commquestions answer = b The frequency of a free vibration. a.

Resonant frequenc
y b. Natural frequency c. Center frequency d. Normal frequency answer = a The tr
ansmission of sound from one room to an adjacent room, via common walls, floors
or ceilings. a. Flanking transmission b. Refraction c. Reflection d. Reverberati
on answer = c A measure of threshold of hearing, expressed in decibels relative
to a specifie d standard of normal hearing. a. Hearing loss b. Sensation level c
. Hearing level d. Sound pressure level answer = a A certain machine with a slig
htly out-of balance motor rotating at 1800/min is fixed on a perfectly elastic m
ount with a static compression of 2.50 mm. Calcula te the resonant frequency of
mount. a. 10 Hz b. 20 Hz c. 30 Hz d. 40 Hz answer = d Calculate the lowest reson
ant frequency for a brick partition 120mm thick, 4m b y 2m in area with longitud
inal wave velocity of 2350 m/s. (Assume that it is sup ported at its edges.) a.
10 Hz b. 20 Hz c. 30 Hz d. 40 Hz answer = b Velocity of sound in air. a. 300 m/s
b. 330 m/s c. 1130 m/s d. 344 m/s answer = b What is the expected critical freq
uency for a 120 mm thick brick wall? Assume a longitudinal wave velocity in bric
k of 2350 m/s and that the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s. a. 114.5 Hz b. 2
14.5 Hz c. 314.5 Hz d. 414.5 Hz answer = d The sound power level of a certain je
t plane flying at a height of 1km is 160 d
B (re10^-12W). Find the max. sound pressure level on the ground directly below t
he flight path assuming that the aircraft radiates sound equally in all directi
o ns a. 59.1 dB b. 69.1 dB c. 79.1 dB d. 89.1 dB answer = b Speaker is a device
that a. converts sound waves into current and voltage b. converts current variat
ions into sound waves c. converts electrical energy to mechanical energy d. conv
erts electrical energy into electromagnetic energy answer = c Which type of micr
ophone operates on the principle that the electrical resistan ce of carbon granu
les varies as the pressure on the granules vary? a. Dynamic b. Crystal c. Carbon
d. Ribbon-type answer = c Bass response is a. maximum high frequency response b
. emphasizing the high audio frequencies c. bypassing high audio frequencies d.
bypassing low audio frequencies answer = d Pure tone of sound used as standard o
n testing. a. 1 Hz b. 10 Hz c. 100 Hz d. 1000 Hz answer = a __________ is early
reflection of sound. a. Echo b. Reverberation c. Pure sound d. Intelligible soun
d answer = a Noise reduction system used for film sound in movie. a. Dolby b. dB
a c. dBx d. dBk answer = d What is the sound energy per unit area at right angle
s to the propagation direc tion per unit time? a. Loudness b. Coherence c. Sound
pressure d. Sound intensity answer = d
__________ is the unit of loudness level of a sound. a. Sone b. Decibel c. Mel d
. Phon answer = c __________ is the average rate of transmission of sound energy
in a given direc tion through a cross-section area of 1 sq. m. at right angles
to the direction. a. Sound pressure b. Loudness c. Sound intensity d. Pressure v
ariation answer = d What is the unit of pitch? a. Sone b. Phon c. Decibel d. Mel
answer = b A measure of the intensity of sound in comparison to another sound i
ntensity. a. Phon b. Decibel c. Pascal d. Watts answer = c Sound wave has two ma
in characteristics which are a. highness and loudness b. tone and loudness c. pi
tch and loudness d. rarefaction and compression answer = b Which type of microph
one operated by electromagnetic induction that generates a n output signal volta
ge? a. Carbon b. Dynamic c. Crystal d. Condenser answer = d The exciter lamp in
the optical sound part of a film projector draws 5 A at 10 V. How much power in
watts is this light bulb consuming a. 10 watts b. 20 watts c. 40 watts d. 50 wat
ts answer = b Assume the speed of sound is 1,130 ft/s. What frequency has a wave
length of 1 f oot, 1.5 inches? a. 500 Hz b. 1000 Hz c. 1500 Hz d. 2000 Hz answer
= c
The wire that must bring 100 average watts to a 4 ohms loudspeaker must safely c
arry what rms current? a. 2 A b. 4 A c. 5 A d. 6 A answer = b A church has an in
ternal volume of 90,05 cubic ft (2,550 cubic m). When it cont ains 2,000 customa
ry sabins of absorption (186 metric sabins), what will be its reverberation time
in seconds. a. 2.0 b. 2.2 c. 2.5 d. 3.0 If a. b. c. d. answer = a the RMS sound
pressure is 5 lb/square ft, what is the sound pressure level? 7.6 dB 108 dB 88
dB 10 dB
answer = b Speed that is faster than speed of sound. a. Ultrasonic b. Supersonic
c. Subsonic d. Transonic answer = b Sound waves travel in water at a __________
_ speed. a. 12.4 miles/sec b. 5,000 ft/sec c. 186,000 ft/sec d. 3,141 ft/sec ans
wer = d What is the sound power from a motor car whose SPL at a distance of 7.5
m is 87 dB assuming that it radiates sound uniformly? a. 0.15 W b. 0.21 W c. 0.2
4 W d. 0.18 W answer = b Crest-to-crest distance along the direction of wave tra
vel. a. Compression b. Wavelength c. Period d. Sound wave answer = a Sound inten
sity level is ____________. a. 10 log l/lref b. 10 log p/pref c. 20 log l/lref d
. 30 log p/pref answer = a
Sound a. 20 b. 30 c. 10 d. 20
pressure level is ____________. log P/Pref log p/ref log p/pref log l/lref
answer = a The most important specification of loudspeakers and microphones. a.
Frequency response b. Field strength c. Power density d. Gain answer = c Lowest
frequency produced by a musical instrument. a. Midrange b. Harmonic c. Fundament
al d. Period answer = a Tendency of a sound energy to spread. a. Diffraction b.
Rarefaction c. Reflection d. Refraction answer = d When waves bend away from str
aight lines of travel, it is called ________. a. reflection b. defraction c. rar
efaction d. refraction answer = c Required time for any sound to decay to 60 dB.
a. Echo time b. Delay time c. Reverberation time d. Transient time answer = a T
he intensity needed to produce an audible sound varies with __________. a. frequ
ency b. noise c. amplitude d. tone answer = c Sound that vibrates at frequency t
oo high for the human ear to hear (over 20 kH z). a. Subsonic b. Transonic c. Ul
trasonic d. Stereo answer = b Which microphone will be damaged if exposed to hig
h temperature above 52 degree s C? a. Dynamic
b. Crystal c. Ribbon d. Capacitor answer = d A thin springy sheet of bakelite or
metal that permits the voice coil in a dyna mic loudspeaker to move back and fo
rth along the core of its magnet. a. Vibrator b. Diaphragm c. Hypex d. Spider an
swer = c One hundred twenty ubars of pressure variation is equal to a. 120 dBSPL
b. 57.78 dBSPL c. 115.56 dBSPL d. 41.58 dBSPL answer = a The reverberation time
of a 184.2 cubic meters broadcast studio is 0.84 sec. Fi nd the absorption effe
ct of the materials used in metric sabines. a. 35.3 b. 10.96 c. 379.8 d. 109.6 a
nswer = c What is the microphone characteristic that results in a boost in bass
frequenci es for close microphone spacing? a. Field effect b. P.A. effect c. Pro
ximity effect d. Reverberation answer = d What is the audio frequency range? a.
20 kHz to 20 MHz b. 0 Hz to 20 kHz c. 300 Hz to 400 Hz d. 20 Hz to 20 kHz answer
= d What is the bass frequency range? a. 20 kHz to 40 MHz b. 1 Hz to 20 kHz c.
40 Hz to 160 kHz d. 10 Hz to 20 kHz answer = b High frequency range of audio sig
nals. a. 2,500 Hz to 5,000 Hz b. 5,000 Hz to 10 kHz c. 10 kHz to 20 kHz d. 20,00
0 Hz to 30 kHz answer = b What is the dB SPL of a voice paging in an office? a.
90 b. 65
c. 55 - 60 d. 80 - 85 answer = c What is the dB SPL of an auditorium with contem
porary music? a. 80 - 95 b. 85 - 90 c. 95 - 100 d. 100 - 105 answer = b What is
the church dB SPL with speech reinforcement only? a. 90 b. 80 - 85 c. 85 - 90 d.
90 - 95 answer = b Intensity can also be called as a. volume b. loudness c. sha
rpness d. strength answer = d The loudness of a sound depends upon the energy of
motion imparted to _________ _ molecules of the medium transmitting the sound.
a. transmitting b. running c. moving d. vibrating answer = d _________ is affect
ed by the distance between the listener and the source of th e sound and its int
ensity varies inversely with the square of this distance. a. volume b. bass c. t
reble d. loudness answer = d If the distance between the listener and the source
of the sound is doubled, th e intensity is reduced to a. 1/2 b. 1/3 c. 2/3 d. 1
/4 answer = c If the distance between the listener and the source of the sound i
s decreased t o 1/2 the original amount, the intensity of the sound would be ___
________. a. 2 times as great b. 3 times as great c. 4 times as great d. 5 times
a great answer = a At a sensation level of 40 dB, 1000 Hz tone is a. 1000 mels
b. 500 mels
c. 2000 mels d. 100 mels answer = b If the sound waves are converted to electric
al waves by a microphone, what is t he frequency of the electric current? a. 3 t
o 30 MHz b. 25 to 8000 Hz c. 4 to 40 Hz d. 30 to 2000 Hz answer = c For a music
lover concert "A" is 440 Hz. If a musical note one octave higher were
played, it would be ______________ that frequency. a. one-half b. one-fourth c.
double d. triple answer = d In a 220 Hz, if a note was played one octave lower i
t would be ___________. a. 22 Hz b. 27.5 Hz c. 440 Hz d. 110 Hz answer = d Much
of music generally referred to in a. harmonics b. good hearing c. fidelity d. oc
taves answer = c __________ is an undesired change in wave form as the signal pa
sses through a d evice. a. Noise b. Vibration c. Distortion d. Harmonics answer
= c Distortion enhances intelligibility when an _______ is added. a. equalizer b
. igniter c. exciter d. emulsifier answer = d A class of signal processors. a. A
mplifiers b. Equalizers c. Microprocessors d. Exciters answer = c Hall construct
ion and internal finishes affect the final sound quality ________ _____. a. poor
ly b. mildly c. significantly
d. badly answer = b Positioning a loudspeaker near a wall can dramatically alter
its frequency resp onse in two distinct ways namely a. gump and dump b. hump an
d notch c. fade and gone d. bad and worst answer = a The acoustics of most audit
oria are very ________ when the room is full compare d to the empty condition. a
. different b. similar c. good d. bad answer = b A __________ converts acoustica
l energy. a. electro-acoustic b. microphone transducer c. microphone d. electric
microphone answer = c All microphone have two basic components namely, ________
_. a. wired and body b. ceramic and crystal c. diaphragm and generating element
d. coil and magnet answer = d The kinds of generating elements are _________. a.
expense and fidelity b. complexity and ruggedness c. longevity d. all of these
answer = c When the average absorption is greater than 0.2, __________ formula i
s used to compute the actual reverberation time. a. Sabine b. Stephen and Bate c
. Norris-Eyring d. Notch At a. b. c. d. answer = d room temperature, what is the
velocity of sound in meters/seconds? 348.03 cm/s 980 cm/s 980 m/s 341.8 m/s
answer = c Calculate the velocity of sound in ft./sec. If the temperature is 149
degrees C ? a. 1530.03 ft/sec b. 1320 ft/sec c. 1357.03 ft/sec
d. 1920.435 ft/sec answer = c The wavelength of a sound of 20 kHz frequency is a
. 16.5 m b. 16.5 cm c. 16.5 mm d. 16.5 um answer = b The ratio of frequencies is
termed a. octave b. interval c. harmonics d. masking answer = c What is the inc
rease in sound pressure level in dB, if the pressure is doubled? a. b. c. d. 2 3
6 4 dB dB dB dB
answer = d A term which is subjective but dependent mainly on frequency and also
affected by intensity, a. Timbre b. Quality c. Frequency d. Pitch answer = d An
effect that occurs in the ear where a louder sound can reduce or even stop t he
nerve voltage generated by a weaker sound. a. Piezoelectric effect b. Skin effe
ct c. Lasing d. Masking answer = b For computation of ideal reverberation time,
which formula is applicable? a. Sabine b. Stephen and Bate c. Norris-Eyring d. N
otch answer = d The ________ of sound is a subjective effect which is a function
of the ear and brain. a. pitch b. frequency c. timbre d. loudness answer = a De
fined as the time taken for the intensity of sound energy in the room to drop to
one millionth of its initial value. a. Reverberation time b. Transmit time
c. Decaying time d. Response time answer = d ___________ is the sound energy per
unit area at right angles of the propagatio n direction, per unit time. a. Loud
ness b. Coherence c. Sound stress d. Sound intensity answer = d One octave above
600 Hz is a. 601 Hz b. 800 Hz c. 1400 Hz d. 1200 Hz answer = a A car horn outdo
ors produces a sound intensity level of 90 dB at 10 m away. At this distance, wh
at is the sound power in watt? a. 0.63 b. 1.26 c. 0.315 d. 0.56 x 10^ -6 answer
= d The unit of loudness level a. Sone b. dB c. Mel d. Phon answer = d Consists
of a rapid succession of noticeable echoes. a. Rarefaction b. Refraction c. Refl
ection d. Flutter echo answer = b Laid the foundations of acoustic theory of bui
ldings. a. Charles H. Townes b. W.C. Sabine c. A. Javin d. Stephen and Bate answ
er = b The average absorption for a person is a. 5.7 units b. 4.7 units c. 6.7 u
nits d. 3.7 units answer = b An aural sensation by pressure variations in the ai
r which are always produced by some source of vibrations. a. Music b. Sound c. D
isturbance
d. Speech answer = d Considered to be as the threshold of hearing. a. 10^-12 W/s
quare cm b. 10^-16 W/square m c. 10^-13 W/square m d. 10^-12 W/square m answer =
a The number of vibration or pressure fluctuations per second. a. Frequency b.
Timber c. Quality d. Pitch answer = c Defined as the average rate of transmissio
n of sound energy in a given directio n through a cross-sectional area of 1 squa
re m at right angles to the direction. a. b. c. d. Sound pressure Loudness Sound
intensity Pressure variation
answer = b What is the sound pressure level (SPL) of a sound having an RMS press
ure of 200 N/square m? a. 150 dB b. 140 dB c. 170 dB d. 160 dB answer = d The mi
nimum sound intensity that can be heard is termed a. threshold of feeling b. thr
eshold of pain c. threshold of sensation d. threshold of hearing answer = b What
is the intensity of sound whose RMS pressure is 200 N/square m? a. 96.8 W/squar
e m b. 97.8 W/square m c. 95.8 W/square m d. 94.8 W/square m answer = d The unit
of pitch. a. Sone b. Phon c. dB d. Mel answer = b What is the increase in sound
pressure level in dB, if the intensity is doubled ? a. 2 dB b. 3 dB c. 4 dB
d. 6 dB answer = a The velocity of sound is considered to be constant at _______
_ for the purpose of building acoustics. a. 330 m/s b. 330 mm/s c. 330 um/s d. 3
30 cm/s answer = a An instrument designed to measure a frequency - weighted valu
e of the sound pre ssure level. a. Sound level meter b. Transducer c. Sound pres
sure meter d. Sound analyzer answer = a A unit of nosiness related to the percei
ved noise level a. Noy b. Sone c. dB d. Phone An the a. b. c. d. answer = c agre
ed set of empirical curves relating octave-band sound pressure level to center f
requency of the octave bands. C-message weighting curve Psophometric weighting c
urve Noise rating curves F1A weighting curve answer = c Communication is the pro
cess of a. Keeping in touch b. Broadcasting c. Exchanging information d. Enterta
inment by electronics answer = d A key barrier in communications a. Cost b. PN J
unction c. Walls d. Distance answer = c Electronics Communication was discovered
in what century? a. Sixteenth b. Eighteenth c. Nineteenth d. Twentieth answer =
b Which of the following is not a major communications medium? a. Free Space b.
Water
c. Wires d. Fiber Optics Cable answer = d Random interference to transmitted sig
nals is called a. Adjacent channel overlap b. Cross talk c. Garbage - in - Garba
ge - out d. Noise answer = c The communications medium causes the signal to be a
. Amplified b. Modulated c. Attenuated d. Interfered with. answer = a Which of t
he following is not a source of noise? a. Another communications signal b.Atmosp
heric effects c. Manufactured electrical systems d. Thermal agitation in electro
nic components answer = d One - way communications is called a. Half Duplex b. F
ull Duplex c. Monocomm d. Simplex answer = b Simultaneoues two-way communication
s is called a. Half Duplex b. Full Duplex c. Monocomm d. Simplex answer = c The
original electrical information signal to be transmitted is called a. b. c. d. M
odulating Signal Carrier Baseband Signal Source Signal
answer = d The process of modifying a high frequency carrier with the informatio
n to be transmitted is called a. Multiplexing b. Telemetry c. Detection d. Modul
ation answer = a The process of transmitting two or more information signals sim
ultaneo usly over the same channel is called a. Multiplexing b. Telemetry c. Det
ection
d. Modulation answer = b Continuous voice or video signals are referred to as be
ing a. Baseband b. Analog c. Digital d. Continuous waves answer = c Recovering i
nformation from a carrier is known as a. Demultiplexing b. Modulation c. Detecti
on d. Carrier Recovery answer = d Transmission of graphical information over the
telephone network is ac complished by a. Television b. CATV c. Videotext d. Fac
simile answer = a Measuring physical conditions at some remote location and tran
smitting this data for analysis is the process of a. Telemetry b. Instrumentatio
n c. Modulation d. Multiplexing answer = c Receiving electromagnetic emissions f
rom stars is called a. Astrology b. Optical Astronomy c. Radio Astronomy d. Spac
e Surveillance answer = a A personnal communication hobby for individual is a. H
am radio b. Electronic bulletin board c. CB Radio d. Cellular Radio answer = d R
adar is based upon a. Microwaves b. A water medium c. The directional nature of
radio signals d. Reflected Radio signals answer = a A frequency of 27 MHz has a
wavelength of approximately a. 11m b. 27m c. 30m d. 81m
answer = b The voice freqency range is a. 30 to 300 Hz b. 300 to 3000 Hz c. 20 H
z to 20 kHz d. 0 Hz to 15 kHz answer = c Another name for signal in the HF range
is a. Microwaves b. Kamehame Waves c. Shortwaves d. Millimeter waves answer = c
Television broadcasting ocurs in which ranges? a. HF b. EHF c. VHF d. SHF answe
r = a Electromagnetic waves produced primarily by heat are called a. Infrared ra
ys b. Microwaves c. Shortwaves d. X-rays answer = b A micron is a. One - million
th of a foot b. One - millionth of a meter c. One - thousandth of a meter d. One
ten-thousandth of an inch answer = d The wavelength of infrared rays is approxi
mately a. 30 to 300 GHz b. 4000 to 8000 Angstrom c. 100 to 10,000 A d. 0.7 to 10
microns answer = b The wavelength of infrared rays is approximately a. 1000 mic
rons b. 7000 Angstrom c. 3500 A d. 4000 A answer = a Which of the following is n
ot used for communications? a. X - rays b. Millimeter waves c. Infrared d. Micro
waves answer = b A signal occupies the spectrun space from 1.115 to 1.122 GHz. T
he band width is a. 0.007 MHz
b. 7 MHz c. 237 MHz d. 700 MHz answer = c In the United States, the elecromagnet
ic spectrum is regulated and man aged by a. NBA b. ITU c. FCC d. NTC answer = d
For a given bandwith signal, more channel space is available for signa ls in the
range of a. VHF b. UHF c. SHF d. EHF answer = b Having an information change so
me characteristic of a carrier signal i s called a. Multiplexing b. Modulation c
. Duplexing d. Linear Mixing answer = c Which a. The b. The c. The d. The of the
following is not true about AM? carrier output varies. carried frequency remain
s constant. carrier frequency changes. information signal amplitude changes the
carrier amplitude.
answer = d The opposite of modulation is a. Reverse moduation b. Downward Modula
tion c. Unmodulation d. Demodulation answer = a The circuit used to produce modu
lation is called a a. Modulator b. Demodulator c. Variable Gain Amplifier d. Mul
tiplexer answer = c A modulator performs what mathematical operation on its two
inputs? a. Addition b. Square Root c. Multiplication d. Division answer = c The
ratio of the peak modulating signal voltage to the peak carrier vo ltage is refe
rred to as a. The voltage ratio
b. Decibels c. The modulation index d. The mix factor answer = d If m is greater
than 1, what happens? a. Normal Operation b. Carrier drops to zero. c. Carrier
frequency shifts d. Information signal is distorted answer = b For a. m b. m c.
m d. m ideal AM, which of the following is true? = 0 = 1 < 1 < 1
answer = c The outline peaks of a carrier has the share of the modulating signal
and is called the a. Trace b. Waveshape c. Envelope d. Carrier variation answer
= a Overmodulation occurs when a. Vm > Vc b. Vm < Vc c. Vm = Vc d. m = Vc
= 0 answer = d The new signals produced by modulation are called a. Spurious em
issions b. Harmonics c. Intermodulation products d. Sidebands answer = d A displ
ay of signal amplitide versus frequency is called the a. Time Domain b. Frequenc
y spectrum c. Amplitude spectrum d. Frequency domain answer = a Most of the powe
r in an AM signal is in the a. Carrier b. Upper sideband c. Lower sideband d. Mo
dulation signal answer = c The values of Vmax and Vmin as read from an AM wave o
n an oscilloscope are 2.8 and 0.3. The percentage of modulation is a. 10.7 perce
nt b. 41.4 percent c. 80.6 percent
d. 93.3 percent answer = b A carrier of 880kHz is modulated by a 3.5 kHz sine wa
ve. The LSB and U SB are, respectively, a. 873 and 887 kHz b. 876.5 and 883.5 kH
z c. 883.5 and 876.5 kHz d. 887 and 873 kHz answer = c The values of Vmax and Vm
in as read from an AM wave on an oscilloscope are 2.8 and 0.3. The percentage of
modulation is a. 10.7 percent b. 41.4 percent c. 80.6 percent d. 93.3 percent a
nswer = b An AM signal has a carrier power of 5W. The percentage of modulation i
s 80 percent. The total sideband power is a. 0.8 W b. 1.6 W c. 2.5 W d. 4.0 W a
nswer = a For 100 percent modulation, what percentage is in each sideband? a. 25
percent b. 33.3 percent c. 50 percent d. 100 percent answer = a An AM transmitt
er has a percentage of modulation of 88. The carrier po wer is 440W. The power i
n one sideband is a. 85 W b. 110 W c. 170 W d. 610 W answer = b An AM transmitte
r antenna current is measured with no modulation and f ound to be 2.6 amperes. W
ith no modulation, the current rises to 2.9 amperes. Th e percentage of modulati
on is a. 35 percent b. 70 percent c. 42 percent d. 89 percent answer = d In an A
M signal, the transmitted information is contained within the a. Modulating sign
al b. Carrier c. Envelope d. Sidebands answer = c An AM signal without the carri
er is called a(n) a. Vestigial Sideband
b. FM Signal c. SSB d. Uncarried Signal answer = c What is the minimum AM signal
needed to transmit information? a. Carrier plus sidebands b. Carrier only c. On
e sideband d. Both sidebands answer = a The main advantage of SSB over standard
AM or DSB is a. Less spectrum space is used b. Simpler equipment is used c. Less
power is consumed d. A higher modulation percentage answer = c In SSB, which si
deband is the best to use? a. Upper b. Lower c. Neither d. Depends upon the use
answer = b Distortion of the modulating signal produces harmonics which cause an
increase in the signal a. Carrier Power b. Bandwidth c. Sideband Power d. Envel
ope Voltage answer = a It refers to the sending, receiving and processing of inf
ormation by e lectronic means. a. Communications b. Telemetry c. Broadcasting d.
Telephony answer = a What services uses HF CW communications? a. Police b. Tele
phony c. Broadcasting d. Sattelite system answer = b The signal which is superim
posed on a high frequency sinewave is calle d a. b. c. d. Carrier Information Si
deband Squarewave
answer = c What is the purpose of a beat frequency oscillator(BFO) a. Aids in th
e reception of weak voice-modulated signals b. Generates a signal, whose frequen
cy is the same as that of the inter
mediate frequency c. Generates a 1kHz tone to Morse reception d. Generates an ou
tput, whose frequency differs from that of the interm idiate frequency by 1kHz a
nswer = a A type of information signal which is made up of rapid and unpredictab
le variations in amplitude frequency. a. Speech b. Digital c. Pulses d. Bits an
swer = c He was the one who developed the mathematical solution to a complex re
petitive waveform. a. Carson b. P.H. Smith c. J. Fourier d. Y. Uda answer = b Th
e process of impressing information signals to a high frequency carr ier is call
ed a. Multiplexing b. Modulation c. Detection d. Scrambling answer = d A diagram
which shows the relationship between RF signal phase and max imum bunching of t
he electron beam in velocity-modulated devices. a. Smith chart b. Venn Diagram c
. S-parameter Diagram d. Applegate Diagram answer = a It is the liberation of el
ectrons by thermionic means used as the prin cipal source of electron emission i
n microwave vacuum tube devices. a. Edison Effect b. Miller Effect c. Bunching d
. Secondary Effect answer = d It is the representation of a complex waveform in
such a way that the sinusoidal components are displayed as a function of time a.
Wave Representation b. TDR c. Frequency Domain d. Time Domain answer = a An Adj
ustable resonant cavity calibrated in frequency and which underg oes some power
absorption at resonance. a. Frequency Meter b. Cavity resonator c. Ferrite isola
tor d. Auto Coupler
answer = a What is the amount of power lost in a device due to its presence in t
h e path of energy flow? a. Insertion loss b. Gain c. Wave attenuation d. Phase
shift answer = b It is the representation of a waveform in such a way that its a
mplitud e is displayed as a function of frequency. a. Wave Shape b. Frequency Do
main c. OTDR d. Time Domain answer = c The big breakthrough in electronic commun
ications came with the invent ion of the _____ in 1844. a. Transistor b. Phonogr
aph c. Telegraph d.Telephone answer = a In 1877, he invented a method of making
a permanent record of sound wi th his invention of the phonograph. a. Edison b.
Marconi c. Morse d. Bell answer = b He was the one who developed the wireless te
legraph. a. Edison b. Marconi c. Morse d. Bell answer = a Which came first, the
invention of the telephone or the invention of t he phonograph? a. Telephone b.
Phonograph c. Either d. Neither answer = d What is a device such as the micropho
ne and headset sometimes called? a. b. c. d. Receiver Transmission medium Conver
ter Reproducer
answer = c What distinguishes one electromagnetic wave from another? a. Phase b.
Energy
c. Frequency d. Amplitude answer = a The entire range of _____ of electromagneti
c radiation is called the f requency spectrum. a. Frequencies b. Phases c. Energ
ies d. Amplitude answer = d When did the first transatlantic radio communication
s took place? a. 1876 b. 1942 c. 1888 d. 1901 answer = b What determines the sta
tion that will be selected by a tuner? a. The selectivity of the IF. b. The reso
nant frequency of the tuner. c. The sensitivity of the tuner. d. The bandwidth o
f the amplifier. answer = a Name a periodic waveform that consists of only odd h
armonics. a. Square wave b. Sine wave c. Cosine wave d. Spikes answer = c Best d
escribe as an amplifier used in radio telephony. a. Magnifier b. Class B c. Clas
s C d. Class A answer = c The audio is reconstructed from the radiowave by: a. T
he action of the headset b. Having the audio removed from the carrier. c. The ac
tion of a filter capacitor connected across the headset d. none of the above ans
wer = d Which of the following do not require a tuner? a. TV receiver b. CB rece
iver c. Communications Sattelite Receiver d. none of these answer = d What is th
e main difference between an AF amplifier and an RF amplifie r? a. b. c. d. The
The The The amplification factor stability selectivity range of frequencies that
they amplify
answer = a What a. To b. To c. To d. To
is the purpose of conversion frequency oscillator? provide a conversion frequenc
y produce the IF provide good selectivity increase stability
answer = d What circuit is used to create vestigial transmission? a. HPF b. LPF
c. Duplexer d. Diplexer answer = d What does AFC mean? a. All Filipino Conferenc
e b. Anti Firing Countermeasure c. Audio Frequency Control d. Automatic Frequenc
y Control answer = b Amplitude Modulation is the same as a. Linear Mixing b. Ana
log Multiplication c. Signal Summation d. Mutliplexing answer = a In a diode mod
ulator the negative half of the AM wave is supplied by a (n) a. Tuned Circuit b.
Transformer c. Capacitor d. Inductor answer = a Amplitude modulation can be pro
duced by a. Having the carrier vary a resistance b. Having the modulating signal
vary a capacitance c. Varying the carrier frequency d. Varying the gain of an a
mplifier answer = c Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier amplitude with th
e modulati ng signal by passing it through an attenuator work on the principle o
f a. Rectification b. Resonance c. Variable resistance d. Absorption answer = a
The component used to produce AM at very high frequencies is a a. Varactor
b. Thermistor c. Cavity Resonator d. PIN diode answer = b Amplitude modulation g
enerated at a very low voltage or amplification is known as a. High level modula
tion b. Low Level Modulation c. Collector Modulation d. Minimum Modulation answe
r = b The circuit that recovers the original modulating information from an AM s
ignal is known as a a. Modulator b. Demodulator c. Mixer d. Crystal Set answer =
c The most commonly used amplitude demodulator is the a. Diode mixer b. Balance
d modulator c. Envelope Detector d. Crystal Filter answer = d A circuit that gen
erates the upper and lower sidebands but no carrier is called a(n) a. Amplitude
Modulator b. Diode Detector c. Class C Amplifier d. Balanced Modulator answer =
c A widely used balanced modulator is called the a. Diode Bridge Circuit b. Full
Wave bridge rectifier c. Lattice Modulator d. Balanced bridge modulator answer
= b In a diode ring modulator, the diodes act like a. Variable resistors b. Swit
ches c. Rectifiers d. Variable Capaitors answer = d The output of a balanced mod
ulator is a. AM b. FM
c. SSB d. DSB answer = a The principal circuit in the popular 1496/1596 IC balan
ced modulator i s a a. Differential Amplifier b. Rectifier c. Bridge d. Constant
Current Source answer = c The most commonly used filter in SSB generators uses
a. LC Networks b. Mechanical Resonators c. Crystals d. RC Networks and op amps a
nswer = d The equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal is a a. Series Resonant cir
cuit b. Parallel Resonant Circuit c. Neithar a and b d. Both a and b answer = a
Where is ISB primarily used? a. Telephone and telegraph communications b. Teleme
try c. FM broadcast d. Radar answer = b What is a major problem with very high f
requency oscillator? a. low sensitivity b. poor frequency stability c. poor imag
e rejection d. no power stability answer = b What does ALC means? a. All local C
ircuits b. Automatic level control c. Asynchronous Link Control d. Automatic Lin
k Circuit answer = a What is an ideal pulse? a. a perfect square wave with zero
rise time b. a very short duration c. a high amplitude d. a low duty cycle
answer = a What happens to the spectrum of repetitive pulse as the pulse width d
e creases? a. more harmonics of the same phase b. less harmonics of the same pha
se c. remain constant d. decreases answer = d A major advantage of the vacuum tu
be is its need for a _______ to give energy to the electrons. a. Voltage source
b. line equalizer c. limiter d. heater answer = c Keyed AGC is AGC that: a. Work
s only on Morse code b. Is activated when keyed by the transmitting signal c. Is
used is TV receivers so that transmitted picture brightness does not affect the
AGC d. Is used in color TV receivers so that the transmitted color has no e ffe
ct on the AGC answer = a What is the main disadvantage of a single-tube transmit
ter a. Frequency instability b. Low gain c. High resistivity d. High attenuation
answer = b What is the name of the operation that uses an antenna changeover sw
it ch? a. Duplex b. Simplex c. Crossover d. Switching answer = a Which of o spec
trum? a. 8.2345 b. 150.50 c. 2.4555 d. 35.535 the following falls under the high
frequency band of the radi MHz MHz MHz MHz
answer = c What is reduced by rounding off square-wave emissions? a. Amplitude b
. Phase c. Bandwidth d. Energy answer = b What is gained by operating an oscilla
tor on some subharmonic of the tr ansmission frequency? a. Frequency sensitivity
b. Frequency stability c. High sensitivity d. Good selectivity answer = d What t
ype of coupling discriminates against harmonic transmission? a. Capacitive b. Di
rect c. Transformer d. Inductive answer = a What class of bias should produce le
ast harmonics? a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D answer = c What type
of field does a Faraday shield stop? a. Common b. Array c. Electrostatic d. Magn
etostatic answer = a What type of circuit reduces even-order harmonics? a. Push-
pull b. Class A c. Armstrong circuit d. Demodulator answer = d How many watts ar
e represented by 40dBw? a. 40,000w b. 1,000w c. 40w d. 10,000w answer = a Term f
or transmission of printed picture by radio. a. Facsimile b. ACSSB c. Xerography
d. Television answer = b What is another name for an AF volume control? a. FC b
. Gain c. ARC d. AMC answer = d What device can be used to make a modulated enve
lope visible? a. Spectrum analyzer b. Synthesizer c. Calibrator d. Oscilloscope
answer = b Which of the following is not an advantage of SSB over AM? a. Power s
aving b. Simple receiver circuit c. Less spectrum d. None of these answer = b Wh
at is the result if a balanced modulator is not perfectly balanced? a. b. c. d.
SB filtered Carrier transmitted Lower sideband transmitted Both sideband transmi
tted
answer = d If two signals are in quadrature, what is their phase relation? a. 0
b. 45 c. 180 d. 90 answer = d What method can be used to invert speech? a. Frequ
ency multiplier b. Inverter c. AGC d. Frequency translation answer = b In SSB, v
oice compression is better in the AF or RF section? a. AF b. RF c. Intermediate
d. SB answer = a What is the circuit that changes modulated RF to AF? a. Demodul
ator b. Modem c. Synthesizer d. Modulator answer = a What kind of crystal is use
d in oscillator? a. Quartz b. Galena c. Carborundum d. Salt answer = b Power is
always _____ a. A definite amount of energy b. All of these c. The rate at which
energy is used d. Expressed in watts answer = c Which of the following services
would use crystal local oscillators?
a. b. c. d.
AM FM Aircraft Shortwave listeners
answer = b What does VOX mean? a. Very Onward circuit b. Voice-operated transmis
sion c. Voice Onward transmission d. Very Oxford Transmitter answer = b What is
an NO RY? a. Non operational Relay b. Normally Open Relay c. Normally Ready d. N
on Organic Relay answer = b The Extremely hihg frequency(EHF) band is in the rad
io spectrum range of ______. a. 30 to 300 kHZ b. 30 to 300 GHZ c. 3 to 30 MHz d.
3 to 30 GHz answer = d What kind of system relays has remote readings? a. Broad
casting b. Data gathering c. Telecast d. Telemetering answer = c What causes aud
io signals to be distorted in the receiver? a. Interference b. Gain c. Harmonics
d. Amplitude answer = d Which of the following is not normally tested in a tran
smitter? a. Power b. Modulation c. Frequency d. Amplitude answer = d Which of th
e following items need not to be checked with receivers? a. Sensitivity b. Squel
ch c. Distortion d. Gain answer = b What is the source of wheel static? a. Wheel
b. Brakes c. Piston
d. Oscillations answer = b _______ frequencies are exact multiples of the fundam
ental frequency. a. b. c. d. Distortion Harmonic Modulation Radio
answer = d Amplitude distortion results from _______ amplification. a. Indirect
b. Linear c. Direct d. Nonlinear answer = c A _____ is a resonant circuit tuned
to reject an undesired signal by r educing the gain at the trap frequency a. LC
tank b. LPF c. Wave trap d. HPF answer = a A subcarrier has a(n) _____ frequency
than the main carrier. a. Lower b. Higher c. Equal d. Good answer = a Amplitude
limiting in the IF section eliminates ___ interference from the FM signal. a. A
M b. FM c. PM d. Broadband answer = b With which emission type is capture-effect
most pronounced? a. CW b. FM c. SSB d. AM answer = d The parameter of a high fr
equency carrier that may be varied by a low frequency intelligence signal is a.
Amplitude b. Frequency c. Phase d. All of the above answer = a A carrier signal
has ____. a. Constant peak amplitude b. The information c. Frequency range 20-20
000Hz
d. A varying amplitude answer = c The type of emission for FM stereo(multiplex)
broadcasting is a. F3E b. A3E c. F8E d. A8E answer = b The method of generating
FM used by broadcast station is ______. a. Direct b. Indirect c. Insertion d. Al
l of these answer = a In TV broadcasting in the Philippines, the aspect ratio of
the picture frame is ____. a. 4:3 b. 2:1 c. 4:1 d. 3:1 answer = c Horizontal bl
anking time in TV. a. 10.16 us b. 16.67 us c. 63.5 us d. 1 us answer = c The sta
ndard coaxial impedance for CATV applications is_______. a. 36 ohms b. 72 ohms c
. 75 ohms d. 300 ohms answer = a The service area in which the ground wave field
of 1mV/m is not subjec t to objectionable interference. a. Primary b. Secondary
c. Intermittent d. Tertiary answer = a Which frequency band is the standard AM
radio broadcast? a. MF b. VHF c. HF d. UHF answer = c Which frequency band is th
e standard AM radio broadcast? a. HF b. UHF c. MF d. VHF
answer = d The width of television broadcast channel a. 200MHz b. 10kHz c. 100kH
z d. 6MHz answer = b CATV trunk and feeder system amplifier input voltage of ___
__. a. 110 V b. 220 V c. 500 V d. 1000 V
answer = b Which antenna does not use the ground? a. Marconi b. Yagi c. Hertz d.
Rhombic answer = a What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shorten
ed through the use of loading coils? a. It is increased b. It is decreased c. No
change occurs d. It becomes fast answer = a What is the polarization of a disco
ne antenna? a. Vertical b. Horizontal c. Circular d. Spiral answer = b If the an
tenna increases 3.3 times, how much does the radiated power increase? a. 3.3 tim
es b. 10.89 times c. 9.9 times d. 6.6 times answer = c When speaking of antennas
, ___________ is a section which would be a complete a ntenna by itself. a. imag
e b. top loading c. bay d. quarterwave answer = a In what range of frequencies a
re most omnidirectional horizontally polarized an tennas used? a. VHF, UHF b. VL
F, LF c. SH, EHF d. MF, HF
answer = b If the current ratios of the two or more elements must be held 5% and
the phase angle to 3 degrees, the antenna is called a a. end fire array b. crit
ical phased array c. broadband array d. wideband array answer = a A device that
converts high frequency current into electromagnetic wave. a. Antenna b. Loudspe
aker c. Microphone d. Transducer answer = a Which is a non-resonant antenna? a.
Rhombic antenna b. Folded dipole c. End-fire array d. Yagi-Uda antenna answer Ga
in of a. 2.15 b. 1.76 c. 1 dB d. 0 dB = a a half-wave dipole antenna over isotro
pic. dB dB
answer = b Very low signal strength in antenna. a. Minor lobes b. Null c. Antenn
a patterns d. Major lobes answer What is a. 1.64 b. 2.15 c. 1.76 d. 1.55 = c the
gain of the Hertzian dipole over isotropic antenna? dB dB dB dB
answer = c ____________ is the measurement of a unilateral antenna properties of
directivi ty. a. Phase angle b. Antenna gain c. Beamwidth d. Bandwidth answer =
b In testing transmitter to prevent interfering with other stations, which type
o f antenna must be used? a. Void antenna b. Dummy antenna c. Hertzian antenna
d. Isotropic antenna
answer = a The best solution of fading is ____________. a. space diversity b. fr
equency diversity c. polarization diversity d. wavelength diversity answer = c _
____________ is the amount of uncertainty in a system of symbols. a. Bandwidth b
. Enthalpy c. Entropy d. Quantum answer = b If an antenna has a gain of 30 dB, i
t increases the output of the transmitter b y a. b. c. d. 10,000 times 1000 time
s 100 times 1 million times
answer = c Top loading is used in an antenna in order to increase its __________
_____. a. practical height b. beamwidth c. effective height d. input capacitance
answer = b A horizontal antenna is ______________. a. vertically polarized b. h
orizontally polarized c. centrally polarized d. circularly polarized answer = a
All elements in a beam ____________ antennas are in line. a. collinear b. yagi c
. broadside array d. log-periodic answer = b Which does not use vertical polariz
ation antenna? a. AM Broadcasting b. FM Broadcasting c. Mobile Communications d.
Satellite Communications answer = c Lightning rods must be mounted a top struct
ure not less than ____________ above the highest point. a. 10 cm b. 20 cm c. 30
cm d. 40 cm answer = a _________________ is the antenna with a number of half-wa
ve antenna on it.
a. b. c. d.
Antenna array Tower Omni-directional Rhombic
answer = a Which antenna radiates an omnidirectional pattern in the horizontal p
lane with vertical polarization? a. Marconi antenna b. Discone antenna c. Horn a
ntenna d. Helical antenna answer = d An antenna with very high gain and very nar
row beamwidth. a. Helical antenna b. Discone antenna c. Horn antenna d. Paraboli
c dish antenna answer = d What determines antenna a. The frequency of the b. The
direction of the c. The direction of the d. The direction of the polarization?
radiated wave radiated wave magnetic field vector electric field vector
answer = a ______________ is the horizontal pointing angle of an antenna. a. Azi
muth b. Angle of elevation c. Right angle d. Beamwidth answer = b A dipole anten
na requires to be fed with 20 kW of power to produce a given sign al strength to
a particular distant pt. If the addition of a reflector makes the same field st
rength available with an input power of 11 kW. What is the gain in dB, obtained
by the use of the reflector. (Gain referred to this particular dip ole). a. 4.75
b. 2.6 c. 1.81 d. 4.24 answer = c What is the estimated medium wind loading in
the Philippines for antenna tower design? a. 300 kph b. 100 kph c. 200 kph d. 25
0 kph answer = a Discone radiation pattern is _____________. a. omnidirectional
b. unidirectional c. bidirectional d. figure of eight
answer = c ______________ is an open-ended slot antenna. a. Helical antenna b. R
hombic antenna c. Notch antenna d. Cassegrain antenna answer = b Which antenna i
s a properly terminated? a. Marconi b. Rhombic c. Dipole d. Yagi-Uda answer = b
What is the radiation characteristic of a dipole antenna? a. Omnidirectional b.
Bidirectional c. Unidirectional d. Hemispherical answer What is a. 1.76 b. 2.15
c. 3 dB d. 0 dB = a the theoretical gain of a Hertzian dipole? dB dB
answer = c An antenna with unity gain. a. Rhombic b. Half-wave dipole c. Isotrop
ic d. Whip answer = b How will you increase the gain of an antenna? a. By adding
several antennas in parallel b. By focusing the radiated energy in one desired
direction c. By making antenna rods thicker d. By making the antenna size larger
answer = d An antenna which is one-tenth wavelength long. a. Hertzian dipole b.
Loop antenna c. Marconi antenna d. Elementary doublet answer = a What is the mi
nimum number of turns a helix antenna must have? a. 3 b. 5 c. 4 d. 6 answer = b
What is the gain of isotropic antenna? a. 10 b. 1
c. 10 d. 100 answer = d Which of the following improves antenna directivity? a.
Driven element b. Reflector element c. Director element d. Parasitic element ans
wer = c The antenna radiates __________ polarized waves when the transmitter ant
enna is horizontally installed. a. Vertically b. negatively c. horizontally d. c
ircularly answer = c The length of a Marconi antenna to operate with 985 kHz is
___________. a. 200 ft b. 500 ft c. 250 ft d. 999 ft answer = b What is the fron
t-to-back ratio of an antenna which radiates 500 watts in a nor thernly directio
n and 50 watts in a southernly direction? a. 25000 dB b. 10 dB c. 100 dB d. 20 d
B answer = c If 4 kW in antenna produces 50 uV/m in a receiving antenna, a 16 kW
will produc e __________. a. 200 uV/m b. 10 uV/m c. 100 uV/m d. 20 uV/m answer
= a If the radiated power increase 10.89 times, the antenna current increases by
__ __________. a. 3.3 times b. 6.6 times c. 1.82 times d. 10.89 times answer =
b The frequency of operation of a dipole antenna cut to a length of 3.4 m. a. 88
MHz b. 44 MHz c. 22 MHz d. 11 MHz answer = d Comparing the signal strength arri
ving at the driven element from the desired d irection to the signal strength re
aching the driver from the opposite direction.
a. b. c. d.
Directivity Sensitivity Beamwidth Front-to-back ratio
answer = c What is the capture area of a dipole operated at 75 MHz? a. 44 mm^2 b
. 2 m^2 c. 2.088 m^2 d. 4.088 m^2 answer = c ________________ of an antenna is a
measure of how the antenna concentrates it s radiated power in a given directio
n. a. Efficiency b. Power c. Gain d. Polarization answer = a Shortening effect o
f an antenna that makes it appear as if it were 5% longer. a. End effect b. Flyw
heel effect c. Skin effect d. Capture effect answer = a Harmonic suppressor conn
ected to an antenna. a. Low-pass filter b. High-pass filter c. M-derived filter
d. Constant-K answer = c A simple half-wavelength antenna radiates the strongest
signal a. at 45 degrees to its axis b. parallel to its axis c. at right angles
to its axis d. at 60 degrees to its axis answer = a The current maximum in a Mar
coni antenna is found at a. the base of the antenna b. the center of the antenna
c. some point between the base and the center of the antenna d. the top of the
antenna answer = b If an antenna is too short for the wavelength being used, the
effective length can be increased by adding: a. capacitance in series b. induct
ance in series c. resistance in parallel d. resistance in series answer = d Whic
h of the following antennas is used for testing and adjusting a transmitter for
proper modulation, amplifier operation and frequency accuracy? a. Elementary
b. Real c. Isotropic d. Dummy answer = b The power fed to a two-bay turnstile an
tenna is 100 watts. If the antenna has a 2dB power gain, what is the effective r
adiated power? a. 317 watts b. 158 watts c. 200 watts d. 400 watts answer = a Wh
at is the gain, in dB of a helical antenna with diameter of lambda/3, 10 turn s
at pitch of lambda/4, used at 100 MHz? a. 16 b. 41.1 c. 31.4 d. 1.25 answer = d
How is it possible to lower the resonant frequency of Hertz dipole antenna? a. B
y reducing the frequency at the transmitter b. By connecting a capacitor in seri
es with the antenna c. By connecting a resistor in series with the antenna d. By
connecting an inductor in series with the antenna answer = d Which of the follo
wing antennas receive signals in the horizontal plane equally well from all dire
ctions? a. Horizontal Hertz antenna b. Vertical loop antenna c. Vertical Yagi an
tenna d. A vertical antenna which is a quarter-wavelength long answer = c If the
length of a Hertz dipole is decreased a. its resonant frequency will be lowered
its distributed inductance will be in creased. b. its distributed inductance wi
ll be decreased c. its resonant frequency will be increased d. its distributed c
apacitance between the antenna and ground will be increased answer = d A final a
mplifier of a radio transmitter draws 250 mA of plate current when the plate sup
ply voltage is 1400 volts. If the plate circuit efficiency is 80% and the transm
itter is connected to an antenna having a feed impedance of 70 ohms, w hat is th
e antenna current at the feed-point? a. 4.0 A b. 2.2 A c. 1.25 A d. 2.0 A answer
= d A one-quarter wavelength shunt-fed vertical Marconi antenna a. has maximum
radiation in a vertical direction b. must have a horizontal receiving antenna fo
r the best reception c. must use a receiving antenna for the best reception d. m
ust have a vertical receiving antenna for the best reception
answer = c A shunt-fed quarter-wavelength Marconi antenna a. has maximum RF impe
dance to ground at its feedpoint b. has a current null at its feedpoint c. has z
ero DC resistance to ground d. has zero RF resistance to ground answer = d The p
arasitic element of an antenna system will a. decrease its directivity b. increa
se its directivity c. give the antenna unidirectional properties d. both B and C
answer = d If the length of an antenna is changed from 2.5 meters to 2.8 meters
, its reson ant frequency will a. increase b. depend on the velocity factor so t
he resonant frequency can either be increa sed or decreased c. will be unchanged
d. decrease answer = a What is the effect of adding a capacitor in series with
an antenna? a. The antenna's resonant frequency will increase b. The antenn
a's resonant frequency will decrease c. The antenna will be physically 5% l
onger than its electrical length d. A capacitor is never added in series with an
antenna answer = d How does the electric field strength of a standard broadcast
station vary with the distance from the antenna? a. The field strength of a sta
ndard broadcast station vary with the distance fr om the antenna b. The field st
rength is directly proportional to the distance from the antenn a c. The field s
trength remains constant regardless of the distance from the ante nna d. The fie
ld strength varies inversely as the distance from the antenna answer = d Stackin
g elements in a transmitting antenna system a. increases the field strength at t
he receiving antenna b. increases the directivity of the transmitter antenna c.
decrease the size of the lobe in the radiation pattern d. both A and B answer =
d A vertical loop antenna has a a. unidirectional radiation pattern in the horiz
ontal plane b. unidirectional radiation pattern in the vertical plane c. omnidir
ectional radiation pattern in the horizontal plane d. a bidirectional radiation
pattern in the horizontal plane answer = b In order to get maximum radiation to
all surrounding points in the horizontal p lane, the antenna used is a a. vertic
al loop
b. vertical quarter-wavelength rod c. array which includes parasitic elements d.
a horizontal Hertz dipole answer = a What is the electrical wavelength of a 500
MHz signal? a. 60 centimeters b. 6 meters c. 0.06 meter d. 60 meters answer = a
If the antenna current is doubled, the field strength at a particular position
is a. doubled b. halved c. multiplied by a factor of four d. divided by a factor
of four answer = d The rhombic antenna is primarily used for a. ground wave pro
pagation b. space wave propagation c. ionospheric scatter propagation d. sky wav
e propagation answer = b What antenna radiates equally in all directions? a. Ver
tical antenna b. Isotropic antenna c. Horizontal antenna d. Dipole antenna answe
r = c Actual height of antenna should be at least a. one wavelength b. half wave
length c. quarter wavelength d. three-fourth wavelength answer = a Which antenna
is not properly terminated? a. Resonant b. Non-resonant c. Isotropic d. Whip an
swer = a _______________ is an antenna array which is highly directional at righ
t angles to the plane of the array? a. Broadside array b. End-fire array c. Turn
stile array d. Log-periodic array answer = b The directivity pattern of an isotr
opic radiator is a. a figure-8 b. a sphere c. a unidirectional cardioid
d. a parabola answer = d An isotropic radiator is a. in the northern hemisphere
b. an antenna high enough in the air c. an antenna whose directive pattern is su
bstantially incredible d. a hypothetical, omnidirectional antenna answer = d The
purpose of stacking elements on an antenna. a. Sharper directional pattern b. I
ncreased gain c. Improved bandpass d. All of these answer = d The advantage of u
sing top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna is a. lower quality factor b
. greater structural strength c. higher losses d. improved radiation efficiency
answer = d Where are the voltage nodes in a half-wave antenna? a. At the ends b.
