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E X A M I N AT I O N S , C E RT I F I C AT E S & D I P L O M A S
CPE
C E R T I F I C AT E O F P R O F I C I E N C Y
IN ENGLISH
HANDBOOK
English as a
Foreign Language
P R E FAC E
This handbook is intended principally for teachers and
course designers who are, or intend to become, involved in
preparing candidates for the Cambridge Certificate of
Proficiency in English examination (CPE).
The introductory part of the handbook provides a general
background to the Cambridge EFL examinations and an
overview of the work of the EFL Division at UCLES,
including a description of current procedures for test design,
production and marking.
For further information on any of the Cambridge EFL
examinations, please contact:
University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate
Syndicate Buildings
1 Hills Road
Cambridge
CB1 2EU
UK
Telephone: +44 1223 553311
Fax: +44 1223 460278
email: efl@UCLES.org.UK
Page 1
CONTENTS
Background to CPE
CPE Administration
CPE Support
10
Paper 2 Composition
17
28
40
Paper 5 Interview
49
57
Page 3
I N T RO D U C T I O N
Introduction to UCLES
The University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate
(UCLES) was established as a department of the University of
Cambridge in 1858 in order to set a standard of efficiency
for schools in England. The Cambridge examinations cover a
wide range of academic and vocational subjects and include
examinations specially designed for the international market.
Examinations in English as a Foreign Language (EFL) were
started at UCLES in 1913, with the Certificate of Proficiency
in English (CPE). The First Certificate in English (FCE) was
introduced in 1939. Other EFL examinations and schemes
for Teachers of English as a Foreign Language (TEFL) have
been added periodically since then, so that UCLES now
offers the most comprehensive range of EFL examinations
and TEFL schemes with a total annual candidature of over
500,000.
developing examinations;
user service.
commissioning;
editing;
pretesting/trialling;
analysis and banking of material;
question paper construction.
Commissioning of material
for question papers
B
Vetting and editing of
material
Pretest
construction
Trial
construction
Trialling
Revision
Pretesting
Trialling
review
Rejection
Item
Analysis
MATERIALS BANK*
Question paper
construction
*electronic bank for pretested materials
Page 5
B A C K G RO U N D TO C P E
CPE was originally offered in 1913 to meet the special needs
of foreign teachers of English. Regular updating has allowed
the examination to keep pace with changes in language
teaching and testing. The current version of the
examination dates from 1984, when a number of important
changes were made including the introduction of a taped
listening test. Since then, various minor changes have been
implemented in line with a policy of on-going review and
revision.
Recognition
CPE is recognised by the majority of British universities for
English language entrance requirements. These are listed in
a leaflet 'Recognition in Britain' available from UCLES. It is
also widely recognised throughout the world by universities,
institutes of higher education, professional bodies and in
commerce and industry as an indication of a very high level
of competence in English. More information about
recognition of the examination is available from UCLES and
from British Council Offices.
CPE Candidature
Information is collected about the CPE candidates at each
session, when candidates fill in a Candidate Information
Sheet. The candidates for CPE come from a wide range of
backgrounds and take the examination for a number of
different reasons. The following points summarise the
characteristics of the current CPE candidature.
Nationality - CPE is taken by candidates throughout the
world in about 70 countries, although the total number of
nationalities represented in the candidature is over 150. The
majority of these candidates enter for CPE in European and
South American countries. Many candidates also take the
examination in the UK.
Reading Comprehension
Candidates are expected to show comprehension of gist,
detailed content, tone and register. They are also tested on
their wider knowledge of vocabulary, usage and
grammatical control.
There are two sections. In the first section there are twentyfive multiple choice items. In the second section there are
three texts, each between 350 and 550 words in length,
with a total of fifteen items. Candidates must demonstrate
comprehension of the text by completing the items.
Composition
Candidates must be able to write non-specialised texts of a
descriptive, narrative and discursive nature covering a
range of topics.
There are five tasks from which the candidates chooses
two. One of the five tasks is based on an optional reading
of one of three books. Responses should be approximately
300 or 350 words, as specified.
Use of English
Age - Most candidates (about 80%) are under 25, with the
average age being about 22. In some countries the average
age is lower (e.g. in Greece it is about 19).
Gender - About 75% of candidates are female.
Employment - Most candidates are students, although there
are considerable differences in the proportion of students in
different countries.
Exam Preparation - A large proportion of candidates (about
85%) undertake a preparatory course before taking the
examination.
Reasons for taking CPE - Candidates reasons for wanting an
English language qualification are roughly distributed as
follows:
C P E C O N T E N T : A N O V E RV I E W
The examination consists of five papers:
Reading Comprehension
1 hour
Composition
2 hours
Use of English
2 hours
Listening Comprehension
40 minutes (approximately)
Interview
15 minutes (approximately)
Listening Comprehension
Candidates are expected to extract information, interpret
speakers attitudes and recognise the implications of stress
and intonation. Texts take the form of announcements,
dialogues, extracts from radio programmes, etc.
