State control must be notified for each occurrence B. records must be provided and maintained for two years C. an entry into the official log book must be made D. no record is required if dumping is carried out more than25 miles offshore and there is no included plastic material Ans. B 5053. How much warning must be provided by the CO2 warning alarm before CO2 is discharged into a space? A. 5 seconds B.10 seconds C. 15 seconds D. 20 Seconds Ans. D

5054.CO2 extinguishes a fire by ________________ A. a blanket of bubbles formed on the surface of the fire B. smothering C. cooling D. isolating the heat from the fuel Ans. B 5055. You can find the location of your abandon ship post by checking the________________ A. vessels logbook B. vessels documentation C. muster list D. Certificate of inspection Ans. C 5056. The lights on the outside of the canopy of an inflatable liferaft operate______________ A. by turning the globe clockwisestances B. by a switch at each light C. by a light sensor D. automatically when the raft is inflated Ans. D 5057. When administering first aid you should avoid ____________________--A. any conversation with the patient

B. instructing bystanders C. unnecessary haste and appearance of uncertainity D. touching the patient Ans. C 5058. The best extinguishing agent for fighting a burning mattress fire is the use of_________________ A. carbon dioxide B. water in a solid stream C. foam D. dry chemicals Ans. B

5059. Normal mouth temperature is____________________ A. 96.4F B. 97.5F C.98.6F D.99.7F Ans. C 5060. Which of the following fire extinguishing agents is best suited for use on a large class B fire occurring on the open deck of a vessel? A. CO2 B. Aqueous film forming foam

C. dry chemical D. steam smothering system Ans. B

5095 you are along and administering CPR to an victim .how many chest compression and how many inflations should your adminster in each sequence ? A. B. C. D. 5compressions then 1 inflation 15 compression then 2 inflation 20 compression then 3 inflation 3o compression then 4 inflation Ans ; B

5096 Which of the following procedure reduces the possibility of an interior ventilation duct fire from rapidly spreading ? A.having a portable co2 ready at each duct opening B.keeping the duct interior clean C. Having the fire hose charged at each duct opening D.keeping the duct exterior clean Ans : E 5097 which of the following statements is true concering Bunker C vapours? A. They cannot be ignited by a spark unless the vapours are in a confined space B. They are nontoxic in all concentrations C. They can not be ignited by spark unless vapours are at their autoignition temperature D. They are heavier than air Ans :d

5098 You have just aboned ship and boared a liferaft. After the raft is completely inflated you hear a whisting noise coming from a safetly value . You should . A . not become alarmed unless it continued for a long period of time B. plug the safely value c.unscrew the deflation plugs D. remove the safely valule and replace it with low velocity Ans ; a 5099 The lifeline which is part of a firemans outfit must be A. B. C. D. Made of steel or bronze wire rope Corrosion resistant Not less than 16mtrs in length All the above Ans ; d

5100 A hand portable co2 fire extinguisher is effective on burning oil only . A. B. C. D. If applied promptly If applied in connection with foam To prevent rekindinly If attempts to extinguish the fire with low velocity fog have failed

Ans ; A 5101 You are at sea in an inflatable lifeart in high latitude ,the greatest danger is A. B. C. D. Collapse of the raft due to cold temperature Asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy closed Hypothermia caused by cold temperature Starvation Ans :c

5102 You have abanded ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged period in a raft ? A. B. C. D. wet clothes during the day to decrease perpiration get plenty of rest keep the entrance cortins open all the above

5103 which of the devices listed will prevent an inflated liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100feet (30.48m) deep? A. B. C. D. The hydrostatic release A sheare pin A roftmer release A weak ink in the panter Ans : d

5104 A crewmember has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding excessively .what can be done as sn alternating to sturing to close the wound ? A. Apply a compression bandage B. Use temporary stitches C. Wrap a tight bandage around the world D. Apply butterfly strips ,then a sterile dressing Ans :d 5105 when approaching a fire from windward .you should shield firefighters from the fire by asing . A. B. C. D. Low verlocity fog High velocity fog A straight stream of water Foam spray Ans:a

5106 The best method of extinguisher a class aA fire is to .. A. Remove oxygen from the areas B. Smoother fire with foam

C. Smoother fire with co2 D. Cool fuel below ignition temperature Ans: d 5107 which of the listed fire extinguished agent combination is the best for simultaneous use on a large oil fsire ? A. B. C. D. Solid stream of water in conjuction with co2 Water fog used in conjuction with foam Co2 applied in conjuction with foam Co2 applied in conjjuction with dry chemical Ans:B

5108 The best method of extinguisheing a class A fire is to . A. B. C. D. Approximetly 1% for each 13 c(25 f)temperature rise Calculated in british thermal units Measured by weight Also called absolute viscosity Ans: A

5109 on a tanker ,the most likely location for a liquid carge fire to occur would be . A. B. C. D. In the midships house At the main duck manifold At the vent header In the pumproom Ans:D

5110 if you see an individual fail overboard ,you should .. A. B. C. D. Throw them a life ring Hail man overboard Pass the word to the bridge All the above Ans;d

5111 When abanding ship in an emergency situation ,you should A. B. C. D. Jump off feet from the windward side Dive head first from the bridge Dive head from the main deck Follow directly behind another person on the leeward side Ans:A

5112 The rate of expansionof heated fuel oilvarites with A. B. C. D. Conductivity Viscosity Volume Specific gravity Ans;d

5113 A large oil on the weather deck of a Ship can be effectively fought using . A. B. C. D. Dry chemical Soda act Foam High velocity Ans: C

5114 The greatest danger in cold temperature, when a sea in an inflatable life art is . A. B. C. D. asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy hypothermia caused by the cold temperature collapsing of the raft due to the cold temperature starvation

ans :b 5115 Which of the following statement in true concerning n inflatable life art ? A. the floor may be inflated for insulation from cold water B. crew members can jump into the raftnwithout damaging it

C. the raft may be boared before it is fully inflated D. all of the above 5116 which of the gases listed is the poisonous gas most likely to be found in a closed compartment involved in a fire ? A. B. C. D. nitrogen hydrogen Carbon dioxiode Carbon monooxiode Ans d

5117 Fires resulting from escaping liquefied flemed gaseous are generally extinguished by . A. B. C. D. Cooling off the ignition point Cutting off the oxygen supply Stopping the flow of the gas Interrupting the chemical chain reaction

Ans. C 5118 a classb fire develops on the weather deck a mid ship of moored tank vessel. The fire party should man the ______________ A. Leeward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while applying a solid string of water to wash residual fuel over the side away from the pier B. Leeward monitor and direce the foam onto a vertical surface while applying water fog to protect the monitor operator C. windward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while standing by with a charged hose to protect the monitor operator with water fog if needed D. windward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while standing by with a charged hose to protect the monitor operator with water fog if needed ans. D

5119 If a fire occurs in the fire room as a result of fuel oil leaking from the boiler fuel oil manifold the first action taker should be to-------------------A. B. C. D. pressurize the fire main activae the CO2system secure the fuel supp;y sound the general alarm

ans. c 5120 If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat you should______ A. B. C. D. remain in the immediate vicinity head for the nearest land head for the closest sea-lanes vote on what to do, so all will have a part in the decision ans; a

5121 if help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after abandoning ship in lifeboat, you should______ A. B. C. D. go in one direction until the fuel runs out plot course for the nearest land plot a course to the neareset sealanes shut down the engines and set the sea anchor ans;d

5122 the four basic components of a fire aare chain reaction heat, fuel, and+___________ A. B. C. D. E. carbon monoxide oxygen carbon dioxide any gaseous substance ans;d

5123 when fighting a spreading fire resulting from a broken fuel line, you should first_____

A. B. C. D.

look for a CO2 extinguisher use a soda acid extinguisher shut off the fuel supply use other fire with rags ans;c

5124 when lowering lifeboats as the vessel in pitching in heavy seas ,a good practice is rig frapping lines -------------A. B. C. D. on the forward fulls on only the after falls fore and aft with a lead of about 45 to the boat from the falls to the tricing gear ans ; C

5125 The highest concentration of a harmful substances to which a person may be exposed without danger to health ,is termed the -----------------A. B. C. D. odor threshold threshold limit value poor preasure interfereance point

ans; c 5126 The rekinding of a fire ca n occur when a fire extinguished by smothering is resupplied with oxygen ,which of thre fire extinguished agents when properly used on a oil fire ,will prevent rekindling? A. B. C. D. low velocity fog high velocity fog chemical foam dry chemical ans:c

5127 The volability of a ;iquid to -------------------A. ignore B. explode

C. asphyxioate D. vapourize ans ; D 5128 lines passed around the falls to hold the boat into vessel while boarding passengers Are called ---------------A. B. C. D. lifelines frapping lines chemical foam dry chemical Ans: b

5129 Vessel blidge kees are designed primarily to -------------A. B. C. D. asssist in reducing rolling improve vessel steel response reinforce the bilge knocked in the way bottom tanks provide strengthening of the bige plating the mid body ans;A

5130 Which of the following emergency signals are used to report for boat drills ? A. threeshort blast of the whistle along with the same signal on the general alaram bells B. more than six short blasts and one long blast of the whistle ,along with the same signal on the general alarm bells C. steady temperature on the general bells at least 10 sec ,along with the same signal on the general alarm bells D. less than fire short blasts and one long blast of the whistle , along with the same signal on the general alarm bells ans;b 5131 The No.3 lifeboat would be ----------------------

A. B. C. D. 5132 To extinguish a fire in an unrupted cargo tank ,you Should FIRST --------------------A. B. C. D.

5199 if the over flow tank high-level alaram sounds whilethe fuel oil tank are being topped off, the engineer should__________ A close the static leg filling valve B close the over flow tank filling valve C reduce the fuel oil pumping rate D stop the fuel oil pumping operation Ans D 5200 To avoid shock pressures in the fuel oil filling hoses while you are topping off tanks,the_________ A loading rate should be decreased B oiler should sound all tanks continously C hoses should be looped D tank vent valves should be clear ANS A

5201 A cylinder used for storing co2 in a fixed fire fighting system, must be hydrostatically retested and restamped every ____________ A once in every calender year B 5 years C 8 years D 12 years ANS D 5202 which of the following statement is correct concerning fixed carbondioxide fire extinguishing systems ? A a separate supply of carbondioxide must be provided for each space protected B the piping shall be used for no other purpose exceed that it may be in corporated with the fire detecting system C distribution piping within the space shall be proper oned from the supply line t0 give the proper throttling to the outlet D all the above ANS B 5203 The componenet in an inert gas system used for cleaning the gas of solid and sulphur combustion products, while simultaneously cooling the inert gas , is called the ____________________ A fillter B Cooler C Scrubber D Purifier Ans C

5204 the fire extinguishing action of co2 comes mostly from _________ A breaking the fire chemical chain reaction B smothering C cooling D isolating the heat from the fuel Ans b 5205 the lengthening of a crack formed in the shell plating of a ship may be prevented by ___________A welding brackets across both ends of the crack B chipping out and slots welding the entire crack C drilling a hole at each end of the crack D cutting a square knotch at each end of the crack Ans c 5206 the high concentration of hyrogen sulphide gas is most likely to be found in which of the locations listed ? A fire room bilges where hydrazine has accumalted B sea weage compatment bilges where leaked seaweage has accumulated C engine room bilges where chemical cleaners and solvents have accumulated D emergency battery storage compartment where discharged gases have accumulated Ans b 5207 the blowers of an inert gas generation system aboard a tanker,will be automatically secured if ______________

A normal water supply at the water seal is lost B the temprature of the inert gas beign delivered to the cargo tanks is more than 65c C the cooling water supply to the scrubber is lost D all of the above Ans d 5208 when pumping sour cruds which gas should be tested for prior to entering the cargo pump room to reapair a leaking pump? A benzene B carbon monooxide C hydrogensulphide D tetraethyl lead Ans c 5209 after allowing for pressure losses,the pressure-volume capacity of an inert gas blower must be able to maintain a pressure,in any cargo tank,with a minimum of ________________ A 50 ml of water B 100 ml of water C 150 ml of water D 200 ml of water Ans b 5210 the pollution prevention regulations prohibing draining __________________

A fuel oil burners into buckets B oil transfer hoses into buckets C fuel oil strainers into the ships bilges D lube oil strainers into the fixed drip pans Ans c 5211 flame screens used on ullage openings prevent flames from entering a tank by ___________ A reducing the cross sectional area of the opening B restricting the flow of gases through the opening sea C creating turbulence in the exiting gas stream D dissipating heat from the flame into the sorrounding metal Ans d 5212 following a grounding you can best determine that a slack fuel oil tankhas been holded by ___________________________ A sounding the tank B waiting for the vessel to list C examining tank boundaries D checking fuel oil strainers Ans a 5213 when cargo oil tanks are cleaned by crude oil washing while in port____________________ A provision should be made for a shore side holding tank or an onboard slop tank B water should be allowed to settle before discharge overboard

C fitters should be installed in bilge strainers to observe oil befofe discharge overboard D the dock superviser need not be notified before discharging oily mixtures overboard Ans a 5214 at the earliest indication of fire aboard your vessel ,you must FIRST_______________ A locate the fire B determine which type of fire is burning C sound the alaram D fight the fire Ans c 5215 a fire mans outfit carried on board cargo vessels ,must have a ___________ A canister-type gas mask B fresh air breathing apparatus C self contained breathing apparatus D combustible gas indicator Ans c 5216 while on watch in the engine room you hear a continous sounding of the genral alaram.which of the following actions should you take first? A canister-type gas mask B fresh-air breathing apparatus C self-contained breathing apparatus

D combustible gas indicator Ans C

5217 pollution prevention regulations state that no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless ______________________ A hoses are supported so that couplings have no strain on them B a sample has been taken from the oil being received C an oil containment boom is available for immediate use D each part of the transfer system is blown through with air ANS: A 5218 when the general alarm is sounded continuosly, the engine room personnel should _______________________________ A proceed to their man over board stations B start the fire pump C put on life jacket and go to their abandon ship stations D secure the propulsion diesel engines and evacute the engine room ANS: B 5219 as soon as you hear the fire and emergency signal you should ensure that __________________________ A the ring buoys are thrown overboard B the engines are stopped C the fire pumps are started

D everyone is suited in an approved life preserver ANS:C 5220 when fuel tanks are being topped off,the person incharge of bunkering is directly responsible for the ________________ A loading rate B vessel draft readings C quality of fuel received D temprature of fuel received ANS :A 5221 the term oil as defined in the pollution prevention regulations means_______________________ A petroleum in any form B animal or vegetable based oil C noxious liquid substances designated under ANNEX II of MARPOL 73/78 D all of the above ANS A 5222each inert gas system must be designed to supply the cargo tanks with a gas or mixture of gases that has an oxygen content by volume of ________________________ A 5% or less B 10% or less C 15% or less D 20% or less

ANS A 5223 each inert gas system must be equipped with the following instruments : oxygen concentration indicator and recorder, pressure indicator and recorder, and temperature indicator . the point of measurement for these instruments must be located _________________ A after the regulating valve B down stream of the blowers C scrubber outlet D up stream of the liquid filled breaker ANS B 5224 to determine that a compartment that contains suffient oxygen to sustain life,you should use a/an ________________________ A explosi meter B oxygen indicator C fresh air indicator D all of the above ANS B 5225 each ship having an inert gas must have a portable instruments to measure concentrations of hydro carbon vapour in inert atmospheres and also to measure _______________________ A nitrogen B oxygen C carbon-di-oxide D water vapour

ANS B 5226 the upper limit of sulphurdioxide permited to be maintained in the inert gas should not exceed______________ A B C D ANS D 5227 if a fuel tank levels are found to have incresed after a grounding, you should suspect_______________ A a damaged pneumecator line B a puncture, crack,or hole in the skin of the vessel C improper record keeping of fuel transfer activities D contamination of the contaminated steam supply system ANS B 5228 regulations require geers, couplings, fly wheels, and all machinery capable of injuring perrsonnel shall be____________________ A protected with adequate covers or guards B indentified by yellow and black warning signs C conspicuously indefied as to their particular hazard D located vwhere they may not be easily contacted ANS A

5229 the explosive range of a mixture of flammable vapours is specified as a percentage of_________________ A flammable vapour by volume in air B oxygen present to support combustion C the temperature of the flash point D the lower limit of explosibility of the mixture Ans A 5230 what operational limitation should the user of a self-contained breathing apparatus be concerned with using a device? A the weight of the unit changes the users center of gravity B the lens of the face piece reduces the pheripheral vision C the attached lifeline limits the users mobility D all of the above are correct Ans D

5407 when the voltage remains constant,and the resistance increases in a series circuit,current flow A. B. C. D. Decreases Remains constant Increases Increases by square

Ans:A 5408 A DC ammeter is always connected A. In series with a circuit

B. In parallel with a circuit C. With internal shunts only D. Without regred to polarity Ans:A 5409 An operational amplifier,as used in todays consoles,may have a calculated gain of 5 . This means that as the input changes by A.1 volt the output changes 5 volts B.5 volts the output changes 1 volt C. 5 volts the output changes 10 volts D. 10 volts the output changes 5 volts Ans:A 5410 Under which of the following conditions will a lead acid battery be given a test discharge? A.to determine its capacity B. whenever a cell cannot be brought within 10 points of full charge specific gravity. C. when one or more cells is found to have less than normal voltage after an equalizing charge d.all of the above Ans:D 5411 Nickel cadmium batteries are superior to lead-acid batteries at high discharge rates because they A. Deliver a large amount of power and can be recharged in a shorter time B. Need fewer cells in connected series and less mounting space C. Have higher output voltage and require no maintenance

D. All of the above Ans: A 5412 when the operating handle of a molded-case circuit breaker is in the midposition,the circuit breaker is indicated as being A.IN THE CLOSEDposition B.IN the OPENEDpostion C.tripped D.reset ANS: C 5413.Which of the following represents a characteristic of an ungrounded electrical distribution system? A.Accidental contact between one line and ground does not cause an outage B.double ground faults on different phases will not cause an outage C.ground detection system are unnecessary D.accidental contact betweeen one line and ground will always cause an outage Ans.A 5414.What is the apporximate voltage per cell produced by the nickleiron(Edison)battery? A.0.85 volts B.1.35 volts C.2.20 volts D.6.05 volts

Ans.B 5415.Part of the insulation of practically all electrical machinery is in the form of organic compounds which contain some amount of A.asbestos B.water C.fibre D.plastic Ans.B 5416.when the current in a power transmission line is increased the power loss A.increase as the square of the current B.decrease as the square root of the current C.remains the same,as it is independent of current flow D.increase in direct propotion as the current Ans.A 5417.The standard method of controlling the output voltage of a 440 volts,60hz ,AC generator is accomplished by adjusting the A.prime mover speed droop B.no.of poles C.alternator field exciation D.load on a alternator Ans.C

5418.The air gap provided in induced motors should be checked prediocally with a feeler gage to detect an unequalair gap and A.decreased motor magnetizing current B.hysteresis losses C.increased power factor D.mechanical damage to the rotor Ans. D 5419.an accidental path of low resistance which passes an abnormal amount of current is known as a/an A.polarised ground B.Short circuit C.ground reference point D.open circuit point Ans.B 5420.a milliammeter, with a full scale defelection reading of 100 milliamps, Is known to have an accuracy of + or -2% A meter reading of 10 milliamps would indicate a line current of between A.8.0 and 10.milliamps B.8.0 and 12.0 milliamps C.9.8 and 10.0 milliamps D.9.8 and 10.2 milliamps Ans.B 5421.An instantaneous trip type fuse will

A.open as soon as the load current exceeds its set point B.allow a preset delay between over current and melting c.open a circuit by using a time delay element with a magnetic trip D.reset itself when over current is corrected Ans.A 5422.Basic electrical motor depend on A.a conductor rotated with in a magnetic field B.a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field C.the relative force of the commutator and commutating poles D. the relative force of the armature and interpoles Ans. B 5423.Upon failure of normal power supply the emergency generator is placed on the line by the A.main bus tie feeder B.automatic bus transfer device C.line connection feeder D.power failure Alarm bus Ans.B 5424.Routeline maintaince of a ships service alternator should include A.changing the pedestal bearing insulation yearly B.magger testing of all retifying diodes C.libricating excitation ship rings

D.periodic cleaning of air filters or screens ans.D 5425.the speed of a multi-speed,squirrel-cage,induction motor operating in a fixed system can be changed by A.reconnecting stator windings for different numbers of poles B.changing the RPM of the rotor flux C.changing the phases sequence of the applied voltage D.reconnecting the stator so that no poles have the same polarity Ans.A 5426.in the of d c motors parts of both the series and shunt fields are wound on the a.opposite main pole b.rotor core c.interpole d.same main pole ans d 5427 inductance is th prop of an electric circuit that a.oppose any change in the applied voltage b.oppose any change in the current flow thro the circuit c.aids any changes in the applied voltage d. aids any changes in the current through the circuit ans b

5428.an important factor in rerrent thro the circducing d c motor commulator wear is a.keeping the ambient humidity as low as possible b.ensuring a very low brush current density c.establishing ans c 5429.capacitance is the property of an electric circuit opposing a change in the a.voltage In circuit b.current in the circuit c.inductance in the circuit d.resistance in the circuit ans.a 5430.a megaohmmeter is connected to each end of an individual motor winding .a low reading indicates a.an open coil b.a loose coil c.good continuity d.a dirty coil ans.c 5431.a high discharge rates nickel and cadmium storage batteries are superior to lead-acid batteries because they a.require fewer cell for same voltage and less mounting space b.are able to produce higher voltages and do not have to be charged as often the copper oxide surface film

c.can be charged and discharged many times without much damaged d.have no individual cells to replace at the end of usefullife ans.c 5432.a megaohmmeter can be used to test for a.an open field coil b.a shorted field pole c.under cut mica d.reversed polarity ans.a 5433. in an ac circuit the inductive reactance of coil varies with the a.resistance of the cicuit b.frequency of the circuit c.voltage of the circuit d.current of the circuit ans.b 5434.complete maitenence of electricalmotors should include periodic cheaks for machine a.vibration b.watertight integrity c.speed drop d.reactive power ans.a

5435.sparking of dc motor brushes can be caused by a.an popen commutating winding b.many electrical,mechanicalor operating faults c.an open interpole d.all the above ans.b 5436.a hydrometer is used tomeasure the a.specific gravity of the battery b.water pressure electrolyte c.water pressure in a deck pipeline d.power developed by a salt water service pump ans.a 5437.electricalinsulation is classed by the a.international association of electrical manufacturers b.approximate operating vvoltage and current expected c.IEEE d.temperature stability of the manufacturer materials ans.d 5438.in dc motor construction commutating windings are wound on a.opposite main poles b.interpoles c.adjacent main poles

d.the rotor core ans.b 5439.electric current is the flow of electrons through a conductor .the ratesof this flow is measured as a.volts/watt b.ampheres/centimeters c.coloumbs/seconds d.ohms/volts ans.c 5440.if the pointer on a megger fails to return to zero when not being used the a.meeger is out of calibration b.megger is poperating normally c.hairsprings are burned out d.pointerprobably struck in that position ans.b 5441.voltage will always lead current ina/an A.inductive cicuit b.magnetic circuit c.capacitive circuit d.resistive circuit ans.b 5442.the need for insulation cleaningmay be determined

A.visual inspection for dirt accumulation b.his megger reading c.low operating temperature d.time period since the last cleaning ans.a 5443.when troubleshooting a console circuit card suspected of being faulty ,first check operating voltages ,cleanthe card and the a.make sure wired connection and push on connection are tight b.test each resistor and capacitor on the card with an ohmmeter c.check the continuity of all printed circuits traces with an ohmmeter d.measure the gain of each transistor or integrated circuit ans. 5444.four lambs are connected in parallel in a single circuit .if one of the lamb burnout the others will a.all go out b.become dimmer c.burn with their orginal intensities d.become brighter ans. 5463 you are attempting to parallel two ac generator and the synchroscope pointer is revolving fast in the clockwise direction this indicate that the frequency of the incoming machine is a. Higher than the bus frequency

b. Lower than the bus frequency c. The same as the bus frequency and the circuit breaker may be closed at any position d. The same as the bus frequency but out the phase with it Ans. A

5464. a dielectric is a/an a. electric insulator b.current flow c. good conductance d. semiconductor material ans. A 5466. using a fuse whose railing is higher than necessary a. endangers the apparatus it is supposed to protect b. reduces the probability of short circuits c. increases the efficiency of the equipment by allowing more current to be used d. wastes money because they are more exoensive ans. A 5468.propulsion of D.C. motor brush pressures can be calculated by a. dividing the brush contact area by the spring pressure b. substracting the brush contact area from the spring pressures c.dividing the spring force by the brush contact area d. substracting the spring pressure from the brush contact area ans. C 5470. which of the following statements represents the action of a megaohmmeter when the small capacitor in good condition? a. the meter pointer should immediately swing to the maximum resistance value of the capacitor

b. the meter pointer should first swing quickly to zero and gradually move up the scale as the capacitor changes. c. the meter should immediately swing to infinity and then drop its sharp jerk as the voltage increases. d. the meter pointer should immediately swing to high reading and gradually decrease. Ans. B 5472. a capacitor to be tested with a megohmeter if the meter is connected to a shorted capacitor the mater pointer should a. immediately swing the maximum resitance value b. deflect to zero and remain at the same position c. swing to a high reading and gradually decrease d. swing to zero then gradually increase with slight pointer movements down scale ans. B 5474. which type of flux should be used when soldering electrical wire connection s and electronic components? a. silver flux b. rosin flux c. solid flux d. acid flux ans. B 5476. when paralleling two alternators using three synchronizing lamps the flickering of all three lamps becomes progressively slower and slower. This means the a. frequency of the incoming generator is approaching that of the bus b. frequency of the incoming alternator is less than that of the bus c. phase rotation of the incoming alternators is opposite to that of the bus d. terminal voltage of the incoming alternator is approaching that of the bus

ans. A 5478. when paralleling two AC generators the synchroscope selector switch and frequency meter switch should be set upto sense the frequency of the a.bus 5465. a galvanometer is an instrument used to measure a. thickness of galvanzised metal b. resistance of electrical winiring insulation c. very small amount of current or voltage d. quantity of galvans in an electric circuit ans. C 5467. a device which can be used to check the calibration of a circuit breaker is a a. 500 volt megohmmeter b. portable low voltage high current testing unit c. star ,dard digital multi meter d. clamp on voltmeter ans. B 5469. the operating torque of the upper induction disc element or timer element of ac reverse power relay is obtained from a. the main bus b. a separate battery source c. line voltage d. electromagnet ans. D 5471. which of the listed transformer uses a single winding to produce voltage tranaformer a. stepup transformers b. stepdown transformer c. auto transformers d. isolation transformers ans. C

5473. the hook-on ac volt ammeter consist essentially of a solitt core and a rectifier type instruments connected to the secondary winding of a a. potential transformer b. control transformer c. current transformer d. reactance transformer ans. C 5475. an internal resistance is place in series with the meter movement of which of the following instrument a. ac ammeter b. dc ammeter c. dc voltmeter d. frequency meter 5477. ac voltmeter are generally calibrated to read the a. instaneous voltage b. the movement of the disc is dampd by a permanent magnet c. one generator motorized ans. A Page 299

5479. if a small electric motor has been submerged in saltwater for a short period of time, you should.. A. send it ashore for rewinding B. rinse it with warm freshwater and bake it dry in an oven c. soak it in a bucket of commercial solvent and bake with internal heat D. clean it with carbon tetrachloride and blow it out with compressed air Ans: B 5480. How will a molded case circuit breaker react after it has tripped, as a result of an overloaded circuit?

A. The breaker will trip again if immediately reset. B. The breaker handle will lock in the OFF position C. The breaker handle will lock in the tripped position until the thermal element cools down D. The breaker handle cannot be moved to the OFF position until the thermal element cools down Ans: A 5481. when a fluorescent lamp has reached the end of its useful life, it should be replaced immediately, or the resultant flashing may A. blow the lampscircuit breaker B. explode causing glass to fly in all directions C. short circuit the ballast transformer D. damage the starter and the ballast Ans: D 5482. One of the generator or motor bearings is generally insulated form the end housing in order to prevent A. rapid brush wear B.current leakeage from the shaft C. exesive field winding heat D. circulation of shaft current induced in the machine frame 5483. Electrostatic force in high voltage circuits cause indicating instruments to give.. A. parallelax reading Ans: D

B. highly intuitive readings C. highly accqurate readings D. inaccurate readings Ans: D 5484. If a circuit breaker the utilize built in, current limiting fuse (clfs) cannot be closed problem maybe traced to . A. a blow clf pluncher holding the tripbar in the open position B. missing clf c. a misaligned limited housing assembly d. all of the above Ans: d 5485. which of the following procedures should be used to maintain a large electric motor during periods of inactivity? a. a thin layer of air drying varnish should be applied on the windings. b. Compressed air should be blown over areas where dust is deposited. c. Spraying a solvent periodically to remove carbon dust d. Space heaters should be used to prevent comdensation of moisture. Ans: d 5486. In replacing a defective transformer with a new one, which of the following actions must be carried out to insure proper operation of the equipment it servers? a. The secondary leads must be grounded for 10 minutes to remove static charges.

b. The transformer connections must be made as before with regard to the indicated polarity. c. The iron core of the transformer must be flashed to ore magnetize it. d. The iron core must be grounded for 10 minutes to remove any residual magnetism. 5487. The speed of a synchronous motor is varied by a. interchanging any two of the three live leads b. changing the voltage of the system c. Changing the input frequency d. increasing the field excitation Ans: c 5488. When working on electrical circuitys containing large capacitors in addition to de energizing the circuit, which of the listed precautions should also be taken? a. Keep all radio equipment away b. Measure capacitor insulation resistance c. Ground the capacitor terminals d. Check capacitor circuit polarity Ans: c 5489. Seating the brushes on a D.C motor is first accomplished using . a. A file for cutting the approximate curvature followed by sandpaper for the final fit b. sandpaper with the motor not operating and then a seating stone while running the machine

c. emery paper for the intial cut and crocus cloth for the finishing cut d. Course lapping compound followed bu a medium and then a fine grade Ans: B 5490. The basic type of D.C. motor speed control where a generator armature directly feeds the motor aremature and the motor and generator fields are exicted by a separate D.C source is called.. a. Burmeister wain b. Ward leonard c. Sperry rand d. atlas copco 5491. Which of the following problems will most likely occur. If the starting winding of a split phase Induction motor failed to cutout once the motor was in continuous operation? a. The motor will overspeed. b. The motor will run at a reduced speed c. A time delay will stop the motor. d. The winding will burn out 5492. When insulation failure produced a low resistance current path between to conductors, the resulting comdition is known as.. a. an open b. a short circuit c. a ground d. a surge

Ans: b 5493 A single phase induction motor fails to start. The rotor is spun rapidly with the line switch closed. Having started by this method it is noted that the motor fluctuated between a very slow speed and half speed. The problem probably lies in the.. a. starting winding b. centrifugal mechanism c. centrifugal switch d. running windling Ans: d 5494. when disassembling motors for maintenance or overhaul,.. a. Starting winding b. centrifugal mechanism c. centrifugal switch d. running windling Ans:d 5495. The true power indicated by a wattmeter depends on the current flow through the load, the magnitude of the potential across the load and the a. power factor of the load b. angle of coil displacement c. inertia of the movable coil d. high resistance from the load. Ans: a

5496. when paralleling two AC generators, the frequency of the machine coming online, immediately prior to closing its breaker, should be .. a. slightly less than the oncoming generator frequency b. the same as the bus frequency c. slightly greater than the bus frequency d. the same as the bus voltage. 5497. A multimeter can be used to directly measure a. watts b. field flux c. current d. all of the above 5498. The Kilowatt load can be adjusted on a paralled generator by using the. a. field rheostat b. governor control c. automatic voltage regulators d. hand tachometer Ans: b 5499. A volt ohm millimeter can be used to check for . a. continuity b. grounds c. voltage

d. all of the above Ans:d 5500. When paralleling two AC generators the frequency of the incoming generator, just prior to closing breaker, should. a. slightly less than the frequency of the generator on the line b. the same as rthe frequency of the generator on the line c. slightly more than the frequency of the generator on the line d. all of the above ans: c 5501. when paralleled, AC generators must have the same.. a. frequency b. number of phases c. phase rotation d. all of the above Ans: d 5502. discoloration of the rotor bars in a squirrel cage motor is typical evidence of . a. moisture b. overheating c. vibration d. all of the above Ans:b

5503. A voltmeter located on a control panel has been operationg correctly for six months suddenly burns out. After removing it, it is found that neither side of the meter has been grounded. When installing the new meter it should be a. grounded to the negative side b. connected to a large resistor between the positive side and the ground c. installed exactly as the old instailation d. gronded to the positive side Ans: c 5504. which of the following should be the first step in removing a generator from parallel operation a. trip the generator off the switch board b. turn off all electrical equipment. c. Remove the load freom the off going generator. d. increase the cycles of the generator staying on the line Ans: c 5505. if a synchronous motor begins to vibrate severely and pull out of synchronism, the cause may be a. an overload b. an open in the field lcoils c. no exciter voltage d. all of the aboce ans: d

5506. accidental grounds in shipboard electrical system must be reap\paired as soon as possible as they will a. result in immediate power outafes b. damage circuit breakers c. appear on the ground detection system d. damage insulation and may cause outages Ans:d 5507. a device used in an electrical circuit to change alternating current to direct current is known as a.. a. current transformer b. rectifier c. condenser d. shunt Ans:b 5508. Two AC generators of the same capacity are operating in parallel. One with a zero speed droop setting and the other with a 5% apped droop. If its capacity is not exceeded, the unit whose governor has the zero speed droop setting will a. assume the smaller share of the load b. maintain the frequency of the system c. have poor sensitivity characteristicfs d. have poor power response And:b

5509. An alternator is being paralleled with one on the line. At the instant the circuit breaker is closed the frequency of the incoming alternator will normally.. a. increase b. notchange decrease d. be exactly 60 hertz Ans: C 5510. if a three phase induction motor is operated under a light load and it develops an open in one of its supply lines the motor will .. a. continue to run but will vibrate and have reduced torque b. speed up due to the reduce number of poles c. run cooler due to reduce current flow d. stop Ans: a 5511. battery capacities are given in a. volts b. volt amperes c. volt hours 5512. when a low input voltage is imparted to a device which then delivers a high output voltage, the device is known as a.. a. primary transformer b. secondary transformer c. stepdown transformer

5513 The twisting force developed by a motor and applied to a shaft is called A.magnetism B.electromotive force C.torque D.voltage ANS:C 5514 If field extitation is suddenly lost to an alternator operating in parallel,that alternator will A.supply excessive current to the bus B.operate at the same load ,but with reduced voltage C.lose its load and tend to overspeed D.become overloaded and slow down ANS:C 5515 The unit of electrical power is the A.ampere B.kilovolt C.watt D.farad ANS:C 5516 If the energy inpyt is significantly reduced to the prime mover of one shipboard alternayor operating in parallel with others that alternator will A.continue to operate at no load B.lose its load and overspeed C.begin yo motorize and then tripout D.slow down and operate at reduced load