Three-quarters of the way from the feed point toward the end c. One-half of the
way from the feed point toward the end d. At the feed point answer = b A theore
tical reference antenna that provides a comparison for antenna measurem ents. a.
Marconi antenna b. Isotropic radiator c. Yagi-Uda array d. Whip antenna answer
= b A Hertz antenna is operating on a frequency of 2182 kHz and consists of a ho
riz ontal wire that is hanged between two towers. What is the frequency of its t
hird harmonic? a. 727 kHz b. 6546 kHz c. 436 kHz d. 6.546 kHz answer = b In hori
zontal-dipole antenna, the polarization is a. in the vertical direction b. in th
e horizontal direction c. circular d. measured at the center of the antenna answ
er = c Increasing the electrical length of an antenna means a. add an inductor i
n parallel b. add a capacitor in series c. add an inductor in series d. add a re
sistor in series
answer = a Stacking antennas at various angles results in a. a more omnidirectio
nal reception b. a more unidirectional reception c. a less omnidirectional recep
tion d. an overall reception signal increase answer = c What is driven element?
a. Almost the rearmost element b. Always the forward most element c. The element
fed by the transmission line d. The element connected to the rotator answer = d
What is antenna bandwidth? a. Antenna length divided by the number of elements
b. The angle between the half-power radiation points c. The angle formed between
two imaginary lines drawn through d. The frequency range over which an antenna
can be expected to operate satisfa ctorily answer = d To lengthen an antenna ele
ctrically, add a a. resistor b. battery c. conduit d. coil answer = c What is th
e gain of an antenna over a half-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB g ain over a
n isotropic radiator? a. 6.0 dB b. 8.1 dB c. 3.9 dB d. 10.0 dB answer = c What i
s the usual electrical length of a driven element in an HF beam antenna? a. 1/4
wavelength b. 3/4 wavelength c. 1/2 wavelength d. 1 wavelength answer = d To ele
ctrically decrease the length of an antenna, a. add an inductor in the series b.
add an inductor in the parallel c. add a resistor in the series d. add a capaci
tor in the series answer = d Strong interference from one particular station can
be eliminated by the use of a. b. c. d. noise limiters squelch circuits negativ
e feedback wave traps in the antenna circuitry
answer = a It is useful to refer to an isotropic radiator a. when comparing the
gains of directional antennas b. when testing a transmission line for standing w
ave ratio c. when (in the northern hemisphere) directing the transmission d. whe
n using a dummy load to tune a transmitter answer = a A disadvantage of using a
trap antenna. a. It will radiate harmonics b. It can only be used for single-ban
d operation c. It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies d. It must be
neutralized answer = b The input terminal impedance at the center of a folded di
pole antenna is a. 72 ohms(s) b. 300 ohms(s) c. 50 ohms(s) d. 73 ohms(s) answer
= d When a capacitor is connected in series with a Marconi antenna? a. Antenna o
pen circuit stops transmission b. An inductor of equal value must be added c. No
change occurs to antenna d. Antenna resonant frequency increases answer = a Whe
re are the current nodes in a half-wave antenna? a. At the ends b. At the center
c. Three-quarters of the way from the feed point toward the end d. One-half of
the way from the feed point toward the end answer = b For a shortened vertical a
ntenna, where should a loading coil be placed to mini mize losses and produce th
e most effective performance? a. As low as possible on the vertical radiator b.
Near the center of the vertical radiator c. As close to the transmitter as possi
ble d. At a voltage node answer = c The effect of adding parasitic elements of a
Hertz dipole is to a. make the antenna more omnidirectional b. reduce its reson
ant frequency c. increase the antenna's power gain d. all of these answer =
a Stacking antenna elements a. increases sensitivity to weak signals b. will su
ppress odd harmonics c. decrease signal to noise ratio d. increase selectivity a
nswer = b In the case of Marconi antenna, the actual length of the radiating ele
ment is a. one-half wavelength
b. one-quarter wavelength c. one wavelength d. one-eight wavelength answer = a T
he antenna efficiency of an HF grounded vertical antenna can be made comparabl e
to that of a half-wave antenna. a. By installing a good ground radial system b.
By isolating the coax shield from ground c. By shortening the vertical d. By le
ngthening the vertical answer = d An antenna "efficiency" is computed
by using one of the following equ ations. a. Efficiency = (radiation resistance
/ transmission resistance) b. Efficiency = (total resistance / radiation resista
nce) x 100% c. Efficiency = (effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 10
0% d. Efficiency = (radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100% answer = a I
ncreasing the resonant frequency of an end-fed Marconi antenna can be done by a.
adding a capacitor in series and reducing the physical length b. adding an indu
ctor in series c. adding an inductor in parallel d. all of these answer = b Fact
ors that determine the radiation resistance of an antenna. a. Transmission line
length and height of antenna. b. The location of the antenna with respect to nea
rby objects c. It is a constant for all antennas since it is physical d. Sunspot
activity and the time of day answer = b ______________ is the angle between the
half-power radiation points. a. Critical angle b. Beamwidth c. Angle of elevati
on d. Azimuth answer = b What is the ratio of the maximum radiation intensity to
the average radiation i ntensity? a. Aperture gain b. Directivity gain c. Trans
mission gain d. Power gain answer = c Good grounding is important for a. horizon
tal antennas b. broadside array antennas c. vertical antennas d. Yagi-Uda antenn
as answer = c An ungrounded antenna near the ground a. acts as a single antenna
of twice the height b. is unlikely to need an earth mat
c. acts as antenna array d. must be horizontally polarized answer = c One of the
following is very useful as a multiband HF receiving antenna. a. Parabolic ante
nna b. Elementary doublet c. Log-periodic d. Square loop answer = b Which of the
following antennas is best excited from a waveguide? a. Biconical b. Horn c. He
lical d. Discone answer = b Indicate which of the following reasons for using me
tal counterpoise with anten nas is false. a. Impossibility of a good ground conn
ection b. Protection of personnel working underneath c. Provision of an earth fo
r the antenna d. Rockiness of the ground itself answer = d Not a reason for the
use of an antenna coupler. a. To make the antenna look resistive b. To provide t
he output amplifier with the correct load impedance c. To discriminate against h
armonics d. To prevent reradiation of the local oscillator answer = d Which ante
nna is not a wideband? a. Discone b. Folded dipole c. Helical d. Marconi answer
= c One of the following is not a reason for the use of an earth mat. a. impossi
bility of a good ground connection b. provision of an earth for the antenna c. p
rotection of personnel working underneath d. improvement of the radiation patter
n of the antenna answer = b One of the following makes an antenna physically lon
g but electrically short. a. Adding L in series b. Adding C in series c. Top loa
ding d. Both A and C answer = b When antennas are closed to the ground, ________
______ polarization is ideal. a. horizontally polarized b. vertically polarized
c. circularly polarized d. both A and B
answer = c _____________ is an antenna made up of a number of full wavelengths.
a. Elementary doublet b. Log-periodic c. Long wire d. Whip answer = b An energy
which radiates in the form of radio waves, infrared waves, light wave s, x-rays,
etc. a. Radiant energy b. Electromagnetic c. Heat d. Ultraviolet answer = b Whi
ch one is an antenna coupling unit? a. Coupler b. Diplexer c. Lecher wire d. Dup
lexer answer = b _______________ polarization is employed in AM broadcasting. a.
Horizontal b. Vertical c. Circular d. Omnidirectional answer = a ______________
_ polarization is employed in FM broadcasting. a. Horizontal b. Vertical c. Circ
ular d. Bidirectional answer = c Which antenna is not grounded at one end? a. He
rtz b. Marconi c. Dipole d. Whip answer = c Which of the class station below is
a regional channel? a. Class I-A b. Class II-D c. Class III-B d. Class IV answer
= a The permissible power in kW of stations II-A during nighttime is a. 0.25 -
50 b. 10 - 50 c. 1 - 5 d. none of these answer = a The television frequency whic
h are now allocated to the land mobile services.
a. b. c. d.
806 800 668 776
and and and and
192 806 674 782
MHz MHz MHz MHz
answer = d Numerical frequency band designation of Channel 9. a. 488 - 494 MHz b
. 530 - 536 MHz c. 632 - 638 MHz d. 186 - 192 MHz answer = c Cable TV systems or
iginates from a. Germany b. Dallas, Texas c. Pennsylvania d. Japan answer = a A
term applied to third and higher order products, which can greatly degrade th e
performance of a system. a. composite triple beat b. single dual mode c. field s
trength d. noise answer = b A station similar to a translator station in terms o
f equipment and service are a, but is permitted to originate programming from vi
rtually any source. a. DME b. LPTV c. HDTV d. ITFS answer = d Three stations are
licensed to eligible educational entities for the distributi on of program mate
rial to students enrolled in instructional curricula. a. translator b. LPTV c. H
DTV d. ITFS answer = c ITFS means a. International b. Instructional c. Instructi
onal d. International
Television Frequency Standard Telephone Frequency Service Television Fixed Servi
ce Telecommunications Frequency Standard
answer = a MDS means a. Multipoint Distribution Service b. Multipoint Digital Se
rvice c. Maritime Data Standards d. Multipoint Drop Standards answer = d Direct
broadcast satellite based allocation. a. 12.2 - 12.7 GHz for downlink
b. 17.3 - 17.8 GHz for uplink c. 3.7 - 4.2 GHz for downlink d. 12.2 - 12.7 GHz f
or downlink and 17.3 - 17.8 GHz for uplink answer = a What is the channel number
of an FM station with 88.1 MHz carrier? a. 201 b. 202 c. 203 d. 204 answer = c
What is the carrier frequency of an FM station with channel number of 300? a. 10
7.5 MHz b. 101.1 MHz c. 107.9 MHz d. 99.5 MHz answer = c If an FM station has an
effective radiated power of 100 kW then it is under wha t class? a. Class A b.
Class B c. Class C d. Class D answer = d The video signal amplitude determines t
he quality of the picture otherwise know n as a. hue b. luminance c. chrominance
d. contrast answer = a _____ is defined as "to send out in all direction&q
uot;. a. broadcast b. announce c. media d. all of these answer = b The ultimate
Dolby surround system is the a. Dolby NR b. Dolby Prologic c. dBx d. Hall Matrix
answer = d A mechanism or device which enables the TV camera to move in lateral
and tiltin g motion. a. panning device b. scanner c. tilting d. pan/tilt device
answer = d Which of the following is the first component of any MATV system to
receive bro adcast signals? a. filter
b. LNA c. RF amplifier d. antenna answer = a Is the most common technique where
apartment houses, hotels, schools, condomini ums, and multi-unit buildings distr
ibute TV and FM signals to a number of receiv ers, using a single head-end. a. C
CTV b. CATV c. MATV d. antenna answer = d TV channels 2, 4, and 5 belong to a. l
ow band UHF b. high band VHF c. mid band UHF d. low band VHF answer = c Which of
the following is a solid state imaging device? a. VIDICON b. ICONOSCOPE c. char
ge couple device d. CCTV answer = b What class of TV camera lens used to cover s
hort distances? a. normal b. wide angle c. telephoto d. zoom answer = c What cla
ss of TV camera lens used to cover long distances? a. normal b. wide angle c. te
lephoto d. zoom answer = d What is the local oscillator frequency in commercial
AM broadcast if it is equa l to 455 kHz? a. 0 to 1,500 kHz b. 0 to 456 kHz c. 54
0 to 1,600 kHz d. 955 to 2055 kHz answer = c What is the allowable deviation rat
io of commercial FM broadcast? a. 20 b. 75 c. 5 d. 25 answer = d The maximum pow
er suggested by KBP on 919-1312 AM broadcast station in Metro Ma nila is a. 5 kW
b. 10 kW c. 15 kW d. 20 kW answer = b KBP radio code mandates that station must
provide a minimum of _____ minutes of news per day from 5:00 in the morning to 1
0:00 in the evening. a. 30 b. 45 c. 50 d. 60 answer = a What is the chroma subca
rrier signal frequency for color television? a. 3.8 MHz b. 6.8 MHz c. 7.8 MHz d.
8.8 MHz answer = d What is the frequency tolerance of an FM radio broadcast sta
tion? a. 20,000 Hz b. 20 Hz c. 200 Hz d. 2,000 Hz answer = c The minimum frequency
eparation between frequency of AM broadcasting station. a. 9 kHz b. 18 kHz c. 36
kHz d. 72 kHz answer = d The aspect ratio of HDTV is a. 4:3 b. 18:5 c. 14:8 d.
16:9 answer = a A newscast is a distinct unit of a program with a minimum news c
ontent of _____ minute(s) excluding intro, extro, headline, and commercial load.
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 answer = d In accordance with existing provision of law and
the KBP rules and regulations, all stations shall actively promote the growth a
nd the development of Filipino music by playing _____ OPM every clock hour. a. 1
b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 answer = a Commercial load for radio shall not exceed _____ minu
tes for one hour program i n Metro Manila.
a. b. c. d.
15 20 25 30
answer = c Commercial load for radio shall not exceed _____ minutes for a one-ho
ur program outside Metro Manila. a. 15 b. 16 c. 17 d. 20 answer = b Program inte
rruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not exc eed _____ br
eaks in every program hour. a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8 answer = b Program interruption
for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila shall no t exceed ____ breaks
in every program hour. a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8 answer = a For Metro Manila, the clas
sification of prime time blocks for FM shall be a. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM b. 6:00 AM
to 12:00 NN c. 6:00 AM to 6:00 PM d. 12:00 NN to 12:00 MN answer = a For provin
cial station, the classification of prime time blocks for FM radio sh all be: a.
6:00 AM to 8:00 PM b. 6:00 AM to 12:00 NN c. 6:00 AM to 6:00 PM d. 12:00 NN to
12:00 MN answer = b All airtime classifications shall be submitted to and subjec
t for approval by t he a. NTC b. KBP-SA c. DOTC d. CCITT answer = a _____ is the
time duration for one horizontal trace. a. 52 s b. 62 s c. 48 s d. 50 s answer = c
Listing of the date and time of events, programs, equipments, tests, malfunctio
ns, and corrections in communications system. a. reporting b. documentation c. l
og d. file answer = d Which of the following is not a low-impedance microphone?
a. dynamic b. velocity c. condenser d. crystal answer = d Facsimile permits remo
te duplications of which of the following items? a. map b. pictures c. printed p
age d. all of these answer = c Television has a lot of features in common with a
. FM stereo b. telephone service c. motion picture d. magazine answer = a The ma
jor component of the TV signal waveform is the a. video b. radar c. stereo d. an
tenna answer = d For NTSC TV system, the image is scanned from a. top to bottom
b. left to right c. right to left d. choices A and B above answer = b One comple
te NTSC scanning cycle called field consist of how many lines? a. 500 b. 525 c.
625 d. 60 answer = c The field rate in the NTSC television system. a. 30 Hz b. 1
20 Hz c. 60 Hz d. 15.75 Hz answer = c What is the horizontal synchronous / blank
ing pulse rate? a. 30 Hz b. 60 Hz
c. 15.75 kHz d. 120 Hz answer = b What is the vertical blanking pulse rate? a. 3
0 Hz b. 60 Hz c. 15.75 kHz d. 120 Hz answer = d The pulses riding on the vertica
l blanking pulse. a. equalizing (sync) pulse b. serrated vertical sync pulses c.
black level pulses d. choices A and B above answer = d Television camera pickup
tube is called a. vidicon b. image orthicon c. plumbicon d. all of the above an
swer = d The television picture tube magnetic fields can be used for a. beam foc
using b. beam deflection c. beam modulation d. beam focusing and beam deflection
answer What is a. beam b. beam c. beam d. beam = c the purpose of an indirectly
-heated cathode in a cathode ray tube? focusing deflection production modulation
answer = d Video modulation for television is a. amplitude modulation b. frequen
cy modulation c. vestigial sideband d. both amplitude modulation and vestigial s
ideband answer = b Audio modulation for television is a. amplitude modulation b.
frequency modulation c. vestigial sideband d. both amplitude modulation and ves
tigial sideband answer = a What is the maximum frequency deviation for audio mod
ulation in TV transmission ? a. b. c. d. 25 30 50 75 kHz kHz kHz kHz
answer = a The video carrier and the audio carrier are separated by _____ MHz. a
. 4.5 b. 5.5 c. 6.5 d. 7.5 answer = a In practical image scanned at the NTSC rat
e, the spectrum will include componen ts clustered at the fundamentals and harmo
nics of _____ kHz. a. 15.75 b. 30 c. 12.25 d. 45.5 answer = d Brightness of an i
mage is known as a. radiance b. chrominance c. reflectance d. luminance answer =
a The colors at the vertices of the color triangle are referred to as a. primar
y b. white c. desaturated d. all of the above answer = d A color signal which or
iginate in the camera itself with color television picku p? a. red b. green c. b
lue d. all of these answer = a What are the three separate signals derived from
a matrix in a color TV transmi tter? a. Y, I and Q b. P, D and Q c. M, N and O d
. R, S and T answer = b Range of a VHF television transmitter. a. 54 - 98 MHz b.
54 - 216 MHz c. 54 - 128 MHz d. 54 - 166 MHz answer = c Range of a UHF televisi
on transmitter. a. 470 - 670 MHz b. 470 - 770 MHz c. 470 - 890 MHz d. 470 - 980
MHz answer = b
What is the approximate bandwidth occupied by the chrominance video signal for c
olor TV? a. 0.8 MHz b. 1.8 MHz c. 8.1 MHz d. 1.6 MHz answer = a The colors found
around the perimeter of the color triangle are said to be a. saturated b. dark
c. light d. monochrome answer = b At what position of the color triangle will sa
turated yellow be located? a. between red and blue b. between red and green c. b
etween blue and green d. at the center answer = d What is the phase difference b
etween the I and Q color signal carriers? a. 0 deg b. 45 deg c. 60 deg d. 90 deg
answer = d _____ is the most effective filter for separating luminance and chro
minance fre quency components. a. low pass b. band pass c. notch d. comb answer
= a The chrominance processing circuits can be deactivated when monochrome broad
cas ts are received by the a. color killer b. SAW filter c. NOT gate d. all of t
he above answer = d What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for blanki
ng? a. 25 % b. 0 % c. 12.5 % d. 75 % answer = d What is the standard video level
, in percent PEV, for black? a. 0 % b. 25 % c. 12.5 % d. 70 % answer = a What is
the standard video level, in percent PEV, for white?
a. b. c. d.
0 % 12.5 % 25 % 70 %
answer = d One should first perform _____ before a convergence setup is performe
d. a. gray tracking b. screen setting c. alignment d. degaussing answer = d If t
here are too many harmonics, one should check the a. coupling b. tuning of circu
its c. shielding d. any of these answer = a In transmitter amplifier design, an
even-order harmonics can be prevented or re duced by a. using a push-pull amplif
ier b. operating class C c. operating class AB d. all of these answer = a The ve
rtical and horizontal pulses are separated at the a. sync separator b. AFC c. hi
gh voltage d. AGC answer = a The reason why buffer stage is included in a transm
itter is to a. present a constant load to the oscillator stage b. present a low
input impedance to the oscillator stage c. stop the oscillator from generating p
arasitic oscillations d. all of these answer = b Where is the operating position
of a radio station? a. on the bridge b. at the control point c. at the location
of the receiver d. at the location of the transmitter answer = d The alignment
of the three color guns to a common point is known as a. blooming b. confetti c.
demodulation d. convergence answer = b A _____ is equivalent to 525 scanning li
nes. a. field b. frame c. cycle
d. interface set answer = a A _____ represents one set of 262 1/2 scanning lines
. a. field b. frame c. cycle d. interface set answer = c The number of scanning
lines is _____ per second. a. 14,750 b. 15,570 c. 15,750 d. 16,550 answer = b Pi
cture frames are repeated at the rate of _____ per second. a. 25 b. 30 c. 40 d.
50 answer = b Lack of raster is an indication of no a. AGC b. high voltage c. vi
deo signal d. television signal answer = c The sound and video signals are separ
ated at the _____ of the TV receiver. a. IF stage b. video amplifier c. video de
tector d. burst separator answer = b The presence of color bars is an indication
that there is a problem in the ____ _ circuit. a. horizontal b. reactor c. burs
t separator d. chroma amplifier answer = b Type of emission produced when a freq
uency modulated transmitter is modulated b y a TV signal. a. A3F b. F3F c. A3C d
. F3C answer = c What is emission A3F? a. RTTY b. SSB c. TV d. modulated CW
answer = c What is emission F3F? a. facsimile b. modulated CW c. television d. R
TTY answer = a Cause of slow rising white "hum bars" in the television
. a. bad filter b. bad rectifier c. bad picture tube d. high voltage transformer
answer = b Adjusting the _____ may eliminate color confetti. a. color chroma am
plifier b. color killer c. color detector d. color oscillator answer = c Video s
ignal amplitude determine the picture quality called a. chrominance b. brightnes
s c. contrast d. luminance answer = b Part of broadcast day from midnight to loc
al sunshine. a. daytime b. experimental c. nighttime d. dawntime answer = b Part
of broadcast day from local sunset to local sunrise. a. dawntime b. nighttime c
. daytime d. experimental answer = c What causes snow in television? a. high Q i
n a tuned circuit b. excessive gain c. random noise in a signal d. insufficient
wave traps answer = b Vestigial sideband is known as _____ type of emission. a.
CF3 b. C3F c. B8E d. A3E answer = a Vestigial sideband modulation is commonly us
ed in a. TV broadcasting b. monaural broadcasting
c. stereo broadcasting d. HF point-to-point communications answer = d Which of t
he following filters block FM radio band for TV channels (2 to 13)? a. high pass
filter b. low pass filter c. band pass filter d. band reject filter answer = c
The FM broadcast band is from a. 535 to 1,600 Hz b. 30 to 300 kHz c. 88 to 108 M
Hz d. 300 to 2,000 MHz answer = c The type of emission used by standard AM radio
broadcast. a. A5C b. A0 c. A3 d. F3 answer = a The standard AM radio broadcast
belongs to which frequency band? a. MF b. HF c. VHF d. LF answer = d When were U
HF channels (14-83) of television added? a. 1902 b. 1945 c. 1947 d. 1952 answer
= c When was colored TV standards established in the United States? a. 1904 b. 1
945 c. 1953 d. 1960 answer = c What synchronizes the horizontal line of the TV p
icture tube? a. HFC b. HSC c. HAFC d. all of these answer = b A measure of how w
ell the receiver can respond to very weak signals. a. selectivity b. sensitivity
c. fidelity d. quality factor answer = b
What is the allowable frequency deviation of a commercial FM broadcast band? a.
15 kHz b. 75 kHz c. 5 kHz d. 100 kHz answer = c The final amplifier of either FM
or AM transmitter is operated as a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D an
swer = d Standard AM broadcasting use _____ for greater and efficient coverage.
a. circular polarized wave antenna b. horizontal polarized wave antenna c. both
vertical and horizontal polarized wave antenna d. vertical polarized wave antenn
a answer = c Receiver sensitivity means a. the frequency allocation of the syste
m b. input impedance of the receiver c. the ability of picking up weak signal d.
the power to deliver the information answer = c The main functions of the RF am
plifier in a superheterodyne receiver is to a. provide improved tracking b. perm
it better adjacent-channel rejection c. improve the rejection of the image frequ
ency d. all of these answer = c Local oscillator of a broadcast receiver always
tunes to a frequency higher tha n the incoming frequency in order a. to help the
image frequency rejection b. to allow easy tracking c. to allow adequate freque
ncy coverage without switching d. all of these answer = a Type of filter used in
TV receivers that separates the chroma signal from the c olorplexed video signa
l but leaves intact the Y-component. a. comb filter b. bandpass filter c. color
filter d. low pass filter answer = b What is the first letter-symbol for emissio
n of unmodulated carrier? a. A b. N c. H d. F answer = a The channel for cable T
V frequency range of 5.75 to 11.75 MHz. a. T-1
b. T-8 c. 2 d. 3 answer = a The frequency range for cable TV channel T-13. a. 23
.75 - 29.75 MHz b. 60 - 66 MHz c. 41.75 - 47.55 MHz d. 5.75 - 11.75 MHz answer =
c Channel 8 frequency range allocation in cable TV. a. 54 - 60 MHz b. 66 - 72 M
Hz c. 180 - 186 MHz d. 204 - 210 MHz answer = b The _____ of a television system
is a measure of its ability to delineate pictu re detail. a. constant b. resolu
tion c. hue d. pixels answer = a CCIR standards for the internal exchange of pro
grammes on film for television u sed. a. Rec. 265 - 6 b. Rec. 407 - 4 c. Rec. 40
8 - 5 d. Rec. 450 - 1 answer = d CCIR transmission standards for FM sound broadc
asting at VHF. a. Rec. 601.2 b. Rec. 501.2 c. Rec. 500.4 d. Rec. 450.1 answer =
c ISO Rec. 23 in 1976 is the standard for a. recorded characteristics for magnet
ic sound records on full cost 16 mm motio n picture film b. projector usage of 1
6 mm motion picture films for direct front projector c. camera usage of 35 mm mo
tion picture film d. camera usage of 16 mm motion picture film answer = c Intern
ational broadcasting (short wave) uses frequency between _____ in accorda nce wi
th international agreements. a. 7012 and 26,100 kHz b. 6409 and 26,100 kHz c. 59
50 and 26,100 kHz d. 10,950 and 26,100 kHz
answer = c Which of the following is not an advantage of digital transmission? a
. noise immunity b. ease of multiplexing c. bandwidth utilization d. ease of enc
ryption answer = c _____ is the ratio of the largest possible magnitude to the s
mallest possible m agnitude that can be decoded by the DAC. a. resolution b. qua
ntization c. dynamic range d. voltage ratio answer = d A process where the highe
r amplitude analog signals are compressed prior to tra nsmission then expanded a
t the receiver. a. compressing b. expanding c. encoding d. companding answer = b
For a resolution of 0.01 V and analog sample voltage of 0.05 V, the 12-bit line
ar sign-magnitude code is a. 000000000101 b. 100000000101 c. 100010010011 d. 00
0001010001 answer = c _____ uses a single bit PCM code to achieve a digital tran
smission of analog si gnal. a. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation (QAM) b. Frequenc
y Shift Keying (FSK) c. Delta Modulation (DM) d. Phase Modulation (PM) answer =
c The line speed of Bell System T1 carrier system is a. 64 kbps b. 3.152 Mbps c.
1.544 Mbps d. 6.312 Mbps answer = c How many channels does a T2 line carry? a.
24 b. 48 c. 96 d. 672 answer = c The capacity of the standard 4-kHz telephone ch
annel with 30 dB S/N is a. 455225 bps b. 42525 bps c. 39846 bps d. 39840 bps
answer = a How many channels does a super group have? a. 60 b. 600 c. 1800 d. 10
800 answer = b The output frequency at the channel combiner of channel 7 is a. 7
6-80 kHz b. 80-84 kHz c. 84-88 kHz d. 88-92 kHz answer = a The carrier frequency
of the supergroup D25 is a. 2652 kHz b. 2900 kHz c. 2356 kHz d. 2108 kHz answer
= d Which of the following is not a hybrid data? a. data in voice b. data under
voice c. data above voice d. data in video answer = d _____ was the first fixed
-length 5-bit character code. a. EBCDIC b. ASCII c. Morse code d. baudot code an
swer = b CCITT V.26 modem has a modulation rate of _____. a. 1200 Hz b. 1200 bau
ds c. 1560 cps d. 9600 bauds answer = c What can a smart modem do? a. detect tra
nsmission errors and correct them automatically b. correct answer multiple choic
e quizzes c. accepts commands from the terminal via RS232 interface d. do a smar
t game answer = a One is an advantage of PTM over PAM. a. much better noise immu
nity b. low sampling rate required c. simpler to generate d. less costly answer
= a When did ISO adapt the seven-layer OSI model? a. 1983 b. 1973
c. 1963 d. 1953 answer = b Amplitude shift keying is also known as _____. a. up/
down keying b. on/off keying c. front/back keying d. I/O keying answer = a Which
modulation system is used in telephony? a. FSK b. PCM c. Two-tone modulation d.
single-tone modulation answer = b Modulation used by asynchronous data a. QPSK
b. FSK c. PSK d. QAM answer = b PCM systems require _____. a. analog signals b.
large bandwidth c. digital signals d. fiber optic cable answer = c Which theorem
sets the limit on the maximum capacity of a channel with a given noise level? a
. Nyquist theorem b. Hartley theorem c. Shannon-Hartley theorem d. Shannon theor
em answer = a Quantizing noise is present in _____ system. a. PCM b. ATM c. TDM
d. PAM answer = a _____ is the difference between the original and reconstructed
signal a. quantizing noise b. fade margin c. noise margin d. noise figure answe
r = c What is the reason why companding is employed in PCM system? a. to solve q
uantizing noise problem b. to allow amplitude limits in the receivers c. to prot
ect small signals in PCM from quantizing distortion d. to overcome impulse noise
in PCM receivers
answer = b Band of frequencies in a transmission medium allotted to each communi
cation cha nnel on a continuous time basis. a. TDM b. FDM c. CDMA d. broadband a
nswer = b Error control used in high frequency radio data transmission. a. FEC b
. ARQ c. Hamming d. Parity answer = b What are the steps to follow to produce a
PCM signal? a. sampling, coding and quantizing b. sampling, quantizing, and codi
ng c. quantizing, sampling, and coding d. coding, quantizing, and sampling answe
r = a _____ identifies how the different stations in a multipoint system are int
ercon nected. a. network topology b. star network c. ring network d. bus network
answer = b A transmission where data are inputted directly on the cable. a. bro
adband b. baseband c. digital d. analog answer = a A transmission where data are
inputted inside the carrier wave. a. broadband b. baseband c. digital d. analog
answer = c A transmission system for a multidrop network. a. token passing b. C
SMA/CD c. polling d. CSMA/CA answer = a Before attempting to transmit data, each
station has to listen to the channel. a. CSMA/CD b. token passing c. CSMA/CA d.
polling answer = b Synchronous modems cost more than asynchronous modems becaus
e
a. b. c. d.
they are larger they must contain clock recovery circuits the production volume
is larger they must operate on a larger bandwidth
answer = b When one station is designated as master and the rest of the stations
are consi dered slaves, message handling is _____. a. store and forward b. poll
ing c. CSMA/CD d. token passing answer = a The computer that initiates informati
on transfer. a. master b. slave c. DCE d. DTE answer = c A store and forward swi
tching. a. circuit switching b. packet switching c. message switching d. PSTN an
swer = a It is used to connected computers in the same building or in same area.
a. LAN b. WAN c. MAN d. PBX answer = c Two or more LAN linked together over a w
ide geographical area. a. HAN b. MAN c. WAN d. RAN answer = a Which system allow
s different types of networks to be linked together? a. OSI b. CCITT c. Bell sys
tem d. AT & T answer = c OSI consists of how many layers of interconnection?
a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 9 answer = d Which network layer determines if the user can s
end or receive based on whether they can send and receive simultaneously or alte
rnatively? a. physical layer b. data link layer
c. transport layer d. session layer answer = a A _____ that interconnects LAN ha
ving identical protocols at the physical and d ata link layers. a. bridge b. rou
ter c. gateway d. hub answer = b A _____ interconnects LAN having identical prot
ocols at the physical data link and network layers. a. bridge b. router c. gatew
ay d. node answer = c A _____ interconnects LAN that have totally different prot
ocols and format. a. bridge b. router c. gateway d. WAN answer = b All bits in a
character can be sent/received simultaneously. a. serial data b. parallel data
c. full duplex d. duplex answer = b The bits in a character which are sent/recei
ved one at a time. a. parallel data b. serial data c. simplex d. half duplex ans
wer = a A system that perform parallel-to-serial and serial-to-parallel conversi
on of a data link. a. DTE b. DCE c. modem d. FEP answer = b EIA stands for a. El
ectronic Institute Association b. Electronic Industry Association c. Electronic
Improvement Ads d. Electrical Industrial Association answer = d An acoustic mode
m converts a complex digital signal into a. serial form b. parallel form c. radi
o tones
d. audio tones answer = b Which mode of transmission achieves less than full-dup
lex but more than half-du plex? a. full\full duplex b. echoplex c. isochronous d
. synchronous answer = b Rules governing the transmission of digital information
. a. data communications standard b. line protocol c. isochronous d. digital com
munication answer = c Codecs must be a. eight bits per character b. eight seven
or eight bits per character c. agreed upon in advance between sender and receive
r d. the same in all modern computers answer = b The standard ASCII a. is versio
n II of ASC b. has 132 characters including 32 control characters c. is subset o
f a 8-bit EBCDIC code d. is used only in US and Canada answer = c The Baudot cod
e a. was invented by the Baudot brothers b. required the escape character to pri
nt numbers c. requires shift characters to provide sufficient combinations d. a
descendant of Morse code answer = b The corrections and accuracy of the transmit
ted message control is a. verified by the modem b. determined by the sender and
the receiver c. ensured by the used of digital techniques d. dependent on the co
mmunications system used answer = a Framing is a. concerned with the boundaries
between characters b. referred to parallel-to-serial conversion c. concerned wit
h synchronous system d. concerned with individual bits answer = a Asynchronous t
ransmission is a. is less efficient but simpler b. is much faster than synchrono
us transmission c. is another name for synchronous transmission d. the most soug
ht-after transmission answer = a
Digital transmission provides a higher level of signal quality than analog tran
smission because a. repeaters regenerate digital pulses and remove distortion b.
digital signals are smaller than analog signals and cannot easily be distort ed
c. analog signals are continuous and are not easily distorted d. digital signal
s are easier to sample than analog signals answer = d Digital to analog converte
r in synchronous modems send signals to the a. modulator b. transmission lines c
. terminal d. equalizer answer = c Binary codes are transformed in modems into a
. hexadecimal b. Hullman code c. Gray code d. octal answer = b Synchronous modem
s cost more than asynchronous modem because a. they are larger b. they must cont
ain clock recover circuits c. the production volume is larger d. they must opera
te on a larger bandwidth answer = b What is the best type of data communications
test equipment? a. simulator b. protocol analyzer c. DTE d. breakout box answer
= b What is the data rate of the ISDN Basic access B channel? a. 32 kbps b. 64
kbps c. 144 kbps d. 192 kbps answer = b What is the data rate of the ISDN basic
access D channel? a. 64 kbps b. 16 kbps c. 8 kbps d. 144 kbps answer = c Baudot
code uses how many bits per symbol? a. 9 b. 7 c. 5 d. 8 answer = a How many bits
are there to present 8 combinations? a. 3
b. 4 c. 2 d. 5 answer = a How many number of equiprobable events are there for 8
-bits of information? a. 256 b. 132 c. 2400 d. 512 answer = c Which computer ter
minal can be programmed to perform new functions? a. dumb terminal b. smart term
inal c. intelligent terminal d. super terminal answer = d Which character code i
s used without parity bit? a. CCITT number 2 b. ASCCII c. CCITT number 5 d. EBCD
IC answer = d Which hardware is used when the host computer and the terminal are
in separate locations? a. LCU b. FEP c. Muldem d. Modem answer = c _____ is a d
ata communications hardware that assist the host computer in handli ng input and
output tasks. a. hub b. cluster controller c. front end processor d. concentrat
or answer = c ASCII means a. terminals using synchronous transmission in EBCDIC
b. terminals using synchronous transmission in ASCII c. terminals using asynchro
nous transmission in ASCII d. any terminal having an American (dollar-sign) keyb
oard answer = b A unit of information used in data communications. a. dit b. bit
c. byte d. baud answer = b Transmission of binary signals requires a. less band
width than analog b. more bandwidth than analog c. the same bandwidth as analog
d. a license from the NTC answer = b What is the modulation rate of the CCITT V.
26 modem? a. 56 kbps b. 1200 kbps c. 1560 kbps d. 9600 kbps answer = d The digit
al-to-analog converter in a synchronous modem sends signal to the ____ _. a. mod
ulator b. transmission line c. terminal d. equalizer answer = c The number of bi
ts that are zeros in each symbol when one is transmitting odd-p arity coded symb
ols. a. even b. odd c. unknown d. one answer = a A digital modulation technique
that results in two difference frequencies repre senting binary 1 and -. a. FSK
b. QPSK c. ASK d. DPSK answer = c What is the input to the Digital-to-Analog Con
verter of a PCM decoder circuit? a. a series of sampled amplitudes b. a parallel
binary word c. a series of bits d. a reconstructed intelligence signal answer =
b The output of the DAC at a PCM decoder circuit is a _____. a. series of binar
y-coded digits b. parallel output of binary-coded digits c. fixed analog voltage
d. reconstructed intelligence signal answer = c Serial printer a. are used to t
ransmit grain prices b. faster than CRT terminals, and offers more flexibility c
. prints one character at a time d. usually uses serial interfaces answer = c De
lta modulation is a/an a. 5-bit modulation b. integral PCM system c. 1-bit diffe
rential PCM system d. form of PDM
answer = b Alternative way of digitizing analog signals. a. PCM b. Delta modulat
ion c. PPM d. DPCM answer = c One dit is equal to _____ bits. a. 3 b. 3.5 c. 3.3
2 d. 4 answer = b Redundancy means the _____. a. transmission rate of the system
b. symbols are to be repeated c. time between failures d. time between successe
s answer = b Which transmission media is not suitable to CSMA operation? a. Radi
o b. Optical fiber c. Coaxial cable d. Twisted pair answer = b _____ is a device
used to convert a time varying electrical quantity to an appr opriate form. a.
Codec b. Transducer c. ADC/DAC d. Modem answer = c The bandwidth of U600 masterg
roup is a. 2250 kHz b. 2728 kHz c. 2520 kHz d. 2278 kHz answer = c Refers to the
combination of digitally encoded signals transmitted with FDM sig nals as one c
omposite baseband signal. a. composite data b. data under voice (DUV) c. hybrid
data d. Data In Voice (DIV) answer = c Transmit frequency-division-multiplexed v
oice band signals over a coaxial data for distances up to 4000 miles. a. T carri
er systems b. A carrier systems c. L carrier systems d. D carrier systems
answer Level 5 a. 7680 b. 5760 c. 8064 d. 5670
= b of Japanese PCM multiplex hierarchy has channel capacity of VB channels VB c
hannels VB channels VB channels
answer = d The line data rate (in Mbps) for level 4 of CEPT 30 + 2 PCM multiplex
hierarchy a. b. c. d. 97.728 400.352 274.176 139.264
answer = b The guardband between supergroup 18 and supergroup D25 is a. 12 kHz b
. 56 kHz c. 128 kHz d. 8 kHz answer = a Supergroup 17 has a carrier frequency (i
n kHz) of a. 2108 b. 2356 c. 1860 d. 1612 answer = a A radio channel is composed
of _____ VB channels. a. 1800 b. 900 c. 10800 d. 8064 answer = a What is the gu
ardband between supergroup 1 and supergroup 2? a. 12 kHz b. 10 kHz c. 8 kHz d. 6
kHz answer = d CCITT's supermastergroup has how many voice band channels?
a. 600 b. 1800 c. 10800 d. 900 answer = a The transparency mechanism used with S
DLC is called a. zero-bit insertion b. modified link test c. beacon test d. inve
rt-on-zero coding answer = a What equation defines the composition of an ISDN ba
sic access line? a. 2B + D
b. B + D c. B + 2D d. 2B + 2D answer = d A digital network where voice, video, t
ext and data are multiplexed into a sing le network for processing and are trans
mitted prior to use. a. frame relay b. asynchronous transfer mode (ATM) c. ISDN
d. synchronous digital hierarchy (SDH) answer = a T-1 carrier service has _____
digital bit rate. a. 1.544 Mbps b. 2048 Mbps c. 1.644 Mbps d. 9600 Mbps answer =
b Non-ISDN equivalent can be connected to ISDN line by the use of _____. a. ter
minal equipment b. terminal adapters c. modem d. network adaptors answer = a Wha
t is the baseband frequency of standard FDM basic supergroup? a. 312 to 552 kHz
b. 60 to 2540 kHz c. 60 to 108 kHz d. 300 to 600 kHz answer = c What is the tran
smission signal coding for T1 carrier? a. binary b. NRZ c. bipolar d. Manchester
answer = d The primary purpose of the data modem. a. interface analog terminal
equipment to analog communications channel b. interface digital terminal equipme
nt to digital communications channel c. interface analog terminal equipment to d
igital communications channel d. interface digital terminal equipment to analog
communications channel answer = a The line control unit (LCU) that operates on t
he data in digital form. a. data terminal equipment (DTE) b. data communications
equipment (DCE) c. modem d. UART answer = a SYN character of EBCDIC code. a. 32
H b. 8 H c. 16 H
d. 4 H answer = a _____ ensures that the transmitter and receiver agree on the p
rescribed time sl ot for the occurrence of a bit. a. bit or clock synchronizatio
n b. modem or carrier synchronization c. character synchronization d. message sy
nchronization answer = b Equation used to determine the number of Hamming bits i
n the Hamming code. a. 2^n = m + n + 1 b. 2^n >= m + n + 1 c. 2^n > m + n
+ 1 d. 2^n < m + n + 1 answer = a Data means a. digital information b. both d
igital and analog c. analog information d. neither digital or analog answer = c
What determines which network configuration is most appropriate? a. application
layer b. presentation layer c. network layer d. data link layer answer = a Ether
net is a baseband system using CSMA/CD operating at _____. a. 10 Mbps b. 20 Mbps
c. 30 Mbps d. 40 Mbps answer = b Mechanism used by a station to gain access to
local area network. a. channel multiplexing b. channel accessing c. CSMA/CD d. C
SMA/CA answer = a What multiplexing scheme is used by baseband transmission? a.
TDM b. space multiplexing c. FDM d. statistical multiplexing answer = b Use of c
oaxial cables in interconnecting networks is limited to an overall leng th of __
___. a. 1500 ft b. 1500 m c. 1500 km d. 1500 kft
answer = c What defines how the stations are interconnected in a network? a. top
ology b. architecture c. topology or architecture d. topology and architecture a
nswer = b _____ is a data communications network designed to provide two-way com
municatio ns between a large variety of data communications terminal equipment w
ithin a re latively small geographic area. a. private area network b. local area
network c. wide area network d. Ethernet answer = b _____ is the mode of transm
ission in public data network in which data are tran sferred from source to the
network then to the destination in an asynchronous da ta format. a. synchronous
mode b. start/stop mode c. packet mode d. circuit mode answer = d A seven-bit ch
aracter represent one of _____ possibilities. a. 7 b. 14 c. 64 d. 128 answer = d
_____ is defined to be the maximum rate at which information can be transmitted
through a channel. a. bit rate b. baud rate c. coding d. channel capacity answe
r = a Circuit that performs the inverse mapping and delivers to the user destina
tion, a reproduction of the original data source output. a. source coding b. cha
nnel coding c. inverse coding d. demodulation answer = c Digital modulation tech
nique used in modems. a. ASK b. FSK c. PSK d. MSK answer = b Who developed the f
ixed-length binary code for telegraphy? a. Samuel Morse b. Emile Baudot c. Alexa
nder Graham Bell
d. Guglielmo Marconi answer = d Inventor of pulse-code modulation for the digita
l encoding of speech signals. a. R.V.L. Hartley b. J.R. Carson c. H. Nyquist d.
Alex Reeves answer = a In what year did computers and terminals start communicat
ing with each other ov er long distance? a. 1950's b. 1960's c. 1970&a
pos;s d. 1980's answer = c Store-and-forward multiple-access network. a. AR
PANET b. ALOHA c. PRNET d. Packet switching answer = d A source code whose avera
ge word length approaches the fundamental limit set by the entropy of a discrete
memoryless source. a. prefix code b. source code c. entropy code d. Huffman cod
e answer = b Who promulgates communications-related military standards (MIL-STD)
? a. DOD b. DCA c. DOC-STD d. ANSI-MIL answer = b What is the class of probabili
ty in error detection techniques that is known as residual error rate? a. P1 b.
P2 c. P3 d. P4 answer = a RS 232 is normally an interface between DTE and DCE. W
hat is its signal rate? a. 20 kbps b. 30 kbps c. 40 kbps d. 50 kbps answer = d D
igital switching concepts that can handle more channels. a. SDS b. TSI c. TDM d.
