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Some say that when Jesus says "there is only one who is good" in Mathew 19:16-17 he is implying he is God,
specifically in the KJV.
On the face of it this might seem like a valid argument, however it is an incorrect conclusion.
Before analyzing the passage in question, and the relationship of Christ with God, I am going to provide some
evidence that has to be taken into account when interpreting our passage
Also in Mark 10:17-18 and Luke 18:18
Part 0
Part 1A
Part 1B
Part 2A
Part 2B
Part 3
Part 4A
Part 4B
Part 5A
Part 5B
Part 6
Part 7
Definitions
People Are Good
People Do Good
Jesus Is Good
Jesus Was Made Perfect
Good God
The Original Text in Mathew 19:16
Translation Comparisons for Mathew 19:16
Mathew 19:16-17 Analysis
Mathew 19:18-26
Mathew and Luke's Versions
Summaries and Final Conclusion
Part 0 Definitions
The definitions taken from Strong's and The Theological Dictionary of the New Testament.
G18 Agathos. Strong's: 18. agaths, ag-ath-os; a prim. word; good (in any sense, often as
noun):benefit, good (-s, things), well.
G18 Agathos. TDNT: as an adjective it means excellent or fine or good. Applied to persons, it signifies the
excellence of the person in his existing position
The angel and John the Baptist brought good news to the people
Romans 8:28 And we know that for those who love God all things work together for good, for those who
are called according to his purpose
Summary:
Hebrews 2:10 Jesus was made perfect
Hebrews 5:8-9 There was a time before "once made perfect,"
These passages are about Jesus being made perfect, if Jesus was not perfect then he may not have been "good"
however, it is not certain. The point here is that if Jesus was "made perfect" through anything, then he is not God
who was always perfect.
To see an in depth study see section 18B Jesus was Made Perfect xxxx linked here coming soon
And we bring you the good news that what God promised to the fathers
he has filled the hungry with good things
Everything created by God is good
Summary:
God sent good news through people, he filled the hungry with good things, and everything God created is good!
kai idou heis proserchomai autos epon didaskalos tis agathos poleo hena echo zoe alionios
and behold man came
him saying teacher what good deed
to have life eternal
Summary:
The original Greek text shows that the word agathos/good is only written once, after the word "teacher" and after the
word "what." The word "good" is in relation to the next word "poleo/deed." The translators have inserted a comma
after the Greek word didaskalos which confirms this theory. The original Greek text does not say that the
teacher/Jesus is good, rather the deed is good. This eliminates the theory of the "good teacher" being the "good
God."
It is interesting to note that the same passage in Mark 10:17 has the word tis/what after the word agathos/good.
Additionally the translators have placed the comma after the word agathos. These two differences make the passage
in Mark say "teacher good, what deed." I do not know how to determine if one is incorrect or not.
Good Jesus
These passages call Jesus "good" and deed/thing "good," and Jesus responds about him being "good."
KJV Mathew 19:16-17 And, behold, one came and said unto him, Good Master, what good thing shall I
do, that I may have eternal life? 17 And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but
one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.
AV, KJV, NKJV, YLT
This second group of translations including the KJV has the word good in front of master/teacher as well as the
"good deed." Jesus responds asking why they call him good. Jesus could not have responded this way if the
translators had not put an extra "good" in the sentence.
Summary:
The theory is that if Jesus was called "good," which Jesus does not either agree to or deny, and Jesus says that only
God is good therefore good Jesus must be good God.
There are two problems here
1/ The original text does not call Jesus good
2/ Jesus did not deny OR agree that he is good. The theory rests on an assumption, not proof, that he agrees.
A/ Jesus was annoyed at being called good. Because Jesus stated that only God is good, he is in fact completely
denying that he is God.
Against A:
This is a very valid viewpoint until considering the other information provided.
In Favor of B:
Jesus did not say "don't call me good," he wanted to call into question the concept which the rich young ruler had of
good. He was making the point that none of us human beings are good enough in ourselves to measure up to God's
perfect standard.
Quote: Jesus is not saying here that he isn't "good". The point Jesus was making here was that God is good
in the absolute and consummate sense. Jesus recognized God as the ultimate standard of what is good.
Though Jesus Christ had a quality of moral excellence, he would not accept Good as a title. So Jesus was
saying that no one is as good as God is, not even Jesus himself. God is good in a way that separates
him from
Jesus.
It seems there are at least these ascending levels of godly "good."
1/ The good ruler had kept all the commands but had earthly wealth
2/ the good disciples who had given everything away to follow Jesus
3/ God the ultimate good.
Against B:
When considering all other facts presented in this study, this is the most likely scenario. There are no arguments
against this possibility.
In Favor of C:
You say Im good? Well, theres only one who is good, and thats God. So what does that make me?
The argument in favor of this idea is "are we saying that Jesus is not good? We all agree Jesus is good, therefore he
must be God."
Against C:
Throughout the OT God was always extremely clear that he was God, so why not now? God had never previously
acted coyly or modestly by sending an implied signals about his identity.
This scenario is unlikely because the man gave no indication that he understood Jesus to be saying he was God.
Jesus did not deny OR agree that he is good. The theory rests on an assumption, not proof, that he agrees.
Summary:
The answer to our quandary is B.
Jesus wanted to address the human understanding of good compared with higher levels of good
Jesus did not say "don't call me good," he wanted to call into question the concept which the rich young ruler had of
good. He was making the point that none of us human beings are good enough in ourselves to measure up to God's
perfect standard.
It seems there are at least these ascending levels of godly "good."
1/ The good ruler had kept all the commands but had earthly wealth
2/ the good disciples who had given everything away to follow Jesus
3/ God the ultimate good.
The question is where does Jesus the good shepherd fit on the list? My guess is between 2-3!
These passages are about Jesus being made perfect, if Jesus was not perfect then he may not have been
"good" however, it is not certain. The point here is that if Jesus was "made perfect" through anything, then
he is not God who was always perfect.
To see an in depth study see section 18B Jesus was Made Perfect
Part 3 God sent good news through people, filled the hungry with good things and everything God created is
good
Part 4A The original Greek text shows that the word agathos/good is only written once, after the word "teacher"
and after the word "what." The word "good" is in relation to the next word "poleo/deed." The translators
have inserted a comma after the Greek word didaskalos which confirms this theory. The original Greek text
does not say that the teacher/Jesus is good, rather the deed is good. This eliminates the theory of the
"good
teacher" being the "good God."
Part 4B The theory is that if Jesus was called "good," which Jesus does not either agree to or deny, and Jesus
that only God is good therefore good Jesus must be good God.
There are two problems here
1/ The original text does not call Jesus good
2/ Jesus did not deny OR agree that he is good. The theory rests on an assumption, not proof, that he
agrees.
says