ANS:C 5517 Some large A.C motors at equipped with the heaters.These could be---------------.resistance Heaters bolted directly to te frame ii.low voltage windings embedded in the motor windings A.i only B.ii only C.either ior ii, D.neitheri orii. ANS:C 5518 The unit of electrical resistance is the A.ampere B.volt C.watt D.ohm ANS:D 5519 A current carrying conductor making electrical contact with a wiring conduct will beindicated by a A.high switchboard wattmeter reading B.totally dark switched ground detecting light C.low switchboard wattmeter reading D.all the above. ANS:B 5520 maintanence of alkalinr batteries should be A.checking the electrolyte weekly using a hydrometer B.replacing the electrolyte using 5 years C.trickle charging D.replacement when the volts per call drops below 1.8vdc ANS:C 5521 if air gap rading for an electrical generating machine have changed significantly from the last reading you should check A.the bearings B.INSULATION READING AND MACHINE CLEANLINESS C.the prime mover thrust bearing D.the field coil bolts for the proper tporque values ANS:A

5522 In the event of a powetr failure during cargo winch will be stopped by A.a manual override switch B.the weight of the load on the boom C.a spring set brake D.a hand operated band brake ANS:C 5523 A circuit that has two wires in contact with the hull of a ship is called a A.Grounded circuit B.short circuit C.series circuit D.closed circuit ANS:A 5524 attempting to parell an ac generator which is out of phase with will result in which of the following problems A.the breaker should strip B.THE KVA WILL DECREASE C.the synchronising lamps will burn out D,the power factor will b unitized ANS:A 5526 to remove an alternator operating in parell with another unit from the main electrical circuit,you must first A.adust the power factor B.set the desired voltage on the outgoing alternator C.open the circuit breaker on the outgoing alternator D.remove the load from the outgoing alternator ANS:D 5527 maintanence of alkalinr batteries should be A.checking the electrolyte weekly using a hydrometer B.replacing the electrolyte using 5 years C.top off with sulphuric acid as needed D.making certain connections tight and clean ANS:D 5528 one item listed on the name plate of a cargo cargo pump motor is degree centigrade rise.this number is based on A.normal temperature change from cold to hot B.an arbient temperature of 40c C.minimum haet rise from no load to full load

D.maximum degree centigrade rise from zero ANS:D 5529 If your multimeter gives a readinr in ohms when testing each end of each conductor of a three conductor cable A.continuity of the conductor B.an infinite resistance C.the presence of a partial ground D.that the conductor is not circuited ANS:B 5530 what is the rotor speed of a ffour pole 60 cycle induction motor operating at full loadwith 3%slip A.270RPM B.540RPM C.873RPM D.1746RPM ANS:A 5531 Which of the methods listed is used to start a ac generator fuming A.residual magnetism in the field poles B. residual magnetism in the field poles C. residual magnetism in the ARMATUre D.rotation by a prime mover ANS:D 5532 when a meghometer is being used on a alternating current machine the meter pointer will dip toward zero and then gradually rise to the true resistance value if motor insulation is A.grounded B.good C.SHORTED D,dirty ANS:B 5533 the three most effective metfod of locating a loose commutator bar in a d.c.motor is by A.visual inspection B.jiggling each by hand C.sounding each bar with a light weight hammer D.checking with a calibrated torque wrench ANS:C

5534

an open armature connection in adc motor could be caused by A.low load operation B.CLOGGED VENTILATION ducts C.sparking at the brushes D.a grounded shunt field coil

ANS:B 5535 If the energy inpyt is significantly reduced to the prime mover of one shipboard alternayor operating in parallel with others that alternator will A.continue to operate at no load B.lose its load and overspeed C.begin yo motorize and then tripout D.slow down and operate at reduced load ANS:D 5536 if a dc motor hums ,but noy exist in an energised ,which of the list is exist A.incorrect load connections B,incorrect brush setting C.a dirty commutator D. all the above area correct ANS:D 5537 which of the following represents the corrected specific gravity ofa lead acid battery with a temperature of 90 f and a hydro meter reading of 1160 A.1150 B.1156 C.1160 D.1164 ANS:D 5538 a shorted aramature coil in a dc motor can be detected by A.Sparkink at the brushes B.Shiny armature coil C.Worn grooves in the armature D.Under cut maica ANS:A 5539 a short in shunt field of adc motor is best located by A.Visual inspection of the comotator B.Applying ac voltage to each field coil and measuring the voltage across each field coil

C.Using agrowler and hack saw blade D.Isolating each coil from the othr=ers and using megohmmeter ANS:B 5540 in athree wire 230 /115 volt dc system the potential between neutral and negative is A.0volts B.115volts C.230volts D.460volts ANS:B 5541 sparking at the brushes of arunning motor could be an indicatin of A.Naormal operation B.A dirty comodator C.Increased brush capacity D.Water wapour absorption ANS: B 5542 electrical failures in motor are caused by the brake down of insulation which may be causeeed by A.Penetaion of moisture B.Acummalation of dirt C.Over heating D.All of the above ANS:D 5543 a four pole 60hertz induction motor has asyncronus spped of 1800rpm and a slip of 4% at full load what will be its full load spped A.1728.0rpm B.1730.7rpm C.1800.0rpm D.1872.0rpm ANS:A 5544 the spped of a squirrel cage ,multiy speed ,induction motor as used abroad ship , is varied by changing the A.Numer of connector holes in the stator B.Frequency of the motor C.Extitation voltage D.Resistsnce of the rotor cirucuit ANS:A

5545 What is the main function in the use of acapacitor for starting a single face motor A.Reduce radio interference B.Slit in the phase to established a rotating magnetic field C.Reduce the phase sngel D.Prolong the life of the starting contacts ANS: B 5546 the most practical method of controlling the rpm of a step speed ac motor is to A.Change input voltage B.Vary the number of poles C.Vary power factor D.Change the number of brushes ANS: B 5547 a hich of the following is a chacter stics of a fractional horse power eoulsion start motors A.They stsrt with a rotating stator field B.They short circuiting ring is removed from the comotator while starting C.The brushes are removed from the comotator while starting D.They have a low staring torgue ANS:B 5548 a vessel is equppied with the two ships service generators .generator #1 is rated at 900kw and generator #2is rated at 600kw .during the parallel operation with a load of 1000kw.what should be the load on generator #2 A.100kw B.400kw C.500kw D.600kw ANS:B 5549 which state ment is true concerning a split face induction motor

PAGE:-305 5585. Regulations stats that a normal source for emergency loads and power on cargo vessel must be supplied from_________ A. emergency generator supply to the emergency switchboard. B. emergency generator supply to the main switchboard. C. battery supply to the main switchboard. D. ship's service generator via emergency switchboard. Ans-D 5586. A storage battery for an emergency lighting and power system must have capacity to____ A. close all waterlight doors twice B. open all waterlight doors four times C. open and close all waterlight door in six consecutive cycles within a 20 second period D. none of the above Ans-A 5587. Regulation require the emergency diesel generator on cargo vessel of over 1600 gross tones sailing internation voyages to be able to supply power to the ______ A. smoke detector system B. emergency loudspeaker system C. daylight signaling light system D. all of the above. Ans-D 5588. While on watch in the engine room at sea with only one ship's service turbine alternator on line, the entire plant suddenly blacks out without warning. After restoring power, the cause for this

casaulty was attributed to which of the following faultsA. the micro switch at the generator throttle trip vibrate open, allowing the main breaker to open the via under voltage trip B. someone pushed the trip button to the"shore power" breaker C. the main air compressor suddenly stopped D. the standby generator started automatically and become moterize Ans-A 5589. On vessel with turbo electric drive, which of the following condition would indicate that the propulsion motor had dropped out of synchronization with the prupolsion generator A. excessive vibration of the vessel

B. tripped main motor interlocks C. overheated crosstie busses D. closed contact in the field circuit Ans-A 5590.On some diesel electric ship, the DC propulsion moter will only attain half speed when the generator fields are fully excited. speeds above this are obtained by_____ A. rotating brush alignment B. raising the generator engine speed C. lowering the generator engine speed D. decreasing excitation Ans-B 5591. The shunt used in an ammeter should be connected in ______ A. series with the load and in parallel with the meter movement

B. parallel with the load and in series with meter movement C. parallel with load and in parralr with the parallel movement D. series with the load and in series with the meter movement Ans-A 5592. Brushless generator are designed to operate without the use of ______ A. brushes B. slip ring C. commutators D.all of the above Ans-D 5593. Which of the following conditions will occure if thesolenoid coil burns out on a cargo which with an electricalbrakeA. the brake will be set by spring force.

B. the moter will overspeed and burn up C. the load suspended from the cargo boom will fat. D. nothing will happen; the which will continue to operate as usual Ans-A 5594. Which of the listed battery charging circuit is used to maintain a wet cell, lead acid, storage battery in a fully charged state during long period of disuse A. normal charging circuit B. quick charigng circuit C. Tricle charging circuit D. high ampere charging circuit AnsC 5595. Which of the following statements represent the main difference between a relay and contactorA. contactors control current and

relays control voltage. B. a relay is series connected and a contactor is parallel connected. C. contactor can handle heavier loads than relays. D. contactors are made from silver and relays are made from copper. Ans-C 5596. Which is following statements is true concerning a polyphase synchronous propulsion motoA. The moter started as an induction moter B. Resistant is gradually added to the moter circuit C. The starting current is held below the rated current D. The field winding is energized for starting purposes only Ans-A 5597. An accidental path of low resistance, following passage of

abnormal amount of current is known as a/anA. open circuit. B. short circuit. C. polerized circuit. D. ground reference circuit Ans-B 5598. A resistant in circuit of unknown value is to be tested using the voltmeter/ammeter method. therefor, the meters should be connected with______ A. both meters in series with resistant B. both meters in parallel with the resistant C. the ammeter in series and the voltmeter in parallel with the resistant D. the ammeter in parallel and the voltmeter in series with the resistant Ans-C

5599. which of the following electric moters would be the safestand most reliable to use on the main deck of a vesseline foul weatherA.sealed moter B. drip proof moter C. enclosed moter D.watertight moter Ans-D 5600. A direct current passing through a wire coiled around a soft iron core is the description of a simple______ A. magnetic shield B. electromagnet C. piezoelectric device D.electromagnetic domain Ans-B PAGE:306 5601. A molded-caso breaker provides protection against short

circuit by using a/anA. shading coil B. arc quenchor C. electromagnet D. holding coil Ans-C 5602.The method used to produce electron emission in most vaccumetubes is known as______ A. photoelectric emission B. secondary electric emission C. cold cathodic electric emission D. thermionic emission Ans-D 5603. A moter using a rheostat in the moter circuit to very the speed is called aA. squirrel- cargo induction moter B. regenerative braking moter. C. wound-roter induction moter

D. synchronous motor Ans-C 5604. Which of the following precautions should you take when securing propulsion generators and motors for an extended period of time

A. no. of turns of wire in the armuter coil. B. no. of magnetic poles C. strenght of the magnets used D. output voltage Ans-B 5606. The variable resistance placed in the rotor circuit of a wound-rotor induction motor provides for_____ A. speed control B. frequency comtrol C. voltage control D. use as a split-phase motor Ans-A 5607. The wheatstone bridge is precision measuring instrument utilizing the principle of changes______ A. inductance B. capacitance C. resistance

B. Disconnect the brush pigtails from their contact and discharge carbon dioxide intomthe units to keep them dry C. Lift the brushes from commulator collector ring and use the built-in heated to prevent moisture accumulation D. Lift the brushes from commulator collector ring and circulate cool dry air through the unit Ans-C 5605. One factor that determine the frequency of an alternator is the_______

D. amperage Ans-C 5608. The greatest detrimental effect on idle electrical equipment, such as cargo pump motor, is the____ A. loss of residual magnetism B. absorption of moisture in the insulation C. insulation varnish flaking D. dirt collecting on the windings Ans-B 5609. Which is the listed logic gates is considered to be a BASIC building block(basic logic gate) used in logic diagram. A.NAND B.OR C. NOR D.all of the above Ans-B 5610. When choosing a battery

for for a perticular application, major consideration should be given to the battery's____ A. amp-hour capacity B. terminal polarity C. stability under charge D. ambient temperature rise Ans-A 5611. An electric devide which prevents an action from occuring untill all other required condition are met is called a/an_ A. B. monitor C. modulator D. Ans-D @@@@@@@@@@@@@@@ @@@@@@@@@@ 5612. A circuit breaker and a fuse have a basic similarity in that they both ____

A. can be reset to energized the circuit B. should open the circuit when overloaded C. will burn out when an over current flow develops D. all of the above Ans-B 5614. A circuit breaker differs from a fuse in that a circuit breaker ______ A. melt and must be replaced B. is enclosed in a tube of insulating material with metal ferrules at each end C. give no visual indication of having opened the circuit D. trips to break the circuit and may be reset Ans-D 5615. An electrical device which employs a stationary armature and a rotating electromagnetic field is used aboard ship as

a_______ A. magnetic amplifier B. ship's service alternator C. three wire DC generator D. saturable core reactor Ans-B 5616. T he main purpose of the auxilliary winding on a splitphase, single-phase motor is to_________ A.limit the starting voltage B. increase the strating current C. start a motor D. keep the motor running in the event the main winding should fail Ans-C 5617. The load sharing characterstics of two diesel generator operating in parallel are mostly dependent on their governor______ A. load limit setting

B. idle speed setting C. speed limit setting D. speed droop setting Ans-D 5618. What type of rotor is used in split-phase motors A. Drum B. Salient pole C. Squirrel-cage D. Wound-rotor Ans-C 5619. In ac generator direct current from a seperate sourcies passed through the winding of the rotor________

A. provide excitation to the DC field B. By means of a commutator B. start the machine as an inductor motor C. By means of rotating bar magnet C. contribution extra torque at synchronous speed D. To minimize the danger of arc over D. prevent the machine from falling out of step Ans : A Ans: B 5621. A constant output voltage from an AC generator 5622. Amortisseur winding are installed in a synchronous motor Is maintained by the_______________ to________________________ _______

5620. The purpose of a cage rotor winding placed on the rotor of a synchronous moter is to___ A. By means of slip rings and brushes

A. Prime mover governor A. reduce eddy current loses B. Excited generator B. produces a higher power factor C. Voltage regulator C. provide a means for starting D. Reverse power relay D. eliminate arcing brtween the stator and the motor Ans: c Ans: c 5623. The heating of conductors as a result of resistances 5624. To repair a small electrical motor that has been submerged In a distribution circuit a power loss expressed as_____ in salt water,you should____________________ A. Line drop A. wash it with fresh water and apply a

external source of heat B. Line loss B. renew the winding C. IR drop C. send it ashore to an approved service facility D. Hysteresis D. rinse all electrical with carbon tetrachloride cleaning solvent And then blow dry the motor with compressed air Ans : B Ans: A 5625. In process control terminology values which can change 5626. The proper way to apply plastics tape to an electrical cable Distinct increment, such as temp, pressure, or level is splice is

to________________________ ____ Called________________ A. Binary values A. apply tape to the braided cover,but avoid touching it B. Digital values B. wind the tape so that each turn over laps the turn before C. Bumpless values C. apply the tape in one non- overlapping layer only D. Analog values D. heat the tape with a soldering iron for good bonding Ans : D Ans: B 5627. Which of the following statement best describes the 5628. A synchronous motor maintains synchronism with the coating Material known as varnished cambric

field because________________ A. Felted asbestos sealed with varnished A. field strength varies directly with rotor slip B. Cotton cloth coated with varnish B. DC current applied to the rotor coil causes the rotor magnets to Lock in with the rotating flux of the stator C. Rubber insulation coated with a layer of tin C. the stator poles are dragged around due to the flux created D. Paper impregnated with mineral oil, specially

D. the stator flux rotates in the opposite direction Nonmetallic tape and coated with vanished Ans: B Ans: B 5629. The function of amortisser,or damper winding in a 5630. The main difference between a motor control circuit, containing Motor is to_________________ low voltage protection and low voltage release is that the latter_ A. Eliminate slippage A. a magnetic operating coil B. Provide excitation B. normally open line contacts C. Provide starting torque C. thermal overload protection

D. Increase efficiency D. a momentary contact start button Ans: C Ans: D 5631. Before reassembling any machinery, you should_____ 5632. The purpose of commutator and brushes on a DC generator is__ A. Replace all bearing regardless of length of service A. transfer generated direct current voltage from the armature line B. Apply a heavy coat of oil to all mating surfaces B. convert the alternating voltage generated within the armature C. Clean any corroded surfaces and file all burr smooth C.

provide a sliding contact method to excite the field D. Coat all part with alemite grease D. reduce spark between the armature end the carbon brushes Ans: C Ans: B 5633. The basic measuring unit of inductance is the_____ 5634. Which of the listed precaution should be taken when cleaning the Internal of a motor with compressed air A. Coulomb A. open the machine on both ends so as to allow the air and dust B. Ohm B. be certain that the

circuit breaker is opened and tagged on C. Farad C. be certain that the air is clean and is cleaned and as dry as possib D. Henry D. all the above Ans: D 5635. Which of the following statement concerning nickel 5636. Power transformer is rated in_________________ Cadmium batteries are true? A. When mixing electrolyte always add acid to water A. kilowatts B. Nickel-cadmium batteries con be changed and B. Ampere-turns Discharged only a limited without damage to the

Cells C. Nickel-cadmium batteries can be stored for a long C.kilowatt-volts Times D. The electrolyte of an idle nickel cadmium battery D. kilovolt-amperes Must be replaced monthly to maintain condition Ans: C Ans: D 5637. Local action in nickelcadmium battery is offset by 5638. Alternating current circuit develop resistance, inductances and __________ Capacitance. The inductance of a coil is expressed in _______ A. Separating the positive and negative plates with A. ohms Plastics spacers

B. Separating the positive and negative plates with B. mhos Resin impregnated spacers C. Adding a small amount of lithium hydroxide to the C. Henry Electrolyte D. Trickle charging D. farads Ans: D Ans: C 5639. A device which print out a permanent record of the 5640. Alternating current circuit develop resistance, inductance and Plant operating conditions is known as the_______ capacitance .The capacitance of individual capacitors is expressed A. Ana logger A. ohms

B. Bell longer B. mhos C. Alarm logger C. henry D. Data logger D. farads Ans: D Ans: D 5641. The opposition to the establishment of magnetic 5642. The insulation of electric equipment and machinery should be tested Lines of forces in a magnetic in a magnetic circuit for the lowest normal insulation values_____________ Is called the circuits___________ A. Resistance A. immediately after shutting down the machine

B. Reluctances B. every time the brush rigging is adjusted C. Impedance C. immediately after starting up the machine D. Inductance D. every 30 days whether the machine is in use or not Ans: B Ans: A 5643. The RMS value of a sinewave current may also 5644. On tank vessels with an electrically-driven capstan, the motor should Expressed as the__________________ be mongered periodically to test_____________ A. Average values A. insulation resistances B. Maximum values B. eddy currents C. Effective values C. capacitances

D. Instantaneous values D. armatures reactance Ans: C Ans: A 5645. The apparent power in a purely inductive circuit 5646. The multiple prefix gig(G) means______________ _ Is also known as_____________ A. True power A. thousand(10 to the 3rd power) B. Lead power B. million(10 to the 6th power) C. Induced power C. billion(10 to the 9th power) D. Reactive power D. trillion (10 to the 12th power) Ans: D Ans: C 5647. A grounded switch or cable will be indicated

by a 5648. Regarding battery charging rooms, ventilation should be provided Megohmmoter reading of_____________ A. Infinity A. at the lowest point of the room B. Zero B. horizontally near the batteries C. Being unsteady in the high range C. at the highest point of the room D. Being unsteady in the lower range D. only when charging is in progress Ans: B Ans: C 5649. Which of the following statement concerning the 5650. The ratio of the effective value of the counter EMF in volts, to the

Specific gravity of the batteries electrolyte is true? Effective values of the current in amperes is called______________ A. The electrolyte becomes less dense when it cooled A. impedance factor B. The specific gravity reading is lower when the B. capacitive reactance Electrolyte is heated C. The most accurate hydrometer reading is obtained C. inductive reactance Immediately after water is added D. The temp does not affect the specific gravity of D. not mean square the electrolyte Ans: B Ans: C

5651. An adjustable resistor, whose resistance can be 5652. The purpose of the heat sink as frequently used with transistor is Changed without opening the circuit in which is __________________ Connected_____________ A. Bleeder resistor A. prevent excessive temp rises B. Rheostat B. compensative for excessive doping C. Bridge C. increase the reverse current D. Variable shunt strip D. decrease the forward current Ans: B Ans: A 5653. In a DC series circuit all the conductors have the 5654. Battery charging room

should be well ventilated because the Same_______________ charging process produces_________ _______ A. Power expended in them A. high poisonous gas B. Voltage drop across them B. highly combustible oxygen C. Resistance to current flow C. explosive gas D. Current passing through them D. corrosive gas Ans: D Ans: C 5655. Shading coil are installed on AC full-voltage starter 5656. A silicon controller rectifier (SCR) is a solid state devices used to

To_______________ A. Eliminate contact chatter A. DC to AC and control relatively low load current

Page 309 b) dissipate opening contact arcs c) delay current build up in holding coil d) protect the motor windings from momentary starting current overload Ans.a 5657 most three phase induction motors used for diving engine room auxillaries are started by a)resistor starters b)across the line starters c) impedence starters d) reactor starters Ans.b

5658 when electrical cabels penetrate water light bulck heads a)they should be grounded on either side of the bulck heads b)they must be bent to a radius of six diameters c) a water light stuffing tubes capable of accepting packing should be employed d) they should be secured by clamp Ans.c 5659 a variable shunt connected across the series field couls of DC compound wound generator, to permit adjustements of the degree of cpmpounding is called a a)divider b) diverter c) converter d) rhestot Ans.b

5660 across the line starters used with AC motors to provide a) reduced starting current b) regulated starting current c) high starting torque d)controlled starting acceleration Ans.c 5661 The electrician reporting to you that has obtained low (but above 1 mega ohm) megger reading on the windings of a deck winch motor . upon checking the records of the motor ,you find the reading have consistently been at the level of last six years a) Motor be replaced b) Windings be dried c) Windings be cleaned d) Readings are acceptable Ans d

5662 In a face plate type motor starter starting arm held in the OFF position by a/an a) Cotter pen b) Magnet c) Electrical circuit d) Strong spring Ans.d 5663 which of following components are used convert alternating current produced in generator windings to direct current ? a) Armature and equalizer b) Commulator and brushes c) Rotor and interpoles d) Field and exciter Ans.b 5664 in electronic circuitry ,the observation PCB commonly means a) Pulse cooled binary b) Printed circuit board c) Poly coated bride d) Personal computer bits

Ans.b 5665 The final step in testing a circuit for a ground involves the use of a megaohmmeter , A grounded switch or cable will be indicated by a megaohmmeter reading of a) Zero b) Infinity c) Steady in ahing range d) Unsteady in the low range Ans.a 5666 which of the following statement is true concerning the cleaning if electrical contacts? a) Compressed air should be used to blow out metallic dust b) Magnetic brushes should be used to remove metallic dust c) The contact surfaces shouid be greased to increase resistance.

d) Delicate parts should be cleaned with a brush and approved safely solvent Ans .d 5667 a nickel cadmium battery receiving a normal charge and gases freely the charging current should be a) Be increased b) Be decresed c) Be cut off and the battery allowed to cool d) Remain the same Ans.d 5668 Reduced motor specified to a motor during the starting period a) Result in decreased acceleration time only b) Lower the starting current and increase accelerating time only c) Cause a greater starting torque d) Increase the starting current and pump capacity

Ans.b 5669 A saturable core reactor operate on the principle of controlling load windings inductance by varying the core a) Dielectric b) Permeability c) Reactance d) Inductance Ans.b 5670 operational amplifiers used primarily in analog circuits ,are characterized by a) High input impedance ,high gain and low output impedance b) High input impedance ,high gain and high output impedance c) Low input impedance ,low gain and high output impedance d) Low input impedance, high gain and low output impedance Ans.a

5671 The total resistance of a parallel circuit is always a) Larger than the greater branch resistance b) Smaller than the lowest branch resistance c) Equal to the sum of the individual branch resistance d) One half the individual branch resistance Ans.b 5672 which of the following express the relationship of the input and output in a full wave rectifier? a) The output frequency is same as the input frequency b) The output frequency is one half the input frequency c) The output frequency is twice the input frequency d) The output frequency is four times the input frequency

Ans.c 5673 A Deadfront switchboard is one a) Without switches on it b) With insulated switches and no exposed terminals c) Without circuit breakers d) Without safety hand rails and nor rubber mats Ans.b 5674 Mercury filled thermometers should never be used to determine the temperature of the battery electrolyte because accidental breakage of the thermometer can cause a) Sever sparking and explosions b) Rapid oxidation of battery plates c) Contamination of the electrolyte d) Corrosion of the battery terminals Ans.a

5675the purpose of the main switch board circuit breakers reverse power trip is to a) Pevent main circuit overload b) Protect the circuit breakers blow out coils c) Prevent alternator motorization d) Prevent low voltage tip out Ans.c 5676a temperature instrumentation system for an engine room console consist of a resistance temperature detector(RTD),a measuring bridge circuit a meter (R alarm circuit).which of the following statement is true concerning bridge circuit a) The input voltage varies in a linear fashion with temperature b) The voltage across the centre of the resistance circuit is always constant

c) The resistance circuit is said to be balanced when its output voltage is zero d) The input voltage of th resistance bridge is the constant temperature signal Ans.c 5677modem DC generator are fitted with commutating poles to a) Prevent motorizing b) Reduce sparking c) Reduce the load to the main poles d) Reduce spring pressure on the brushes Ans.b 5678the purpose of magnetic relay is to a) Open a circuit only in the event of overload b) remotely open and close contacts c) provide over current protection during starting

d) relay voltage at increased power Ans.b 5679a semiconductor is a material. a) Conductivity higher than a normal conductor b) Conductivity higher than a normal insulator c) High conductivity at low temperatures d) Low conductivity at high temperatures Ans.b 5680capacitor can be tested using a megohmmeter or an ohm meter. If the meter is connected to the shorted capacitor the meter pointer should a) Immediately swing to the maximum resistance value for the capacitor b) First swing quickly to then gradually moves up the

scale as the capacito charges c) Immediately deflect and remains at zero d) Immediately swing to the high reading and the gradually decreases Ans.c 5681when mixing electrolyte for lead acid storagebattery,you should pour th a) Distilled water into acid in a zinc plated container. b) Distilled water into acid in a glass container c) Acid into distilled water into zinc plated container d) Acid into distilled water into glass container Ans.b 5682to carry out an insulation resistance test,one terminal of the megohmmeter should be connected the winding, with other terminal being connected to the

a) Power supply b) Variable resistor c) Frame of the machine d) Armature Ans.c 5683the charge of the lead acid battery can be restored by a) Passing an alternating electric current through the coil b) Passing a direct electric current through the coil c) Adding acid to the electrolyte d) All the above Ans.b 5684the resistance of the conductor varies a) Directly as its length and inversely as its cross sectional area b) Inversely as its length and directly as its cross sectional area

c) Directly as its length and directly as its cross sectional area d) Inversely as its length and inversely as its cross sectional area Ans.a 5685in order to check the performance of the transisitor removed from its circuit by instrument to be used by a/an a) Voltmeter or transistor resistance b) Impedance meter c) Ohmmeter or transistor tester d) Sensitive potentiometer

Ans : C 5686 to test the state of charge of a nickel- cadmium battery, you should use a/an_____ A. Ammeter B. Voltmeter C. Hydrometer D. Potentiometer

Ans : B 5687 on a switchboard, if all three ground detection lamps remain burning at half intensity when the test button is depressed, which of the listed conditions is indicated? A. No grounds exist B. All three phases are grounded C. The test switch is grounded D. The current transformers are shorted Ans: A 5688 which of the following actions can be carried out in order to prevent thermal runway in transistor? a) Increase the current through the collector base junction b) Install a heat sink c) Shift the Q point to increase collector current

d) Increase the potential difference between the emitter and the base Ans: B 5689 insufficient brush pressure on a DC motor may cause _________ a) Generator overload b) Excess residual magnetism c) Water vapor absorption d) Sparking of the brushes Ans: D 5690 burning of com=ntroller contacts, when opening is prevented by __________a) Coating the contact surfaces lightly with petroleum jelly b) Magnetic blowout coils c) An overvoltage release d) An over current release Ans: B 5691 which of the electrical properties listed will always be

the same for each component in a parallel circuit? a) Impedance 5692 which of the listed instruments can be best used to locate a grounded field coil in a synchronous motor? a) Frequency meter

original wire will have a resistance that is A.four that of the original wire B.twice that of the original wire C.the same as that of the original wire D.one half that of the original wire Ans:A 5695.If a delicate component must be soldered into a circuit , the component may be protected from the part of the soldering process by A.operating the soldering gun not more than 60 seconds at the time B.using a thermal shunt C.pre- oxidizing the leads to be soldered D.coating the leads to be soldered with the light oil film Ans:B

5693. The standard procedure for maintaining the charge in an emergency diesel battery is to trickle charge the battery A.continuously B.astleast once each week C.whenever the charge falls to 75% of full charge D.whenever the electrolyte specific gravity falls to 1.250 or lower Ans:A 5694.A replacement wire having twice the legth and one half the cross sectional area of the

5696.If you disconnect and arrange both ends of a three conductor cable without any contact between the individual conductors an indicated ohmic value between the ends of a single conductor could indicate.. A.continuity of the conductor B.an infinite resistance C.the presence of a partial ground D.that the conductor is not short circuited Ans:A 5697.Why is it a poor practice to use a high wattage soldering iron when soldering or desoldering components on a printed circuit board? A.the circuit board will blister and warp B.the foil wire bonded to a board may come loosened from the board

C.the circuit board has a low melting temperature d.the solder is kept to a dull heat dissipating finish Ans:b 5698.which of the following temperatures represent the maximum allow able temperature for the electrolyte of a lead acid battery? A.100F B.125F C.145F D.212F Ans:B 5699.Which of the following method should be used to dress the face of silver plated contacts? A.filing B.burnishing C.sanding with 0000 sand paper D.all of the above or correct

Ans :C 5700.A lead acid battery may become hotter than normal during the change if the .. A.battery as a shortered cell B.charging voltage is too low C.specific gravity is too high D.battery room door is secured Ans:A 5701.which of the substances listed can be used toshield sensitive equipment from static magnetic field ? A.glass B.mica C.bakelight D.premeable iron Ans:D 5702.Handheld phase sequence indicators are useful when ..

A.preparing to parallel alternaters B.connecting lighting branch circuits C.troubleshooting DC motors D.connecting shore power lines to the ship Ans:D 5704.To determine the state of change of a nickel-cadmium battery,you should .. A.check the electrolyte with a hydrometer B.use the constant specific gravity method C.use a nonbreakable mercury thermometer. D.connect a voltmeter to a battery terminals Ans:D 5705.The timer element of a reverse power relay cannot energized unless

A.one generater is fully motorized B.the movement of a disk is damped by a permanent magnent C.the power flow is same as the tripping direction D.the power flow is opposite to the tripping direction Ans:C 5706.Before touching the small capacitor connected to a deenergized circuit or even one that is completely disconnected ,you should .. A.gently tap the body with a screw driver B.tag it with ade energized tag C.be equipped with an insulated fuse puller D.shortcircuit the terminals to make sure that the capacitor is dis charged Ans:D

5707.An increase which of the listed conditions will increase the speed of a synchronous motor ? A.frequency B.voltage C.armature current D.inductance Ans :A 5708.Before working on an electric cargo winch master switch or controller ,you should A.spray the gasket surface with a solvent B.drain condensate from the box C.open the circuit breaker in the power supply and tag D.heat the switch box to remove any moisture Ans :C 5709.Which of the following methods Should be used to test

for an opencoil in an AC motor stator? A.test with on ohm meter ,one test lead on the shaft and the other test lead to the stator leads B.test with an ohm meter with the test leads between the stator leads C.use a growler listening for noise and vibration to diminish when over an open coil D. .use a growler listening for noise and vibration to increase when over an open coil Ans:B 5710.If a three- phase induction motor malfunctions and drops to a single-phase (one supply line open ) . A.the motor will continue to run if it is noy heavily loaded B.more torque will be developed

C.the motor will immediately stop and not be able to be restarted D.the motor will immediately stop and can only be restarted at no load Ans :A

5711. which of the problems listed will occur if a lead-acid battery is allowed to remain in a discharged condition for a long period of time? A.The battery may be unable to accept a full charge B.The electrolyte will change to lead sulfate C.The concentrated sulfuric acid will attack the lead peroxide plate D.The separator will harden Ans; A 5712.the division of the kilowatt load between two AC

generators operating in parallel is controlled by the setting and characteristics of the A . voltage regulators B . field rheostats C . reverse power relays D. prime mover governors Ans ; D 5713 . when lesting a capacitor with an analog type ohmmeter a good capacitor will be indicated when . A . There is no meter deflection B . The meter deflects to a low resistance value and remain there C . The meter deflects to a low resistance value and slow increases towards infinity D . The meter deflects to a low resistance value and increases rapidly to a higher value but stays fairly low Ans . c

5714 . The division of the kilowatt load between two AC generators operating in parallel is controlled by the setting and characteristics of the .. A . amount of field excitation of the leading machine B . load speed characteristics of the governors C . amount of field excitation to the tagging machine D . type of alternator Ans ; B 5715 . While troubleshooting acircuit in an engine room central control console , a resistor is suspected of being faulty . which of the following precautions must be observed if an ohmmeter is to be used to check its value A . correct polarity must be observed because reverse bias will damage the component

B . meter leads must not be twisted so as to cancel out the individual magnetic fields C . resistors circuit must be deenergized and at least one end of the component isolated D . the mater case must be groundedprior to attaching the leads Ans ; C 5716 . which of the following procedures should be used to determine the load of a threephase delta wound . AC generator? A . Multiply the amperage in one phase by three B . Divide the total amperage in all phases by three C . multiply the amperage in one phase by the square root of three D . divides the total amperage in all phases by the square root of three

Ans ; B 5717 . the full load torque of an electric motor is the .. A . minimum torque developed by a motor accelerating from stop to full speed B . turning moment exerted by the motor at the rate load and full speed C. maximum torque developed by the motor with related voltage and frequency D.turning moment excerted by motor from any rotor angular position at any load Ans B 5718 Prior using an analog type ohmmeter the leads are shortened together .which of the following actions should be taken if when adjusting to zero ohms,the indicating needle

cannot be returned to zero on the scale? A.The lead chips could be replaced B.the batteries should be replaced C.the least reading should be added to each final reading D.the least reading should be subtracted from each final reading Ans:B 5719 . the transmit and receive elements of a sound powered telephone handset are . A . Identical and can be used for either function B . of similar construction but different enough to be used only for its own function C . of very different construction and MUST be used only for its own function

D . constructed so that each can fit only in its own recess Ans ; A 5720 . The resistance of most conducting materials will change as a result of temperature change . the resistance of copper will A . increases as temperature decreases B . decreases as temperature decreases C . remain the same between 7*c and 44*c D . remain the same between 20*c and 110*c 5721 . the function of a step down potential transformer is to reduce the load . A . voltage and current B . voltage and increase line current C . current and increase line voltage

D . POWER Ans ; B 5722 . to avoid damaging the component of a printed circuit board when testing it with aDC volt ohm meter, you should .. A . ground the board B . avoid reversing the polarity of the leads C . isolated sensitive component with sinks D . all of the above Ans ; B 5723 . A loud buzzing noise in an AC controllel probally caused by A . poor contact with the overload relay B . an incorrectly sized heater C . a broken shading coil D . abnormal starting current Ans ; C

5724 . Increasing the load to the secoundry winding of a transformer will cause a/an . A . decrease in the primary voltage B . increase in the primary voltage C . decrease in the primary current D . increases in primary current Ans ; C 5725 . if an induction motor were to be operated at 90* rated voltage, A . there would be an increase in starting torque B . starting current would increase slightly