There are usually three or four texts, each lasting between 1
and 4 minutes, with approximately thirty items of the
following types: multiple choice, selection from three
possible answers, matching information, gap filling. All
parts are repeated.
Interview
Candidates may be tested either individually, in pairs or in
groups of three. They must be able to discuss and comment
on issues and express opinions.
Page 7
Weighting of components
Each component carries approximately 22% of the total
marks except for Listening, which carries approximately
12%.
Notification of Results
Statements of results are issued through centres
approximately two months after the examination has been
taken.
Certificates are issued about six weeks after the issue of
statements of results. Enquiries about results may be made
through Local Secretaries, within a month of the issue of
statements of results.
G R A D I N G A N D R E S U LT S
C P E A D M I N I S T R AT I O N
The five CPE papers total 180 marks, after weighting.
A candidate's overall CPE grade is based on the total score
gained by the candidate in all five papers. It is not
necessary to achieve a satisfactory level in all five papers in
order to pass the examination.
The overall grade boundaries (A, B, C, D and E) are set
according to the following information:
Awards
The Awarding Committee meets after the grade boundaries
have been confirmed. It deals with all cases presented for
special consideration, e.g. temporary disability,
unsatisfactory examination conditions, suspected collusion,
etc. The committee can decide to ask for scripts to be
re-marked, to check results, to change grades, to withhold
results, etc. Results may be withheld because of
infringement of regulations or because further investigation is
Page 8
Further Information
Copies of the Regulations and details of entry procedure,
current fees and further information about this and other
Cambridge examinations can be obtained from the Local
Secretary for UCLES examinations in your area, or from:
Administration and Systems Division
UCLES
1 Hills Road
Cambridge
CB1 2EU
UK
Telephone: +44 1223 553311
Fax: +44 1223 460278
In some areas this information can also be obtained from the
British Council.
Special Arrangements
Special arrangements are available for disabled candidates.
These may include extra time, separate accommodation or
equipment, Braille transcription, etc. Consult the UCLES
Local Secretary in your area for more details.
C P E S U P P O RT
Course Material
A number of course books and practice materials are
available from publishers. A comprehensive list of those
published by members of the Publishers' Association is
available from UCLES. CPE requires an all-round language
ability and this should be borne in mind when selecting
course materials. Most course books will need to be
supplemented; care should be taken to ensure that course
books and practice materials selected accurately reflect the
content and format of the examinations.
N.B. UCLES does not undertake to advise on text books or
courses of study.
Past Papers
Past examination papers, which can be used for practice, are
available from Local Secretaries and from the Publications
Department at UCLES. The sample question papers included
in this Handbook (in reduced format) appeared as part of
previous CPE examinations. However, candidates are
strongly advised not to concentrate unduly on working
through practice tests and examinations as this will not by
itself make them more proficient in the different skills.
Page 9
General Description
Task Focus
Paper Format
The paper is divided into two sections. Section A has 25
discrete four-option multiple choice questions. Section B
contains three texts and 15 corresponding four-option
multiple choice questions.
Task Types
Multiple choice.
Number of Questions
40.
Answering
For all parts of this paper, candidates indicate their answers
by shading lozenges on an answer sheet.
Length of Texts
1500 - 1800 words approximately overall; 450 - 600 words
approximately per text.
Timing
1 hour.
Text Types
From the following: literary fiction and non-fiction,
newspapers, magazines, journals, etc.
Marks
One mark is given for each correct answer in Section A; two
marks are given for each correct answer in Section B.
Section
Number of
Questions
Multiple choice
Focus:
semantic sets and
collocations
grammatical rules
semantic precision
adverbial phrases
and connectives
phrasal verbs
25
Multiple choice
Main focus: understanding
main points and detail
15
Page 10
Task Format
P R E PA R I N G F O R PA P E R 1
Paper 1 is divided into two sections. Section A consists of
25 discrete sentences which test specific areas of linguistic
competence. Section B consists of 3 different texts, each of
which is tested by four-option multiple choice questions.
The passage and questions are intended to encourage not
only an understanding of a range of texts, but also an
appreciation of stylistic effects, nuance and register.
Section A
In Section A, candidates must choose a word or phrase from
a set of four options to fill a gap in a sentence. The
candidates are being tested on their knowledge of semantic
sets and collocations, use of grammar rules and constraints,
semantic precision, adverbial phrases and connectors, and
phrasal verbs.
In preparing for Paper 1, candidates should be encouraged
to learn whole phrases (rather than just individual words)
together with their appropriate usage. Vocabulary practice
which studies the differences in meaning and usage between
words with a similar meaning should be part of candidates'
preparation. Candidates should also be given the
opportunity to focus on adjective + noun and verb + noun
patterns, e.g., an unknown quantity, warmest
congratulations, to chair a meeting, to retain the ability
(to...), to be tempted to accept (an offer).