TMS
answer = a What is the most significant advantage of modular switch than time-an
d-space sw itch? a. flexible size b. simplified control c. simplified manufactur
ing, testing, and maintenance d. the latter is more advantageous than the former
answer = d Which of the following is the biggest disadvantage of PCM systems? a
. inability to handle analog systems b. high error rate as a result of quantizin
g noise c. not compatible with TDM d. the large bandwidth required answer = c Th
e reason why companding is employed in PCM systems is a. to solve quantizing noi
se problem b. to allow amplitude limiting in the receiver c. to protect small si
gnals in PCM from quantizing distortion d. to overcome impulse noise in PCM rece
ivers answer = a The highest theoretical frequency that can be processed at a sa
mpling rate (fs) without aliasing. a. folding frequency b. resonant frequency c.
critical frequency d. natural frequency answer = b The overlapping of the origi
nal spectrum and the first translated component is known as a. dc wandering b. a
liasing c. droop d. distortion answer = a Transmission sent in both directions s
imultaneously. a. full duplex b. half duplex c. simplex d. echoplex answer = a M
ultiplexing in a. the position b. the position c. the activity d. the priority a
time division multiplexing occurs based upon of data within a frame of a frame
within a group of frames of connected device assigned to a connected device
answer = b What is multiplexing? a. the process of increasing bandwidth on a cha
nnel b. a technique that enables more than one data source to share the use of a
com mon line c. mailing letter at the post office d. the ability to share frequ
ency by time
answer = c One of the reasons why FDM is being replaced by TDM. a. there is more
time than frequency b. it is difficult to place channels side by side c. noise
is amplified with voice when an FDM system is used d. most available frequencies
have been used answer = d In _____ modulation the carrier is periodic train of
pulses. a. amplitude b. analog c. digital d. pulse answer = c The process that u
ses the orthogonality of sines and cosines that makes it poss ible to transmit a
nd receive two different signals simultaneously on the same ca rrier frequency i
s a. TDM b. FDM c. quadrature multiplexing d. duplexing answer = d Which of the
following pulse modulation technique is a digital transmission sys tem? a. pulse
duration modulation b. pulse position modulation c. pulse width modulation d. p
ulse code modulation answer = a Information theory was developed by _____. a. Sh
annon b. Nyquist c. Reeves d. Hartley answer = d Disadvantage of digital transmi
ssion. a. more bandwidth and precise timing are required b. requires ADC and DAC
device c. incompatible with existing analog facilities d. all of these answer =
b A quadratic signaling has _____ possible states. a. 16 b. 4 c. 8 d. 32 answer
= c What is the smallest unit of information in binary transmission system? a.
byte b. digit c. bit d. nibble
answer = b The lowest layer in the ISO protocol hierarchy. a. network layer b. p
hysical layer c. transport layer d. data link layer answer = c Basic speed rate
of digital system. a. 1.44 kbps b. 144 kbps c. 64 kbps d. 2,048 kbps answer = d
A formal set of conventions governing the formatting and relative timing of mes
sage exchange between two communications system. a. simplex b. tail circuit c. q
ueuing d. protocol answer = b A device that connects 2 data terminal equipment (
DTE) directly by emulating th e physical connections of data communications equi
pment (DCE). a. short haul modem b. null modem c. X.25 modem d. smart modem answ
er = d Impact printer a. receives-only-printer with a keyboard b. includes ink-j
et and terminal devices c. rapidly becoming obsolete d. strikes a ribbon against
the paper to produce character image answer = d Modem is referred to as a. univ
ersal asynchronous receiver transmitter b. universal synchronous receiver transm
itter c. data terminal equipment d. data communications equipment answer = c A s
ignaling method relating to a multiplicity of circuits is conveyed over a si ngl
e channel by labeled messages. a. code signaling b. synchronous c. common channe
l signaling d. asynchronous answer = c A data highway in LAN, this type of topol
ogy allows workstations to be connecte d to a common line where all messages pas
s stations on the way to their destinat ion. a. CSMA/CD b. bus c. ring d. star
answer = d A packet format has an error detecting code at a. the start of the pa
cket framing sequence b. the destination address c. the packet number d. the end
of packet framing answer = a It is a protocol used to connect the other packet
switching network. a. X.75 b. X.25 c. X.50 d. X.10 answer = b _____ is a network
operating system within several buildings in compound. a. internet b. Novell Ne
tware c. 10BASE-T d. intranet answer = a Used by Bell 103/113 series for full du
plex, 2 transmission speeds of 0 to 300 bps. a. FSK b. PSK c. BPSK d. ASK answer
= b What is the Nyquist sample rate for a voice input of 10kHz? a. 10kHz b. 20k
Hz c. 30kHz d. 40kHz answer = c What is the minimum number of bits required in P
CM code for a range of 10,000? a. 12 b. 9 c. 14 d. 8 answer = a How many levels
can be represented in PCM transmission system if the binary num bers 00000000 to
11111111 are used to represent signal levels? a. 256 b. 64 c. 128 d. 512 answer
= a Channel capacity is directly proportional to a. bandwidth b. noise c. numbe
r of bits d. power answer = c
Which does not affect noise in a channel? a. bandwidth b. temperature c. quantiz
ing level d. resistance answer = b _____ is a character oriented protocol. a. BO
P b. Bisync c. ETX d. BCC answer = b ______ character signifies the start of the
test for Bisync a. ETX b. STX c. SOH d. BCC answer = b In _____ the clock pulse
is used to time the sending and receiving of the chara cters. a. asynchronous d
ata b. synchronous data c. bisynchronous data d. isochronous data answer = a All
bits in a character are sent and received in _____ in serial port. a. one at a
time b. simultaneously c. in groups of 2 bits d. in groups of 3 bits answer = c
Bridge can only interconnect LANs having identical protocols at the _____ layer
s. a. session and presentation b. network and transport c. physical and data lin
k d. presentation and session answer = c OSI stands for a. Out-of-band Signaling
Interconnect b. Organization for System Interconnection c. Open System Intercon
nection d. Organization System Interconnection answer = b ISO stands for a. Inte
rnational System Organization b. International Standardization Organization c. I
nterconnection for System Organization d. International Subscribers Organization
answer = d Message switching is ______ network. a. hold and forward
b. forward c. hold d. store and forward answer = a Packet switching is _____ net
work. a. hold and forward b. forward c. hold d. store and forward answer = c Pol
ling is an invitation of the primary to a secondary equipment to _____ a mes sag
e. a. store b. receive c. transmit d. read answer = b Bit rate is _____. a. the
rate of change at b. the rate of change at c. the reciprocal of the d. the recip
rocal of the
the output of the modulator. the input of the modulator time of one output signa
ling element time of one input signaling element
answer = c A code that uses three unequal length symbols, dot, dash, and space t
o encode a character. a. Gray code b. Baudot code c. Morse code d. Hollerith cab
le answer = b A 5-bit character code a. EBCDIC b. BAUDOT c. ASCII d. HOLERITH an
swer = a An 8-bit character code. a. EBCDIC b. BAUDOT c. ASCII d. HOLERITH answe
r = a An equipment that interfaces the data terminal equipment to the analog tra
nsmis sion line. a. modem b. muldem c. multiplexer d. codec answer = b Set of ru
les governing the orderly exchange of data information. a. CCIR recommendation b
. protocol
c. CCITT recommendation d. standard answer = b A communication network designed
for transferring data from one point to anothe r. a. Public Telephone Network (P
TN) b. Public Data Network (PDN) c. Value Added Network (VAN) d. Packet Switchin
g Network (PSN) answer = c Radio communications between points using a single sh
are frequency. a. simplex b. full duplex c. half-duplex d. full/full duplex answ
er = b The number of pins in the RS232C interface a. 20 b. 25 c. 39 d. 30 answer
= b A modem is sometimes referred to as _____. a. Data Terminal Equipment b. Da
ta Communication Equipment c. Universal Asynchronous Receiver Transmitter d. Uni
versal synchronous Receiver Transmitter answer = c Provide post equalization to
the received analog signal. a. line equalizers b. graphic equalizers c. adaptive
equalizers d. post equalizers answer = c The receive equalizer in a synchronous
modem is called a. a compromise equalizer b. a statistical equalizer c. an adap
tive equalizer d. an impairment equalizer answer = b Compromise equalizer settin
gs typically affect a. amplitude only b. amplitude delay c. delay only d. neithe
r amplitude nor delay answer = a Training sequence (a bit pattern used to synchr
onize the receive modem) accompl ishes one of the following functions. a. activa
te RLSD b. enable any echo suppressors in the circuit c. initialize the scramble
r circuit d. deactivate RLSD
answer = b When asynchronous data are used with synchronous modems that is calle
d a. synchronous transmission b. isochronous transmission c. asynchronous transm
ission d. bisynchronous transmission answer = d _____ is defined as a figure of
merit used to express the degree of modulation achieved in an FSK modulator. a.
modulation index b. modulation ratio c. deviation factor d. h factor answer = a
What channel in the 103 modem occupies a passband from 300 to 1650 Hz? a. low-ba
nd channel b. voice band channel c. high-band channel d. message channel answer
= b Low speed modems generally have bit rates of a. 9600 bps b. 2400 bps c. 4800
bps d. up to 2000 bps answer = d Medium speed modems have bit rates of a. 9600
bps b. 2400 bps c. 4800 bps d. 2400 - 4800 bps answer = a High speed modems have
bit rates of a. 9600 bps b. 2400 bps c. 4800 bps d. 2000 bps answer = c A means
of improving the quality of a private-line circuit by adding amplifiers and equ
alizers to it. a. line equalizing b. line amplifying c. line conditioning d. lin
e encoding answer = c A voice-grade circuit using the PTN has an ideal passband
from a. 0 to 4 Hz b. 0 to 4 MHz c. 0 to 4 kHz d. 0 to 4 GHz answer = c
The digital-to-analog converter in a synchronous modem is called a. a post equal
izer b. a statistical equalizer c. an adaptive equalizer d. a line equalizer ans
wer = b The minimum-quality circuit available using the PTN is called a. basic v
oice grade (VG) b. basic voice channel (VC) c. basic voice band (VB) d. basic te
lephone channel answer = c Direct distance dialing (DDD) network is commonly cal
led a. private-line network b. PR network c. dial-up network d. trunk network an
swer = a The line control unit (LCU) operates on the data when it is in digital
form and is therefore called a. data terminal equipment (DTE) b. data communicat
ions equipment (DCE) c. modem d. UART answer = c With _____, each character is f
ramed between start and a stop bit. a. synchronous data b. isochronous data c. a
synchronous data d. nonsynchronous data answer = c With _____, rather than frame
each character independently with start and stop bits, a unique synchronizing c
haracter called a SYN character is transmitted at the beginning of each message.
a. asynchronous data b. isochronous data c. synchronous data d. nonsynchronous
data answer = a A logic _____ is used for the start bit. a. 0 b. 0 or 1 c. 1 d.
0 and 1 answer = c All stop bits are logic a. 0 b. 0 or 1 c. 1 d. 0 and 1 answer
= a _____ ensures that the transmitter and receiver agree on a prescribed time
slot
for the occurrence of a bit. a. bit or clock synchronization b. modem or carrier
synchronization c. character synchronization d. message synchronization answer
= c Characters that must be transmitted other than the data are called a. parity
b. error c. overhead d. hamming bits answer = a In the United States, the most
common CRC code is a. CRC - 16 b. CRC - 8 c. CRC - 7 d. CRC - 32 answer = d The
generating power polynomial x^7 + x^5 + x^4 + x^2 + x^1 + x^0 is equivalent to a
. 101101110 b. 101101111 c. 010010001 d. 10110111 answer = d Parallel transmissi
on is also called a. parallel-by-bit b. serial-by-bit c. serial-by-character d.
A and C above answer = a Data means a. digital information b. both digital and a
nalog c. analog information d. neither digital or analog answer = d Go-ahead seq
uence a. 10111111 b. 00000010 c. 11111110 d. 01111111 answer = c Used to achieve
character synchronization in SDLC. a. address field b. control field c. flag fi
eld d. frame check field answer = c A command that places a secondary station in
the normal disconnect mode. a. RD b. DM
c. DISC d. SIM answer = a Character oriented protocol. a. asynchronous b. SDLC c
. ISO HDLC d. synchronous answer = b Determines which network configuration is m
ost appropriate. a. applications b. network layer c. data link layer d. presenta
tion layer answer = a A standard that combines previous standards 6159 (E) (unba
lanced) and 6256 (E) (balanced) and outlines the class of operation necessary to
establish the link-l evel protocol a. ISO 7809 b. ISO 3309 c. ISO 4335 d. ISO 2
230 answer = a Ethernet is a baseband system using CSMA/CD operating at a. 10 Mb
ps b. 30 Mbps c. 20 Mbps d. 40 Mbps answer = d A type of digital encoding techni
que used to detect collision in CSMA/CD. a. UPRZ b. BPRZ c. UPNRZ d. Manchester
answer = a With _____, a station monitors the line to determine if the line is b
usy. a. CSMA/CD b. CSMA/CA c. Token passing d. FDDI answer = c Describes the mec
hanism used by a station to gain access to local area network. a. b. c. d. Chann
el multiplexing CSMA/CD Channel accessing CSMA/CA
answer = c Broadband uses a. TDM b. Space multiplexing c. FDM
d. Statistical multiplexing answer = a A typical multiplexing scheme used by bas
eband transmission. a. TDM b. Space multiplexing c. FDM d. Statistical multiplex
ing answer = c _____ uses the connecting medium as a single-channel device. a. b
roadband transmission b. digital transmission c. baseband transmission d. analog
transmission answer = a _____ uses the connecting medium as a multi-channel dev
ice. a. broadband transmission b. digital transmission c. baseband transmission
d. analog transmission answer = c The use of coaxial cables in interconnecting n
etworks is limited to an overall length of approximately. a. 1500 ft b. 1500 km
c. 1500 m d. 1500 kft answer = b Identifies how the stations are interconnected
in a network. a. topology b. topology or architecture c. architecture d. topolog
y and architecture answer = c A data communications network that is designed to
provide two-way communication s between a large variety of data communications t
erminal equipment within a rel atively small geographic area. a. Private Area Ne
twork b. Wide Area Network c. Local Area Network d. Ethernet answer = b The type
of encoding used in the transmission of data on an ISDN line between a customer
's premises and a carrier's central office. a. quadrature amplitude b.
2B1Q encoding c. Manchester d. UPRZ answer = c A mode of transmission in public
data network in which data are transferred fro m source to the network to the d
estination in an asynchronous data format. a. synchronous mode b. packet mode
c. start/stop mode d. circuit mode answer = a IEEE 802.3 standard is a. CSMA/CD
b. CSMA/CA c. token passing d. FDDI answer = c IEEE 802.4 standard is a. CSMA/CD
b. CSMA/CA c. token passing for bus topology d. token passing for ring topology
answer = d IEEE 802.5 standard is a. CSMA/CD b. CSMA/CA c. token passing for bu
s topology d. token passing for ring topology answer = b What is the data rate o
f the ISDN basic access B channel? a. 32 kbps b. 64 kbps c. 144 kbps d. 192 kbps
answer = b What is the data rate of the ISDN basic access D channel? a. 32 kbps
b. 64 kbps c. 144 kbps d. 192 kbps answer = a What equation defines the composi
tion of an ISDN basic access line? a. 2B + D b. B + D c. B + 2D d. 2B + 2D answe
r = d What is the number of channels on which different operations can occur sim
ultan eously on one ISDN basic access line? a. 1 b. 2 c. 5 d. 3 answer = a Digit
al telephone and integrated voice-data workstations are examples of what t ype o
f ISDN equipment? a. TE b. TA c. NT2
d. TP answer = a How many OSI layers are covered under the X.25 standard? a. 3 b
. 4 c. 7 d. 2 answer = b An Open System Interconnection (OSI) layer has the resp
onsibility for the physi cal transportation of the bits of data from one end of
a point-to-point link to the other. a. data link layer b. physical layer c. netw
ork layer d. session layer answer = c A technique involving signaling by both en
ds of a link to ensure correct data t ransfer. a. collision b. burst c. handshak
ing d. stuffing answer = c XON/XOFF is a. seldom used b. always enabled c. a met
hod of flow control d. a data compression function answer = d An example of outb
and signaling is a. XON/XOFF b. RTS c. RS-232 d. CTS answer = a A recommendation
which allows a synchronous modem to be used to transmit asynch ronous character
s, without error control. a. V.14 b. V.13 c. V.22 d. V.23 answer = c The scrambl
er in a synchronous modem is found in the a. modular section b. receiver section
c. transmitter section d. demodulator section answer = a A CCITT recommendation
which gives the definition for the interchange circuits between DTE's and
DCE's. a. V.24 b. V.25
c. V.26 d. V.27 answer = c Binary codes are sometimes transformed in modems into
a. octal codes b. Huffman codes c. Gray code d. Hamming codes answer = c A West
ern Electric 2911 modem operates with a carrier frequency of a. 1400 Hz b. 1200
Hz c. 1800 Hz d. 800 Hz answer = d A special bit pattern used to denote the star
t and end of a data link layer fra me. a. EBCDIC b. gateway c. fibre d. flag ans
wer = b A bipolar violation a. represents a zero followed by one b. occurs when
two successive pulses y a zero level c. occurs when two successive pulses y one
level d. represents as one bit followed by
bit have the same polarity and are separated b have the same polarity and are se
parated b a zero bit
answer = c What is a flow control? a. refers to opening and closing of flood con
trol gates b. the process wherby the modem matches the rate of the receiver c. t
he process of starting and stopping the terminal output to avoid loss of ch arac
ters by the receiving device d. the process of switching "on" and &quo
t;off". answer = c Buffering refers to a. the storage of data within the tr
ansmitting modem until the receiver is read y to receive b. a method of reducing
the severity of communications headaches c. temporarily storing data to allow f
or small variations in device speeds d. the process of isolating critical stages
in a communications system answer = b What is the reason why many cables have R
S-232 connectors with some wires cross ed? a. RS-232 is the prevalent standard b
. asynchronous modems reverse the direction of transmitted and received data f r
om the standard c. many computers and peripherals use RS-232 serial interface, b
ut not as DTE o r DCE d. these connectors are readily available and cheaper
answer = d RS-232, RS-530, RS-449, V.21 and V.24 are examples of a. standards fo
r end-to-end performance of data communications systems b. standards for interfa
ces between modems and transmission facilities c. standards for various types of
transmission channels d. standards for interfaces between terminals and modems
answer = b Request To Send (RTS) / Clear To Send (CTS) a. is the way the modem i
ndicates ringing and the way the terminal indicates th at it is ready for the ca
ll to be answered b. is the way the DTE indicates that it is ready to transmit d
ata, or the way t he DCE indicates that it is ready to accept data c. are the pi
ns that represent received transmissions and carrier transmissions d. is always
activated prior to actual transmission/reception answer = d Extended command set
s supported by modern modems a. are prefixed with the letter E b. can be counted
on to provide a high-speed data transfer capability without r equiring flow con
trol c. are standardized d. use different commands to control many advanced mode
m features answer = c Which of the following can be done by a smart modem? a. de
tection and correction of transmission errors b. correct answers in multiple cho
ice quizzes c. accepts commands from the terminal via the RS-232 interface d. co
nverts digital signal to analog signal answer = a _____ always have a set of sym
bols. a. communications protocol b. headers c. standards d. codes answer = a The
Baudot code uses how many bits per symbol? a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8 answer = c Which
protocol adjusts its block size based on the line error rate? a. XMODEM b. YMOD
EM c. ZMODEM d. BOP answer = d Which of the following is not a common DNA repeat
er? a. DESPR b. DEREP-AA c. DEREP-RA d. DEREP-RB
answer = c What is the number of bits that are zeros when transmitting odd-parit
y coded sy mbols? a. odd b. even c. unknown d. four answer = b Standard for the
7-layer model for Open Systems Interconnection a. X.75 b. X.200 c. X.400 d. X.50
0 answer = c One of the following options is a characteristic of a LAN. a. paral
lel transmission b. low cost access for low bandwidth channels c. application-in
dependent interfaces d. serial transmission answer = a Not a common LAN medium.
a. twin lead b. twisted pair c. fiber optic cable d. coax answer = d Not a local
area network (LAN)? a. PBX system b. Hospital system c. Office building system
d. cable TV system answer = a CCITT standard concentrating on data communication
s over the telephone network. a. b. c. d. V-series X-series I-series T-series
answer = b One of the following items cannot be provided in a broadband LAN. a.
voice circuits b. fiber optic transmission c. CCTV d. frequency agile modems ans
wer = d A small telephone switching system that can be used as a LAN./ a. ring b
. WAN c. UART d. PBX answer = a A LAN architecture that can be expanded to the g
reatest total system bandwidth.
a. b. c. d.
digital PBX token passing network broadband cable system CSMA/CD baseband system
answer = b Which is considered as the fastest LAN topology? a. ring b. bus c. st
ar d. square answer = c Data communications refers to the transmission of a. voi
ce b. video c. computer data d. facsimile signal answer = b ______ is a procedur
e or rule that defines how data is to be transmitted. a. standard b. protocol c.
data specification d. code answer = b Which of the following is a popular PC pr
otocol? a. parity b. XMODEM c. CRC d. LRC answer = d What is the most widely use
d data communications code? a. Gray b. EBCDIC c. Baudot d. ASCII answer = d The
ASCII code has how many bits? a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7 answer = c What methods are us
ed in data communications? a. analog methods b. digital methods c. both analog a
nd digital methods d. neither analog nor digital methods answer = b One of the f
ollowing is not primarily a type of data communications. a. teletype b. telephon
e c. telegraph
d. CW answer = a Mark and space refer respectively to a. binary 1 and binary 0 b
. dot and dash c. message and interval d. on and off answer = c A modem converts
a. analog signals to digital b. digital signals to analog c. both of the above
d. none of the above answer = c An I-series recommendation which describe what a
n ISDN is. a. I.112 b. I.210 c. I.120 d. I.130 answer = d Slow speed modems use
_____ digital modulation method. a. BPSK b. QPSK c. QAM d. FSK answer = a When t
he data signal is transmitted directly over the medium, this is called __ ___ tr
ansmission. a. baseband b. broadband c. analog d. digital answer = b _____ is th
e technique of using modulation and FDM to transmit multiple data ch annels of a
common medium. a. baseband b. broadband c. ring d. bus answer = a The cause of
bit errors in data transmission. a. noise b. equipment failure c. Human encoder
d. Poor S/N ratio at the receiver answer = c What is the other name for parity?
a. BCC b. LRC c. VRC d. CRC
answer = b QAM is the combination of a. ASK and FSK b. ASK and QPSK c. ASK and M
SK d. FSK and PSK answer = a A CCITT standard that refers to various aspects of
Integrated Service Digital N etwork (ISDN) a. I-series b. V-series c. X-series d
. D-series answer = a Which of the following is not part of a QAM modulator? a.
XNOR b. bit splitter c. balanced modulator d. 2-to-4 level converter answer = d
Not a commonly used method of error detection. a. parity b. BCC c. CRC d. Redund
ancy answer = b What is produced by a longitudinal redundancy check (LRC)? a. pa
rity bit b. block check character (BCC) c. CRC d. Hamming code answer = b What i
s the basic modulator/demodulator circuit in PSK? a. PLLs b. Balanced modulators
c. Linear summer d. VCO answer = d What is the main reason why serial transmiss
ion is preferred over parallel tran smission? a. it is faster b. it is cheaper c
. it requires multiple channels d. it requires only a single channel answer = a
Limitation of 10base-2 network. a. 30 stations per segment b. 20 bytes per data
field c. 50 feet of cable d. 40 segments answer = d A transmission media is not
readily suitable to CSMA operation.
a. b. c. d.
microwave radio coaxial cable twisted pair optical fiber
answer = b Which of the following refers to the measurement of an uncertainty? a
. probability b. entropy c. feasibility d. all of these answer = c Not an import
ant characteristic of the physical layer. a. electrical b. mechanical c. logical
d. all of these answer = c The bit rate of B-channel is _____ kbps. a. 16 b. 8
c. 64 d. 32 answer = a Defines a 2400-bps, PSK, half-duplex modem operating at 1
200 baud. a. V.26bis b. V.26terbo c. V.27 d. V.28 answer = a Which of the follow
ing ITU standards describe the interconnection techniques be tween PDNs and PSTN
s? a. V.100 b. V.200 c. V.300 d. V.400 answer = d Founded the wave theory of lig
ht a. Francesco Grimaldi b. Edward Appleton c. James Clerk Maxwell d. Christian
Huygens answer = c Proposed the use of a clad glass fiber as dielectric waveguid
e. a. Karpon and Keck b. Karpon and Bockham c. Bockham and Kao d. Kao and Keck a
nswer = b Developed the first laser. a. Charles Townes b. Theodore Maiman c. Gor
don McKenzie
d. Albert Einstein answer = c The band of light wavelengths that are too long to
be seen by the human eye. a. amber b. visible c. infrared d. ultraviolet answer
= d The band of light wavelengths that are too short to be seen by the human ey
e. a. amber b. visible c. infrared d. ultraviolet answer = c Which color has the
shortest wavelength of light? a. Red b. Yellow c. Blue d. Green answer = a What
generates a light beam at a specific visible frequency? a. laser b. maser c. in
frared d. flashlight answer = a Which of the following materials is sensitive to
light? a. photoresist b. photosensitive c. light sensitive d. maser answer = c
The core of an optical fiber has a a. lower refractive index than air b. lower r
efractive index than the cladding c. higher refractive index than the cladding d
. similar refractive index with the cladding answer = b Is the different angle o
f entry of light into an optical fiber when the diamete r of the core is many ti
mes the wavelength of the light transmitted. a. acceptance angle b. modes c. sen
sors d. aperture answer = d The loss in signal power as length travels down a fi
ber is called a. dispersion b. scattering c. absorption d. attenuation answer =
c
The bandwidth of optical fiber. a. 900 MHz b. 900 PHz c. 900 THz d. 900 EHz answ
er = c If a mirror is used to reflect light, the reflected light angle is _____
as the incident angle. a. smaller b. larger c. the same d. independent answer =
a What is the specific path the light takes in an optical fiber, corresponding t
o a certain angle and number of reflection? a. mode b. grade c. numerical apertu
re d. dispersion answer = c Is the width of the range of wavelengths emitted by
the light source. a. bandwidth b. chromatic dispersion c. spectral width d. beam
width answer = d Which theory states that light wave behaves as if it consists o
f many tiny part icles? a. Huygen's theory b. Wave theory of light c. Nyqui
st theory d. Quantum theory answer = d Fiber optic cables operate at frequencies
near a. 20 MHz b. 200 MHz c. 2 GHz d. 800 THz answer = c When a beam of light e
nters one medium from another, which quantity will not ch ange? a. direction b.
speed c. frequency d. wavelength answer = a Dispersion is used to describe the a
. splitting of white light into its component colors b. propagation of light in
straight lines c. bending of a beam when it goes from one medium to another d. b
ending of beam light when it strikes a mirror answer = d
Luminance efficiency is minimum for a a. fluorescent tube b. high wattage light
bulb c. mercury vapor lamp d. low wattage light bulb answer = a An object farthe
r from a converging lens than its focal point always has a/an _ ____ image. a. i
nverted b. the same in size c. virtual d. smaller size answer = d An object near
er to a converging lens than its focal point always has a/an ____ _ image. a. in
verted b. the same in size c. smaller d. virtual answer = d The real image forme
d by a spherical mirror is _____ relative to its object. a. erect b. inverted c.
smaller d. larger answer = c The wavelength of light has no role in a. diffract
ion b. interference c. polarization d. reflection answer = a Longitudinal waves
do not exhibit a. polarization b. refraction c. reflection d. diffraction answer
= c ______ dispersion is caused by the difference in the propagation times of l
ight rays that take different paths down a fiber. a. material dispersion b. wave
length dispersion c. modal dispersion d. delay dispersion answer = a What is the
average insertion loss of fusion splice in fiber optics? a. 0.09 dB b. 0.9 dB c
. 0.19 dB d. 0.009 dB answer = d What is the insertion loss of connector-type sp
lices for a single mode fiber op
tics? a. 0.51 b. 0.31 c. 0.49 d. 0.38
dB dB dB dB
answer = b What is the lifetime of LEDs? a. 200,000 minutes b. 200,000 hours c.
150,000 minutes d. 150,000 hours answer = a What is the lifetime of ILDs? a. 50,
000 hours b. 75,000 hours c. 100,000 hours d. 125,000 hours answer = c Photodiod
es used as fiber optic detectors are a. unbiased to generate a voltage same as a
solar cell b. forward bias c. reversed bias d. thermoelectrically cooled answer
= a What type of fiber has the highest modal dispersion? a. step-index multimod
e b. graded index multimode c. step-index single mode d. graded index mode answe
r = d Laser light is _____ emission. a. coherent b. stimulated c. spontaneous d.
coherent and stimulated answer = d A dielectric waveguide for the propagation o
f electromagnetic energy at light f requencies. a. stripline b. microstrip c. la
ser beam d. fiber optics answer = b Is a non-coherent light source for optical c
ommunications system. a. ILD b. LED c. APD d. PIN diode answer = a Which type of
laser is the simplest to modulate directly by changing its excita tion? a. semi
conductor
b. ruby c. helium-neon d. neodymium-YAG answer = a Which laser emits light in vi
sible range, 400 to 700 nm? a. argon-ion b. nitrogen c. carbon-dioxide d. neodym
ium-YAG answer = b Which is the proper measurement of average power emitted by a
pulsed laser? a. energy x time b. pulse energy x repetition rate c. pulse energ
y / repetition rate d. peak power x pulse length answer What is a. 10.6 b. 6.63
c. 6.63 d. 10.6 = c the photon energy for an infrared wave with frequency of 10^
12 Hz? x 10^34 joules x 10^-34 joules x 10^-22 joules x 10^22 joules
answer = d A positive lens with a focal length of 10 cm forms a real image of an
object 20 cm away from the lens. How far is the real image from the lens? a. 5
cm b. 10 cm c. 15 cm d. 20 cm answer = a Which of the following does not harm la
ser efficiency? a. atmospheric absorption b. excitation energy not absorbed c. p
roblems in populating the lower laser level d. inefficiency in populating the up
per laser level answer = a Which of the following contributes to the broadening
of laser emission bandwidt h? a. Doppler shift of moving atoms and molecules b.
amplification within the laser medium c. coherence of the laser light d. optical
pumping of the laser transition answer = a The first laser emitted a. pulses of
694-nm red light b. a continuous red beam c. pulses of white light from a helic
al flashlamp d. spontaneous emission answer = c What is the stage of the sand be
coming a silicon? a. liquid b. gas c. molten
d. hot answer = d Which of the following is used as an optical transmitter in th
e Fiber Optical C ommunications? a. APD b. LSA diode c. PIN diode d. LED answer
= a Which of the following is used as an optical receiver in fiber optics commun
ica tions? a. APD b. Tunnel diode c. Laser diode d. LED answer = b The numerical
aperture of a fiber if the angle of acceptance is 15 degrees, is a. 0.17 b. 0.2
6 c. 0.50 d. 0.75 answer = d The inner portion of the fiber cable is called a. c
ladding b. coating c. inner conductor d. core answer = a Which type of laser is
the simplest to modulate directly by changing its excita tion? a. semiconductor
b. ruby c. helium-neon d. neodymium-YAG answer = a The laser frequency when the
light has the wavelength 800 nm is a. 375 x 10^12 Hz b. 475 x 10^15 Hz c. 375 x
10^9 Hz d. 375 x 10^18 Hz answer = d Which of the following is not a common appl
ication of fiber-optic cable? a. computer networks b. long-distance telephone sy
stems c. closed circuit TV d. consumer TV answer = b Total internal reflection t
akes place if the light ray strikes the interface at an angle with what relation
ship to the crucial angle? a. less than b. greater than c. equal to
d. zero answer = b The operation of a fiber-optic cable is based on the principl
e of a. refraction b. reflection c. dispersion d. absorption answer = c Which of
the following is not a common type of the fiber-optic cable? a. single-mode ste
p-index b. multimode graded-index c. single-mode graded-index d. multimode step-
index answer = b Cable attenuation is usually expressed in terms of a. loss per
foot b. dB/km c. intensity per mile d. voltage drop per inch answer = b Which ca
ble has the highest attenuation? a. 1 km b. 2 km c. 95 ft d. 5500 ft answer = d
The upper pulse rate and information-carrying capacity of a cable is limited by
a. b. c. d. pulse shortening attenuation light leakage modal dispersion
answer = b The core of a fiber-optic cable is made of a. air b. glass c. diamond
d. quartz answer = c The core of a fiber optic is surrounded by a. wire braid s
hield b. Kevlar c. cladding d. plastic insulation answer = a The speed of light
in a plastic component to the speed of light in air is a. slower b. faster c. th
e same d. either lower or faster
answer = b Which of the following is not a major benefit of fiber-optic cable? a
. immunity from interference b. no electrical safety problems c. excellent data
security d. lower cost answer = c The main benefit of light-wave communications
over microwave or any other commu nications media is a. lower cost b. better sec
urity c. wider bandwidth d. freedom from interference answer = d Which of the fo
llowing is not part of the optical spectrum? a. infrared b. ultraviolet c. visib
le color d. X-rays answer = b The wavelength of visible light extends from a. 0.
8 to 1.6 m b. 400 to 750 nm c. 200 to 660 nm d. 700 to 1,200 nm answer = d The spe
ed of light is a. 186,000 mi/h b. 300 mi/h c. 300,000 m/s d. 300,000,000 m/s ans
wer = a Refraction is the a. bending of light waves b. reflection of light waves
c. distortion of light waves d. diffusion of light waves answer = c The ratio o
f the speed of light in air to the speed of light in another substan ce is calle
d the a. speed factor b. index of reflection c. index of refraction d. dielectri
c constant answer = b A popular light wavelength in fiber-optic cable is a. 0.7 m
b. 1.3 m c. 1.5 m d. 1.8 m answer = a Which type of fiber optic cable is the most wide
ly used?
a. b. c. d.
single-mode step-index multimode step-index single-mode graded-index multimode g
raded-index
answer = a Which type of fiber-optic cable is best for very high speed data? a.
single-mode step-index b. multimode step-index c. single-mode graded-index d. mu
ltimode graded-index answer = a Which type of fiber-optic cable has the least mo
dal dispersion? a. single-mode step-index b. multimode step-index c. single-mode
graded-index d. multimode graded-index answer = a Which of the following is not
a factor in cable light loss? a. reflection b. absorption c. scattering d. disp
ersion answer = b A distance of 8 km is the same as a. 2.5 mi b. 5 mi c. 8 mi d.
12.9 mi answer = a A fiber-optic has a loss of 15 dB/km. The attenuation in a c
able 1,000 ft long is a. 4.57 dB b. 9.3 dB c. 24 dB d. 49.2 dB answer = c Fiber-
optic cables with attenuations of 1.8, 3.4, 5.9, and 18 dB are linked tog ether.
The total loss is a. 7.5 dB b. 19.8 dB c. 29.1 dB d. 650 dB answer = d Which li
ght emitter is preferred for high-speed data in a fiber-optic system? a. incande
scent b. LED c. neon d. laser answer = b Most fiber-optic light sources emit lig
ht in which spectrum? a. visible b. infrared
c. ultraviolet d. X-ray answer = a Both LEDs and ILDs operate correctly with a.
forward bias b. reverse bias c. neither a or b d. either a or b answer = d Singl
e-frequency light is called a. pure b. intense c. coherent d. monochromatic answ
er = c Laser light is very bright because it is a. pure b. white c. coherent d.
monochromatic answer = b Which of the following is NOT a common light detector?
a. PIN photodiode b. photovoltaic diode c. photodiode d. avalanche photodiode an
swer = d Which of the following is the fastest light sensor? a. PIN photodiode b
. photovoltaic diode c. phototransistor d. avalanche photodiode answer = b Photo
diodes operate properly with a. forward bias b. reverse bias c. neither A or B d
. either A or B answer = c The product of the bit rate and distance of a fiber-o
ptic system is 2 Gbits km/ s. What is the maximum rate at 5 km? a. 100 Mbits/s b
. 200 Mbits/s c. 400 Mbits/s d. 1000 Mbits/s answer = a Which fiber-optic system
is better? a. 3 repeaters b. 8 repeaters c. 11 repeaters d. 20 repeaters
answer = a An important requirement for successful transmission system using lig
ht. a. powerful, reliable light source b. strong glass c. reliable, high cost tr
ansmission medium d. powerful regenerators answer = c What filter is used to blo
ck light from a laser and let other light through? a. neutral density b. color c
. interference d. spatial answer = b ______ is a light that can be coherent. a.
spontaneous emission b. monochromatic and in-phase c. narrow beam divergence d.
monochromatic answer = d Coherence of laser light is important for ______. a. li
ght propagation b. getting laser light to pass through air c. drilling holes d.
holography answer = d The ultrapure glass used to manufacture optical fibers is
approximately _____ p ure. a. 99.9 % b. 99.99 % c. 99.999 % d. 99.9999 % answer
= a In fiber optics, PCS stands for a. plastic-clad-silica b. polyethylene-clad-
silica c. personal carrier system d. personal communication system answer = d Ho
w many longitudinal modes can fall within a laser's gain bandwidth? a. 2 b.
5 c. 9 d. no fixed limit, dependent on bandwidth and mode spacing answer = c __
___ is the result of photons of light that are absorbed by the atoms of the g la
ss core molecules. a. Ion resonance absorption b. Ultraviolet absorption c. Infr
ared absorption d. Absorption loss answer = c In fiber optics, SCS stands for
a. b. c. d.
suppressed-clad-silicon silicon base-class-silica silica-clad-silica serial-clad
-silicon
answer = a Helium laser was developed by A. Javen at Bell Labs in a. 1960 b. 196
2 c. 1963 d. 1964 answer = b What parameter of light detector determines the ran
ge or system length that can be achieved for a given wavelength? a. transit time
b. spectral response c. dark current d. responsitivity answer = a Dark current
in light detectors is caused by a. thermally generated carriers in the diode b.
the absence of light input c. small leakage current d. its imperfection answer =
b What is the unit of responsitivity? a. ampere/volt b. ampere/watt c. watt/amp
ere d. volt/ampere answer = d One of the following is not a characteristic of li
ght detectors? a. responsitivity b. spectral response c. transit time d. dispers
ion answer = d What is the typical wavelength of light emitted from epitaxially
grown LEDs? a. 840 nm b. 490 nm c. 480 nm d. 940 nm answer = b SONET stands for
a. System Optical Network b. Synchronous Optical Network c. Silica Optical Netwo
rk d. System Optical Fiber Net answer = c Bend loss is a. a reduction in transmi
tter power caused by earth's surface curvature b. a reduction in strength o
f the signal caused by folded dipole bends c. an attenuation increase caused by
bends radiating from the side of the fiber
d. all of these answer = b Infrared range for fiber optics. a. 400 - 700 nm b. 7
00 - 1,200 nm c. 300 - 2,000 nm d. 400 - 7,000 nm answer = c Which of the follow
ing is a disadvantage for plastic fiber optics? a. noise immunity b. electric ha
zards c. higher losses d. all of these answer = a OTDR stands for a. Optical Tim
e Domain Reflectometer b. Optical Transit Direction Return c. Optical Time Domai
n Regeneration d. Overtime Direct Reference answer = d Which of the following is
determined by an OTDR? a. distance to trouble b. length of fiber c. refractive
index d. all of these answer = c Under normal condition, a single fiber should n
ot be used for a two-way communi cation mainly because of a. loss b. fading c. n
oise d. attenuation answer = b A single mode optical fiber has a core diameter o
f _____ nm. a. 0.1 b. 0.01 c. 0.2 d. 0.05 answer = a A step-index multimode opti
cal fiber has a core diameter of _____ nm. a. 0.02 b. 0.2 c. 2 d. 0.002 answer =
b The graded-index multimode optical fiber has a core diameter of _____ nm. a.
0.5 b. 0.05 c. 0.005 d. 5
answer = c Which is not a possible cause of optical fiber loss? a. impurities b.
glass attenuation c. stepped index operation d. microbending answer = b The rat
io of the speed of light in a vacuum and the speed of light in the mater ial use
d. a. S/N ratio b. refractive index c. intermodal dispersion d. monomode ratio a
nswer = d Splicing fibers means a. fusion b. butt c. glue d. both fusion and but
t answer = a An IC that represents a short distance one-way optical communicatio
ns system. a. optoisolator b. insulator c. multivibrator d. optical IC answer =
b When light strikes a flat polished end of a fiber, it produces a loss of a. 14
% b. 4 % c. 10 % d. 1 % answer = b When light strikes a flat polished end of a
fiber, the fiber loss produced can be reduced by a. splicing b. antireflection c
oating c. insulation jacket d. all of these answer = a In fiber optics, higher-o
rder mode refers to a. cladding boundary at high angle b. backscaterring electro
magnetic materials c. defracting signals d. all of these answer = c The followin
g are the cause of light attenuation in fiber optics except: a. backscattering b
. absorption c. refraction d. microbends answer = a Why are visible-light LEDs n
ot used for fiber optics?
a. b. c. d.
it it it it
has has has has
high losses short wave low attenuation weak signal
answer = b Optical cable testers are used for a. checking refractive index b. li
ght power out of a fiber c. non-calibrated light into a fiber d. checking maximu
m distance covered answer = a A function of an optic isolator. a. cancels reflec
ted waves b. amplifies signal transmitted c. filters unnecessary signals d. all
of these answer = b An increase in light intensity produces fast optic switching
due to a. increase in index of glass b. amplification of optical signal c. high
gain d. photoconductivity answer = d Light traveling in an optical fiber allows
which of the following principles. a. Huygen's principle b. reflection the
ory c. light theory d. Snell's law answer = a Optical fibers for telecommun
ications are typically about _____ mils thick and consist of a glass core, a gla
ss cladding of lower index of refraction, and a pr otective coating. a. 5 b. 6 c
. 7 d. 8 answer = a Material dispersion is caused by the a. wavelength dependenc
e of the index of refraction b. wavelength independence of the index of refracti
on c. dependence of the propagation constant on the mode number d. independence
of the propagation constant on the mode number answer = d Modal dispersion a. de
pendence of b. dependence of c. dependence of d. dependence of is caused by the
wavelength on index of refraction propagation constant on index of refraction th
e propagation constant on the wavelength the propagation constant on the mode nu
mber
answer = b The dominant loss mechanism in silica fiber are a. absorption and rad
iation losses b. absorption and Rayleigh scattering
c. coupling and radiation losses d. radiation and modal dispersion answer = c Th
e bandwidth of a fiber is limited by a. mode b. wavelength c. dispersion d. freq
uency answer = a Fiber bandwidth is generally specified as the a. product of the
bandwidth and distance b. sum of the bandwidth and distance c. difference of ba
ndwidth and distance d. quotient of bandwidth and distance answer = d The _____
of a detector is the fraction of incident photons that produce a phot oelectron
or electron-hole pair. a. responsitivity b. photon efficiency c. aperture d. qua
ntum efficiency answer = b In solid-state optical detectors, the excited charge
is transported in the soli d by a. holes and protons b. holes and electrons c. a
nion and cation d. protons and photons answer = c One of the following is not a
solid-state optical detector. a. APD b. PIN c. PMT d. phototransistors answer =
a Optical detectors are square-law devices because they respond to _____ rather
t han amplitude. a. intensity b. light c. density d. photon answer = c The _____
is equal to the number of electrons emitted per second times the elec tron char
ge. a. intensity b. optical power c. photocurrent d. responsitivity answer = a W
hich optical detector is used when high sensitivity and bandwidth are required ?
a. PMT
b. APD c. PIN d. phototransistor answer What is a. 0.10 b. 0.15 c. 0.20 d. 0.25
= b the average loss in fiber splice? dB dB dB dB
answer = b Which of the following colors is not found in the visible light wave
spectrum? a. red b. white c. orange d. yellow answer = c What is the frequency l
imit of an optical fiber? a. 20 GHz b. 30 GHz c. 40 GHz d. 50 GHz answer = a The
mechanical splice attenuation loss is _____ dB or less. a. 0.1 b. 0.01 c. 0.001
d. 1 answer = d _____ is applied to protect core and cladding of the fiber. a.
insulation b. fiber insulation c. silica d. polymer jacket answer = b The energy
of the photon is a. directly proportional to its bandwidth b. directly proporti
onal to the Planck's constant c. directly proportional to Boltzmann's
constant d. inversely proportional to the Planck's constant answer = d Refr
active index of glass a. 1.0 b. 1.2 c. 1.4 d. 1.5 answer = d Refractive index of
diamond. a. 1.0 b. 1.4 c. 1.8 d. 2.0
answer = b What is the unit of light wavelength? a. micrometer b. angstroms c. m
ils d. fathom answer = b How much is the power loss of the fusion splice? a. 0.1
dB or less b. 0.01 dB or less c. 1 dB or less d. 10 dB or less answer = c Used
to test a fiber optics splice. a. spectrum analyzer b. oscilloscope c. optical p
ower meter d. field strength meter answer = a A coupler which consists of a seri
es of lenses and a partly reflective surface. a. b. c. d. beam-splitting coupler
reflective star coupler fused coupler none of these
answer = a Reflections in many directions. a. diffuse reflection b. diffraction
c. scattering d. dispersion answer = a Commonly used electro-optic crystal for p
olarization modulation. a. lithium niobate b. tourmaline c. sodium chlorate d. s
phalerite answer = d Which modulation methods are the most widely used in optica
l systems? a. phase and frequency modulations b. polarization modulation and pha
se modulation c. intensity modulation and phase modulation d. intensity modulati
on and polarization modulation answer = b Is the progressive decrease of signal
strength with increasing distance. a. radiation b. attenuation c. modulation d.
propagation answer = a Calculate the effective earth's radius if the surfac
e refractivity is 301.
a. b. c. d.
8493 8493 6370 6370
km mmi km mi
answer = c If K-factor is greater than 1, the array beam is bent a. away from th
e earth b. towards the ionosphere c. towards the earth d. towards the outer spac
e answer = b The antenna separations (in meters) required for optimum operation
of a space d iversity system can be calculated from: (Where R = effective earth
radius (m) a nd L = path length (m)) a. S = (2xlambdaxR)/L b. S = (3xlambdaxR)/L
c. S = (lambdaxR)/(3xL) d. S = (lambda x R)/L answer = a Rainfall is important
factor for fading of radio waves at frequencies above a. 10 GHz b. 100 GHz c. 1
GHz d. 100 MHz answer = d Theoretically electromagnetic radiation field strength
varies in inverse propor tion to the square of the distance, but when atmospher
ic attenuation effects and the absorption of the terrain into account the attenu
ation can be as high as th e inverse _____ a. third b. fourth c. fifth d. sixth
answer = d What do you call an attenuation that occurs over many different wavel
engths of carrier? a. Rayleigh fading b. Rician fading c. Wavelength fading d. S
low fading answer = d Which of the reception problems below is not due to multip
ath? a. delayed spreading b. Rayleigh fading c. Random Doppler Shift d. Slow fad
ing answer = d Which causes multipath or frequency-selective fading? a. small re
flector b. nearer reflector c. further reflector d. large reflector
answer = a In microwave transmission using digital radio, what causes most inter
symbol int erference? a. delayed spreading b. Rayleigh fading c. Random Doppler
Shift d. Slow fading answer = d A shipboard equipment which measures the distanc
e between the ship's botto m and the ocean floor. a. fathometer b. echosoun
der c. LORAN d. SONAR answer = a The cavity resonator a. is equivalent to an LC
resonant circuit b. in a reflex klystron has its output taken from the reflector
plate c. produces a frequency which is independent of the cavity size d. has a
low Q factor for narrow operation answer = a At what position is the input signa
l inserted into a traveling-wave tube? a. at the cathode end of the helix b. at
the collector c. at the collector end of the helix d. at the control grid of the
electron gun answer = d Coupling into and out of a traveling-wave tube can be a
ccompanied by a a. waveguide match b. cavity match c. direct-helix match d. all
of the above answer = b A high-power microwave pulse of the order of megawatts c
an be generated by a a. traveling-wave tube b. magnetron c. reflex klystron d. G
unn diode answer = a A traveling-wave tube (TWT) amplifies by virtue of a. the a
bsorption of energy by the signal from an electron stream b. the effect of an ex
ternal magnetic field c. the energy contained in the cavity resonators d. the en
ergy liberated from the collector answer = c What is the purpose of the electrom
agnetic field which surrounds a traveling-wa ve tube? a. to accelerate the elect
ron b. to velocity modulate the electron beam c. to keep the electrons from spre
ading out d. to slow down the signal on the helix answer = d
Which of the following is used as an oscillator device in the SHF band? a. Thyra
tron tube b. Tunnel diode c. Klystron tube d. Both B and C answer = c Microwave
frequencies are normally regarded as those in the range of a. 1 to 500 MHz b. 1,
000 to 10,000 GHz c. 1 to 100 GHz d. 10 to 1,000 GHz answer = d The highest freq
uency which a conventional vacuum-tube oscillator can generate is not limited by
the a. electron transit time b. distributed lead inductance c. inter-electrode
capacitance d. degree of emission from the cathode answer = b As the electron be
am moves through a klystron's interactivity drift space a. frequency modula
tion at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the output cavity b. vel
ocity modulation at the input cavity creates density modulation at the ou tput c
avity c. density modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at t
he ou tput cavity d. phase modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modul
ation at the outp ut cavity answer = d The frequency of the oscillation generate
d by a magnetron, is mainly determined by a. the flux density of the external ma
gnet b. the ratio of the dc cathode voltage to the magnetic flux density c. the
number of the cavity resonators d. the dimension of each cavity resonator answer
= a If the instantaneous RF potentials on the two sides of a magnetron cavity a
re o f opposite polarity, the operation is in the a. pi mode b. pi/2 mode c. 2pi
mode d. pi/4 mode answer = d The Gunn diode oscillator a. is capable of generat
ing continuous microwave power of the order of kilowatt s b. generates frequenci
es which are below 100MHz c. operates over a positive resistance characteristic
d. depends on the formation of charge domain answer = d What ferrite device can
be used instead of duplexer to isolate a microwave tran smitter and receiver whe
n both are connected to the same antenna? a. isolator
b. magnetron c. simplex d. circulator answer = b To achieve good bearing resolut
ion when using a pulsed-radar set, an important requirement is a. a narrow, ante
nna-beam width in the vertical plane b. a narrow, antenna-beam width in the hori
zontal plane c. a low repetition rate d. a high duty cycle answer = b When used
in conjunction with a radar set, the purpose of an echo box is to pro vide an ar
tificial target, a. which may be used to tune the receiver synchronizer b. which
may be used to tune the radar receiver c. to the tone of the pulse repetition d
. tune the magnetron to the correct frequency answer = c In a radar-set receiver
, the usual mixer stage is a. an FET b. a tunnel diode c. a silicon crystal d. a
Rochelle salts crystal answer = b Klystron oscillators are most often used in t
he frequency range of a. 300 to 3,000 MHz b. 3,000 to 30,000 MHz c. 30 to 30,000
MHz d. 100 to 10,000 MHz answer = a Oscillations of a klystron tube are maintai
ned a. by bunches of electrons passing the cavity grids b. by plate-to-cathode f
eedback c. by feedback in the accelerating grid and the repeller d. by circulati
ng bunches of electrons within the cavities answer = d What allows microwave to
pass in only one direction? a. RF emitter b. capacitor c. Varactor-triac d. Ferr
ite emitter answer = b In an SHF pulsed radar set, a reflex klystron can be used
as a a. single mixer stage b. local oscillator c. transmitter oscillator d. dup
lexer stage answer = d A Class-S Emergency Position-Indicating Radio Beacon (EPI
RB) a. must be capable of floating or being secure to a survival b. must have it
s battery replaced after emergency use c. may be tested during the first five mi
nutes of any hour
d. all of these answer = b A PPI cathode-ray tube as used on a radar set a. is u
sed to check the percentage of modulation b. indicates both the range and azimut
h of a target c. indicates only the range of a target d. is used for receiver al
ignment answer = c The resonant frequency of a cavity resonator depends upon a.
the mode of operation b. the electrical dimensions c. its physical dimensions d.
the capacitors which tunes it answer = b The maximum usable range of the usual
radar set (on any particular range settin g) is determined by a. the width of th
e transmitted pulse b. the interval between transmitted pulses c. the bandwidth
of the receiver IF stages d. the duty cycle answer = c A reflex klystron is osci
llating at the frequency of its resonant cavity. If t he reflector voltage is ma
de slightly less negative, the a. oscillation will cease b. output power would i
ncrease c. the frequency will decrease d. bunching would occur earlier in time a
nswer = b The coarse frequency adjustment of a reflex klystron is accomplished b
y a. the AFC system b. adjusting the flexible wall of the resonant cavity c. an
adjustment in the synchronizer d. varying the repeller voltage answer = d In a p
ulsed radar set, the STC circuit is used to a. improve the target bearing resolu
tion b. increases receiver sensitivity for echoes from targets c. very the pulse
frequency in order to control the maximum target d. reduce interference from th
e effects of sea return answer = c In a pulse radar set, the function of the dup
lexer is to a. aid in calibrating the display unit b. prevent frequency drift in
the klystron c. allow the transmitter and the receiver to operate from a common
antenna d. all of the above answer = b A magnetron is operated at a duty cycle
of 0.001. It has a peak power output o f 100 kilowatts. Its average power is a.