5726 . when trouoleshootinga magnetic controller,it is found that the contacts are welded

together the most probable cause is . A .excessive operation at low load B . high amblent temparature C. Synchronous speed would decrease slightly D. the slip would increase Ans.D 5727. The instantaneous reduction in voltage of an AC generator, resulting From an increase in load, and prior to the automatic voltage Regulator correcting the situation , is called voltage A. droop B. drop C. dip D .regulation Ans.C 5728.A characteristic of a wound-rotor induction motor, with a high resistance rotor winding, is A. low starting torque B. high starting torque C. high speed D .low starting voltage Ans.B

5729. Magnetic controller contacts may become welded together during operation because of A .excessive magnetic gap B .low contact pressure C .an open coil D .excessive ambient temperature Ans:B 5730. If a transformer is connected to a DC source, the transformer will overload at the A. contacts B. primary coil C. secondary coil D. core Ans:B 5731. The output voltage of a 440 volt, 60 Hz AC generator is controlled by the A. load on the alternator B. load on the prime mover C. speed of the prime mover D. exciter output voltage Ans:D 5732.In a three-phase,squirrelcage type,induction motor the rotating magnetic field is established by the A. current induced in the rotor windings

B. application of a three-phase voltage supply to the stator windings C. laminated steel core and aluminium conductors in the rotor D. interaction of the magnetic field caused by the induced current in the squirrel-cage bars with the magnetic field of the stator 5733.When placed in a magnetic field, which of the materials listed will maintain the highest permeability? A. Glass B. Bakelite C. soft iron D. Aluminium Ans.C 5734. Before measuring an unknown resistance with an ohmmeter, you should A. adjust the meters pointers to mid-scale B. change the masters hatteries C. center the meters pointer at infinity D. short the test leads and calibrate the meter Ans:D 5735. One diode of a full-wave rectifier has burned out in a

shorted condition. Therefore, the output will be A. zer0 B. a rectified half-wave C. a rectified full-wave D .equal to the AC input Ans:D 5736. The charge of a lead-acid battery is checked with a/an A. manometer B. hydrometer C. voltmeter D. ohmmeter Ans: B 5737.Magnetic controller contacts may become welded together during operating conditions as a result of A. high ambient temperature B. high spring pressure C. an open coil D. low voltage on operating coil Ans:D 5738. When a transformer is used to step down voltage, the low voltage winding is A. part of the core B. the primary coil C. not insulated D. the secondary coil Ans:D 5739.An AC circuit has capacitance arranged in series. If

the line voltage remains constant, the capacitive reactance value can be varied by changing the A. line frequency B. resistance C. number of commutating poles D. number of interpoles Ans:A 5740.The total voltage of a series circuit in the A.sum of the individual voltage drops B. total resistance dinided by the total current C.sum of the individual currents multiplied by the number of resistors D.total currents divided by the total resistance Ans:A 5741 .Excessive humming of AC contactors may be caused by A. burnt arc shields B. shorted armature coils C. a broken shading coil D. high voltage Ans:C 5742.Decreasing the frequency in a capacitive circuit while maintaining a constant circuit voltagw,will result in a/an

A. increase in apparent power B. decrease in circuit current C. decrease in capacitive resistance D. decrease in total impedence Ans:B 5743. The counter EMF produced in the windings of a DC motor is zero when the A. armature has just begun to turn B. armature is not turning C. motor is almost up to rated speed D. motor is at rated speed Ans:B 5744.A loud buzzing noise coming from the contacts in a magnetic controller can be caused by A. excessive current B. excessive magnet gap C. bouncing of contacts D. dirt on magnet faces Ans:D 5745. The function of the commutator in a Dc motor is to A. reverse the flow of current through the armature B. reverse the flow of current in the field poles

C. reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path through the motor D. shift the neutral running plane of the brushes to prevent sparking Ans:A 5746. Humming or buzzing of electric contacts is a symptom of A. low voltage on the operating coil B. power failure to the operating coil C. a contralto circuit ground D. a control circuit overload Ans:A 5747. To increase the frequency of an operating AC generator, you should A. increase the field excitation B. decrease the field excitation C. increase the number of magnetic poles D. increase the speed of the prime mover Ans:D 5748. The counter EMF of a DC motor is maximum when the A. motor is at rated speed B. armature is not turning C. motor is almost up to raised speed

D. an armature has just begun to turn Ans:A 5749. In the flow of one cycle of single phase AC current past any given point in a circuit, the maximum current peak occurs A. one time B. two times C. three times D. four times Ans:D 5750. AC and DC generators are similar in that they A. both generate alterating voltages B. both rectify the voltage before delivery C. are constructed at the same physical size for the same kilowatt rating D. both supply three-phase power Ans:A 5751.If the length of a wire is halved and the cross-sectional area is doubled,the resistance will be A. unaltered B. unchanged C. doubled D. unadrupled Ans:A

5752. Prior to taking a resistance reading with a volt-ohmmilliammeter the zero setting must be adjusted. After clipping the two leads together, you find the adjustment knob will not return the pointer to zero. This is most likely an indication of A. an improper resistance range setting B. weak batteries C. a faulty xero ohms knob D. a faulty matter movement Ans.B 5753. When correcting specific gravity readings of a lead-acid battery for existing temperature conditions ,you should A. add 10 points for each 2.2above 26.7C B. subtract 10 points for each 2.2C above 26.7C C. add 4 points for each 4.5 above 26.7C D. add 4 points for each 4.5C below 26.7C Ans:C 5754. Relative of the secondary winding of a step-up transformer .The primary winding will have A. more turns B. fewer turns C. half as many turns

D. twice as many turns Ans:B 5755. The total power used up in a series circuit is A. the sum of the powers used in each load (resistor) divided by the number of loads B. the sum of the powers used in each load C. always less than the power used in the smallest load D. never more than the power used in largest load Ans :B 5756. When the operating handle of a molded-case circuit breaker is in the mid-position, this indicates that the circuit breaker is A. On B. off C. reset D. tripped Ans:D 5757: If a magnetic controller fails to pick up when the operating coil is energized on a possible cause may be A. low spring pressure B. low voltage to the coil C. the residual magnetism of the contact faces D. dirt contact faces

Ans:B 5758. Which of the listed forms of water should be added to a lead-acid battery? A. saktwater B. brackish water C. distilled water D. light water Ans:C 5759. The primary function of an electric motor is to A. develop torque B. generate high voltages C. produce a magnetic field D. generate high electrical resistance Ans:A 5760. Current measuring instrument must always be connected in A. series with a circuit B. parallel with a circuit C. series-parallel with a circuit D. delta with the shunt Ans.A 5761 .The resistance of electric wire will decrease wire will decrease as its A. length increases B. cross-sectional area increases C. temperature increases D. percent of metallic purities increases

Ans:B 5762. Which of the instruments listed should always be connected in series with a circuit? A. Ammeter B. Magohmeter C. Waltmeter D. Voltmeter Ans .A 5763. When the voltage remains constant and the resistance is increased is increased in a series circuit, the flow of current A. increases by the square of the original value B. increases C. remains the same D. decreases 5764.An ammeter should be used to measure A. the voltage between two points in a circuit B. circuit continuity C. current flow in a circuit D.total or partial circuit resistance 5769 when a console indicating lamp burns out ,attempts to renew it should not be made while maneuvering because_______________

A the new lamp may be a higher voltage and cause heat damage to the lens B removing the faulty lamp usually causes an alaram to sound on the bridge C attention should be paid only to engine orders D a SOCKET/WIRING fault may cause a ground or short circuit to shutdown in a vital function ANS :D 5770 The rate at which heat is produced in a direct current circuit is equal to ________________ A P divided by R B I square times R C E divided by I D I times R divided by T ANS :B 5771 One horse power is equal to ________________

A 500watts B 663 watts C 746 watts D 1000 watts ANS :C 5772 An ameter reads slightly above zerowhen its leads are disconnected,thisis a result of ______________ A mechanical misalignment of the meter pointer B a poor ground for the meter case C static electricity in the air D resistor inside the meter storing charges ANS :A 5773 Modern head held digital tachometers operated by counting light pulses returned to the unit by ____________ A the tach generator B either the coupling or shaft

C a small bulb attached to the shaft D a piece of reflective tape ANS :D 5774 To determine the state of charge of nickelcadmium battery ,you would use a/an________________ A voltmeter B hydrometer C ammeter D potentiometer ANS :A 5775 When trouble shooting a lead acid storage battery weak or dead cell is best defected by_____________ A measuring end comparing all cells specific gravity B taking an open circuit voltage test of individual cells C visually inspecting the electrolyte levels of each cells

D taking each cells temprature with a calibrated mercury thermometer ANS :A 5776 Common nickel cadmium and nickel iron storage batteries utilize ____________________ A acid primary cells B alkaline primary cells C acid secondary cells D alkaline secondary cells ANS :D 5777 The amont of voltage induced in the windings of an ac generator depends mainly on _______________________ A the number of field poles energised B the speed at which the stator windings rotate through the magnetic field C the strength of the magnetic field

D all of the above ANS :C 5778 Which of the following material is the good electric insulator___________ A wood B silver C copper D gold ANS :A 5779 When mixing electrolyte , which of the following precautions should always be absorved? A add the acid to the water B use a heavy duty aluminum pail C add the water to the acid D mix the solution out dooers ANS :A 5780 Which of the following statements represents the

correct method of connecting the shunt of an ammeter prior to taking a reading? A in series with the load and in series with the meter movement B in series with the load and in parrllel with the meter movement C in parrllel with the load and in series with the meter movement D in parrllel with the load and in parllel with the meter movement ANS :B 5781 Nickel- cadmium storage batteries are superior to leadacid batteries bacause they ___________ A put out higher voltages and require no maintainance B can remain idle and keep a full charge for a long time C need fewer cells in sense and useless mounting space

D all of the above ANS : B 5782 The force that causes free electrons to move in a conductor as electric current flow is called a/an_________ A resistant force B electromotive force C inductive force D dielctric force ANS :B

5784 which of the listed sections of an emergency switch board is used to supply power for alaram signals under emergency conditions ____________________ A the generator and the bus transfer section B the 450 volts 60 cycle 3 phase bus C the 120 volt 3 phase 60 cycle bus D the 24 dc bus

5783 a hand held digital tachometre could give a bad reading if _______________ A aimed directiv at the shaft B partially aimed at a 60hz floursent light C positioned 10-25 cms from the shaft D the tape is too shiny ANS B

ANS D 5785 when removing ball or roller bearing from shaft of a motor you should use a ________________ A rawhide hammer B brass mallet C wheel pulle D soft iron prybar ANS C

5786 the rotation of athree phase indetion motor can be reversed by _______________________ A inter changing any two of three lines leads to stator B disconnecting one of three ilne leads to the stator C switching the shunt field coit leads D permanetly disconnecting any two of the three lines leads to the stator ANS A 5787 the frequency of an ac generator is controlled by the A rheostat B governor C exciter D capacitor ANS B 5788 the 24 volt dc bus on the emergency switch board is used

to supply power to the _________________ A general alarm system B gyro compass power failure alarm system C smoke detection system D all of the above ANS D 5789 the frequency of an alternator is controlled from the main switch board by adjusting the ___________________________ ____ A frequency metre B voltage regulator C governor control D sychroscope switch ANS C 5790 the reversal of an ac three phase induction motor isaccomplished by_______________________

A changing all three motor leads B reversing the positionof the slip rings C interchanging any two of the three motor leads D interchanging any two brushes ANS C 5791 in order to take a current reading with a clamp on ammeter the instrumentss jaws___________________ A shouid remain open B cannot touch the adjacent conductor C must be fully closed D will act as a transformer primary ANS C 5792 the number of cycles per second occuring in ac voltage is known as the ____________________ A phase angle

B frequency C wave form D half mode ANS B 5793 when troubleshooting an alkaline storage battery a week or dead cell is best located by________________ A checking the specific gravity of each cell B visually inspecting each cells electrolyte level C testing each cell with a voltmetre D measuring the electrolyte temperature with an accurate mercury thermometre ANS C 5794 when a meghometre is used to test the the dielectric strength of wire insulation the initial dip of the pointer toward zero is caused by________________________

A good insulation B leakage of current along the surface of dirty insulation C the capacitance of the circuit D the cielectric absorption effect of the insulation ANS C 5795 which of the following statement concerning ac circuit is correct_____________________ ____ A the power factor of a ressistive circuit is always zero B true power in an inductive circuit always equals apparent power C inductive reactance varies directly with the frequncy and the inductance D total opposition to the flow of alternating current depends upon the amount of reactive power

ANS C 5796 when trouble shooting motor controller a shorted releay contactor coil is often indicated by_________________ A a resistance reading of infinity of an ohmmetre B charred insulation and /or a blown control fuse C a reading of zero on a megger from one of the coils lead to ground D a higher than normal voltage reading across the windings ANS B 5797 if the driving torque such as that produced by adiesel engine create pulsation when coupled with a synchronous generator operating in parallel the generator rotor may be periodically pulled a head on behind its normal position as it rotates this

hurt_______________________ ____ A amortisseur windings B direct coupling C increase governor speed drop D decreasing governor speed drop ANS A 5798 which of the following statement represents the first step in settings new brushes on slip rings_______________________ ____ A wrap sand paper around the slip rings and side it back and forth between the brushes and the slip rings B press the brushes against the slip rings with e wood block C increase brush pressure and run at no load for 3 to 4 hours

D apply seating compound under the brushes and run at no load for 2 hours ANS A 5799 motor name plate includes vc rise the indicates the __________________ A actual running temperature after winding from no load to full load B permissble temperature rise of the windings above the designed ambient temerature C maximum allowable temperature rise above normal full load operating temperature D 5800 when using ameghno metre to test the dielectric strength of wire insulation a continous series of slight down scale kicks by the pointer is result of __________________ A good insulation

B the leakage of current along the surface of dirty insulation C the capacitance of the windings

5802. when the electrolyte level of a lead acid storage battery has decreased due to normal evaparation The level should be restabilished by adding a.distilled water only b.sulfuric acid only c.a weak solution of sulfuric acid and distilled water d.a strong solution of sulfuric acid and distilled water ans;a 5803.when ship board electrical distribution circuits are connected in parllel additional parllel circuits will cause the total circuit resistance to a.increase causing a drop in the line current b.increase causing a decrease in the line voltage c.decrease causing an incrase in the line voltage

-5801. A commulators protective oxide film can be destroyed by a. periods of low humidity b.very low brush current density c.improper brush grade d.all the above ans; d

d.decrease cauding an increase in the line current ans;d 5804.which of the listed classes of electrical insulation is suited for the highest operating temperature? a.class 90(0) b.class105(a) c.class130(b) d.class180(h) ans;d 5805.when the control handle is in the off position the solenoid actuated brake of the electric winch is a.de energized and the brake is released b.energised and the brake is released c.energised and the brake is set by a spring

d.de energized and the brade is set by a spring ans ;d 5806.in d.c motor construction the armature coils ends are a.soldered to the commutator arrisers b.imbedded into core slots c.crimped together with brush pigtails d.splicad with the field windings ans;a 5807.when troubleshooting a console circuit card suspected of being faulty the last step would be to a.check the fuses and voltage levels of all power supplies in the console b.clean dust and debris from the card and burnish the sliding connections

c.make sure all connections are tight including wire wrapping and push on types d.substitute a new or repaired spare card and check the operation of the circuit ans;d 5808.The armature cores of the d c motors are constructed with laminations to a.eliminate hysteresis b.minimize brush sparking c.reduce eddy current losses d.compensate for armature reaction ans;c 5809.which of the listed groups oj electrical insulation materials is best suited for the highest operating Temperatures? a.impregnated cotton and silk

b.unimpregnated papeer and cotton c.pure glass and quartz d.mica and porcelian with bonding agents ans;c 5810.capacitors can be used in electrical distribution system to improve power factor this is accomplished by seesawing energy between the capacitor and the a.generator b.inductive loads c.resistive loads d.all of the above ans;b 5811.you are paralleling two alternators the synchornizing lamps grow dim and are totally darkened as the synchroscope pointer approaches the 0 position this indicates that the

a.alternator voltages are 180 a part b.circuit breaker can be closed c.incoming alternator is running too slowly d.synchroscope is defective or broken ans;b 5812.if you reverse both the field and the armature connections to a dc propulsion motor a.the direction of motor rotation will change b.the brushes will become over heated c.a magnetic lock will occur in the motor d.the direction of motor rotation will remail the same ans ;d 5813.the leads from a megohmmeter are attached to

the leads of an ac motor field coil a reading of infinity is obtained indicating a a.open field coil b.shorted field coil c.grounded field coil d.shunted field coil ans;a 5814.the direction of rotation of a dc propulsion motor can be changed by reversing the a.brush holder position b.polarity of the field poles c.brush staggered order d.motor interpole connections ans;b 5815.moisture absorbed in the windings or condensed on the surface of electrical machinery insulation a.is good for long term preserving since most insulation

is organic and contains some amount b.lowers the insulation value and is a common cause of fault grounds in idle machines c.will enhance insulation resistance only if it is fresh water and contains no salt d.reduces the amount of current supplied or drawn by the machine so horse power is limited ans;b 5816.the voltage devoloped by an ac generator is controlled by varying the a.speed of the prime mover b.ac excitation to the field c.dc excitation to the field d.dc excitation to the voltage regulator ans;c 5817.if a fuse of correct size and type blows frequently

a.try the next higher amperage rating b.try the next lower amperage rating c.look for trouble within the circuit d.reduce the applied voltage 10% ans.c 5818.if voilet gassing occurs when a lead acid storage battery is first placed on charge the a.battery must be given an emergency charges b.charging rate is too low c.charging rate is too high d.specific gravity of the electrolyte solution is too low ans;c 5819.what type of electric motor is commonly used to start small auxilary diasel engines? a.

b.series c.shunt d.cage ans; 5820.voilet gassing developed by a lead acid battery during charge indicates that a. b.cell voltages are excessive c.specific gravity in in sufficient d.charges rate is excessive ans;d 5821.all the following items can be used in the maintanance of a dc propulsion motors commutator except a.a canvas wiper b.safety solvent c.abrasive dressing stones d.sand paper ans;b

5822.a reverse current relay will prevent ac generator motorization by a.automatically redirecting the load b.automatically speeding up the prime mover c.tripping the panel board main switch d.tripping the generator circuit breaker ans;d 5823.complete controller maintanance includes a.peroidic testing of protective devices b.checking for loose or worn contacts and weak springs c.maintaining a sufficient supply of spare parts d.all the above ans.d

5824.if a loaded shunt motors field were weakened by rheostat resistance or byan open circuit the motor would a.overspeed due to reduced cemf b.stop because of low flux c.continue to run at base speed d.slow down and over heat ans.a 5825.how is a wattmeter electrically connected ina circuit? a.in series b.in parllel c.in series parllel d.inductively ans;c 5826.an ac generator panel is fitted with both synchronising lamps and a synchroscope when the synchroscope pointer

reaches the noon positioin one synchronizing light is bright and the other a.there is a ground on the phase wirh the lamp b.the phase sequence is incorrect c.the generator breaker may be closed ans.b 5827.a wattmeter is used to determine a.the power being consumed by electrical equipment b.partial circuit resistance c.current flowing in a circuit d.voltage existing between two points in a circuit ans;a 5828.which of the following statements is true concerning a step down transformer in a n operating ac power circuit?

A.voltage and current will both be increased b.voltage and current will both be decreased c.voltage decreases as current increases d.voltage increases as current decreases ans.c 5829.the rpm of an ac generator can be measured with a a.ammeter b.voltmeter c.vibrating reed meter d.synchroscope ans;c 5830.then dielectric constant is a numerical value indicating the effectiveness of a dielectric material In comparison to that of a standard which is a.paper or cloth

b.glass or mica c.plastic or teflon d.dry air or vacum ans.d 5831.if the pointer of the synchroscope is rotating in the slow direction when you are preparing to parllel two alternators the a.incoming machine is turning faster than the load alternator b.loaded alternator is turning faster than the incoming machine c.load on the loaded alternator is ready to split d.incoming machine is beginning to pick up some of the load ans.b 5832.the air gap in an induction motor should be checked periodically with a feeler gage to detect

a.rotor contact with the laminations b.changes in armature magnetic strength c.excessive bearing wear d.electrical damage to the rotor ans.c 5833.the following air gap readings were obtained from a horizontally mounted bilge pump induction motor equipped with sleeve bearings A.the aft bearing should be realigned or replaced b.shims should be removed from the aft bearing c.the farward bearing should be lowered d.the aft bearing should be lowered ans .a 5834.the dielectrical constant of dry air or a vaccum is

a. b. c. d. ans.a 5835.when the operating handle of a molded case circuit breaker is in the mid position it indicates the circuit breaker is a.in the opened position b.in the closed position c.tripped d.reset ans.c 5836.during maintenance of circuit breakers a.always smooth roughened contact surfaces with a file b.never pass more than rated breaker current through the overload heater element

c.inspect for wear and misalignment of main contacts d.assume heater elements installed are of correct size ans.c 5837 In a three-phase, opendelta connected transformer, the line current is equal to________ (A) The phase current (B) Three times the phase current (C) The sum of any two phase current (D) The difference of any two phase current Answer: (A) 5838 Most AC voltmeter are calibrated to indicate________ (A) Peak-to-peak voltage (B) Root-mean-square voltage (C) Average voltage (D) Peak voltage only Answer: (B)

5839 To limit the current flow through a DC voltmeter to as low a value as possible, the moving coil circuit is provided with a/an__________ (A) High series resistance (B) High parallel resistance (C) Series inductor (D) External shunt Answer: (A) 5840 Encrusted dirt accumulated inside a motor should be remove with a____________ (A) (B) (C) (D) Fiber scraper Pointed welding rod Hammer and chisel Paint scraper

Answer: (A) 5841 to check the three line fuses of a three-phase system consisting of a three-phase motor. You must_________

(A) Place the starter in the stop position (B) Make sure the motor is operating at full load to guard against a false reading (C) Place the leads across the hotends of the fuses (D) Place the leads across the bottom ends of the fuses Answer: (A) 5842 If the voltage applied to a moving disk frequency meter decreases while the applied frequency remains the same, the frequency indication will_________ (A) (B) (C) (D) Increase Decrease Remain the same Oscillate

need for cleaning electrical insulation? (A) Low ambient temperature (B) Low operating temperature (C) High dielectric strength (D) Low megger reading Answer: (D) 5844 The reactive power drawn by a motor from an AC generator is the power which is _________ (A) Used to establish the magnetic field of the motor (B) Lost in overcoming friction in the bearing (C) Strictly converted to heat generated by current flow through the windings (D) Transmitted directly through the rotor shaft to perform useful work Answer: (A)

Answer: (C) 5843 Which of the listed conditions could indicate the

5845 The most inefficient method of voltage reduction, from the stand point of poer loss,even when placed in series with the load, is the use of a/an__________ (A) (B) (C) (D) Capacitor Inductor Resistor Transistor

(D) Using a special purpose resistance measuring instrument(a bridge) Answer: (A) 5847 Which of the following statements regarding the use of current measuring instrument is correct? (A) It must be connected in series with the circuit (B) You should always start with the lowest range until a suitable reading is obtained (C) The indicating needle is deflected from left to right regardless of polarity (D) An external shunt is generally utilized where current is less than 10 amperes Answer: (A) 5848 how many possible states dose a binary logic circuit have?

Answer: (C) 5846 When using a multimeter for resistance measurements, it should be calibrated by clipping the loose ends of the leads together and_________ (A) Setting the instrument pointer at zeroohms (B) Adjusting the line voltage to calibrate the instrument (C) Plugging each ends of one test lead into the plus and minus terminals

(A) (B) (C) (D)

One Two Three Four

(D) Reverses an input logic condition Answer: (D) 5851 In a logic circuit the NOR and NAND gate functions________ (A) Must be accomplished with a common base transistor arrangement (B) Are available in diode form (C) Are exact opposite with the same NOR and NAND input (D) Have output conditions that are exactly opposites to the out put condition for OR and AND , respectively Answer: (D) 5852 Conductor resistance may be indirectly MEASURED by using a/an___________ (A) (B) Voltmeter only Ammeter only

Answer: (B) 5849 Which of the listed pairs of materials make the best insulator? (A) Copper and aluminum (B) Glass and mica (C) Dry air and the vacuum (D) Dropped silicon and germanium Anawer: (B) 5850 In a logic circuit, the NOT gate function________ (A) Does not alter a logic input (B) Serves to amplify a given signal level (C) Must be accomplished with a common collector transistor arrangement

(C) Voltmeter ad an ammeter (D) Ohmmeter only Answer: (C) 5853 A three-phase, squirrel cage,indication motor will run hot due to ___________ (A) Open stator coils (B) High power factor (C) Dirty or corroded slip rings (D) Reversed commutating poles Answer: (A) 5854 The ground indicating light on the main electrical switched board is indicating a ground. The best procedure for locating a grounded circuit is to____________ (A) Trace the circuit parts while looking for burnt spots (B) Check circuit resistances with a megohmeter connected

between the grounded lone and the distribution panel frame work (C) Open the circuit breakers on the distribution panel, one at a time until the lights no longer indicate a ground (D) Check all circuit for continuity Answer: (C) 5855 A three-phase,squirre cage, indication motor will run hot due to a/an________ (A) Improper brush position (B) Reversed commutating pole (C) Shorted stator (D) High power factor Answer: (C) 5856 Which of the listed pairs of materials make the best insulators? (A) Dry air and a vacuum

(B) Tin and lead (C) Dropped silicon and germanium (D) Paper and coil Answer: (D) 5857 A split-phase induction squirrel-cage motor will not come up to speed, even though the rated voltage, rated frequency, and rated load are applied. The suspected trouble could be due to__________ (A) A faulty centrifugal switch (B) Broken rotor bars (C) Worn bearings (D) All of the about Answer: (D) 5858 A ground is indicated by the ground-detecting system on the main electrical swithch board . The first step in locating the actual ground is to___________ (A) Close all circuit breakers in the

distribution panel until the ground detector indicates normal (B) Open the individual circuits breakers, one by one until the ground detection system indicates normal (C) Change over generators (D) Check each circuit with a megohmmeter Answer: (B) 5859 Multiple grounds have developed and were initially indicated by the groundindicating system as one ground. The FIRST step in locating th ground is to__________ (A) Examine the main bus bars for signs of overheating (B) Eliminate the individual circuits one by one until the ground detecting system no

longer indicates any grounds (C) Change over generators (D) Check each circuit with a megohmmeter Answer: (B) 5860 To protect the rotor of a motor disassembled for maintenance or overhaul, it should be ___________________ (A) Suspended by wire slings in one corner of the shop (B) Wrapped in several layers of heavy paper or cardboard (C) Supported by flat wood blocks on the workbench (D) Returned to the frame as soon as the bearings are removed Answer: (B)

5861 an overload in which of the listed motors will result in the illumination of an indicating light at the propulsion control station alarm panel? (A) Fuel pump motor (B) Steering motor (C) Condensate pump motor (D) Forced draft blower motor Answer(B) 5862 A current carrying conductor makes accidental ontact with the wiring circuit.this will be indicated by a (A) Low switchboard wattmeter reading (B) high switchboard wattmeter reading (C) darkened switchboard ground detecting lamp (D) darkened switchboard synchronizing lamps answer (C)

5863 A change in field excitation of an alternator operating in parallel will cause a change in its (A) alternator frequency (B) kilowatt load (C) voltage output (D) all the above Answer:C 5864 The effect of carrying field excitation excessively high on a synchronous motor will result in a (A) tendency for the motor to fall out of step (B) tendency of motor to over speed (C) tendency for the motor to overheat (D) loss of motor speed regulation answer:C 5865 A fuse will blow if (A) an electric motor is suddenly stopped by opening a switch

(B) the flow of current to the protection device is reverse (C) the electrical current exceeds the rated value of the fuse (D) unequal resistors are connected in parallel answer:D 5866 the inductance of a coil is measured in (A) ohms (B) volts (C) henries (D) ampere answer:C 5867 When a flourascent lamp fails to light, the trouble can be in the (A) lamp (B) starter (C) ballast (D) all of the above Answer:D

5868 Electric current is the flow of electrons the rate of thisflow is measured in (A) volts (B) amperes (C) coulombs (D) ohms answer:B 5869 Which of the following conditions can lead to the failure of a resistor? (A) Excessive vibration (B) Insufficient ventilation (C) Corrosion (D) All of the above Answer :D 5870 A circuit with a blown fuse would be escribedas a/an (A) Short circuit (B) Open circuit (C) Bonded circuit (D) Grouned circuit Answer:B 5871 Which of the following conditions listed will indicate the

need to be clean the insulation on the windings of an electric motor? (A) Higher than normal operating temperature (B) Excessive vibration at normal speed (C) Sparking at the brushes (D) High megger readings Answer :A 5872 Which of the listed devices may be used as a digital device? (A) Variable resistor (B) Diode (C) Strain gauge (D) Thermistor ANSWER:A 5873 which of the listed procedures is the best way o tell if a motor has been overloaded? 5874 If a small electric motor is immersed in salt water it should be_________ i.washed in fresh water II dried in an ovens

A Measure the current flow and compare it with the motor full load current flow as shown on the nameplate. B Feel the motor and judge by the temperature C Watch for telltale signs of smoke coming from the motor D Periodic opening of the O/L relay coil ANS: A

D voltmeter and ampmeter with the machine running ANS: B 5876) when an AC or a DC moto fails to start, the first step in troubleshooting should be to check the. A motor windings for obvious opens B motor controller leads for continuity C fuse or circuit breaker

5875) on some electrical generating equipment one outboard bearing pedestal is insulted from the bedplate. To check this insulation with the machine assembled you should use a A ohmmeter with the machine secured B millivolt meter and a jumper with the machine running C megohm meter with the machine running

D motor controller leads for ground ANS:C 5877) if the deck machinery is expected to be idle for an extended period of time you should.. A have electrical safety gloves available in case of electrical shock before running

B perform a high pot test to determine the condition of the insultation C water wash the motor and controller to remove any salt that may interfere with smooth operation D voltmeter and ampmeter with the machine running. ANS: D 5878) ambient temperature is the.. A amount of temperature rise with no load B amount temperature developed by an operating motor C temperature of the compartment where the motor is located D normal operating temperature less the room temperature ANS : C

5879) A switch board ammeter indicates a reading slighty above zero when the leads are disconnected this is caused by. A mechanical misalignment of the meter pointer B a poor ground for the meter case C statics electricity in the air D capacitors inside the meter storing charges ANS:A 5880) Air gap readings should be periodically taken for electrical generation equipment. The best tool to use to take these measurement is a. A cloth(nonmetallic) tape measure B dial indicator

C inside micrometer D tapered,long blade,feeler gage.

ANS:D 5881) Brush sparking during communication may be caused by.. A eddy currents in the armature core B lamination in the generator field pieces C induced current opposite to coil inductance D coil inductance discharge occurring at communication. ANS:D 5882) Air gape readings for electrical generating equipments should be taken periodically this is to . I determine the condition of the bearings. Ii prevent damage to rotor and stator A I only B II only C both I and II D neither I or II

Ans:C 5883)The following air gape readings were obtained from a horizontally mounted,bilge pump,induction motor,equipped with sleeve bearings: FWD END AFT END TOP 045 047Left side A both the aft and forward bearings should be replaced B shims should be removed from the aft bearing C the forward bearing should be lowered D the aft bearing should be lowered ANS:A 5884) A ground on a particular phase of a three phase low voltage distribution system would be indicated by a . A high switchboard wattmeter reading

B low switchboard wattmeter reading C dark or dim switchboard ground detecting light D bright switchboard ground detecting light. ANS:C 5885) As part of a routine maintenance program for deck machinery ,you should.. A inspect electrical wing and push button switches for evidence of corrosion or burned insulation B disassemble pushbutton switches and drain water each week C remove motor covers and ventilate as weather permits D check drum switch contact pressure every three months. ANS:A

5886) Which of the listed conditions will occur if the polarity of the field poles and the direction of current to the brushes of a DC motor were both reversed? A the motor would not start B the direction of rotation of the armature would be reversed C the direction of rotation of the armature would be unchanged D the field pole windings would become overheated ANS: C 5887) the armature cores of the D.C motors are constructed with laminations to A B C eliminate hysteresis minimize brush sparking reduce eddy current losses

D compensates armature reaction ANS :C

5888) equalization of the power factors of two alternators operating in parallel is accomplished. A manually, by adjusting the governor controls B automatically by automatic voltage regulators C manually adjusting the output of current transformers D automatically by the designed action of the governors 5889) DC generator voltage is decreased by cutting. A in field resistance

detecting test switch is operated A there is a slight ground at all three phases B the switch must be replaced C there are no grounds present D the light bulbs are of improper voltage. ANS:C 5891) an open coil in a transformer will be indicated by which of the listed conditions? A zero resistance accompanied by high inductance B no resistance accompanied by stray inductance C infinite resistance in addition to no inductance D infinite resistance in addition to normal inductance ANS:C 5892) A four-pole induction motor, operating on three phase

B out field resistance C in armature resistance D out armature resistance 5890) in a three phase electrical system, three ground detecting lamps are provided if all the three lamps remain at half brilliance when the ground

60 cycle current will operate at approximately. A B C D 850 RPM 1150RPM 1750RPM 3550RPM

5894)An autotransformer is equipped with a 50% tap,a 65% and an 80%tap which of the following statement is true concerning a load connected to the 50%tap? A the load is receiving minimum voltage and minimum current. B the load is receiving minimum voltage and maximum current C the load is receiving maximum voltage and minimum current D the load is receiving maximum voltage and maximum current ANS:B 5895) A battery is connected to a circuit containing three resistors in parallel. The values of the three resistors are 2 ohms,3 ohms and 6 ohms what is the voltage of the battery if the total circuit current is 12 ohms?

ANS:C 5893) an open in the armature of a DC motor is suspected, but is not found by visual inspection of the commutator. The next step in trouble shooting this problem is to. A conduct a band bar test of the armature B visually inspect the armature windings C conduct an insulating resistance test of the armature D test the commutator for a ground Ans : A

A 2volts B 6volts C 12volts D 24volts ANS :C 5896)When two generators are on the line and are sharing the load equally,they are said to be operating in.. A B C frequency series parallel

5898)Which of the following methods listed is used to maintain the division of load between two compoundswound ,DC generators operating in parallel? A The shunt fields are interconnected B the shunt field rheostats are interconnected C the series fields of both generators are connected in series D the equalizer connection parallels the series fields of all machines. 5899) an operational amplifier as used in todays consoles , has a calculated gain of 5.this means that when the input changes . A 5 volts, the output changes 10 volts B 10 volts the output changes 5 volts

D resonance ANS:C 5897)IF a DC motor runs hot, the cause may be. A high mica condition B low ambient temperature C D clogged ventilation ducts an open in the shunt field.

ANS:C

C 2 volts the output changes 10 volts D 10 volts the output changes 2 volts Ans: C

5902) universal motors will operate on AC or DC current and are generally found in. A portable tools B large pump motors C turbo electric main motors

5900) Damp armature windings in a DC motor leads to A reduced voltage B reduced current C increased resistance D overheating Ans : D 5901) When the length and the cross sectional area of a wire are both tripled the resistance. A increases nine fold B increases three fold C remains the same D decreases six fold Ans : C

D forced draft fans Ans : A 5903) A diesel driven emergency generator is prevented from being paralleled with the ships service generators by . A an electrical interlock system B an automatic paralleling trip switch C the synchronizing oscilloscope D reverse current relay Ans: A 5904) The energy consumed by an AC motor has strictly reactive power is ..

