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This essay is a simple inference into the harmonic series and it contains a set of derived
formulae expressing some of the relationships existing between the terms of this series
under consideration, and their convergence towards one another, and in particular 1.
1
If we consider the geometric series; then clearly;
2
i
i 1
1
= 1.
2
i
i 1
1
Now consider the series; then clearly;
3
i
i 1
1
1
1 3 31 .
=
1
=
2
3 2
i
i 1
1 3
3
Similarly :
1
1
1 4 1
i 1 4
i
4
1 3 3
1 4
4
1 1
i
k 1
k 2. ……………………..(0)
i 1 k
From the above observation , we can observe that ;
1
1
1
1 1
1
+ + +…+ +…+… = j = w = (1) .
2 3 4
i i i i
i 1 i 1 i 1 i 1 k i 2 j 1 i w1
That is ;
1
1
j =
i 2 j 1 i
w
w1
……………………1
1
j = (1) ……………………2
i 2 j 1 i
(1) Which is the harmonic series is divergent (as can easily be proved with the test of
Oresme).
From this short-hand we can now set forth an expression for the general “ function ”.
1
1
Since : j =
i 2 j 1 i
w,
w1
s
1
1
j = s
= (s) .
i 2 j 1 i w1 w
That is ;
s
1
j = (s) ……………………3.
i 2 j 1 i
From where ;
1 s k
s
k k
i j =
s 1 i 2 j 1
= (1) + (2) +…+ (k) = ( z ) ……………4
s1 z 1
1 1
i
k 1
, k 2.
i 1 k
1 1 1
=1 , =
2
.
2 3
i i
i 1 i 1
j
1
i = 1 ………………………..5
j 1 i 1 3
1 1
Similarly, invoking the formula; j
i j
=
i 1
, i2 .
k
1 j
Then we can deduce that; =1
j 1 i1 4 i
k 1
xn
x2
xn 1
1
... ...
x
= 1, with n 1 . …………………..6
xn 1 xn 1 1
x2 1 x1
n 1
xn
x2
xn 1
... 1
lim ... = lim 1 = 1. That is ;
n xn 1 xn 1 1
x
x2 1 x 1 n 1
n
xn
x2
xn 1
1
lim ... ...
x
= 1 …………………6(#)
n xn 1 xn 1 1
x2 1 x 1 n 1
1 1 1
Since each term of the harmonic series; S= 1 ... ...
2 3 k
Can in some way be represented as a geometric series of the term(s) that lag(s) it, then
naturally, any term can be represented as a linear combination of the geometric series of
any number of terms after it.
As an example, we see that;
1 1 1 1 1
= 1, =
2
, then; +
2
=1.
2 3 3
i i i
i 1 i 1 i 1
1 1 1
+ + = 1.
3 4 7
i i i
i 1 i 1 i 1
From where it is possible to find more terms of the harmonic expressed as geometric
series such that their sum equals to 1.
Since the harmonic series has infinitely many terms, there are infinitely many
combinations possible such that the sum equals to 1.
There arise the natural need to find convenient a notational shorthand for these iterated
sums over infinity, which shall be the main way data shall most of the time be handled.
Since
xn
1 j
k x2
xn 1
j
1
1
i = i =…= ... ...
x
= 1.
j 1 i 1 3 k 1
j 1 i1 4
xn 1 xn 1 1
x2 1 x 1 n 1
:
i1
i2
in
: () ... ... ………………………7
i1 i2 in
The latter equation is good looking true but very inconclusive, as “n” is arbitrary.
Let a function we decide to name the “sum iterate” be defined as follows:
( ) where “k” is the cardinality of the fold of the sum of the value “ ”. .
k
i
I now define the “sum iterate”.
:
k
i
: , k if ,k=0
i
if ,k=1
i
in
in 1
1
i2
... i ...
in 1 in 1 1 i2 1 i 1
if , k n
i
i2
i 1
1
With i ... i ... being the “ ” fold sum of, “ ” with
i 1 i 1 1
i2 1 i1
the sum-iterator.
With, the sum-iterator notation, all equations from 1. to 6. can be rewritten as;
i ( 1i ) i ( 1i )..............1
1
i 2 i 2
s
1
i ( s ) ………. 3
j
j 2
1
1
which is different from . From where we
s
3 . Can be rewritten as; i s i
j 2 j j 2 j
establish the following beauty;
s
1
1
i (s) = i
s …………………. 3
j
j
j 2 j 2
p
1 p
And thus, j i s ………..4
s
s 1 j 2 s 1
1
2
And hence; = 1 …………. 5
3
i
1
1 ………… 6 m 1.
m
m 1
i
Observe that, for there to be a chance that i ( ) be finite, the parameter “ ” of the sum
k
1
lim ( ) 1
k
.
k
i
k 1
Lemma 1:
The sum iterate is convergent at the parameter “ ” with finite value if the
parameter “ ” obeys the condition;
│ │< 1 and fold cardinality is 1.