Section B
Section B consists of three texts, all drawn from a variety of
authentic sources, each of which is followed by four to six
multiple choice questions. Candidates are asked to select
from the four multiple choice options given for each
question the one that fits best, according to the text. The
third text is usually taken from a novel or literary work and
questions test the candidates understanding of the
interaction between characters, as well as narrative
sequences. The other two are more expository or discursive
and taken from non-fiction texts aimed at the educated
general reader. Subjects recently have included the media,
the philosophy of science, archaeology, education and the
development of musical taste, for example.
Candidates may be tested on various aspects of the texts,
e.g., the main point(s) of the text, the theme or gist of part of
the text, the writer's opinion or attitude, developments in the
narrative, the overall purpose of the text, etc. However, the
multiple choice questions used to test candidates
understanding of the texts should not be practised to excess
as they are unlikely to improve students' ability to read
English more efficiently.
Page 11
PA P E R 1 R E A D I N G C O M P R E H E N S I O N A N S W E R K E Y
SECTION A
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
B
A
D
B
C
A
C
A
B
D
B
C
C
Page 16
SECTION B
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
B
B
A
D
C
D
C
B
D
B
A
C
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
A
A
C
D
B
D
A
B
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
D
C
A
D
B
C
D
PA P E R 2 C O M P O S I T I O N
General Description
Answering
Candidates write their answers on separate answer paper.
Number of Tasks
Candidates are required to complete two writing tasks from a
choice of five.
Timing
2 hours.
Task Types
From the following: a description, a discursive composition,
a narrative, formal letter, report, short article, essay on
background reading text.
Marks
Each question in the paper carries equal marks.
Number of Tasks
and Length
Task Format
Page 17
P R E PA R I N G F O R PA P E R 2
Candidates are asked to write two compositions from a
selection of five. The choice of topics includes a descriptive,
a discursive and a narrative topic, a shorter, more specific
topic or exercise based on a specific task and a topic based
on optional reading (specified in the Examination
Regulations each year). All the topics are designed to
generate a natural use of language. Candidates are assessed
on task realisation, organisation of material and accuracy
and range of vocabulary and structure. The language used
should be at a level of fluency, accuracy and resource
appropriate to the Proficiency examination and language
rather than content is the main concern in the marking.
Marks are not deducted for unorthodox opinions, but
candidates are expected to present their arguments logically.
Credit is given for an imaginative and appropriate selection,
and development of descriptive detail. Candidates are
specifically expected to demonstrate some sophistication of
language use; narrowness of expression, i.e., over-simplistic
language or a limited range, although accurate, may not be
enough to achieve a satisfactory level in the paper.
Learners should be encouraged to demonstrate the full range
of their language ability and should be given practice in
writing compositions on all the different task types. They
should be trained to develop the skill of using language
appropriate to the different types of writing. The overall
structure of the piece of writing, both in logic and
appropriacy, is an important feature and candidates should
be given extensive practice in planning and organising their
writing. Candidates will also need to practise writing
compositions within the time limit and should allow
themselves time to check their work. When planning their
writing they should take account of the word limits, as overlength or under-length compositions may lose candidates
marks because they often contain more mistakes or are
badly structured.
Page 18
Irrelevance
ASSESSMENT
The five prompts provide five different tasks, each of which
demands varying responses and techniques. Examiners
assess task-realisation, organisation of material and range of
vocabulary and structure. Within these criteria, they
consider fulfilment of the task set: (i.e., its relevance and
organisation as a whole and in terms of individual
paragraphs) and the quality of the language used (i.e., the
range and appropriateness of vocabulary and sentence
structure; the correctness of grammatical construction,
punctuation and spelling). The examiners assess each
composition based on these considerations, bearing in mind
the general scope and standard of the CPE. The impression
mark for each composition is awarded out of 20 (criteria
summarised on page 20).
Length
The length of answer required is stated for each task. For
answers that are below the required length, the examiner
adjusts the maximum mark and the mark given
proportionately, e.g., a three-quarter length answer deserves
three-quarters of the mark that would otherwise have been
given. For answers that are over-length, the examiner draws
a line at the approximate place where the correct length is
reached and directs close assessment to what comes before
this. However, credit is given for relevant material appearing
later.
Marking
The panel of examiners is divided into small teams each
with a very experienced examiner as Team Leader. The
Principal Examiner guides and monitors the marking process,
beginning with a meeting of the Principal Examiner and the
Team Leaders. This is held immediately after the
examination and begins the process of establishing a
common standard of assessment by the selection of sample
scripts for all the questions in Paper 2. These are chosen to
demonstrate the range of responses and different levels of
competence, and are used for the preliminary co-ordination
of marking of all examiners.
During marking, each examiner is apportioned scripts
chosen on a random basis from the whole entry in order to
ensure there is no concentration of good or weak scripts or
of one large centre in the allocation of any one examiner. A
rigorous process of co-ordination and checking is carried out
before and throughout the marking process.
Page 19
19 - 20
Excellent control and selection of language, virtually error-free; outstanding in treatment of task.
16 - 18
Clear evidence of sophisticated language used with only occasional native-speaker-type lapses;
ambitious in concept and approach.