A used to do mechanical work B used to establish the magnetic field of the motor C lost as the heat generated by the windings D lost in doing work to turn the monitor itself Ans: B 5905) which of the listed motors will operate at the highest RPM assuming that each operates at the same frequency? A a four pole synchronous motor under normal load B A for pole induction motor under no load C A six pole synchronous motor under normal load D A six pole induction motor under full load Ans: A 5906) On large generators space heaters are used to..

A keep the machine at ambient temperature of the machinery space B maintain rotor and stator winding temperature above the due point to prevent the formation of condensation C prevent condensation in lube oil D prevent electrolysis due to condensation in the bearings Ans : B 5907) which of the listed colours properly describes a DC motor commutator when correct commutation is taking place .. A shiny blue B burnished green C brick red D chocolate brown Ans : D 5908) An Ac generator produces 60Hertz at 1800 rpm if the

generator speed is increased to 1830 RPM The cycle will A remain at 60 Hertz B increased to 16 Hertz C decreased to59 Hertz D increased to 63 hertz

Ans:

5911 In order to safely carry out repairs to a generator circuit breaker, it must be isolated from the bus. This is accomplished by opening the A. B. C. Reverse power relay Bus disconnect link Generator bus fuse connections D. Power directional relay Ans: B

A. B. C. D. Ans: A.

One cell Three cells Six cells Twelve cells C

5912 Three 12 volt, leadacid, batteries connected in series will deliver A. B. C. D. Ans: 12 volts 24 volts 36 volts 48 volts C

Feeding current into the windings at low voltage B. Short circuiting the armature and fields windings C. Short circuiting the field windings and passing current through armature D. Obtaining current from a DC source such as an electric welder feeding it into the armature While running the motor at full speed

5913 The removal of paint from electrical equipment such as generations, should be cautiously Undertaken because A. The mechanical shock of a paint removal lessens

the dielectric strength of the insulation B. The paint dust is composed of abrasive and semi-conducting materials which impair Insulation C. Paint dust buildup has a tendency to cause corrosion D. Phase windings frequently become isolated from each other due to dust interference at The interference at the terminals Ans: B

vibrate severaly and eventually trips out on The reverse power relay. The cause of the vibration was a result of A. The dropping of load by that alternator B. Overspeeding of the vibrating alternator C. The alternator was operating out of synchronism D. Flashover at the alternator collector rings Ans: D

5914 An alternator will fail to produce line voltage as a result of A. A closed circuit breaker B. Oxidized slip rings C. Improperly staggered brushes D. Exciter generator failure Ans: D

5916 severe vibration accompanied by flashover at the collector an alternator operating in parallel Is a symptom of A. Reverse current motorization B. Loss of synchronism C. Destructive overspeeding D. Reversed polarity Ans: B

5915 An alternator operating in parallel begins to

5917 which of the following problems will occur if the circuit breaker of the incoming Alternator is closed and it is 180o out of phase with the loaded alternator when Paralleling? A. The rotor of the loaded alternator will hunt B. Severe cross currents ill occur which could cause damage C. The rotor of the incoming alternator will stop D. Both alternators will parallel 180o out of phase B

Ans:

5919 According to regulations, which of the following systems must be arranged so as to be energized by the final emergency power source? A. At least one light in the steering gear room B. Each power operated watertight door system C. Each charging panel for temporary emergency batteries D. All of the above Ans: D

Ans:

5918 voltage failure of an AC generator may be caused by A. Failure of the exciter generator B. A tripped bus circuit breaker C. High mica segments on the stator bus bar D. Excessive prime moved speed

5920 Hysteresis in a direct current generator is indicated by A. B. Arcing at the brushes Plusating terminal current C. Heating of the armature core D. Hunting and over control Ans: C

5921 The most practical method used for resurfacing a

ships service motor commutator is to A. Turn it down intthe ships lathe B. Use a grinding ring C. Use a hand stone D. Burnish it with commutator stones Ans: B

voltage as load is applied to an AC generator are: 1) the drop incresistance on the armature circuit 2) the change in the flux and 3) the

5922 An open shunt field in a direct current machine may be located connecting the field circuit To an external power source. Equally rated field voltage or less, and tested with a voltmeter A. One line terminal to each coil lead in succession B. One field coil to each adjacent field coil in turn C. Any suitable ground to any available line lead D. Any field pole to each coil lead Ans: A

A.

armature winding speed B. Inductance load drop C. Coil pitch factor D. Armature reactance voltage drop Ans: D

5924 The division of the reaction KVA loaded between paralleled AC generator is initiated by the A. B. C. D. Ans: Prime mover governors Voltage regulators Phase balance relay Proportioner B

5923 Three factors responsible for the change in

5925 Which of the following statements about a threephase wye connection correct?

A.

The line current is 1.73 times the phase current B. The phase current is 1.73 times the line current C. The line voltage is 1.73times the phase voltage D. The phase voltage is 1.73 times the line voltage Ans: C

D. Ans:

Wheelhouse A

5928 The emergency electrical power source on the tank vessels over 500 GT on an international Vouyage , should be capable of continuous operation under emergency load for A. B. C. D. Ans: 6 hours 12 hours 18 hours 24 hours C

5926 According to Regulations the talking and calling circuits of a powered telephone system must A. B. Intrinsically safe Independent of each other C. Independent of grounded D. Connected to a common good Ans: B

5929 Which of the following statements concerning electrical ables is correct? A. Where they pass through water tight bulk heads they should be fitted with water tight Stuffing boxes B. Electrical cable coverings should never be grounded C. Electrical cable must be rigidly held in place by

5927 Regulations require that lighting fixture globes must be protected by guards if the fixtures Are located in the A. B. C. Steering gear room Galley Living quarters

welding of armored cable or glued in place Where non metallic insulation is used D. All of the above Ans: A

5930 From the standpoint of safety you should never allow salt water to enter a lead-acid Storage battery or come in contact with sulfuric acid because A. The resulting gas is extremely flammable B. The resulting gas is respiratory irritant that can be fatal C. The primary constituent sodium reacts lethally with lead peroxide D. Combining salt water with lead-acid creates an invisible gas resulting in severe corrosion

Hold thermal overload relays open with blocks of wood C. Inject small amounts of CO2 into the windings for cooling D. Increase the residual magnetism value of windings to reduce eddy currents Ans: A

B.

5932 Which of the following statements of Regulations concerning battery installation is correct? A. Sign permanently secured to the battery trays, indicating that naked lights or smoking Is prohibited in the vicinity is not necessary to be posted if trickle charging B. When power ventilation is required blower must be non sparking and the system must be Interlocked with the battery charger to prevent simultaneous operation

5931 If overloading a DC machine becomes necessary in an emergency you should A. Cool the machine with portable blowers and fans

C.

Trays should be chocked with wood strips or equivalent to prevent movement and each tray should be fitted with nonabsorbent insulating supports on the bottom D. Power and lighting batteries must be of the lead-acid type only

A. Closed sides B. A dripshield C. A door at each entrance to a rear working space D. All the above Ans : D

Ans : C

5935 regulations require that each alternating current generator arranged for parallel operation shall be provided with__________ A. More than one means of excition B. Individual circuit fuses C. A high back-pressure trip D. A reverse power trip Ans : D

5933 unless it can be shown that a 45 C ambient temperature will not be exceeded . moters within a machinery space be designed for an ambient temperature of___________ A. 45 C B. 50 C C. 55 C D. 60 C Ans : B

5036 when supplying emergency lighting loads , the storage battery intial voltage must not exceed the standard system voltage by more than _____ A. B. C.

5934 regulations require each switchboard to have mechanical protection including_______________

D. Ans : C

D. Electric resistence heaters in the air intake manifold Ans : C

5037 when there is a fire in a large electric motor , normally the very FIRST step is to ________ A. Secure the electric supply B. Ventilate area to remove smoke C. Start the fire pump and lead out hose D. Apply form Ans : A

5039 which of the following devices for a lifeboat winch electrical circuit automatically prevents the davit of a gravityunit from over travelling their tracks when raising the lifeboat? A. Master cutout switch B. Emergency disconnect switch C. Limit switch D. Clutch interlock Ans : C

5038 according to regulations which of the following statements is the ONLY method allowed to ease the starting of emergency diesel generator engines? A. Bayonet type electrical oil heaters B. Steam or hot water tube oil heaters C. Thermostatically controlled electric jacket water heaters

5040 regulations require that automatic starting emergency diesel generators assume emergency power loads as soon as__________ A. It is started B. The electrical potiential of the ships service generators drops 15 to 20 percent below normal value

C. The potential from the emergency generator reaches 85 to 95 percent of its normal value D. The electric potiential of the ships service generators drops to 10 to 40 percent of normal value

d. A reduced ambident temperature causes a corresponding reduced service life . ans: b 5973) tightly knit metal used briad wire can be used with a printed circuit board when _________ a. conductor flexibility is required b. desiodering components in the circuit c. electrically produced magnetic fluxes would cause inaccuracies in adjacer components d. reactance in the circuit must be kept to a minimum ans : b 5974)the open circuit voltage of a fully charged lead acid battery cell is _______ a. 1.5 volts b. 1.8 volts

c. 2.0 volts d. 2.3 volts ans.c 5975) motor controllers are seidom troubled with grounds because _______ a. the auxiliary contacts have a high resistance connection b. the contactors and relays are mounted on a non conducting panel c. the resistors banks are composed of individual series connected units d. there are separate switches for the motor and the controls ans :b 5976) A delayed action fuse is most frequently used in which of the listed circuits a. lighting circuit b. motor circuit c. electric heater circuit

d. radar circuit ans:b 5977)electric strip heaters are used in motor controllers to_______ a. prevent freezing of moveable contacts b. keep the components at their design ambient temperature c. prevent condensation of moisture d. minimize resistance in interal circuits ans : c 5978)A fuse that blows often should be replaced only with a fuse of ______ a. the recommeded current and voltage rating b. higher current and voltage rating c. higher current and lower voltage rating

d. lower current and higher voltage rating ans : a 5979)the ouput voltage of a three phase alternator is regulated by the _______ a. ac voltage to the armature b. ac voltage to the field c. dc voltage to the armature d. dc voltage to the field ans :d 5980) the function of damper windings in a synchronous motor is to _____ a. eliminate slippage b. provide excitation c. provide strating torque d. increase efficiency ans:c 5981) which of the following statements is true concerning all three phase alternators ____

A.each has three separate but iddntical armature windings acted on by one system of rotating magnets. B. each has one armature winding acted on by three identical but separate system of rotating magnets. C.all three-phase alternators are designed to operate with a0.8 laeding power factor. D.the three phases always provide power to the load through three sets of slip ring and brushes. Ans :A

5982) a low voltage protection circuit is used in electric motor starting equipment to _______ a. trip circuit contactors when the motor overspects due to low voltage

b. trip circuit contactors when the motor develops a short circuit due to low voltage c. allow the motor to restart automatically on restoratior of voltage without manually resetting d. prevent the motor from restarting automatically on restoration of voltage ans :d 5983) the part of a fuse that melts and opens the circuit is made up of _________ A.copper and antimony B.steel and babbit C.aliminium or berilliyum alloy D.Zinc or an alloy of tin and lead Ans:D 5984)the cross sectional area of shipboard electrical cable is expressed in _________ A. millimeters

B.gage numbers C.centimetres D.circular mils Ans:D 5985) fuses placed in series with a thermal trip-type circuit breaker are used for _________ A. time-delay protection B.short circuition protection C.short duration surge protection D.sustained overload protection ANS: B 5986)on an engine throttle control system, the auxillary control circuits are provided with devices to prevent excessive overtravel of the pilot valve by the synchronous motor. These devices are called ____________ A. overlap sensors B. limit switches C.overtravel relays

D.proximity switches Ans:B 5987) the most common source of excitation for synchronous motors is a/an _____________ A.low voltage battery B.motor alternator set C.dc exciter generator D.ac supply Ans:C 5988) the type of feature offorded auxillaries vital to the operation of propelling equipment.where automatic restart after a voltage failure would not create a hazard is termed _________ A. low voltage protection B.high amperage protection C.low voltage release D.high amperage release Ans:C

5989)the purpose of dc generator brushes is to ___________ A. neutralize armature reaction. B.conduct electric current to an outside circuit C.convert dc current to ac current D.provide excitation to a dc generator Ans:B 5990) the most common source of excitation for a synchronous motor is a/an ________ A.stepup transformer B.half wave rectifier C.dc supply D.ac supply Ans:c 5991) which of the listed precautions should be observed before spraying liquid solvent on the insulation of an electric motor ?

a. slow the motor down to low speed b. disconnect the motor from the power source c. secure all ventilation in the area d. preheat the insulation to assist in cleaning ans: b 5992) the simplest method of controlling the terminal voltage of compound wound dc generator is with a ____________ a. hand operated field rheostat connected in series with the shunt field circuit b. separate exciter in series with the shunt field c. carbon pile regulator in series with the load d. balance coil diverting neutral current through the shunt field ans :a

5993) one method of test is performed on a particular piece of electric equipment . in addition to the resistance reading . what information listed below should be entered in the electrical log ? a. the maximum allowable operating temperature of the machine b. the temperature of the machine at the time the resistance reading was taken c. the normal temperature rise of the machine d. the complete nameplate data from the resistance test instrument used to obtain the reading ans :b 5994) A compound generator has a no load voltage of 250 volts and a full load voltage of 230 volts ,and therefore is considered to be ______

a. flat compounded b. over compounded c. under compounded d. terminal compounded ans :c 5995) one method of testing for a reversed shunt field coil in a DC generator or motor is by connecting the field to a direct current source , at reduced field rated voltage ,and test for polarity using a/an __________ a. iron bar across each field b. magnetic compass placed near each field c. test lamp across adjacent fields d. copper jumper across the interpole connections ans :b 5996) which of the following statements represents the important factor that must be considered to be _________

a. be certain that the replacement diode is the same polarity as the one removed b. never alter the diode alignment to cause a change in the neutral plane c. replacement of a diode also requires balancing of the rotor with a one piece rotor lamination to be shrunk fit and keyed to the shaft d. the replacement diode must be dipped in varnish prior to installation to protect against humidity ans :a 5997)which of the terms listed best describes a compound wound DC generator having a higher voltage at no load than at fulload ? a. flat compounded b. over compounded c. under compounded

d. terminal compounded 5998)the purpose of squirrel cage windings in a synchronous motor is to ________ a. provide more precise balancing b. produce a higher power factor c. eliminate arching between the stator and the frame d. provide a means for starting ans :d 5999) A triac thyristor functions as a control device and is basically ________ a. two NPN transistors in parallel with a common base lead b. diode in series with a temperature sensitive capacitor c. two back to-back SCRs with a common gate lead d. a triode tube with an extra heavy grid element

ans :c 6000)the speed of a squirrel cage induction motor is determined by the __________ a. diameter of the stator b. number of stator poles c. rotor winding resistance d. bar resistance of the conducting rotor ans : b 6001) copper is often used as an electrical conductor because it __________ a. has high resistance at low temperature b. has a highly polished surface c. is able to pass current with little opposition d. holds insulation together well ans :c 6002) under which of the listed condition can the engine room

retake the throttle control from the bridge ? a. any time it is deemed necessary b. only with the masters permission c. after a 10 minute delay to the input command d. only after the throttle has been placed in stop ans :a 6003) in a 11kw induction type motor with a cage rotor, the current required at standstill to produce starting torque is approximately ________ A.half the full load current B. equal to the full load C. five times the full load current D. ten to twenty times the full load current 6004) a single phase induction motor having a relatievely high

starting torque is the ____________ A. shaded pole motor B.wound rotor motor C.capacitor start motor D.resistance start motor 6005)a generator has beer exposed to water and is being checked for its safe operation. There ore it is necessary to ______________ A. check for shorted coils with a growler B.take moisture readings with a hydrometer C.test insulation values with a megger D.ground the commutator or slip rings run it at half load for 12 hours 6006)the speed of a three phase squirrel cage induction type motor operating in a fixed

frequency system is varied by changing the ________ A.number of phases to the motor B.number of stator poles C.locked rotor current D.resistance of the rotor winding

capacitance. The inductive resistance of a circuit is expressed in ____ a. ohms b. mhos c. henry d. farads ans: a

B. be located as close as possible to the engine C. have sufficient capacity to provide at least 50 starts consecutively without recharging D. only be of the nickel alkaline type Ans. B B. total reactance C. impedence D. resonance

6010 .when a mega ohm meter is used to test insulation, the gradual rise of the pointer reading as a result of continued cranking, is caused by_____ a. good conductor resistance b. the leakage of current along the surface of dirty insulation c. the inductive resistance of the windings d. the dielectric-absorption effect of the insulation ans: d

Ans. C 6009. AC circuits develop resistance ,induction, and 6011.the basic control action of a magnetic amplifier depends upon_____________

A. variation in the load capacitance B. changes in inductance C. type of coal material D. construction of the core Ans. B 6012. During the charging process of storage batteries the charging rooms should be well ventilated because A. without ventilation excessive gassing will occur B. highly poisonous gases are realsed C. highly explosive gases will otherwise accumulate D. without ventilation the battery will not take full charge Ans. C 6013. The purpose of an impressed current cathodic protection system aborad ship is to___________

A. prevent corrosion of hull propeller ruddered and line shaffting B. neutralize the vessels stray, magnetic fields which would interfere with radar. C. protect engine room and deck machinery from oxidation in the presence of salt air. D. maintain the minimum constant alternator load to prevent over heating Ans. A 6014. routine maintenance of lead acid batteries should include_______________\ A. keeping the terminals clean B. coating cable connection with petroleum jelly C. maintaining a trickle charge D. all the above Ans. D

6015. electric circuits are protected against over heating by means of a/an _________ A. circuit breaker B. amplifier C. diode D. capacitor Ans. A 6016. the function of a rectifier is similar to that of a _____________ A. trap B. regulating valve C. check valve D. filter Ans. C 6017. A circuit is protected from overheating by a/an______________ A. pyrometer B. thermal overload relay C. magnetic contractor

D. overload transformer Ans. B 6018. which of the following devices should be used to measure the temperatures of a battery electrolyte__________ A. mercury thermometer B. alcohol thermometer C. thermo couple pyrometer D. potentiometer Ans. B 6019. the seven segment arrangement for numerical display on consoles test meters and other application can be either__________ A. UJT or BJT B. BCU or OCD C. JFET or IGFET D. LED or LCD Ans. D

6020. line losses in the distribution circuit are kept to a minimum by____________ A. adding rubber insulation conductors to the circuit B. using higher current and lower voltage C. increasing the number of thermal relays in the circuit D. using higher voltage and lower current And. D 6021. which of the following describes the action when the handlers moved to the start position of a drum type motor controller used with a compound motor? A. full current is supplied to the shunt field, series field and armature B. full line current is supplied to the shunt and series fields and reduced current is supplied to armature

C. full line current is supplied to the shunt and reduced current is supplies to series field and armature D. reduced current is supplied to shunt, series and armature Ans. C 6022. the multiple prefix mega means________ A. thousand B. million C. billion D trillion Ans. B 6023. Armature cores in a DC generator are made laminated steel sheets to____________ A. fit the curvature of the flame B. increase the hysteresis effect C. reduce eddy current losses D. allow for easy assembly Ans. C

6024. The item reffered to as a pigtail on a DC motor brush rigging is a /an____________ A. feather spring B. uninsulated wire C. flexible spring adjuster D. brush holder Ans. B 6025. Reversing the current flow through a coil will_______________ A. reduce the amount of flux produced B. have no effects on the eddy currents produced C. reduce the power consumed D. reverse its two pole field Ans. D 6026. in testing a three phase delta winding for an open circuit using a megohmmeter, you must_____________

A. test each phase with all connections intact B. measure the voltage across the open connections while testing C. test the windings as parallel groups to avoid short circuiting D. open the delta connections to avoid shunting the phase being tested Ans. D 6027. The direction of rotation of an induction motor is________________ A. opposite the rotation field direction B. the same as the direction of the rotating field C. detrmine by the number of poles D. determined by the staggering of the brushes Ans. B

6028. An insulation resistance reading is taken at 20C and found to be 10 megaohms. What should be the expected reading at 40C?

should be reduced as the battery nears its full Charge to .. A.prevent damaging battery plates

B. 10 megohms C. 15 megohms D. 20 megohms Ans. A 6029. The sub-multiple prefixmilli(means) A.one thousandth(10 to the - 3rd power) B.one millionth (10 to the -6th power) C.one billionth (10 to the -9th power) D.one trillionth (10 to the-12th power) Ans. A 6030. When charging lead-acid batteries,the chargingrate

B.allow equalisation of cell plates C.reduce lead sulfate deposits D.increase lead peroxide formation Ans.A 6031.A saturable reactor uses relatively small DC currents to control. A.high frequeny low power loads B.low frequency low power loads C.high frequqncy high power loads D.low frequency high power loads Ans. D

6032.A shaded-pole motor is a.. A.synchronous motor B.three phase induction motor C.compound-wound motor D.single-phase induction motor Ans.D 6033.A saturable reactor uses relatively small DC current to control___________ A.high frequency low power loads B.low frequency low power loads C.high frequency low power loads 6034.a single derieved from a controlled functon and returned to the initiating point is called a/an_________ A.monitoring signal B.inverse signal C.reverse signal

D.feedback signal Ans.D 6035.A shaded pole monitor is a __________ A.synchronous motor B.three phase indicator-motor C.compound-wound motor D.single phase indicator motor 6036.To provide its unique characteristics to analog circuits, the operational amplifier is made up of a/an_________ A.voltage amp,current amp and output amp B.input amp, power amp and output amp C.scaling amp, power amp and voltage amp D.differential amp,voltage amp and output amp Ans.D

6037.The mica used in the commutator of DC machinery is___________ A.harder than copper B.softer than copper C.the same hardness as the copper D.softer than copper but wears away at a slower rate Ans.A 6038.When starting a DC propulsion motor the variable rheostat must first be turned__________ A.all the way to the run position then quickly back to slow B.to the slow position the gradually back to speed C.to the mid position D.quickly to the run position Ans.B

6039.To determine if a stator coil is grounded, you should use a/an A.ammeter B.ground detection lamp C.magneto D.megger 6040.In an impressed cerrent cathodic protection system, the anode is________________ A.connected to the hull and detoriates with time B.insulated from the hull and doesnot waste away C.connected to the hull but doesnot waste away D.insulated from the hull but detoriates with time 6043.When checking thee specific gravity of the battery electrolyte you should be aware that________

A.the battery is fully charged when the float sinks into the electrolyte B.the battery is discharged when the float is highest into the electrolyte C.a hydrometer is accurate if taken immediately after water is added to the cell D.waarm temperature will lower the sp. Gravity of the electrolyte Ans. D 6044.Basic operating characteristics of the operational amplifier such as gain and stability are the functions of its____________ A.differential input stage

a)thousandth(10 to the 3rd power) b)millionath(10 to the -6th power) c)billionath(10 to the -9th power) d)trillionth(10 to the -12th power) ans c 6046 A switchboard for a ac electrical distribution system will be provided with which of the following components A frequency meter B ammeter C voltmeter D all of the above

B.power output satge Ans d C.feedback circuit 6047 D.supply voltage 6045 The sub multiple prefix nano means A generator is prevented from becoming motorized by the use of a/an

A overspeed trip B roverse power relay C back pressure trip D governor controls Ans b 6048 Which type of ac single phase motor will also operate on direct current A split phase B series wound C shaded pole D repulsion start Ans b 6049 Aboard ship a ground field coil in an ac motor can be determined by using a A portable growler B galvanometer C visual inspect

D megohmeter Ans d 6050 The electrical energy necessary to power a sounf powered telephone small vibrating bell is obtained from A the emergency batteries for the general alarm B each station hand cranked generator C the emergency switch board D normal 115 volt dc supplies Ans b 6051 A testing device called a growler is being used to locate a shorted coil in the stator of an ac electrical machine when the feeer is moved over a slor containing the shorted coil A a loud growling noise will be heard

B any vibration within the feeler will cease C the meter needle will be deflected to zero D the meter needle will be deflected to full scale Ans a 6052 A dc shunt generator has its field windings connected in A series with the series windings B parallel with the field rheostat C series with the armature windings C parallel with the armature windings Ans d 6053 The sub multiple prefix pico means A thousandth (10 to the -3rd power)

B millionath(10 t0 the -6th power) C billionath (10 to the -9th power) Dtrillionath(10 to the -12th power) Ans d 6054 Which of the following statements concering a simple parallel resistance circuit is correct A the voltage drop across each resistor is the same B the total current flos equals the reciporal of the sum of the indivifual currents C the total resistance equals the sum of the individual resistances D the total voltage equals the sum of the individual voltages across resistances Ans a 6055

The resistance value of a resistor in a circuit can best be determined by the A single solid body color of the resistor B band markings on the resistor C amperage value written on the resistor D physical size of the resistor Ans b 6056 On ac vessels which of the following statements represents the most difficult problem involved in obtaining a dc potential suitable for use by computer components A a stepdown transformer is always required B vessel vibrations affect the voltage source C the voltage must be rectified and made ripple free

D rectifiers cannot operate with voltage regulators Ans c 6057 As unt wound dc generator is one in which the shunt field windings are in parallel with the A commutator B brushes C armature D all of the above Ans d 6058 The rotor of the synchorous motor operates in synchronism with the rotating field because A of the amortisseur windings B the rotor is magnetically locked in to the step with the rotating magnetic field by the excitation current C the field strength varies directly with rotor slip

D the stator flux rotates in the opposite direction Ans b 6059 Hand portable phase sequences indicators should be used when A installing a new synchroscope B preparing to make the shore power connection C replacing a defective solenoid D all of the above Ans b 6060 The division of kilowatt load between two paralledfed alternators is determined by the A amount of field excitation to the leading machine B load speed characteristics of the governors C amount of the field excitation to the lagging machine

D number of the field poles of alternator Ans b 6061 A breakable mercury filled thermometer should not be used in a lead acid battery to measure electrolyte temperature as an accidental breakage can cause A sever sparking and explosions B rapid oxidation C violent gassing at the positive plates D corrosion on the battery terminals Ans a 6062 Which of the following statements is true concering simple parallel resisitance circuits A the total current flow equals the sum of the individual currents

B the total current flow equals the reciporal of the sum of the individual currents C the total resistance equals the sum of the individual resistance D the total voltage equals the sum of the individual voltages across each resistance Ans a 6063 The pushbutton on the number of a ships sound powered telephone must be depressed to A talk then released to listen B listen then released to talk C both talk and then D ring the station being called Ans c 6064 When troubleshooting an electroniccircuit a cold scolder joint can be located with the aid of ammohmeter once the

problem has been located you should A reheat the circuit in an even temperature and recheck with an ohmmeter B reheat the connection with a match and recheck with an ohmmeter C reheat the connection with a soldering tools and recheck with an ohmmeter D do nothing as this is the normal condition Ans c 6065 During its operation loud buzzingand resultant weidling of contacts of a magnetic relay may be caused by A over heating of the contactor coil B low voltage on the operating coil

C low insulation resistance to ground D lubrication of the contact bearing points Ans b 6066 Although saturable reactors are extremely useful in some applications their gain is low because of A core hysteris s losses B inductive reactance in the control winding C ir drop throughout the load winding D all of the above Ans a 6067 Most thress phase induction motors of five horsepower or less are started by A autotransformer starters

C across the line starters D reactor starters Ans c 6068 If a magnetic controller relay fails to drop out when the coil voltage is removed from the relay the probable cause may be A excessive spring tension B over voltage C excessive currents D welded contacts Ans d 6069 The synchronous speed of an induction motor is the A speed at which the rotor turns B speed of the rotating field C frequency of the rotor current D Slip in per cent of the rotor rpm

B resistor starters

Ans b 6070 In a simple series circuit the entire source voltage will drop across A the resistor next to the negative terminal B a short circuit C the resistor next to the positive terminal D a open circuit Ans d 6071 An across the line starter provides A maximum torque B slow starting power C high speed D reduced voltage Ans a 6072

Excessive heat in an operating motor controller can result from A closed starter contact B loose connections C missing are chutes D low motor starting torque Ans b 6073 The speed of a wound rotor induction motor A will be fixed by the number of field poles B can be varied by a rheostat type control C Can only be synchorous speed at full load D can only attain synchorous speed at no load Ans b 6074

If you hear a loud buzzing noise coming from a magnetic motor controller should A assume that the motor is operating at a full load B assume that the controllers is operating normally C notify the electrician or watch engineer of the problem D feel the outside of the casing with your hand to see if it is hot Ans c 6075 Which of the following conditions indicates a short circuited capacitor when checking its condition with an ammeter A the capacitor shows charging but the final resistance reading is appreciably less than normal B the reading is practically zero and remains there

C the capacitor shows no charging action but indicates a very high resistance D the pointer moves quickly to the low resistance side of the scale then slowly recedes to vard infinity Ans 6076 Which of the following will happen to the alternator frequency if the load is removed from a turbogenerator has a 3% speed drop A it will remain unchanged B it will decreases by approximately 3% C it will become variable D it will increase Ans d 6077 A resistor placed un paralled to the output of a power supply

A is temperature compensator B corrects power factor C prevents excessive currents D aids in output voltage regulation Ans d 6078 With both end of the three conductor cable disconnected and arranged without the conductors touching each other an ohmmeter reading zero ohms between the ends of one conductor would indicate A continuity B a partial ground C the resistance is infinite D a short circuit Ans a 6079 In troubleshooting a circuit in s console you find that a resistor may be fauly which of the

precautions listed must be observed when using a ohmmeter to carry out this test A correct polarity must be observed connecting the red lead to the banded end of the resistor B meter leads must be twisted to cancel the leads magnetic fields C the meter must be placed in series with the resistor and the circuit

6080 The stats of charge of a lead acid battery is best indicated by the A individual cell voltage B ampere hour capacity C electrolyte specific gravity

centralized control console , the most lively problem is a/an A. Sensor failure B. Failed alarm C. Low level D. Extramely high level Ans: A 6083 You have installed a zener diode in parallel with the load. While measuring the voltage across the zener diode it is found that it does not change as current through the load increses. This means that the zener diode A. Is workingas it should B. Is should C. Is open D. Does not regulate as it should Ans :A 6084 violet gassing from aleadacid battery while it is being charged indicates that the A. Plate separates are grounded

D. The resistors circuit must be de-energized and at least one end of the component isolated Ans: D 6081 For pratical purposes in a simple series circuit, the source voltage will be dropped Across one resistor if it has A. Half the resistor of the other resistor B. A resistance equal to the other C. At least ten times the resistance of the other D. A parital short circuit Ans : C 6082 If both the high level and low level alarms come on for the same address of a

B. Battery compartment ventilation is inadeqate C. Electrolyte spicific gravity is too low D. Charging rate is too high Ans :D 6085 yrned-out LED should be indicated by A. Excessive output B. a slight glow in the crystal C.Excessive illumination D.No illumination Ans:D 6086 Whena lead-acid battery begins gassing freely while receiving a normal charge .the charging current should be A. Increased B. Shut off C. Decreased D. Unchange d Ans :C

6087 Motor controllor or starter contains may becomes pitted and welded together if the contacts A. Open under loaded conditions B. Close slowly with light pressure C. Open too quickly and arc D. Close quickly with proportionate pressure Ans: B 6088 Transformer cores are laminated to reduces A. Eddy currents B. Secondary flux C. Leakage flux D. All of the above Ans : A 6089 The governor control switch of an alternator is moved to the raise poisition . This action will A. Raise the no-load speed

setting of the governor B. Raise the percentag e of speed droop C. Lower the no- load speed setting of the governor D. Lower the percentag e of speed droop Ans: A 6090 which of the following statements is true concerning the operating charactreistics of a squirrel-cage motor? A. Rot or slip is dep end ent

upo n the mot or load B. An incr ease in mot or load resu lts in less slip C. A decr ease s in roto r spee d resu lts in less

gent erat ed curr ent D. A decr ease s in roto r spee d prod uces a wea ker mag neti c field Ans :A 6091 as an armature revolves within a magentic field ,friction is developed bewteen the rotated magnetized particles as they pass through each magnetization cycle. This results in

A. C o p p e r l o s s B. E d d y c u r r e n t l o s s C. H y

s t e r e s i s l o s s D. A r m a t u r e r e a c t i o n

A n s : C 6092 To test fuses in an energized circuit you should use a A. L o w v o l t a g e l i g h t b u

l b B. M e g o h m m e t e r C. V o 6093 the proper way to mix the l electrolyte for a battery is to add t m e t e r D. R e s i s t a n

c e m e t e r A n s : c

i n e w a t e r B. A c i d t o d i s t i l l e d w a t

6094 in order to increase its range of measurtments a resistance would be placed in series with which of following instrument

l A. DC voltmeter l B. Dc ammeter C. Frequency meter e D. Power factor meter d Ans: a w 6095 When mixing electrolyte a for a lead-acid storage battery t A. Stirring should always e be avoided r B. A lead container should always be used t C. Always pour the water o into the acid D. Always pour the acid a into the water c Ans :d i d 6096 If the approximate voltage A to be measured in a circuit is not n known you should s A. Use the lowest voltage range on the voltmeter : B. Connect the meterB in series with the circuit C. Only have to calibrate the meter brfore using it D. Use the highest voltage range on the voltage Ans : D

6097 caution must be exercisrd during the charging of lead acid storage batteries as A. The acid will becomes weaker B. Hydrogen gas is being continuously liberated C. Both plates are changing chemically to led sulfate D. Lead feroxide in the negative plate is poisonous Ans : B 6098 When the current flow through a copper wire increases its A. Resistances will decrease B. Insulation will burn C. Temperature will increase D. Conducitivity will increase Ans : C

A. Good B. Open C. Grounded D. Short Ans. B 6100 The specific gravity of the electrolyte in lead acid battery is measured by A. Gould plate B. Titration pipette C. Hydrometer D. Litmus paper list Ans : C 6101 capacitance in an Ac circuit will A. Stop current flow once the capicator is fully charged B. Allow current flow in only one direction C. Oppose any change in circuit voltage D. Rectify the current Ans :C 6102 which of the folloeing activities occurs during the charging process of the lead acid storage battery?

6099. while testing a semiconductor diode with an ohm meter both the forward and reverse readings are almost in infinity range this would indicate that the unit is

A. The specific gravity of the acid increases B. Both plate change chemically to lead sulfate C. The specific gravity of the acid decreases D. Hydrogen gas is absorbed Ans :A 6103 Magnet chatter or pumping occurring in a magnetic contactor can be caused by A. Dirt or grease on pole faces B. Mechanical interference in the contacts C. Chattering contacts on the control relay D. Magentic lock out of the contacts Ans :c 6104 Which of the following characteristics is most critical in determining the size of the cable to be used in a particular circuit? A. Voltage rating B. Weight per unit length C. Current rating D. Inductances per unit length

Ans : C 6105 Shunt ,series ,and compound wound motors are all DC motors designed to operate from A. Constant potential,variable current DC sources B. Variable potential ,constant current DC sources C. Variable potential,variable current DC sources D. Constant potential, constant current DC sources Ans : A 6106 motor starter or controller contacts may become welded together if the contacts A. Open too quickly and arc B. Close under excessive pressure C. Open or close too quickly D. Close under excessive starting current Ans : D 6107 Which of the following devices are protected from being motorized by a reverse power relay?