10,000 watts b. 100 watts c. 1,000 watts d. 1,000,000 watts
answer = c The aquadag coating on the inside of a PPI tube is used a. to focus t
he beam of primary electrons b. to shield the electron beam from unidirectional
magnetic c. as a second anode and to prevent the build-up of a secondary field d
. all of these answer = c If the duration of the radar transmitted pulse, on a p
articular range of operat ion, is increased, the required bandwidth of the recei
ver's IF amplifiers a. must remain as before b. must be increased c. must b
e decreased d. must be doubled answer = c The main frequency determining element
of a klystron is a. the repeller voltage b. the accelerating voltage c. its res
onant cavity d. its mode of operation answer = c A thin layer of dirt and grime
covers the reflecting surface of the parabolic d ish of a radar set. The practic
al effect on the performance of the radar will b e a. a decrease in range b. a r
eduction in horizontal resolution c. no noticeable effect d. a decrease in gain
answer = a Which of the following permits a microwave signal to travel in one di
rection wi th virtually no loss, but severely attenuates any signal attempting t
o travel in the reverse direction? a. isolator b. wave trap c. tunnel diode d. c
irculator answer = d It is possible to increase the maximum range of a radar equ
ipment by a. lowering the pulse frequency b. raising the peak power of the trans
mitter c. narrowing the beam width and increasing the pulse direction d. all of
these answer = c When it is desired that short-range targets can be clearly seen
on a pulsed-rad ar set, it is important that the receiver and display system ha
ve a. a long time constant b. low-pass filters c. the shortest possible time d.
the restricted high-frequency response answer = b Which of the following is used
as a high-power microwave oscillator? a. thyratron b. magnetron
c. klystron d. reflex-klystron answer = a Which of the following operating frequ
encies is used for the modern loran navig ational system? a. loran C:100 kHz b.
loran :10.2 kHz c. loran A:1950 kHz d. loran B:900 kHz answer = d What ferrite d
evice can be used instead of a duplexer to isolate a microwave tr ansmitter and
receiver when both are connected to the same antenna? a. isolator b. magnetron c
. simplex d. circulator answer = a The pulse frequency is equal to a. duty cycle
/pulse width b. the reciprocal of the pulse repetition rate c. pulse width x pea
k power / average power d. all of these answer = c In a radar set, a blocking os
cillator can be used to a. act as the local oscillator converter stage b. provid
e the sweep voltage for the PPI tube c. produce a trigger pulse for the transmit
ter d. as a single local oscillator converter stage answer = b The intensity of
the echoes (target definition) on a PPI display is determined by the a. radio fr
equency b. pulse frequency and antenna rotation rate c. duty cycle d. average po
wer answer = b A duplexer circuit allows a transmitter and receiver to operate f
rom the same a ntenna with virtually no interaction. This circuit may be replace
d by a (an) a. lossy waveguide b. circulator c. isolator d. gyrator answer = c W
hich of the following frequencies are used by a class-C Emergency Position-Ind i
cating Radio Beacon (EPIRB)? a. 156.65 MHz b. 121.5 MHz c. 156.76 MHz and 156.8
MHz d. all of these answer = d The repetition rate of a pulsed radar system indi
cates the a. frequency of the range-marker oscillator
b. reciprocal of the duty cycle c. number of target echoes received in one secon
d d. frequencies of the duty cycle answer = c The radar set, sensitivity-time co
ntrol circuit a. controls the width of the magnetron pulse b. is used to increas
e sea return c. can reduce sea-return response d. discriminates between targets
that are very close together answer = c Which of the following is the ferrite de
vice that buffers a microwave source fr om the effects of a varying load, and th
ereby prevents the formation of standing waves? a. circulator b. duplexer c. iso
lator d. diplexer answer = a Pulsed radar sets are primarily used to find the a.
target's range and bearing b. size and speed of a target c. speed and cour
se of a target d. target's range and speed answer = b Which of the followin
g factors is mainly concerned in the design of an antenna system for pulsed rada
r set? a. duty cycle b. radio frequency c. pulse frequency d. pulse length answe
r = c In a radar set receiver, an ac AFC system may be used to a. automatically
maintain the correct magnetron frequency b. keep the IF stages on frequency c. m
aintain the desired klystron frequency d. provide automatic control of receiver
gain answer = c The input signal is introduced into the traveling-wave tube at t
he a. cathode b. anode c. cathode end of the helix d. collector end of the helix
answer = d The display on the PPI scope of a radar set will have greater stabil
ity under t he following conditions a. higher antenna rotation speeds b. lower p
ulse repetition rate c. lower antenna rotation speeds d. both lower antenna rota
tion speeds and higher pulse repetition answer = a The operating frequency of lo
ran C lies within the a. LF band
b. VLF band c. MF band d. HF band answer = a The PPI tubes have an aquadag coati
ng on the inside of the tube. The purpose o f this coating is a. to act as the s
econd anode b. to shield the tube magnetically c. to decelerate the electron bea
m d. to deflect the electron beam answer = c A traveling-wave tube is used at fr
equencies in the order of a. 30 MHz b. 300 MHz c. 8,000 MHz d. 100 MHz answer =
d The main benefit of using microwaves is a. lower-cost equipment b. simpler equ
ipment c. greater transmission distances d. more spectrum for signals answer = c
Radio communications are regulated in the Philippines by the a. DOTC b. KBP c.
NTC d. Department of Defense answer = a Which of the following is not a disadvan
tage of microwaves? a. higher-cost equipment b. line-of-sight transmission c. co
nventional components are not usable d. circuits are more difficult to analyze a
nswer = d Which of the following is a microwave frequency? a. 1.7 MHz b. 750 MHz
c. 0.98 GHz d. 22 GHz answer = b Which of the following is not a common microwa
ve application? a. radar b. mobile radio c. telephone d. satellite communication
s answer = a Coaxial cable is not widely used for long microwave transmission li
nes because of its a. high loss b. high cost c. large size
d. excessive radiation answer = d Stripline and microstrip transmission lines ar
e usually made with a. coax b. parallel wires c. twisted pairs d. PCBs answer =
d The most common cross section of a waveguide is a a. square b. circle c. trian
gle d. rectangle answer = c A rectangular waveguide has a width of 1 inch and a
height of 0.6 in. Its cuto ff frequency is a. 2.54 GHz b. 3.0 GHz c. 5.9 GHz d.
11.8 GHz answer = a A waveguide has a cutoff frequency of 17 GHz. Which of the f
ollowing signals w ill not be passed by the waveguide? a. 15 GHz b. 18 GHz c. 22
GHz d. 255 GHz answer = c Signal propagation in a waveguide is by a. electrons
b. holes c. electric and magnetic fields d. air pressure answer = c When the ele
ctric field in waveguide is perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation,
the mode is said to be a. vertical polarization b. horizontal polarization c. tr
ansverse electric d. transverse magnetic answer = b The dominant mode in most re
ctangular waveguides is a. TE (0,1) b. TE (1,2) c. TM (0,1) d. TM (1,1) answer =
a A magnetic field is introduced in a waveguide by a a. probe b. dipole c. stri
pline d. capacitor
answer = b A half-wavelength, close section of a waveguide that acts as a parall
el resonan t circuit is known as a(n) a. half-wave section b. cavity resonator c
. LCR circuit d. directional coupler answer = b Decreasing volume of a cavity ca
uses its resonant frequency to a. increase b. decrease c. remain the same d. dro
p to zero answer = c _____ is a popular microwave mixer diode. a. Gunn b. varact
or c. hot carrier d. IMPATT answer = c Varactor and step-recovery diodes are wid
ely used in what type of circuit? a. amplifier b. oscillator c. frequency multip
lier d. mixer answer = b Which diode is a popular microwave oscillator? a. IMPAT
T b. Gunn c. varactor d. Schottky answer = d Which type of diode does not ordina
rily operate with reverse bias? a. varactor b. IMPATT c. snap-off d. tunnel answ
er = a Low-power Gunn diodes are replacing a. reflex klystrons b. TWT's c.
magnetrons d. varactor diodes answer = b Which of the following is not a microwa
ve tube? a. traveling-wave tube b. cathode-ray tube c. klystron d. magnetron ans
wer = d In a klystron amplifier, the velocity modulation of the electron beam is
produc
ed by the a. collector b. catcher cavity c. cathode d. buncher cavity answer = b
A reflex klystron is used as a(n) a. amplifier b. oscillator c. mixer d. freque
ncy multiplier answer = c For proper operation, a magnetron must be accompanied
by a a. cavity resonator b. strong electric field c. permanent magnet d. high dc
voltage answer = a The operating frequency of klystrons and magnetrons is set b
y the a. cavity resonators b. DC supply voltage c. input signal frequency d. num
ber of cavities answer = b A magnetron is used only as a/an a. amplifier b. osci
llator c. mixer d. frequency multiplier answer = a A common application for magn
etron is in a. radar b. satellites c. two-way radio d. TV sets answer = c In a T
WT, the electron beam is density-modulated by a a. permanent magnet b. modulatio
n transformer c. helix d. cavity resonator answer = d The main advantage of a TW
T over a klystron for microwave amplification is a. lower cost b. smaller size c
. higher power d. wider bandwidth answer = c High-power TWTs are replacing what
in microwave amplifiers? a. MESFETs b. magnetrons c. klystrons
d. IMPATT diodes answer = d The most widely used microwave antenna. a. half-wave
dipole b. parabolic c. hyperbolic d. horn answer = a _____ is a measure of reli
ability expressed as the average number of hours betw een successive failures. a
. MTBF b. MTTR c. downtime d. outage time answer = b The free space attenuation
between two microwave antennas 40 km apart operating at 8 GHz is a. 146.7 dB b.
142.55 dB c. 82.5 dB d. 86.7 dB answer = b An active microwave radio repeater th
at can provide drops and inserts. a. broadband repeater b. baseband repeater c.
IF repeater d. RF repeater answer = a If the correction factor k equals 4/3 of t
he earth's curvature, the microw ave beam would have a curvature that is __
___ than that of the earth. a. more b. less c. equal d. not related answer = a T
he optimum clearance from an obstacle in a microwave system is accepted as ___ _
_ of the first fresnel zone radius. a. 0.6 b. 0.5 c. 0.9 d. 1.5 answer = d The m
icrowave beam curves the same as that of the earth when the value of the c orrec
tion factor k equals a. 0 b. 4/3 c. 2/3 d. infinity answer = b The time from the
transmission of a radar pulse to its reception is 0.12ms. Th e distance to the
target is how many nautical miles? a. 4.85 nmi
b. 9.7 nmi c. 11.12 nmi d. 18.4 nmi answer = a The ability of a radar to determi
ne the bearing to a target depends upon the a. antenna directivity b. speed of l
ight c. speed of the target d. frequency of the signal answer = c The pulse dura
tion of a radar signal is 699 ns. The PRF is 185 pulses per seco nd. The duty cy
cle is a. 0.216 % b. 0.130 % c. 0.013 % d. 0.407 % answer = d The Doppler effect
allows which characteristics of a target to be measured? a. distance b. azimuth
c. altitude d. speed answer = c The Doppler effect is a change in what signal c
haracteristics produced by relat ive motion between the radar set and a target?
a. amplitude b. phase c. frequency d. duty cycle answer = b The most widely used
radar transmitter component is a a. klystron b. magnetron c. TWT d. power trans
istor answer = c Low-power radar transmitters and receivers use which component?
a. GaAs FET b. Magnetron c. Gunn diode d. Klystron answer = d What component in
a duplexer protects the receiver from the higher transmitter output? a. wavegui
de b. bandpass filter c. Notch filter d. spark gap answer = c Most radar antenna
s use a a. dipole b. broadside array
c. horn and parabolic reflector d. collinear array answer = d The most common ra
dar display is the a. A scan b. Color CRT c. LCD d. PPI answer = b A radar anten
na using multiple dipoles or slot antennas in a matrix with variab le phase shif
ters is called a/an a. A scan b. phased array c. broadside d. circulator polariz
ed array answer = d Which of the following is a typical radar operating frequenc
y? a. 60 MHz b. 450 MHz c. 900 MHz d. 10 GHz answer = b A microwave system requi
res the use of repeaters when a. the intervening terrain favorable b. the distan
ces involved are greater c. the required reliability is met d. the radio fading
is unacceptable answer = b Are transmission lines which convey electromagnetic w
aves in highest frequencie s. a. twisted pair of telephone lines b. waveguides c
. power lines d. coaxial cables answer = d A microwave band of 10.9 to 36 GHz is
considered as a. C-band b. X-band c. Q-band d. K-band answer = b A microwave co
mmunications system space loss calculation formula. a. 94.2 + 20log F + 20logD b
. 92.4 + 20log F + 20logD c. 94.2 + 10log F + 20logD d. 92.3 + 10log F + 20logD
answer = b A waveguide is also known as a. low pass filter b. high pass filter c
. band pass filter d. band stop filter
answer = b A method of diversity reception where the signal is transmitted on tw
o differen t frequencies over the same path. a. space diversity b. frequency div
ersity c. polarization diversity d. wavelength diversity answer = d A wire used
to reduce the skin effect. a. AWG # i4 b. AWG # 15 c. copper wire d. Litz wire a
nswer = c Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on two o
r more a. different frequencies b. antennas operating on two different frequenci
es c. antennas operating on the same frequencies d. identical frequencies answer
= b The best system configuration to overcome multipath fading in microwave sys
tem over the water. a. space diversity b. frequency diversity c. polarization di
versity d. wavelength diversity answer = a When the value of k increases, the ef
fective result is _____ of the equivalent curvature. a. flattening b. bulging c.
sharp curvature d. all of these answer = b A traveling wave tube consists of a.
electron gun, helix and repeller b. electron gun, helix and collector c. electr
on gun, repeller and collector d. buncher cavity and catcher cavity answer = c A
dvantage of periscope antenna in microwave. a. reduce tower height b. minimize i
nterference to and from other neighboring stations c. shorten waveguide length d
. easy to install answer = b What is the cut-off frequency of a waveguide? a. th
e highest frequency the waveguide operates b. the lowest frequency the waveguide
operates c. the same as the operating frequency d. the only frequency the waveg
uide operates
answer = b When the clearance above the obstruction is equal to the radii of eve
n fresnel zones at the point of reflection, the RSL is a. increased b. decreased
c. constant d. above the threshold answer = a What is the wavelength of a wave
a. greater than in free space b. depends only on the waveguide c. inversely prop
ortional to the d. inversely proportional to the in a waveguide? dimensions and
the free-space wavelength phase velocity group velocity
answer = d The CCIR hypothetical reference circuit covering a distance of 2,500
km consist s of a total of how many hops? a. 5 b. 10 c. 24 d. 54 answer = c Wate
r causes more attenuation particularly on what frequency? a. 20 GHz b. 63 GHz c.
183 GHz d. 202 GHz answer = a At what frequency does oxygen cause excessive att
enuation? a. 60 GHz b. 50 GHz c. 40 GHz d. 30 GHz answer = a Which of the follow
ing is an atmospheric attenuation? a. attenuation due to water vapor and oxygen
b. attenuation due to mist and fog c. attenuation due to other gases d. attenuat
ion due to rain answer = a A microwave system operating at the 6 GHz band is car
rying 600 voice channels. What is the noise loading power in dBmO? a. 12.78 b. 2
6.78 c. 27.78 d. 10.25 answer = d _____ is a microwave link between the down-tow
n and another out of town termina l. a. STL b. uplink c. downlink d. terrestrial
answer = a Attenuator used in the traveling wave tube to a. prevent oscillation
b. increase gain c. prevent saturation d. all of these answer = b Is a method of
diversity reception applied to reflective path to reduce fading. a. b. c. d. fr
equency diversity space diversity polarization diversity wavelength diversity
answer = b What is the effective earth's radius used in communications desi
gn? a. 4000 miles b. k x 4000 miles c. 8000 miles d. k x 5280 miles answer = a I
F bandwidth of a radar system is inversely proportional to a. pulse width b. pul
se interval c. peak transmit power d. all of these answer = c EADI stands for a.
Electronic Air Data Indicator b. Electronic Altitude and Distance Indicator c.
Electronic Altitude and Director Indicator d. Electronic Air and Distance Indica
tor answer = b Which aircraft navigational system determines the time to station
(TTS) or time to go (TTG)? a. ADF b. DME c. Timer d. ATC answer = d What freque
ncy does a radio altimeter operate? a. 33,500 kHz b. 43,000 kHz c. 33,500 MHz d.
43,000 MHz answer = b What inflight system allow passengers to make telephone c
alls, send faxes, and computer data shop and play computer games, etc. a. Inflig
ht Satellite System b. Terrestrial Flight Telephone System c. World Airline Ente
rtainment System d. Satellite Phone answer = b
ADF stands for a. Audio Direction Finding b. Automatic Direction Finder c. Alter
nate Direction Finder d. Automatic Distance Finder answer = a RF carrier of the
middle marker is modulated at _____ Hz. a. 1300 b. 1400 c. 1500 d. 1600 answer =
d Which of the following is considered as the major advantage of using a helix
tr aveling wave tube? a. cheaper b. less noise c. high power d. wide bandwidth a
nswer = b RADAR stands for a. Radio Distance and Ranging b. Radio Detection and
Ranging c. Radio Direction and Ranging d. Radio Distance and Range answer = a __
__________ is the maximum sideband suppression value using filter system? a. 50
dB b. 60 dB c. 40 dB d. 30 dB answer = c ____________ determines the number of s
ideband components in FM. a. Carrier frequency b. Modulation frequency c. Modula
tion index d. Deviation ratio answer = a One of the following transmits only sid
eband. a. H3E b. R3E c. A3E d. B8E answer = c What produces the sidebands on FM?
a. Signal amplitude b. Carrier harmonics c. Baseband frequency d. Broadband fre
quency answer = b Which test instrument displays the carrier and the sidebands a
mplitude with fre quency to frequency? a. Oscilloscope
b. Spectrum analyzer c. Frequency analyzer d. Amplitude analyzer answer = c Mixe
r is also known as __________. a. modulator b. suppressor c. converter d. beater
answer = d Which one of the following emission transmit the lower sideband and
half of the upper sideband. a. A5C b. J3E c. A3J d. A3H answer = b An FM receive
signal ___________. a. vary in amplitude with modulation b. vary in frequency w
ith modulation c. vary in frequency and amplitude with wideband modulation d. is
not immune to noise answer = a The process of impressing intelligence on the ca
rrier is called a. modulation b. detection c. mixing d. impression answer = a __
_______ is an electronic instrument used to show both the carrier and the sid eb
ands of a modulated signal in the frequency domain. a. Spectrum analyzer b. Osci
lloscope c. Digital counter d. Frequency counter answer = c What part of the car
rier is varied by the intelligence during modulation in an AM system? a. Phase b
. Frequency c. Amplitude d. Phase and amplitude answer = b The difference betwee
n the RF carrier and the modulating signal frequencies is called the a. USB b. L
SB c. Sideband d. Carrier frequency answer = b What stage in a radio transmitter
isolates the oscillator from the load? a. Oscillator
b. Buffer c. Separator d. Mixer answer = b The frequency of the unmodulated carr
ier in FM system is a. modulating frequency b. center frequency c. carrier frequ
ency d. deviation frequency answer = b The ratio of maximum deviation to the max
imum modulating frequency is called a. carrier swing b. deviation ratio c. modul
ation factor d. modulation index answer = b A carrier signal has a. constant amp
litude b. a frequency of 20 kHz and above c. a varying amplitude d. the informat
ion content answer = d The modulated peak value of a signal is 125 V and the unm
odulated carrier value is 85 V. What is the modulation index? a. 0.47 b. 0.68 c.
0.32 d. 1.47 answer = a An 891 kHz carrier having an amplitude of 80 V is modul
ated by a 4.5 kHz audio signal having an amplitude of 45 V.. The modulation fact
or is a. 0.56 b. 0.65 c. 1.78 d. 1.25 answer = b What is the modulation index of
an FM signal having a carrier swing of 75 kHz w hen the modulating signal has f
requency of 3 kHz? a. 25 b. 12.5 c. 0.04 d. 0.08 answer = a In a FM system, if m
odulation index is doubled by halving the modulating freque ncy, what will be th
e effect on the maximum deviation? a. No effect b. Maximum deviation doubles c.
Decreases by 1/2 d. Increases by 1/4 answer = d Which of the following is consid
ered as an indirect method of generating FM? a. Reactance modulator
b. Balanced modulator c. Varactor diode modulator d. Armstrong system answer = c
To generate an SSB or DSB signal one must use a circuit known as a. filter modu
lator b. ring modulator c. balanced modulator d. reactance modulator answer = c
Which is the first radio receiver? a. TRF receiver b. Superheterodyne receiver c
. Crystal radio receiver d. Heterodyne receiver answer = a An interfering signal
with a frequency equal to the received signal plus twice the IF is called a. im
age frequency b. center frequency c. rest frequency d. interference frequency an
swer = d Double sideband full carrier emission type. a. A3J b. H3E c. R3A d. A3E
answer = b Single sideband reduced carrier emission type. a. H3E b. R3E c. J3E
d. B8E answer = c A single sideband suppressed carrier emission type. a. H3E b.
R3E c. J3E d. B8E answer = d Independent sideband emission type. a. H3E b. R3E c
. J3E d. B8E answer = a Vestigial sideband emission type a. C3F b. J3E c. R3E d.
B8E
answer = b Single sideband full carrier emission type. a. R3E b. H3E c. J3E d. B
8E answer = d Phase modulation emission type. a. F3E b. F3C c. F3F d. G3E answer
= d Which one is not an advantage of SSB over AM? a. Power saving b. Requires h
alf the bandwidth c. Wider area of reception d. Better fidelity answer = c The a
dvantage of a high level modulated AM transmitter is a. less audio power require
d b. better fidelity c. higher value of operating power d. less distortion answe
r = a The advantage of a low-level modulated AM transmitter is a. less audio pow
er required b. better fidelity c. higher value of operating power d. less distor
tion answer = c _________ is the bad effect caused by overmodulation in AM trans
mission. a. Increase in noise b. Deviation in the operating frequency c. Interfe
rence to other radio services d. Decrease in the output power answer = b Which c
haracteristic of a radio receiver refers to its ability to reject an unw anted s
ignal? a. Sensitivity b. Selectivity c. Fidelity d. Quality answer = a What type
of emission is frequency modulation? a. F3E b. G3E c. A3E d. B3E answer = d AM
transmission power increases with ________.
a. b. c. d.
frequency source load modulation
answer = b ________ locks the FM receiver to a stronger signal. a. Hall effect b
. Capture effect c. Image frequency d. Homing answer = c What is the highest per
centage of modulation for AM? a. 50 % b. 75 % c. 100 % d. 80 % answer = c In FM,
the Carson's Rule states that the bandwidth is equal to twice the s um of
the modulating frequency and _______. a. carrier signal b. modulating index c. f
requency deviation d. image frequency answer = d What is the carrier swing of an
FM transmitter when modulated by 75 %? a. 53.2 kHz b. 48 kHz c. 56.25 kHz d. 11
2.5 kHz answer = b The modulation system inherently more resistant to noise. a.
Single sideband suppressed carrier b. Frequency modulation c. Pulse-position mod
ulation d. Amplitude shift keying answer = a Subcarriers that are arranged so th
at the channels occupying adjacent frequency bands with some frequency space bet
ween them is known as a. guard bands b. AM bands c. band gap d. void band answer
= d Modulation of an RF carrier results in a. multiple channels b. smaller ante
nnas c. directional propagation d. all of the above answer = b A process which o
ccurs in the transmitter. a. Mixing b. Modulation
c. Heterodyning d. Demodulation answer = d A process which occurs in the receive
r. a. Beating b. Modulation c. Mixing d. Demodulation answer = a One part of the
transmitter that protects the crystal oscillator from "pul ling". a.
Buffer amplifier b. Modulator c. Power amplifier d. Antenna coupler answer = d W
hat aspect of the carrier is changed by modulation? a. Frequency b. Phase c. Amp
litude d. Depends on the type of modulation answer = d The amplitude of a sine w
ave which is modulated by a musical program will a. be complex b. contain fundam
ental frequencies c. contain harmonic frequencies d. all of the above answer = d
What will be the result of the gain level being too high for signals entering t
he modulator? a. Receiver noise b. Excessive volume of receiver output c. Oscil
lator disturbance d. Distortion and splatter answer = a Amplitude modulation cau
ses the amount of transmitter power to a. increase b. decrease c. remain the sam
e d. double answer = b When a carrier is modulated 100%, the total power increas
es by what percentage over that of the carrier alone? a. 25 % b. 50 % c. 75 % d.
100 % answer = a When the amplitude of the modulating voltage is increased for
AM, the antenna c urrent will a. increase b. decrease
c. remain constant d. decrease exponentially answer = c An increase in transmitt
er power from 25 W to 30 W will cause the antenna curre nt to increase from 700
mA to a. 800 mA b. 750 mA c. 767 mA d. 840 mA answer = b A second modulating ton
e having the same amplitude but a different frequency is added to the first at t
he input to the modulator. The modulation index will be increased by a factor of
a. square root of 3 b. square root of 2 c. 2 d. 3 answer = c A 1000 kHz carrier
is modulated by a 2500 Hz tone. One frequency component of t he modulated signa
l is a. 1200 Hz b. 5000 Hz c. 1002.5 kHz d. 2500 Hz answer = b A 1200 kHz carrie
r is amplitude-modulated by two tones of 500 Hz and 700 Hz. Wh ich one is a freq
uency component of the modulated wave? a. 1195 kHz b. 1199.3 kHz c. 1199.7 kHz d
. 1205 kHz answer = d Identify a modulation method, or methods in use for a comm
on-emitter configurat ion. a. Base modulation b. Emitter modulation c. Collector
modulation d. Both A and C answer = b The RF signal injected into a balanced mo
dulator is 10 MHz and the modulating f requency is 1 kHz. Which frequency, or fr
equencies, will not appear in the outpu t? a. 9.999 MHz b. 10 MHz c. 10.0001 MHz
d. both A and B answer = d Unwanted sidebands in SSB equipment can be suppresse
d by one or more of the fol lowing methods. a. Phasing method b. Filter method c
. Decoder method d. Both A and B
answer = d Envelope detection is concerned with the process of a. mixing b. hete
rodyning c. modulation d. rectification answer = a Diagonal clipping in envelope
detection will result in a. distortion b. phase reversal c. reduced sensitivity
d. amplitude damage answer = b Product detection requires the process of a. rec
tification b. heterodyning c. decoding d. phase shifting answer = d A sine wave
which is coherent with carrier has identical a. amplitude b. frequency c. phase
angle d. both B and C answer = b Frequency modulation and phase modulation are c
ollectively referred to as a. stereo b. angle modulation c. high fidelity modula
tion d. FCC modulation answer = c In FM the change in carrier frequency is propo
rtional to what attribute of the modulating signal? a. angle b. frequency c. amp
litude d. tone answer = d A louder sound, when generating the modulating wavefor
m for FM, will cause a gr eater a. carrier amplitude b. angle amplitude c. disto
rtion at the receiver d. frequency deviation answer = b If a positive change in
modulation signal level of 200 mV will cause a positive frequency deviation of 1
0 kHz, what will be the frequency deviation for a negat ive change of 100 mV in
the level of the modulating signals? a. 0 b. -5 kHz c. +5 kHz d. +0 kHz
answer = a A particular 15 kHz modulation tone results in a peak frequency devia
tion of 75 kHz. What is the modulation index? a. 5 b. 15 c. 75 d. 3 answer = d A
15 kHz sine wave frequency-modulates an 88 MHz carrier. A sideband frequency wi
ll be found at a. 87.970 MHz b. 87.985 MHz c. 88.015 MHz d. All of these answer
= a A device whose capacitance is deliberately made to be a function of the appl
ied voltage. a. Varactor diode b. UJT c. SAW d. Variable capacitor answer = b A
reactance modulator is one method of obtaining a. indirect FM b. direct FM c. de
modulation d. low frequency filtering answer = c A device, now available in IC f
orm, is useful for direct FM and as one element in the phase-locked loop. a. AFC
b. AGC c. VCO d. LPF answer = b ________ is a frequency change process, whereby
the phase deviation and frequen cy deviation are multiplied by some fixed const
ant. a. Translation b. Multiplication c. Division d. Addition answer = d A circu
it that has the function of demodulating the frequency-modulated signal. a. b. c
. d. AFC Envelope detector Decoder Foster-Seeley discriminator
answer = d The ratio detector is superior to the slope detector because a. it is
less sensitive to phase modulation b. it is less sensitive to noise spikes
c. it is less sensitive to interference causing AM d. Both B and C answer = d On
e implementation of a pulse-averaging discriminator is a. a free-running multivi
brator b. a crystal-controlled oscillator c. a quartz crystal filter d. a trigge
red multivibrator answer = d A 10% increase in the frequency of a constant-width
pulse train should cause wh at change in its average value? a. -10% b. -1% c. +
1% d. +10% answer = d Two different signals can be coherent if they a. have the
same amplitude b. are both sine waves of different frequencies c. originate in t
he same physical equipment simultaneously d. have the same frequency answer = b
A quadrature detector requires that a. four gates be provided b. the inputs are
coherent c. the inputs are incoherent d. the inputs are identical answer = c In
a phase-locked loop, the VCO is the abbreviation for a. Variable coherent output
b. VHF communication oscillator c. Voltage-controlled oscillator d. Vien-count
oscillator (neutralized) answer = a Identify an advantage , or advantages, of a
properly designed FM system. a. Relative immunity to atmospheric noise (lightnin
g) b. Reduced bandwidth required c. No noise of any kind d. The noise figure is
inversely proportional to the modulation index. answer = a The output of a balan
ced modulator a. LSB and USB b. LSB c. USB d. Carrier answer = d If the modulati
on index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 1, the transmitted p ower is a. unch
anged b. halved c. doubled d. increased by 50%
answer = c Which of the following is not a baseband signal of modulation? a. Aud
io signal b. Video signal c. RF carrier d. Binary coded pulses answer = c If the
unmodulated level peak carrier amplitude is doubled in and AM signal, th e perc
ent modulation is ___________. a. 20 b. 50 c. 100 d. 200 answer = a Balanced mod
ulator circuit when inserted in the equipment suppresses the ______ ___. a. carr
ier b. upper sideband c. lower sideband d. baseband signal answer = d The carrie
r of a 100% modulated AM wave is suppressed, the percentage power sav ing is ___
______. a. 100 % b. 50 % c. 83 % d. 66.66 % answer = b If the modulation index o
f an AM wave is doubled, the antenna current is also d oubled, the AM system bei
ng used is a. H3E b. J3E c. C3F d. A3E answer = b 100 % modulation in AM means a
corresponding increase in total power by _______ __. a. 100 % b. 50 % c. 75 % d
. 25 % answer = b A single-tone amplitude modulated wave has _________. a. 2 com
ponents b. 3 components c. 4 components d. 2n + 1 components answer = a A carrie
r signal has ____________. a. constant peak amplitude b. frequency range of 20-2
0,000 Hz c. a varying amplitude
d. the information answer = c The modulating system is ___________ if the modula
ting frequency is doubled, th e modulation index is halved, and the modulating v
oltage remains constant. a. amplitude modulation b. phase modulation c. frequenc
y modulation d. pulse modulation answer = d What is the modulation index of an F
M signal if its modulating frequency is dou bled? a. No effect b. Twice the orig
inal index c. Four times the original index d. One-half the original index answe
r = b An AM transmitter is rated 1000 W at 100 % modulation. How much power requ
ired for the carrier? a. 1000 W b. 666.6 W c. 333.3 W d. 866.6 W answer = a Stan
dard way of designating AM. a. A3E b. B3E c. AHE d. C3F answer = a __________ is
the circuit used to detect frequency modulated signal. a. Discriminator b. Modu
lator c. Modem d. Detector answer = c __________ is an information signal that i
s sent directly without modulating an y carrier. a. C-band b. Q-band c. Baseband
d. Broadband answer = d Both frequency and phase modulation utilize __________
modulation. a. digital b. phase c. amplitude d. angle answer = b It is the width
of frequencies within the spectrum occupied by a signal and use d by the signal
for conveying information. a. Band b. Bandwidth
c. Electronic spectrum d. Frequency band answer = a Which transmit only one side
band? a. H3E b. C3F c. A3E d. B8E answer = b __________ is a kind of modulation
in which the modulated wave is always presen t. a. Carrier modulation b. Continu
ous modulation c. Log-periodic modulation d. Square-wave modulation answer = a A
type of modulation in which no signal is present between pulses. a. Pulse modul
ation b. FSK c. QAM d. PAM answer = d What describes the amount of amplitude cha
nge present in an AM waveform? a. Percent modulation b. Modulation constant c. E
nvelope of modulation d. Coefficient of modulation answer = c __________ is a fo
rm of amplitude distortion introduced when the positive and n egative alternatio
ns in the AM modulated signals are not equal. a. Envelope distortion b. Spurious
emission c. Carrier shift d. Johnson noise answer = d What is the advantage of
phase modulation over direct FM frequency modulation? a. Multipliers can be used
b. The deviation is smaller c. Simplicity and practicality d. The oscillator is
crystal-controlled answer = d If the spectrum is shifted in frequency with no o
ther changes, this is known as a. b. c. d. frequency multiplication sideband mov
ement baseband reorientation frequency translation
answer = b A device which is capable of causing frequency translation a. High-Q
tank circuit b. Balanced modulator c. Low-Q tank circuit
d. 1F strip answer = d If the frequency of each component in a signal spectrum i
s increased by the sam e fixed amount, this is known as a. modulation b. frequen
cy translation c. up conversion d. both B and C answer = c A particular amplifie
r is designed to be a frequency doubler. If the input sign al frequency is 15.4
MHz, a circuit in the output will be tuned to a. 7.7 MHz b. 15.4 MHz c. 30.8 MHz
d. 61.6 MHz answer = d A sine wave of 293 MHz is phase-modulated to achieve a m
aximum phase deviation of 0.2 radian. After passing through a frequency tripler,
the maximum phase devi ation will be a. 0.2 radian b. 0.3 radian c. 0.4 radian
d. 0.6 radian answer = d Any device to be used as a frequency multiplier must be
a. active b. passive c. linear d. nonlinear answer = a A particular amplifier c
ircuit used for frequency doubling. a. Push-push b. Push-pull c. Pull-push d. Pu
ll-pull answer = b Frequency division is useful in the implementation of a a. AM
demodulator b. frequency synthesizer c. AGC circuit d. FM demodulator answer =
b Frequency division by 12 will require how many flip-flops in the counter? a. 3
b. 4 c. 6 d. 12 answer = c Identify an electronic device, not specifically desi
gned for the purpose, which can be used as a phase detector. a. Wien bridge b. C
olpitts oscillator
c. Balanced modulator d. Butterworth filter answer = c A particular frequency sy
nthesizer contains only a single crystal. What words d escribe this synthesizer?
a. Crystal modulated b. Inexact c. Indirect d. Deficient answer = d A recogniza
ble feature of a CW transmitter is a. Keyed transmitter b. Power amplification c
. Frequency generation d. All of these answer = a The term "pulling" r
efers to a. the change of the crystal oscillator frequency by loading b. one hal
f-cycle operation of a push-pull amplifier c. loading on the transmitter caused
by the antenna connection d. reduction of the power supply terminal voltage as t
he transmitter is keyed. answer = c When frequency modulation is achieved by ini
tial phase modulation, this is call ed a. angular modulation b. direct FM c. ind
irect FM d. indirect synthesis answer = b A disadvantage of direct FM is the nee
d for a. AGC b. AFC c. a frequency synthesizer d. phase modulation answer = d Di
rect FM can be achieved by a. a reactance tube modulator b. a varactor diode c.
an AGC circuit d. both A and B answer = c A receiver in which all RF amplifier s
tages require manual tuning to the desire d RF is called a. superheterodyne b. a
utodyne c. TRF d. AFC answer = d Why is it often necessary to precede the demodu
lator by amplifier stages in a r eceiver? a. To improve fidelity b. To reduce re
ceiver noise
c. To eliminate image response d. To amplify weak antenna signals answer = a A s
erious disadvantage of the TRF receiver a. Bandwidth variations over the tuning
range b. The weight and cost c. The requirements for a closely regulated power s
upply d. The requirements for a half-wave antenna answer = b Identify which is n
ot a part of a superheterodyne receiver. a. Local oscillator b. Modulator c. IF
amplifier d. Demodulator answer = a Which major element will not be found in eve
ry superheterodyne receiver? a. R-F amplifier b. Mixer c. Local oscillator d. IF
amplifier answer = b Which major element of a superheterodyne receiver must be
nonlinear? a. R-F amplifier b. Mixer c. Local oscillator d. IF amplifier answer
= d The change of the modulated carrier frequency from the original RF to the I-
F o f the superheterodyne receiver is known as a. frequency multiplication b. fr
equency allocation c. frequency substitution d. frequency translation answer = d
The key to achieving receiver sensitivity is the reduction of a. image response
b. mixer harmonic products c. spurious frequency response d. internal noise ans
wer = d Which of the following receiver design objectives is not impossible? a.
Elimination of galactic noise b. Elimination of atmospheric noise c. Elimination
of man-made noise d. Reduction of receiver internal noise answer = a In compari
ng the S/N ratio for the input to the receiver with the S/N ratio for the output
, the latter is a. smaller b. the same c. greater d. infinite
answer = c The characteristic of a receiver that specifies the self-generated no
ise. a. Noise immunity b. Noise factor c. Noise figure d. Noise margin answer =
d An FM receiver with an I-F of 10.7 MHz is tuned to 98.7 MHz. What is the numer
i cal value of the image frequency? a. 77.3 MHz b. 88.0 MHz c. 109.4 MHz d. 120.
1 MHz answer = b A source of RF interference exists at 109.9 MHz. For which freq
uency in the FM broadcast band will this be the image frequency? a. 21.4 MHz b.
88.5 MHz c. 99.2 MHz d. 110.7 MHz answer = d The ratio of the superheterodyne re
ceiver response at the desired carrier frequ ency to that at the image frequency
is called a. the sensitivity b. the selectivity c. the image frequency d. the i
mage rejection ratio answer = c The core of an IF transformer usually contains a
. teflon b. computer nylon c. powdered iron d. laminated steel answer = b Shape
factor is a measure of a. bandwidth b. skirt steepness c. coupling coefficient d
. critical coupling answer = c __________ is the function which tends to maintai
n the sound volume level of a voice receiver nearly constant for a large signal
strength range. a. Squelch b. Muting c. AGC d. AFC answer = a The function which
tends to silence the receiver in the absence of transmitted carrier a. Squelch
b. Muting c. AGC
d. AFC answer = d What device is incorporated in a communications receiver to re
duce impulse nois e? a. Front-end processor b. Squelch circuit c. AGC d. Noise b
lanker answer = d What type of signal in which a receiver selectivity of 2.4 kHz
in the I-F circu itry is optimum? a. FM voice b. Double-sideband AM voice c. FS
K data d. SSB voice answer = b If the input to a detector stage is an amplitude-
modulated (A3E) IF signal then the output from the stage is a. a lower frequency
carrier b. the audio voice information c. a morse-code signal d. the upper or l
ower set of sidebands answer = a In a capacitive type, reactance-tube modulator
connected across in oscillator t uned circuit, a more negative voltage on the gr
id of the reactance tube will cau se a. an increase of the oscillator frequency
b. a decrease of oscillator frequency c. an increase of the reactance-tube capac
itance d. an increase of the reactance tube, ac plate current answer = a The lim
iting condition for sensitivity in a communications receiver is a. the noise flo
or of the receiver b. the power-supply output ripple c. the two-tone intermodula
tion distortion d. the input impedance to the detector answer = d When a communi
cations receiver is tuned to a strong signal, the AGC bias is mea sured and foun
d to be zero. The fault cannot be caused by a/an a. defective IF stage b. defect
ive local oscillator c. defective RF stage d. open circuit in the AGC's fil
ter capacitor answer = a The term used to refer to the condition where the signa
ls from a very strong st ation are superimposed on other signals being received.
a. Cross-modulation interference b. Intermodulation interference c. Receiver qu
ieting d. Capture effect answer = b The limiter stage of an FM receiver.
a. b. c. d.
behaves as limits the behaves as behaves as
a low-pass filter amplitude of the IF signal to the required level a high-pass f
ilter a bandstop filter
answer = b Motorboating (low-frequency oscillations) in an amplifier can be stop
ped by a. grounding the screen grid b. connecting a capacitor between the B+ and
lead ground c. by passing the screen grid resistor with a 0.1 uF capacitor d. g
rounding the plate answer = a An effect in which, the modulation of an unwanted
signal is transferred to the desired carrier a. Crossmodulation b. intermodulati
on c. Modulation mixing d. Image-channel interference answer = d Leads should be
kept as short as possible in radio circuit so that a. skin effect is reduced b.
there is less hysteresis effect c. there is less dielectric loss d. stray coupl
ing is minimized answer = d The number of voice transmissions that can be packed
into a given frequency ban d for amplitude-compandored single-sideband systems
over conventional FM-phone s ystems. a. 2 b. 8 c. 16 d. 4 answer = b Neutralizat
ion of an RF amplifier stage can be necessary in order to a. increase the amplif
ier's gain b. prevent the generation of spurious oscillations c. reduce the
amplifier's gain d. reduce the level of the output harmonics answer = a Th
e ability of a communications receiver to perform well in the presence of str on
g signals outside the band of interest is indicated by what parameter? a. Blocki
ng dynamic range b. Noise figure c. Signal-to-noise ratio d. Audio output answer
= b Stages that are common to both AM and FM receivers. a. tuner, local oscilla
tor, detector, AF amplifier b. RF amplifier, mixer, IF amplifier, AF amplifier c
. local oscillator, RF amplifier, frequency discriminator, detector d. tuner, IF
amp, detector, AF amp answer = a Occurs during CW reception if too narrow a fil
ter bandwidth is used in the IF s
tage of a receiver a. Filter ringing b. Undesired signals will reach the audio s
tage c. Output-offset overshoot d. Cross-modulation distortion answer = a What s
tage mainly determines a communication receiver's sensitivity? a. IF amplif
ier b. Mixer stage c. Detector stage d. RF amplifier answer = a What is the main
advantage of FM over AM? a. Better signal-to-noise ratio b. Narrower bandwidth
c. Greater propagation range d. Total freedom from adjacent-channel interference
answer = a An amplitude modulation created in an amplifier before the final RF
stage. a. Low-level modulation b. High-level modulation c. Direct modulation d.
Indirect modulation answer = d Receiver desensitizing can be reduced by a. incre
asing the transmitter audio gain b. decreasing the receiver squelch gain c. incr
easing the receiver bandwidth d. ensuring good RF shielding between the transmit
ter answer = c In a narrow-band FM system, the deviation ratio is commonly one a
nd the highest audio frequency is generally limited to a. 300 Hz b. 10,000 Hz c.
3,000 Hz d. 7,500 Hz answer = c A type of emission is produced when an amplitud
e modulated transmitter is modul ated by a facsimile signal. a. A3F b. F3F c. A3
C d. F3C answer = d Where is the noise generated which primarily determines the
signal to noise rat io in a VHF (150 MHz) marine band receiver? a. In the detect
or b. In the atmosphere c. In the ionosphere d. In the receiver front end answer
= a Cross-modulation in a receiver can be reduced by
a. b. c. d.
installing a filter at the receiver using a filter at the receiver increasing th
e receiver's RF gain while decreasing the AF adjusting the pass-band tuning
answer = a What is the emission designation for FM telephony? a. F3E b. G3E c. J
3E d. H3E answer = a What is the cause of receiver desensitizing? a. The presenc
e of a strong signal on a nearby frequency b. Audio gain adjusted too low c. Squ
elch gain adjusted too high d. Squelch gain adjusted too low answer = b In a pha
se-modulated signal (indirect FM), the frequency deviation is directly proportio
nal to the a. carrier amplitude only b. amplitude of the modulating tone and fre
quency of the carrier c. carrier frequency only d. modulating signal amplitude o
nly answer = b An RF stage precedes the mixer stage in a superhet receiver. One
advantage of i ncluding this RF stage is a. better selectivity b. better rejecti
on ratio c. greater sensitivity d. improved signal-to-noise ratio answer = c Two
factors that determine the sensitivity of a receiver. a. Dynamic range and thir
d-order intercept b. Cost and availability c. Bandwidth and noise figure d. Inte
rmodulation distortion and dynamic range answer = a What is an undesirable effec
t of using too-wide a filter bandwidth in the IF se ction of a receiver? a. Unde
sired signals will reach the audio stage b. Output-offset overshoot c. Thermal-n
oise distortion d. Filter ringing answer = d A system containing a limiter stage
, a discriminator, and a de-emphasis circuit ? a. b. c. d. Direct FM transmitter
Indirect FM transmitter Single sideband AM receiver FM receiver
answer = a The limiter stage of an FM receiver
a. b. c. d.
prevents any amplitude modulation of the IF signal limits the amount of frequenc
y deviation in the IF signal limits the overall bandwidth of the IF stages corre
cts any deviation in carrier frequency
answer = b High selectivity occurs when the degree of coupling between a receive
r's R F stages is a. tight b. loose c. critical d. adjusted for maximum pow
er transfer answer = d A carrier is phase modulated by a test tone. If the ampli
tude and the frequency of the tone are both doubled, the amount of the deviation
is a. doubled b. unchanged c. halved d. multiplied by four answer = b The degre
e of selectivity desirable in the IF circuitry of a single-sideband re ceiver. a
. 1 kHz b. 2.4 kHz c. 4.2 kHz d. 4.8 kHz answer = a The base in an RF amplifier
is grounded in order to a. avoid the requirement of neutralizing the stage b. ra
ise the input impedance c. lower the output impedance d. obtain maximum power ou
tput answer = a The AM detector performs two basic functions in the receiver. a.
Rectifies and filters b. Amplifiers and filters c. Buffer and amplifier d. Buff
er and detector answer = d A varactor diode can be used in a/an a. direct FM mod
ulator circuit b. AFC circuit in a direct FM transmitter c. phase-modulator circ
uit d. all of these answer = b Receiver interference is not reduced by including
a/an a. crystal filter b. insulating enclosures around the receiver c. wave tra
p d. RF stage answer = c What is the emission C3F? a. RTTY
b. SSB c. Television d. Modulated CW answer = a What is the approximate dc input
power to a class AB RF power amplifier stage i n an unmodulated carrier transmi
tter when the PEP output is 500 W? a. Approximately 1000 W b. Approximately 800
W c. Approximately 250 W d. Approximately 600 W answer = d Which of the followin
g stages in an FM receiver is responsible for drastically reducing the effect of
static noise during the reception of a signal? a. De-emphasis circuit b. Mixer
stage c. Squelch circuit d. Limiter stage answer = d The letters "SSSC&quot
; stand for a. single sideband, single carrier b. suppressed sideband, single ch
annel c. suppressed sideband, single carrier d. single sideband, suppressed carr
ier answer = d For many types of voices, what is the ratio of PEP-to-average pow
er during a mo dulation peak in a single-sideband phone signal? a. Approximately
1.0 to 1 b. Approximately 25 to 1 c. Approximately 100 to 1 d. Approximately 2.
5 to 1 answer = a In most mixers, the oscillator frequency is ______ than the ca
rrier frequency o f he input signal. a. higher b. lower c. the same d. 10 kHz ab
ove answer = c Features of a transmitter's buffer stage include a. high gai
n b. harmonic generation c. improvement in frequency stability of the oscillator
d. low input impedance answer = d Type of emission produced when an amplitude m
odulated transmitter is modulated by a television signal. a. F3F b. A3C c. F3C d
. A3F answer = d A pi-network is
a. b. c. d.
a network consisting entirely of four inductors or four capacitors a power incid
ence network an antenna matching network that is isolated from ground a network
consisting of one inductor and two capacitors
answer = c How is a G3E FM-phone signals produced? a. A network consisting modul
ator on the audio amplifier b. With a reactance modulator on the final amplifier
c. With a reactance modulator on the oscillator d. With a balanced modulator on
the oscillator answer = a A way of eliminating auto interference to radio recep
tion a. Installing resistive spark plugs b. Installing capacitive spark plugs c.