11 - 15
Reasonably fluent and natural language with only occasional minor errors; task well developed,
with appropriate treatment of the rubric.
8 - 10
Ideas communicated but language limited or marred by error; task attempted but not adequately
realised.
5-7
Lack of language control shown by numerous errors; topic area neither extended nor explored.
1-4
Errors and narrowness of expression impede communication; content irrelevant or length of writing
too short.
Page 20
Q U E S T I O N 1 C A N D I DAT E A
The kitchen in my sisters house is a rather large room, many windows so it is bright and apart from the
usual kitchen furnishing such as fridge and freezer, stove and cupboards etc there is a big wooden table.
This table is the centre of the kitchen, here the family have their meals, someone is doing his homework or
simply reading the newspaper. On the old wooden coach that stands along one wall it is most likely to find
a little kitten sleeping. It is in fact a bit of a mess in the kitchen most of the time. There is quite often a loaf
of bread lying on the counter and some cheese or ham and on the table one can find a story-book. On the
fridge there are notes or schedules for football trainings.
It is very much alive though, the kitchen in my sisters house. The personalities of the familymembers reflects on the room. First of all my sister and the mother, has not only three children but is also
working full-time. It shows that she has not enough time to manage everything, even though she is trying
to. The kitchen is not always as tidy as it could be, but she does not mind and the kitchen is much more
cosy when it looks a bit lived in.
The two elder children are both in school and both are very interested in sports. Almost everyday
they have football practice, always going somewhere. This shows in the kitchen when they forget to put
the cheese back into the fridge or the milk or put their glasses or plates in the dishwasher.
The youngest child likes to play out in the kitchen, keeping his mother company. He does not like
to be alone and the kitchen is a very good place if you dont like to be alone, because there is always
someone there.
The kitchen is the natural place for the whole family to meet in and maybe that is because it is
lived in and the whole family is a bit like the kitchen; messy but very warm-hearted.
EXAMINER COMMENTS
Overall the language is sufficient to deal with the theme,
though there is some awkwardness at times, e.g., ... it is
most likely to find ... Word order and subject / verb
agreement are problematic, e.g., The personalities of the
family-members reflects on the room. First of all my sister
and the mother, has not only three children but is also
working full-time. There is some assurance in the writing It is very much alive though, the kitchen in my sister's
house - especially towards the end. A wider range of
structure and vocabulary would have resulted in a higher
mark.
Page 22
Q U E S T I O N 2 C A N D I DAT E B
I recently came across an article in my local newspaper, which was about the use of cars in our society. In a comparison
with third world countries a statistic showed that the average number of people per car in Europe was two and in India
355. This statistic clearly underlines the importance of cars in western society. Cars are, by far, the most popular method
of transport, as they are more comfortable and cleaner than public transport. They also enable the user to stop anywhere
and to complete the journey in his own time.
In addition, public transport has become even more unreliable over the past few years. Frequent delays and cancellations
and an increase in ticket prices are hardly and incentive to use buses or trains.
Furthermore, the ownership of one or more cars is a status symbol of relative importance. It is a sign of properity
to have a nice car and it is part of human nature to show off.
For these reasons the number of people who drive to work each morning has grown. The result is that in big
cities, like London, the traffic regularly comes to a standstill during the rushhour. Also, scientists have shown the extensive
damage to the environment, which is caused by pollution. The governments have tried to reduce the amount of dangerous
exhaust fumes by issuing laws, which make it compulsory for every car to have a catalytic converter. Yet, this does very
little to reduce pollution. Furthermore, the British Government has issued a fuel tax, hoping that the rise in price will deter
many from using their car. Despite all these effort the automobile industry is booming and car sales are increasing at a
surprising speed.
I believe there are various steps the governments can still take to reduce the number of drivers. The most
important one is to improve public transport. Regular trains and buses, punctuality and a wider range of destinations
would increase the number of commuters. If this is not enough, there are other possibilities such as, limiting the
x
ownerships of cars per family restricting the number of miles each person is allowed to drive O.
Furthermore, automobile
companies could be forced to invest is more environmentally friendly cars. The biggest breakthrough to reduce the
emission of CO2 would be to change the energy source from fuel to electricity.
x or inventing a car-share-scheme, which is on trial in Germany.
O
EXAMINER COMMENTS
Page 23
Q U E S T I O N 3 C A N D I DAT E C
The ticket collector awoke with a start, to find the train moving through unfamiliar countryside. Bob must be taking a
wrong way. he thought. As a veteran ticket collector, Fred was sure that the driver was heading to a wrong direction. He
got up unwillingly and began to walk towards the front coach of the train. His legs looked as if they could have hardly
put up with his flabby body. Only after he got in a carriage on his way to see Bob, did he find a skinny, little boy sitting
on a window sill with his legs dangling down outside dangerously.
It cant be my brother. Fred thought. The train was not in service, so no one shouldnt have been on board.