A. Alternators B. Wave guide C. Exciters D. Amplidynes Ans :A 6108 An advantage of DC motors over Ac motors is that they A. Are less expensive B. Require less maintenance C. Can be started across the line D. Offer a more effective means of controlling speed Ans :D

C. Make sure the test leads do not touch D. Hold the leads together and zero the meter Ans : D 6110 To equalize the power factor of two alternators operating in parallel the A. Field excitation of both units is adjusted B. Governors of both units are adjusted C. Phase sequence is altered D. Kilowatt load is evenly divided Ans :A 6111 When you check the specific gravity of the battery eletrolyte with a hydrometer if should be kept in mind that

6109 Before using the voltohmmeterto measure resistance readings, you should A. Replace all batteries B. Test the insulation resistances of thr leads

A. The battery is fully charged when the indicator floats low in the electrolyte B. Any water that has been previously added to the cells with dilute the solution and give a false reading

C. A hydrometer reading is inaccurate if taken immediately after water is added to the cell D. Temperature has no effect on hydrometer readings Ans: C 6112 e total resistance of a parallel circuit is always _________ A. Larger than that of the branch with the greatest resistance B. Smaller than that of the branch with the lowest resistance C. Equal to the sum of the individual branch resistance D. Equal to the sum of the individual branch resistance divided by the number of branches Ans: B 6113 If the resistance of a circuit is cut in half and the applied voltage is kept constant, the current flow will be

A. Doubled B. Quatrapled C. Unchanged D. Cut in half Ans: A 6114 The power factor at which a parallel AC generator operates is usually adjust by the options A. Connected load B. Prime mover speed C. Field excitation D. Generators rated voltage Ans: C 6115 If the excitation is increased to one of to two alternators operating in parallel, the A. Power factor will change in the lagging direction B. Power factor will change in the leading direcction C. Kilo volt load will be greatly increased D. Ampere load will be greatly decreased

Ans: A 6116 In a series wound motor the currennt passing through the field windings is also passing through the A. Armature B. Shunt field C. Reactants comperator D. Lamination Ans: A 6117 The power factor of an AC generator operating singularly is determined by the A. Connected load B. Prime mover speed C. Field excitation D. Generators rated voltage Ans: A 6118 The speed of a series wound winch motor is controlled by A. Varying the voltage applied to the motor B. The weight of the load on the cargo boom C. Over-current protection device in the motor

D. A hydraulic speed limitting governor Ans: A

6119 Why is it desirable to operate AC generators at the same at the same power factor? A. Circulating current is kept to a minimum. B. Field excitation losses are kept to a minimum. C. Generator rotors will have a lesser tendency to hunt. D. Because a power factor increase will decrease kilowatt output Ans: A 6120 The change of a leadacid battery is checked with a _____________ A. Manometer B. Hydrometer C. Viscosimeter D. Ohmmeter Ans: B

6121 If a 6 volt battery were connected in series with a 24 volt battery by putting their negative terminals together what would be the result? A. Zero volts B. 12 volts of the opposite polarity C. 18 volts, positive on the 24 volts battery D. 30 volts, negative on the 24 volts battery Ans: C 6122 you can determine if a circuit breaker has tripped by _____________ A. Examining the position of the handle. B. Checking for which of the breaker is warm C. Looking for a burned-out link D. All of the above Ans: A

6123 Which of the following statement describes what will happen when both the polarity of the field poles, and the direction of the current to the brushes of a DC motor are reversed? A. The motor will not start B. The direction of rotation of armature will be reversed C. The direction of rotation of armature will remain the same D. The field pole winding will become overheated Ans: C 6124 A slow continual loss of electrolyte level from one cell of a storage battery could be due to ___________ A cracked casing A. Too low a charging rate

B. The specific gravity being higher than normal C. One filter cap installed too tightly Ans: A 6125 The basic meter movement responds to the flow of current through its coil. Therefore, this movement may be used as a/an A. Voltmeter by placing a resistance in parallel with the coil B. Ohm meter by placing another meter movement in parallel with the coil C. Wattmeter by placing a battery in parallel with the coil D. Ammeter by placing a low resistance in parallel with the coil

Ans: D 6126 When the power is restored after a complete power failure a steering gear pump motor will ___________ A. Have to be restarted B. Have to be reset C. Restart automatically D. Trip its overload relays Ans: C 6127 When an alternator is to remain idle for even a few days ___________ A. Lift the brush and disconnect the pigtails B. Insulate the collector rings with the strip of card board C. Energize the heater circuit

D. Open the equalizing bus disconnected switch Ans: C 6128 Proper storage battery maintenance includes ___________ A. Keeping connections tight and casing surfaces clean B. Making sure electrolyte level is below the separator plates C. Insulating the terminals with naval jelly D. Maintaining a high charge rate at all time Ans: A 6129 The true power indicated by the pointer movement of a wattmeter depends on the current flow through the load, the magnitude of the potential

across the load and the ___________ A. Power factor of the load B. Angle of coil displacement C. Inertia of the movable coil D. High resistance from the load Ans: A 6130 The shunt of a DC ammeter should be connected in ___________ A. Series with the load and in parallel with the meter movement B. Parallel with the load and in series with the meter movement C. Parallel with the load and in parrallel with the meter movement

D. Series with the load and in series with the meter movement Ans: A 6131 Due to the operating characteristics of the system time lag fuse (or dual-element fuses) are necessary for use in ___________ A. Main lighting circuits B. Motor starting circuits C. Emergency lighting circuits D. General alarm circuits Ans: B 6132 Loss of or weak residual magnetism in an alternator or generator can be corrected for by ___________

A. Running the rotor in the opposite direction for 5 minutes B. Allowing the generator to run at 10% of normal speed for 5 minutes C. Running the generator at normal speed with the field rheostat fully counter clockwise D. Using a storage battery or battery charger to flash the field Ans: D 6133 Cleaning of electrical insulation should be ___________ A. Done every six months B. Accomplished every 12 months C. Determined by need and not the calendar D. Performed whenever the electrician is not otherwise busy

D. Interpole preceding Ans: C Ans: C 6134 The plates of a NiCad battery are made of ___________ A. Potassium hydroxide with a small amount of sulfuric acid B. Lead and lead peroxide C. Silver oxide and lead sulfate D. Combination of nickel powder and nickel & cadmium salts Ans: D 6135 Relative to the direction of rotation, a DC motor commutating poles has the same polarity as the ___________ A. Main pole following B. Interpole following C. Main pole preceding 6136 One method of trouble shooting digital circuits in a console is to ___________ A. Supply alternate logic levels at the input(s) and test for change of state conditions at the output B. Ground all inputs and test for a logic 1 at the output C. Open all inputs and test for a logic 0 at the output D. Vary each output from 0-10 volts and test for similar variance at the output Ans: A

6137 Which of the following meters uses a shunt connected

in series with the load, but parallel with the meter movement? A. Voltmeter B. Power factor meter C. Wattmeter D. Ammeter Ans: D 6138 Electrical machinery insulation will breakdown more rapidly due to ___________ A. Low loading of motors and generators B. Frequent megger testing C. High temperature and vibration D. High operating frequencies Ans: C 6139 Which of the listed ranges represents specific

gravity corrected for temperature for the Electrolyte of a fully charged portable lead-acid battery? A. 1,100 to 1,150 B. 1,180 to 1,200 C. 1,280 to 1,300 D. 1,750 to 2,000 Ans: C 6140 The operator of electrical motors should keep a constant check on the loads they carry because ___________ A. Low loads necessitate frequent insulation cleaning B. Exceeding name plate values shortens useful life C. Energy is wasted if full loading is not utilized

D. Power fraction correction methods are load dependent Ans: B 6141 When troubleshooting a console circuit card which is suspected of being faulty the first step would be to ___________ A. Put the card and measure the value of all the resistors B. Check for the correct value and polarity of all power connections to the card C. Pull the card and visually inspect for burned components D. Check for continuity of circuit board traces and then the gain of each transistor

Ans: B 6142 The amount of mechanical force or torque produced by an electric motor depends on the ___________ A. Strength of its magnetic field B. Amount of armature current flow C. Length of conductor in the field D. All the above Ans: D 6143 The life expectancy of electrical insulation, is approximately halved for an increased operating temperature of ___________ A. 10 C B. 25C C. 50C

D. 100C Ans: D 6144 Under normal condition, storage batteries used for starting the emergency diesel generator are maintained in a charged state by which of the following methods? A. Trickle charging B. Fast charging C. Equalizing charging D. Reverse charging Ans: A 6145 When troubleshooting a console circuit card suspected of being faulty, first check for proper voltage to the card and then ___________ A. Test transistors or integrated circuits for

gain and compare with manufacturers specifications B. Blow ary accumulated dust from the card with at least 2kg/cm2 air from the ships service air system C. Pull the card, clean the sliding connections with a pencil eraser, and remove accumulated dust D. De-energize the card and check the printed circuit traces for continuity with an ohmmeter Ans: C 6146 A useful instrument for checking A.C. motor performance by measuring possible unbalanced current is the ___________

A. Hand or batteryoperated megger B. Vibrating-reed frequency meter C. Hook-on voltmeterammeter D. DArsonval iron-vane probe Ans: C 6147 What is the approximate voltage produced by a nickelcadmium battery cell? A. 1.25 volts B. 1.50 volts C. 2.20 volts D. 6.05 volts Ans: A 6148 You are using a mechanical voltage tester to check the fuses in a three-phase circuit supplying an electric motor. For which of the following reasons

must the motor be stopped during the test? A. Testing an energized circuit presents a hazard to the testing personnel B. A faulty fuse could go undetected with the motor energized C. Reversed polarity of the circuit would be indicated by the voltage tester with the circuit energized D. All of the above Ans: B 6149 The voltage of an operating A.C turbo generator is raised or lowered by adjusting the ___________ A. Exciter generator governor controls B. Synchronizing switch

C. Phase sequence switch D. Generator field exciter Ans: D 6150 To properly seat the brushes on the slip ring, you should use ___________ A. Sand paper B. Crocus cloth C. Emery cloth D. All of the above Ans: A 6151 When a battery-charging panel is being used the batteries will discharge if ___________ A. DC voltage is supplied B. The polarity is reversed C. The voltage fluctuates D. Too little current is supplied Ans: B

6152 Routine A.C motor maintenance should include periodic ___________ A. Thermometer readings at normal loads to detect abnormal temperature rises B. Inspection of the motors internals for loose rotor bars or field poles C. Bearing replacement each year using sealed units if available D. All of the above Ans: A 6153 When replacing fuses, always make sure ___________ A. To stand on a rubber mat and use rubber gloves B. To use insulated pliers or screwdriver

C. The fuse clips are straight, tight and in good contact D. To increase the fuse rating 10% to guard against nuisance blowing

Ans: B D. to increase the fuse rating 10% to guard against nuisance blowing Ans: C

Ans: C 6154 Periodic testing of circuit breakers is necessary to assure that a correctly rated and properly installed unit ___________ A. Can trip faster as increases in age B. Will continue to provide the original degree of protection C. Does not exceed its interrupting capacity D. To able to withstand at least 125% of applied voltage

6155) you are attempting to parallel two AC generators and the synchroscope pointer is revolving in the slow direction. This indicates that the frequency of the incoming machine is _________. A. higher than the bus frequency. Lower than the bus frequency The same as the bus frequency but out of phase with it The same as the bus frequency and the circuit

B.

C.

D.

breaker may be closed at any pointer position. Ans: B

the most probable cause would be that the _________. A. Coil is open B. Control fuse is open C. Auxilary contact in the series with the coil is defective D. Relay armature is stuck Ans: A

6156) periodic testing by a short side support technician using a special camera which can detect poientality dangerous ioose or corroded bus bar and controller connection is termed_______________ A. Heat sensitive thermography B. Visual pyrotronics C. Corrosion electrolysis D. Electric vibroanalysis Ans; A

6157 ) When troubleshooting a motor controller, all indications are that a relay coil should be energised. If there were no magnetic pull, with rated voltage measured across the coil,

6158) materials that retain a large part of their magnetization ,after the magnetizing force is removed ,are said to have ____________ A. Low hysteresis loss B. High flux density C. High permanence D. High permeability Ans; C

6159) Which of the following procedures represents the best method to prevent the freezing of batteries

continuously exposed to low temperatures? A. The battery caps should be removed B. The battery caps vent should be sealed C. The battery should be kept in a fully charged condition D. The battery should be disconnectedfrom its charging source. Ans: C

6161) Electric circuits are protected against overloads and short circuits by means of a/an __________. A. Circuit breaker B. Amplifier C. Diode D. Capacitor Ans: A

6160) ambient temperature is the ___________ A. Amount of temperature rise with no load B. Temperature of the compartment where the motor is located C. Normal operating temperature less than room temperature D. Amount of temperature developed by an operating motor Ans; B

6162) in addition to testing the calibration of a circuit breaker , ,maintenance should include all of the following EXPECT_____________ A. Changing out of magnetic elements thermal heaters yearly B. Checking for corrosion, accumulation of dirt and thermal fatigue C. Inspecting for loose or missing part

D. Making sure foreign , matter does not block tripping element Ans: A 6163) When a megohmmeter is being used to test insulation resistance current leakage along the ` surface of the insulation is indicated by the megohmmeter pointer ___________. A. flucuating around a constant resistance reading B. dipping towards Zero, then rising slowly C. kicking slightly downscale as voltage is applied D.continually rising as the test voltage is applied Ans: C

lamps will go dark when generators are___________ A. Running at same speed B. Grounded C. Of the same polarity D. In phase Ans:D 6165) A lead-acid battery cell sustaining a short circuit__________. A. will be indicated by lime accumulation on the terminal posts. B. will have unusually high cell voltage C. will become excessively heated while being charged D. cannot be completely discharged under load Ans: C 6166) The propeller shaft speed in a turbo-electric ,synchronous,propulsion drive motor is changed by varying the ________.

6164) while paralleling two (2)AC generators using synchronizing lamps only, both

A. turbine speed B. number of motor poles C. field strength of the generator D. field strength of the motor Ans: A 6167) A fuse will blow for all the listed reasons EXCEPT__________. A. excessive vibration B. exremely hot surroundings C. loose fuse clips D. low contact resistance within the fuse Ans: D 6168)Two contributors of electronic console failures are heat and vibrateion.to combat some of their effects,preventive maintanence procedures should include_____________ A. systematic rotation of circuit cards with those from spares to allow component cooling

B.periodic changing or cleaning of console ventilation and control room air conditioning filters C.weekly tightening of console foundation bolts and changing of the air in the control room. D.all of the above Ans: B 6169) in general D.C. propulsion motor brush sparking can be caused by ____________ A.incorect brush grade,Pressure or position B.a concentric commutator C.a dark chocolate colored commutator D.all of the abovec gcvb Ans:A 6170) automatic voltage regulators provided on switc hboard function to___________ A.regulate the AC load on the generator

B.protect the switchboard from high voltage C.govern prime mover speed to control voltage D.very the field excitation to the generators Ans:D 6171) In which of the situations listed will a megohmmeter give the most accurate readings ? A. while the machine is in operation B. while the machine is discharging static electricity C. Immediately prior to restarting the machine D. When the machine has been shut down and grounded for a period of 15 minutes Ans: d

the sychroscope pointer is revolving in fast direction this indicates that the frequency of the incoming machine is_____ A. Higher than the bus frequency B. lower than the bus frequency C. C. the same as the bus frequency but frequency and the circuit phase with it D. D. the same as the frequency and the circuit breaker may be closed at any pointer position Ans; A

6173) The most practical way to control the voltage output of an AC generator is to vary the ________. A. number of windings B. Speed of the rotating field

6172 you are attempting to parallel two AC generator and

C. strength of the rotating magnetic field D. power factor of the load Ans : C 6174 which of instrument s listed could be used to locate a grounded field coil in a synchronous motor____________ A. Ammeter B. Voltmeter C. Me ohmmeter D. Frequency meter Ans; C

B. phase voltages 90* out sync C. line current equal to the phase current D. line voltage equal to the phase voltage Ans: D 6176 a me ohmmeter is used to measure of______________ A. Voltage B. Dielectric strength C. Current D. Power Ans; B 6177 If many turns of an alternating current coil for a contactor become short circuited, the coil______ A. will continue to operate B. will probably burn out immediately C. will operate on reduced current

6175 One important difference between wyeconnected and delta connected generators is that delta connections have___________ A. line voltages equal to the vector sum of the phase voltages

D. temperature will drop Ans:B 6178 when a battery is continuously exposed to low temperature the best procedure to keep it freezing is to ___________ A. Renovo the battery caps B. Searle cover the battery C. The battery fully charged D. Disconnect the battery Ans; C 6179 The purpose of the reverse power relay provided on a ships service alternator panel is to trip the circuit in the event of ___________. A. main circuit overload B. high power transfer C. generator over speeding D. alternator motorization

6180 which of the following conditions indicate that a lead acid battery is being charged too rapidly __________ A. Sparks occurring at the positive terminal B. Unusually high electrolyte specific gravity C. Low plate penitential D. Excessively high temperature and gassing rates Ans; D 6181 Which of the listed faults cannot be eliminated, EXCEPT by turning or grinding a commutator with a rigidly supported tool? A. Sparking brushes B. Eccentricity C. High mica D. Blackened commutator Ans: B

Ans: D

6182 the dielectric strength of the vacuum or dry is approximately ___________ A. 450 volts/inchs B. 1000 volts/inchs C. 20 kv/inchs D. 50 kv/inchs Ans; C 6183 When a megohmmeter is used to test the insulation of a large motor the initial dip of the pointer toward zero is caused by _________. A. good insulation B. the capacitance of the windings C. the leakage of the current along the surface of dirty insulation D. the dielectric absorption effect of the insulation Ans: B

6184 for rout line cleaning of a commentator, you should apply____________ A. Course sand paper in a slow back and forth motion across the commulator slots B. An enemy cloth parallel to the axis of the machine C. A canvas wiper to the machine while running D. Cotton swabs between the commutator bars Ans; C 6185 The air gap in an induction motor should be periodically checked with a feeler gage to prevent possible __________. A. motor contact with the stator B. axial misalignment of the motor C. damage to the motor bearings

D. electrical damage to the bearings Ans: A 6186 under voltage trips are frequently installed on switch board circuit breakers to trips __________ A. Out generators in the events of severe arcing or spraking B. Out generators when there is reversal of power in the main circuit C. The breaker if the generator over speeds by 5%but continues to run D. Out generators when there is low voltages in the main circuit Ans; D 6187) A shore power circuit breaker should be closed only ___________. A. When the ships generators B. in a hipyard

C. in a quick disconnect coupling is used D. when the ships generators have been removed from the bus Ans: D 6188) when a resistor is used as a shunt and is connected in parallel with a meter movement coil, it will provide ____________ A. A measurement of circuit resistance B. An increased accuracy of approximately 1.5% C. An extended meter range D. None of above Ans; C 6189 )You can determine if a circuit breaker is tripped by __________. A. Examining the position of the handle B. checking for the warm breaker

C. looking for a burned-out link

Ans.A 6191. If there is a reduction in the normally supplied frequency to a 120/240 volt, three phase AC current motor from 60 hertz to 55 hertz, the motor would A. run at a slower speed B.operate at a lower current C.over heat D.trip off the one Ans .A 6192. Which of the following electric meter movements uses a stationary permanent magnet and a movable coil A.Darsonwal B.electrodynamometer

6190) in addition to undercutting the mica proper maintenance of a d.c motors commuter includes__________ A. Side cutting the copper segments and insulating the slots B. Coating the copper surface with light machine oil for the first four hour of operation C. Baking the armature in an oven at a maximum of 95.c for not over 8hour

6189. Continuation C.moving iron-vane D.looking for the tripped breaker light Ans.A 6190. Continuation D.all of the above D.inclined coil iron vane Ans.A 6193.when paralling two alternators the synchronising lamps glow dim and are totally

darkened as the synchroscope pointer approaches the 0 position. This indicates.. A. alternator voltages are 180 apart B.incoming alternator is running too fast C.incoming alternator is in phase with the bus voltage D.synchroscope pointer is defective or broken Ans.C 6194. D C motor brush adjustment includes attention to.. A. angle with the commutator and clearance with the holder B.brush length and pigtail tightness C.grade of material and surface dirt conditions D.all of the above Ans.D

6195. If all the three grounddetection lamps continue to burn at equal intensity after the test button is dipressed and released, which of the listed condition is indicated? A.no grounds exists B.all three phases are grounded C.the test switch is faulty D.the current transformers are shorted out Ans.A 6196. One of the generator bearing shells is generally insulated the end housing in order to prevent.. A. rapid brush wear B.residual magnetism leak off C.excessive field winding heat D.circulation of shaft current Ans.D 6197. You are calibrating a voltmeter using internal

batteries to supply power for resistance measurements .however; you are unable to adjust the pointer to zero using the adjustment knob. Therefore you should. A. replace the batteries in the instrument B.measure resistance by dividing the voltmeter indication by the ammeter indication C.set the pointer using a bridge D.change scales to the R X 100scale and adjust using the zero ohms adjusting knob Ans.A 6198. When paralleling two alternators, the synchronizing lamps remain lit as the synchroscope pointer approaches the 0 .This indicates the.. A. incoming alternator is running too fast

B.alternator voltages are 180 degrees apart C.synchroscope is defective or broken D.alternator power factors are in phase Ans.C 6199. A multimeter may be damaged by taking a .. A. voltage reading while in the ammeter mode B.current reading while in the volt meter mode C.resistance reading while in the ammeter mode D.resistance reading while in the volt meter mode Ans.A 6200. When two AC generators are being paralleled, the breaker should be closed with the synchroscope pointer rotating in the .

A. slow direction just before 12 0 clock position B.fast direction just after the 12 0clock position C. fast direction just before 12 0 clock position D. slow direction just after the 12 0clock position Ans.C 6201. If two AC generators have just been placed in parallel, the true power, load is initially distributed evenly by A. a balance coil B. changing field excitation C. adjusting the governor control settings D. a rheostat Ans:C 6202. Which of the following types of insulation will begin to deteriorate FIRST as a result of the heat generated in the conductor it surrounds?

A. varnished cloth B. Rubber C. Silicon D. Asbestos Ans:B 6203. A multimeter can be used to measure. A. resistance B. voltage C. current D. all of the above Ans:D 6204. The KW load is evenly distributed between two altermators just placed in parallel by adjusting.. A. a balance coil B. the governor settings C. the field excitation D. a rheostat Ans:B

6205. Before using an allpurpose electric measuring instrument (multimeter) utilizing internal batteries to supply power for resistance measurements, you should FIRST. A. remove one of batteries B. remove all the batteries C. calibrate using a known external resistance D. select the proper range Ans:D 6206. When paralleling two AC genarators, the frequency of the incoming machine immediately prior to closing its breaker should be.. A. controlled by placing the governor switch in the automatic position B. adjusted with the voltage regulator

C. slightly greater than bus frequency D. slightly less than bus frequency Ans:D 6207. If the centrifugal switch or relay used for cutting out the starting winding of a split-phase induction motor fails to open once the motor is in operation,the A. motor will overspeed B. starting winding will burn out C. motor will immediately stall under load D. motor torque will above normal at rated speed Ans:B 6208. A flickering ground detection lamp on a DC system would indicate a A. multiple-ground condition in the distribution system

B. ground in a armature coil of an DC operating machine C. ground in a motor accompanied with a short D. short between two adjacent bars of the generator commutator Ans:B 6209. D.C. propulsion motor brush pressure depends on the brush grade used and in practice is set with a.. A. multimeter B. manometer C. spring scale D. compound gauge Ans:c 6210. The unit hertz is equivalent to.. A. coulombs per second B. revolutions per second C. revolutions per minute

D. cycles per second Ans:D 6211. A current carrying conductor making an electrical contact with a wiring metal conduit is indicated by a A. low switchboard wattmeter reading B. reading of 1 0 on the power factor meter C. high switchboard voltmeter reading D. totally darkened switchboard ground-detecting light Ans:D 6212. A DC generator is used to supply direct current in order to maintain an AC generator field and is known as a/an A. rotor B. stator C. exciter

D. armature Ans:C 6213. Fuses are usually rated in A. Watts B. amps only C. volts only D. amps and volts Ans:C 6214. When used for taking resistance measurements, a voltohm-milliammeter is normally powered by.. A. a hand cranked generator B. internal storage batteries C. the current in the circuit being tested D. a step down transformer Ans:B 6215. Which of the following materials is a good insulator? A. steel

B. aluminium C. glass D. copper Ans:C 6216. Electrical power is expressed in A. ohms B. volts C.amps D. watts Ans:D 6217.An electrical connection between the wiring of an electric motor and the metal frame is known as a/an. A.eddy current B.ground C.impedence D.flux leakage Ans.B

6218. Prior to closing the breaker, when parallelizing two AC generators the recommended practice is to have the frequency of the incoming machine A. slightly less than the line frequency B.the same as the line frequency

Ans.A 6220.the greatest single cause of electrical failure is A.breakdown of insulation B.over current C.high inductance D.too frequent testing Ans.A

C.slightly greater than the line frequency D.all of the above Ans.C

6219.In addition to short circuits and sustained overloads ,fuses are likely to blow due to .. A.loose fuse clips B.low ambient temperatures C.low contact resistance D.all of the above

6221.You are reconnecting a three phase induction motor to the supply line.To prevent possible damage to the load due to wrong direction of rotation you should . . A.connect the motor and then use the jog button to determine the direction of rotation B.connect the phase indicator to the motor lead rotate the motor

by hand and then connect to the supply voltage C.connect the phase indicator to the supply voltage then connect the line motor D.connect the supply line phase sequence and motor rotation with appropriate indictors, then connect correspondingly the marked leads Ans.D 6222. Current flowing in only one direction is called.. A. alternating current B.omnidirectional current C.direct current D.sinusoidal current Ans.C 6223.Why is it a good practice to have the frequency of the incoming alternator adjusted slightly higher than that of the

loaded alternator when paralleling two alternators? A.this allows the oncoming machine to accept load immediately B.this prevents the machine from floating on the line C.the reverse power relay is prevented from activating D.all of the above Ans .D 6224.In an alternating current electrical system,a low system power factor is a direct sign of A.wasted energy B.efficient operation C.a short in the exciter field windings D.an excessive number of minor system grounds Ans.A

6225. Two paralleled alternators are operating near rated load, if one trips out mechanically, which if the listed actions should be taken FIRST? A. restart the tripped machine immediately B.strip the board of all non vital circuits C.start the emergency generator D.transfer all vital loads to the emergency bus Ans.B 6226. Routine maintenance of the dry type transformerers, should include. A. preventing the entrance of water from broken pipe lines stamlines B.keeping protective surfaces and insulating bushings free from dust and conductive debris C.periodic testing of insulation resistance with a megger

D.all of the above Ans.D

6259. A turbogenerator has a rated output of 1200kw at 60 hertz with a no load frequency of 61.5 hertz. What is ists speed droop?

A.0.01025 B.0.015 C. 0.02439 D. 0.025

Ans.D

6260. if an alternator is to be inactive for a considerable period of time which of the following actions should be taken?

A. it should be disconnected from the prime mover and raised off its bearing supports B. insulation resistance readings should be taken weekly to ensure resistance is not deteriorating C. the brushes should be lifted off the slip rings to prevent pitting of the metal by electrolytic action D. the windings and collector rings should be protected with a thin coat of grease or coil

6262. A meggar is being used to test the insulation of an AC generator the resistance value of a dry, clean winding will

6261. which of the following materials is recommented for finishing the slip rings after grinding or turning ?

A. continue to rise as test potential is maintained becoming fairly steady a sthe dielectric absorption effect of insulation stabilizes. B. Remain constant as the temperature of the windings increases C. Continue to drop as test potential is maintained becoming fairly steady after 5-7 minutes D. Stabilize after approximately 2-4 minutes of fluctuation. Ans .A

A. grade 00 sandpaper B. canvas wiper C. crocus cloth D. smooth file Ans.D

6263. brushes in a generator must be positioned in the neutral plane to avoid sparking between the brushes and the

A. Yoke B. Armature windings C. Field pole windings D. Commutator 6264. if the connections for the field and the armature on a DC motor are reversed.

A. The proper connections for across the line starting B. The proper connections for an automatic strip heater C. Dynamic braking Ans . D

A. The motor will run as a generator B. The motor will not run C. The direction of rotation will be the same D. The direction of rotation will be reversed Ans.C

6266. uneven wear of the commulator surface on a direct current propuksion motor can be caused by

A. Rapid change in load B. Excessive operation at light load C. Incorrect brush staggering D. Unequal pole spacing 6267. unnecessary and frequent applications of varnish to thee generator windings to repair defective insulation will result in

6265. A series wound DC motor has its armature and field connected in series with a resistor. When the motor is disconnected from its power supply this motor will exemplify

A. Havy coatings of varnish interfering with heat dissipation B. Deficient air gap clearance and eventual damage to the casing C. Failure of the rectifier assembly D. A built up of varnish without changing generator operation Ans . A

Ams. C

6269. if an AC generator experiences voltage failure the cause may be

A. An open on the field circuit B. The brushes shifting out of the neutral plane C. Excessive locked rotor current D. A rotating slip ring 6270. A wire is being used as a replacement having twice the length and one half the cross sectional area of the original wire. The resistance of this new wire.when compared to that of the new wire. When cpmpared to that of the original wire is

6268. the insulation of electric generators during short idle periods should be

A. Allowed to cool slowly ambient temperatures B. Flashed with direct current to remove any magnetism C. Kept warm by using strip or space heaters D. Relieved of all capactiive charge by grounding the conductors

A. Four times as great B. Twice as much C. The same as the original resistance

D. One-half of the original resistance Ans. A

synchronism with the other two generators the

6271. an open occurring within the field rheostat of an AC generator can be detected by shortly circuiting its terminals and observing a

A. Normally operating AC generators will vibrate severely B. AC generator pulling out of synchoronism will vibrate severely C. Normally operating AC generators will overspeed D. Ans.B

A. Negative deflection of the wattmeter pointer B. Positive deflection of the wattmeter pointer C. D. Low but constant alternator voltage Ans. C

6273.A loss of field excitation to an AC generator while operating in parallel will cause it to

6772. if three AC generators are operating in parallel, and one of the them were to pull out of

A. Absorb more and more load due to decreased armature reaction B. Lose its load due to the inherent speed droop built into the governor C. Smoke and overload due to field flashover as residual field flux changes polantly

D. Lose its load begin to motorize trip out on reverse power relay and possibly overspeed. Ans.D

6275. Etched or burned bands on the contacts faces of the brushes in a direct current generator can be caused by

6274. An AC generator operating in parallel loses its excitation without tripping the circuit breaker. This will

A. high mica segments B. copper drag in the commutator C. brushes improperly positioned D. copper embedded in the brushes. Ans.C

A. Not affected the faulty generator due to the compensation of the other generator B. Cause the slip rings to melt C. Cause a low voltage differential to develop between the armature and the bus D. Cause high currents to be induced in the field windings Ans.D

6276.if only one brush on a commulator is sparking excessively, you should look for

A. a high commulator bar B. copper imbedded in the brush C. a loose commutator bar D. flux in the commutating zone

Ans.B

generator #1. Electrically off the boa

6277. which of the following statements describes the effect of ambient temperature on local action within lead acid storage batteries?

A. Increasing ambient temperature increases local action B. Increasing ambient temperature decreases local action C. Ambient temperature has no effect on local action D. At 32 c all local action virtually ceases

A. Start the emergency generator B. Ascertain cause of the low lube oil pressure C. Strip the board of all nonvital circuits D. Secure alarms, reset reverse powe relay, and restart #1 engine Ans . C

6279. which of the following losses is/are present in every direct current generators armature?

6278. Diesel generators #1 and #2 are operating in parallel at near full load capacity. Diesel generators #1 suddenly trips out mechanically due to low tube oil pressure. The reverse powe relay functions properly and trips

A. Winding copper loss B. Core eddy current loss C. Magnetic hysteresis loss D. All of the above 6280. upon failure of the normal power supply the emergency

generator is placed on the line by the

normal ships power on a cargo vessel should be obtained from the

A. Bus tie feeder B. Automatic bus transfer device C. Line connection feeder D. Powe failure alarm bus

6281.which of the spaces listed is defined as a locationrequring an expectional degree of protection when considering the installation of shipboard electricalequipment?

A. Emergency generator supply to the emergency switchboard B. Emergency generator supply to the main switchboard C. Battery supply to the main switchboard D. Turbogenerator supply to the emergency switchboard Ans.A

A. Machiney space B. Chart room C. Console room D. Accommodation space Ans. A

6283. which of the following statements represents the FIRST precaution to be taken prior to working on any installed electrical component?

6282. the source of emergency lighting and power at loss of

A. Wear rubber gloves and boots

B. Use only approved nonconducting tools C. Ground the case of the machine before beginning any repairs D. Open the supply circuits and tag the switches Ans.D

Ans.C

6286. before any work on electrical or electronic equipment is performed which of the following precautions should be carried out?

6285. which of the following precautions should be taken when a blown fuse rated at 10 amperes is replaced?