Proof of lemma:
By the definition of the sum iterate;
in
in 1
1
i2
in 1 in 1 1 i2 1 i 1
i): Suppose 1
in
i2
in 1
if =1 , then i (1) = ... 1x ...
n
in 1 in 1 1
i2 1 i1
But since the innermost sum tends to infinity as it is the equivalent of summing infinitely
many “ones”, and hence the infinite sum of infinite exponentials is naturally infinite. So
n
i
S n = a+ ar + ar 2 +…+ ar k +…
Now r S n = ar + ar 2 +…+ ar k 1 +…
Due to the fact that: 0< < 1. Then, r<1 and hence r S n < S n
Naturally, (S n - r S n ) > 0. And as such S n (1- r) = a (1- r n ) and hence
a (1 r n )
Sn = for all n > 0. As r < 1. And hence, r n << 1.
(1 r )
Taking limits as n then;
lim r = 0.
n
n
From which fact we conclude that; i
() =
1
.< . 0<│ │< 1.
Hence i
() is convergent to
1
and id finite since │ │< 1.and as such ,
0<│ │<1.
And hence, < .
1
Q.E.D
The above lemma merely proves the finiteness of the value of i () only for
0<│ │<1, > 0.and thus says nothing about the behaviour of the sum iterate over
cardinalities of folds in relation to the parameter it takes.
The study of the sum iterate in this essay shall be focused as said earlier on the terms of
the harmonic series that are less than 1.
1
m
If we go back to equation 6. above, then we observe that =1 and thus
m 1
i
m 1 1
naturally i = since it is the equivalent of summing infinitely many ones.
m 1
We can set forth the following corollary;
COROLLARY 1
If the parameter of the sum iterate is such that; 0 < < 1, then the following are true;
card ( 1 )
i) i
() = .
card ( 1 k )
ii) i
() = 1 ; k= 1
1 1 1
a , 0 < a <1; k>1 and card( - k) < card( - 1) s.t 1.
PROOF OF COROLLARY:
i)
1 1 1 1
Let S (1) = 1, , , ,..., ,... chose s.t S (1) .
2 3 4 k
By hypothesis of the corollary, 0 < < 1, and thus, we can define a subset S (1) of
S (1) s.t S (1) S (1) . And S (1) = S (1) \{1}.
Then for S (1) , we have that;
(...(
card ( 1 )
() =
i
i
card ( 1 )
)...)i1 .
i1 i
card ( 1 )
1 1 1
For S (1) , we have 2,and as such card( ) card(2)=2. i.e card( ) 2.
1
Hence, for the elementary case where card( ) = 2 we have ;
= ½.
j
1
1
So that i =
2
= 1j = .
2 j 1 i 1 2 i
j 1
1 1
Since S (1) with 2 and hence 1/2, we see that card( ) is well ordered,
card ( 1 )
and consequently ; i () = card( 1
) 2.
End.
ii)
card ( 1 1)
a) r.t.p i
() = 1.
1 1
S (1) , we have card( ) 2 and hence card( -1) 1.
Elementary demonstration;
1
For S (1) , card( ) 2.
1 1
Chose = ½ with card( ) = 2. Then, card( -1) =1.
1
1
1 card (1 ) 1 1 1
But = i = i =
card ( 1)
2 = 1.
2 2 2 2
i i
i 1
1 1
Chose =1/3 S (1) , then card( ) = 3. and naturally card( -1) =2.
1 j
1
1 card ( 2 ) 1
1
1
= i i = j =1.
card ( 1)
3 =
3 3 j 1 i 1 3 j 1 2
i
Recursively, it can be shown inductively that this is consistent with equation 6. with
the unequivocal fact;
card ( 1 1)
i
() =1.
End
card ( 1 k )
b) r.t.p i
() = a ; 0< a <1 , k>1
1
Let S (1) naturally, card( )2
1
1
Still, if the elementary case of =1/2 is considered, with k=2 , ( - 2) =0.
2
0 1
Thus i = ½ (by the definition of the sum iterate), and 0 < ½ < 1 showing the
2
validity of the elementary statement.