Besides, his brother had died when Fred was still in his teens. Fred was about to approach the boy to ask questions when
the boy turned round and grinned at him. He felt as if I had been dreaming. The boy looked identical to his dead
brother. He couldnt help trembling but his blood floze all over his body. In the next 10 minutes or so, Fred tried to calm
down thinking of his duty.
When he pulled himself together, he walked to the boy and asked several questions. Before he realized, he
addressed the boy John, which was his dead brothers name, and had a conversation looking back his young days. The
boy, who was wearing old-fashioned clothes, seemed to be enjoying the chitchat with the ticket collector for a while.
After a while, the boy suggested that Fred should go to see the driver about this wrong direction. So Fred stood
up and left the carriage then, realized that he wanted to ask him one more thing. Strangely enough, he couldnt find the
boy ever again.
No sooner had he realized that he had been dreaming than his colleague came to wake him up for his duty.
EXAMINER COMMENTS
Poor language control leads to confusion, e.g., Before he
realized, he addressed the boy John, which was his dead
brother's name, and had a conversation looking back his
young days.
The task is not treated adequately. The candidate has
attempted to adapt a ghost story to the opening sentence,
and this has entailed the inclusion of material which neither
extends nor explores the topic, e.g., The boy, who was
Page 24
Q U E S T I O N 4 C A N D I DAT E D
Christian Berg
Kaptensgt 24
60742 Malmo
Sweden
ph. 0064-53-874201
The manager
Lord hotel
21 Lancaster gate
W2 6ET
London
10/06/97
Dear sir,
I am writing to express my dissatisfaction of my stay at the Lord Hotel, in London, last weekend.
I booked and paid, for my stay at the hotel, in Sweden and I aslo recieved information about the hotel and of the
facilities there a map of London and some touristinformation. I was promised a luxury weekend well-worth the
1000 I paid. However, I am not satisfied.
The room was comfortable but the traffic from the road opposite the hotel made it impossible to sleep. I asked for
another room but no single rooms were available. Furthermore, I required roomservice one night and I had to
wait for almost one hour before someone came.
Moreover, the hotel offered (me) health and fitness facilities and since I enjoy exercising I looked forward to it.
However, I never had a chance to use the gym because it was very small and crowded. The swimming pool was
unclean and cold temperatured and the fitness instructors were not helpful at all.
I am also very disappointed with the food. The breakfast did leave alot for imagination and the 3 course dinner I
was promised was beyond criticism. Firstly, the waiting personel were rude and unfriendly. Secondly, the quality
of the food was not good. Finally the 3 course dinner I paid for appeard to be only a two course dinner since I
only was offered coffee after the maincourse.
Taking in consideration; the immense amount of money I (have) paid for this stay and the inconvinience and
disappointment the stay at your hotel caused me, I think an apology and a refund would be appropriate.
I am looking forward hearing from you
Yours sincerely
Christian Berg
CHRISTIAN BERG
EXAMINER COMMENTS
The letter is appropriate in both style and direction. There
are language errors which stand out, e.g., my dissatisfaction
of my stay; I only was offered. Punctuation, especially the
use of commas, is problematic at times, e.g., I booked and
paid, for my stay at the hotel, in Sweden.... Tenses are
generally well-handled, though the use of the past simple
rather than the present would have been more appropriate
when expressing dissatisfaction in the following instances: I
was promised...However, I am not satisfied; I am also very
disappointed with the food.
Q U E S T I O N 4 C A N D I DAT E E
Stefan Nilsson
9 Old Jamaica Road
London
SE16 4TE
Complaints Department
Mallorca Grand Hotel
12 Cerveza Road
London SE7 0AP
11 June 1997
Dear Sir/Madam
Concerning my stay 010697-030697
During the weekend I realized that the standard of your hotel did not correspond to the standard
described in your catalouge.
To begin with I am a vegetarian. Therefore I had, in advance, ordered food suitable for
vegetarians to both the meal on Friday night and the one on Saturday night. I was chocked when I
realized that the veggie burgers contained meat on both Friday night and Saturday night. I reported this,
but neither the staff or the resturant manager took notice of my complaint. However, this issue is minor
if compared to what happened to me on the morning of Sunday the 3rd.
As I woke up I decided to work-out for a few hours before breakfast, so I went down to the
cellar, were I had been told that I would find luxury health and fitness equipment.
I was stunned to find a gym that only comprised a few weights. Furthermore, I was not able
to use them due to the heavy weight.
Since my main goal with the weekend away was to relax, workout and eat health in order to
get slim, I must say that the circumstances were devastating and that I cannot accept this.
I hope you understand that I must ask you to give me a partial refund of the money that I had
payed in advance. I would be satysfied with one third of the 200 pounds, as a symbolic gesture.
I am looking forward to hearing from you in the near future and I sincerely hope that we can settle this.