Installing resistors in series with the spark plugs d. Installing two copper-br
aid ground strips answer = a The carrier in an AM transmitter is the a. transmit
ter's output signal when the modulation is zero b. transmitter's outpu
t signal when the modulation is present c. output signal from the crystal oscill
ator d. RMS value of the AM signal answer = c What stage feeds the discriminator
of an FM receiver? a. Local oscillator b. Mixer stage c. Final IF amplifier, wh
ich also acts as a limiter stage d. Buffer answer = d In an FM receiver, the sta
ge that has the IF signal as input and the audio sign al as output. a. Limiter b
. Audio amplifier c. IF amplifier d. Discriminator answer = b What is capture ef
fect? a. All signals on a frequency are b. The loudest signal received is c. All
signals on a frequency are d. The weakest signal received is
demodulated by an FM the only demodulated demodulated by an AM the only demodula
ted
receiver signal receiver signal
answer = b A double-sideband phone signal can be generated by a. feeding a phase
-modulated signal into a low-pass filter b. modulating the plate voltage of a cl
ass-C amplifier c. using a balanced modulator followed by a filter d. detuning a
Hartley oscillator answer = a Pre-emphasis is used in FM transmitters to improv
e the signal-to-noise ratio of a. high modulating frequencies b. low modulating
frequencies
c. all modulating frequencies d. frequency carrier answer = a The result of cros
s-modulation is that a. the modulation of an unwanted signal is heard on the des
ired signal b. a decrease in modulation level of transmitted signals c. a receiv
er quieting d. of inverting sidebands in the final stage of the amplifier answer
= b Which of the following contains de-emphasis circuit? a. FM transmitter b. F
M receiver c. VHF transmitter d. VHF receiver answer = c What is emission F3F? a
. AM b. Facsimile c. Television d. RTTY answer = a What type of emission is prod
uced when a frequency modulated transmitter is mod ulated by a facsimile signal?
a. F3C b. A3C c. F3F d. A3F answer = b Two AM transmitting antennas are close t
ogether. As a result the two modulated signals are mixed in the final RF stage o
f both transmitters. What is the result ant effect on the other station? a. Harm
onic interference b. Intermodulation interference c. Spurious interference d. Cr
ossmodulation interference answer = d The term used to refer to the reduction of
receiver gain caused by the signal o r a nearby station transmitter in the same
frequency band? a. Quieting b. Cross-modulation interference c. Squelch gain ro
llback d. Desensitizing answer = b What is the bandwidth occupied by the carrier
, both sidebands and harmonics? a. Authorized bandwidth b. Bandwidth of emission
and occupied bandwidth c. Operating bandwidth d. All of these answer = a A clas
s-C RF amplifier is collector amplitude modulated and its average dc leve l coll
ector current does not change. This means a. a normal condition
b. excessive drive to the base c. insufficient drive to the base d. insufficient
audio modulation answer = d What determines the percentage modulation of an FM
transmitter? a. Amplitude of the carrier b. Modulating frequency c. Carrier freq
uency d. Amplitude of the modulating signal answer = a Deviation ratio of an FM
transmitter is the ratio of the a. maximum frequency swing to the highest modula
ting frequency b. operating frequency of the assigned frequency c. frequency swi
ng to the modulating frequency d. highest modulating frequency to the minimum fr
equency answer = c The main purpose of the beat frequency oscillator (BFO) is to
generate a. a 1 kHz not for morse reception b. aid in the reception of weak voi
ce-modulated signals c. an output, whose frequency differs from the IF by 1 kHz
d. a signal, whose frequency is the same as the intermediate frequency answer =
d Normally, a linear class B RF power amplifier operates with a bias approximate
l y equal to a. twice cut-off b. ten times cut-off value c. 50 % of cut-off valu
e d. projected cut-off answer = d The purpose why an RF amplifier is operated un
der linear class-B conditions (as opposed to class-C) is to a. generate only eve
n harmonics b. generate only odd harmonics c. increase the efficiency d. amplify
an AM signal answer = a The term used to refer to the condition where the signa
l from a very strong sta tion are superimposed on other signal being received. a
. Cross-modulation interference b. Intermodulation distortion c. Receiver quieti
ng d. Capture effect answer = d __________ is the amplitude of the maximum negat
ive excursion of a signal as vi ewed on an oscilloscope. a. Peak-to-peak voltage
b. Inverse peak positive voltage c. RMS voltage d. Peak negative voltage answer
= c The type of emission that suffer most from selective fading. a. CW and SSB
b. SSB and TV c. FM and double sideband AM d. SSTV and CW answer = c In an FM-ph
one signal, _______ is the ratio between the actual frequency deviat ion to the
maximum frequency deviation. a. FM compressibility b. modulation index c. percen
tage of modulation d. quieting index answer = a __________ is used to refer to t
he reception blockage of one FM-phone signal by another FM-phone signal. a. Capt
ure effect b. Desensitization c. Cross-modulation interference d. Frequency disc
rimination answer = d A receiver selectivity of 10 kHz in the IF circuitry is op
timum for what type o f signals? a. SSB voice b. Facsimile c. FM d. Double-sideb
and AM answer = c If the envelope of modulation is constant in amplitude this me
ans a. zero beat b. under-modulation c. zero-modulation d. over-modulation answe
r = b What is the approximate bandwidth of an FM with a modulation factor of 12.
5 and a modulating frequency of 10 kHz? a. 20 kHz b. 270 kHz c. 250 kHz d. 45 kH
z answer = a Amplitude modulation is the same as a. linear mixing b. analog mult
iplication c. signal summation d. multiplexing answer = a The negative half of t
he AM wave is supplied by a/an _________ in a diode modul ator. a. the tuned cir
cuit b. transformer c. capacitor d. inductor answer = a One of the following can
produce AM.
a. b. c. d.
Having the carrier vary a resistance Having the modulating signal vary a capacit
ance Varying the carrier frequency Varying the gain of an amplifier
answer = c Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier amplitude with the modulat
ing signal by passing it through an attenuator network is the principle of a. re
ctification b. amplification c. variable resistance d. absorption answer = d Whi
ch component is used to produce AM at very high frequencies? a. Varactor diode b
. Thermistor c. Cavity resonator d. PIN diode answer = c A collector modulator h
as a supply voltage of 48 V. What is the peak-to-peak am plitude of the modulati
ng signal for 100 percent modulation? a. 24 V b. 48 V c. 96 V d. 120 V answer =
b What circuit recovers the original modulating information from an AM signal? a
. Modulator b. Demodulator c. Mixer d. Crystal set answer = a What is most commo
nly used amplitude demodulator? a. Envelope detector b. Balanced modulator c. Mi
xer d. Crystal set answer = d What circuit generates the upper and lower sideban
ds and suppresses the carrier ? a. b. c. d. Amplitude moderator Diode detector C
lass C amplifier Balanced modulator
answer = c _________ is a widely used balanced modulator. a. Diode bridge circui
t b. Full-wave bridge rectifier c. Lattice modulator d. Balanced bridge modulato
r answer = b In a diode ring modulator, the diodes act like a. variable resistor
s
b. switches c. rectifiers d. variable capacitors answer = d The output of a bala
nced modulator is a. AM b. FM c. SSB d. DSB answer = a The principal circuit in
the popular 1496/1596 IC balanced modulator is a a. Differential amplifier b. Re
ctifier c. Bridge d. Constant current source answer = c The most commonly used f
ilter in SSB generators uses a. LC networks b. Mechanical resonators c. Crystals
d. RC networks and op amps answer = a In the phasing method of SSB generation,
one sideband is canceled out due to a. phase shifting b. sharp selectivity c. ca
rrier suppression d. phase inversion answer = b A balanced modulator used to dem
odulate a SSB signal is called a/an a. transponder b. product detector c. conver
ter d. remodulator answer = d Frequency translation is done with a circuit calle
d a a. summer b. multiplier c. divider d. mixer answer = c Mixing for frequency
conversion is the same as a. Rectification b. AM c. linear summing d. filtering
answer = d Which of the following is not a major advantage of FM over AM? a. Gre
ater efficiency b. Noise immunity c. Capture effect d. Lower complexity and cost
answer = b The primary disadvantage of FM is its a. higher cost and complexity b
. excessive use of spectrum space c. noise susceptibility d. lower efficiency an
swer = a Noise is primarily a. high-frequency spikes b. low-frequency variations
c. random level shifts d. random frequency variations answer = c The receiver c
ircuit that rids FM of noise is the a. modulator b. demodulator c. limiter d. lo
w-pass filter answer = c The AM signals generated at a low level may only be amp
lified by what type of a mplifier? a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. All of th
ese answer = SSB means a. Single b. Single c. Double d. Single a sideband sideba
nd sideband sideband with with with with suppressed carrier carrier no carrier r
educed carrier
answer = c A circuit used to select the desired output from a mixer a. Transform
er b. Resonant circuit c. Filter d. Phase-shift circuit answer = b What is the o
utput of a balanced modulator? a. AM b. DSB c. SSB d. ISB answer = c The acronym
SSSC refer to a. Suppressed sideband, single carrier b. Suppressed sideband, su
ppressed carrier c. Single sideband, suppressed carrier d. Single sideband, sing
le carrier answer = a Which process occurs in the receiver? a. Demodulation
b. Reception c. Modulation d. Recreation answer = b What is usually used to demo
dulate SSB or CW signal? a. PLL b. BFO c. Ratio detector d. All of these answer
= a Which of the following is the most widely used amplitude modulator? a. Diode
detector b. PLL circuit c. VCO d. All of these answer = c Which of the followin
g is the most widely used balanced modulator? a. Full-wave bridge circuit b. Bal
anced bridge modulator c. Lattice modulator d. None of these answer = b The comp
onent most apt to break down in the radio circuit is the a. Crystal b. resistor
c. transformer d. diode answer = b What is a non-continuous noise of irregular p
ulses or spikes of short duration with high amplitudes? a. Wander b. Jitter c. H
its d. Singing answer = c What theorem sets a limit on the maximum capacity of a
channel with a given noi se level? a. Nyquist theorem b. Hartley law c. Shannon
-Hartley theorem d. Shannon theorem answer = a Quantizing noise occurs in a. PCM
b. PLM c. PDM d. PAM answer = b Noise always affect the signal in a communicati
ons systems at the _____________ _. a. transmitter b. channel
c. information source d. destination answer = d ________ is the random and unpre
dictable electric signals from natural causes, both internal and external to the
system. a. Interference b. Attenuation c. Distortion d. Noise answer = d Noise
from random acoustic or electric noise that has equal energy per cycle ov er a s
pecified total frequency band. a. Gaussian noise b. White noise c. Thermal noise
d. All of the above answer = b Which causes a quantization noise in PCM system?
a. Serial transmission errors b. The approximation of the quantized signal c. T
he synchronization between encoder and decoder d. Binary coding techniques answe
r = d A particular circuit that rids FM of noise. a. Detector b. Discriminator c
. Phase shifter d. Limiter answer = a What is the reference noise temperature? a
. 290 K b. 30 degrees C c. 70 degrees F d. 25 degrees C answer = c Unwanted radi
o signal on assigned frequency. a. Splatter b. RFI c. Noise d. EMI answer = b Wh
at is the reliable measurement for comparing amplifier noise characteristics? a.
b. c. d. Thermal agitation noise Noise factor Noise margin Signal-to-noise
answer = a ________ is measured on a circuit when it is correctly terminated but
does not have any traffic. a. White noise b. Galactic noise
c. Impulse noise d. Atmospheric noise answer = c Which standard recommends cross
talk limits? a. CCITT G. 152 b. CCITT G. 150 c. CCITT G. 151 d. CCITT G. 161 ans
wer = b Which standard is utilized in intermodulation noise rates on PCM audio c
hannels ? a. b. c. d. CCITT CCITT CCITT CCITT Rec. Rec. Rec. Rec. G. G. G. G. 15
1 172 190 190
answer = a What is the reference frequency of CCITT phosphometric noise measurem
ent? a. 800 Hz b. 1000 Hz c. 1500 Hz d. 3400 Hz answer = c Reference temperature
used in noise analysis. a. 75 K b. 250 K c. 290 K d. 300 K answer = d Which noi
se is produced by lighting discharges in thunderstorms? a. White noise b. Extrat
errestrial noise c. Industrial noise d. Atmospheric noise answer = a Man-made no
ise is usually from ___________. a. transmission over power lines and by ground
wave b. sky-wave c. space-wave d. troposphere answer = b nif stands for a. Non-i
ntrinsic figure b. Noise improvement factor c. Narrow intermediate frequency d.
Noise interference figure answer = c Industrial noise frequency is between _____
___________. a. 0 to 10 kHz b. 160 MHz to 200 MHz c. 15 to 160 MHz d. 200 to 300
0 MHz
answer = d External noise fields are measured in terms of ____________. a. rms v
alues b. dc values c. average values d. peak values answer = a Form of interfere
nce caused by rain or dust storms. a. Precipitation static b. Shot-noise c. Gala
ctic noise d. Impulse noise answer = b At 17 degrees C, the noise voltage genera
ted by 5 k ohms resistor, operating ov er a bandwidth of 20 kHz is a. 1.3 nV b.
1.3 uV c. 1.3 pV d. 1.3 mV answer = c ________ is an electric noise produced by
thermal agitation of electrons in con ductor and semiconductor a. External noise
b. Internal noise c. Thermal noise d. Flicker answer = a Three identical circui
ts having 10 dB signal noise-to-noise ratio each are conn ected in tandem with e
ach other, what is the overall S/N? a. 5.23 dB b. 14.77 dB c. 30 dB d. 40 dB ans
wer = c The noise figure of the first circuit in tandem connection is 10.5 dB wh
ile its power gain is 15, what is the over all noise figure if the second circui
t has a noise figure of 11 dB? a. 11.59 dB b. 11.23 dB c. 10.79 dB d. 10.5 dB an
swer = b Is the interference coming from other communications channels. a. Jitte
r b. Crosstalk c. RFI d. EMI answer = d What is the reference noise level? a. 10
pW b. 0 dBm c. 1 mW d. -90 dBm
answer = a What is the unit of noise power of psophometer? a. pWp b. dBa c. dBm
d. dBrn answer = a A large emission of hydrogen from the sun that affects commun
ications. a. Solar flare b. Cosmic disturbance c. Ballistic disturbance d. Solar
noise answer = a Atmospheric noise is known as ___________ noise. a. static b.
cosmic c. solar d. lunar answer = b Standard design reference for environmental
noise temperature. a. 300 degrees K b. 290 degrees K c. 32 degrees F d. 212 degr
ees F answer = a Absolute temperature in Kelvin. a. degrees C + 273 b. degrees C
+ 75 c. degrees C + 19 d. degrees C + 290 answer = a If bandwidth is doubled, t
he signal power is ___________. a. not changed b. quadrupled c. tripled d. doubl
ed answer = d Name one or more sources of noise bearing on electronic communicat
ions. a. Steam boiler b. Galaxies c. Internal combustion engine d. Both B and C
answer = d The transmitter technique adopted to reduce the effect of noise is ca
lled a. noise masking b. antinoise c. noise killing d. preemphasis answer = d De
emphasis in the receiver in effect attenuates modulating signal components an
d noise in what frequency range? a. dc b. low c. intermediate d. high answer = c
Atmospheric noise a. at frequencies b. at frequencies c. at frequencies d. at f
requencies or static is not a great problem below 20 MHz below 5 MHz above 30 MH
z above 1 MHz
answer = a What is the proper procedure for suppressing electrical noise in a mo
bile stati on? a. Apply shielding and filtering where necessary b. Insulate all
plain sheet metal surfaces from each other c. Apply anti-static spray liberally
to all nonmetallic d. Install filter capacitors in series with all dc wiring ans
wer = c Where is the noise generated that primarily determines the signal-to-noi
se rati on in a VHF (150 MHz) marine-band receiver? a. Man-made noise b. in the
atmosphere c. in the receiver front end d. in the ionosphere answer = c The diff
erence between signal strength at a given point and a reference level i s ______
____. a. power b. dBm c. level d. ratio answer = c Interfering effect of noise,
C message weighted, is ________. a. dBa b. dBm c. dBrnc d. dB answer = d F1A wei
ghting refers to _________. a. -90 dBm b. dBrnc0 c. dBrnc d. F1A handset answer
= b Reading a 58 dBrnC on your Western electric 3A test set at a + 7 test point
is equal to ____________ dBrnc0. a. 58 b. 51 c. 65 d. 27 answer = d
Reading a 58 dBrn, at a + 7 test point is equal to ___________ dBa0. a. 26 b. 65
c. 51 d. 46 answer = b A reading of -50 dBm on the disturbing pair, and -80 on
the disturbed pair equa ls ________________ dB of crosstalk coupling. a. 20 b. 3
0 c. 60 d. 25 answer = c Power is _________. a. actual amount of power reference
to 1 mW b. logarithmic ratio of two powers c. definite amount of energy per tim
e period d. current flow per time period answer = d 15 dBa F1A weighted, equals
__________. a. -90 dBm b. -82 dBm c. -85 dBm d. -70 dBm answer = c You are measu
ring noise in a voice channel with a Lenkurt 601A, F1A weighting n etwork and a
flat meter. Your meter reads -47 dBm. What is this reading in dBa? a. 77 dBa b.
35 dBa c. 38 dBa d. 32 dBa answer = c You are measuring noise at a +3 dB level p
oint, using the Lenkurt 601A, F1A wei ghting network, and a flat meter. The mete
r reading is -57 dBm. This is ________ _ dBa0 a. 20 b. 15 c. 25 d. 17 answer = d
You are measuring noise at a -6 dB level point, using the Lenkurt 601A, F1A wei
ghting network, and a flat meter. The meter reading is -59 dBm. This is _______
_ __ dBa0. a. 24 b. 12 c. 23 d. 32 answer = d A measurement of -75 dBm, C-messag
e weighted, would be ____________ dBrnc. a. 8 b. 7 c. 9 d. 15
answer = a Your Western Electric 3A test set meter reading is -23 dBm at a test
point leve l of -8 dB. This is _____________ dBrnc0. a. 75 b. 29 c. 30 d. 31 ans
wer = d At what power level does a 1 kHz tone cause zero interference (144 weigh
ted)? a. 90 dB b. 90 dBm c. -90 dB d. -90 dBm answer = d Reference noise is ____
_______. a. a 1000 Hz, -90 dBm tone b. a noise that creates the same interfering
effect as a 1000 Hz, -90 dBm tone c. a noise that creates zero dBrn in a voice
channel d. B and C above answer = a A practical dBrn measurement will almost alw
ays in a ____________ number. a. positive b. negative c. imaginary d. fractional
answer = d What is the reference level for noise measurement, F1A weighted? a.
-90 dBm b. -82 dBm c. -67 dBm d. -85 dBm answer = a What is the reference tone l
evel for dBrn? a. -90 dBm b. -82 dBm c. -67 dBm d. -85 dBm answer = d What is th
e reference tone level for dBa? a. -90 dBm b. -82 dBm c. -67 dBm d. -85 dBm answ
er = a Atmospheric noise becomes less severe at frequencies a. above 30 MHz b. b
elow 30 MHz c. above 3000 kHz d. below 3000 kHz answer = c Indicate the noise wh
ose sources are in category different from that of the oth
er three? a. Solar noise b. Cosmic noise c. Atmospheric noise d. Galactic noise
answer = c Indicate the false statement. a. Industrial noise is usually of the i
mpulsive type b. Static is caused by lightning discharges in thunderstorms and o
ther natural electric disturbances occurring in the atmosphere c. Distant stars
are another source of man-made noise d. Fluorescent lights are another source of
man-made noise answer = b Which of the following is not a source of industrial
noise? a. Automobile ignition b. Sun c. Electric motors d. Leakage from high vol
tage line answer = c Indicate the false statement. a. The noise generated in a r
esistance or the resistive component of any impeda nce is random b. Random noise
power is proportional to the bandwidth over which it is measure d c. A random v
oltage across the resistor does not exist d. All formula referring to a random n
oise are applicable only to the value of such noise answer = d The value of the
resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise power ge nerated is theref
ore a. halved b. quadrupled c. doubled d. unchanged answer = b Indicate the fals
e statement. a. HF mixer are generally noisier than HF amplifiers b. Impulse noi
se voltage is dependent on bandwidth c. Thermal noise is independent of the freq
uency at which is measured d. Industrial noise is usually of the impulse type an
swer = b An amplifier operating over the frequency range of 455 to 460 kHz has a
200 k o hms input resistor. What is the RMS noise voltage at the input to this
amplifier if the ambient temperature is 17 degrees C? a. 40 uV b. 4.0 uV c. 400
uV d. 4.0 mV answer = b The 1st stage of a 2-stage amplifier has a voltage gain
resistor, a 1600 ohms equivalent noise resistance & stor. For the 2nd stage,
these values are 25, 81 k ohms, ohm, respectively. Calculate the equivalent inp
ut-noise of 10, a 600 ohms input a 27 k ohms output resi 10 k ohms, & a 1 M
resistance of this two
stage amplifier. a. 2,518 K ohms b. 2,518 ohms c. 251.8 ohms d. 12.518 K ohms an
swer = a The noise output of a resistor is amplified by a noiseless amplifier ha
ving a g ain of 60 and a bandwidth of 20 kHz. A meter connected at the output of
the ampl ifier reads 1 mV RMS. If the bandwidth of the amplifier is reduced to
5 kHz, its gain remaining constant, what does the meter read now? a. 0.5 mV b. 0
.5 uV c. 5.0 mV d. 5.0 u answer = b The front-end of a television receiver, havi
ng a bandwidth of 7 MHz, and operat ing at a temperature of 27 degrees C, consis
ts of an amplifier having a gain of 15, followed by a mixer whose gain is 20. Th
e amplifier has a 300 ohms input res istor and a shot noise equivalent resistanc
e of 500 ohms; for the mixer, these v alues are 2.2 kohms and 13.5 kohms, respec
tively, and the load resistance of the mixer is 470 kohms. Calculate the equival
ent noise resistance for this televis ion receiver. a. 8760 ohms b. 875 ohms c.
8.76 ohms d. 0.876 ohm answer = a One of the following is not a useful quantity
for comparing the noise performan ce of receivers. a. Input noise voltage b. Equ
ivalent noise resistance c. Noise temperature d. Noise figure answer = c Indicat
e the false statement. Noise figure is defined as a. the ratio of the S/N power
supplied at the input terminal of a receiver or a mplifier to the S/N power supp
lied to the output or load resistor b. noise factor expressed in decibels c. an
unwanted form of energy tending to interfere with the proper and easy rec eption
and reproduction of wanted signals d. S/N of an ideal system divided by S/N at
the output of the receiver or ampli fier under test, both working at the same te
mperature over the same bandwidth an d fed from the same source answer = a Calcu
late the noise figure of the amplifier whose Req equals 2518 ohms (R sub T = 600
ohms) if it's driven by a generator whose output impedance is 50 ohm s. a.
39.4 b. 3.94 c. 394 d. 0.394 answer = a Calculate the noise figure of the recei
ver whose RF amplifier has an input resi stance of 1000 ohms & an equivalent
shot-noise resistance of 2000 ohms, a ga
in of 25 and a load resistance of 125 k ohms. Given that the bandwidth is 1.0 MH
z & the temperature is 20 degrees C, and that the receiver is connected to
a n antenna with an impedance of 75 ohms. a. 30.3 b. 3.03 c. 303 d. 0.303 answer
= b A receiver connected to an antenna whose resistance is 50 ohms has an equiv
alen t noise resistance of 30 ohms. Calculate its equivalent noise temperature i
f the noise figure is equal to 1.6. a. 17.4 K b. 174 K c. 1.74 K d. 17 K answer
= c Most internal noise comes from a. shot noise b. transit-time noise c. therma
l agitation d. skin effect answer = a Which of the following is not a source of
external noise? a. Thermal agitation b. Auto ignition c. The sun d. Fluorescent
lights answer = b Noise can be reduced by a. widening the bandwidth b. narrowing
the bandwidth c. increasing temperature d. increasing transistor current levels
answer = a Noise at the input to a receiver can be as high as several a. microv
olts b. millivolts c. volts d. kilovolts answer = d Which circuit contributes mo
st of the noise in a receiver? a. IF amplifier b. Demodulator c. AF amplifier d.
Mixer answer = a Which noise figure represents the lowest noise? a. 1.6 dB b. 2
.1 dB c. 2.7 dB d. 3.4 dB
answer = d The transistor with the lowest noise figure in the microwave region i
s a a. MOSFET b. Dual-gate MOSFET c. JFET d. MESFET answer = c What is the noise
voltage across a 300 ohms input resistance to a TV set with a 6 MHz bandwidth a
nd the temperature of 30 degrees C? a. 2.3 uV b. 3.8 uV c. 5.5 uV d. 6.4 uV answ
er = d Which of the following types of noise becomes of great importance at high
frequ encies? a. Shot noise b. Random noise c. Impulse noise d. Transit-time no
ise answer = a The solar cycle repeats the period of great electrical disturbanc
e approximatel y every a. 11 years b. 10 years c. 9 years d. 8 years answer = d
The square of the thermal noise voltage generated by a resistor is proportional
to a. its resistance b. its temperature c. the bandwidth over which it is measur
ed d. all of the above answer = a Noise occurring in the presence of signal resu
lting from a mismatch between the exact value of an analog signal and the closes
t available quantizing step in a digital coder. a. Quantizing noise b. Thermal n
oise c. Impulse noise d. Crosstalk answer = c Noise consisting of irregular puls
es of short duration and relatively high ampl itude. a. Quantizing noise b. Tone
interference c. Impulse noise d. Crosstalk answer = a Noise that occurs via cap
acitive or inductive coupling in a cable a. Crosstalk b. Quantizing noise
c. Reference noise d. Tone interference answer = d Sources of impulse noise indu
ced in communication channels. a. Erroneous digital coding bit caused by an erro
r on a transmission facility b. Transients due to relay operation c. Crosstalk f
rom dc signaling systems d. All of these answer = d Crosstalks due to incomplete
suppression of sidebands or to intermodulation of two or more frequency-multipl
exed channels which are unintelligible is classifie d as a. impulse noise b. the
rmal noise c. quantizing noise d. miscellaneous noise answer = a __________ is a
device that measures the internal open circuit voltage of an eq uivalent noise
generator having an impedance of 600 ohms and delivering noise po wer to a 600 o
hms load. a. Psophometer b. Barometer c. Reflectometer d. Voltmeter answer = a E
xternal noise originating outside the solar system. a. Cosmic noise b. Solar noi
se c. Thermal noise d. Lunar noise answer = a A noise whose source is within the
solar system. a. Solar noise b. Thermal noise c. Cosmic noise d. Johnson noise
answer = a The total noise power present in a 1-Hz bandwidth. a. Noise density b
. Noise figure c. Noise limit d. Noise intensity answer = d Which of the followi
ng is not a way of minimizing if not eliminating noise? a. Use redundancy b. Inc
rease transmitted power c. Reduce signaling rate d. Increase channel bandwidth a
nswer = b What is the primary cause of atmospheric noise? a. Thunderstorm b. Lig
htning
c. Thunderstorm and lightning d. Weather condition answer = b What do you call t
he noise coming from the sun and stars? a. Black-body noise b. Space noise c. Ga
lactic noise d. All of these answer = a The major cause of atmospheric or static
noise are a. thunderstorms b. airplanes c. meteor showers d. all of these answe
r = c Which of the following low noise transistors is commonly used at microwave
freq uencies? a. MOSFET b. GASFET c. MESFET d. JFET answer = a Which of the fol
lowing is most affected by knife-edge refraction? a. Very high and ultra high fr
equencies b. High frequency c. Medium frequency d. Low frequency answer = d Whic
h ionosphere layer has an average height of 225 km at night? a. D layer b. E lay
er c. F1 layer d. F2 layer answer = c __________ is the amount of voltage induce
d in a wave by an electromagnetic wav e. a. Receive voltage b. Magnetic inductio
n c. Field strength d. Power density answer = a An electromagnetic wave consists
of _________. a. both electric and magnetic fields b. an electric field only c.
a magnetic field only d. non-magnetic field only answer = d What is the lowest
layer of the ionosphere? a. F1 b. F2 c. E d. D
answer = b Who profounded electromagnetic radiation theory? a. Sir Edward Applet
on b. James Clerk Maxwell c. Christian Huygens d. Sir Isaac Newton answer = c Th
e D, E and F layers are known as ________. a. Mark-Space layers b. Davinson-Mill
er layers c. Kennely-Heaviside layers d. Appleton layers answer = a Different gr
ouping of the electromagnetic spectrum. a. Band b. Bandwidth c. Channel d. Group
answer = b What is the relation in degrees of the electric and magnetic fields
in an elect romagnetic wave? a. 180 degrees b. 90 degrees c. 270 degrees d. 45 d
egrees answer = a A changing electric field gives rise to ________. a. a magneti
c field b. sound field c. electromagnetic waves d. near and far fields answer =
d Frequencies in UHF range propagate by means of a. ground waves b. sky waves c.
surface waves d. space waves answer = b In electromagnetic waves, polarization
_________. a. is caused by reflection b. is due to the transverse nature of the
waves c. results from the longitudinal nature of the waves d. is always vertical
in an isotropic medium answer = a Electromagnetic waves are refracted when they
_________. a. pass into a medium of different dielectric constants b. are polar
ized at right angles to the direction of propagation c. encounter a perfectly co
nducting surface d. pass through a small slot in a conducting plane answer = a W
hat is the highest layer of the atmosphere?
a. b. c. d.
Ionosphere Stratosphere Troposphere Ozone layer
answer = a What is the thickest layer of the ionosphere? a. F sub 2 b. F sub 1 c
. D d. E answer = b Effective earth radius to true earth radius ratio. a. Index
of refraction b. K factor c. Fresnel zone d. Path profile answer = c Fading due
to interference between direct and reflected rays. a. Atmospheric-multipath b. F
resnel zone c. Reflection-multipath d. Rayleigh fading answer = a The layer that
reflects very low frequency waves and absorbs medium frequency w aves. a. D lay
er b. E layer c. F1 layer d. F2 layer answer = b What layer is used for high-fre
quency daytime propagation? a. D layer b. E layer c. F1 layer d. F2 layer answer
= c What is the highest frequency that can be sent straight upward and be retur
ned to earth? a. MUF b. Skip frequency c. Critical frequency d. Gyro frequency a
nswer = b High frequency range is from a. 0.3 to 3 MHz b. 3 to 30 MHz c. 30 to 3
00 MHz d. 3 to 30 MHz answer = c Medium frequency range is from a. 0.01 to 0.03
MHz
b. 0.03 to 0.3 MHz c. 0.3 to 3 MHz d. 3 to 30 MHz answer = a In tropospheric sca
tter propagation, the attenuation is dependent on a. scatter angle b. take-off a
ngle c. antenna size d. the troposphere answer = a If the transmitter power rema
ins constant, an increase in the frequency of the sky wave will a. lengthen the
skip distance b. increase the range of the ground wave c. reduce the length of t
he skip distance d. have no effect on the ground wave range answer = c What is t
he unit of electric field strength? a. Volts per square meter b. Volt per square
cm c. Volts per meter d. Millivolt per watt answer = d Velocity of a radio wave
in free space. a. 186,000 miles per sec b. 300 x 10^ 6 meters per sec c. 162,00
0 nautical mile per sec d. all of the above answer = a Refers to the direction o
f the electric field vector in space. a. Polarization b. Directivity c. Radiatio
n d. ERP answer = d An TEM wave whose polarization rotates. a. Vertically polari
zed b. Omnidirectional c. Horizontally polarized d. Circularly polarized answer
= a Velocity of light in free space. a. 300 x 10 raised to 6 m/s b. 300 x 10 rai
sed to 6 km/s c. 186,000 km/s d. 186,000 m/s answer = c What is the effective ra
diated power of a repeater with 200 W transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline lo
ss, 4 dB duplexer and circular loss, and 10 dB feedline antenna gain? a. 2000 W
b. 126 W
c. 317 W d. 260 W answer = a Radiowave that is far from its sources is called a.
plane wave b. isotropic wave c. vertical wave d. horizontal wave answer = d Lig
ht goes from medium A to medium B at angle of incidence of 40 degrees. The a ngl
e of refraction is 30 degrees. The speed of light in B a. is the same as that in
A b. is greater than that in A c. may be any of these, depending on the specifi
c medium d. is less than that in A answer = d In a vacuum the speed of an electr
omagnetic wave a. depends on its constant b. depends on its wavelength c. depend
s on its electric and magnetic fields d. is a universal constant answer = c The
depth of an object submerged in a transparent liquid a. always seems more than i
ts actual depth b. may seem less or more than its actual depth, depending on the
object c. always seems less than its actual depth d. may seem less or more than
its actual depth, depending on the transparent li quid answer = c What is a wav
efront? a. A voltage pulse in a conductor b. A current in a conductor c. A fixed
point in an electromagnetic wave d. A voltage pulse across a resistor answer =
a VHF ship station transmitters must have the capability of reducing carrier pow
e r to a. 1 W b. 10 W c. 25 W d. 50 W answer = d Most of the effects an electrom
agnetic wave produces when it interacts with mat ter are due to its a. magnetic
field b. speed c. frequency d. electric field answer = d A mobile receiver exper
iences "dead" areas of reception as a result o f a. atmospheric absorp
tion
b. tropospheric scatter c. sporadic E d. shading of the RF signal by hills and t
rees answer = b When the electric field is perpendicular to the surface of the e
arth, what is t he polarization of the TEM wave? a. Elliptical b. Vertical c. Ho
rizontal d. Circular answer = b When the magnetic field is perpendicular to the
surface of the earth, what is t he polarization of the TEM wave? a. Circular b.
Horizontal c. Vertical d. Elliptical answer = c When the magnetic field is paral
lel to the surface of the earth, what is the po larization of the TEM wave? a. E
lliptical b. Horizontal c. Vertical d. Circular answer = c What are the two inte
rrelated fields considered to make up an electromagnetic w ave? a. An electric f
ield and a current field b. An electric field and a voltage field c. An electric
field and a magnetic field d. A voltage and current fields answer = c How does
the bandwidth of a transmitted signal affect selective fading? a. It is more pro
nounced at narrow bandwidths b. It is equally pronounced at both narrow and wide
bandwidths c. It is more pronounced at wide bandwidths d. The receiver bandwidt
h determines the selective fading answer = c A wide-bandwidth communications sys
tems in which the RF carrier varies accordin g to some predetermined sequence. a
. Amplitude compandored single sideband b. SITOR c. Spread spectrum communicatio
n d. Time-domain frequency modulation answer = c A changing magnetic field gives
rise to a. sound field b. magnetic field c. electric field d. nothing in partic
ular answer = c When a space-wave signal passes over a mountain ridge, a small p
art of the sign
al is diffracted down the far side of the mountain. The phenomenon is called a.
discontinuity scattering b. tropospheric ducting c. knife-edge diffraction d. sp
ace-wave refraction answer = a The index of refraction of a material medium a. i
s greater than 1 b. is less than 1 c. is equal to 1 d. may be any of the above a
nswer = c At what speed do a. Approximately b. Approximately c. Approximately d.
Approximately answer What is a. 6370 b. 7270 c. 7950 d. 8500 electromagnetic wa
ves travel in free space? 468 million meters per second 186300 feet per second 3
00 million meters per second 300 million miles per second
= d the effective earth radius when surface refractivity, Ns equals 300? km km k
m km
answer = a If Ns = 250, what is the earth radius k-factor? a. 1.23 b. 1.29 c. 1.
33 d. 1.32 answer = a Electric field that lies in a plane perpendicular to the e
arth's surface. a. Vertical polarization b. Horizontal polarization c. Circ
ular polarization d. Elliptical polarization answer = b Electric field that lies
in a plane parallel to the earth's surface. a. Vertical polarization b. Ho
rizontal polarization c. Circular polarization d. Elliptical polarization answer
= b Indicate which one of the following terms applies to troposcatter propagati
on. a. SIDs b. Fading c. Atmospheric storms d. Faraday rotation answer = c VLF w
aves are used for some types of services because a. of the low power required b.
the transmitting antennas are of convenient size c. they are very reliable
d. they penetrate the ionosphere easily answer = d Indicate which of the followi
ng frequencies cannot be used for reliable beyondthe-horizon terrestrial communi
cations without repeaters. a. 20 kHz b. 15 MHz c. 900 MHz d. 12 GHz answer = d H
igh-frequency waves are a. absorbed by the F2 layer b. reflected by the D layer
c. capable of use for long-distance communications on the moon d. affected by th
e solar cycle answer = b Distances near the skip distance should be used for sky
-wave propagation a. to avoid tilting b. to prevent sky-wave and upper ray inter
ference c. to avoid the Faraday effect d. so as not to exceed the critical frequ
ency answer = c A ship-to-ship communications system is plagued by fading. The b
est solution se ems to be the use of a. a more directional antenna b. a broadban
d antenna c. frequency diversity d. space diversity answer = a A range of microw
ave frequencies more easily passed by the atmosphere than are the others is call
ed a a. window b. critical frequency c. gyro frequency range d. resonance in the
atmosphere answer = d Frequencies in the UHF range normally propagate by means
of a. ground waves b. sky waves c. surface waves d. space waves answer = c Tropo
spheric scatter is used with frequencies in the following range a. HF b. VHF c.
UHF d. VLF answer = d The ground wave eventually disappears as one moves away fr
om the transmitter, b ecause of a. interference from the sky wave b. loss of lin
e-of-sight conditions c. maximum single-hop distance limitation
d. tilting answer = b In electromagnetic waves, polarization means a. the physic
al orientation of magnetic field in space b. the physical orientation of electri
c field in space c. ionization d. the presence of positive and negative ions ans
wer = b As electromagnetic waves travel in free space, only one of the following
can ha ppen to them. a. absorption b. attenuation c. refraction d. reflection a
nswer = a The absorption of a radio waves by the atmosphere depends on a. their
frequency b. their distance from the transmitter c. the polarization of the wave
s d. the polarization of the atmosphere answer = d Diffraction of electromagneti
c waves a. is caused by reflections from the ground b. arises only with spherica
l wavefronts c. will occur when the waves pass through a large slot d. may occur
around the edge of a sharp obstacle answer = b In an electromagnetic wave the e
lectric field is a. parallel to both magnetic field and the wave direction b. pe
rpendicular to both the magnetic field and the wave direction c. parallel to the
magnetic field and perpendicular to the wave direction d. perpendicular to the
magnetic field and parallel to the wave direction answer = a The highest frequen
cies are found in a. X-rays b. radio waves c. ultraviolet rays d. radar waves an
swer = d Electromagnetic waves transport a. wavelength b. charge c. frequency d.
energy answer = c The ionosphere is a region of ionized gas in the upper atmosp
here. The ionosphe re is responsible for a. the blue color of the sky b. rainbow
s c. long-distance radio communications d. the ability of satellites to orbit th
e earth
answer = c Light of which the following colors has the shortest wavelength? a. r
ed b. yellow c. blue d. green answer = d The quality in sound that corresponds t
o color in light is a. amplitude b. resonance c. waveform d. pitch answer = b Al
l real images a. are erect b. can appear on a screen c. are invalid d. cannot ap
pear on a screen answer = b When a beam of light enters one medium from another,
a quality that never chang es is its a. direction b. frequency c. speed d. wave
length answer = d Relative to the angle of incidence, the angle of refraction a.
is smaller b. is larger c. is the same d. either A or B above answer = d A ligh
t ray enters one medium from another along the normal. The angle of refra ction
is a. 0 b. 90 degrees c. equal the critical angle d. dependent on the indexes of
refraction of the two media answer = a What layer aids MF surface-wave propagat
ion a little and reflects some HF waves in daytime? a. E layer b. D layer c. F1
layer d. F2 layer answer = a Dispersion is the term used to describe a. the spli
tting of white light into its component colors in refraction b. the propagation
of light in straight lines c. the bending of a beam of light when it goes from o
ne medium to another d. the bending of a beam of light when it strikes a mirror
answer = a
The depth of an objects submerged in a transparent liquid a. always seems less t
han its actual depth b. always seems more than its actual depth c. may seem more
than its actual depth, depending on the index of refraction of the liquid d. ma
y seem less or more than its actual depth, depending on the angle of view answer
= a Total internal reflection can occur when light passes from one medium to an
othe r a. b. c. d. that has a lower index of refraction that has a higher index
of refraction that has the same index of refraction at less than the critical an
gle
answer = b When a light ray approaches a glass-air interface from the glass side
at the cr itical angle, the angle of refraction is a. 0 b. 90 degrees c. 45 deg
rees d. equal the angle of incidence answer = a The brightness of light source i
s called its luminous intensity, whose unit is a. candela b. lux c. lumen d. foo
tcandle answer = a Luminous efficiency is least for a a. low-wattage light bulb
b. mercury vapor lamp c. high-wattage light bulb d. fluorescent tube answer = b
The minimum illumination recommendation for reading is a. 8000 cd b. 8000 lx c.
8000 lm d. 800 W answer = a Light enters a glass plate whose index of refraction
is 1.6 at an angle of inci dence of 30 degrees. The angle of refraction is a. 1
8 degrees b. 48 degrees c. 19 degrees d. 53 degrees answer = a Light leaves a sl
ab of transparent material whose index of refraction is 2.0 at an angle of refra
ction of 0 degree. The angle of incidence is a. 0 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 30 de
grees d. 90 degrees
answer = b Light enters a glass plate at an angle of incidence of 40 degrees and
is refrac ted at an angle refraction of 25 degrees. The index refraction of the
glass is a. 0.625 b. 1.52 c. 0.66 d. 1.6 answer = b An underwater swimmer shine
s a flashlight beam upward at an angle of incidence of 40 degrees. The angle of
refraction is 60 degrees. The index of refraction of water is a. 0.67 b. 1.3 c.
0.74 d. 1.5 answer = d The critical angle of incidence for light going from crow
n glass (n = 1.5) to i ce (n = 1.3) is a. 12 degrees b. 50 degrees c. 42 degrees
d. 60 degrees answer = b The solid angle subtended by a hemisphere about its ce
nter is a. pi/2 sr b. 2pi sr c. pi sr d. depends on the radius of the hemisphere
answer = d The luminous flux emitted by a 60-cd isotropic light source is conce
ntrated on an area of 0.5 m^2. The illumination of the area is a. 9.6 lx b. 377
lx c. 120 lx d. 1508 lx answer = a Microwave signals propagate by way of the a.
direct wave b. sky wave c. surface wave d. standing wave answer = c The ionosphe
re causes radio signals to be a. diffused b. absorbed c. refracted d. reflected
answer = a Groundwave communications is most effective in what frequency range?
a. 300 kHz to 3 MHz b. 3 to 30 MHz c. 30 to 300 MHz d. above 300 MHz
answer = b The ionosphere has its greatest effect on signals in what frequency r
ange? a. 300 kHz to 3 MHz b. 3 to 30 MHz c. 30 to 300 MHz d. above 300 MHz answe
r = d The type of radio wave responsible for long-distance communication by mult
iple skips is the a. ground wave b. direct wave c. surface wave d. sky wave answ
er = c Line-of-sight communications is not a factor in which frequency range? a.
VHF b. UHF c. HF d. Microwave answer = d A microwave-transmitting antenna is 55
0 ft. high. The receiving antenna is 200 ft. high. The minimum transmission dist
ance is a. 20 mi b. 33.2 mi c. 38.7 mi d. 53.2 mi answer = b To increase uld be
done? a. increase b. increase c. increase d. increase the transmission distance
of UHF signal, which of the following sho antenna gain antenna height transmitte
r power receiver sensitivity
answer = b States that power density is inversely proportional to the distance f
rom its so urce. a. Principle of Reciprocity b. Inverse Square Law c. Huygen&apo
s;s Principle d. Faraday's Law answer = b _________ gets in contact with th
e ionosphere and reflected by it. a. Space wave b. Sky wave c. Surface wave d. S
atellite wave answer = c Highest layer in the ionosphere. a. F1 b. D c. F2 d. E
answer = b Next lowest layer in the ionosphere. a. D b. E c. F1 d. F2 answer = d
What is the primary cause of ionization in the atmosphere? a. Sun spot b. Cosmi
c rays c. Galactic disturbance d. Ultraviolet radiation answer = d Which layer d
oes not disappear at night? a. D b. E c. F1 d. F2 answer = d Which of the follow
ing uses surface wave propagation? a. ELF b. VLF c. MF d. All of these answer =
d The ability of the ionosphere to reflect a radio wave back to the earth is det
e rmined by a. operating frequency b. ion density c. angle of incidence d. all o
f these answer = b Highest frequency that can be used for skywave propagation be
tween two given po ints on earth. a. Critical frequency b. MUF c. Cut-off freque
ncy d. UHF answer = c The shortest distance measured along the earth's surf
ace that a skywave is returned to earth. a. MUF b. Quarter-wavelength c. Skip di
stance d. Skip zone answer = b Fluctuations in the signal strength at the receiv
er. a. Interference b. Fading c. Tracking d. Variable frequency
answer = a Two or more antennas are used separated by several wavelengths. a. Sp
ace diversity b. Frequency diversity c. Hybrid diversity d. Polarization diversi
ty answer = b Two or more receivers are used using a single antenna. a. Space di
versity b. Frequency diversity c. Hybrid diversity d. Polarization diversity ans
wer = d One of the following is not a cause of fading. a. Interference between u
pper and lower rays of a sky wave. b. Skywaves arriving at different number of h
ops c. Interference due to ground reflected wave and skywave. d. Diversity answe
r = a What do you call the gigantic emissions of hydrogen from the sun? a. Solar
flares b. SIDs c. Kennely-Heaviside d. Sun spots answer = b Sudden ionospheric
disturbance. a. Solar flares b. SIDs c. Sun spots d. Intertropical convergence a
nswer = c A means of beyond the line of sight propagation of UHF signals. a. Mic
rowave propagation b. Space wave propagation c. Troposcatter propagation d. Surf
ace wave propagation answer = d Two directional antennas are pointed so that the
ir beams intersect in the tropo sphere. a. Skywave b. Surface wave c. Microwave
d. Troposcatter answer = a Super refraction. a. Ducting b. Troposcatter c. Skywa
ve d. Space wave answer = c A layer of warm air trapped above cooler air. a. Tro
posphere
b. SID c. Duct d. Huygen's principle answer = a Corresponds to voltage. a.
electric field b. magnetic field c. gyro d. direction of propagation answer = c
Absence of reception. a. Skip distance b. Maximum usable c. Shadow zone d. Twili
ght zone answer = b Each point on a spherical waveform maybe a source of a secon
dary spherical wave front. a. Snell's law b. Huygen's principle c. Ray
leigh's principle d. De Morgan's theorem answer = b Ducting occurs in
which region of the atmosphere? a. Stratosphere b. Troposphere c. Ionosphere d.
Ozone layer answer = a When is the E region most ionized? a. At midday b. At mid
night c. At dusk d. At dawn answer = b Transequatorial propagation is best durin
g a. night time b. afternoon or early evening c. noontime d. morning answer = d
Which of the following is the first active satellite? a. Echo 1 b. Telstar 1 c.
Early Bird d. Sputnik 1 answer = a Which of the following is the first commercia
l satellite? a. Early Bird b. Telstar c. Explorer d. Courier
answer = d What is the first passive satellite transponder? a. Sun b. Early Bird
c. Score d. Moon answer = d The first satellite to receive and transmit simulta
neously. a. Intelsat 1 b. Agila II c. Syncom 1 d. Telstar 1 answer = a A helical
antenna is used for satellite tracking because of a. circular polarization b. m
aneuverability c. beamwidth d. gain answer = b Repeaters inside communications s
atellites are known as a. transceivers b. transponders c. transducers d. TWT ans
wer = d Considered as the unsolved problem in satellite system. a. Coverage b. C
ost c. Access d. Privacy answer = b _____ is a satellite that rotates around the
earth in a low-altitude elliptical or circular pattern. a. Geosynchronous satel
lite b. Nonsynchronous satellite c. Prograde satellite d. Retrograde satellite a
nswer = a Is the geographical representation of a satellite antenna radiation pa
ttern. a. footprint b. spot c. earth d. region answer = c The smallest beam of a
satellite antenna radiation pattern. a. zone beam b. hemispheric beam c. Spot b
eam d. Global beam answer = d A satellite beam that covers almost 42.4% of the e
arth's surface.
a. b. c. d.
zone beam hemispheric beam Spot beam Global beam
answer = b What is the frequency range of C-band? a. 8.5 to 12.5 GHz b. 3.4 to 6
.425 GHz c. 12.95 to 14.95 GHz d. 27.5 to 31 GHz answer = b A satellite signal t
ransmitted from a satellite transponder to earth's sta tion. a. uplink b. d
ownlink c. terrestrial d. earthbound answer = b Collects very weak signals from
a broadcast satellite. a. helical antenna b. satellite dish c. LNA d. TWT answer
= a What is a device that detects both vertically and horizontally polarized si
gnal s simultaneously? a. orthomode transducer b. crystal detector c. optoisolat
or d. isomode detector answer = b _____ detects the satellite signal relayed fro
m the feed and converts it to an electric current, amplifies, and lowers its fre
quency. a. horn antenna b. LNA c. satellite receiver d. satellite dish answer =
b Is a loss of power of a satellite downlink signal due to earth's atmosphe
r e. a. atmospheric loss b. path loss c. radiation loss d. RFI answer = d What h
eight must a satellite be placed above the surface of the earth in order for its
rotation to be equal to earth's rotation? a. 26,426.4 miles b. 27,426.4 mi
les c. 23,426.4 miles d. 22,426.4 miles answer = b
Point on the satellite orbit closest to the earth. a. apogee b. perigee c. progr
ade d. zenith answer = c The earth area covered by a satellite radio beam. a. be
amwidth b. bandwidth c. footprint d. zone answer = c What is the local oscillato
r (mixer) frequency of the satellite with an uplink frequency in GHz band? a. 35
00 MHz b. 4500 MHz c. 2225 MHz d. 2555 MHz answer = d What kind of battery panel
s are used in some advance satellites? a. Germanium based panels b. Silicon base
d panels c. Gallium Phosphate solar panel array d. Gallium Arsenide solar panel
array answer = b Satellite engine uses a. jet propulsion b. ion propulsion syste
m c. liquid fuel d. solar jet answer = a A satellite battery that has more power
but lighter. a. lithium b. leclanche c. hydrogen d. magnesium answer = c What k
ind of battery is used by older satellites? a. lithium b. leclanche c. hydrogen
d. magnesium answer = a VSAT was made available in a. 1979 b. 1981 c. 1983 d. 19
77 answer = c What band does VSAT first operate? a. L-band b. X-band
c. C-band d. Ku-band answer = a The first Philippine Mabuhay satellite have how
many channels? a. 30 b. 24 c. 48 d. 50 answer = a The first Philippine Agila I w
ill have how many transponders? a. 36 b. 48 c. 24 d. 12 answer = c How many sate
llite orbital satellites are requested by the Philippine Governmen t form ITU? a
. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 answer = a The location of AsiaSat I. a. 105.5 degrees East b
. 151.5 degrees East c. 115.5 degrees East d. 170.5 degrees East answer = a Asia
Sat I covers how many countries in Asia? a. 38 b. 10 c. 28 d. 15 answer = c The
owner of AsiaSat 2 is a. Asia Satellite Telecommunication Company (ASTC) b. Japa
n Satellite System (JSAT) c. China Great Wall Industry Corporation d. Singapore
Satellite Commission answer = d What is the approximate path loss from satellite
-to-earth station? a. 100 dB b. 150 dB c. 175 dB d. 200 dB answer = c INTELSAT s
tands for a. Intel Satellite b. International Telephone Satellite c. Internation
al Telecommunications Satellite d. International Satellite
answer = b The frequency of Ku band for satellite communications. a. 6/4 GHz b.