Now, let S (1) = 1/3. card( 1 ) = 3.But ,since card( 1 - k) < card( 1 - 1).
In which,case k>1.
Let k = 2
1 1 1
i 3 =
1
= and 0 < ½ <1.
i 1 3
i
2
1
If S (1) =1/4. card ( ) = 4 and hence k= 2,3 will do the job by recurrence of
logical truth.
j
1 2 1
1
1 1
k = 2 ; i = i = i =
( 4 2 )
= …………A
4 4 j 1 i 1 4 3 2
j
j 1
1 1
1
= i =
( 4 3 )
K=3; = 1/3 ………….B
4 4 4
i i
i 1
Observing A. and B. we see that 0< ½, 1/3 <1 .Which is still in agreement with the
statement. Hence, we have that for k = 2,3,4,… card( 1 -1 ) satisfies the assertion.
Thereby, permitting us to close this proof by demonstration at this point.
End.
Q.E.D
Haven established a few proofs , we can now proceed with the algebra of the sum iterator
but not before setting forth the following theorem;
THEOREM 1
If i () is a sum iterate that takes parameter ,for arbitrary (k-10 fold of
cardinality, then, to move from the (k-1)st to the kth order of cardinality, it suffices to
raise the result i () to some power governed by some indice and then taking the
( k 1)
k
( k 1)
()
k
i
() = i
is mathematical shorthand of the theorem.
k 1
PROOF OF THEOREM
Assuming p > k. p, k .
Since 1 if we set p = k+1, then as k+1 > k is valid due to the fact that is well
ordered (or better still is an inductive set).
Because p has been set to be equal to k+1, substituting in equation 2, we obtain;
Since the subscript of the parameter of summation is irrelevant, we can as well do the
change i k 1 to some “a” and obtain;
ik 1
i2
ik
... 1 ...
i i
( k 1)
() = ………………3.
ik 1 1 ik 1 i2 1 i 1
ik
i2
ik 1
1
But, by definition, i () = ... i ...
k
ik 1 ik 1 1
i2 1 i1
k 1
i
( k 1) a
() = () ()
k k
i
= i
as required.
ik 1 a
Q.E.D
At the of the proof of theorem 1, I think it is now safe, with the idea of the availability of
the above theorem, corollary an lemma to attempt a journey in areas which, shall as I
hope enhance understanding of the behaviour of the terms that make up the harmonic
series in relation to the sum iterate concept and convergence to the value 1,thus bringing
forth the beauty of the truths that emanate from some simple relationships existing
between it’s terms.
Let be the parameter of the sum iterate of arbitrary fold of cardinality. The aim here is
to study the behaviour of the results when the parameter for some fixed fold of
cardinality varies, and also, when, the situation when the parameter is fixed whiles the
fold of cardinality is made to vary.
i
: S (1) S (1)
: i
() For arbitrary fold of cardinality.
Impose the condition that; () , (p = 1
- 1); 1
k 1………….*
p
i
Then;
1 1
Let’s ordinate the set S (1) as follows: 1 = a 1 ,
= a 2 ,…, = a k
2 k
This will ease the work to be done. We can now write the set as follows;
S (1) = a1 , a2 , a3 ,..., ak ,... . We shall do the study on a case by case basis.
i) Set k = 0.
By the definition of the sum iterate; when k= 0, then p S (1) , we have that ; i ( p ) =
k
p.
To enable insight into S (1) to be “smoother”, we shall work with the ordinated set S (1) .
a j S (1) we have that i ( a j ) = a j , j
k
k
i
( a j ) = a j ……………….8
a natural consequence is that;
a = 1+ ½ + 1/3 + …+ 1/k + … = q
1
= (1)
k
i j
j q
a = (1) k= 0 …………9.
k
i.e i j
j
Observe that, for k= 0, S (1) , i () < ,as S (1) is s.t 1 and hence by
k
the definition of the sum iterate at fold cardinality value zero, equation 8 is satisfied.
= + + …+
k
i 1 2 k +…
j
j
As an example, if S = , k = k k .
, with
n(n 1)
and = 1,2,3,..., n, equals
k
And hence .
j
i
j 2
Quite simple and beautiful. And, this rule demonstrated above is valid, by the truths from
which it was derived.
ii)Set k= 1.