Yours faithfully
Stefan Nilsson
STEFAN NILSSON
EXAMINER COMMENTS
The candidate fails to achieve a consistent tone or style in the
letter. An attempt at a formal letter of complaint has been
made, but does not quite succeed. There are some good
touches, e.g., ... did not correspond to the standard; I
sincerely hope that we can settle this, but at times the
vocabulary used is excessive and not in keeping with the
overall tenor of the letter, e.g., I was stunned; the
circumstances were devastating. At others, the sentence
openers employed are not quite formal enough for the
context, e.g., To begin with, I am a vegetarian. Therefore ...
There is a degree of unnecessary repetition in the earlier part
of the letter, e.g., ... to both the meal on Friday night and the
Page 26
Q U E S T I O N 5 C A N D I DAT E F
EXAMINER COMMENTS
The candidate handles the task reasonably effectively and
shows good knowledge of the text. This is a personal
response to the question set - I found it rather shocking;
What an extraordinary man! - which is direct and clear
in the points it makes.
The language employed manages to convey a basic
understanding of the text, but does not display a great deal
of range or ambition. There is some awkwardness, e.g.,
Page 27
PA P E R 3 U S E O F E N G L I S H
General Description
Answering
Candidates write their answers in the question booklet.
Paper Format
The paper is divided into two sections. Section A contains
four exercises based on a short text and discrete sentences.
Section B contains comprehension and summary questions
based on a longer text.
Timing
2 hours.
Marks
Number of Questions
Task Types
Open cloze, sentence transformations, gapped sentences,
open-ended comprehension questions, and summary task.
Question
Open cloze
Number of
Questions
Task Format
20
An emphasis on grammar
2
Sentence transformations
Grammar and vocabulary
Gapped sentences
Grammar and vocabulary
Open-ended
comprehension questions
identifying main
point and examples
paraphrasing
identifying function,
etc.
Summary task
Page 28
selecting and
synthesising
information
presenting in
continuous prose
11 - 14
60 - 90
words
approx.
P R E PA R I N G F O R PA P E R 3
The Use of English paper is divided into two sections. In
Section A there are four parts, each part being defined in
terms of its task type and language focus. Section B consists
of a short text followed by a comprehension and summary
task.
In general, candidates are encouraged to read texts from a
variety of sources and to spend time identifying examples of
current usage themselves, rather than relying solely on
exercise completion.
Section A
Candidates are advised against offering alternative answers
in any of the parts of Section A: where such alternatives are
given, marks can only be awarded if all alternatives are
correct.
Question 1
This is a modified cloze test containing twenty gaps, testing
structural and lexical appropriacy, with the emphasis on
structure. A single word is needed to fill each gap. There
may be more than one acceptable answer for each gap, as
defined by the mark scheme. The absence or misuse of
capital letters is ignored; correct spelling is essential. This
type of exercise should not be over-practised in class as it is
unlikely to raise learners language awareness. Candidates
are advised to read the whole text before attempting to fill
the gaps. Learning words and expressions in context,
especially grammatical patterns and collocations, will help
candidates in this part of the paper.
Question 2
This consists of eight discrete sentence transformations.
Candidates are required to manipulate structures in order to
produce sentences similar in meaning to the input provided.
For marking purposes, sentences may be divided into
assessed sections. A wide range of structures such as passive
voice, inversions, complex conditionals as well as noun to
verb (and vice versa) transformations are tested. In addition,
common expressions such as please -self, what + adjective
+ noun and lexical phrases fancy -ing, no point -ing,
object to -ing can be tested in this format. Incorrect spelling
is penalised where it affects the language being assessed.
Question 3
In this Question there are six discrete gapped sentences, to
be completed with an appropriate word or phrase. As in
other sections of the paper, candidates need to know whole
phrases rather than just individual words. Exercises which
examine lexico-grammatical collocations, e.g., how on
earth could you have + participle, (it) doesnt stand a
chance of + -ing and their likely context will help
Question 4
This Question consists of eight discrete sentences to be
rewritten using a given word, in the form given, and
structural manipulation as necessary to produce sentences
similar in meaning to the input provided. This task covers a
wide range of grammatical and lexico-grammatical patterns
and, as above, candidates need to learn whole phrases rather
than just individual words. An awareness of parallel and
synonymous expressions will help candidates in this part of
the paper. For marking purposes, sentences may be divided
into assessed sections. Incorrect spelling is penalised where
it affects the language being assessed.
Section B
This is a comprehension and summary task, based on a text
of 550-650 words in length. Candidates are required to
select information from a written text to show general and
detailed comprehension and to paraphrase the text
successfully in order to demonstrate a thorough
comprehension. In the final question in this section,
candidates are required to produce a paragraph of a
specified length, summarising the required information from
the text in a logical and coherent fashion. In preparing for
Section B, candidates should be given practice in reading a
wide range of texts from different sources and in answering
questions on information given or implied and the language
used.