A. Short cut the fuse before removing it from the circuit B. Jse needle nose pliers to remove fuse from the circuit C. Replace blown fuse with one of equal voltage and ampere capacity D. Fuses 010 ampere rating and less are virtually harmless when energized and may be handled freely

A. De-energize the appicabel switchboard bus B. Bypass the interlocks C. Secure and tag the supply circuit breaker in the open position D. Station a man at the circuit supply switch Ans.C

6287.receptacle outlets aboard ship should be designed so those mounted have

A. There must be a sufficient number of receptacle outlets in the crew accommodation for an adequate level of habitability B. Each receptable outlet must be compatible with the voltage and current of the circuit in which it is installed C. A receptable outlelt must not have any exposed parts with the plug opening uncovered D. All the above Ans.D

B. Steering gear motor C. Fuel pump motor D. Condensate pump motor Ans.B Page 346 MMD Question Paper 1 (Marine Engineering Knowledge, General) 1. Write a letter to the company management representative explaining how you rectified a faulty lube oil purifier desludging problem. 2. Sketch and describe a high

6288.regulations require that an indicating light at the propulsion control station will operate if overloading or overheading occurs in a

pressure fuel oil filter of any make known to you. 3. Give an outline sketch of an auxillary engine starting air system showing the safety devices in the system. 4. Write short notes on the

A. Forced draft blower motor

following

a. Fusible plugs on air receiver b. Steam traps on condensate lines c. Anti-vibration mountings of auxillary engines d. Flexible coupling of pumps 5. An axial piston pump differs from a radial piston pump as the pistons of an axial piston pump are positioned a. Radially from the shaft b. Parallel to each other and to the shaft c. Parallel to each other but at right angles to the shift d. At an angle to each other and to the shaft

Briefly justify your answer Q. No. 3519 6. In reference to air conditioning when air attains the maximum amount of moisture it can hold at a specific temperature. It is to be A. Superheaded B. Saturated C. Condensed D. Convected

Briefly justify your answer Q. No. 2064 7. Positive displacement helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil because A. Stuffing boxes eliminate the leakage

problems usually associated with other gear pumps. B. It is not necessary to closely maintain C. They are essentially self priming and produce a high suction lift D. These pumps are designed with extreme tooth angles Briefly justify your answer Q.No.2600 8. The conical steel or composition cone installed on a propeller known as fair water cone provides which of the following benefits a. Reduce turbulence b. Help with lubrication c. Protect against electrolytic corrosion d. All of these. Briefly justify your answer Q. No.2749

9. Describe for an auxiliary boiler safety valve to pop open and reseat quickly to a. Give warning that excessive boiler pressure has been reached. b. Prevent wire drawing of the disc and seat c. Prevent valve pounding d. Provide sufficient blow down. Briefly justify your answer Q. No. 1011 10. The purpose of the programmed purge cycle on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler is to a. Cool the furnace to prevent pre ignition. b. Remove explosive vapours from the furnace. c. Evaporate accumulated unburned fuel oil. D. Provide sufficient air in the furnace to allow ignition of the fuel. Briefly justify your answer Briefly justify your answer Q. No. 1055

MMD Question paper 2 (Marine engineering knowledge general) 1. Write a letter to the company management representative explaining how you rectified a faulty diesel oil purifier desludging problem 2. Sketch and describe the low pressure supply filter of a pneumatic controller which controls a fuel supply valve. 3. Give an outline sketch of a domestic fresh water supply system confining the sketch to the engine room only. 4. Write short notes on the following a. Steam trap on condensate lines answer

b. Lighting in bilges/below the floor plates c. Vent pipes on main sea water line main suction filters. d. Safety guards on rotating parts. 5. The major controlling factor in the location of condensate returning piping from a heating system is/are a. The requirement for a gravity return b. The requirement for short horizontal level run c. The requirement to minimize conflict with headroom and other services. d. All the above. Briefly justify your Q.NO.2853

6. If the existing vapour pressure is subtracted from the

indicated pressure at the pump suction the remainder is the A. Pump head B. Total suction head C. Discharge head D. Apparent net positive suction head Briefly justify your answer Q.no.2542 7. The heat removed from the refrigerant in the condenser of a refrigeration plant is the A. latent heat of expansion B. sensible head of condensation C. heat of compression D. all the above Briefly justify your answer Q.no.1908 8. Freeze ,leakage and pre mature failure of valve packing is a result of

A. Opening a valve too quickly B. Lamming a wall in a close position 6289. According to regulations, which of the following is an acceptable lining for battery trays containing alkaline batteries? A. Brass B. Lead C. Steel D. Zinc Ans. C 6290. According to regulations the motor controller for a summer stone electric motor driven bilge pump should be installed A. In the shaft alley B. At the submersible bilge pump C. Above the upper most continuous deck D. At the engine room emergency control panel

Ans. C 6291. In accordance with regulations a steering gear feeder circuit from the emergency switch board or alternate power supply must have the capacity for continuous operation of the rudder 15 side-side in not more than 60 seconds of period of A. hour B. hour C.1 hour D. 2 hours Ans. B 6292. In accordance with regulations the capacity of each branch circuit providing powder to a fire detection or alarm system must not be less than what percent of the maximum load? A. 0.5 B.1 C. 1.25 D. 1.5

Ans. C 6293. Regulations require the minimum number of ships services generators for ocean vessels to be .. A.1 B.2 C.3 D.4 Ans. B 6294. Regulations require over current protection for steering gear feeder circuits and shall be protected by . A. circuit breaker with an instantaneous tip only B. Motor running over current protection only C. Non-renewable link cartridge fuse only D. Renewable link cartridge fuse only Ans. A

6295. When power ventilation is required in a battery compartment regulations require .. A. The power ventilation system to be separate from ventilation systems for other spaces B. Electric ventilation motors to be inside the vent duct C. Electric ventilation motors D. All the above Ans. A 6296. Regulations require each motor controller to have a wiring diagram located A. On the inside of the controller door B. In the engineering department office C. In the spare parts locker D. all of these Ans. A 6297. In accordance with regulations receptacles for

refrigerated containers must.. A. Have a switch near the receptacles that disconnects all power to those receptacles B. Have a sign stating that the switch should be opened before cables are disconnected from the receptacles C. Be designed for circuit breaking service D. All the above Ans. D 6298. Regulations require that the emergency lighting and power system .. A. Emergency generator must be tested under load before sailing B. Must be tested and inspected weekly and the date recorded C. Batteries must be tested annually and date recorded D. Must be capable of sustaining the emergency load for 48 hours Ans. B

6299 Regulations require emergency diesel engine starting systems to have sufficient capacity to provide power for at least . A. Three continuous starting sequences B. Six consecutive cranking cycles C. Nine repeated starts under load D. Twelve cracking periods of 5 seconds Ans. B 6300 Which of the following statements is a regulation concerning emergency generator diesel engines? A. The fuel must have a flash point not less than 24c B. Emergency diesel engines must be capable of operating full load in not less than 30 seconds after cracking

C. The starting battery must produce 12 consecutive cranking cycles D. Emergency diesel engines must operate satisfactorily up to a 22.5 list Ans. D Q.NO.3363 9. Which of the following problems may be encountered by using an oil having a viscosity higher than that specified for an operating hydraulic system? a) external seal leakage b) hunting-due to fast response c) increased power consumption Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.3575 10. An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most often caused by a) defective intake valves b) clogged suction strainers c) scored cylinder walls

d) clogged drain valves Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.2413 MMD QUESTION PAPER3 (MARINE ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE GENERAL) 1. Write a letter to the Engineer Superintendant of the company stating why the control air used on board for the pneumatic controllers remains highly contaminated and how you propose to rectify it. 2. Give outline sketches of the following components of a refrigeration system and explain the working briefly (A) Liquid receivers with fittings (B) Driers showing flow of gas through the filters (C) Line filters showing flow of gas through the filters

3. Sketch and describe a main air compressor air filter of the Viscous impingement type 4. Write short notes on the following. (A) Fir tree type fusible plugs (B) Mechanical oil seals as used in pumps (C) High pressure cut outs in the refrigeration system Give sketches where ever necessary PART B 5. Why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone gear pump steadier than the discharge pressure of a simple spur gear pump? (A) Clearance between the gear teeth and casing is smaller (B) The gear teeth are smaller than those of

the simple spur gear pump (C) One discharge phase begins before the previous discharge has been completed (D) The herringbone gear pump has four spur gears has been completed Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.2716 6. Which of the following actions, pertaining to saltwater lubricated stern tube, stuffing boxes is usually observed when the ship is expected to be in port for an extended period? (A) The stuffing box is continually flushed (B) The drain connection is left opened (C) The stuffing box is tightened

(D) The packing is adjusted for greater cooling or replaced Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.2769 7. A bourdon tube-type steam pressure gauge is fitted with a siphon loop to prevent damage from _________ (A) Extreme thermal stress (B) The admission of condensate (C) Pressure shock (D) Differential expansion rates Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.2802 8. In a refrigeration system, the refrigerant absorbs the latent heat of vaporization in the ______ (A) Compressor (B) Condenser (C) Receiver (D) Evaporator

Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.1910 9. Oil emulsification in engine lubricating oils will tend to _________ (A) Decrease sludge formation in lubricating oil (B) Cause water to separate from oil (C) Improve the lubricating oil viscosity (D) Displace lubricating oil required in areas of friction Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.3680 10. The conical steel or composition cone installed on a propeller, known as fair-weather cone, provides which of the following benefits? (A) Reduces turbulence (B) Helps with lubrication (C) Protects the nut (D) All of the above

Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.2749 QUESTION PAPER4 (MARINE ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE GENERAL) 1. Submit a report to the Chief Engineer, how an emergency fire pump which had difficulty taking suction earlier during ballast passage of a ship is rectified 2. Sketch a main seawater Suction filter and state (a) How is air purged out of such a filter (b) How is filter isolated for maintenance work 3. Give an outline sketch of a Fresh water hydrophone system briefly explaining the system

4. Write short notes on the following (a) The need for taking double bottom tank surroundings regularly after a grounding incident (b) Need to preheat main engines to continuous running of the engines (c) Utility of pressure gauges on either side of high pressure fuel oil filters (d) The purpose of opening indicator cocks before blowing through an engine 5. Short cycling of a refrigeration compression refers to a ________

(a) Frequently cutting out an over load (b) Frequently starting and stopping (c) Running too fast (d) Running too slow Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.1904 6. The emergency bilge suction valve is typically used __________ (a) To inject cleaning additives when the bilges are extremely dirty (b) When the main condenser becomes fouled, in order to provide additional cooling water circulation (c) To connect the rose box to the

independent bilge section (d) If the bilges become flooded and they cannot be emptied by any other means Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.2890 7. The by-products of oxidation, as a result of water contamination of hydraulic oi;\l, are generally ___________ (a) Removed by cellulose type filters (b) Gums, varnishes and acids (c) Always neutralized by oil additives (d) Harmless and have no effect on system components

Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.3515 8. Which of the following describes the purpose of a striker or double plate? (a) Provides a surface for the application of force, or the installation of a machinery (b) Provides landing surface for the sounding bob of a tank sounding tape (c) Absorbs machinery vibration (d) Prevents valve system over travel Briefly justify your answer Q.NO. 9. Which of the following statements represents the proper relative direction of

flow through a globe valve? (a) Direction of flow through the valve is unimportant (b) Direction of flow through the valve depends upon the type of seat design used in the valve (c) Direction of flow should be from below the seat (d) Direction of flow should be from above the seat Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.3168 10. A portion of the cargo of an LNG carrier boils off during each voyage. How is the cargo boil off normally handheld?

(a) Compressed, condensed and returned to the cargo tanks (b) Burned in the boilers (c) Vented to the atmosphere (d) Mixed with nitrogen and circulated through a primary barrier (e)Burnt off in a controlled manner through a chimney stack within the funnel Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.2822 QUESTION PAPER5 (MARINE ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE GENERAL) 1. Write a letter to the engineer superintendent of the company,

stating how different types of corrosion have damaged auxillary engine Lubricating Oil cooler 2. Give only outline sketches of heat exchangers with the following type of flow (A) Radial flow (B) Segmental flow (C) Guided flow (D) Axial flow Do not give any explanation 3. sketch and describe a low pressure relief valve for any make of multistage air compressor, known to you 4. write short notes on the following

(A) hydrogen in crankcase (B) valve throats and diameters (C) structure Borne Noises (D) refrigeration F11 5. the temperature at which water vapour in the atmosphere begins to condense is called the ____________ (A) dew point temperature (B) condensation temperature (C) psychometric temperature (D) absolute humidity temperature Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.2214

6. the tendency of the lubricating oil to thin out at high temperature and thicken at low temperatures will be characterized by ______ (A) low viscosity index (B) high viscosity index (C) high neutralization number (D) low domulsibility quality Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.3678 7. the size of a flexible hose used in a hydraulic system is indicated by________

(A) the inside diameter of the tube (B) the numerical designation found on the skin of the hose (C) the color code of the armor (D) the thickness of the tube wall (A) Transferring ballest water (B) Dumping bulk materials including cargo at sea (C) Pumping out flooded compartment (D) Evacuating the vessel of oil consumable s and personnel Briefly Justify Your Answer 4 Keeping the draft of shipat.or below the load line mark,insures

the unit will have adecuate__________ (A) Reserve ballast (B) Reserve buoyancy (C) Lightweight displacement (D) Critical motion (E) A small reserve capacity for additional shopping Breifly Justify Your Answer 5 The motion about the vertical axis of a vessel is known

(C) Spread absoeben material on dek beneath the leak (D) uniform P & I clubs to prepare for claim Briefly Justify Your Answer 7 The hydrant valves on a crude oil tanker shall be rotated from crude oil washing

system by________________ (A) Vaw (B) Surge (C) Sway (D) Roll Briefly Justify Your Answer 6 Teal in an oil hose coupling cannot be stopped by tightening the coupling bolts you should_________ (A)notify the Coast Guard of a potential oil spin (B) reducing purnping pressure to reduce a leakage rate (A) Space blank (B) Face blanks (C) Nonreturn valves (D) Automatic closing valves Briefly Justify Your Answer 8 After using a portable Halon fire extinguisher. It should be________ (A) Put back in service if more than 50% of the charge remains (B) Repainted

(C) Hydrostatistically tested before use (D) Discarded Briefly Justify Your Answer 9 Which of the following must be eliminated to prevent accidents? (A) Unsafe action (B) Orderliness (C) Frequent inspection (D) Good work habit/practices Briefly Justify Your Answer 10 A floating vessel will behave as if all of its weight is acting downward through the ____________ (A) Centre of gravity (B) Centre of buoyancy (C) Centre of floatation (D) Metacentre Briefly Justify Your Answer

MMD QUESTION PAPER 4(SHIPS SAFETY AND ENVIRONTMENTAL PROTECTION) 1 the emergency fire pump of your ship is in an explosion.State the general requirement requirements of a replacement pump giving technical details,certification required and perticulars of matting it with engine primary pump suction manifold etc. 2 With reference to regulate (MARPOL 73/78) for the presentation of pollution by and (A)Explain the following terms (a) Pl (b) H (c) Cow (B) define the following terms (a) new ship (b) segregated ballast

(c) permealibility 3 A low velocity for application is used in referigation to (A) Apply large droplets of foam (B) Clean and smother the fire (C) Break up burning embers (D) Clear smoke each electrical fire Briefly Justify Your Answer 4GMcannot be used as indicator of stability at effected inclusion mixture (A) M is not fix at large angles (B) There is M fixed at large angles (C) G is fixed at large angle (D) There is G at large angle Briefly Justify Your Answer

5 The most frequent incident of tanker pollution occurring during tanker operation is (A) Due to collusion (B) Routine discharge of oil during ballasting and tank crude washing (C) Loading and discharging (D) Due safety to groundings Briefly Justify Your Answer 6 in a refrigeration system,the refrigerant absorbs the latent heat of vapourisation in the (A) (B) (C) (D) Compressor Condenser Receiver Evaporator

7 emulsification in engine lubricating oils will tend to (A) Decreasing sludge formation in lubricating oil

(B) Cause water to separate from the oil (C) Improving the lubricating oil viscosity (D) Distinguishing lubricating oil required in areas of friction Briefly justify your answer

MMD QUESTION PAPER 5(SHIPS SAFETY AND ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION) 1 Briefly state the major areas of a ship and its equipment that a safety equipment certificate covers within its scope of certification 2 briefly state what do the following certificates stands for and what are their validity periods (A) safcon certificate (B) IOPP certificate (C) LL certificate 3 briefly state the salient features of ISM certification on board a ship.Does the ISM code replace any existing certificate on board. 4 There has been a crank case explosion on board a ship and two crew are injured.on arrival port which of the following persons would you inform

8 the conical steel of composition cone installed on a propeller,known as fair water cone,provides which of the following benefits? (A) Reduces turbulence (B) Helps with lubrication (C) Protects the nut (D) All the above Briefly justify your answer

(A) The port state inspector (B) The ship chandeler (C) The dock safety inspector (D) The port health officer (E) The port safety officer

5 angular motion about the longitudinal axis of a vessel is known as (A) pitch (B) surging (C) sway (D) roll briefly justify your answer 6 safety is dependent on orderliness and cleanliness.order may be maintained by

(A) storing all items in an assigned place (B) storing all items in a common storage container except those ready for sea (C) tagging all items according to their age and then storing them together (D) diposing of worn out items briefly justify your answer 7 recharging a previously used catridge operated dry chemical fire extinguisher is accomplished by (A) authourized fire equipment servicing personnel only (B) replacing the ropellant catridge and refilling it with pyrotechnic powder

(C) puncturing the catridge seal after installation (D) recharging the catridge and refilling it with powder briefly justify your answer

8 heave is the motion of a vessel along the (A) longitudinal axis (B) transverse axis (C) vertical axis (D) centerline axis briefly justify your answer

9 a lead line for a ship is assigned by the (A) port health inspector (B) assesors and arbitrators (C) institute of marine engineers

(D) a recognized classification approved by the administration 10 when entering a compartment which is on fire (A) you must wear gloves (B) the flames should be beaten back from the door with water fog (C) a straight stream of water should be used to cool the door (D) straight stream of water should be used to cool the fire fighters briefly justify your answer 9.An advantage of a helical gear pump over a simple gear pump is the helical gear pump Is capable of (a)maintaining a steadier speed

(b)delivering liquids over greater distances (c)operating for longer periods of time (d)producing a smoother discharge flow Briefly justify your answer

MMD QUESTION PAPER 9 (MARINE ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE-GENERAL)

1.Write short notes on: (a)effect of moisture in a refrigerating system (b)effect of excess refrigerant

10.restrictions occurring in the small orifices of pneumatic control system components can be caused by (a)moisture in the compressed air supply (b)excessive dryness in the compressed air supply (c)pressure surging in the compressed air receiver (d)insufficient lubrication of the stem components Briefly justify your answer

(c)underchange (d)halocarbons(hcfs)

2.make a outline sketch of a fallsafe steering gear for a ums vessel.state what steering tests need to be carried out under IMO regulations.within 12 hours.before the departure of the vessel.

3.what is the importance of the following in a stage marine non oil-free compressor. (a)oil system relief value

(b)fusible plug (c)condensate pot (d)configuration of 2nd stage valves

(c)piston ring failure (d)deposit formation in oil cooled piston

4.state atleast four problems areas.which mmmust be considered when treating engine cooling water Systems.what tests are recommended to be don e,in order

7.what could be the possible reasons for: (a)bearing failure (b)valve deposits (c)vibrations in crankshaft (d)chain slackening (e)noisy gear drive

5.how will you initiate chemical cleaning of your boiler during lay up?why do boilers suffer from corrosion during periods when hot in use or laid-up ?state the

8.write with respect to deck machinery ,discuss (a)importance of specifications of windlass (b)anchor windlass brake tests

6. in your opinion ,what could be the reasons for the following: (a)excessive wear of piston rings and liners (b)scuffing

(c)a simple rigging arrangements of a winch for cargo handling (d)function of a fin stabilizer

9.write shorts notes on: (a)cascade control (b)remote water level control (c)open and closed loop control

(e)compression ratio

10.discuss the following: (a)effect of running the engine on contaminated fuel (b)microbial degradation of lubricating oil (c)use of homogenisers

2.with reference to hull protection against corrosion,describe how an impressed current system operates.what are the advantages,as compared to using 3.what are the usual causes of oil being found in air passages between turbocharger blower and scavenge air cooler.how will the fouling of the scavenge air

MMD QUESTION PAPER 10 (MARINE ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE-GENERAL)

4.write briefly notes on the adverse effects that a fuel containing high values of the following may cause: (a)viscosity (b)density (c)sulphur (d)conrodson carbon residue (e)asphaltenes

1.WRITE SHORT NOTES ON: (a)volumetric efficiency (b)propeller curve (c)scavevge efficiency (d)swept volume

(f)vanadium (g)ash (h)water

for inerting the cargo tanks of an oil tanker.Labelling the component parts (B) Describe the exworking of the system (C) State what maximum oxygen content you would expect,in the flue gas of a boiler,if this was used in an inert gas system 8. Petroleum vapours are a dangerous substance and when mixed with air may get ignited. With this in mind (A)For the mixture of petroleum vapour and ar,explain what the term Lower and Upper Flammable Limit means (B)Describe the explosimeter and its working principle (C)state what can cause the explosimeter to give a false reading 9 Describe the hull examination you carry out on a ship in drydock,making special

5.with reference to multitublar heat exchangers,state why: (a)fresh water is generally preferred to sea water as coolant (b)lubricating oil is generally maintained at a marginally positive head relative to the coolant (c)contra flow and multi pass arrangments tend to improve heat transfer rates for a given surface area.

6.State the chemical methods of treating boiler water .Explain coagulation .Describe the process of softening water. 7(A) Sketcha diagram showing a typical Inert gas system used

reference to essential maintenance that can only be carried out in dry dock 10 State advantages of welding joints over other types of joining What provision must be made for taking care of expansion of pipelines,especially those carrying high tmperature fluids and gases

3.Give the outline sketch of a piston cooling water system of a large 2-stroke marine diesel engine,stating the means of replnishing the water. 4.Write short notes on following: a) Cylinder head relief valves b) Cam shaft lubrication in large two strike marine diesel engines c) turning gear d) main bearing wear down measurement.

MMD QUESTION PAPER 1 (MARINE ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGEMOTOR) 1.Write a letter to the company Technical Manager,stating with reasons,why the mail engine crankcase Lube OIL bunkered in the last port and now in use,is 2.Sketch and describe a four stroke marine diesel engine one piece linen of ny make.

5.An increase in the air inlet manifold pressure of a diesel engine will result in a) dcrease in maximum cylinder pressure b) increase in ignition lag c) dcrease in fuel consumption per horsepower-hour d)dcrease in exhaust manifold pressure Give reasion justify your answer.

6.It is desirable for an auxiliary boiler saftey valve to pop open and reseat quickly to a) give warnimg that excessive boiler pressure has been reached b) prevent wire drawing of the disc and seat c) prevent valve pounding d) provide sufficient blowdown Give reason to justify your answer. 7.For a continuous operation diesel engine,a duplex filter unit would be the best arrangement because a) changing filter elements would not interrupt engine operation b) filtering occurs twice in each pass of oil through the system c) clogging will not occur d) dropping pressure is half of that through a single filter unit

Give reason to justify your answer. 8.Which of the following devices controls the discharge flow rate of an attached,positive displacement,rotary gear,lube oil pump,for a diesel engine? a) A pressire regulating valve b) A pressure relief valve c) The engine speed d) An orifice Give reason to justify your answer. 9.The expantion tank for diesel engine closed cooling system is designed to maintain a constant head on the system and a) reduce water temperature b) reduce water turbulence c) provide an air cushion d) aiiow for an increase in water volume as the engine warms up

Give reason to justify your answer. 10.Why are heavy fuels not usually prone to the problems of microbiological infection? a) Heavy fuels are subjected to better refining processes which prevent the formation of these growths b) Most heavy fuels contain chemicals which prevent growth of fungi and other bacteria c) Microbiological infection does not affect marine fuel but rather the personnel who are involved with the handling storage and purification of fuel. d) The necessary nutrients that the organisms feed on are in a more complex form and not available for microbial degradation. Give reason to justify your answer.

MMD QUESTION PAPER 2 9MARINE ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE-MOTOR) 1.Write a letter to the company Technical Manager stating with reasons,why the main engine cylinder lube oil,bunkered in the last port and now in use,is of 2.Sketch and describe a high powered four stroke marine diesel engine main beraring of any make 3.Give an outline sketch of a piston cooling water system of a large 2 strokes slow speed marine diesel engine stating the pressure and temperature at the a) at entry to piston b) inside piston c) at piston cooling water pump outlet d) at piston cooling water tank

4.Write short notes on the following (for large 2 stroke marine diesel engines)

6. The intake valves in a diesel engine are reseated by a) cam followers

a) cylinder head holding down b) push rods studs and nut c) combustion gases b) cylinder head landing joints d) valve springs for sealing c) crankshaft bearing clearance Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.134 measurements 7. When preparing to light off a cold boiler equipped with a return flow fuel oil system the circulating valve directs 5.The outlet from an expansion the flow of oil tank of a closed freshwater a) directly to the fuel oil heater inlet for cooling system should be piped further warm-up to the b) back to the fuel oil settler for further a) cylinder head water outlet filtration header c) back to the suction side of the service b) cylinder jacket inlet main pump c) heat exchange inlet d) directly to deep tanks connection Briefly justify your answer d) jacket water pump suction Q.NO.1057 line Breifly justify your answer.

8. The main function of the rods is the 10. When accumulated carbon at the construction of large low speed diesel air inlet ports of a two stroke /cycle diesel engine is being removed , you engine is to should take care to avoid carbon a) stiffen the bed plate in the main a) entering the cylinder bearing to increase the engines longitudinal strength b) particles becoming lodged under the b) accept most of the tensile loading intake valves that result from the firing forces c) entering the water jacket developed during operation d) particles entering lube oil c) mount the engine frame securely to Briefly justify your answer the hull to prevent shaft coupling Q.NO.731 misalignment MMD d) connect the crosshead solidly to the QUESTION PAPER 3(MARINE piston rod ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE-MOTOR) Briefly justify your answer 1. One of the auxiliary engines of your Q.NO.8 ship always has a starting 9. On most of the modern diesel problem.Write a letter to the owners engines,the main and connecting rod suggesting two very specific reasons bearings receive their lubricating oil by why the engine does not start on a) drip feed/reed valve feed fuel even after giving repeated air kicks and putting on the fuel lever. b) splash feed 2. Give an outline sketch of a main c) gravity feed engine cylinder lubricating system and briefly state typical properties of d) pressure feed Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.9

a cylindrical lubricating oil used for b)Test the relief valves large 2 stroke marine engines. c)Watch the temperature to prevent 3. Sketch and describe any two type of the fluctuations in pressure turbo charging systems used in d)Clean the interior to remove oil modern 2 stroke diesel engines used and foreign matter as prime movers.Give outline Briefly justify your answer sketches only. Q.NO.834 4. A set of fuel injectors along with 7. In comparison to the exhaust valves , their needle and guide for an intake valves of the diesel engines auxiliary engine of 500kw capacity is may be fabricated from low-alloy air freighted to your ship completely steels because___________ scaled at the manufacturing site.Give a)the beveled edges of the intake a step by step method of how you valves for self-centering during would make such an injector ready seating for the installation on the engine. b)intake valves utilize satellite5. Crank web deflection readings will coated valve seat inserts which give a positive indication reduce wear of________________ c)the volume of air passing through a) worn main bearing journals intake of the valves is less than a b) torsional stress deformation volume of air passing through c) slack thrust bearings exhaust valves d) bearing shells shim dimensions d)intake values are less affected to Briefly justify your answer the corrosive action of the exhaust Q.NO.730 gases 6. What preventive maintainence Briefly justify your answer should be done frequently done to Q.NO.1337 diesel engine starting air receivers? 8. Friction developing between the a)Drain the accumulated moisture moving parts of the governor ,

governor linkages and control valve Briefly justify your answer will cause the governor Q.NO.1313 to_______________ MMD a)react with insufficient speed drop QUESTION PAPER 3(MARINE b)fail to react to small speed changes ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE-MOTOR) c)have excessive sensitivity to small 1.Write a letter to the company speed changes Technical manger stating with reasons d)remain in the neutral position why the fuel bunkered in the last port is Briefly justify your answer of very poor quality. Q.NO.1305 2.Sketch and describe a 4 stroke marine 9. Which of the bearings listed are diesel engine piston of any make. most widely used for the main and 3.Give the outline sketch of a cylinder connecting rods bearings of a 4 lubricating system of a large 2-stroke stroke medium speed diesel engine? marine diesel engine stating the a)roller measure for varying cylinder lube oil b)steeve feed. c)precison inser(bimetal or trimetal)4.Write short notes on the following. d)needle A)crankcase explosion doors Briefly justify your answer B)poppet type exhaust valves Q.NO.234 C)gear teeth backlash 10.Which of the following method is D)main engine flywheel markings. normally used to lubricate bearings in a 5.To minimize the corrosion,fuel oil small high-speed diesel engine? strainer disks,spacers and scrapper a)splash lubrication blades are made of __________ b)pressure lubrication A)brass c)slight feed lubrication B)copper d)mechanical lubricators C)iron D)monel metal or stainless steel

Briefly justify your answer B)clock the air clock once fires are lit Q.NO.980 C)blowdown the gauge class 6.In a diesel engine, maximum lube oil D)crack open the steam stop valve to system pressure is normally controlled ensure protective steam flow by__________ Give a reason to justify your answer A)the capacity of lube oil pump Q.NO.1016 B)the speed of the lube oil pump 9.Within the cycle of a forced C)the outlet pressure of the lube oil circulation auxiliary water tube boiler pump ,part of the water into the steam and D)relief valve the remaining hot water is__________ Give a reason to justify your answer A)collected in the lower portion of the Q.NO.904 steam accumulator for re-circulation 7.Which of the following statements back to the heating coil or water tank. describes the function of an expansion B)returned to the lower drum via tank in a diesel engine cooling system?downcomers due to density difference A)maintains a constant head on the for re-heating system C)passes through the domestic heating B)reduces the likelihood of air or steam system return line stream traps to the pockets formation auxiliary feed supply tank C)provides a low pressure point for theD)automatically dumped into auxiliary addition of make up cooling water feed heater and re-heated by auxiliary D)all the above exhaust back pressure Give a reason to justify your answer Give a reason to justify your answer Q.NO.1563 Q.NO.1041 8.prior lighting of the cold automatically 10.Ignition failure in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler , you controlled auxiliary boiler could be should__________ caused by__________ A)check and regulate the water level A)carbon deposits on the flame scanner

B)high fuel oil temperature 5.Which of the following actions should C)low fuel oil viscosity normally be taken during each watch D)high steam pressure when the auxiliary boiler is in Give a reason to justify your answer operation? Q.NO.1456 A)clean the flame scanner photocell MMD window QUESTION PAPER 3(MARINE B)inspect and clean all solenoid valves ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE-MOTOR) C)lift and safety valves by hand 1.Write a letter to the company D)inspect for oil or water leaks Technical manager stating with the Briefly justify your answer reason why a particular make of V-belts Q.NO.1141 appear to be defective when put to use. 6.Lubrication for the main reduction 2.Sketch and describe a 2 stroke marine gears with diesel engines is usually diesel engine ,connecting rod of any supplied by ______________ make . A)oil from the main engine sump 3.Give the outline sketch of a jacket B)an independent lube oil system cooling water system of a large 2-stroke C)the stem tube bearing head tank marine diesel engine stating the meansD)the stern tube bearing the sump tank of replenishing the water. Briefly justify your answer 4.Write short notes on the following. Q.NO.874 A)cylinder head air starting valves 7.When there is a flame failure in an B)camshaft lubrication in a medium automatically fired auxiliary boiler,the speed 4-stroke diesel engine A)air supply off C)Thrust pad lubrication on a large 2- B)fuel supply is shut off stroke marine diesel engine D)main drive gear teeth backlash measurement (c) water supply is shut off (D)safety valve lifts

Briefly Your Answer Q.NO.1025 8 Cooling the intake an supplied to a diesel engine wil (A)reduce mean effective pressure (B)decrease average compression pressure (C)decrease air charge density (D)increase power output Briefly Your answer Q.NO.1190 9 Which of the listed items should be secured before performing maintenance on a sole and operated air stating valve? (A)Electric power (B)lube oil standby pump (C)hydraulic switch (D)Motor drain Briefly Your answer Q.NO.838 10 What is to be istalled on an internal combustion engine if the cylinder bone exceeds 200mm? (A)Crankcase vapour moniters (B)Engine exhaust silencers (C)Constant pressure type turbochargers (D)explosion relier valves

Briefly justify Your answer Q.NO.142 MMD QUESTION PAPER 6 (MARINE ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE MOTOR) 1 Write a letter to the company Technical superintendent what do you suspect ccould be the primary reason for a Relatively new main engine to be under performing so badly 2 sketch and describe any type of crances explosion relief valvas know to you 3 state the sources of noise emanating from a large 2 stroke slow speed marine diesel engines catagoring them Under air borne and structure borne types 4 write short notes on the following (A)igniting quality of the fuel for large 2 storke slow speed marine diesel engines (B)piston crown cracking (C)scuff resistance in bearing matenals 5 The amount of fuel oil atomized by a returned flow oil burner is directly controlled by the

(A)header supply valve (B)buner rool valve (D)fuel oil back pressure Briefly Justify Your Answer Q.NO.1061 6 The crankercase of many modern high speed marine diesel engines Are kept under a slight vacuum by the (A)scavenging action of the oiston (B)piston typed vacuum pump taking suction off a differential manometer (C)gland exhausting evacuation pump (D)crankcase exhaust fan Briefly Justify Your Answer Q.NO.262 7 Which of the following condition will cause only one of the burner solenoid to close on an automatically fired two buner unit auxiliary boiler? (A)Loss of the forced draft fan (B)low boiler water level (C)high boiler water level (D)A faulty coil in one of the solenoid valves Briefly Justify Your Answer Q.NO.1488

8 The expand tank in a diesel engine closed fresh water cooling system is located at (A)the highest point in the system (B)the lowest point in the system (C)or near the floor plate level (D)or near the tank top level Briefly Justify Your Answer Q.NO.1575 9 Lubrication for an auxily marine diesel engine bearing are usually provided by which of the following typed of lubncating oil system? (A)Splash (B)Gravity (C)Pressure (D)Bypass Briefly Justify your Answer Q.NO.9 10 The burner assembly on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler with variable capacity pressure atomizing burners maintain steam pressure by (A)cycling fuel oil return pressure (B)changing the speed of a rotary cup (C)changing the fuel oil return pressure (D)varying air pressure supplied the nozzle

Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.1464 MMD QUESTION PAPER 7 (MARINE ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE-MOTOR) 1 Give a letter to the company to technical superintend, explaining what you suspect could be the cause for all the auxillary engine governors to be function erratically 2 Describe any type auxillry engine flexible mounting, which also serves to isolate things to a great extent. 3 shorts notes on following (A)cavitation erosion resistance in bearings (B)low cycle fatigue stresses in bearings (C)composition of gaseous exhaust emission from large 2 stroke slow speed marine diesel engines 4.The primary requirements you would look for in a marine diesel engine for main population.the main engine of main 2 strokes speed type ,and your requirement should be general and not restricted to ships specifies

Part-b 1.if an auxiliary boiler is operating at design load , which of the following actions wil occur if the combustion contril system detects a steam pressure (A)more burners will lighted on (B)The registers will open fully (C)The fuel oil valve and air damper will open wider (D)the steam flow will be automatically regulated Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.1489 2.Spring loaded unit type fuel injector is used on a diesel engine cylinder head to (A)meter the fuel (B)produced the proper oil pressure (C)atomize the fuel (D)all the above Briefly Justify Your Answer Q.NO.133 3 Heating system for diesel engine are usually designed to initially provide lube oil to the engine (A)camshaff bearings (B)crosshead Bearings (C)main bearings (D)thrust bearings

Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.891 4 The valve tappets in a diesel engine are set at greater clearances than those specified by the engine manufactuers those valves will (A)open late and close early (B)open late and close late (C)fail to open when the engine is cold (D)fail to open at operating temperature Briefly Justify Your Asnswer Q.NO.1426 5.The function of a flame safeguard system as used on an automatillay fired auxillary boiler is to prevent (A)accident dry firing andoverpressure (B)uncontrolled fires in the furnace (C)explosion in the boiler furnace (D)overheating of the pressure parts Briefly Justify Your Answer Q.NO.265 6.The primary finction of a flame safeguard system,as used on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler I to prevent__________-

A)accidental dry firing and overpressure B)uncontrolled fires in furnace C)explosion in the furnace D)overheating in the pressure parts Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.1467 MMD QUESTION PAPER (MARINE ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE MOTOR) 1 Writer the letter to the company technical manager stating why the fuel bunked in the last port is of very poor quality 2 sketch and describe a fours stoke marine diesel engine pistol of any make 3 Give the outline sketch of the cylinder lubricating system of a large 2 stoke engine starting the measures for varying cylinder Lube oil feed 4 write the short note on the folling. (A)crankcase explosiondoors (B)popper type exhaust valves (c)Gear teeth backlash (D)main engine fly wheel markings

5 to mninize corrosion fuel oil strainer disks spacers blades are made of (A)brass (B) copper (C) iron (D) monel metal nor stainless steel Give reasons to justify your answer q .No . 980 6 In a diesel engine maximum lube oil pressure is normally controlled by. A)The capacity of the lube oil pump B)The speed of the lube oil pump C)The outlet pressure of the lube oil pump D)A rene valve Give reasons to justify your answer q .No .904 7.Which of the following statements describes the function of an expansion tank in a diesel engine cooling system? A)Maintains a constant head on the system B)Reduces the likelihood of air or steam pockets formation C)Provides a low pressure point for the addition of makeup cooling water D)All of the above

Give reasons to justify your answer q .No .1563 8.Prior to lighting off cold automatically fixed manually boiler , you should____________ A)check and regulate the water level B)clock the air clock once fires and lit (C) slowdown the guage glass (D) crack open the steam stop valve to assure protective steam flow Give reasons to justify your answer Q.NO.1016 9. Within the cycle of a forced circulation auxiliary water-tube boiler part of the water flashes into steam and the remaining hot water is (A) collected in the lower portion of the steam accumulator for recirculation back to the heating coil or water tank

(B)returned to the lower drum via downcomers due to density different for reheating (C) passes through the domestic heating system return line steam traps to the auxiliary feed supply tank (D)automatically dumped into auxiliary feed heater and reheated by auxiliary exhaust back pressure Give reasons to justify your answer? Q.No.1041 10. Ignition control in an automatically controlled auxiliary boiler could be caused by.. (A) carbon deposits on the flame scanner (B) high fuel oil temperature (C) low fuel oil viscosity (D) high steam pressure

Give reasons to justify your answer? Q.No.1456 MMD QUESTION PAPER 9 (MARINE ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE-MOTOR) 1. Issue a cautionary notice to the Navigator Watch Keeping Officer on too many engine movements during maneuvering owing to under performing main air 2. Sketch and describe any type of four stroke oil cooled piston used in medium speed marine diesel engines for main propulsion 3. Write short notes on the following (A)friction losses and fuel consumption in auxilliaary engines (B) The importance of stroke/bore ratio in engine performance

(C) Noise reduction techniques used in main engines to improve noise level conditions for personnel in the engine room 4.What is the effect of vibration on the following fitting structures and components in a engine room (A) main air compressor foundation (B) Main jacket cooling water internal surfaces (C)double bottom tanks Explain how these effects take place, specially the mechanism by which these effects take place 5.Which of the fuel injection systems uses a spring loadeddifferential spray needle valve and an individual pump for each cylinder? (a) common rail injection (b) air injection (c) jerk pump injection

(d) distributor injection briefly justify your answer q.no:260 6.proper lubrication of the main bearings is more easily obtained in a single acting four stroke bar cycle diesel engine than in asingle acting two stroke bar cycle engine (a) bearing pressure in a four stroke bar cycle single acting diesel engine is continually reversed (b) bearing pressure in a two stroke bar cycle single acting diesel engine is continually reversed (c) the maximum bearing pressure is higher in a single acting two stroke bar cycle diesel engine (d) two stroke bar cycle diesel engines required more complicated lubrication piping

Briefly justify your answer Q.NO .1357 7. The interial of some diesel engine salt water heat exchangers are protected from corrosion by the use of (A) aluminium plates (B) lead cathodes (C) copper baffle plates (D) sacrificial zines Briefly justify you answer 8. increasing the valve clearance between a valve stem and rock arm will result in the valve (A) closing later (B) opening sooner (C) staying open for a shorter period of time (D) staying open for a longer period of time

Briefly justify your answer. Q.NO -1397 9.Internal combustion engine crankcase vent outlets must be equipped with (A) hinged rain guards (B) corrosion resistant flame screens (C) dipsticks for measuring oil levels (D) crankcase ventilation fans Briefly justify your answer Q.No-141 10. The amount of chloride content in the water of an auxilliary boiler can be reduced by (A) adding hydrazine (B) blowing down the boiler (C) adding phenolphthalein

(D) adding sulphite chloride scavenger Briefly justify your answer

engine drive gear\timing gear 4.cooling of intake air supplied to a diesel engine will (A) reduce mean effective pressure (B) decrease the average compression pressure (C) decrease air charge density (D) increase power output Briefly justify your answer Page-353 Q.No-1190 5. When there is flame failure in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler (A) air supply is shutoff (B) fuel supply is shutoff (C) water feed is shutoff (D) safety valve lifts Briefly justify your answer

Q.NO-1140 MMD QUESTION PAPER 10(MARINE ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE-MOTOR) 1. Give instructions to the support crew for matters concerning safety during watchkeeping related to rotating machinery parts 2. Sketch and describe a main air starting valve of any large two stroke marine diesel engine known to you 3. Write short notes on (A) Turning gear (B) Means of absorbing thrust of a four stroke auxiliary engine crankshaft (C) Lubrication of large two stroke marine diesel

Q.No-1025 6. Lubrication for a main reduction gears used with diesel engines is usually supplied by (A) Oil from the main engine pump (B) an independent lube oil system

(D) motor drain Briefly justify your answer

Q.No-838 (C) the stern bearing head tank (D) the stern bearing sump tank Briefly justify your answer Q.No-874 7. Which of the listed items should be secured before performing any maintainance on a solenoid operated air start valve? (A) electric power Briefly justify your answer (B) lube oil standby pump (C) hydraulic switch Q.No-142 8.What is to be installed on an internal combustion engine if its cylinder bore exceeds 200mm? (A) crankcase vapour monitors (B) engine exhaust silencers (C) constant pressure type turbochargers (D) explosion relief valves

9. Which of the following actions should normally be taken during watch when the auxiliary boiler is in operation? (A) clean the flame scanner photocell window (B) inspect and clean all solenoid valves (C) lift the safety valves by hand (D) inspect for oil or water leaks Briefly justify your answer

(C) fuel oil pump failure (D) flame failure Briefly justify your answer

Q.No-1060 MMD QUESTION PAPER 11(MARINE ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE-MOTOR) 1. The cylinder liner of one of the units is cracked inspite of the engine having logged only 300 hours since last overhaul. Make a report on what you feel? 2. Sketch the main engine piston cooling water system of any large two stroke marine diesel engine and state how it is replenished? 3. With the aid of line sketches describe any two types of crosshead lubrication systems used in large two stroke marine diesel engines?