( a j ) a j 1 j 2.
k
i
( a j ) a j 1 k=1 j …………………10.
k
i.e i
Consequently, we have that, taking values in the ordinated set S (1) , we obtain;
1
(a2 ) + i (a3 ) +…+ i ( aq ) +…= x = (1) ………………11
k k k
i
x 1
iii)Set k=2
A very simple and beautiful rule is establishing itself here. Observe that when k=0,we
exclude no value in ,and a sum of the subscript of the parameter of the sum iterate
over the cardinality of equates naturally the result to (1) .
Setting k=1, we sum the parameter of the sum iterate, over all subscripts that do not have
the value 1 so as to be able to equate result to: (1) .
And hence, as k tends to infinity, the set over which the validity of the parameter of the
sum iterate is respected tends to the empty set .
(a j ) = (1) ………………..13’
k
i
j k 1
A mathematical shorthand for the fact just before equation 13’ is;
lim ( : │ S \ ak ) =0………………14
k
(1)
k
i
k
As for me, the most beautiful equation so far is equation 14. Since the infinite sum over
the element of the empty set… (oops ! the empty set has no elements and thus the infinite
sum over nothing) is zero, from where equation 14. And again equation 14 is a beautiful
consequence of the constraints of validity of the sum iterate in the set S (1) .
And as such;
c
lim S (1) p
a : a p S (1) = ……………….15
p
p
Everything that is to be done here, will be done within the constraints of validity of the
sum iterate w.r.t the set S (1) .
But, the domain under consideration here is S (1) and as such, S (1) ,we have that;
For arbitrary S (1) ,if we set k=1, then, a simple consequence is the fact that;
i ordinated S (1) …
** An aside; let the ordinated set S (1) be designated O( S (1) ) with the same properties as
set above **
(1 ) = 1 ; k=0 .
k
i
; k 0.
(1 ) = 1 ; k =0
k
i
; k 1 ………………….A
( 2 ) =
k
i 2 ;k=0
1 ;k=1 …………………B
; k 2
(3 ) =
k
i 3 ;k=0
2 ;k=1
1 ;k=2 …………………….C
; k 3
( j ) =
k
i j ; k=0
j 1 ; k=1
j 2 ; k=2
.
. …………………….P
.
2 ; k= j-2
1 ; k= j-1
; k j
j 1
Equation D is derived inductively on the ordinated set O( S (1) ) .
A (1 ) = 1 + ( ) = ……………….A(*)
k
i
k 0
B ( 2 ) = 1 + 2 +( ) = …………….B(*)
k
i
k 0
C (3 ) = 3 + 2 + 1 +( ) = ……………….C(*)
k
i
k 0
A(*) ( ) =
k
i 1 1 ;k=0
B(*) ( ) = , 1 ; k= 0,1
k
i 2 2
C(*) ( ) = , 2 , 1 ; k = 0,1,2
k
i 3 3
. . . .
. . . .
. . . .
P(*) i ( p ) = p ,…, 2 , 1 ; k = 0,1,2,…,(p-1)
k
For arbitrary p O( S (1) ), the value of validity of the cardinality can only vary from o
to (p-1).
Hence it becomes necessary to define a set V which is the set of validity of the varying
cardinality for an arbitrary S (1) as;
h1
V= k : k ……………..16
k 0
But , for the elements to tend to (1) ,the situation that the ordinality of the element
chosen from O( S (1) ) tend to infinity so that the cardinality of the sum iterate too should
tend to infinity and hence all the elements of the set S (1) will be generated thus bringing
forth (1) .
j 1
It turns out that this is an infinite sequence of terms as j tends to ,however, the aim
here is to represent (1) ,as a relationship derived naturally from the above essay. Hence
we can step forth the following equation after considering equations 15,16,17.
k 1 j
lim i (k ) = S (1) …………………..17, for k and k= j+1 .
k j 0
And as such, we can deduce from equation that, because i , j O( S (1) ), with
i j if i j. we have the equation;
k 1 j
lim i (k ) = (1) …………….18
k 1 j 0
( is equivalent to saying that k goes from 1 to infinity)
Before, let’s define the operator as follows;
Let D = D with the D
q
q z ’s disjoint. Then;
: D
: D
q
q D
q
q With D z D.
Observing that i (k ) k ……….E
j
j 0
i (k ) k 1 ……………….F i (k ) k 2 …………..G
j j
j 1 j 2
i k
j
( ) k q With p = (1)
j q p i
Because equation 17 is somewhat ambiguous, we can thus, with the help of the operator
“ ” which generates the required series (1) as;
k 1 j
lim i (k ) = (1) …………….18
k 1 j 0
Finally, let’s get the set of validity;
When k= 0, the set of validity is;
Setting k=2, the set of validity is; V = S (1) \ S (1) \ 1 ,2 ,3
Generally, we can obtain the set of validity for fold of cardinality “z”
z 1 z 1
z
V= S (1) \ S (1) \ j = j .
j 1 j 1
Lemma2:
If “A” is a set (arbitrary), and “B” too is a set, then A\A\B =B.