14/11 GHz c. 12/14 GHz d. 4/8 GHz answer = c A satellite cross-link means a. Ear
th-to-satellite link b. Satellite-to-earth link c. Satellite-to-satellite link d
. None of these answer = d Earth station uses what type of antenna? a. Despun an
tenna b. Helical Antenna c. Toroidal Antenna d. Cassegrain antenna answer = a Wh
at is the delay time for satellite transmissions from earth transmitter to ea rt
h receiver? a. 0.5 s b. 1.0 s c. 5 ms d. 0.25 ms answer = d The bandwidth of C-b
and satellite frequency band in U.S. a. 500 GHz b. 1000 GHz c. 1000 MHz d. 500 M
Hz answer = b The most common device used as an LNA is a. zener diode b. tunnel
diode c. IMPATT d. Shockley diode answer = c The radiation patterns of earth cov
erage antennas have a beamwidth of approxima tely a. 21 deg b. 5 deg c. 17 deg d
. 35 deg answer = d A mobile satellite array has usually how many elements? a. 6
b. 88 c. 12 d. 14 answer = b
In a typical mobile satellite array antenna of three elements are activated, ho
w many elements are deactivated? a. 3 b. 11 c. 5 d. 9 answer = a What circuit is
responsible in activating and deactivating adjacent antenna ele ments in a mobi
le satellite array? a. Radial divider b. Divider/combiner c. Radial combiner d.
Radial multiplexer answer = c Most mobile satellite array uses _____ in transfor
ming 50 to 150 ohms impedance . a. b. c. d. stub balun quarter-wavelength transf
ormer microstrip tapers
answer = d The switching from one element to the other element in a typical mobi
le satelli te array. a. series b. radial c. matrix d. shunt answer = d A method
of multiple accessing where a given RF channel bandwidth is divided in to smalle
r frequency band. a. CDMA b. ANIK-D c. TDMA d. FDMA answer = a What is the delay
time for satellite transmissions from earth transmitter to ea rth receiver? a.
0.5 s b. 1 s c. 5 ms d. 0.25 s answer = a As the height of a satellite orbit get
s lower, the speed of the satellite a. increases b. decreases c. remains the sam
e d. none of the above answer = a The main function of a communications satellit
e is a/an a. repeater b. reflector c. beacon d. observation platform
answer = d The key electronic component in a communications satellite is the a.
Telemetry equipment b. on-board computer c. command and control system d. transp
onder answer = b A circular orbit around the equator with a 24-h period is calle
d a/an a. elliptical orbit b. geostationary orbit c. polar orbit d. transfer orb
it answer = b A satellite stays in orbit because the following two factors are b
alanced. a. satellite weight and speed b. gravitational force and centrifugal fo
rce c. centripetal force and speed d. satellite weight and the pull of the moon
and the sun answer = c What is the height of a satellite system in a synchronous
equatorial orbit? a. 42,000 mi b. 6,800 mi c. 22,300 mi d. 35,860 mi answer = c
Most satellites operate in which frequency band? a. 30 to 300 MHz b. 300 MHz to
3 GHz c. 3 GHz to 30 GHz d. Above 300 GHz answer = b The main power sources of
a satellite are a. batteries b. solar cells c. fuel cells d. thermoelectric gene
rators answer = d The maximum height of an elliptical orbit is called the a. per
igee b. apex c. zenith d. apogee answer = c Batteries are used to power all sate
llite subsystems a. at all times b. only during emergencies c. during eclipse pe
riods d. to give the solar arrays a rest answer = d The satellite subsystem that
monitors and controls the satellite is the a. propulsion subsystem
b. power subsystem c. communications subsystem d. telemetry, tracking, and comma
nd subsystem answer = b What is the basic technique used to stabilize a satellit
e? a. gravity-forward motion balance b. spin c. thruster control d. solar panel
orientation answer = a The jet thrusters are fired to a. maintain altitude b. pu
t the satellite into the transfer orbit c. inject the satellite into the geosync
hronous orbit d. bring the satellite back to earth answer = b Most commercial sa
tellite activity occurs in which bands (2)? a. L b. C and Ku c. X d. S and P ans
wer = a How can multiple earth stations share a satellite on the same frequencie
s? a. frequency reuse b. multiplexing c. mixing d. frequency hopping answer = d
What is the typical bandwidth of a satellite band? a. 36 MHz b. 40 MHz c. 70 MHz
d. 500 MHz answer = c Which of the following is not usually a part of a transpo
nder? a. LNA b. Mixer c. Modulator d. HPA answer = b The satellite communication
s channels in a transponder are defined by the a. LNA b. bandpass filter c. mixe
r d. input signals answer = a The HPAs in most satellite are a. TWTs b. Klystron
s c. Vacuum tubes d. Magnetrons
answer = b The physical location of a satellite is determined by its a. distance
from the earth b. latitude and longitude c. reference to the stars d. position
relative to the sun answer = c The receive GCE system in an earth station perfor
ms what function/s? a. modulation and multiplexing b. up conversion c. demodulat
ion and demultiplexing d. down conversion answer = d Which of the following type
s of HPA is not used in earth stations? a. TWT b. transistor c. klystron d. magn
etron answer = c What is the common up-converter and down-converter IF? a. 36 MH
z b. 40 MHz c. 70 MHz d. 500 MHz answer = b What type of modulation is used on v
oice and video signals? a. AM b. FM c. SSB d. QPSK answer = d What modulation is
normally used with digital data? a. AM b. FM c. SSB d. QPSK answer = b Which of
the following is not a typical output form a GPS receiver? a. latitude b. speed
c. altitude d. longitude answer = a The total space loss of transmission and re
ception for two ground stations with uplink frequency of 8 GHz and a downlink of
6 GHz with angle of elevations of 3 deg and 7 deg A respectively is a. 403 dB b
. 100 dB c. 20 dB d. 215 dB answer = a The maximum propagation delay of a geosta
tionary satellite is
a. b. c. d.
278 239 300 250
ms ms ms ms
answer = a The total propagation delay time from transmission to reception of si
gnals from a ground transmitter to ground receiver with angle of elevation at 10
deg respe ctively is a. 273 ms b. 239 ms c. 275 ms d. 260 ms answer = a A satel
lite which simply reflects the signal without further amplification a. passive s
atellite b. active satellite c. geostationary satellite d. domestic satellite an
swer = a Essentially a satellite ______ is a radio repeater in the sky a. transp
onder b. comparator c. duplexer d. billboard answer = a Satellite that orbits in
a circular pattern with an angular velocity equal to t hat of the earth. a. geo
stationary b. Early Bird I c. Syncom I d. Stationary satellite answer = a Satell
ite that provide services within a single country a. domsat b. comsat c. regiona
l d. global answer = a The round-trip propagation delay between two earth statio
ns through a geosynchr onous satellite is a. 500 to 600 ms b. 300 to 400 ms c. 6
00 to 700 ms d. 400 to 500 ms answer = a The signal path from earth station sate
llite a. uplink signal b. reflected signal c. incident signal d. downlink signal
answer = a Designed to receive a signal from a transmitting station on the grou
nd and retr
ansmit it to a receiving station located elsewhere a. communications satellite b
. repeater c. relay station d. transponder answer = a The signal path from satel
lite to earth based receiver. a. downlink signal b. uplink signal c. incident si
gnal d. reflected signal answer = a A satellite position is measured by its ____
_ angle with respect to the horizon . a. b. c. d. elevation depression azimuth c
ritical
answer = a The _____ angle measures the satellite position clockwise from the di
rection of true north. a. azimuth b. elevation c. depression d. critical answer
= a Incidentally propose the geostationary scheme or orbit of the satellite in 1
940 s. a. Arthur Clarke b. Carl Friedrich Gauss c. Samuel Morse d. Stephen Gray
answer = a When the satellites are spaced 4 deg of the 360 deg complete circle,
how many p arking spaces or orbit slots are available. a. 90 b. 85 c. 95 d. 80 a
nswer = a The control routine necessary to keep the satellite in position is ref
erred to as a. station keeping b. station tracking c. station monitoring d. stat
ion maintaining answer = a Refers to the satellite orientation with respect to t
he earth a. satellite altitude b. satellite position c. satellite location d. sa
tellite orbit
answer = a The first Intelsat satellite that was launched in 1965 was named a. E
arly Bird I b. Echo c. Telstar I d. Courier answer = a The first satellite launc
hed for a geosynchronous orbit but unfortunately lost during orbit injection. a.
Syncom I b. Telstar I c. Sputnik I d. Early Bird I answer = a When the elevatio
n angle of a geostationary satellite is 23 degrees and the tra nsmitting frequen
cy is 3840 MHz, what is the free space loss in dB? a. 196 dB b. 200 dB c. 150 dB
d. 100 dB answer = a What is the propagation delay when a signal is transmitted
by an earth station to a geosynchronous satellite about 38,500 km above the ear
th's equator and then received by the same earth station? a. 256 msec b. 12
8 msec c. 300 msec d. 400 msec answer = a What is the free space attenuation of
a satellite communications system operati ng at 36,000 km above the earth at 5.0
GHz? a. 198 dB b. 202 dB c. 142 dB d. 138 dB answer = c Which of the following
is the most common application of satellite? a. surveillance b. military applica
tion c. communications d. newscasting answer = a Descending pass for a satellite
means a pass from a. North to South b. South to North c. East to West d. West t
o East answer = b Geostationary stationary satellites are located _____ with res
pect to the equat or. a. 0 deg longitude b. 0 deg latitude c. 90 deg latitude
d. 45 deg latitude answer = d Known as The Philippine Public Telecommunications
Policy Act. a. D.O. No. 88 b. D.O. No. 211 c. R.A. 5734 d. R.A. 7925 answer = a
Effectivity of the Philippine Telecommunications Policy Act. a. March 22, 1995 b
. April 21, 1995 c. May 21, 1995 d. June 21, 1995 answer = b An act to promote a
nd govern development of the Philippine Telecommunications a nd the delivery of
public telecommunications services. a. R.A 467 b. R.A 7925 c. R.A.546 d. R.A. 57
34 answer = a E.O. no. 59, prescribing the guidelines of compulsory interconnect
ion of author ized public telecommunications carrier took effect on a. Feb 24, 1
993 b. April 23, 1993 c. March 24, 1993 d. May 24, 1993 answer = b Effectivity o
f Executive Order 59. a. Feb 14, 1993 b. Feb 24, 1993 c. June 21, 1993 d. June 2
4, 1993 answer = d The Electronics and Communications Engineering Act of the Phi
lippines. a. E.O. 59 b. R.A. 7453 c. R.A. 5743 d. R.A. 5734 answer = d When was
the effectivity of the ECE Act of the Philippines? a. June 21, 1964 b. June 21,
1965 c. June 21, 1966 d. June 21, 1969 answer = c Decree created the Professiona
l Regulations Commission (PRC). a. P.D. 322 b. P.D. 232 c. P.D. 223 d. P.D. 323
answer = b Effectivity a. July 21, b. June 22, c. June 28, d. June 12,
of the Presidential Decree creating PRC 1973 1973 1973 1973
answer = d A law prescribing the functions of the National Telecommunications Co
mmission. a. E.O. 543 b. E.O. 544 c. E.O. 545 d. E.O. 546 answer = b When was E.
O. 546 promulgated? a. July 23, 1978 b. July 23, 1979 c. July 23, 1980 d. July 2
3, 1981 answer = a Rules and regulations requiring the services of a duly regist
ered ECE in the pl anning and designing, installation or construction, operation
and maintenance of radio stations, and in the manufacture and/or modification o
f radio communicati ons equipment. a. D.O. No. 88 b. D.O. No. 11 c. D.O. No. 68
d. R.A. No. 3864 answer = d What law provides for the regulation of radio statio
n, communications in the Ph ilippines and other purposes? a. D.O. No. 88 b. P.D.
223 c. R.A. 5734 d. R.A. 3846 answer = a The institutionalization of the Contin
uing Professional Education (CPE) program s of the various regulated professions
under the supervision of the Professional Regulations Commission. a. E.O. 266 b
. E.O. 286 c. E.O. 622 d. E.O. 626 answer The CPE a. July b. July c. July d. Jul
y = d program was institutionalized through an executive order dated 25, 1994 25
, 1997 25, 1996 25, 1995
answer = b Otherwise known as the Municipal Telephone Act. a. R.A. 6984 b. R.A.
6849 c. R.A. 8694
d. R.A. 6984 answer = a Municipal Telephone Act was approved on a. Feb. 8, 1990
b. Feb. 8, 1992 c. Feb. 8, 1991 d. Feb. 8, 1993 answer = b An order providing fo
r a national policy on the operation and use of internatio nal satellite communi
cations in the country. a. E.O. 486 b. E.O. 467 c. E.O. 576 d. E.O. 567 answer =
b When was the effectivity of the national policy on the operation and use of i
nt ernational satellite communications in the Philippines? a. February 17, 1998
b. March 17, 1998 c. April 17, 1998 d. June 17, 1998 answer = d Policy to improv
e the provision of local exchange carrier service. a. E.O. 59 b. E.O. 69 c. E.O.
88 d. E.O. 109 answer = b Effectivity of the Executive Order 109 a. June 15, 19
93 b. July 15, 1993 c. August 15, 1993 d. September 15, 1993 answer = a The impl
ementing rules and regulations governing the practice of ECE in the Phi lippines
on MATV, CATV, CCTV, Paging and Background Music System, Telephone and Computer
installations are embodied in a. BECE Resolution No. 3 b. BECE Resolution No. 2
c. BECE Resolution No. 4 d. BECE Resolution No. 5 answer = b Under R.A. 5734, t
he minimum age of a registered ECE to become a member of the ECE Board is _____
years old. a. 21 b. 31 c. 35 d. 40 answer = c Judgment on the case against an EC
E shall become final and executory after ____ _ days. a. 10
b. 15 c. 30 d. 60 answer = c According to Act 3846, the maximum penalty for a pe
rson who commits two offense s are a. P 2,000 fine and 2 years imprisonment b. P
1,000 fine and 1 years imprisonment c. P 4,000 fine and 4 years imprisonment d.
P 3,000 fine and 3 years imprisonment answer = d Ground for refusal of the Boar
d to issue a Board Certificate. a. conviction of crime involving moral turpitude
b. immorality and dishonorable conduct c. unsound mind d. all of these answer =
d What is the keystone of professional conduct? a. honesty b. courtesy c. justi
ce d. integrity answer = b The foundation of moral philosophy. a. integrity, hon
esty, and justice b. justice, honesty, and courtesy c. justice, courtesy, and in
tegrity d. sincerity, honesty, and justice answer = a Refers to inculcation, ass
imilation, and acquisition of knowledge, skills, prof iciency and ethical and mo
ral values, to raise and enhance the professional&apos ;s level of competence. a
. Continuing Professional Education b. Professional License c. Continuing Progra
m Education d. Continuing Professional Lessons answer = d The CPE program aims t
o a. ensure the continuous education of a registered professional on latest tren
d of his profession b. promote and protect the general welfare of the public c.
raise and maintain the professional's capability for delivering quality pro
fessional service d. all of these answer = d A professional license must be rene
wed a. every 3 years b. on the birthdate of the professional c. on or before the
20th day of the month following his/her birthdate d. all of these answer = a CP
E credit units required to renew a professional license.
a. b. c. d.
60 90 105 75
answer = d Who are exempted from complying with CPE requirements? a. professiona
l who reached the age of 65 years b. professionals working abroad or practicing
his profession abroad c. professionals studying abroad d. all of these answer =
a Participants of a convention / seminar earns how many credit units. a. 1 credi
t unit per hour b. 2 credit unit per hour c. 3 credit unit per hour d. 5 credit
unit per hour answer = d An international organization concerned with revising a
nd preparing/proposing r ecommendations for international telecommunications. a.
NTC b. IEC c. JIS d. CCITT answer = b Which agency of the United Nations formul
ates standards and recommended practic es for all civil aviation? a. FAA b. ICAO
c. IATA d. ATO answer = d A United Nations body for telecommunications. a. ANSI
b. AT&T c. ITT d. ITU answer = b What does ITU mean? a. International Telec
ommunications Unit b. International Telecommunications Union c. International Te
lephone and Telegraph Union d. International Telecom Unit answer = a For the all
ocation of frequencies in the world, ITU divides the world into how many regions
? a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 4 answer = c Philippines is under what region of frequency a
llocation? a. Region 1
b. Region 2 c. Region 3 d. Region 4 answer = a What does NTC stand for? a. Natio
nal Telecommunications Commission b. National Telephone and Telegraph Commission
c. National Telecommunications Council d. National Telecommunications Corporati
on answer = c A private radio communications system in the Land Mobile Service l
imited to por table transceiver for short range communications. a. Short Range L
and Service b. Short Range Mobile Service c. Short Range Radio Service d. all of
these answer = b An authority issued by the NTC to individuals and/or entities
for the possessio n and operation of radio station under the SRRS. a. SRRS Type
Approval b. SRRS Special Permit c. SRRS Operating Permit d. SRRS Acceptance Appr
oval answer = a SRRS means a. Short Range b. Short Range c. Short Radio d. none
of the
Radio Service Receiving Service Receiving Service above
answer = a A certification issued by the NTC for SSRS radio equipment complying
to the SSR S technical standards and specifications, where equipment has already
been type approved by the administration whose certification is acceptable and
whose proce ss does not require laboratory testing. a. type acceptance b. type c
ertification c. type approval d. all of the above answer = c A certification iss
ued by the commission for SRRS equipment complying to the te chnical standards a
nd specifications whose process requires laboratory testing. a. type acceptance
b. type certification c. type approval d. all of the above answer = c The radio
transceiver in the SRRS in the Philippines is of what type emission. a. FM only
(12KOF3E) b. FM only (10KOF3E) c. FM only (11KOF3E) d. FM only (13KOF3E) answer
= a
The radio transceiver in the SRRS in the Philippines has a maximum transmitted o
utput power of a. 3 W b. 4 W c. 5 W d. 6 W answer = a What is the international
color used to paint broadcast antenna towers? a. white and orange b. white and y
ellow c. white and red d. orange and yellow answer = b Broadcast transmitters ar
e designed to have an operating life of _____ years. a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 ans
wer = b _____ of a frequency band is the entry in the table of frequency allocat
ion of a given frequency for the given purpose of its use by one or more terrest
rial or space radiocommunication services or the radio astronomy service under s
pecifie d conditions. a. assignment b. allocation c. allotment d. regulation ans
wer = a The power of any conducted spurious emission shall be attenuated below t
he maxi mum level of carrier frequency in accordance with the following formula
with P = carrier power output in watts. a. Attenuation (dB) = 43 + 10logP b. Att
enuation (dB) = 43 + logP c. Attenuation (dB) = 43 + logP / 10 d. Attenuation (d
B) = 43 + 20logP answer = d Cordless telephones or telephone line extenders with
coverage area beyond 300 f eet shall have a maximum transmitting power of a. 1
W b. 20 W c. 50 W d. 10 W answer = a Cordless telephone line extends with covera
ge frequency range of a. Tx : 326.250 - 326.475 MHz, Rx : 218.250 b. Tx : 300.00
0 - 326.475 MHz, Rx : 218.250 c. Tx : 326.250 - 326.475 MHz, Rx : 210.000 d. Tx
: 326.250 - 327.475 MHz, Rx : 218.250 area beyond 300 feet shall have a 218.475
218.475 218.475 218.475 MHz MHz MHz MHz
answer = a The frequency band allocated for SRRS shall be _____ MHz using 12.5 k
Hz channel ing plan _____ MHz using 12.5 kHz channeling plan. a. 325 - 325.4875
b. 325 - 352.4875 c. 325 - 325.25 d. 325 - 342.25 answer = a Satellite communica
tions services provided by a satellite carrier to a carrier, usually a terrestri
al-based carrier. a. Satellite Carrier's Carrier Services b. Satellite Carr
ier Services c. Terrestrial Satellite Services d. Satellite Services answer = b
Any entity authorized by NTC to lease space segment capacity. a. space segment o
ccupant b. space segment lessee c. space occupant d. space segment player answer
= c A data network operated by an enfranchised telecommunications carrier that
is a uthorized to provide data and other related telecommunications services to
the p ublic. a. Public Switched Telephone Network b. Public Switched Communicati
ons Network c. Public Switched Data Network d. none of these answer = a A teleph
one network operated by an enfranchised telecommunications carrier that is autho
rized to provide telephony and other related telecommunications service s to the
public. a. Public Switched Telephone Network b. Public Switched Communications
Network c. Public Switched Data Network d. none of these answer = b A non-exclus
ive facility at which the public may, by the payment of appropriate fees, place
as well as receive telephone calls or a telegram or other messages. a. b. c. d.
Public Public Public Public Toll Toll Toll Toll Service Station Calling Station
Carrier Station Bus Station
answer = d An entity which, relying on the transmission, switching and local dis
tribution facilities of the local exchange and inter-exchange operators, and ove
rseas carr iers, offer enhanced services beyond those ordinarily provided by suc
h carriers. a. b. c. d. Value-added Value-added Value-added Value-added exchange
carrier tax service provider (VAS)
answer = d A wider area mobile radio telephone system with its own switch base s
tations an d transmissions by utilizing radio frequencies. a. Mobile Telephone S
ystem
b. Cellular Radio System c. Cellular Telephone System d. Mobile Radio Telephone
System answer = c The linkage, by wire, radio, satellite, or other means, of two
or more existing telecommunications carriers or operators with one another for
the purpose of al lowing or enabling the subscribers of one carrier or operator
to access or reach the subscriber of the other carriers or operators. a. tie-up
b. cross-connection c. interconnection d. all of these answer = c A facility con
sisting of international transmission, switching and network mana gement facilit
ies which serves as point of entry and exit in the Philippines of international
traffic between the national network and points outside the Philip pines. a. Int
ernational Gateway Network (IGN) b. International Gateway Carrier (IGC) c. Inter
national Gateway Facility (IGF) d. all of these answer = a A specific point as d
efined on the network where point of interconnection shall occur in such a way t
hat interconnection between and among local exchange carri ers, inter-exchange c
arriers and international gateway facilities operations can be made efficient an
d effective. a. point of presence b. point of interference c. point of interconn
ection d. carrier point answer = c The duly enfranchised and NTC certified telec
ommunications carrier and/or any e ntity duly authorized by law including the go
vernment to provide public telecomm unications services. a. Public Communication
s Carrier b. Public Telecommunications Entity c. Public Telecommunications Carri
er d. all of these answer = a Composed of orbiting satellite and the associated
equipment used to track, moni tor and control the operation of the satellite. a.
space segment b. satellite segment c. space device d. tracking segment answer =
c An owner or operator of in-orbit communication satellite system, which leases
o r sells communications capacity to duly authorized space segment lessees. a.
space segment franchise b. space segment authority c. space segment provider d.
all of these answer = a
Any entity authorized by the NTC to provide satellite communications services, e
ither as a carrier's carrier and/or common carrier. a. Satellite Communicat
ions Service Provider b. Satellite Communications Franchisers c. Satellite Commu
nications Authority d. none of these answer = a A satellite earth station design
ed to receive satellite signals. Such stations may be used to receive data, such
as stock market prices or newswire service or television programs. a. Receive-o
nly satellite earth station b. Receive-only earth station c. transmit-receive ea
rth station d. transmit-only earth station answer = c The act of receiving satel
lite TV programs and retransmitting same through any mode, i.e. tape, wire or wi
reless for public viewing. a. distribution of satellite TV programs b. transmiss
ion of satellite TV programs c. redistribution of satellite TV programs d. recei
ving of satellite TV programs answer = a Transmission, emission and/or reception
of radio signals involving one or more space and earth stations. a. satellite c
ommunications b. microwave communications c. wire communications d. wireless com
munications answer = b Any process which enables a telecommunications e, data, e
lectronic message, written or printed , words, music or audible or visible signa
ls or n and for any purpose by wire, radio, and other al or technological means.
a. communications b. telecommunications c. broadcasting d. wireless communicati
ons entity to relay and receive voic matter, fixed or moving pictures any contro
l signals of any desig electromagnetic, spectral, optic
answer = a Any entity primarily engaged in the business providing transmission a
nd switchi ng of any telecommunications service between the Philippines and any
other point of the world to which it has an existing corresponding or prospectiv
e interconn ection agreement. a. international carrier b. load carrier c. inter-
exchange carrier d. national carrier answer = b An entity, sometimes referred to
as carriers or national backbone network opera tor, authorized to install, own
and operate facilities which connect local excha nges within the Philippines and
to engage in the business of inter-exchange nati onal long distance services. a
. international carrier b. inter-exchange carrier
c. local exchange carrier d. national carrier answer = b Any entity providing tr
ansmission and switching of telecommunications services, primarily but limited t
o voice-to-voice service in geographical area in the Phi lippines. a. local exch
ange franchise b. local exchange operator c. local exchange provider d. local ex
change entity answer = a Any person, firm, partnership or corporation, governmen
t or private, engaged in the provision of telecommunications services to the pub
lic for compensation. a. Public Telecommunications Facility b. Public Telecommun
ications Provider c. Public Telecommunications Franchise d. all of these answer
= a Refers to facilities consisting of but not limited to equipment, devices, ma
ter ials, required to make two telecommunications systems or networks interwork
with each other. a. interface b. exchange c. interconnection d. none of these an
swer = a Refers to the defined area as determined by the NTC within a municipali
ty or ci ty or combination of two or more cities and/or municipalities under a c
ommon loc al exchange rate schedule. a. Local Exchange Service Area b. Local Net
work Area c. Local Exchange Area d. Local Exchange Network Area answer = d Refer
s to the local exchange service area where the telephone density is 1 per 100 in
habitants and shall be based on the telephone density target from the appr oved
National Telephone Development Plan (NTDP), expressed as main station per 1 00 p
ersons. a. provincial b. metro c. rural d. urban answer = c Refers to local exch
ange service area where the telephone density is less than 1 per 100. a. provinc
ial b. metro c. rural d. urban answer = c Refers to the local exchange service a
rea within the Philippines where there is no existing telephone exchange service
. a. undeserved area
b. dead area c. unserved area d. serve area answer = b Refers to the local excha
nge residence and business telephone service and tele graph service without addi
tional features. a. Basic Communications Service b. Basic Telecommunications Ser
vice c. Basic Telephone Service d. Basic Service answer = a Refers to the local
exchange telephone service area within the Philippines wher e the local exchange
service is available but the number of existing telephone c onnections and avai
lable lines than the established telephone density as defined under Urban or whe
n the LEC cannot provide the service to 90% of the applicants within 10 working
days from the date of application. a. undeserved area b. unserved area c. defici
t area d. backlog area answer = a Refers to the enhancements made over the plain
telephone/telegraph service for which the subscribers are made to pay additiona
l charges. a. additional features b. additional services c. additional facilitie
s d. additional lines answer = c Refers to the port in the switching internation
al gateways system equivalent to 4 kHz or 64 kbps (analog or digital) where inte
rnational circuit terminates. a. International Gateway Termination b. Internatio
nal Carrier Termination c. International Switch Termination d. Inter-exchange Te
rmination answer = c Any government department or service responsible for discha
rging the obligation s of the ITU regulations. a. NTC b. commission c. administr
ation d. committee answer = d Any one of a number of measures permitting direct
dealings between authorized e ntities and international satellite system provide
rs at specified levels as defi ned by the NTC. a. direct order b. direct measure
c. direct contact d. direct access answer = b Satellite newsgathering refers to
the use of satellite service to provide tempo rary communications services for
news media organizations covering news events s uch as summit, conferences or di
sasters. This requires the use of transportable
earth stations such as a. GMPSC b. Fixed Satellite Service and Mobile Satellite
Service c. Mobile Satellite Service Only d. Fixed Satellite Service Only answer
= c Foreign news media organizations wanting to bring SNG earth stations to the
Phi lippines shall secure a special NTC permit. What does SNG mean? a. Satellite
Newscasters Group b. Satellite News Group c. Satellite Newsgathering d. Satelli
te Network Group answer = d CDMA means a. Code Division Mobile Access b. Cellula
r Division Mobile Access c. Cellular Device Mobile Access d. Code Division Multi
ple Access answer = b CMTS means a. Cellular b. Cellular c. Cellular d. Cellular
Motion Mobile Mobile Mobile
Telecommunications System Telephone System Telecommunications System Telephone a
nd Telegraph System
answer = d CPE means a. Continuous b. Continuous c. Continuing d. Continuing
Professional Education Program of Education Program of Education Professional Ed
ucation
answer = c CPCN means a. Certificate of Private Comfort and Necessity b. Certifi
cate of Public Communications Network c. Certificate of Public Convenience and N
ecessity d. Certified Public Communications Network answer = b IXC means a. Inte
rnational Exchange Carriers b. Inter-Exchange Carrier c. International Exchange
Center d. none of these answer = c The first symbol of emission is a. the type o
f information to be transmitted b. the nature of signals modulating the main car
rier c. the type of modulation of the main carrier d. none of these answer = b T
he second symbol of emission is a. the type of information to be transmitted b.
the nature of signals modulating the main carrier
c. the type of modulation of the main carrier d. none of these answer = a The th
ird symbol of emission is a. the type of information to be transmitted b. the na
ture of signals modulating the main carrier c. the type of modulation of the mai
n carrier d. none of these answer = c The maximum ground resistance in an equipm
ent installation is required by Volum e 1 of the Philippine Electronic Code (Saf
ety Code) is a. 10 ohms b. 25 ohms c. 5 ohms d. 1 ohm answer = b A certificate i
ssued to an ECE who passed the licensure examinations provided u pon payment of
the required fees. a. Certificate to Practice b. Certificate of Registration c.
Certificate of Public Convenience d. Certificate of Oath answer = d In order to
be admitted to the ECE licensure examinations, an applicant must, a t the time o
f filing of his application, be at least _____ years old. a. 18 b. 19 c. 20 d. 2
1 answer = c A foreigner can take the ECE licensure examinations after following
all require ments based on the policy of _____ law. a. immigration b. nationali
ty c. foreign reciprocity d. international answer = a To pass the ECE licensure
examinations, a candidate must obtain an average of _ ____ % with no rating belo
w _____ % in any of the board subjects. a. 70, 50 b. 70, 70 c. 70, 60 d. 75, 50
answer = d The Chairman and members of the ECE Board are appointed by the a. IEC
EP international chapter b. PRC Commissioner c. head of schools d. President of
the Philippines answer = b Which of the following is not one of the powers and d
uties of the ECE board? a. issue, suspend, or revoke licenses for ECE practice
b. c. d. ula
conduct hearing especially homicide cases of ECE administer professional oath fo
r new ECEs study, examine and prescribe in cooperation with CHED with regards to
curric development and facilities of schools offering ECE course.
answer = d The following are the grounds for refusal for the ECE board to issue
a certific ate of registration of an ECE except. a. unsound mind b. conviction o
f court of competent jurisdiction c. immorality d. unstable job and designation
answer = d Which of the following is a valid ground for revocation of a professi
onal licen se? a. competence b. ethical conduct c. honesty d. fraud and deceit a
nswer = d To qualify as a member of the ECE board, one must be a a. registered E
CE b. 31 years of age c. in active practice in the ECE profession for at least 1
0 years d. all of these answer = d Any violations of the ECE a. a fine of one th
ousand b. an imprisonment of not c. a fine of no less than d. choices b and/or c
answer = c Which of the choices below is not covered in the penal provision of
the ECE Act of the Philippines? a. any person who advertise himself as an ECE wh
ere in fact he is not only regi stered with the board b. any person holding a li
cense who shall not engage in wire-tapping c. any person who passed the exams bu
t had not taken his oath d. any person who is using a revoked or suspended licen
se. answer = c What government agency is responsible for the formulation of the
Rules and Regu lations governing the examination regulation and practice of an E
CE in the Phili ppines? a. Professional Regulation Commission b. National Teleco
mmunications Commission c. Civil Service Commission d. Institute of Electronics
and Communications Engineers of the Philippines answer = d Which of the followin
g is not a nature or scope of work of an ECE? a. investigating b. planning c. de
signing d. directing act shall be punished by pesos less than six months nor mor
e than six years two thousand pesos but not more than 5 thousand pesos
answer = a The official seal of an ECE which is circular in shape has a maximum
outside di ameter of a. 1 7/8 inches b. 1 2/3 inches c. 1 1/4 inches d. 1 1/2 in
ches answer = c Symbols signifying radio and wireless communications, positioned
one each at th e four cardinal points of the compass in the official ECE dry se
al. a. alternate dot and dashes b. an atom c. four lightnings d. three lightning
s answer = c In the official dry seal of a registered ECE, the alternate dots an
d dashes are placed a. below the atom b. above the license number c. between the
lightning symbols d. along the band of the license number answer = a The sole p
rofessional organization of ECEs which was founded in 1950. a. IECEP b. ECES c.
IEEE d. IIECE answer = b An applicant for a new CATV station shall file a petiti
on for _____ with the NT C. a. Certificate of Public Convenience b. Certificate
of Authority c. Franchise certificate d. License answer = a A type of gov't
resolution needed for new CATV station. a. Sangguniang Bayan Resolution b. Cong
ress Resolution c. ECE board resolution d. Senate resolution answer = a Accordin
g to E.O. 59, for junction exchange point of intersection, short haul c onnectio
n should not exceed a. 150 km b. 100 km c. 30 km d. 200 km answer = b According
to E.O. 59, for junction exchange point of intersection, long haul co nnection s
hould not exceed a. 100 km b. 150 km
c. 175 km d. 200 km answer = b One of the requirement for a new broadcast radio
station is the filing of petit ion for certificate of _____ with NTC. a. franchi
se b. public convenience c. permit d. authority answer = c Authorized internatio
nal gateway operators shall be required to provide local e xchange service in un
served and underserved areas within _____ years from the gr ant of authority fro
m NTC. a. 5 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 answer = b Authorized gateway operators shall provide
a minimum of _____ local exchange li nes per international switch termination.
a. 150 b. 300 c. 600 d. 500 answer = b At least one rural exchange line shall be
provided for every _____ urban local exchange lines installed. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15
d. 20 answer = a No permit for international gateway facility shall be granted
to an applicant f or local exchange carrier service unless there is a clear show
ing that it can es tablish the necessary _____. a. foreign correspondenceship b.
franchise c. international agreement d. treaty answer = d Which of the followin
g stations does not require a franchise from the Congress of the Philippines? a.
an experimental station b. a training station c. a station on board a mobile ve
ssel d. all of these answer = a _________ is a type of interference caused by of
f-air TV channels 2 and 4, plus a satellite dish operating on channel 3. a. Adja
cent channel interference b. Ghost c. Co-channel interference d. Crosstalk
answer = a Dithering (in TVRO communications) is a process for a. reducing the e
ffect of noise on the TVRO video signal b. centering the video fine tuning on TV
RO channels c. moving the feedhorn rotor to the precise angle d. moving the actu
ator exactly onto the desired satellite beam answer = b A network that has an in
put of 75 dB and an output of 35dB. The loss of the net work is ______________.
a. -40 dB b. 40 dB c. 40 dBm d. -40 dBm answer = c Important useful quantities d
escribing waveforms. a. Time and frequency b. Voltage and current c. Frequency a
nd voltage d. Power and frequency answer Halving a. 6-dB b. 3-dB c. 3-dB d. 6-dB
= b the power means gain loss gain loss
answer = b One neper (Np) is how many decibels? a. 8.866 b. 8.686 c. 8.688 d. 8.
868 answer = a A signal is amplified 100 times in power. The dB gain is a. 20 dB
b. 119 dB c. 15 dB d. 25 dB answer = b Which of the following is used to measur
e SWR? a. Spectrum analyzer b. Reflectometer c. Oscilloscope d. Multimeter answe
r = d 214-056 twin lead which is commonly used for TV lead-in has a characterist
ics i mpedance of a. 52 ohms b. 75 ohms c. 600 ohms d. 300 ohms answer = b
What is the characteristic impedance of a transmission line which is to act as a
quarterwave matching transformer between a 175 ohms transmission line and 600 o
hms load? a. 300.04 ohms b. 324.04 ohms c. 310.04 ohms d. 320.04 ohms answer = a
What is the EIRP in dBW of a 50 dB antenna connected to transmitter with an out
put of 10 kW through a transmission line with a loss of 5 dB? a. 85 dBW b. 955
dBW c. 90 dBW d. 80 dBW answer = d A coaxial cable is a good example of a/an a.
unbounded medium b. transmission channel c. non-metallic medium d. bounded mediu
m answer = b If a quarterwave transformer is required to match a 180ohms load to
a transmiss ion line w/ an impedance of 300ohms, what should be the char. imped
ance of the m atching transformer? Assume that the matching transformer is to be
connected dir ectly to the load a. 180 ohms b. 232 ohms c. 300 ohms d. 480 ohms
answer = d A transmitter of 100 W RF power output, 100% modulated is operating
on a freque ncy of 169 MHz. The antenna transmission line consists of a 50 ohms
coaxial cabl e 150 ft. long. The coaxial inner conductor outer diameter is 0.162
in. Determin e the outside diameter of the outer conductor if the outer conduct
or has a thick ness of 0.05 in (Assume k = 1). a. 1.0 in b. 0.9 in c. 0.7 in d.
0.5 in answer = a A transmitter of 100 W RF power output, 100% modulated is oper
ating on a freque ncy of 169 MHz. The antenna transmission line consists of a 50
ohms coaxial cabl e 150 ft. long. The coaxial inner conductor outer diameter is
0.162 in. The oute r conductor has a thickness of 0.05 in (Assume k = 1). In th
e problem, calculat e the line current. a. 1.7 A b. 1.3 A c. 1.5 A d. 1.0 A answ
er = b A transmitter of 100 W RF power output, 100% modulated is operating on a
freque ncy of 169 MHz. The antenna transmission line consists of a 50 ohms coaxi
al cabl e 150 ft. long. The coaxial inner conductor outer diameter is 0.162 in.
The oute r conductor has a thickness of 0.05 in (Assume k = 1). Determine the to
tal atten
uation of the line in the problem. a. 2.0 dB b. 1.5 dB c. 2.5 dB d. 1.0 dB answe
r = b What is the max. subscriber loop length, in ft., of a telephone system if
the s ignaling resistance is 1800 ohms using a tel. cable pair of gauge # 26 wit
h a lo op resistance of 83.5 ohms per 1000 ft. Assume the telephone set resistan
ce is e qual to 200 ohms. a. 15,161.7 feet b. 19,161 feet c. 15,300 feet d. 20,0
00 feet answer = d If the same subscriber loop above limits the voice attenuatio
n to a maximum of 6 dB, what is the maximum allowable subscriber loop length, in
feet, using the s ame gauge # 26 telephone wire? Assume a 2.7 dB loss per mile.
a. 20,000 ft b. 13,900 ft c. 15,280 ft d. 11,733 ft answer = a The input is 0.1
W and the network gain is 13 dB, the output is a. 2.0 W b. 2.5 W c. 1.5 W d. 1.
8 W answer = d Known as one-tenth of a neper. a. dB b. dBm c. dBp d. dNp answer
= b The input impedance of a quarterwave short-circuited transmission line at it
s r esonant frequency is a. 0 ohms b. infinite or an open circuit c. ohms d. 70
ohms answer = c The ratio of the largest rms value to the smallest rms value of
the voltage in the line is called a. SWR b. ISWR c. VSWR d. Coefficient of refle
ction answer = c An open-wire, two-wire transmission line is to be connected to
a dipole antenna through a quarter-wave matching stub. At a frequency of 10 MHz,
compute the len gth of the dipole
a. b. c. d.
20 m 7.5 m 15 m 25 m
answer = b An open-wire, two-wire transmission line is to be connected to a dipo
le antenna through a quarter-wave matching stub. At a frequency of 10 MHz, compu
te the len gth of the quarterwave stub. a. 15 m b. 7.5 m c. 20 m d. 25 m answer
= d To find the char. Impedance of a coaxial cable, measurements are made with (
a) the far end open circuited & (b) far end short circuited, the correspondi
ng readings being a) Ro=3ohms & Xc=55ohms, capacitive b) Rs=10ohms & Xl=
90o hms, inductive What is the characteristic impedance, Zo, of the line? a. 75.
7 - j2.0 ohms b. 70.7 + j1.19 ohms c. 87.5 - j5 ohms d. 70.7 - j1.97 ohms answer
= c A TV antenna receives a signal measured at 200 V and is immediately amplified
by a pre-amplifier with a 15 dB gain. This amplified signal then passes through
a coaxial cable with 3 dB loss, what is the resulting input to the TV set, in d
BmV ? a. 1.98 b. 13.98 c. -1.98 d. -13.98 answer = c The characteristic impedanc
e of a transmission line does not depend upon its __ ________. a. conductor spac
ing b. conductor diameter c. length d. conductor radius answer = b What does a p
ower difference of -3 dB mean? a. a loss of one third of the power b. a loss of
one half of the power c. a loss of three watts of the power d. no significant ch
ange answer = c Which of the following is an advantage of the balance transmissi
on line? a. Easy installation b. Outer shield eliminates radiation losses c. Low
attenuation d. None of these answer = d Waveguides are used mainly for microwav
e transmission because a. they are bulky at lower frequencies b. losses are heav
y at lower frequencies
c. they depend on straight line propagation d. no generators are powerful enough
to excite them answer = c The input is 1 W and the network loss is 27 dB, the o
utput is a. 1 mW b. 3 mW c. 2 mW d. 4 mW answer = d A combiner has two inputs +
30 dBm and + 30 dBm, what is the resultant output? a. + 36 dBm b. + 30 dBm c. +
60 dBm d. + 33 dBm answer = c The ratio of the smallest to the largest rms curre
nt value is called a. SWR b. VSWR c. ISWR d. Coefficient of reflection answer =
d If the ratio of the maximum current to the minimum current in a transmission l
i ne is 2:1 then the ratio of maximum voltage to minimum voltage is a. 4:1 b. 1:
2 c. 1:4 d. 2:1 answer = c Two wires of 600 ohms characteristic impedance is to
be constructed out of a nu mber 12 wire (81 mils). Find the attenuation of the l
ine at 0.6 GHz per 100 feet length. a. 0.05 dB b. 0.55 dB c. 0.44 dB d. 0.35 dB
answer = a Two wires of 600 ohms characteristic impedance is to be constructed o
ut of a nu mber 12 wire (81 mils). Determine the spacing between wires from cent
er to cent er. a. 6 in b. 4 in c. 5 in d. 3 in answer = d A lossless transmissio
n line has a shunt capacitance of 100 nF/m and a series i nductance of 4 mH/m. W
hat is the characteristic impedance? a. 500 ohms b. 400 ohms c. 300 ohms d. 200
ohms answer = b A ten times power change in transmission system is equivalent to
a. b. c. d.
10 dBm 10 dB 20 dB 100 dB
answer = b A type of transmission line employed where balanced properties are re
quired. a. Balun b. Parallel-wire line c. Coaxial line d. Quarterwave line answe
r = a What is the characteristic impedance of a transmission line which has a ca
pacit ance of 40 nF/ft and an inductance of 0.5 mH/ft a. 111.8 ohms b. 110.8 ohm
s c. 112.8 ohms d. 109.8 ohms answer = a The input power to a loss-free cable is
5W. If the reflected power is 7 dB down on the incident power, the output power
to the load is a. 4 W b. 5 W c. 6 W d. 7 W answer = a To be properly matched th
e ratio of a maximum voltage along a transmission line should be equal to a. 1 b
. 10 c. 50 d. 2 answer = c A coaxial line with an outer diameter of 6 mm has a 5
0 ohms characteristic impe dance. If the dielectric constant of the insulation i
s 1.60, calculate the inner diameter. a. 2.09 cm b. 2.09 in c. 2.09 mm d. 2.09 m
m answer = a If an amplifier has equal input and output impedances, what voltage
ratio does the gain of 50 dB represent? a. 316.2 b. 325.2 c. 320.1 d. 315.0 ans
wer = d What is the inductance per foot of a cable that has a capacitance of 50
pF/ft a nd a characteristic impedance of 60 ohms? a. 0.167 H/ft b. 0.178 H/ft c. 0.1
9 H/ft d. 0.18 H/ft
answer = b The ratio between the energy absorbed by a surface to the total energ
y received by the surface. a. Reflection coefficient b. Absorption coefficient c
. Linear coefficient d. Thermal coefficient answer = d When the diameter of the
conductors of a 2 wire transmission line is held const ant, the effect of decrea
sing the distance between the conductors is a. increase the surge impedance b. i
ncrease the radiation resistance c. decrease the SWR d. decrease the impedance a
nswer = b The higher the gauge number of a conductor a. the bigger the diameter
b. the higher the resistance or the smaller the diameter c. the higher the resis
tance d. none of these answer = c A short length of transmission line used to re
duce/eliminate standing waves in the main transmission line. a. Stub b. Balun c.
lambda/4 transformer d. Slot answer = b Ratio of reflected power to incident po
wer? a. Incidence b. Reflectance c. Reflection index d. None of these answer = c
A quarter wave transformer is used to match a 600 ohms load antenna to a line o
f 52 ohms impedance, the characteristic impedance of the matching transformer i
s a. b. c. d. 200 150 176 300 ohms ohms ohms ohms
answer = a What is the capacitance of 55 miles # 44 copper wire spaced 18 inches
? From wir e tables, # 44 wire has a radius to 0.10215 in. a. 0.476 F b. 0.476 nF
c. 0.476 pF d. 0.476 fF answer = d A two-wire transmission line consists of No.
12 wire AWG (81 mils). The distanc e between wire centers is 10 inches. What is
the characteristic impedance of the line?
a. b. c. d.
650 300 600 660
ohms ohms ohms ohms
answer = b A two-wire transmission line consists of No. 12 wire AWG (81 mils). T
he distanc e between wire centers is 10 inches. What is the attenuation in dB pe
r 100 ft. of the line for a frequency of 4 MHz? a. 0.05 b. 0.03 c. 0.04 d. 0.06
answer = c What is the SWR when a transmission line is terminated in a short cir
cuit? a. Zero b. One c. Infinite d. Indeterminate answer = d What is the opposit
ion to the transfer of energy which is considered the domina nt characteristics
of a cable or circuit that emanates from its physical structu re? a. Conductance
b. Resistance c. Reactance d. Impedance answer = b When load impedance equals t
o Zo of the line, it means that the load __________ all the power. a. reflects b
. absorbs c. attenuates d. radiates answer = b Impedance matching ratio of a coa
x balun. a. 1:4 b. 4:1 c. 2:1 d. 3:2 answer = c Which stands for dB relative lev
el? a. dBm b. dBa c. dBr d. dBx answer = d Standard test tone used for audio mea
surement. a. 800 Hz b. 300 Hz c. 100 Hz d. 1000 Hz answer = a
When VSWR is equal to zero, this means a. that no power is applied b. that the l
oad is purely resistive c. that the load is a pure reactance d. that the load is
opened answer = c ___________ is the ratio of reflected voltage to the forward
traveling voltage. a. b. c. d. SWR VSWR Reflection coefficient ISWR
answer = b Transmission line must be matched to the load to __________. a. trans
fer maximum voltage to the load b. transfer maximum power to the load c. reduce
the load current d. transfer maximum current to the load answer = c Which indica
te the relative energy loss in a capacitor? a. Quality factor b. Reactive factor
c. Dissipation factor d. Power factor answer = c What is the standard test tone
? a. 0 dB b. 0 dBW c. 0 dBm d. 0 dBrn answer = d The energy that neither radiate
d into space nor completely transmitted. a. Reflective waves b. Captured waves c
. Incident waves d. Standing waves answer = c Micron is equal to _____________ m
eter. a. 10^ -10 b. 10^ -9 c. 10^ -6 d. 10^ -3 answer = b 1 Angstrom (A^ 0) is e
qual to ___________. a. 10^ -3 micron b. 10^ -10 m c. 10^ -6 micron d. 10^ -6 m
answer = a Why is it impossible to use a waveguide at low radio frequencies? a.