Q.No-1141 10. Excessive vibrating of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler can be caused by (A) air or water in the furnace (B) combustion pulses

4. A turning gear must be engaged when dismantling any moving part of the engine for the following reasons (A) To eliminate risk of injury to personnel (B) To eliminate risk damage to engine parts (C) To prevent external influences inadvertently turning the engine crankshaft. Enumerate each of the points with adequate reasoning? 5. The factors that influence detonation are (A) Fuel characteristics (B) Combustion of the cylinder charge air (C) Compression ratio (D) Ignition (E) Combustion chamber profile Briefly enumerate each factor 6. By raising the jacket cooling water temperature to around 80 deg celcius in modern

four stroke engines it serves many purposes such as (A) It eliminates the condensation of the water vapour contained in the product of combustion (B) It lowers the viscosity of the cylinder lubricating oil (C) It reduces considerably the amount of water that needs to be circulated (D) It increases the temperature difference between the cooling water and the charge air to which the heat is rejected Explain briefly each one of the above points with adequate reasoning 7. The use of ball and roller bearings in internal combustion engines is becoming more and more popular for some or all the following (A) The lower coefficient of friction

(B) The absence of wear under favourable conditions (C) The independence in lubrication (D) The extreme reliability of such bearings Give the correct answer with adequate justification 8. Efficient smooth combustion depends upon some or all of the following (A) A sufficiently high temperature to effect ignition (B) A large delay period or ignition lag (C) A minimum of afterburning (D) A large and rapid rate of pressure rise during the second stage of combustion Give the correct answer with adequate justification? 9. When a crosshead bearing of a large two stroke marine engine on

a cargo ship is opened for survey, it is mandatory for the crosshead to be inspected by the (A) Port state inspector (B) Cargo ear surveyor (C) ISM auditor D Attending the workshop superindent If u agree with the above stay why and if not then who are the designated people to carry out The survay? 10 Write short notes on any three of the following A main engine vibration dampers B main engine tachometers C auxillary engine goveernor D engine room lighting

E emergency air compressor F emergency air compressor G welding transformer on boat ships MMD QUESTION PAPER 12(MARINE ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE-MOTOR) 1 A large marine main propulsion engines fluctuates are the time during the voyage make a report to the chief engineer on the basis of abdotion of Skecth the main engines stating system showing the various components and fittings in the system A vey sudden rising preassure accomained by a metalic hammer like sound is called locking of the unit or detonation and usually

A Near the end of the rise,after the ignition of the charge B just before the fuel charge is about to ingnite C immediaty after the unit reches the peak preassure and before ingnition of the fuel D at any stage of the combussion prosses State the correct answer and explain why the other reason are not justified 4 The main requirments which a fuel injection system must fulfil are (A) Accurate metering of small quatities of fuel oil (B) Control of qulity of fuel injection (C) Proper timing of fuel injection (D) Selective distribution of the fuel in the combustion space

State weather each one of the points made above are true or false . if any point you percive false state why is it so. 5 In any marine diesel engine air movement in the combustion chamber is very important. Generally speaking air movement helps (A) to distribute the fuel (B) to mix with air (C) to cool the cylinder liner (D) to reduce after burning (E) to help in optimizing liner lubrication (F) to assist combustion (G) to reduse combustion tempratures 6 The speed of an auxiliary engine under load continuosly fluctuates even with a steady load. The fault could be owing to (A) The qulity of fuel used

(B) The quality of servicing of the governor in the last port (C) The supply of the charge air (D) To reduse the combustion tempratures 7 an auxiliary engine Turbocharger is making strange noises when the load changes. The diesel engines parameter however are absoulutely correct. An (A) Continue to run the engine and wait for sometime (B) Stope the engine and make some checks (C) Reduce the load of the engine (D) Run it on steady load to make some checks State which one of these would be your course of action briefly giving justifications supporting your action

8 The diesel driven life boat engine simply refuses to start after running perfectly for a period of half an hour before this state just 4 checks, you would need to 9 the exhaust mainfold of an auxiliary engine under load turns red hot. There is no lagging on the mainfold. What efforts would you make to cool down the 10 Duing every night watch , the Bridge watch keeper comlin of continuous sparks from the funnel. You are convinced that the sparks are something to do to identify the cause of sparking? MMD QUESTION PAPER 1 (MARINE ELECTROTECHNOLOGY) 1 A 250 50 Hz alternator of ships supplies current to a circuit having a resistance of 30 ohms and an impedence of 50 ohms. Calculate the inductance of the.

Calculate for the latter condition (A) the frequency (B) the power factor 2 A ships automatic voltage regulator has a coil of resistance 20 ohms and inductance 0.01272 henry connected in series with a condenser of capacitance 3. Brushless generators are designed to operate without the use of (A) brushes (B) sliprings (C) commutators (D) all of the above Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.5592 4. An operating characteristic appearing on the name plates of shipboard AC motors (A) the type of winding (B) input kilowatts

(C) temperature rise (D) locked rotor torque Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.5947 5. Low horsepower polyphase induction motors cam be started with full voltage by means of (A) compensator starters (B) autotransformer starters (C) across the line starter (D) primary-resistor starters Briefly explain your answers Q.NO.5948 6. Determine the number of turns/phase in each winding of a three phase transformer with a ratio of 20000/2000 volt to work on a 50c/s network. The high voltage Section-B 7 With reference to electrical switch gears explain the purpose of each of the following

(A) preferential tripping (B) dash pots (C) reverse power tripping (D) under voltage tripping 8. With respect to an emergency stand by lead acid battery (A) describe the safety aspects considered in the design and construction (B) state with reasons, two causes of short circuit (C) state with reasons, five causes of fall off in related capacity 9. (A) sketch a direct on line starter suitable for a three phase AC induction motors (B) explain the limitations of the direct online starter with respect to length of starting time and repeated successive starts. 10. (A) Explain why the neutral line on a three phase shipboard

electrical distribution system as usually insulated as against the shore practice of having the (B) State the disadvantages of the insulated neutral line three phase system. MMD QUESTION PAPER 2 (MARINE ELECTROTECHNOLOGY) Section-A 1.The current flowing in certain P-N junction at room temperature is 2 X 107 Amp, when large reverse bias voltage is applied. Calculate current flowing when 2. A resistance 7.0 is connected in series with a pure inductance of 314 mH and the circuit is connected to 100V, 50Hz. Sinusoidal supply calculate (A) the circuit current (B) the passage angle 3. A single phase motor operating off a 400V . 50 Hz supply is developing 10 KW with

an efficiency of 84% and a power factor of 0.7 lagging. Calculate (A) the input apparent power (B) the active and reactive components of the current (C) the reactive power 4. A 250 KVA 11000V/ 415V . 50 Hz single phase transformer has 80 turns on the secondary. Calculate (a) the approximate values of primary and secondary currents (b) the approximate number of primary turns (c) the maximum value of flux 5. a three phase induction motor is wound for four poles and is supplied from a50 Hz system . calculate (A) the synchronous speed

(B) the speed of rotor when the slip is 4% (C) the rotor frequency when the speed of the rotor is 600 r/min. 6. (A) Discuss the factors which affecting the sharing of load between two alternators running in parallel (B) Two single phase alternators each have terminal voltage and are linked through an 8 ohms reactor , the resistance of which is negligible Section-B 7. a) Whet are variable resistors ? define the following terms with respect to variable resistors i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi. total resistance resolution linearity precision equivalent noise resistance temperature co-efficient

b) draw volt ampere characteristic of i. ii. iii. ideal diode practical diode repeat(ii)for silicon and germanium diodes by mentioning the ranges of current and the voltage in the graph

9.describe the different types of dry cells and discuss their merits and demerits MMD QUESTION PAPER 3(MARINE ELECTROTHENOLOGY) SECTION A

1.a 20 volt battery with an internal resistance of 5 ohms is connected to a resistor of x ohms if an additional 6ohms is connected across the battery,find the 2.calculate the volume of water needed for compensate

8.a) explain the concept of PN junction as rectifier

for gassing due to electrolysis in a fully charged acid battery caused by an over change of 5A for 20 hr 3.discuss the possible reasons for a dc generator failing to self excite and explain how? a) A break in a shunt reostart is located by means of a continuity test b) Lost indidual magnetism is restored Section B 4 a flexible wire 1meter long is formed into a square ,the plate of which is perpendicular to a uniform field of 1m Weber/m2.find the work done if the wire under the 5 a two phase slip ring induction motor gives a reading of 55volts across sliprings on open circuit when a rest with a normal stator voltage applied the rotor is start a) At stannstill with slip rings joined to star connected

srarter with phase impedance of (4+j3) b) Running normally with 5%slip 5 explain a rotating field is produced by a 3phase current in the 3 phase state of an induction motor .how is torque is produced in a such a motor and what is section C 6 with a reference to p and n type germanium crystals explain the meaning of three of the following terms a) donor ions b) acceptor ions c) valency electrons d) covalent bonds with refrence to data logging system explain the following terms a) sensing device b) scanner c) transducer d) scaling unit

describe an electronic type of salinometer and explain clearly the prerating principle how the variations of water temperature is compensated for and how the MMD QUESTION PAPER 4(MARINE ELECTRO TECHNOLOGY)

1.A battery having EMF of 110 volts and internal resistance of 0.2 ohm is connected in parallel with another battery with an EMF of 100 volts and 2.a choking coil of negligible resistance takes a current of 10 amperes when connected to a 220 volts 50 hz supply a non inductive resistor under the same page 361 a current is represented by the equation i=40 sin 50t where t is in seconds. A second current of the same

frequency but twice the amplitudes lags behind the a)the value of the first current when the second is at a positive peak and b)the values of both current 0.02 sec moisture damage as a result of condensation occurring inside of the cargo winch master switches can be reduced by a)installing a light bulb in the bulb of the pedestal stant b) coating of the switch box internals with epoxy sealer c)venting the switch box regularly d)using strip heaters inside the switch box q.no 5236 which of the following conditions will occur if the solenoid coil burns out of a cargo which with an electrical brake

a)the brake will be set by spring later b)the motor will over speed and burn up c)the load suspended from the cargo boom will fail d)nothing will happen the winch will continue to operate s usual q.no 5593 which of the listed battery charging circuits is used to maintain a wet cell lead acid storage battery in a fully charged state during long periods of disuse a)normal charging circuit b)quick charging circuit c)trickle charging circuit d)high ampere charging circuit q.no 5594 with reference to the electrical switch gear explain the purpose of each of the following a)preferential tripping

b)dash pots c)reverse power tripping d)under voltage tripping with reference to the electrical equipment in areas aboard ship having potentially flammable atmospheres a)explain the hazards involved b)state the design features that render the equipment safe c)explain the precautions necessary when maintanence work is being carried out sketch s simplified circuit of a reverse power relay a)explain how the reverse power relay

b)explain why the there is a time delay incorporated before the reverse power operates when troubleshooting most electronic circuits loading effect can be minimized by using a voltmeter with an a)input impedence much greater than the impedance across which the voltage is being measured b)input impedence much less thean the impedance across which the voltage is being measured c)sensitivity of less than 1000ohms/volt d)sensitivity of more then 1000ohms/volts q.no 5232 which of the following conditions will occur if the solenoid coil burns out on a cargo winch with an electrical brake

a)the brake will be set by the spring force b)the motor will overspeed and burn up c)the suspended from the cargo boom will fail d)nothing will happen the winch will continue to operate as usual q.no.5593 which of the listed battery charging circuits is used to maintain the wet;cell lead acid storage battery in a fully charged state during long periodsof disuse a)normal charging circuits b)quick charging circuits c)trickle charging circuits d)high ampere charging circuits q.no.5594 a ground can be defined as an electrical connections between the wiring of a motor and its a)shunt field b)circuit breaker

c)metal framework d)interpole q.no.5949 external shunts are sometimes used with ammeters to a)increase meter sensitivity b)permit shunts with larger resistances to be utilized c)prevent damage to the meter movement from heat generated by the shunt d)enable the construction of a compact meter with a virtulally unlimited range q.no.5950 the output voltage of a 44o volts 60 hertz ac generator is controlled by the a)primer mover speed b)exciter output voltage c)load on the alternator d)numberof the poles q.no.5237 any electric motor can be constructed to be a)short proof

b)ground proof c)explosion proof d)overload proof. Briefly justify your answer q.no; 5238 7. which of the following statements represents the main difference between a relay and a contactor? a) contactors control current and relays control voltage b) a related series connected and a contactor is parallel connected c) contactors can handle heavier loads than relays d)contactors are made from silver and relays are made from copper q.no 5595 8. which of the following statements is true concering a polyphase synchorous propulsion motor?

a) the motor is started as an induction motor b)resistance is gradually added to the motor circuit c) the starting current held below the rated current d) the field cinding is energized for starting purpose only q.no 5596 9. a 250v 50hz alternator supplies current to a circuit having a resistance of 30ohms and an impedance of 50ohms.calculate the inductance of the circuit a)the frequency b) the power factor 10. draw a simplified diagram of a hightension magnet ignition system such as might be used of a lifeboat engine. Explain the working principle Mmd question paper 1(marine engineering practice)

1. Afew values on the valve chest of a bilge pump on the suction side need urgent repair/renewal. Write a letter to the owner asking fo spares. Clearly 2. 2. Suggest some means of aligning a pump and its drive motor which are mounted on it common case base and joined by a flexible coupling. 3. 3. A boiler wared feed pump which used to run very smoothly gradually starts to vibrate and make noise. Excepting for a small variation in ampere load of the 4. 4. A fresh water cooler for the auxiliary engine is stripped open during overhaul for survey purposes state out of alist of components parts of areas which you 5. 5. A lubricating oilpurifier vibrates moderately when

just about to stop your inspection of the drive mechanism bowl etc reveals nothing unususl suggest 6. In machine shop practice a thread gauge is used for checking 7. A)needle and threads B)screw threads C)screw pitch D)thread cutting tools Briefly justify your answer Which of the fittings listed below should be the used for the joining of pipes in the pipeline installations for a drinking water system in the accomdation of a a A)universal coupling b)pipe jointing union c)instanteous coupling d) reducing nipple which of the listed conditions can lead to cavitation in centrifugal pump?

a)Vapor pockets formed in the suction flow stream b)rough casing volute surfaces c)worn wearing rings d)heavily fluid in the flow streams the process of removing moisture from air is known as q.no 2544 a)humidification b)dehumidification c)caporization d)evaporation a centrifugal bilge pump requires priming q.no 2621 a)primarily ro lubricate the shaft seals b)due to the inability of this type of pump of lift water to cover the suction of the impeller c)to initially unload the pump by having it s pressure equal to discharge pressure

d)in order to overcome the potential energy of water in the discharge line question paper 2 q.no 2470 write a letter to company management representative explaining how you rectified a typical main sea water pump low discharge pressure problem given sketch and describe a main sea water low level sea suction filter complete with fittings given an outline sketch of a low pressure service air system used for pneumatic control valve operation write short notes on the following a)need for drain plugs on main air receives b)burning discs on air compressor

c)fitting on receivers inship board domestic Freon circuits d)insulation on floors in front of the main switch board which of the following conditions should be used to support the need to change the lube oil when has been an increase in the neutralization number? a)a decrease in the viscosity of the oil b)a increase in the viscosity of the oil c)a change in the clous point d)a change in the floc point the dew point of air is reached when the wet bulb temperatute is a)twice the dry bulb temperature b)10f above the dry bulb temperature c)5f above the dry bulb temperature

d)aequal to the dry bulb temperature the purpose of bilge keels is to

(c) composition of gaseous exhaust emission from large 2 stroke slow speed marine diesel Engine 4.state six primary requirement you would look for in a modern marine diesel engine for main Propulsion.The main engine is of a large 2 stroke slow speed type and your requirements should be general and not restricted to ship specifics 5 while any auxiliary boiler is operating at design load which of the following actions will occur if the Automatic combustion control system defects a stream pressure drop?

(A) More burner will be lighted on (B) The register a will open fully (C) The fuel oil valve and air damper will open wider (D) Steam flow will be automatically regulated Briefly your answer Q.NO1489 6 A spring loaded unit type fuel injector is used on diesel engine cylinder head to (A)meter the fuel (B)the produce the proper fuel oil pressure (c)automize the fuel (d)all of the above Briefly justify your answer Q.NO 133 7 lubricating system for diesel engines are usually designed to initially provide lube oil to the engine

(a)camshaft bearings (b)main bearings (c)crosshead bearings (d)thrust bearings Briefly justify your answer Q.NO 891 8if the valve tappets in a diesel engine are set greater clearances than those specified by the engine manufacture those valves will.. (a)open late and close early (b)open late and close late (c)fail to open when the engine is clod (d)fail to open at no mal operating temperature Briefly justify your answer

arrangement and installation should preclude The possibility of (a)free entry of air to the crankcase (b)water entering the crankcase will engine washdowns are being performed (c)excessive oil leakage during periods of increased blowy (d)subcocling internal components Briefly justify your answer

Q.NO 265

10 The primary function of a flame safeguard system are used on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler is to prevent (a) accidental dry firing and over pressure (b) Uncontrolled fires in the furnace

Q.NO 1426

9 Regarding a diesel engine crankcase the general

(c)

Explosion in the boiler furnace (d) Overheating of the pressure parts Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.1467 MMD QUESTION PARTS 5(MARINE ENGINEERING PRACTISE) PART A

renew some broken components ,which can stick or break . 3 elaborate on any two types of welding joints used in joining of medium diameter mild steel pipes for used as sheathing and protection on electrical cables in tankers. Are the joints used any different from the practice on board for joining such pipes for other purpose such as bilge ballast fire mains etc 4 write short notes on the following (a)metal cad gaskets used for jointing (b)radiography tests on welds (c)joining heavy duty electrical cables for high rating

1 give instructions in writing to the support crew suggesting a repair procedure for a horizontally mounted pump used for ballast water whos shaft is scored in way of the impeller key way. It is presumed that there is no other stand by pump and repair imperative 2 the emergency air compressor on board your ship is not building up pressure owing to a defective discharge valve. Suggest a method/which you would overhaul such a valve and

PART B

5 an alignment punch is used to

(a)line up corresponding holes in adjacent parts (b) completely loosen up a jammed bolt (c)mark centers and lines in layout work (d)make a starting mark for a drill

Briefly justify your answer

Q.NO 2462 7 the taper produced by a leather taper attachment is determined by setting the (a) Guide(swivel )bar (b) Automatic cross feed (c) Tailstock off center (d) Compound rest angle

Briefly justify your answer.

Q.NO.1901

Q.NO 3167 8 increasing a speed of a rotary pump above its rated speed will result in which of the following condition to occur ? (a) Loss of section (b) Increased clearances (c) Decreased clearance (d) Decreased slippage Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.2414

6 which of the gasket materials and /or types listed typical used on high pressure steam flang joints? (a) Spiral wound asbestos components (b) Wire -impegrnated sheet asbestos (c) Rubber (d) Wire impegranted rubber

9 the function of lubricating oil is to (a) Maintain even distribution of bearing wear (b) Maintain a constant oil temperature (c) Maintain a pressurized fluid film between moving surfaces (d) Remove entrained water Briefly justify your answer

Q.NO.3668 10 a burner producing a block smoke in an automatic auxillary boiler would be caused by a/ an (a) In correct electrode setting (b) Defective solenoid value (c) Grounded high tension lead (d) Incorrect primary air setting Briefly justify your answer

Q.NO.1104 MMD QUESTION PAPER 3(MARINE ENGINE PRACTISE) 1 Give instructions in writing to the support crew suggesting a repair procedure for a law pressure small steam return line crack which cannot be welded 2 Elaborate an any two types of welding joints used in joining a steel plate and a aluminium plate of similar dimensions 3The fresh water heater in domestic hot water system shows poor performance suggest some measures you would initiate to received and 4write short notes on the following (a)brazing

(b)MIG and TIG welding (c)cementing used as fillers 5a fluctuating and unsteady vacuum in an evaporator may be caused by (a)wet steam entering the air ejector nozzie (b)pin hole leaks in the evaporator nests (d)high waters levels in the last effect Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.3231 6 If a radial position hydraulic fails to deliver rated fluid ,volume the case can be (a) centeminated fluid (b) pitted thrust rings (c) worn pintle bearing (d) obstructed section passages briefly justify your answer

Q.NO.3517 7 pip threads are cut with a taper to (a)prevent over tightening the joint (b)provide a leak proof fit (c)permit easy joint disassembly (d)produce a fine even thread briefly justify your answer Q.NO.1902 8 when liquid reaches the compressor of a refrigeration system through the section line the condition is called (a)flooding back (b)super heating (c)over flowing (d)recycling briefly justify your answer

Q.NO.1906 9 the ability of a metal to be hammered or rolled out is called its (a)ductlity (b)elasticity (c)malleability (d)flexibility briefly justify your answer

Q.NO.2784

10 the factors that determine the service life of packing in a pump will include which of the following condition? (a) Type of pump (b) Condition of the shaft (c) Length of time in use (d) All of the above

2) Sketch a two way cock, commonly used to drain tanks and state a) its use on board ship b) the materials used in the cock 3) make an outline sketch of the H.F.O setting tank heating system and briefly explain the

system. Sketch only the low pressure steam inlet up to the condensate. 4) write short notes on the following: a) need to ensure that F.O service tanks are not heated beyond a certain temperature. b) importance of the level of the FW expansion tank for jacket cooling of main engine as an indication of impeding trouble. c) need to check remote stop of all FO installation regularly. d) necessity for a proper check of all engine room parameters before taking over the watch. 5) in any compressed air system a safety device should be placed where air can be trapped between a) any two valves which can be closed manually b) a non return valve and screw down valve

c) a non return valve and a U bend of pipe line d) any valve and a nozzle state which of the option are true and why 6) some of the following are preferred refrigerants of the future a) carbon dioxide b) Freon R11 c) ammonia d) Freon R 502 e) bromine f) argon state in brief the correct option giving reason why the others are ruled out

7) in air-conditioning of a ship a comfort zone constitutes a) low humidity, low room temperature

b) low humidity, moderate temperature c) high humidity, moderate temperature d) very low temperature, moderate humidity 8) the passenger space of a passenger ship is protected against major fires by a a) high expansion foam system b) high density co2 system c) by a mixture of fire detection, fire retardant, A-1 class bulk head, fire doors, fire insulation and elaborate halon system d) high pressure steam system suggest if any of the above option is true and if not what would you propose as a correct combination 9) sand impregnated with chemicals is kept in metal containers with a shovel, in the room for the following purposes

a) to cover small oil spills b) to use along with cement for doing repair jobs c) for making the floor anti-skid by giving more friction b) for use as ginding paste in case of emergency state if any of the above points are true or false suggest the correct answer giving adequate justification 10) the auxillary boiler of a ship periodically needs feed water and rate of feed was found to be gradually increasing everyday without an increase in demand MMD QUESTION PAPER 1 (NAVAL ARCHITECTURE) 1) The half ordinates of a wall sided bottom tank measured at intervals of 3m are 9.8, 6.5, 4.5, and 2.0 meters

The tank is divided longitudinally at centerline. Calculate a) Area of tank on one side b) Position of the centroid from center line 2) Define the term a) Breadth moulded b) Depth moulded c) Draught a ship has a displacement In displacement in SW of 9000 tonnes. Its breadth is 14% of its length and 2.25 times its draught. The block co-efficient of 0.75 determine the 3) A ship of 26800 tonnes of displacement has a daily fuel consumption of 105 tonnes, including 9 tonnes for the domestic load, when steaming at 16 knots a) The fuel saved on voyage of 5 days steaming at half speed

b) The daily fuel consumption at 15 knots for a similar ship whose displacement is 63800 tonnes. 4) A propeller havig a diameter of 5.5m and a pitch ratio of 0.95 works in an apparent slip of 8% . assuming a prcude wak e fraction of 0.36 determine (a) The rpm of the propeller (b) The true slip at a chip speed of 14 knots, given Froude wake fraction here v = ship speed Va = speed of advance 5) A ship at a displacement of 10,000 tonne, has a KM of 6.7m. When floating at this displacement a weight of 10 tonne at a Kg of 6.7m. when floating at this determine (a) The distance through which the weight was moved

(b) The KG of the ship after 10 tonne has been removed 6) A vessel 120m long has a displacement of 11,400 tonne. If the wetted surface area is given by 2.58 x Displacement of the ship (tonnes) x Length (m), det ermine the power to overcome the fractional resistance of the ship at 12 knots The co-efficient of frictional resistance f = 1.421 The speed index n=1.825 Section B 7) With reference to a pump room in an oil tanker explain (a) Arrangement for mechanical ventilation (b) How is the event of fire vent system is isolated

8) Explain with the aid of the sketches the meaning of the following terms as applied to ships (a) Rise of floor (b) Water tight bulkhead (c) Free board (d) Length between perpendiculars (e)Summer board line 9) Sketch and describe the methods of attachment of the following paying particular attention to the locking arrangements.

MMD QUESTION PAPER2 (NAVAL ARCHITECTURE) 1) A)Sketch a ships stern frame, showing how is it connected to the ships structure and detailing the special ships plates to which it is attached

B) State the material used to manufacture the stern frame C) Explain why corrosion is a problem and how it is prevented 2) A) describe with sketch how an aluminum superstructure is attached to the steel deck. Indicate All material used. B) Discuss the use of aluminum for ship construction, explaining its advantage and disadvantages. 3) A) buoy is to be used to float a mooring chain. The buoy is cylindrical, of length 4m, radius 0.75m And is to float half submerged. The mooring chain is made of a) The mass of the buoy b) The thickness of the plate which should be used to construct the

buoy if the buoy is to be made of metal of RD 7.5. 4) A vessel with a summer load dreaft of 10m is floating at a draft of 9.8m in water density 1.010 tonnes /m3 in a summer zone. The vessel has TPC of 20. 5) A box shaped vessel has length 120m breadth 18m, depth 12m is floating at draft 8min fresh water with KG 7.278m. a weight of 432 tonnes is loaded on 6) according to solas a bulkhead capable of preventing a smoke and flame for one hour would be classified as an a) A-60 b) B-60 c) C-60 d) D-60 7) The average of the observed drafts is known as

a) Mean draft b) True mean draft c) Mean of the calculated drafts d) Draft at the center of floatation 8) When flooding occurs in a damaged vessel reserve buoyancy a) Decreases b) remains same c) Increases d) Shifts to the low side 9) The vertical distance between G and M of a vessel is used as measure of a) Stability at all angles of inclination b) Initial stability c) Stability at all angles less than the limit of positive stability d) Stability at angles less than the down flooding angle

10) Reserve buoyancy is the a) Unoccupied space below the waterline b) Volume of intact space above the waterline c) Excess of the buoyancy in salt and fresh water

MMD QUESTION PAPER 2 (NAVAL ARCHITECTURE) 1) A vessel as the following dimension length 120.0m block coefficient 0.78 KB 3.2m ordinates of the water plane at the 6.0m draft are station ordinate (m) If the vessel is floating on an even keel at a draft 0f 6.0m. Calculate the vessels KM. 2) A vessel about to complete loading in a summer zone is expected to enter a

winter zone after steaming from a loading port for 10 days. On passage fuel summer load draft 9.475m, FWA 203mm, TPC 30 tonnes/cm Find a) The maximum permissible draft on completion of loading b) The amount if cargo which the vessel can load. (NOTE: a vessel passing from a summer zone to a winter zone, or from a tropical zone to summer zone, must arrive at the zone boundary at the draft) 3) A vessel has displacement 6200 tonnes KG 8.0m. distribute 9108 tonnes of cargo between spaces KG 0.59m and 11.45m, so that the vessel completes 4) A floating body has square cross section of side 1m

and KG always equal to 0.5m. find the range of relative densities over which the body will be a) Stable b) Unstable, when floating fresh water. What will be the maximum GM and at which draft does it occur. 5) A box vessel length 140m, breadth 20m, depth 14m is floating at a draft 5.8m, KG 8.00m. a midship compartment length 24m, breadth 7m, find the bilged draft and the GM in the intact and bilged condition. 6) A ship of 5000 tonnes displacement has GM = 0.5 meters. The still water period of roll is seconds. Find the new period of roll when mass of tones is 7) Reserve buoyancy is the a. unouucpied space below the waterline

b. volume of intact space above the waterline c. excess of the buoyant force over gravitational force d. difference between buoyancy in salt and fresh water Briefly justify your answer. Q.NO.3905 8. Adding the transverse free surface correction to the uncorrect height of the center of gravity of a vessel yields a.FSCT b.KG c.KGT d.GMT Briefly justify your answer. 9. the difference between the average of the forward and aft drafts is a. list

b. heel c. trim d . floatation Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.3908

10.In the external forces, adding weight to one side of a floating vessel, will cause the vessel to A .heel until the angle of loll is reached b. list until the center of buoyancy is aligned vertically with center of gravity c. trim to the side opposite TCG until all moments are equal d. decrease draft at the center of floatation 4239: According to Pollution Prevention Regulations, no person May connect or engage

in any other critical oil transfer operations unless_______ A. The designated person-incharge is present. B. That person holds a tankerman endorsements. C. That person holds a license as master , mate or engineer. D. That person holds a valid port security card. Ans: A 4240: Which of the actions listed should be taken by the engineer on watch when the general alarm is sounded continuously for 10 seconds? A. Engine room ventilation should be started. B. Main engines should be secured. C. The fire pump should be started. D. The fixed CO2 system should be activated. Ans: C

4241: Pollution Prevention Regulations specify that the person-in-charge of bunkering is responsible for the ________ A. Vessel draft B. Quantity of fuel received. C. Quality of fuel received. D. Communications with terminal operator. Ans: D 4242: According to Pollution Prevention Regulations, how much hose should you use in transferring oil in bulk? A. Twice the distance between ship and dock. B. One and one half times the distance between ship and dock. C. Not over 300 feet (91.4 m) of hose. D. Sufficient for maximum vessel movement without straining the hoses. Ans: D.

4243: The term oily mixture, as defined in the Pollution Prevention Regulations includes__________. A. Sludge. B. Oily ballast water. C. Bilge slops. D. All of the above. Ans: D. 4244: Which of the following represents the maximum percent of oxygen, by volume, required to be achieved by a ships inert gas system, prior to the commencement of crude oiltank washing? A. 0.06 B. 0.08 C. 0.1 D. 0.12 Ans: B. 4245: Each inert gas system gas main must have an automatic shut down valve at the outlet of the gas production plant. This

valve must close automatically upon_________ A. Cargo pump failure B. Blower failure C. Deck seal low water level D. Low inert gas temperature Ans: B. 4246: Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen indicators ? A. The instrument is capable of providing an immediate accurate reading of any space with no delay. B. Prolonged exposure to gases such as CO2 may affect the accuracy of the indicator. C. A cotton filter placed in the end of the sampling tube prevents damaging the instrument when exposed to strongly acidic gases. D. All of the above. Ans: B.