With A,and B, being real subsets.
PROOF OF LEMMA
If A B, then ;
A\A\B = A\(A\B)
But, by De-Morgan’s rule, A \ B = A B implying that;
c
A\(A\B) = A ( A B c ) c = A A ( B ) =B.
c c c
Similarly, if we set B=A we have the same procedure to get to the same result, i.e
A\A\B=A\A\A =A
Q.E.D
And hence the set of validity required is;
j 1 k
lim i ( j ) = S (1) ……………….19.
j1 k 0
AXIOM:
The width of the (k-1)st rectangle equals the side of the kth square. Symbolically
represented or, rather stated as;
(rk 1 ) ( S k ) ………..22
THE THIRD COLUMN;
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
A(13) = ( )(1- ) = = = .
3 4 2 2 12 24 24 *1
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
A(23) = ( )( ) = = = .
3 4 2 3 6 12 72 24 * 3
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
A(33) = ( )( ) = = = .
3 4 3 4 12 12 144 24 * 6
Generally;
1 2 1 1 2
A(i3) = * = * * ………….23
24 i (i 1) 4 6 i (i 1)
Remembering the sequence;
( an ) n = 1,3,6,10,15,…, n(n 1) /2,…, then we observe that in the set ;
n
k (k 1)
O(( an ) n ) = a , with a
i 1
i k
2
, with k
By virtue of the axiom above I can conjecture that:
1 1 1 1 1
A(pq) = * * = * ………….24 with p, q .
4 a p aq 4 a p aq
Now, since I want the “areas matrix”, to be somewhat consistent with “norms” I will
advice that the “x-axis” be taken for the negative “x-axis”, and maintain the positive
“y-axis” so that our resultant areas matrix be of the form of a coefficient matrix of a
system of linear equations. Let A(pq) represent an entry in this area matrix , then I can
rewrite this to fit norms as “ a pq ”.
By simple thought, we see that this area matrix is finite, yet, has infinitely many entries.
Call the matrix “ ”
= ( a pq ).
Claim; the matrix is symmetric
Proof;
= ( a pq ), T = ( aqp ).
It suffices to show that a pq = aqp .
1 1 1 1
a pq = * = * (since multiplication of real numbers is commutative).
4 a p aq 4 a q a p
= aqp .
( a pq ) = = ( aqp ) = T .
Hence = T .
Q.E.D
We therefore obtain the area matrix as;
a11 a12 a13 ... a1n ... ...
a21 a22 a23 ... a2 n ... ....
... ... ... ... ... ... ...
an1 an 2 an3 .... ann ... ...
... ... ... ... ... ... ...
am1 am 2 am3 ... amn ... ...
... ... ... ... ... ... ...
It is true, you could wonder, how come the right most bracket is closed. But I’ll say the
matrix, though by virtue of the set from which it was derived has an infinitude of entries,
it is finite! Because;
e S (1) , e 0,1 , and the diameter of this interval I = 0,1 < + .and in fact;
( I ) 1 <+ .
So our matrix is square and has side of unit length.
Hence, we have that;
Has finite dimension, that is, is finite in dimension (or length), and yet has infinitely
many entries.
a11 a12 a13 ... a1n ... ...
a21 a22 a23 ... a2 n ... ....
... ... ... ... ... ... ...
= an1 an 2 an3 .... ann ... ...
...
... ... ... ... ... ...
am1 am 2 am3 ... amn ... ...
... ... ... ... ... ... ...
A preview over the nature of the matrix is given below;
1 1 1 1 1
...
4 12 24 40 60
1 1 1 1 1
...
12 36 72 120 180
1 1 1 1 1
= ...
24 72 144 240 360
1 . . . . ...
40
. . . . . ...
... ... ... ... ... ...
The most of the matrix can be written as chosen by simply making use of the AXIOM 1,
the fact that the matrix is symmetric and by imposing as wished, restrictions to the
dimensions of the matrix simply by choosing an interval;Y in which the parameters p
and q take values.
That is, a sub-matrix can always be extracted from the matrix by simply choosing s
required to suit some purpose, a subset of the set of real numbers