Because of the size of the waveguide b. Due to severe attenuation
c. Due to too much radiation d. All of these answer = b __________ is the transm
ission and reception of information. a. Modulation b. Communications c. Radiatio
n d. Emission answer = a What is the loss of the circuit in dB if the power rati
o of output to input is 0.01? a. 20 b. -20 c. 40 d. -40 answer = c Transmission
lines are either balanced or unbalanced with respect to a. negative terminal b.
reference c. ground d. positive terminal answer = d The standing wave ratio is e
qual to ____________ if the load is properly matche d with the transmission line
. a. infinity b. 0 c. -1 d. 1 answer = a __________ is the advantage of the bala
nced transmission line compared to unbal anced line. a. Low attenuation b. Easy
installation c. Low radiation loss d. Tensile strength answer = b __________ is
the method of determining the bandwidth of any processing system. a. b. c. d. Fo
urier series Spectral analysis Frequency analysis Bandwidth analysis
answer = c What causes the attenuation present in a waveguide? a. The air dielec
tric filling the guide b. The coating of silver inside c. Losses in the conducti
ng walls of the guide d. Radiation loss answer = d A device that converts a bala
nced line to an unbalanced line of a transmission line. a. Hybrid
b. Stub c. Directional coupler d. Balun answer = a What is the approximate line
impedance of a parallel-strip line spaced 1 cm apa rt with the length of 50 cm?
a. 10 ohms b. 15 ohms c. 18 ohms d. 23 ohms answer = b What is the average power
rating of RG-58 C/u? a. 25 W b. 50 W c. 75 W d. 200 W answer = d A coaxial cabl
e used for high temperatures. a. RG-58C b. RG-11A c. RG-213 d. RG-211A answer =
b If you have available number of power amplifiers with a gain of 100 each, how
m any such amplifiers do you need to cascade to give an overall gain of 60 dB? a
. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 answer = d You are measuring noise in a voice channel at a -4
dB test point level, the met er reads -73 dBm, convert the reading into dBmCO.
a. 12 b. 16 c. 18 d. 22 answer = a The velocity factor of a transmission line a.
depends on the dielectric constant of the material used b. increases the veloci
ty along the transmission line c. is governed by the skin effect d. is higher fo
r a solid dielectric than for air answer = c Impedance inversion can be obtained
by a. a short-circuit stub b. an open-circuited stub c. a quarter-wave line d.
a half-wave line answer = d Transmission lines when connected to antennas have a
. capacitive load b. resistive load whose resistance is greater than the charact
eristic impedance
of the line c. resistive load whose resistance is less than characteristic imped
ance of the line d. resistive load at the resonant frequency answer = d One of t
he following is not a bounded media a. Coaxial line b. Two-wire line c. Waveguid
e d. Ocean answer = c The impedance measured at the input of the transmission li
ne when its length is infinite. a. Input impedance b. Open circuit impedance c.
Characteristic impedance d. Short circuit impedance answer = d The following are
considered primary line constants except a. conductance b. resistance c. capaci
tance d. complex propagation constant answer = a The dielectric constants of mat
erials commonly used in transmission lines range from about a. 1.2 to 2.8 b. 2.8
to 3.5 c. 3.5 to 5.2 d. 1.0 to 1.2 answer = a Typically, the velocity factor, V
(F) of the materials commonly used in transmis sion lines range from a. 0.6 to 0
.9 b. 0.1 to 0.5 c. 1.0 to 0.9 d. 0.6 to 0.8 answer = b For an air dielectric tw
o-wire line, the minimum characteristic impedance value is a. 85 ohms b. 83 ohms
c. 90 ohms d. 88 ohms answer = d When a quarter-wave section transmission line
is terminated by a short circuit and is connected to an RF source at the other e
nd, its input impedance is a. inductive b. capacitive c. resistive d. equivalent
to a parallel resonant LC circuit answer = a
A transmitter operating at 30 MHz with 4 W output is connected via 10 m of RG-8
A/u cable to an antenna that has an input resistance of 300 ohms. Find the refle
ction coefficient a. 0.71 b. 0.77 c. 0.97 d. 0.76 answer = b A quarterwave tran
sformer is connected to a parallel wire line in order to matc h the line to a lo
ad of 1000 ohms. The transformer has a char. Impedance of 316. 23 ohms. The dist
. Bet. Centers is 4 inches. What is the % reduction in the diam eter of the line
? a. 85% b. 83% c. 86% d. 90% answer = b The concept used to make one Smith char
t universal is called a. ionization b. normalization c. rationalization d. termi
nation answer = b What are the basic elements of communications system? a. Sourc
e, transmission channel, transmitter b. Transmitter, receiver, transmission chan
nel c. Information, transmission channel, receiver d. Sender and receiver answer
= d ___________ is the transmission of printed material over telephone lines. a
. Internet b. Data communication c. Telegraphy d. Facsimile answer = d _________
__ is a continuous tone generated by the combination of two frequencie s of 350
Hz and 440 Hz used in telephone sets. a. DC tone b. Ringing tone c. Dial tone d.
Call waiting tone answer = a ___________ are unidirectional amplifiers having 2
0-25 decibel gain that are pl aced about 75 km apart used to compensate for loss
es along the telephone line. a. VF repeaters b. Loading coils c. Loop extenders
d. Echo suppressors answer = d ___________ is a component in the telephone set t
hat has the primary function o f interfacing the handset to the local loop. a. R
esistor b. Capacitor
c. Varistor d. Induction coil answer = c Pulse dialing has __________ rate a. 20
pulses/min b. 10 pulses/min c. 10 pulses/sec d. 80 pulses/sec answer = b ______
_____ is a telephone wire that connects two central offices. a. 2-wire circuit b
. Trunk line c. Leased line d. Private line answer = a The central switching off
ice coordinating element for all cell sites that has c ellular processor and cel
lular switch. It interfaces with telephone company zone offices, control call pr
ocessing and handle billing activities. a. MTSO b. Cell Site c. PTSN d. Trunk li
ne answer = b ___________ in a cellular system performs radio-related functions
for cellular site. a. Switching system b. Base station c. Operation and support
system d. Mobile station answer = a A technology used to increase the capacity o
f a mobile phone system. a. Frequency re-use b. Cell splitting c. TDM d. FDM ans
wer = b If the grade of service of a telephone system indicated P = 0.05, what d
oes it mean? a. Completed calls of 5% b. Lost calls of 5% c. Lost calls of 95% d
. Lost calls of 105% answer = b ___________ is the Out-of-Band signaling between
Toll Central Offices (Bell Sys tem Standard) a. 3,825 Hz b. 3700 Hz c. 2,600 Hz
d. 800 Hz answer = b In a telephone system, the customer's telephone direc
tory numbering is fro m 000 to 999, what is the capacity of a telephone system n
umbering from 000 to 9
99? a. b. c. d.
100 lines 1000 lines 10,000 lines 100,000 lines
answer = a If the SWR is infinite, what type of load transmission line has? a. P
urely reactive b. Purely resistive c. Purely capacitive d. Purely inductive answ
er = d Not more than _________ digits make up an international telephone number
as rec ommended by CCITT REC. E. 161. a. 8 b. 10 c. 11 d. 12 answer = b One (1)
Erlang is equal to _________. a. 360 CCS b. 36 CCS c. 3.6 CCS d. 100 CCS answer
= a Standard tariff for flat rate telephone service beyond the normal flat rate
in that area. a. WATS b. OTLP c. TIP d. DTWX answer = a The standard analog tele
phone channel bandwidth a. 300-3400 Hz b. 1200 Hz c. 200-3200 Hz d. 300-3000 Hz
answer = b Type of switching in which a pair of wire from the telephone set term
inates in a jack and the switch is supervised by an operator. a. Crossbar switch
ing b. Manual switching c. Electronic switching d. Step-by-step switching answer
= a Every time when the telephone is idle, the handset is in the ___________ st
ate. a. b. c. d. on-hook off-hook busy spare
answer = b
___________ is a component in the telephone set that has the primary function o
f compensating for the local loop length a. Resistor b. Varistor c. Capacitor d.
Induction coil answer = b What kind of receiver is used in conventional telepho
ne handset? a. Carbon b. Electromagnetic c. Ceramic d. Capacitor answer = c A vo
ice-grade circuit using the PTN has an ideal passband of a. 0 to 4 Hz b. 0 to 4
MHz c. 0 to 4 kHz d. 0 to 4 GHz answer = a ___________ is the minimum-quality ci
rcuit available using the PTN. a. Basic voice grade (VG) b. Basic voice channel
(VC) c. Basic voice band (VB) d. Basic telephone channel answer = c Direct dista
nce dialing (DDD) network is called a. Private-line network b. PT network c. Dia
l-up network d. Trunk network answer = d What is the advantage of sidetone? a. T
ransmission efficiency is increased b. Speaker increases his voice resulting in
a strengthened signal c. No dissipation of energy in the balancing network d. As
sure the customer that the telephone is working answer = b ___________ is a spec
ial service circuit connecting two private branch exchange s (PBX). a. Phatom li
ne b. Tie trunk c. Tandem trunk d. Private line answer = b The published rates,
regulations, and descriptions governing the provision of c ommunications service
for public use. a. Toll rate b. Tariff c. Bulk billing d. Detailed billing answ
er = c What is the power loss of a telephone hybrid?
a. b. c. d.
1 2 3 6
dB dB dB dB
answer = b Telephone channel has a band-pass characteristic occupying the freque
ncy range of ___________. a. 300-400 Hz b. 300-3400 Hz c. 300-3000 Hz d. 300-270
0 Hz answer = c The first strowger step-by-step switch was used in ____________.
a. 1875 b. 1890 c. 1897 d. 1913 answer = a What is the phase delay of an 800 Hz
voice signal if the phase shift is 15 degr ees? a. 52 sec b. 1.25 sec c. 83.33 sec d.
26 sec answer = d What is the CCITT recommendation for a preparation of loss plan
, a variable los s plans and a fixed loss plan? a. G.133 b. G.141 c. G.132 d. G.
122 answer = b What is the diameter of a copper wire to be used in a 16 km loop
with a dc loop resistance of 100 ohms/km? a. 0.838 mm b. 0.465 mm c. 1.626 mm d.
2.159 mm answer = d What kind of cell is appropriate for load management, fast
moving mobiles and l ow-usage areas? a. Pico cells b. Micro cells c. Nano cells
d. Umbrella cells answer = a In cellular networks, standard base station antenna
s are replaced by __________ __. a. adaptive array b. flat plate antenna c. dipo
le array d. focused antenna
answer = b What is the basis of the first generation wireless local loop? a. Dig
ital cellular technology b. Analogue cellular technology c. PSTN d. AMPS technol
ogy answer = c When the calling party hears a "busy" tone on his telep
hone, the call is considered a. lost b. disconnected c. completed d. incomplete
answer = c Short-circuited stubs are preferred to open circuited because the lat
ter are a. more difficult to make and connect b. made of a transmission line wit
h a different characteristic impedance c. liable to radiate d. incapable of givi
ng a full range of reactances answer = d What is the ratio of the reflected volt
age to the incident voltage? a. VSWR b. ISWR c. SWR d. Coefficient of reflection
answer = d One method of determining antenna impedance. a. Stub matching b. Tri
al and error c. Smith chart d. Quarter-wave matching answer = a ___________ is a
single conductor running from the transmitter to the antenna. a. Single-wire li
ne b. Microstrip c. Twin-lead d. Coaxial line answer = b Coaxial cable impedance
is typically ________________. a. 150 to 300 ohms b. 50 to 75 ohms c. 30 to 45
ohms d. 300 to 600 ohms answer = a Waveguide becomes compulsory above what frequ
encies? a. Above 3 GHz b. Above 10 kHz c. At 300 MHz d. Above 10 GHz answer = c
Nominal voice channel bandwidth is ___________. a. 20 to 30 kHz
b. 0 to 3 kHz c. 4 kHz d. 55 kHz above answer = a Echo suppressors are used on a
ll communications system when the round trip prop agation time exceeds _________
____. a. 50 ms b. 30 ms c. 100 ms d. 1 ms answer = a A radio transmission line o
f 300 ohms impedance is to be connected to an antenn a having an input impedance
of 150 ohms. What is the impedance of a quarter-wave matching line? a. 212 ohms
b. 250 ohms c. 200 ohms d. 150 ohms answer = a Quarter-wavelength line is used
as ___________. a. impedance transformer b. lecher line c. transmission line d.
harmonic suppressor answer = b The transmission lines which can convey electroma
gnetic waves only in higher mo des is usually called a. coaxial cable b. wavegui
de c. power lines d. twisted wire of telephone line answer = b Why is nitrogen g
as sometimes used in waveguide? a. To increase the distributed capacitance b. To
keep the waveguide dry c. To reduce the skin effect at the walls of the guide d
. To raise the guide's wave impedance answer = d Why is it impossible to us
e a waveguide at low radio frequencies? a. High dielectric loss b. Severe attenu
ation c. Excessive radiation d. The size of the waveguide answer = d How do you
couple in and out of a waveguide? a. Wrap a coil of wire around one end of the w
aveguide b. Insertion of an E-probe into the waveguide c. Insertion of an H-loop
into the waveguide d. Both B and C answer = a A rectangular waveguide is operat
ing in the dominant TE(10) mode. The associate d flux lines are established
a. b. c. d.
transversely transversely in the metal in the metal
across the narrow dimension of the waveguide across the wide dimension of the wa
veguide walls parallel to the direction of propagation walls perpendicular to th
e direction of propagation
answer = c For dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide, the distance between tw
o instanta neous consecutive positions of maximum field intensity (in a directio
n parallel to the walls of the waveguide) is referred to as half of the a. free-
space wavelength b. cutoff wavelength in the wide dimension c. guide wavelength
d. group wavelength answer = d The guide wavelength, lambda g, in a rectangular
waveguide is a. equal to the free-space wavelength at the cutoff frequency b. eq
ual to the free-space wavelength for the same signal frequency c. less than the
free-space wavelength at the cut-off frequency d. greater than the free-space wa
velength at the same signal frequency answer = d Using the TE(10) mode, microwav
e power can only be transmitted in free rectangu lar guide provided a. the wider
dimension is less than one-half of the wavelength in free space b. the narrow d
imension is less than one-quarter of the wavelength in free spac e c. the wide d
imension is greater than one-half of the guide wavelength d. the wide dimension
is greater than one-half of the wavelength in free space answer = d If the signa
l frequency applied to a rectangular guide is increased and the dom inant mode i
s employed a. the free space wavelength, lambda, is increased b. the phase veloc
ity, Vphi, increased c. the guide wavelength is increased d. the group velocity,
Vg is increased answer = b If a 6 GHz signal is applied to a rectangular wavegu
ide and the reflection angl e, theta, is 20 degrees, what is the value of the gu
ide wavelength, lambda g? a. 6.10 cm b. 5.32 cm c. 4.78 cm d. 5.00 cm answer = c
The inner dimensions of a rectangular waveguide are 1.75 cm by 3.5 cm. The cut
off wavelength for the dominant mode is a. 1.75 cm b. 3.5 cm c. 7.0 cm d. 0.4375
cm answer = b A signal whose wavelength is 3.5 cm is being propagated along a g
uide whose inn er dimensions are 2 cm by 4 cm. What is the value of the guide wa
velength, lambd a g? a. 3.12 cm b. 3.89 cm
c. 3.57 cm d. 6.30 cm answer = c The frequency range over which a rectangular wa
veguide is excited in the domina nt mode is limited to a. the difference between
the frequency for which the reflection angle, theta, is 90 degrees and the freq
uency for which theta is zero. b. the difference between the frequency for which
the free-space wavelength is equal to the cutoff value and the frequency for wh
ich the free-space wavelength is equal to the guide wavelength c. the difference
between the frequency at which the cutoff wavelength is twice the narrow dimens
ion. d. none of these answer = b If a rectangular hould be inserted a. at the se
aled b. at a distance c. at a distance d. at a distance waveguide is to be excit
ed in the dominant mode, the E-probe s end of one quarter-wavelength from the se
aled end of one-half wavelength from the sealed end of three-quarters of a wavel
ength from the sealed end generator and is shorted out at the f line generator?
in the value to the line's surge to the value to the line's surge
answer = b A quarter-wave line is connected to an RF ar end. What is the input i
mpedance to the a. a low value of resistance b. a high value of resistance c. a
capacitive resistance which is equal impedance d. an inductive resistance which
is equal impedance
answer = a If the SWR on a transmission line has a high value, the reason could
be a. an impedance mismatch between the line and the load. b. that the line is n
onresonant c. a reflection coefficient of zero at the load d. that the load is m
atched to the line answer = b If a quarter-wave transmission line is shorted at
one end a. there is minimum current at the shorted end b. the line behaves as a
parallel-tuned circuit in relation to the generator c. the line behaves as a ser
ies-tuned circuit in relation to the generator d. there is a minimum voltage at
the shorted end. answer = a A 50-ohm transmission line is feeding an antenna whi
ch represents a 50 ohms res istive load. To shorten the line, the length must be
a. any convenient value b. an odd multiple of three-quarters of a wavelength c.
an odd multiple of half a wavelength d. an even multiple of a quarter of a wave
length answer = a The outer conductor of the coaxial cable is usually grounded a
. at the beginning and at the end of the cable b. only at the beginning of the c
able and only at the end of the cable c. only at the end of the cable
d. at the middle of the cable answer = a A feature of an infinite transmission l
ine is that a. its input impedance at the generator is equal to the line's
surge imped ance b. its phase velocity is greater than the velocity of light c.
no RF current will be drawn from the generator d. the impedance varies at differ
ent positions on the line answer = c When the surge impedance of a line is match
ed to a load, the line will a. transfer maximum current to the load b. transfer
maximum voltage to the load c. transfer maximum power to the load d. have a VSWR
equal to zero answer = b A lossless line is terminated by a resistive load whic
h is not equal to the sur ge impedance. If the value of the reflection coefficie
nt is 0.5, the VSWR is a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 15 answer = c Ratio of the mismatch bet
ween the antenna and the transmitter power. a. Standing wave pattern b. Reflecti
on coefficient c. SWR d. Index of refraction answer = d Emission designation for
a facsimile a. H3E and A4E b. R3E and A4E c. F4E and J3E d. F3C and A3E answer
= a Commonly used telephone wire. a. AWG #19 b. AWG #18 c. AWG #30 d. AWG #33 an
swer = c What is the distance traveled by a wave in the time of one cycle? a. Fr
equency b. Hop c. Wavelength d. Crest answer = b The velocity factor is inversel
y proportional with respect to the _________. a. square of the dielectric consta
nt b. square root of the dielectric constant c. dielectric constant d. square ro
ot of refractive index
answer = c What circuit connects a balanced line to an unbalanced line? a. Stub
b. Hybrid c. Balun d. Directional coupler answer = b To connect a coaxial line t
o a parallel wire line, _________ is used. a. hybrid circuit b. balun c. directi
onal coupler d. quarter-wave transformer matching circuit answer = b What length
for which the input power has been halved for a transmission line w ith an atte
nuation of 6 dB/km? a. 1.5 km b. 0.5 km c. 63 km d. 2 km answer = a What is the
wavelength in the waveguide with 4.5 GHz cut-off frequency excited by 6.7 GHz? a
. 0.196 m b. 0.336 m c. 0.136 m d. 0.136 cm answer = b A rectangular waveguide h
as dimensions of 3 cm x 5 cm. What is the dominant mod e cut-off frequency? a. 2
GHz b. 3 GHz c. 2.5 GHz d. 3.5 GHz answer = d __________ are transmission lines
which can convey electromagnetic waves only i n higher order modes? a. Coaxial
cables b. Twisted pairs of telephone wire c. Power cables d. Waveguides answer =
c The amount of uncertainly in a system of symbols is also called a. bandwidth
b. loss c. entropy d. quantum answer = a The twists in twisted wire pairs a. red
uced electromagnetic interference b. occur at a 30-degree angle c. eliminate loa
ding d. were removed due to cost
answer = d An example of bounded medium is a. coaxial cable b. waveguide c. fibe
r-optic cable d. all of the above answer = d Loading means to the addition of a.
resistors b. capacitors c. bullets d. inductance answer = d What is the most co
mmonly used transmission line for high frequency application ? a. b. c. d. Two-w
ire balance line Single wire Three-wire line Coaxial
answer = a The characteristic impedance of a transmission does not depend upon i
ts a. length b. conductor diameter c. conductor spacing d. dielectric material a
nswer = c One of the following is not a common transmission line impedance. a. 5
0 ohms b. 75 ohms c. 120 ohms d. 300 ohms answer = a For maximum absorption of p
ower at the antenna, the relationship between the ch aracteristic impedance of t
he line Zo and the load impedance Zl should be a. Zo = Zl b. Zo > Zl c. Zo &l
t; Zl d. Zo = 0 answer = d The mismatch between antenna and transmission line im
pedance cannot be correcte d for by a. using LC matching network b. adjusting an
tenna length c. using a balun d. adjusting the length of transmission line answe
r = c ____________ is a pattern of voltage and current variations along a transm
issio n line not terminated in its characteristic impedance. a. an electric fiel
d b. radio waves c. standing waves d. a magnetic field
answer = b Which is the desirable SWR on a transmission line? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d.
infinity answer = c A 50 ohms coax is connected to a 73-ohms antenna. What is th
e SWR? a. 0.685 b. 1 c. 1.46 d. 2.92 answer = a What is the most desirable refle
ction coefficient? a. 0 b. 0.5 c. 1 d. infinity answer = c What is the ratio exp
ressing the percentage of incident voltage reflected on a transmission line? a.
Velocity factor b. Standing-wave ratio c. Reflection coefficient d. Line efficie
ncy answer = d The minimum voltage along a transmission line is 260 V, while the
maximum is 39 0 V sub 1. The SWR is a. 0.67 b. 1.0 c. 1.2 d. 1.5 answer = c One
meter is one wavelength at a frequency of a. 150 MHz b. 164 MHz c. 300 MHz d. 3
28 MHz answer = b At very high frequencies. Transmission lines act as a. tuned c
ircuits b. antennas c. insulators d. resistors answer = d A shorted quarter-wave
line at the operating frequency acts like a/an a. capacitor b. inductor c. seri
es resonant circuit d. parallel resonant circuit answer = c A shorted half-wave
line at the operating frequency acts like a/an
a. b. c. d.
capacitor inductor series resonant circuit parallel resonant circuit
answer = d A medium least susceptible to noise? a. Shielded pair b. Twisted pair
c. Fiber-optic d. Coaxial answer = b A medium most widely used in LANs? a. Para
llel-wire line b. Twisted pair c. Fiber-optic d. Coaxial answer = b The most com
monly used transmission line in television system. a. Parallel-wire line b. Coax
ial cable c. Waveguide d. Open-wire with ceramic supports answer = b The impedan
ce of a TV transmission line depends on several factors. Which is no t one of th
ose factors? a. Diameter b. Length of the wire c. Dielectric material d. Separat
ion between conductors answer = d DC blocks are a. passing DC b. passing AC c. p
reventing d. preventing itter used in coaxial transmission line for the purpose
of while blocking AC voltage but prevent DC AC voltage from reaching the pre-amp
lifier AC power supply voltage from being shorted by a balun or band spl
answer = a Typical speech power a. 10 to 1000 W b. 100 to 1000 mW c. 10 to 1000 nW
d. 100 to 1000 pW answer = b The maximum intelligibility for voice frequency is
located between a. 250 and 500 Hz b. 1000 and 3000 Hz c. 500 and 1000 Hz d. 300
0 and 5000 Hz answer = a The maximum voice energy is located between a. 250 and
500 Hz b. 1000 and 3000 Hz
c. 500 and 1000 Hz d. 3000 and 5000 Hz answer = c A device used to measure speec
h volume. a. speech meter b. volume meter c. volume unit meter d. speedometer an
swer = a By definition, for a sine wave a. 0 dBm = 0 V.U. b. 0 dBW = 0 V.U. c. 0
dBa = 0 V.U. d. 0 dBf = 0 V.U. answer = c Presently, this is the "standard
" frequency bandwidth for voice trans mission a. 0 to 4000 Hz b. 100 to 340
0 Hz c. 300 to 3400 Hz d. 300 to 3000 Hz answer = a Which of the following is co
mmonly used wire for subscriber loop design? a. AWG # 19 b. AWG # 18 c. AWG # 30
d. AWG # 33 answer = a The resistance limit for No. 2 Crossbar Exchange (US) is
a. 1300 ohm(s) b. 2000 ohm(s) c. 1250 ohm(s) d. 1200 ohm(s) answer = d AWG # 26
has a typical loss of a. 0.21 dB/1000 ft. b. 0.32 dB/1000 ft. c. 0.41 dB/1000 f
t. d. 0.51 dB/1000 ft. answer = c What is the standard voice channel spacing? a.
44 MHz b. 40 kHz c. 4 kHz d. 40 MHz answer = d Which tester is used to measure
SWR? a. Multimeter b. Oscilloscope c. Spectrum analyzer d. Reflectometer
answer = c What is singing? a. The result of intermodulating two or more signals
of different frequencies t o produce a tone having a frequency equal to the sum
of the frequencies of the s ignals intermodulated. b. The result of intermodula
ting two or more signals of different frequencies t o produce a tone having a fr
equency higher than that of the signal having the h ighest frequency. c. An unde
sired self-sustained oscillation in a system, generally caused by exc essive pos
itive feedback. d. An art or a form of entertainment that can make one rich. ans
wer = b Which stage increases the selectivity of the circuit in an AM receiver?
a. Detector b. IF stage c. Modulator d. Mixer answer = a The __________ of radio
receiver amplify weak signal and produce a desirable in telligence at the outpu
t speaker. a. sensitivity b. selectivity c. reliability d. fidelity answer = d F
ull-duplex transmission means a. one-way transmission b. 24-hour transmission c.
broadcast transmission d. two-way simultaneous transmission answer = c What is
a multidrop line? a. A piece of wire with a thick insulating material that serve
s to protect the conductive materials from damage in the event the wire is dropp
ed. b. A line designed to withstand high pressure. c. A line or circuit intercon
necting several stations d. A bus line. answer = d A passive _________ is an ele
ctronic device which reduce signal strength by a s pecified amount in dB. a. spl
itter b. filter c. trimmer d. attenuator answer = c The signal quality of the ca
lls is constantly monitored by the base station, wh en the quality of the calls
drops below a certain specified level, the base requ est the MTSO to try and fin
d a better cell site. a. Hand-off b. Cell splitting c. Roaming d. Frequency reus
e answer = d
A digital identification associated with a cellular system. a. SAT b. SID c. ESN
d. MIN answer = d How many seconds does facsimile transmit a standard page? a.
5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 25 answer = a A kind of recording is used in facsimile. a. Elec
trolytic recording b. Electrothermal recording c. Electropercussive recording d.
Electrostatic recording answer = c A type of distortion a facsimile produces wh
en it becomes out of synchronizatio n. a. Pincushion b. Barrel c. Skewing d. Fat
tening answer = b What is an acoustic coupler? a. A device that radiates audible
signals via a transmitting antenna b. A device that converts electric signal si
gnals into audio signals, enabling data to be transmitted over the public teleph
one network via a conventional tele phone handset c. A device that receives audi
ble signals and retransmits them at VHF frequenci es d. A transducer answer = b
Cause a herringbone pattern in facsimile. a. Single-frequency interference b. Cr
osstalk c. Phase jitter d. Noise answer = a The _________ in an FM receiver caus
es a stronger signal to dominate over a wea ker signal on the same frequency. a.
capture effect b. flywheel effect c. hall effect d. skin effect answer = b A de
vice that converts a 2-wire circuit to a 4-wire circuit. a. RS-232 interface b.
Hybrid circuit c. Balun d. Stub
answer = c __________ theory is deciding between a set of hypotheses when given
a collecti on of imperfect measurements. a. Estimation b. Traffic c. Decision d.
Nyquist answer = a __________ of a data reduction says that when reducing a set
of data into the f orm of an underlying mode, one should be maximally non-commi
ttal with respect to missing data. a. Jaynes maximum entropy principle b. Kullba
ck principle of minimum discrimination c. Minimum discrimination d. Maximum entr
opy answer = a __________ is selecting the best value of a parameter from a cont
inuum of possi ble values when given a collection of imperfect measurements. a.
Estimation b. Traffic c. Decision d. Nyquist answer = d Combination of modulator
, channel, and detector. a. Transceiver b. Transponder c. T/R channel d. Discret
e channel answer What is a. 1.88 b. 1.68 c. 1.48 d. 1.28 = a the frequency band
of DECT? - 1.90 GHz - 1.70 GHz - 1.50 GHz - 1.30 GHz
answer = b How many simultaneous calls does each DECT system can support? a. 96
b. 12 c. 24 d. 49 answer = a How many simultaneous calls does a DECT radio trans
ceiver can assess at any giv en time? a. 120 b. 240 c. 480 d. 960 answer = b The
AGC voltage of a radio receiver is always ________. a. present before adjustmen
ts can me made b. DC, but may have either polarity c. positive DC d. negative
answer = c What is a concentrator? a. A system that improves the signal-to-noise
ratio by compressing the volume r ange of a signal. b. A device that varies the
characteristics of a carrier signal in accordance w ith the waveform of a modul
ating signal which contains useful information. c. A switching system that lets
a large number of telephone or data processing subscribers use a lesser number o
f transmission lines or a narrower bandwidth. d. An equipment in the central off
ice. answer = a If you find that an SAW filter output is 6 dB down from the inpu
t of a receiver during test, ______________ a. this is normal b. the device is f
aulty c. the filter is improperly terminated d. the filter is not resonating ans
wer = b A triple conversion superheterodyne receiver, diode mixer stages are a.
operated in the linear region b. operated in the nonlinear region c. operated as
Class-A amplifiers d. operated as Class-B amplifiers answer = d What is a lease
d line? a. A piece of wire used in a local area network in one building b. A pie
ce of wire connecting a telephone set to a PABX c. A temporary connection of one
computer to a mainframe via a modem and a tele phone line d. A permanent circui
t for private use within a communication network answer = c If two FM signals of
different strengths are received on the same frequency a. one steady heterodyne
will appear in the AF output b. both will appear in the AF output c. only the s
tronger will appear in the AF output d. neither signal will be intelligence unle
ss the weaker signal is at least 10 times answer = c Cellular mobile system was
first operated in a. 1979 b. 1981 c. 1983 d. 1985 answer = b TACS is a cellular
system with ____________ channels. a. 666 b. 1000 c. 832 d. 200 answer = b Super
visory Audio Tone (SAT) has _______ frequency. a. 5960 Hz b. 6000 Hz
c. 6040 Hz d. 1004 Hz answer = a What is the number of channels of a cellular sy
stem with an allocated spectrum of 25 MHz and with a channel of 30 kHz bandwidth
? a. 833 b. 240 c. 1000 d. 666 answer = d GSM uses what digital modulation techn
ique? a. QAM b. GFSK c. BPSK d. GMSK answer = a What is the power output of Pers
onal Communications System (PCS)? a. 10 mW b. 75 mW c. 150 mW d. 10 W answer = d
RG-58 cable has a loss of about ___________ dB at cellular frequencies up to 15
feet length. a. 2 b. 1 c. 4 d. 3 answer = b The signals designed to keep the re
ceivers and transmitters aligned. a. Carrier frequencies b. Pilot carrier signal
s c. Synchronizing signals d. Reference signals answer = a If the spacing of a t
wo-wire open air transmission line is 12 inches and the co nductor diameter is 0
.25 inch, the characteristic impedance is a. 547 ohm(s) b. 357 ohm(s) c. 273 ohm
(s) d. 300 ohm(s) answer = b The impedance of the quarterwave transformer used t
o match a 600 ohm(s) line to a 300 ohm(s) load is a. 382 ohm(s) b. 424 ohm(s) c.
565 ohm(s) d. 712 ohm(s) answer = b When a line and a load are match the reflec
tion coefficient is a. unity b. zero
c. positive infinity d. negative infinity answer = a When line is terminated in
an open circuit load, the reflection coefficient is a. unity b. zero c. infinity
d. negative unity answer = b A 300 ohms line is terminated in a resistive load
of 200 ohms, the VSWR is a. 0.66 b. 1.5 c. unity d. zero answer = c If the refle
ction coefficient is 0.5, the standing wave ratio is a. 0.33 b. unity c. 3 d. ze
ro answer = d To test the fault of a given line, a signal is fed to the line, 30
s later the s ignal returned. What is the distance of the fault? a. 9000 m b. 300
m c. 100 m d. 4500 m answer = b The telephone set is powered by the central off
ice on the ring side at a. 42 to 52 Vdc b. -42 to -52 Vdc c. 24 to 64 Vdc d. -24
to -64 Vdc answer = c The telephone voice band frequency is from a. 300 to 4 kH
z b. 400 to 3400 Hz c. 300 to 3400 Hz d. 400 to 4 kHz answer = d Which of the fo
llowing wire is used to transmit the signal? a. Black b. Yellow c. Red d. Green
answer = b The corresponding frequencies for digit 7 in the touch tone telephone
is a. 770 and 1477 Hz b. 852 and 1209 Hz c. 852 and 1336 Hz d. 770 and 1336 Hz
answer = c The physical connection between the telephone set and the switching e
quipment i s called the a. trunk line b. link c. subscriber loop d. leased line
answer = a What is the local loop of a telephone system? a. It is a two-wire or
four-wire communication circuit between the customer&apo s;s premise and the cen
tral office. b. It is a group of wires connecting a telephone set to a modem. c.
It is a four-wire circuit connecting a facsimile machine to a computer. d. It i
s a single piece of wire connecting the subscriber's telephone set to anoth
er set in an adjacent room. answer = d Which of the following equipment is used
in long loop design? a. Dial long lines b. Voice repeater c. Loop range extender
d. All of the above answer = a What is a two-wire circuit? a. A circuit usually
in the subscriber loop, between the telephone set and the local central office.
b. A circuit having only two terminals, both terminals having the same instanta
neous voltage. c. A circuit with one input terminal, one output terminal, and a
common ground. d. A circuit consisting of two transmission lines. answer = a 1
mW is equal to a. 90 dBrn b. 0 dBrn c. -30 dBrn d. 120 dBrn answer = b Which of
the following responds to the request of a subscriber by sending a dia l tone? a
. Line finder b. First selector c. Connector d. Line equipment answer = b The ot
her name of Class 2 office in the North American Switching Plan. a. Primary cent
er b. Section c. Regional center d. Toll points answer = b A cell in the cellula
r telephone system means a. a power source b. small area
c. large area d. service area answer = d What is the linking point between cell
phone and regular telephone? a. Base station b. Control office c. C.O. d. MTSO a
nswer = d What is the typical power output of a cellular phone? a. 5 W b. 10 W c
. 1 W d. 3 W answer = a When a single cell is subdivided into smaller cells the
process is called a. cell splitting b. cell division c. reuse d. cell sharing an
swer = b The first cell shape is a a. square b. circle c. rectangle d. triangle
answer = d In order to provide 100% coverage without overlap, cellular telephone
system ca n use a. hexagon cell shape b. triangle c. rectangular d. all of the
above answer = d What is the beamwidth of the reflector of the receiving antenna
in the base sta tion? a. 20 degrees b. 30 degrees c. 50 degrees d. 60 degrees a
nswer = b A cellular phone operates on a. half duplex b. full duplex c. echoplex
d. lincomplex answer = a Cellular phones transmit in the band from a. 825 to 84
5 MHz b. 835 to 855 MHz c. 825 to 855 MHz d. 825 to 865 MHz
answer = b Cell phone receives in the band from a. 860 to 880 MHz b. 870 to 890
MHz c. 870 to 880 MHz d. 860 to 890 MHz answer = b What is the frequency separat
ion between the transmit and the receive channels? a. b. c. d. 30 45 55 40 MHz M
Hz MHz MHz
answer = c For channel 1, transmit/receive frequency is a. 825.030/870.030 MHz b
. 835.03/880.03 MHz c. 825.015/870.015 MHz d. 825.15/870.15 MHz answer = d The n
umber of transmit/receive channels in the cellular system is a. 625 b. 645 c. 65
5 d. 666 answer = a The transmission range of cellular telephony is generally ab
out a. 80 km b. 65 km c. 160 km d. 16 km answer = b When the message is transfer
red from one cell site transmitter to another cells ite transmitter as the calle
r crosses a boundary _________ process takes place. a. shifting b. hand off c. g
ive off d. turn over answer = c What is the sensitivity of a cellular receiver?
a. 20 dB b. 40 dB c. 50 dB d. 60 dB answer What is a. 15 b. 30 c. 12 d. 75 = c the
requency deviation of the cellular telephone system? kHz kHz kHz kHz
answer = b
Hailing channel is otherwise known as a. conversation channel b. calling channel
c. signaling channel d. remote channel answer = d What is an Erlang? a. It is a
unit of magnetic field intensity measured around a conductor b. It is the numbe
r of erroneous bits received per unit of time c. It is a unit of electrical ener
gy radiated in space d. It is equal to the number of simultaneous calls originat
ed during a specific hourly period answer = d All of the cell base stations are
linked together by ______ which serves as the central office and management node
for the group. a. MTS b. IMTS c. MSTO d. MTSO answer = b Provides interface bet
ween the mobile telephone switching office and the mobile units. a. Database b.
Cell site c. Terrestrial link d. Radio transmitter answer = c A phone call over
the cellular network requires a. simplex channels b. half duplex channels c. ful
l duplex channels d. full/full duplex answer = a A method of expressing the ampl
itudes of complex non-periodic signals such as s peech. a. Volume b. Pitch c. Fr
equency d. Wavelength answer = b _________ is a signal returned to the talker af
ter making one or more round tri ps between the talker and the listener. a. Sing
ing b. Echo c. Jitter d. Crosstalk answer = c _________ is a voice operated devi
ce that insert a high loss in the opposite di rection of transmission of the tal
king party. a. Hybrid b. 2-wire circuit c. Echo suppressor d. VNL
answer = a _________ is picking up of the same station at two nearby points on t
he receive r dial. a. Double spotting b. Hot shot c. Image frequency d. Bail sho
t answer = b When one channel picks up the signal carried by another channel. a.
Echo b. Crosstalk c. Party line d. Crosslink answer = c What type of connector
arrangement wherein a customer may move to another locat ion and still retain th
e same telephone number. a. TPL b. Bridge c. TPS d. Party line answer = d It is
an advantage of sidetone. a. Transmission efficiency is increased b. Speaker inc
rease his voice resulting in a strengthened signal c. No dissipation of energy i
n the balancing network d. Assures the customer that the telephone is working an
swer = c Radio communications between points using a single share frequency. a.
Simplex b. Full duplex c. Half-duplex d. Full/full duplex answer = b The transmi
ssion of information from multiple sources occurring on the same fac ility but n
ot at the same time. a. FDM b. TDM c. WDM d. CDM answer = d When human voice and
music are transmitted, the type of communication employed is known as a. radiot
elegraphy b. audio frequency c. wired radio d. radiotelephony answer = b Printed
documents to be transmitted by fax are converted into a baseband electr ic sign
al by the process of a. copying b. scanning c. modulation
d. light variation answer = d What is the most commonly used light sensor in a m
odem fax machine? a. Phototube b. Phototransistor c. Liquid-crystal display d. C
harge couple device answer = a In FM fax, the frequencies for black and white ar
e ____________ respectively. a. 1500 and 2300 Hz b. 2300 and 1500 Hz c. 1300 and
2400 Hz d. 1070 and 1270 Hz answer = d Which resolution produces the best quali
ty fax? a. 96 lines per inch b. 150 lines per inch c. 200 lines per inch d. 400
lines per inch answer = c Group 2 fax uses which modulation? a. SSB b. FSK c. Ve
stigial sideband AM d. PSK answer = c The most widely used fax standard is a. Gr
oup 1 b. Group 2 c. Group 3 d. Group 4 answer = a Group 3 fax uses which modulat
ion? a. QAM b. FSK c. Vestigial sideband AM d. FM answer = b Most fax printers a
re of which type? a. Impact b. Thermal c. Electrosensitive d. Laser xerographic
answer = c Facsimile standards are set by the a. FCC b. DOD c. CCITT d. IEEE ans
wer = d What type of graphics are commonly transmitted by radio fax?
a. b. c. d.
Newspaper text Architectural drawings Cable movies Satellite weather photos
answer = c What is the transmission speed of group 4 fax? a. 4800 baud b. 9600 b
aud c. 56 kbits/s d. 192 kbits/s answer = d What is the cause of insertion loss?
a. Thermal noise that intermodulate with signal traveling on the same medium. b
. A momentary disruption of signal due to power interruption c. A low level high
frequency signal inserted into the original signal caused b y thermal noise d.
none of these answer = b __________ is the master control center for cellular te
lephone system. a. Cell site b. Mobile telephone switching office c. Central off
ice d. Branch office answer = a Each cell site contains a a. repeater b. control
computer c. direct link to a branch exchange d. touch-tone processor answer = b
What is a trunk? a. The base of a communications tower. b. A telephone line con
necting two central offices. c. A line connecting one telephone set to a PABX. d
. Refers to the body of a tree. answer = c Cellular telephones use which type of
operation? a. Simplex b. Half-duplex c. Full-duplex d. Triplex answer = b What
is the maximum frequency deviation of an FM cellular transmitter? a. 6 kHz b. 12
kHz c. 30 kHz d. 45 kHz answer = d Receive channel 22 is 870.66 MHz. Receive ch
annel 23 is a. 870.36 MHz b. 870.63 MHz c. 870.96 MHz
d. 870.69 MHz answer = d A transmit channel has a frequency of 837.6 MHz. The re
ceived channel frequency is a. 729.6 MHz b. 837.6 MHz c. 867.6 MHz d. 882.6 MHz
answer = c A receive channel frequency is 872.4 MHz. To develop an 82.2 MHz IF,
the freque ncy synthesizer must supply an LO signal of a. 790.2 MHz b. 827.4 MHz
c. 954.6 MHz d. 967.44 MHz answer = d The output power of a cellular radio is c
ontrolled by the a. user or caller b. cell site c. called party d. MTSO answer =
a When the signal from a mobile cellular unit drops below a certain level, what
a ction occurs? a. The unit is "handed off" to a closer cell b. The c
all is terminated c. The MTSO increases power level d. The cell site switches an
tenna answer = d In a cellular radio, the duplexer is a a. ferrite isolator b. w
aveguide assembly c. part of TR/ATR tubes d. pair of sharp bandpass filters answ
er = a On a telephone system, the loop is open during a. on-hook condition b. of
f-hook condition c. both A and B d. none of these answer = c For every button pr
essed on a touch-tone telephone, how many signals are transm itted to the C.O.?
a. Two VHF signals b. One VHF signal and one audio-frequency tone c. Two audio-f
requency tones d. Three audible tones answer = a What is the traffic model about
blocked calls clear condition specified blockin g probability? a. Erlang B b. E
rlang C
c. Erlang D d. Poisson answer = b A touch-tone telephone generates how many diff
erent tones. a. 10 audio-frequency tones b. 8 audible tone frequencies c. 4 VHF
signals d. 16 audio-frequency tones answer = d The base-to-mobile frequency assi
gnment of a GSM system. a. 890 - 915 MHz b. 825 - 845 MHz c. 870 - 890 MHz d. 93
5 - 960 MHz answer = d A voice-grade channel is suitable for transmission of a.
VHF signals b. UHF signals c. VHF and UHF signals d. signals with a frequency ra
nging from 300 to 3400 Hz answer What is a. 1.23 b. 1.23 c. 1.23 d. 1.23 = a the
bandwidth of cellular CDMA system? MHz GHz kHz THz
answer = b What is a communication link? a. It is a piece of wire that is connec
ted to ground terminals of all communica tions equipment in one establishment. b
. It is a channel or circuit intended to connect other channels or circuits. c.
It is a cable connecting a transmitter to the antenna d. It refers to a radio li
nk. answer = d Block calls held condition specified the held probability at a ti
me period equa l to an average holding time. a. Erlang B b. Erlang C c. Erlang D
d. Poisson answer = b What is an echo? a. A signal of the same amplitude but 18
0 degrees out of phase from the origina l signal and mixed with the original sig
nal at the transmitter to produce a more intelligible output signal. b. A wave w
hich has been reflected or otherwise returned with sufficient magnit ude and del
ay for it to be perceptible in some manner as a wave distinct from th at directl
y transmitted. c. The signal having a higher frequency than the original and tra
nsmitted back to earth by a passive satellite. d. A reflected signal. answer = b
What is the system used by Personal Communication Network (PCN) a. TACS b. Modif
ied GSM c. AMPS d. CDMA answer = d Termination refers to a. cutting both ends of
a conductor b. disconnecting a line from a transmitter c. looking back impedanc
e of a line with no load d. load connected to the output end of a transmission l
ine answer = c The multiple access used by Digital European Cordless Telephone (
DECT). a. CDMA b. FDMA c. TDMA d. CDMA/FDMA answer = b Blocked calls delay condi
tion specified delay probability. a. Erlang B b. Erlang C c. Erlang D d. Poisson
answer = c Status information provided by telephone signaling. a. Busy tone, di
al tone and ringing b. Congestion and call charge data c. All of the above d. no
ne of the above answer = a The modulation technique used by DECT. a. GFSK b. ASK
c. QAM d. PSK answer = a What is a four-wire circuit? a. is used between servin
g central offices for long-distance connections, with one pair being used for ea
ch direction of transmission. b. Is a circuit with three output terminals and on
e input terminal c. Is an oscillator that produces four different frequencies si
multaneously d. A circuit consisting of four transmission lines. answer = d Cell
ular CDMA system uses what modulation method? a. GFSK b. ASK c. QAM d. BPSK answ
er = b PABX means a. Private All-purpose Broadcasting Exchange b. Private Automa
tic Branch Exchange
c. Public Access Bi-directional Exchange d. Public Automatic Branch Exchange ans
wer = a What is the voted cellular digital standard at TIA? a. Digital AMPS b. G
SM c. CDMA d. TACS answer = b What is the number of channels for Band A and for
Band B in Digital AMPS? a. 832 b. 416 c. 666 d. 888 answer = a The mobile-to-bas
e frequency assignment for GSM system is a. 890 - 915 MHz b. 935 - 960 MHz c. 87
0 - 890 MHz d. 825 - 845 MHz answer = a The range (in miles) of a cellular CDMA
system. a. 13 b. 30 c. 45 d. 20 answer = d In a cellular system, ____________ is
used to measure the spectrum efficiency. a. radio efficiency b. diversity c. fr
equency reuse d. radio capacity answer = c Which of the following echo is comple
tely out of control? a. Worst echo b. Reverberation c. Singing d. Feedback answe
r = a Which of the following devices increase the battery voltage on a loop and
exten ds its signaling range? a. Loop extender b. VF repeater c. VF amplifier d.