4247: An inert gas system incorporating a separately fired inert gas generator shall be provided with visual and audible alarms to indicate failure of the power supply to the generator, the automatic control system, and ____________ A. Cooling water flow. B. Combustion air temp too low. C. High sea water temp. D. Insufficient fuel supply. Ans: D. 4248: Which of the following liquids can ordinarily be discharged overboard without being processed through an oily water separator? A. Cargo tank ballast B. Segregated ballast C. Engine room bilges D. Cargo pump room bilges Ans: B. 4249: People should be protected from the rotating

parts of the machinery by _________ A. Vents B. Bright lights C. Reflective tape D. Guard Ans: D. 4250: The word discharge as used in Pollution Prevention Regulations applies to oil_______ A. Leaked into navigable waters B. Poured into navigable waters C. Pumped into navigable waters through a fixed piping system D. All of the above. Ans: D. 4251: Why is it important for fuel oil tanks not to be topped off when loading cold oil? A. Increased viscosity of the product needs higher

loading pressure, which increases the chance of a spill. B. Air pockets may cause the fuel to bubble out of the ullage hole. C. The chance in its specific volume when headed may cause an overflow. D. The fueling valve may become stuck closed and cause the fuel oil to spill before the valve can be opened. Ans: C. 4252: The trim of a vessel is the ______ A. Valve of the mean draft B. Degree of list C. Amount of roll D. Difference in fore and aft drafts. Ans: D. 4253: Which of the following statements is true concerning a

Halon 1301 fixed extinguishing system? A. The quantity of Halon supplied would be less than the quantity of CO2 for the same space protected. B. CO2 gas is used to propel the halon to the space on fire. C. The Halon must be agitated occasionally to ensure that it does not cake up D. All if the above. Ans: A. 4254: Regulations require that life jackets shall be ______ A. Provided for each person onboard B. Provided for all personnel on watch C. Readily accessible to persons in the engine room D. All of the above. Ans:D.

4255: The most critical time for preventing an accidental oil spill during bunkering , is when the________ A. Tanks are being topped off. B. Fuel begins to come aboard. C. Hoses are being blown down. D. Hoses are being disconnected. Ans: A. 4256: Where would you look to find out what your duties are during a fire? A. Ships articles B. Muster list C. Certificate of inspection D. Manning Certificate. Ans: B. 4257:When administering only mouth-to-mouth resusoitation,you shoud continue the victims ventilation rate at how many inflations per minute?

A. 4 B. 8 C. 12 D. 20 Ans: C. 4258:Which of the listed classes of fires should be extinguished with a water fog? A. Class A and B B. Class A and C C. Class Band C D. Class A,B,and C Ans: A. 4259:The zipper of an immersion suit should be lubricated with _____________ A. Paraffin B. Oil C. Graphite D. Vegetable oil Ans: A 4260:The blocking open or absence of fire dampers can contribute to ___________

A. The accumulation of explosive gases B. Faster cooling of the fire C. The fire spreading by way of the ventilation system D. Fixed foam systems to be ineffective Ans:C 4261:Topping lifts and runners supporting flexible cargo hoses should be made fast to the ____________ A. Capstan B. Gypsy head C. Cleats D. Manifold riser Ans: C 4262:The purpose of the vessel inclining experiment is to ____________ A. Determine the location of the metacenter B. Determine the lightweight center of gravity location C. Verify the hydrostatic data

D. Verify data in the vessels operating manual Ans:B 4263:Atificial respiration to an adult should be administered ____________ A. 4 to 3 times per minute B. 12 to 15 times per minute C. 20 to 30 times per minute D. At least 30 times per minute Ans: B 4264:Whivh of the firefighting agents listed is the least hazardous to personnel? A. Co2 B. Steam C. Water D. Carbon tetrachloride Ans: C 4265:The external flotation bladder or an immersion suit should be inflated _________ A. Before you enter the water

B. After you enter the water C. After one hour in the water D. After you notice that your suit is losing buoyancy Ans: B 4266:The principlr personnel hazard unique to Halon fire extinguishers is ________ A. Displacement of oxygen B. Skin irritation C. Inhaling topic vapours produced when exposed directly to a flame for extended periods D. Eye irritation produced immediately after discharge from cylinder Ans: C 4267:Air gap is the vertical distance between the bottom of the hull and the___________ A. Still water level B. Wave crest C. Wave crest plus the charted water depth and tidal corrections

D. Wave crest plus the charted water depth,plus tidal corrections and storm surge Ans : A 4268:which of the listed conditions could cause a dangerous reduction in oxygen in a shipboard compartment? A. Fire B. Rustingor the drying of paint C. Decomposing organic material D. All of the above conditions Ans: D 4269: Horizontal transverse motion of a vessal is known as __________ A. Pitch B. Surge C. Sway D. Heave Ans: C

4270: As aprecaution against oil spills when topping off fuel tanks, you should _________ A. Close the deck filling the valve to reduce the pumping rate B. Close all tank vents to prevent overflow C. Fill the tank to the bottom of the expantion trunk D. Notify the shore pumping station to reduce the pumping rate as tanks near full capacity Ans: D 4271: the signal emergency stations is __________ A. A 30 second on-30 second off alternating signal B. The continuous ringing of the general alarm signal C. An intermittent ringing of the general alarm for not less than 10 seconds D. Announced over PA system Ans: C

4272: When administering chest compression during CPR ,at what part of the victims body should the pressure be applied? A. Lower half of the stemum B. Tip of the stemum C. Top half of the stemum D. Left chest over the heart Ans: A 4273: Dry chemical fire extinguishers may be effectively used on which of the listed classes of fires? A. Class A only B. Class B only C. Class B and C only D. Class A and C only Ans :C 4274: When removing the cap from a sounding tube, the sound of air escaping indicates A. The tank is full B. The tank may be partially flooded C. The tank level has dropped

D. The tank is completly flooded Ans: B 4275: when the height of the metacenter has the same value as the height of the center of gravity, the metacentric height is equal to __________

aware of, before ever attempting to pump out bilges in 2.there is constant sweating on some sections of sea water pipes at pericular locations in the engine room ,, whereas the nest of the pipe is clean suggest. 3. what statutory certificates need to be carried by an Indian flagged vessel when trading internationally . Name the certificates and state the validity of each of 4. What routines are carried out an enclosed lifeboat other than those carried out on the lifeboat engine a. Are these boats certified and tested b. Are the lifeboat engines certified and tested c. Who certifies and tests the item stated in (a)&(b)

4276: If a liferaft should capsize, ____________

Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.4889 MMD QUESTION PAPER 1(SHIPS SAFETY AND ENVIRONMENTAL PRETECTION) 1 .Suggest some precautions by way of instruction, you would like a brand new engineer to be

5. Expand the following

a.SBT b.CBT c. SOLAS d. IMDG e. STCW f. SAFCON g. LL h. SOPEP i.GRT j.IBC 6. A fuel oil double bottom tank on a ship has been certified by an Explosive Inspector as being Safe For Men and Safe For Fire. This condition may change a. the ambient temperature changes b. a product leaks into the certified tank c. muck, sludge, or scale in the tank give off additional vapors d. all of the above

Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.3763

7.in the event of a galley fire on board a general cargo ship,most dry chemicals or carbondioxide portable extinguishers are automatically activated through the a. fusible ink of tritium ,gallium arsenide alloy b. stack switch with sensors c. thermostat of bimetallic type d. pyrostat with activation of pyrotechnics e. none of the above Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.4944 8. which of the following statements is true concerning a halon 1301 fixed extinguishers system? a. the quantity of halon supplied would be less than the quantity

of CO2 for the same space protected b.co2 gas is used to propel the halon to the space on fire c. the halon must be agitated occasionally to ensure that it doesnt cake up. d. all the above Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.4253 9.a ballast tank is one third full when additional ballast until it is two-thirds full.the increased amount of liquid in the tank will have the greatest a.free surface effect b.transverse stability virtual rise in the center of gravity d.value of the moment to trim one centimeter(MTC) Briefly justify your answer

10.fuel oil tank vents are fitted with a corrosion resistant wire mesh screen to a.prevent dirt from entering the tank b.dissipate fumes leaving the vent c.prevent flames from entering the tank d.prevent accidental overflow Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.4743 MMD QEUSTION PAPER 2(SHIPSS SAFETY AND ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION) 1.which of the listed devices is requirde to be located on the discharge side of the pump in afire main system? a) pressure guage b) strainer c)reduction valve d)international shore connection

Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.4293 2.artificial respiration is necessary in the cases of a)drowning b)electrocution c)poisioning d)all of the above Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.4294 3.low velocity fog extinguishes a fire by a)smothering and washing out b)smothering and cooling c)cooling and washing out d)none of the above Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.4783 4.in small angle stability,when external forces exist,the bouyant force is assumed to act vertically upwards through the centre of bouyancy and through the

a)centre of gravity b)centre of floatation c)meta center d)metacentric height e)fire control centre Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.4784 5.an oceangoing ship of 350 gross tons contracted for in january 1976,and not equipped with an oily water seperator,all bilge slops may be retained a)onboard in the ships bilges b)in the forward peak tank c)in the oil purifier drain tank d)in a cofferdam Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.3805 6.carbondioxide cykinders must be recharged when the cylinder charge weight is less than what of the stamped full weight charge?

a)80% b)85% c)90% d)95% Briefly justify your answer 7.repairing damage to the hull of the ship at or above the waterline reduces the threat of a)free surface effects b)capsizing the vessels c)continued progressive flooding

c)analysing jobs for safer methods d)doing all the above Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.4306 9.repair of vital machinery and services related to an emergency on a ship should be accomplished(in sequence) a)after control of fire,flooding and structural repairs b)immediately before emergencyis under control c)after control of fire,but before control of flooding d)after stability is restored

d)wind overturning moments Briefly justify your answer 8.If accidents are considered as an unexpected contact,you will be able to perform a better job by observing which of the following practices? a)looking for unsafe practices b)inspecting the unsafe conditions

Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.3818 10.in a crude oil washing system, to reduces the possibilities of an explosive zone to be created each cargo tank shall be fitted with a sufficient number of

a)5% for vertical areas b)10% for vertical areas c)15% for vertical areas d) 20% for vertical areas Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.4798 MMD QUESTION PAPER 3(SHIPS SAFETY AND ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION) 1.A fire extinguising product produced by first mixing a foam concentrate with water to produce a foam solution then mixing the foam solution with water is a)light water b)halon 1301 c)chemical foam d)mechanical foam Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.3798 2.co2 cylinders equipped with pressure actuated discharge

heads will discharge automatically when_____________ a)the dischage valve is open b)the control box glass is broken c)pressure from the control cylinders is initially detected d)the control cylinders have been completely discharged Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.4287 3.progressive slow flooding with transverse bulkheads and water tight compartments is controlled by securing water tight boundaries_____________ 8. in a radial piston pump, reversal and control of fluid flow are accomplished by moving Central valve Radial plunger Floating ring Cylinder body

Briefly justify your answer 9.which of the following actions should be taken when an auxiliary boiler is in operation? Clean all electrical connections Lift the relieve valves by hand Inspect and clean all solenoid valves Inspect for oil and water leaks Briefly justify your answer 10. small amounts of moisture are necessary to trigger the growth of microbiological organisms found in some marine fuels. Some sources of water contamination are Tank surface leakage humidity and condensation improper tank washing procedures all of the above briefly justify your answer

MMD QUESTION PAPER 6 (MARINE ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE GENERAL) 1.write a letter to the company management representative, how you rectified a faulty main air compressor lubricating problem 2.sketch and describe a low pressure fuel oil filter of any make, known to you 3.give an outline of an auxiliary engine lube oil system, showing the safety, devices in the system. 4.write short notes on the following Bilge suction strainers Air line filter The engine room telegraph Water tight doors 5.the pressure produced within the oil wedge of a rotating journal is

The same as the pressure in the lubricating system Less than the pressure in the lubricating system Greater than the pressure in the lubricating system Highest at the groove location Briefly justify your answer 6. which of the main shaft segment listed below, that are connected with the main engine, are coupled to the tail shaft flange Thrust shaft Stern tube shaft Intermediate shaft Crank shaft Briefly justify your answer 7.piping cross sections over 30 cm in diameter are sized by the Inside diameter Wall thickness

Outside diameter threaded diameter briefly justify your answer 8. the ambient heat in an engine room which is identified by only a change in temperature is known as Sensible heat latent heat total heat residual heat briefly justify your answer 9.the usual number of single acting pistons used in a variable stroke axial piston pump used in steering gears is 3 or 5 5 or 7 7 or 9 9 or 11 Briefly justify your answer

10. heavy soot accumulations in an auxiliary boiler could be caused by Water in the fuel Excessive cycling high fuel oil pressure improper burner maintenance. Briefly justify your answer. MMD QUESTION PAPER 7(MARINE ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE GENERAL) 1. Write a note to the assistant watch keeping engineer officer telling him to be cautious of a possibly false bilge alarm that may be a warning of some major. 2. Sketch and describe any non return type ship side discharge valve state the components of the valve and the material it is made of

3. Sketch any type of fuel oil used in the engine room and describe the principles on which it operates. With special emphasis on the measuring variables. 4. Write short notes on the following Unregulated emission of engine exhaust Sources of generation of mechanical noise in the engine room Low pressure cut outs on domestic refrigeration systems 5. One characteristic of a lubricating oil adversely affecting the results of centrifuging is High TBN value Low oil floo point Low oil demulsibility Low oil neutralization number

Briefly justify your answer

6. Which of the devices listed prevents water from entering a ships hull via the propulsion shaft Stern tube packing or mechanical seal deflector ring and drain spring bearings oiler rings briefly justify your answer 7. With reference to a vessels structural integrity, the most significant characteristic of a cryogenic liquid is its Capability of causing brittle fractures highly corrosive action on mild steel vapour cloud which reacts violently with salt water toxicity at atmospheric pressure briefly justify your answer. 8. The heat required to change a substance from a solid to a liquid state at its

freezing temperature is known as the latent heat of Fusion Vapourization Condensation Sublimation Briefly justify your answer 9. Which of the following problems occurring in a hydraulic system can be caused by the use of an oil having known viscosity lower than specified Seal deterioration fast response and hunting increased power consumption oil film breakdown briefly justify your answer 10. The only means of removing the latent heat of condensation from a refrigerant in the normal refrigeration cycle is by Passing it through the expansion valve condensing refrigerant in the system condenser

passing the gaseous refrigerant through the heat exchanger on the suction side of the compressor maintaining a high pressure on the system receiver MMD QUESTION PAPER 8 (MARINE ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE GENERAL) 1. Explain the overhaul procedure for any type of non return globe valve in the engine room give sketches to support your statement. 2. Write short notes on the following; Testing of fuel valves maintenance of steam traps over hauling of rain cocks give sketches to illustrate your answer

3. If a centrifugal pump is being driven by a steam turbine and the discharge valve closed off the pump will Slow down Cooler Speed up by 5% until the discharge valve is reopened no longer continue to internally convert the resultant energy imparted to the pump briefly justify your answer 4. The process of grinding or shredding sewage into smaller particles is known as Detention Communution Bulking Skimming briefly justify your answer 5. The sudden reduction of pressure occurring

within the crankcase of refrigeration compressor during starting causes the Sudden evaporation of wax crystals in the lubricant sudden evaporation of entrapped air in the lubricant release of refrigerant from the oil refrigerant mixture release of dissolved lubricant from the refrigerant briefly justify your answer 6. If an operating bilge pump is developing good vacuum, but is unable to discharge any water, which of the following problems is the most probable cause? The wearing rings are excessively worn

the suction strainer is clogged the discharge valve is clogged the shaft is worn briefly justify your answer 7. Which of the additives listed will maintain the suspension of fine residue particles in the lube oil? Flood point suppressant dispersant all of the above briefly justify your answer 8. The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the Rolling member size Inner race cone widthss Page 309 b) dissipate opening contact arcs c) delay current build up in holding coil

d) protect the motor windings from momentary starting current overload Ans.a 5657 most three phase induction motors used for diving engine room auxillaries are started by a)resistor starters b)across the line starters c) impedence starters d) reactor starters Ans.b 5658 when electrical cabels penetrate water light bulck heads a)they should be grounded on either side of the bulck heads b)they must be bent to a radius of six diameters c) a water light stuffing tubes capable of accepting packing should be employed

d) they should be secured by clamp Ans.c 5659 a variable shunt connected across the series field couls of DC compound wound generator, to permit adjustements of the degree of cpmpounding is called a a)divider b) diverter c) converter d) rhestot Ans.b 5660 across the line starters used with AC motors to provide a) reduced starting current b) regulated starting current c) high starting torque d)controlled starting acceleration Ans.c

5661 The electrician reporting to you that has obtained low (but above 1 mega ohm) megger reading on the windings of a deck winch motor . upon checking the records of the motor ,you find the reading have consistently been at the level of last six years e) Motor be replaced f) Windings be dried g) Windings be cleaned h) Readings are acceptable Ans d 5662 In a face plate type motor starter starting arm held in the OFF position by a/an e) Cotter pen f) Magnet g) Electrical circuit h) Strong spring Ans.d 5663 which of following components are used convert alternating current produced in

generator windings to direct current ? e) Armature and equalizer f) Commulator and brushes g) Rotor and interpoles h) Field and exciter Ans.b 5664 in electronic circuitry ,the observation PCB commonly means e) Pulse cooled binary f) Printed circuit board g) Poly coated bride h) Personal computer bits Ans.b 5665 The final step in testing a circuit for a ground involves the use of a megaohmmeter , A grounded switch or cable will be indicated by a megaohmmeter reading of e) Zero f) Infinity g) Steady in ahing range h) Unsteady in the low range

Ans.a 5666 which of the following statement is true concerning the cleaning if electrical contacts? e) Compressed air should be used to blow out metallic dust f) Magnetic brushes should be used to remove metallic dust g) The contact surfaces shouid be greased to increase resistance. h) Delicate parts should be cleaned with a brush and approved safely solvent Ans .d 5667 a nickel cadmium battery receiving a normal charge and gases freely the charging current should be e) Be increased f) Be decresed g) Be cut off and the battery allowed to cool h) Remain the same

Ans.d 5668 Reduced motor specified to a motor during the starting period e) Result in decreased acceleration time only f) Lower the starting current and increase accelerating time only g) Cause a greater starting torque h) Increase the starting current and pump capacity Ans.b 5669 A saturable core reactor operate on the principle of controlling load windings inductance by varying the core e) Dielectric f) Permeability g) Reactance h) Inductance Ans.b

5670 operational amplifiers used primarily in analog circuits ,are characterized by e) High input impedance ,high gain and low output impedance f) High input impedance ,high gain and high output impedance g) Low input impedance ,low gain and high output impedance h) Low input impedance, high gain and low output impedance Ans.a 5671 The total resistance of a parallel circuit is always e) Larger than the greater branch resistance f) Smaller than the lowest branch resistance g) Equal to the sum of the individual branch resistance h) One half the individual branch resistance

Ans.b 5672 which of the following express the relationship of the input and output in a full wave rectifier? e) The output frequency is same as the input frequency f) The output frequency is one half the input frequency g) The output frequency is twice the input frequency h) The output frequency is four times the input frequency Ans.c 5673 A Deadfront switchboard is one e) Without switches on it f) With insulated switches and no exposed terminals g) Without circuit breakers h) Without safety hand rails and nor rubber mats Ans.b

5674 Mercury filled thermometers should never be used to determine the temperature of the battery electrolyte because accidental breakage of the thermometer can cause e) Sever sparking and explosions f) Rapid oxidation of battery plates g) Contamination of the electrolyte h) Corrosion of the battery terminals Ans.a 5675the purpose of the main switch board circuit breakers reverse power trip is to e) Pevent main circuit overload f) Protect the circuit breakers blow out coils g) Prevent alternator motorization h) Prevent low voltage tip out

Ans.c 5676a temperature instrumentation system for an engine room console consist of a resistance temperature detector(RTD),a measuring bridge circuit a meter (R alarm circuit).which of the following statement is true concerning bridge circuit e) The input voltage varies in a linear fashion with temperature f) The voltage across the centre of the resistance circuit is always constant g) The resistance circuit is said to be balanced when its output voltage is zero h) The input voltage of th resistance bridge is the constant temperature signal Ans.c 5677modem DC generator are fitted with commutating poles to

e) Prevent motorizing f) Reduce sparking g) Reduce the load to the main poles h) Reduce spring pressure on the brushes Ans.b 5678the purpose of magnetic relay is to e) Open a circuit only in the event of overload f) remotely open and close contacts g) provide over current protection during starting h) relay voltage at increased power Ans.b 5679a semiconductor is a material. e) Conductivity higher than a normal conductor f) Conductivity higher than a normal insulator g) High conductivity at low temperatures

h) Low conductivity at high temperatures Ans.b 5680capacitor can be tested using a megohmmeter or an ohm meter. If the meter is connected to the shorted capacitor the meter pointer should e) Immediately swing to the maximum resistance value for the capacitor f) First swing quickly to then gradually moves up the scale as the capacito charges g) Immediately deflect and remains at zero h) Immediately swing to the high reading and the gradually decreases Ans.c 5681when mixing electrolyte for lead acid storagebattery,you should pour th

e) Distilled water into acid in a zinc plated container. f) Distilled water into acid in a glass container g) Acid into distilled water into zinc plated container h) Acid into distilled water into glass container Ans.b 5682to carry out an insulation resistance test,one terminal of the megohmmeter should be connected the winding, with other terminal being connected to the e) Power supply f) Variable resistor g) Frame of the machine h) Armature Ans.c 5683the charge of the lead acid battery can be restored by e) Passing an alternating electric current through the coil

f) Passing a direct electric current through the coil g) Adding acid to the electrolyte h) All the above Ans.b 5684the resistance of the conductor varies e) Directly as its length and inversely as its cross sectional area f) Inversely as its length and directly as its cross sectional area g) Directly as its length and directly as its cross sectional area h) Inversely as its length and inversely as its cross sectional area Ans.a 5685in order to check the performance of the transisitor removed from its circuit by instrument to be used by a/an

e) Voltmeter or transistor resistance f) Impedance meter g) Ohmmeter or transistor tester h) Sensitive potentiometer

H. The current transformers are shorted Ans: A 5688 which of the following actions can be carried out in order to prevent thermal runway in transistor? e) Increase the current through the collector base junction f) Install a heat sink g) Shift the Q point to increase collector current h) Increase the potential difference between the emitter and the base Ans: B 5689 insufficient brush pressure on a DC motor may cause _________ e) Generator overload f) Excess residual magnetism g) Water vapor absorption h) Sparking of the brushes Ans: D

Ans : C 5686 to test the state of charge of a nickel- cadmium battery, you should use a/an_____ E. Ammeter F. Voltmeter G. Hydrometer H. Potentiometer Ans : B 5687 on a switchboard, if all three ground detection lamps remain burning at half intensity when the test button is depressed, which of the listed conditions is indicated? E. No grounds exist F. All three phases are grounded G. The test switch is grounded

5690 burning of com=ntroller contacts, when opening is prevented by __________e) Coating the contact surfaces lightly with petroleum jelly f) Magnetic blowout coils g) An overvoltage release h) An over current release Ans: B 5691 which of the electrical properties listed will always be the same for each component in a parallel circuit? b) Impedance 5692 which of the listed instruments can be best used to locate a grounded field coil in a synchronous motor? b) Frequency meter

a)A rectangular double bottom tank 12m*10m is full of heavy oil. specific gravity of H.O=0.991. calculate load of oil above tank top if the load due to H.O pressure on tank top is 9.6MN b)a vertical bulk head 9m wide and has sea water on one side only to a depth of 6m. calculate the pressure in KN/M2 at the bottom of the bulk head and the load on the bulk head 3)a ship displaces 12000 tonne, its centre of gravity is 6.50m above the keel and its centre of gravity of buoyancy is 3.60m above the keel.if second moment of area of water plane about the centerline is 42.5*10 *10*10 m*m*m*m. find metacentre height

Section-1 1)Attempt any two questions 2)attempt any two questions a)an inclination experiment was carried out an ashore of 3000

tonne displacement .a mass of 10 tonne was moved 14m across the deck causing a pendulum 8.5 long to deflect 110mm.the transerve metacentre was 7.15 above the keel.calculate the metacentric height and the height of centre of gravity above the keel b)a ship was a wetted surface area of 3200m*m. calculate the power requiredto overcome functional resistance at 17 knot if n=1.825,and f=0.424 c)the power required to drive a ship at a given sprrd was 3400 kwatt and the pressure on the thrust 19.5bar.calculate the new thrust pressure If the speed is reduced by 12% and new power is 2900 kwatt

b)define-admiralty co-efficient and fuel co-efficient c)derive a formula for propeller pitchfor radius R and angle of pitch 0.if radius is 2.5m and pitch angle 22.5 degree calculate pitch of propeller d)define(i)real ship (ii)appent ship (iii)wake e)a ships propeller has a pitch of 5.1m. after 24 hrs of steaming at 91 rev/min. it was found that the vessel has actually moved 331km . find the percentage slip f)a ship traveler 900km at a speed of 12.5 knot and burns 150 tonnes of fuel over the voyage .estimATE THE DISTANCE THE SHIP COULD TRAVEL ATA SPEED 13.5KNOT on 250 tonnes of fuel

3)attempt any four questions a)derive a formula for fuel consumption of a ship using displacement and speed

Section-2 1) Attempt any two questions

a)Define-breadth moulded ; free board ; chamber b)what is the difference between light weight dead weight and displacement . c)why mild steel is the most commonly used material of ship construction

a)classify different types of merchant vessels and briefly describe construction features b)where you will find web frames and why? c)write a short note-double bottom tanks d)what is the difference between (i) balance (ii) unbalance (iii) semi-balance rudder e)define-propeller drop. How it is measured,what is the effect if it exceeds limit value f)why rudder Is made hollow.how you will know at sea if rudder is hoded OPERATION&MAINTAINANCE AND MAIN AUXILSRY SECTION-1 1)Attempt any two questions

2)attempt any two questions a)why bulbous bow is fitted on hull of some ships. How it effectsships propulsion b)draw a transverse cross section of a bulk carrier, showing all the tanks and duct keel c) sketch and describe different types of weld joints,what are expected defects in weld joints

3)Attempt any four questions

a)sketch and describe a reciproctory p/p capable of continuous deliveri

without fluctustion of didchsrge pressure . b)what is net positive suction need in centrifugal pump what role it plays in perstion of the centrifugal pump, why does it change . c)Sketch and describe a centrifugal pump, where in laternring fitted, what is the purpose of fitting wear ring. 2) Attempt any two questions a) Draw simple sketch of engine room bilge piping system, what are the safely devices fitted on the system . b)what are the advantages and disadvantages of smoke and water tube boilers : Describe procedure for boiler blow down . c) why it is necessary to add chemicals in boiler water 3)Attempt any four questions .

a) write a short note on (i) follow up (ii)non follow up (iii)emergency steering b)what are the expected working faults in the Boiler gauge glass , explain in detail . c) why boiler producing super heater system , the need is always there for saturated stream . How it is achieved . d)with simple sketch describe a variable delivery pump used in steering operation e)Describe the major difference between purifier and clarifier , How to convert purifier to clarifier. f) sketch and describe a double pass shell and tube type heat exchanger used on board ship . What are the Safties fitted.

SECTION II 1) Attempt any two questions . a) Why ship is dry docked. What is the interval of dry docking.what inspection you will carry out in dry dock . b) Vacuum evaporator on board ship failed to produce design quantity of fresh water , specify reasons and how you will rectify them . c) What is the importance of air bubbling in biological, sewage plant , if the attach air compressorb fails what immediate action you will take . 2) Attempt any two questions a) describe the procedure to start a cold boiler to raise the steem to working pressure .

b) As an engineer what will be your action on grounding on a ship . on refloting what checks will you carry out . c) On ship where is emergency fire p/p is installed , what are the different methords of keeping at self primed 3)Attempt any four questions . a) What action you will take if intermediate shaft bearing running hot b) Where and why hydraulic accumulators are fitted on the hydraulic circuit . c)If bilge pump fails to discharge , how will you diagnose the fault and correct it . d) Boiler gauge glass showing no water - what is your immediate action, justify.

e)rubber is stuck up at 5 stb . what is your immediate action justify action . f) On reciprocating air compressor , if during over hauling, you are running short of original cyllender head gasket. What action you will take , and wthat precaution you will take before starting compressor .

consideration by top management like ship owners or ship managers, characters etc., and to write technical letters to external organizations like administration, class, engine manufactures etc. Skills in writing technical letters are important for Chief Engineers since they are away at sea remote from the central organization of the company. The important of this aspect of the work of the marine engineer officer is recognized within the Certificate of Competency examinations. A common question in the Management Level Engineering Knowledge examination paper requires a report to be written, usually from the Chief Engineer Officer to Head Office, on a selected technical topic. At Operations Level the engineers are more likely to be directly concerned with on ship management and are therefore

REPORT WRITING There is an increasing need for marine engineers to provide reports for

examined for skills for writing Onboard instruction for juniors and crew members, on topics related to safe practices. Students find difficulty in writing mock letters reports/instructions. Through no model answer is possible, however some instructions and guideline s have been given below for the help of the students. English Usage: 1. The student is advised to collect his thoughts and make a skeleton plan on a rough sheet by asking: what am I trying to say, what words will express it can I put it clearly and briefly? 2. In the rough plan all the thoughts collected should have sequence. The body of the letter will normally consist of three parts which are:

(a) What has been the problem, details of the same and if required the events may be presented in chronological order. (b) The details of the action taken by ship, giving technical details, again if deemed fit, in chronological order. Technical details however need not be very comprehensive. (c) At the end the writer should give the summary or conclusion or future advice whichever will be relevant for the report. 3. While communicating on expert to expert basis, the writer can include technical wording and information providing this is not overdone. 4. The shape of a letter is important. A clear

5.

6.

7.

8.

opening sentence, or short paragraph, is preferable to catch the immediate interest of the reader and to indicate what is to follow. Write neatly. Do not scratch. Sentences should be short and well punctuated with compact paragraphs relating the main points. Simple words should be used in place of more complicated words or phrases. Robot like reference such as it is regretted, for your information, I am further to point out, etc., should not be used. Verbosity, especially with adjectives (serious danger, unfilled vacancy), adverbs (to risk unduly, to enhance markedly) and prepositions (in terms of

about, until such time until), is to be avoided. 9. The use of buzz word, e.g. maximize, optional, oriented, etc., is inclined to be showy. 10. Worn-out expression like according to our records, acknowledge with pleasure, anticipating your advice, assuring you of, for your information are sleeping pills which defeat the aim of making every letter a warm contact the reader. 11. Do not be a goozler. A goozler is one who never uses a short word if he knows a long one of the same or similar meaning. 12. The best letter writers know the power of short words. 13. Do not repeat the same word again and again. Many writers fall in

rut and use the same words forever again and again. 14. Cliches (my grateful thanks, accept seasons greetings on this day, in this day and age), similes (as good as gold, words like a horse) and metaphors (hit for six, backed a winner will leave no stone unturned) are best avoided. 15. A positive is preferable to double negative (not unnaturally not unblack!). 16. Letter endings are best made, yours faithfully if the method of address is Dear Sir and yours sincerely to a Dear Mr. Godbole address. Subservient (your obedient servant) and somewhat ridiculous (at your convenience) remarks and not used.

17. Try to be complete. It is a sign of slovenly thinking when you have to add postscripts at the end of a letter.

Examination Requirements: (a) The examiners look for clarity of expression, good punctuation, paragraph, etc., i.e. English presentation is being assessed. (b) Technical accuracy is not so important, within reasonable limits. (c) Major details, without minor technical points, are required. (d) The experienced of the candidate in matters of management, personnel relations, work study, etc., is part of the assessment. (e)(e)The examiners attach particular importance to the following:

(f)

Machinery surveys: arranging,preparing,recordi ng (g) Safety equipments:certificates. (h) Planned maintenance:schedule,surv eys. (i) Testing:machinery space lifting gears. (j) Marpose 73/78 Annex 1& 2(Oil in navigable waters act:) (k) Instructions to staff. (l) Annex 6 of Marpose (Clean air act:) instructions to staff. (m) Fire Fighting: Instructions and training for E.R. staff. (n) Training:engine er cadet training schedules. (o) Training: Instructions to new junior officer. (p) Various Important ship procedures as laid in safety manual.

(q) Performance: Assessment of voyage records and test data. (r) Safety schedules: Day-to-Day Safety Training. (s) Bunkering: Information on bunker chits,stability during bunkering. (t) Crews: duties of staff,general purpose duties. (u) Ship Maintenance:overall maintenance criteria for whole vessel. (v) Emergency conditions:machinery failures,fire,flooding. (w) (x) Specimen Question: (y) (z) (aa) Write a letter to your companies Engineering Superintendent concerning emergency fire pump

which had difficulty taking suction during ballast passage of a ship is now rectified. The letter should state tha probable cause,action taken and suggest preventative measures. (bb) (cc) The candidate should first ask himself the following question and then answer accordingly (the same technique is applicable to most examination question in the subject): (dd) (ee) 1.What happenedwhen? (ff) 2.What was the causeeffect? (gg) 3.How was the condition dealt with? (hh) 4.How can a reoccurrence be prevented? (ii) 5.Any other relevant comment?

(jj) (kk) (ll) (mm) (nn) (oo) (pp) (qq) (rr) (ss) (tt) (uu) (vv)

Page-382 Specimen answer: MV

Indian Princess (ww) C/o Miller & Miller management Ltd. (xx) Brisbane,Queensland, (yy) AUSTRALIA. (zz) (aaa) 14th June 2001 (bbb) (ccc) Engineering Superintendent , (ddd) The East India Shipping Company Ltd.

(eee) Diamond House, Ballard Estate, (fff) MUMBAI-INDIA (ggg) (hhh) Sub:- Repairs on emergency fire pump; to eliminate problem of priming on ballast voyages (iii) (jjj) Dear Sir, (kkk) (lll) Further to my telephone conversation of 4thJune, I wish to confirm that the emergency fire pump is working at its optimum level after the necessary repairs. (mmm) (nnn) Lately it was becoming more and more difficult for the emergency fire pump to draw out the air from the suction pipe. The pumps incapability of handling large volume of air present in suction pipe

during ballast conditions became more evident in the last voyage. During the routine emergency drill on the last ballast voyage, the pump was found struggling to draw in the water from a low draft water level and decision for total overhaul was called for. (ooo) (ppp) The pump consist of main centrifugal pump having a belt driven vane type air pump. The air pump is designed to get engaged and disengaged automatically on discharge pressure signal. The worn out links of this mechanism was making it difficult for vane pump to get fully engaged and therefore produce the desired rpm for creating good suction. This called for the replacement of links with spare new ones.

(qqq) (rrr) Meanwhile the overhaul time was also utilized to renew both the wear rings of the centrifugal pump. Subsequent trials during ballast voyage showed that the air pump was getting fully engaged and attaining good rpm to make water rise from low levels also. (sss) (ttt) It may be advisable to let other sister ship know about this development so that they can take similar actions in advance. The indent for the next quarter includes the spares for fire pump, same may be supplied at the earliest. (uuu) Yours faithfully, (vvv) (www) Percy Mistry(Chief Engineer) (xxx)

(yyy) (zzz) (aaaa) (bbbb)