Question 5
Comprehension Questions
These questions, which precede the summary, focus on
various aspects of comprehension such as identifying and
listing examples relating to the main point or identifying the
particular function of specified language in the text. The
questions are a test of comprehension, not composition, and
grammatical errors and clumsy expression are not penalised
except where they obscure the point. Questions which
specify that candidates should use their own words or
explain a quotation from the text require a successful
paraphrase to gain full marks. Complete sentences are not
necessarily required; some types of question can be
successfully answered by a short phrase or, occasionally, a
single word. The dotted lines are generally intended to
provide sufficient space for a fully expressed answer in
average handwriting; however, a minimum of one full line is
always given.
Page 29
Summary Task
This is intended to test candidates ability to select and
synthesise specified information, and to present it in
continuous form, with clarity, coherence and conciseness.
The paragraph must be written in continuous prose, i.e., in
complete sentences and not in note form. It should be in a
formal/neutral register. The sentences should be well-linked,
and the complete piece of writing should be well-structured
and organised to form a self-contained whole. Candidates
should be encouraged to use their own words rather than
relying on lifting; they will be credited for successfully
paraphasing the points required. They should also be careful
to adhere to the instructions given in the rubric as
irrelevancies and misinterpretation will be penalised.
Candidates are expected to extract all the information
required from the text and not to offer their own opinion.
Candidates should write within the word limits given as
excessively long answers will lose marks while short answers
tend to omit information or show sufficient evidence of
structural and stylistic control. Exercises which practise
understanding, interpreting and summarising the information
presented in texts should be part of candidates preparation
for this task.
Page 30
PA P E R 3 U S E O F E N G L I S H A N S W E R K E Y
Question 2
Question 1
Total 12 (marks for each portion as shown; some variations
in answers allowed)
1
the
2
far
3
from/in
(b)
matter what Ben/he/she does, it seems to go
wrong
(c)
firm/strong belief/conviction (1) (that) Mark was telling
the truth (1)
(2)
(d)
Im particularly/most looking forward to
(particularly/most) when Im in India is visiting
the/a/my visit to the Taj Mahal
OR
(e)
OR
OR
Page 34
(1)
4
desire/wish/need/urge/impulse
5
back
6
and/while/whilst
7
themselves
for/behind
use
10
that
11
means/way/method
12
must/would
13
against
OR
14
with
OR
15
most/more
16
own
(f)
(1)
17
of
(g)
18
(2)
19
in
(h)
20
neither
(1)
.......................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................
In what ways does the writer consider photographs to be less satisfactory than
paintings?
.......................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................
Why does the writer put the word 'composition' in inverted commas in the passage?
(line 27)
.......................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................
What does the writer feel 'a great master' (line 23) would be prepared to
acknowledge?
(o)
(n)
0301/3/ S 97
.......................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................
In a paragraph of 60-80 words, summarise the reasons why the writer approves of
painting 'the people around us and the life they lead'.
.......................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................
Explain in your own words why the writer consider that works by L.S. Lowry will endure
longer than most abstract paintings.
.......................................................................................................................................
(m) What does the writer mean by the phrase 'one insurance against oblivion'? (lines 3334)
(l)
(k)
(j)
for thought.
Question 3
Total 6 (one mark for each correct answer; some variations
in answers allowed)
(a)
OR
(b)
round/around/down to
OR
(the) time/chance/opportunity to do
(1)
(c)
(1)
(d)
(1)
(e)
were meant/supposed
(1)
(f)
(1)
(1)
OR
OR
(1)
Question 5
Total 31
This section is designed to test the candidate's ability to
understand, interpret and summarise. Marks are awarded as
shown for coherent and relevant answers (some variations in
answers allowed).
(a)
Question 4
(2)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
OR
(e)
(f)
OR
(b)
OR
OR
OR
(c)
Could you cast your/an eye (1) over this letter... (1)
(2)
OR
(d)
(g)
OR
the fact that anyone other than the artist should like a
picture enough to (stop and) look at it/consider it is
worth looking at
(1)
(h)
(i)
(j)
OR
(k)
OR
(l)
(m)
(n)
OR
OR
(e)
(f)
OR
(g)
OR
OR
(h)
(1)
Page 35
(o)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
Page 36
The writer thinks that they are very evocative. These paintings show what life was like
in a period through the artists personal look and experience and that adds to it validity
and life. Thats why they are better than photographs. Moreover they give us pleasure
especially if they are well painted, although they might not offer us something unique.
Sometimes they might even be better than a piece by a famous artist. Certainly future
generations will appreciate them more than abstract ones because they can learn more
from them, about life in past years.
EXAMINER COMMENTS
By including four of the five content points listed in the
markscheme, i.e., (ii), (v), (iv) and (iii), the candidate has
demonstrated good comprehension of the passage and
appreciation of what is required. She therefore receives the
maximum of 4 for this task.
The summary is fluently, if simply written, with good overall
cohesion and correct punctuation. It makes adequate use of
connectors and contains no significant errors in grammar or
usage. There is a real attempt to paraphrase the language of
C A N D I DAT E B
The writer clearly states in the text that an artist should not try to impress by making
his works of art complex and abstract. On the other hand, even a bad artist could
successfully depict the people around him and the life they lead. This is because
people are very interested in seeing how life was at a certain period of time in the past
and in understanding the artists perception of the world and the people around him.