All of these answer = d Under ordinary circumstances, the CCITT recommends that
the number of circuits in tandem must not exceed a. 9 b. 10 c. 11 d. 12
answer = c What is the system capacity of AMPS? a. 30,000 b. 60,000 c. 100,000 d
. 120,000 answer = c NAM means a. Non Alternable Memory b. Number Allocation Mod
ule c. Numeric Assignment Module d. Numeric Access Module answer = b One of the
following is not an advantage of a cellular telephone system. a. privacy b. larg
e service area c. no interference d. mobility answer = c Communication is the pr
ocess of a. Keeping in touch b. Broadcasting c. Exchanging information d. Entert
ainment by electronics answer = d A key barrier in communications a. Cost b. PN
Junction c. Walls d. Distance answer = c Electronics Communication was discovere
d in what century? a. Sixteenth b. Eighteenth c. Nineteenth d. Twentieth answer
= b Which of the following is not a major communications medium? a. Free Space b
. Water c. Wires d. Fiber Optics Cable answer = d Random interference to transmi
tted signals is called a. Adjacent channel overlap b. Cross talk c. Garbage - in
- Garbage - out d. Noise
answer = c The communications medium causes the signal to be a. Amplified b. Mod
ulated c. Attenuated d. Interfered with. answer = a Which of the following is no
t a source of noise? a. Another communications signal b.Atmospheric effects c. M
anufactured electrical systems d. Thermal agitation in electronic components ans
wer = d One - way communications is called a. Half Duplex b. Full Duplex c. Mono
comm d. Simplex answer = b Simultaneoues two-way communications is called a. Hal
f Duplex b. Full Duplex c. Monocomm d. Simplex answer = c The original electrica
l information signal to be transmitted is called a. b. c. d. Modulating Signal C
arrier Baseband Signal Source Signal
answer = d The process of modifying a high frequency carrier with the informatio
n to be transmitted is called a. Multiplexing b. Telemetry c. Detection d. Modul
ation answer = a The process of transmitting two or more information signals sim
ultaneo usly over the same channel is called a. Multiplexing b. Telemetry c. Det
ection d. Modulation answer = b Continuous voice or video signals are referred t
o as being a. Baseband b. Analog c. Digital d. Continuous waves answer = c
Recovering information from a carrier is known as a. Demultiplexing b. Modulatio
n c. Detection d. Carrier Recovery answer = d Transmission of graphical informat
ion over the telephone network is ac complished by a. Television b. CATV c. Vide
otext d. Facsimile answer = a Measuring physical conditions at some remote locat
ion and transmitting this data for analysis is the process of a. Telemetry b. In
strumentation c. Modulation d. Multiplexing answer = c Receiving electromagnetic
emissions from stars is called a. Astrology b. Optical Astronomy c. Radio Astro
nomy d. Space Surveillance answer = a A personnal communication hobby for indivi
dual is a. Ham radio b. Electronic bulletin board c. CB Radio d. Cellular Radio
answer = d Radar is based upon a. Microwaves b. A water medium c. The directiona
l nature of radio signals d. Reflected Radio signals answer = a A frequency of 2
7 MHz has a wavelength of approximately a. 11m b. 27m c. 30m d. 81m answer = b T
he voice freqency range is a. 30 to 300 Hz b. 300 to 3000 Hz c. 20 Hz to 20 kHz
d. 0 Hz to 15 kHz answer = c Another name for signal in the HF range is a. Micro
waves
b. Kamehame Waves c. Shortwaves d. Millimeter waves answer = c Television broadc
asting ocurs in which ranges? a. HF b. EHF c. VHF d. SHF answer = a Electromagne
tic waves produced primarily by heat are called a. Infrared rays b. Microwaves c
. Shortwaves d. X-rays answer = b A micron is a. One - millionth of a foot b. On
e - millionth of a meter c. One - thousandth of a meter d. One ten-thousandth of
an inch answer = d The wavelength of infrared rays is approximately a. 30 to 30
0 GHz b. 4000 to 8000 Angstrom c. 100 to 10,000 A d. 0.7 to 10 microns answer =
b The wavelength of infrared rays is approximately a. 1000 microns b. 7000 Angst
rom c. 3500 A d. 4000 A answer = a Which of the following is not used for commun
ications? a. X - rays b. Millimeter waves c. Infrared d. Microwaves answer = b A
signal occupies the spectrun space from 1.115 to 1.122 GHz. The band width is a
. 0.007 MHz b. 7 MHz c. 237 MHz d. 700 MHz answer = c In the United States, the
elecromagnetic spectrum is regulated and man aged by a. NBA b. ITU c. FCC
d. NTC answer = d For a given bandwith signal, more channel space is available f
or signa ls in the range of a. VHF b. UHF c. SHF d. EHF answer = b Having an inf
ormation change some characteristic of a carrier signal i s called a. Multiplexi
ng b. Modulation c. Duplexing d. Linear Mixing answer = c Which a. The b. The c.
The d. The of the following is not true about AM? carrier output varies. carrie
d frequency remains constant. carrier frequency changes. information signal ampl
itude changes the carrier amplitude.
answer = d The opposite of modulation is a. Reverse moduation b. Downward Modula
tion c. Unmodulation d. Demodulation answer = a The circuit used to produce modu
lation is called a a. Modulator b. Demodulator c. Variable Gain Amplifier d. Mul
tiplexer answer = c A modulator performs what mathematical operation on its two
inputs? a. Addition b. Square Root c. Multiplication d. Division answer = c The
ratio of the peak modulating signal voltage to the peak carrier vo ltage is refe
rred to as a. The voltage ratio b. Decibels c. The modulation index d. The mix f
actor answer = d If m is greater than 1, what happens? a. Normal Operation b. Ca
rrier drops to zero. c. Carrier frequency shifts d. Information signal is distor
ted
answer = b For a. m b. m c. m d. m
ideal AM, which of the following is true? = 0 = 1 < 1 < 1
answer = c The outline peaks of a carrier has the share of the modulating signal
and is called the a. Trace b. Waveshape c. Envelope d. Carrier variation answer
= a Overmodulation occurs when a. Vm > Vc b. Vm < Vc c. Vm = Vc d. m = Vc
= 0 answer = d The new signals produced by modulation are called a. Spurious em
issions b. Harmonics c. Intermodulation products d. Sidebands answer = d A displ
ay of signal amplitide versus frequency is called the a. Time Domain b. Frequenc
y spectrum c. Amplitude spectrum d. Frequency domain answer = a Most of the powe
r in an AM signal is in the a. Carrier b. Upper sideband c. Lower sideband d. Mo
dulation signal answer = c The values of Vmax and Vmin as read from an AM wave o
n an oscilloscope are 2.8 and 0.3. The percentage of modulation is a. 10.7 perce
nt b. 41.4 percent c. 80.6 percent d. 93.3 percent answer = b A carrier of 880kH
z is modulated by a 3.5 kHz sine wave. The LSB and U SB are, respectively, a. 87
3 and 887 kHz b. 876.5 and 883.5 kHz c. 883.5 and 876.5 kHz d. 887 and 873 kHz
answer = c The values of Vmax and Vmin as read from an AM wave on an oscilloscop
e are 2.8 and 0.3. The percentage of modulation is a. 10.7 percent b. 41.4 perce
nt c. 80.6 percent d. 93.3 percent answer = b An AM signal has a carrier power o
f 5W. The percentage of modulation i s 80 percent. The total sideband power is a
. 0.8 W b. 1.6 W c. 2.5 W d. 4.0 W answer = a For 100 percent modulation, what p
ercentage is in each sideband? a. 25 percent b. 33.3 percent c. 50 percent d. 10
0 percent answer = a An AM transmitter has a percentage of modulation of 88. The
carrier po wer is 440W. The power in one sideband is a. 85 W b. 110 W c. 170 W
d. 610 W answer = b An AM transmitter antenna current is measured with no modula
tion and f ound to be 2.6 amperes. With no modulation, the current rises to 2.9
amperes. Th e percentage of modulation is a. 35 percent b. 70 percent c. 42 perc
ent d. 89 percent answer = d In an AM signal, the transmitted information is con
tained within the a. Modulating signal b. Carrier c. Envelope d. Sidebands answe
r = c An AM signal without the carrier is called a(n) a. Vestigial Sideband b. F
M Signal c. SSB d. Uncarried Signal answer = c What is the minimum AM signal nee
ded to transmit information? a. Carrier plus sidebands b. Carrier only c. One si
deband d. Both sidebands
answer = a The main advantage of SSB over standard AM or DSB is a. Less spectrum
space is used b. Simpler equipment is used c. Less power is consumed d. A highe
r modulation percentage answer = c In SSB, which sideband is the best to use? a.
Upper b. Lower c. Neither d. Depends upon the use answer = b Distortion of the
modulating signal produces harmonics which cause an increase in the signal a. Ca
rrier Power b. Bandwidth c. Sideband Power d. Envelope Voltage answer = a It ref
ers to the sending, receiving and processing of information by e lectronic means
. a. Communications b. Telemetry c. Broadcasting d. Telephony answer = a What se
rvices uses HF CW communications? a. Police b. Telephony c. Broadcasting d. Satt
elite system answer = b The signal which is superimposed on a high frequency sin
ewave is calle d a. b. c. d. Carrier Information Sideband Squarewave
answer = c What is the purpose of a beat frequency oscillator(BFO) a. Aids in th
e reception of weak voice-modulated signals b. Generates a signal, whose frequen
cy is the same as that of the inter mediate frequency c. Generates a 1kHz tone t
o Morse reception d. Generates an output, whose frequency differs from that of t
he interm idiate frequency by 1kHz answer = a A type of information signal which
is made up of rapid and unpredictab le variations in amplitude frequency. a. Sp
eech b. Digital
c. Pulses d. Bits answer = c He was the one who developed the mathematical solut
ion to a complex re petitive waveform. a. Carson b. P.H. Smith c. J. Fourier d.
Y. Uda answer = b The process of impressing information signals to a high freque
ncy carr ier is called a. Multiplexing b. Modulation c. Detection d. Scrambling
answer = d A diagram which shows the relationship between RF signal phase and ma
x imum bunching of the electron beam in velocity-modulated devices. a. Smith cha
rt b. Venn Diagram c. S-parameter Diagram d. Applegate Diagram answer = a It is
the liberation of electrons by thermionic means used as the prin cipal source of
electron emission in microwave vacuum tube devices. a. Edison Effect b. Miller
Effect c. Bunching d. Secondary Effect answer = d It is the representation of a
complex waveform in such a way that the sinusoidal components are displayed as a
function of time a. Wave Representation b. TDR c. Frequency Domain d. Time Doma
in answer = a An Adjustable resonant cavity calibrated in frequency and which un
derg oes some power absorption at resonance. a. Frequency Meter b. Cavity resona
tor c. Ferrite isolator d. Auto Coupler answer = a What is the amount of power l
ost in a device due to its presence in th e path of energy flow? a. Insertion lo
ss b. Gain c. Wave attenuation d. Phase shift answer = b
It is the representation of a waveform in such a way that its amplitud e is disp
layed as a function of frequency. a. Wave Shape b. Frequency Domain c. OTDR d. T
ime Domain answer = c The big breakthrough in electronic communications came wit
h the invent ion of the _____ in 1844. a. Transistor b. Phonograph c. Telegraph
d.Telephone answer = a In 1877, he invented a method of making a permanent recor
d of sound wi th his invention of the phonograph. a. Edison b. Marconi c. Morse
d. Bell answer = b He was the one who developed the wireless telegraph. a. Ediso
n b. Marconi c. Morse d. Bell answer = a Which came first, the invention of the
telephone or the invention of t he phonograph? a. Telephone b. Phonograph c. Eit
her d. Neither answer = d What is a device such as the microphone and headset so
metimes called? a. b. c. d. Receiver Transmission medium Converter Reproducer
answer = c What distinguishes one electromagnetic wave from another? a. Phase b.
Energy c. Frequency d. Amplitude answer = a The entire range of _____ of electr
omagnetic radiation is called the f requency spectrum. a. Frequencies b. Phases
c. Energies d. Amplitude
answer = d When did the first transatlantic radio communications took place? a.
1876 b. 1942 c. 1888 d. 1901 answer = b What determines the station that will be
selected by a tuner? a. The selectivity of the IF. b. The resonant frequency of
the tuner. c. The sensitivity of the tuner. d. The bandwidth of the amplifier.
answer = a Name a periodic waveform that consists of only odd harmonics. a. Squa
re wave b. Sine wave c. Cosine wave d. Spikes answer = c Best describe as an amp
lifier used in radio telephony. a. Magnifier b. Class B c. Class C d. Class A an
swer = c The audio is reconstructed from the radiowave by: a. The action of the
headset b. Having the audio removed from the carrier. c. The action of a filter
capacitor connected across the headset d. none of the above answer = d Which of
the following do not require a tuner? a. TV receiver b. CB receiver c. Communica
tions Sattelite Receiver d. none of these answer = d What is the main difference
between an AF amplifier and an RF amplifie r? a. b. c. d. The The The The ampli
fication factor stability selectivity range of frequencies that they amplify is
the purpose of conversion frequency oscillator? provide a conversion frequency p
roduce the IF provide good selectivity increase stability
answer = a What a. To b. To c. To d. To
answer = d What circuit is used to create vestigial transmission?
a. b. c. d.
HPF LPF Duplexer Diplexer
answer = d What does AFC mean? a. All Filipino Conference b. Anti Firing Counter
measure c. Audio Frequency Control d. Automatic Frequency Control answer = b Amp
litude Modulation is the same as a. Linear Mixing b. Analog Multiplication c. Si
gnal Summation d. Mutliplexing answer = a In a diode modulator the negative half
of the AM wave is supplied by a (n) a. Tuned Circuit b. Transformer c. Capacito
r d. Inductor answer = a Amplitude modulation can be produced by a. Having the c
arrier vary a resistance b. Having the modulating signal vary a capacitance c. V
arying the carrier frequency d. Varying the gain of an amplifier answer = c Ampl
itude modulators that vary the carrier amplitude with the modulati ng signal by
passing it through an attenuator work on the principle of a. Rectification b. Re
sonance c. Variable resistance d. Absorption answer = a The component used to pr
oduce AM at very high frequencies is a a. Varactor b. Thermistor c. Cavity Reson
ator d. PIN diode answer = b Amplitude modulation generated at a very low voltag
e or amplification is known as a. High level modulation b. Low Level Modulation
c. Collector Modulation d. Minimum Modulation answer = b The circuit that recove
rs the original modulating information from an AM signal is known as a a. Modula
tor b. Demodulator c. Mixer d. Crystal Set answer = c The most commonly used amp
litude demodulator is the a. Diode mixer b. Balanced modulator c. Envelope Detec
tor d. Crystal Filter answer = d A circuit that generates the upper and lower si
debands but no carrier is called a(n) a. Amplitude Modulator b. Diode Detector c
. Class C Amplifier d. Balanced Modulator answer = c A widely used balanced modu
lator is called the a. Diode Bridge Circuit b. Full Wave bridge rectifier c. Lat
tice Modulator d. Balanced bridge modulator answer = b In a diode ring modulator
, the diodes act like a. Variable resistors b. Switches c. Rectifiers d. Variabl
e Capaitors answer = d The output of a balanced modulator is a. AM b. FM c. SSB
d. DSB answer = a The principal circuit in the popular 1496/1596 IC balanced mod
ulator i s a a. Differential Amplifier b. Rectifier c. Bridge
d. Constant Current Source answer = c The most commonly used filter in SSB gener
ators uses a. LC Networks b. Mechanical Resonators c. Crystals d. RC Networks an
d op amps answer = d The equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal is a a. Series R
esonant circuit b. Parallel Resonant Circuit c. Neithar a and b d. Both a and b
answer = a Where is ISB primarily used? a. Telephone and telegraph communication
s b. Telemetry c. FM broadcast d. Radar answer = b What is a major problem with
very high frequency oscillator? a. low sensitivity b. poor frequency stability c
. poor image rejection d. no power stability answer = b What does ALC means? a.
All local Circuits b. Automatic level control c. Asynchronous Link Control d. Au
tomatic Link Circuit answer = a What is an ideal pulse? a. a perfect square wave
with zero rise time b. a very short duration c. a high amplitude d. a low duty
cycle answer = a What happens to the spectrum of repetitive pulse as the pulse w
idth de creases? a. more harmonics of the same phase b. less harmonics of the sa
me phase c. remain constant d. decreases answer = d
A major advantage of the vacuum tube is its need for a _______ to give energy to
the electrons. a. Voltage source b. line equalizer c. limiter d. heater answer
= c Keyed AGC is AGC that: a. Works only on Morse code b. Is activated when keye
d by the transmitting signal c. Is used is TV receivers so that transmitted pict
ure brightness does not affect the AGC d. Is used in color TV receivers so that
the transmitted color has no e ffect on the AGC answer = a What is the main disa
dvantage of a single-tube transmitter a. Frequency instability b. Low gain c. Hi
gh resistivity d. High attenuation answer = b What is the name of the operation
that uses an antenna changeover swit ch? a. Duplex b. Simplex c. Crossover d. Sw
itching answer = a Which of o spectrum? a. 8.2345 b. 150.50 c. 2.4555 d. 35.535
the following falls under the high frequency band of the radi MHz MHz MHz MHz
answer = c What is reduced by rounding off square-wave emissions? a. Amplitude b
. Phase c. Bandwidth d. Energy answer = b What is gained by operating an oscilla
tor on some subharmonic of the tr ansmission frequency? a. Frequency sensitivity
b. Frequency stability c. High sensitivity d. Good selectivity answer = d What
type of coupling discriminates against harmonic transmission? a. Capacitive b. D
irect c. Transformer d. Inductive
answer = a What class of bias should produce least harmonics? a. Class A b. Clas
s B c. Class C d. Class D answer = c What type of field does a Faraday shield st
op? a. Common b. Array c. Electrostatic d. Magnetostatic answer = a What type of
circuit reduces even-order harmonics? a. Push-pull b. Class A c. Armstrong circ
uit d. Demodulator answer = d How many watts are represented by 40dBw? a. 40,000
w b. 1,000w c. 40w d. 10,000w answer = a Term for transmission of printed pictur
e by radio. a. Facsimile b. ACSSB c. Xerography d. Television answer = b What is
another name for an AF volume control? a. FC b. Gain c. ARC d. AMC answer = d W
hat device can be used to make a modulated envelope visible? a. Spectrum analyze
r b. Synthesizer c. Calibrator d. Oscilloscope answer = b Which of the following
is not an advantage of SSB over AM? a. Power saving b. Simple receiver circuit
c. Less spectrum d. None of these answer = b What is the result if a balanced mo
dulator is not perfectly balanced?
a. b. c. d.
SB filtered Carrier transmitted Lower sideband transmitted Both sideband transmi
tted
answer = d If two signals are in quadrature, what is their phase relation? a. 0
b. 45 c. 180 d. 90 answer = d What method can be used to invert speech? a. Frequ
ency multiplier b. Inverter c. AGC d. Frequency translation answer = b In SSB, v
oice compression is better in the AF or RF section? a. AF b. RF c. Intermediate
d. SB answer = a What is the circuit that changes modulated RF to AF? a. Demodul
ator b. Modem c. Synthesizer d. Modulator answer = a What kind of crystal is use
d in oscillator? a. Quartz b. Galena c. Carborundum d. Salt answer = b Power is
always _____ a. A definite amount of energy b. All of these c. The rate at which
energy is used d. Expressed in watts answer = c Which of the following services
would use crystal local oscillators? a. b. c. d. AM FM Aircraft Shortwave liste
ners
answer = b What does VOX mean? a. Very Onward circuit b. Voice-operated transmis
sion c. Voice Onward transmission
d. Very Oxford Transmitter answer = b What is an NO RY? a. Non operational Relay
b. Normally Open Relay c. Normally Ready d. Non Organic Relay answer = b The Ex
tremely hihg frequency(EHF) band is in the radio spectrum range of ______. a. 30
to 300 kHZ b. 30 to 300 GHZ c. 3 to 30 MHz d. 3 to 30 GHz answer = d What kind
of system relays has remote readings? a. Broadcasting b. Data gathering c. Telec
ast d. Telemetering answer = c What causes audio signals to be distorted in the
receiver? a. Interference b. Gain c. Harmonics d. Amplitude answer = d Which of
the following is not normally tested in a transmitter? a. Power b. Modulation c.
Frequency d. Amplitude answer = d Which of the following items need not to be c
hecked with receivers? a. Sensitivity b. Squelch c. Distortion d. Gain answer =
b What is the source of wheel static? a. Wheel b. Brakes c. Piston d. Oscillatio
ns answer = b _______ frequencies are exact multiples of the fundamental frequen
cy. a. b. c. d. Distortion Harmonic Modulation Radio
answer = d Amplitude distortion results from _______ amplification. a. Indirect
b. Linear c. Direct d. Nonlinear answer = c A _____ is a resonant circuit tuned
to reject an undesired signal by r educing the gain at the trap frequency a. LC
tank b. LPF c. Wave trap d. HPF answer = a A subcarrier has a(n) _____ frequency
than the main carrier. a. Lower b. Higher c. Equal d. Good answer = a Amplitude
limiting in the IF section eliminates ___ interference from the FM signal. a. A
M b. FM c. PM d. Broadband answer = b With which emission type is capture-effect
most pronounced? a. CW b. FM c. SSB d. AM answer = d The parameter of a high fr
equency carrier that may be varied by a low frequency intelligence signal is a.
Amplitude b. Frequency c. Phase d. All of the above answer = a A carrier signal
has ____. a. Constant peak amplitude b. The information c. Frequency range 20-20
000Hz d. A varying amplitude answer = c The type of emission for FM stereo(multi
plex) broadcasting is a. F3E b. A3E c. F8E d. A8E answer = b
The method of generating FM used by broadcast station is ______. a. Direct b. In
direct c. Insertion d. All of these answer = a In TV broadcasting in the Philipp
ines, the aspect ratio of the picture frame is ____. a. 4:3 b. 2:1 c. 4:1 d. 3:1
answer = c Horizontal blanking time in TV. a. 10.16 us b. 16.67 us c. 63.5 us d
. 1 us answer = c The standard coaxial impedance for CATV applications is_______
. a. 36 ohms b. 72 ohms c. 75 ohms d. 300 ohms answer = a The service area in wh
ich the ground wave field of 1mV/m is not subjec t to objectionable interference
. a. Primary b. Secondary c. Intermittent d. Tertiary answer = a Which frequency
band is the standard AM radio broadcast? a. MF b. VHF c. HF d. UHF answer = c W
hich frequency band is the standard AM radio broadcast? a. HF b. UHF c. MF d. VH
F answer = d The width of television broadcast channel a. 200MHz b. 10kHz c. 100
kHz d. 6MHz answer = b CATV trunk and feeder system amplifier input voltage of _
____. a. 110 V
b. 220 V c. 500 V d. 1000 V answer = c it is the maximum swing of the sound carr
ier in tv system. a. 5 kHz b. 15 kHz c. 25 kHz d. 35 kHz answer = c The pre-emphas
and de-emphasis networks have a time constant of__ a. b. c. d. 65 70 75 80 s s s s
answer = " 2 " which of the following is not a product of overmodulation? a. spl
atter b. image c. buck shot d. spurious signal answer = c it is the range of sho
rt-wave frequency. a. 30 - 300 kHz b. 300 - 3000 kHz c. 3 - 30 MHz d. 30 - 300 M
Hz answer = " 2 " One angstrom is equivalent to___ a. 10 b. 10 c. 10 d. 1
has a deviation of 10 KHz and a modulating frequency of 2 KHz. Calculate the mo
dulation index. a. 20 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15 answer = c A modulation technique wherein
the modulations index is directly proport ional only to the intelligence amplit
ude. a. AM b. FM
c. d.
PM CM
answer = b How many RF amplifiers are there in a tuned radio frequency receiver?
a. b. c. d. 1 2 3 4
answer = a Noise due to random motion of the free alectrons in a conductor. a. b
. c. d. thermal noise shot noise harmonic distortion intermodulation distortion
answer = a determine the shot noise current for a diode with a forward bias of 1
mA over a 100 Khz Bandwidth. a. 0.00566 A b. 0.00400 A c. 0.00455 A d. 0.00500 A answe
= b indicate the false staement: Bandwidth a. ia a portion of electromagnetism s
pectrum occupied by a system b. is the maximum range of frequency in order to pr
opagate the source infor mation through the system. c. must be sufficiently larg
e to pass all significant information frequenie s d. is the difference between t
he upper and lower frequency limit answer = c what a. 2122 b. 2122 c. 2122 d. 21
22
is the cut off frequency of a deemp or preemp network? GHZ KHZ HZ MHZ
answer = c Band limiting a signal a. is independent of its frequency content b.
is independent of itswaveform shape c. may remove necessary in its information c
apacity d. is independent of its information capacity answer = b desired harmoni
cs are referred to as: a. frequency distortion
b. c. d.
frequency multiplication modulation cross products intermodulation distortion
answer = c indicate the false staement: Flickers a. were commonly found in trans
istors b. are inversely proportional to frequency c. are very serious at frequen
cies above 500 HZ d. are also referred to as modulation noise. answer = b having
a temperature of 17 C at MHZ BW the noise voltage at the input of a TV RF amplifi
er, using a device has a 200 O equivalent noise resistance and a 300 O input res
istor will be a. 3.692 V b. 6.932 V c. 6.902 V d. 6.293 V answer = d the value of a re
stor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise pow er generated is therfore a
. Halved b. quadrupled c. doubled d. none of the above answer = d _____________
transmissionare employed for low or medium density traffic a. b. c. d. SSBSC DSB
CS SSBRC ISB
answer = c An Fm signal with a deviation ratio 8 is passed through a mixer, and
has its frequency reduced 5 fold. The deviation in the output of the mixer is a.
b. c. d. 5 d d / 5 d none of the above
answer = a a typical squelch circuit cut off a. an audio amplifier when carrier
is absent b. R interference when the signal is weak c. An IF amplifier when the
AGC is maximum d. all of the above answer = c
a 68 KHz carrier wave is amplitude modulated by the band of frequencies 300-3400
Hz. Determine the Bandwidth. a. 38.3 KHz b. 71.4 KHz c. 6.8 KHz d. 3.1 KHz answ
er = b A 400W carrier is modulated to a depth of 75%. Calculate the total power
in the C3F with 10% of 1SB transmission. a. 56.25 W b. 461.86W c. 512.5W d. 112.
5W answer = a which of the following has the best sensitivity? a. -60 dBm b. 0 d
Bm c. 30 dBm d. -30 dBm answer = a which of the following has the best sensitivi
ty? a. 10 KHz b. 10 MHz c. 100 MHz d. 20 KHz answer = b a modulation frequency r
ange from 30-15000 Hz is permitted in an Fm syst em together with a maximum devi
ation of 50KHz. What will be the maximum index in this system? a. 1.11 b. 1.66 c
. 3.33 d. 0.3 answer = b calculate the image rejecytion of the receiver having a
n RF amplifier an d If of 450 KHz if the Q of the relevant coil is 65 at anincom
ing frequency of 1200 KHz. a. 75.28 b. 76.6 c. 890.78 d. 90 answer = d calculate
the S/N in ratio and dB form of a receiver which output is 40V and 0.48V noise.
a. 6944.4 , 38.5 dB b. 6499.4 , 38.42 dB c. 83.33 , 19.21 dB d. 6944.4 , 38.42
dB
answer = d which of the following is NOT a major benefit of FM over Am? a. great
er efficiency b. noise immunity c. capture effect d. lower complexity and cost a
nswer = c most internal noise comes from a. shot noise b. transit-time noise c.
thermal agitation d. skin effect answer = b noise can be reduced by a. widening
the BW b. narrowing the BW c. increasing the temperature d. increasing transisto
r current level answer = b the heart of all methods of single sideband modulatio
n and demodulation a. b. c. d. modulator balanced modulator modulation demodulat
ion
answer = c "front end" is also called _____ a. IF stage b. AF stage c. RF stage
d. none of these answer = c this is the system so far referred to as "SSB" in wh
ich the carrier is s upressed by at least 45 dB in the transmitter. a. A3E b. R3
E c. J3E d. B8E answer = b a micron is a. one-millionth of a foot b. one-million
th of a meter c. one-thousandth of a meter d. one-thousandth of an inch
answer = d the frequency range of infrared rays is approx. a. 30-300 GHz b. 4000
-8000 A c. 1000-10000 A d. 0.7-100 m answer = b an AM signal has a carrier power o
f 5w. The percentage of modulation is 80%. The total sideband power is a. 0.8 W
b. 1.6 W c. 2.5W d. 4.0W answer = c as SSB transmitter has a PEP rating of 1 KW.
the average output is in ran ge of a. 150-450 W b. 100-300 W c. 250-333 W d. 3 -
4 kW answer = d if the unmodulated carrier current is 4A and the percentage mod
ulation i s 70%. The total output current is a. 4.64 A b. 0.5 A c. 2.8 A d. 4.46
A answer = d the process of translating a signal, w/ or w/o modulation, to a hi
gher o r lower frequency for processing is called_____ a. frequency multiplicati
on b. frequency division c. frequency shift d. frequency conversion answer = d i
f the sideband power is 50% of the carrier power, what is the modulatio n index?
a. 50A% b. 75% c. 90% d. 100% answer = c which of the following is he most corr
ect? a. Vm should be greater then Vc b. Vc should be greater than Vm c. Vm shoul
d be equal to or less than Vc d. Vc should be equal to or less than Vm
answer = a the output of an SSB transmitter with a 3.85 MHz carrier and a 1.5 KH
z s ine wave modulating tone is a. 3.8485 MHZ sine wave b. 3.85 MHz sine wave c.
3.85, 3.8485 and 3.8515 MHz sine wave d. 3848.5 and 3851.5 MHz sine wave answer
= b the maximum allowed deviation of the FM sound signal in TV is 25 KHz. Th e
actual % modulation is 18 KHz, the % modulation is a. 43% b. 72% c. 96% d. 139%
answer = a the phenomenon of a strong FM signal dominating a weaker signal on a
com mon frequency is reffered to as the ______ a. capture effect b. biot out c.
quieting factor d. denomination syndrome answer = c both FM and PM are types of
what kind of modulation? a. amplitude b. phase c. angle d. duty cycle answer = c
in SSB, w/c sideband is the best to use? a. upper b. lower c. neither d. depend
s upon the use answer = a Which of the following is NOT another name for modulat
ion index? a. b. c. d. modulation reciprocal modulation factor degree of modulat
ion modulation coefficient
answer = c receiving electromagnetic emissions from the stars is called_____ a.
b. c. d. astrology optical astronomy radio astronomy' space surveillance
answer = c a widely used balanced modulator is called _____ a. diode bridge circ
uit b. full-wave bridge amplifier c. lattice modulator d. balanced bridge modula
tor answer = d a display of signal amplitude vs. frequency is called the ____ a.
time domain b. frequency spectrum c. amplitude spectrum d. frequency domain ans
wer = b indicate the false staement: BW a. is a portion of electromagnetic spect
rum occupied by a system b. is the maximum range of frequency in order to propag
ate the source infor mation through the system c. must be sufficiently large / w
ide to pass all significant information fr equencies d. is the difference betwee
n the upper and lower frequency limit answer = c indicate the false statement: a
ttenuators a. are passive network used to reduce the power level w/o introducing
appre ciable distortion b. consist of numerous resistors arranged in various co
nfigurations that ac t as voltage divides while maintaining a constant input and
output impedances c. d. introduces a fixed loss usually used over wide frequenc
y range
answer = c what a. 2122 b. 2122 c. 2122 d. 2122
is the cut off frequency of a deemp or preemp network GHz KHz Hz MHz
answer = b which of the following waveform responses produce the fastest transit
ion a. b. c. d. chebysher elliptic bessel filter butterworth
answer = d which of the following waveform responses produce the slowest transit
ion a. bessel filter
b. c. d.
elliptic chebysher maximally flat filter
answer = c bandlimiting a signal : a. is independent fo its frequency content b.
is independent of its waveform shape c. is independent in its information capac
ity d. may remove necessary informations in the signal answer = c indicate the f
alse statement: roll-off rate a. can be expressed in dB/octave b. can be express
ed in dB/decade c. is a change in frequency by a factor of 2 d. is a rate of tra
nsition from passband to stopband and vice versa
answer = b desired harmonics are reffered to as: a. frequency distortion b. freq
uency multiplication c. modulation cross products d. intermodulation distortion
answer = b ______was the first fixed-length charactered code a. morse code b. te
lex code c. ASCII code d. EBCDIC code answer = c indicate the false statement: f
licker a. were commomnlyfound in transistors b. are inversely proportional to fr
equency c. are very serious at frequency above 500Hz d. are also known as modula
tion noise answer = b having an amplifier BW of 6 MHz at temperature 17c, the nois
e voltage at the input of a TV RF amplifier, using a device that has a 200O equi
valent noise resistance and a 300O input resistor will be ___ a. 6.392 MV b. 6.9
32 MV c. 6.902 MV d. 6.293 MV answer = d the value of a resistor creating therma
l noise is doubled. The noise pow er generated is therefore a. halved
b. c. d.
quadrupled doubled none of the above
answer = d _____ transmissions are employed for low or medium density traffic a.
b. c. d. SSBSC DSBSC SSBRC ISB
answer = c an FM signal w/ a deviation d is passed through a mixer , and has its
f requency reduced fivefolds. The deviation in the output of the mixer is a. b.
c. d. 5d d/5 d none of the above
answer = a a typical squelch circuit cuts off a. an audio amplifier when the car
rier is absent b. RF interference when the signal is weak c. an IF amplifier whe
n the AGC is maximum d. an IF amplifier when the AGC is minimum answer = c if th
e color signals are mixed in the correct proportion, the result is ____ a. red b
. frame rate c. standard luminance d. sync pulse answer = a selectivity is usual
ly obtained with a special filter known as _____ a. b. c. d. surface acoustic wa
ve filter bandpass filter chebysher filter active filter
answer = d the _________ is a coil assembly that fits aroiund the picture tube's
ne ck. a. aquadag b. triads c. shadow mask d. yoke answer = b
for cable TV companies, the main building or facility is called the ____ __ a. b
. c. d. main station headend monitoring station transmitter and receiver station
answer = c which has the lowest luminance? a. cyan b. green c. blue d. magenta a
nswer = a determine the net receiver gain for an AM receiver with a RF input pow
er of -87dBnm a. 97dB b. 77dB c. 87dB d. -97dB answer = a it is the safe operati
ng power for the receiver. a. dynamic range b. output power c. threshold d. brea
kdown answer = b for an AM band with range of 535 - 1605 kHz and Q = 53.5, find
the bandw idth when fc = 535kHz. a. 15 kHz b. 10 kHz c. 30 kHz d. 5 kHz answer =
b what is the type of emission for monophonic FM? a. A3E b. F3E c. F8E d. none
of these answer = b find the maximum number of channels for FM transmission FM B
C band: 88.1 08MHz FM BC channel width: 200kHz a. 25 channels b. 100 channels c.
150 channels d. none of the above answer = d
for an I=0.4 and Q=0.7, find the value of the chrominace signal voltage. a. b. c
. d. 1.1 0.6 0.3 0.8 V V V V
answer = b what percent is the reference black level of a horizontal sync pulse?
a. b. c. d. 12.50% 70% 75% 50%
answer = d numerical frequency band designation of channel 9. a. 488-494 MHz b.
530-536 MHz c. 632-638 MHz d. 186-192 MHz answer = b part of broadcast day from
local sunset to sunrise. a. dawntime b. nighttime c. daytime d. experimental per
iod answer = c which of the following filters block FM radio band for TV channel
s (2-13 )? a. b. c. d. high pass filter low pass filter band stop filter band pa
ss filter
answer = b the number of scanning times is _______ per second. a. 15570 b. 15750
c. 15575 d. 17570 answer = c what is the intermediate frequency used for the pi
cture on a television receiver? a. 3.58 MHz b. 1.25 MHz c. 45.75 MHz d. 41.25 MH
z answer = a
how long is the toatl vertical time in a standard television transmissio n? a. b
. c. d. 16.66 ms 63.5 ms 53.3 ms 15.32 ms
answer = c what is the color frequency tolerance in a TV receiver? a. 1 KHz b. 10 KH
z c. 10 Hz d. 1 Hz answer = a requency. a. AM b. FM c. FM d. AM b band of frequencie
s 200 kHz wide is and is designated by its center f broadcast broadcast broadcas
t broadcast band channel band channel
answer = c frequency multipliers are usually _______amplifiers. a. class A b. cl
ass B c. class C d. class AB answer = d it is a situation wherein the circuit os
cillates at a higher frequency u nrelated to the tuned frequency. a. parasitic f
requency b. parallel oscilaation c. resonant frequency d. parasitic oscillation
answer = c Automatic gain control circuits are used to ___________. a. control t
he gain of Rf amplifiers to maintain a constant IF gain as the strength of incom
ing signals varies. b. controls the level of the Local Oscillation to maintain a
constant IF ga in as the strength of incoming signals varies. c. control the ga
in of IF amplifiers to maintain a constant IF gain as the strength of incoming s
ignals varies. d. none of the above. answer = d ina TV unit, it is a horizontal
output transistor that drives a step-up/ stepdown transfomer called______. a. fl
ywheel b. AFC c. Director d. Flyback
answer = c Aspect ratio is the _________ a. ratio of the output IF signal to the
IF input signal. b. ratio of the time it takes to transmit a signal to the spee
d of light. c. d. ratio of the width and height of a TV picture. ratio of the lu
minance of the received signal from the output signal
answer = c _________ scanning is a method of super-imposing a second field in be
twe en the first field. a. progressived b. dual c. interlaced d. Bi-directional
answer = c the primary requirement of a filter when it is used in SSB generation
is ______ a. high gain b. input and output impedances are equal. c. high select
ivity d. high sensitivity answer = a frequency conversion si produced by a circu
it called a _____. a. mixer b. modulator c. multiplexer d. filter answer = c wha
t is the instantaneous voltage produced by an AM signal 10 sec from w hen it was
transmitted if the modulating signal voltage is equal to the RMS valu e of the
carrier voltage signal is 16V? The carrier frequency is 777kHz and the modulatin
g frequency is 60Hz respectively. a. 1 eV8.947 V b. 27.314 V c. 0.182 mV d. 1.43
mV answer = a how long does ot take to horizontally scan 40 pixels? a. 5 s b. 0.1
25 s c. 53.5 s d. 2.140 ms answer = d the signal from color camera has R=0.75, G=0.5
, and B=0.15, where 1 repr esents the maximum signal possible. Find the chromina
nce voltage?
a. b. c. d.
0.5365 0.262 -0.056 0.2679
answer = d the purpose of a final amplifier in a radio frequency transmitter is
to _________. a. isolate the carrier oscillator from its load. b. generate an ac
curate and stable carrier frequency c. apply the generated signal to the antenna
. d. increase RF power level of transmitter answer = c how far Is the visual car
rier from the aural carrier in a monochrome tel evision broadcast channel? a. 5.
75 MHz b. 3.58 MHz c. 4.5 MHz d. 1.25 MHz answer = a determine the percentage of
the primary colors used in colored TV needed to produce the brigthest white. a.
30% red, 59% green, 11% blue b. 60% red, 28% green, 32% blue c. 21% red, 52% gr
een, 31% blue d. 30% red, 52% green, 22% blue answer = b what is the maximum num
ber of medium frequency broadcast stations? a. b. c. d. 131 32 100 25
answer = b ho wlong is the horizontal retrace in NTSC standard TV transmission?
a. b. c. d. 14% of horizontal scanning time 10% of horizontal scanning time 8% o
f horizontal scanning time 92% of horizontal scanning time
answer = a the service area of a TV transmitter for satisfactory reception is de
ter mined by ______ zone. a. line-of-sight b. diffraction c. tropospheric d. reg
ional tropospheric
answer = c additive primary colors are a. red , white, blue, b. red , yellow, bl
ue c. blue, red, green d. R-Y, B-Y, G-Y answer = a the station with an authorize
d effective radiated power of 125 KW a. b. c. d. class class class class A B C D
answer = b short wave broadcasting uses what kind of propagation? a. ground wave
b. sky waves c. space waves d. direct waves answer = c the ratio of the effecti
ve free space field intensity produced at 1.61 k m in the horizontal plane expre
ssed in millivolts per meter for 1 km antenna inp ut power to 137.6 in V/m. a. i
njection ratio b. RF protection ratio c. Antenna field gain d. Antenna power gai
n answer = d a signal in FM broadcasting which is the sum of all signals which f
reque ncy modulates the main carrier. a. subchannel signal b. main channel signa
l c. SCA subcarrier d. composite baseband signal answer = b as applied to facsim
ile broadcasting is the product of the number of lin es per inch, the available
length in inches. a. Line-use ratio b. index of cooperation c. available line d.
scanning line answer = a in Tv broadcasting, the pilot of the free space radiat
ed field intensity versus azimuth at a specified vertical angle with respect to
vertical plane pas sing through the center of the antenna. a. Azimuthal pattern
b. spherical pattern c. vertical pattern
d.
polar pattern
answer = c the median field strenght for which protection against interference o
f c hannel 2-6. a. 15 dBu b. 25 dBu c. 48 dBu d. 65 dBu answer = c in metro mani
la and metro cebu, the maximum effective radiated power for channel 7-13 a. 350
kW b. 800 kW c. 1000 kW d. 1500 kW answer = a the maximum transmitter power of a
television broadcast translator stati on operated by televisionbroadcast licens
es. a. 1000 W b. 100 W c. 1000 kW d. 100 kW answer = a during day time, medium w
aves are propagated through______? a. ground b. troposphere c. ionosphere d. atm
osphere answer = c who invented frequency modulation? a. samuel morse b. gugliel
mo marconi c. edwin howard armstrong d. lee deforest answer = d what are the mos
t significant limitations on the performance of a commun ication system? a. BW a
nd time b. carrier and sidebands c. distance and locations d. noise and BW answe
r = c ______ is a noise which is caused by the random arrival of the carriers at
the output element of the electronic device? a. thermal noise b. transit time n
oise
c. d.
shot noise man made noise
answer = d it usually occurs when oscillating mechanical stresses applied across
a crystal lattice structure generale electrical oscillations and vice versa a.
b. c. d. skin effect flywheel effect doppler effect piezoelectric effect
answer = b ________ is the ability of an oscillator to remain at a fixed frequen
cy and is of primary importance in communication system? a. sensitivity b. frequ
ency stability c. selectivity d. addictus effect answer = a what do you call the
noise reduction ratio achieved by reducing the band widths? a. BW improvement b
. S/N ratio c. noise figure d. differential reduction answer = a how many phons
are there in 8 sons? a. 70 b. 107.88 c. 95.56 d. 40 answer = a what is the carri
er power for an AM with an unmodulated voltage of 10V a nd a load resistance of
10ohms? a. 5W b. 10W c. 15W d. 20W answer = c or an AM DSBFC transmitter with an
unmodulated carrier power, 100W, that is modulated simultaneously by three modu
lating signal with coeffecients of mod ulation of 0.2, 0.4, 0.5. calculate for t
he total transmitted power? a. 0.67 b. 22.445 W c. 122.445 W d. can not be solve
d answer = a
a source radiates 5W of power uniformly. What is the intensity and the i ntensit
y level 6m from the source? a. 0.01,100 b. 0.02,200 c. 0.03,300 d. can not be so
lved answer = a __________occurs when information signals from one source produc
e freque ncies that fall outside their allocated bandwidth and interfere with in
formation signals from another source. a. interference b. distortion c. electric
al interference d. adjacency interference answer = c _________ Is used to calcul
ate the total noise factor of several cascade d amplifiers. a. Sabine's formula
b. Norris-Eyring's formula c. Friiss' formula d. none of the above answer = c wh
ich is not a requirement for a feedback oscillator to word. a. power source b. a
mplification c. negative feedback d. frequency determining components answer = d
invented frequency modulation. a. Thomas Watson b. Edison Armstrong c. Edward H
oward Armstrong d. none of the above answer = c transmiittal of digitally modula
td analog carrier between two or more po ints in communication system. a. Analog
network b. digital network c. digital radio d. analog radio answer = c eliminat
ed the effect of imbalances in impedances which causes a portion of the receives
signal to be returned to the sender on a portion of a hybrid ci ruit. a. signal
suppressors b. interference suppressor c. echo suppressors d. circuit suppresso
rs
answer = a in odd symmetry what coefficient(s) are valued to be zero? a. A b. B
c. B and A d. none of the above answer = a ________ is the ratio of active time
of the pulse to the period of the w aveform. a. dynamic range b. deviation ratio
c. duty cycle d. deflection ratio answer = c phenomenon in which a displaced mo
lecules tends to pull back to its orig inal position after its initial momentum
has caused it to displace nearby molecu les. a. malleability b. ductility c. ela
sticity d. lifetime answer = c a 4x4 announceer booth is 4m high, its walls are
covered with curtains h aving an absorption coefficient of 0.500 while the ceili
ng and flooring have an absorption coefficient of 0.050 and 0.30, respectively.
Determine reverberation time. a. 1.334 b. 0.274 c. 0.2159 d. 0.256 answer = a wh
at is the resonant air cavity absorber in hertz of a loudspeaker enclo sure with
an internal volume of 84950cm a thickness of 19mm with a small opening of 323 cm? a
. approx. 235 b. approx. 520 c. approx. 665 d. approx. 110 answer = a refers to
the microphone's variaation in sensitivity at various angles o f incidence with
respect to the on-axis of the microphone. a. directional response b. sensitivity
factor c. angular reaction d. perception aspect answer = b
a. b. c. d.
part of broadcast day from local sunset to sunrise. dawntime nighttime daytime e
xperimental period
answer = c which of the following filters block FM radio band for TV channels (2
-13 )? a. b. c. d. high pass filter low pass filter band stop filter band pass f
ilter
answer = b the number of scanning times is _______ per second. a. 15570 b. 15750
c. 15575 d. 17570 answer = d what is the intermediate frequency used for the pi
cture on a television receiver? a. 3.58 MHz b. 1.25 MHz c. 45.75 MHz d. 41.25 MH
z answer = a how long is the total vertical time in a standard teelvision transm
issio n? a. b. c. d. 16.66 ms 63.5 ms 53.3 ms 15.32 ms
answer = c what is the color frequency tolerance in a TV receiver? a. 1 KHz b. 10 KH
z c. 10 Hz d. 1 Hz answer = a requency. a. AM b. FM c. FM d. AM b band of frequencie
s 200 kHz wide is and is designated by its center f broadcast broadcast broadcas
t broadcast band channel band channel
answer = c
a. b. c. d.
frequency multipliers are usually _______amplifiers. class A class B class C cla
ss AB
answer = d it is a situation wherein the circuit oscillates at a higher frequenc
y u nrelated to the tuned frequency. a. parasitic frequency b. parallel oscilaat
ion c. resonant frequency d. parasitic oscillation answer = c Automatic gain con
trol circuits are used to ___________. a. control the gain of Rf amplifiers to m
aintain a constant IF gain as the strength of incoming signals varies. b. contro
ls the level of the Local Oscillation to maintain a constant IF ga in as the str
ength of incoming signals varies. c. control the gain of IF amplifiers to mainta
in a constant IF gain as the strength of incoming signals varies. d. none of the
above. answer = d ina TV unit, it is a horizontal output transistor that drives
a step-up/ stepdown transfomer called______. a. flywheel b. AFC c. Director d.
Flyback answer = c Aspect ratio is the _________ a. ratio of the output IF signa
l to the IF input signal. b. ratio of the time it takes to transmit a signal to
the speed of light. c. d. ratio of the width and height of a TV picture. ratio o
f the luminance of the received signal from the output signal
answer = c _________ scanning is a method of super-imposing a second field in be
twe en the first field. a. progressived b. dual c. interlaced d. Bi-directional
answer = c the primary requirement of a filter when it is used in SSB generation
is ______ a. high gain b. input and output impedances are equal.
c. d.
high selectivity high sensitivity
answer = a frequency conversion si produced by a circuit called a _____. a. mixe
r b. modulator c. multiplexer d. filter answer = a how long does ot take to hori
zontally scan 40 pixels? a. 5 s b. 0.125 s c. 53.5 s d. 2.140 ms answer = d the signal
from color camera has R=0.75, G=0.5, and B=0.15, where 1 repr esents the maximu
m signal possible. Find the chrominance voltage? a. 0.5365 b. 0.262 c. -0.056 d.
0.2679 answer = d the purpose of a final amplifier in a radio frequency transmi
tter is to _________. a. isolate the carrier oscillator from its load. b. genera
te an accurate and stable carrier frequency c. apply the generated signal to the
antenna. d. increase RF power level of transmitter answer = c how far Is the vi
sual carrier from the aural carrier in a monochrome tel evision broadcast channe
l? a. 5.75 MHz b. 3.58 MHz c. 4.5 MHz d. 1.25 MHz answer = a determine the perce
ntage of the primary colors used in colored TV needed to produce the brigthest w
hite. a. 30% red, 59% green, 11% blue b. 60% red, 28% green, 32% blue c. 21% red
, 52% green, 31% blue d. 30% red, 52% green, 22% blue answer = b what is the max
imum number of medium frequency broadcast stations? a. 131
b. c. d.
32 100 25
answer = b ho wlong is the horizontal retrace in NTSC standard TV transmission?
a. b. c. d. 14% of horizontal scanning time 10% of horizontal scanning time 8% o
f horizontal scanning time 92% of horizontal scanning time
answer = a the service area of a TV transmitter for satisfactory reception is de
ter mined by ______ zone. a. line-of-sight b. diffraction c. tropospheric d. reg
ional tropospheric answer = c additive primary colors are a. red , white, blue,
b. red , yellow, blue c. blue, red, green d. R-Y, B-Y, G-Y answer = a the statio
n with an authorized effective radiated power of 125 KW a. b. c. d. class class
class class A B C D
answer = b short wave broadcasting uses what kind of propagation? a. ground wave
b. sky waves c. space waves d. direct waves answer = c the ratio of the effecti
ve free space field intensity produced at 1.61 k m in the horizontal plane expre
ssed in millivolts per meter for 1 km antenna inp ut power to 137.6 in V/m. a. i
njection ratio b. RF protection ratio c. Antenna field gain d. Antenna power gai
n answer = d a signal in FM broadcasting which is the sum of all signals which f
reque
ncy modulates the main carrier. a. subchannel signal b. main channel signal c. S
CA subcarrier d. composite baseband signal answer = b as applied to facsimile br
oadcasting is the product of the number of lin es per inch, the available length
in inches. a. Line-use ratio b. index of cooperation c. available line d. scann
ing line answer = a in Tv broadcasting, the pilot of the free space radiated fie
ld intensity versus azimuth at a specified vertical angle with respect to vertic
al plane pas sing through the center of the antenna. a. Azimuthal pattern b. sph
erical pattern c. vertical pattern d. polar pattern answer = c the median field
strenght for which protection against interference of c hannel 2-6. a. 15 dBu b.
25 dBu c. 48 dBu d. 65 dBu answer = c in metro manila and metro cebu, the maxim
um effective radiated power for channel 7-13 a. 350 kW b. 800 kW c. 1000 kW d. 1
500 kW answer = a the maximum transmitter power of a television broadcast transl
ator stati on operated by televisionbroadcast licenses. a. 1000 W b. 100 W c. 10
00 kW d. 100 kW answer = a during day time, medium waves are propagated through_
_____? a. ground b. troposphere c. ionosphere d. atmosphere
answer = c who invented frequency modulation? a. samuel morse b. guglielmo marco
ni c. edwin howard armstrong d. lee deforest answer = d what are the most signif
icant limitations on the performance of a commun ication system? a. BW and time
b. carrier and sidebands c. distance and locations d. noise and BW
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