In other words, they are interested in the way each artist may depict the same period
with his very unique personal style, which may be completely different than others.
EXAMINER COMMENTS
This candidate has mentioned four of the five relevant
points, namely (iii), (iv), (ii) and (v), giving her full marks for
content.
In general, the paragraph is well constructed and expressed,
(except perhaps for could successfully depict and completely
different than others); it is appropriately punctuated, free of
serious linguistic errors and linked by suitable connectors.
There is only one instance of lifting - the people around him
and the life they lead - but the number of words has been
Page 37
C A N D I DAT E C
In this passage the writer puts emphasis on the need of painting real life. This is
justified if we bear in mind that such paintings include, the personal opinion of an
artist, so they act as a invaluable document from these times. Consequently they are
realistic and full of life, in comparison with abstract art which are dead. Moreover
they are actual accounts of the past and are due to have a lasting interest in peoples
who will live hundreds of years later.
EXAMINER COMMENTS
The candidate gains 3 marks for points (v), (ii) and (iii) but fails
to express point (i) with sufficient clarity in the final sentence.
By being reasonably concise (83 words), relevant, attempting
to rephrase the language of the text and using connectors such
as This, Consequently and Moreover, the summary fulfils the
markschemes definition of an adequate attempt, putting it in
the 3-4 mark band. Its main weakness is a lack of linguistic
C A N D I DAT E D
In this text the writer wants to show us how important is to snap up all the old
exhibition catalogues we find. Furthermore he wants to show his approval of painting
the people around us and the life they lead. He believes that in this way the new
generations will be able to know about the way of life we lead. Also in this way of
painting every artist can be sure that his work will look at in the future.
EXAMINER COMMENTS
Points (ii) and (i) are made in the third and fourth sentences,
giving only 2 marks for content and conveying the
impression that this candidate had not properly understood
the task or was unable to extract the required information
from the text.
This impression is reinforced by the first two sentences
which are nothing more than irrelevant lifting from the
passage. Although the paragraph conforms to the prescribed
length, it repeats certain phrases, making virtually no use of
connectors and suffers from poor expression, e.g., this work
Page 38
C A N D I DAT E E
The most important reason according to the writer is that in few years time people will
be interested in previous years and they will want to know what there was before
them. So as a result the abstract paintings will not be wanted. He also thinks that the
only way to make paintings more endurable is to depict in it the real life. Finally he
believes that it worths showing through paintings the real life, the daily simple and
everyday facts.
EXAMINER COMMENTS
Point (ii) is correctly identified at the beginning of the
paragraph, whereas (i) is subsequently hinted at but too
vaguely to justify the mark, giving only 1 for content.
The candidates version shows some evidence of basic
summary skills and knowledge of what is required, it does not
exceed the prescribed length or rely on lifting and it attempts
to use connectors. It is, however, marred by some irrelevance,
Page 39
PA P E R 4 L I S T E N I N G C O M P R E H E N S I O N
General Description
Paper Format
Task Types
Number of Questions
Task Focus
Approximately 25 - 30.
Text Types
From the following: announcements, radio broadcasts,
public speeches, interviews, talks, lectures, meetings, etc.
Answering
For all parts of this paper candidates write their answers on
an answer sheet.
Recording Information
Each text is heard twice.
Recordings will contain a variety of accents corresponding to
standard variants of English native speaker accent, and to
English non-native speaker accents that approximate to the
norms of native speaker accents.
Background sounds may be included before speaking begins,
to provide contextual information.
Approximately 40 minutes.
Marks
Each question in this paper carries one mark. The total score
is then weighted out of a maximum 20 marks for the whole
paper.
Number of
Questions
Task Format
Approx.
25 - 30
Understanding specific
information, gist, tone and
attitude, main points and
detail, deducing meaning.
Page 40
Timing
P R E PA R I N G F O R PA P E R 4
This paper comprises three or four recordings each with a
separate task. On any one version of the paper there is a
range of task and text types, reflecting the variety of realworld listening situations which candidates at this level need
to be able to cope with. Whilst the paper has no
predetermined format, certain text and task types occur
regularly and candidates should be both familiar with these
and prepared in terms of the listening skills tested by each
task type.
Text Types
Texts are adapted from authentic sources and recorded in a
studio to ensure the required level of sound quality. Texts
may take the form of monologues, dialogues, three-way
conversations or include contributions from a number of
speakers. They have their origin in a range of authentic
sources, including broadcast interviews and documentary
features, talks and lectures, public announcements and more
informal conversations.
Task Types
Each text is accompanied by a task that aims to test the
communicative point of what is said. Some of these tasks
may represent an authentic response to a text, for example,
where a listener takes notes in a talk or lecture. Others are
more abstract, testing areas of understanding in situations
where the listener in the real world makes no direct
response, for example, multiple-choice questions.
The main task types can be divided into those which are
productive, where the candidates give a written response to
some kind of prompt, and objective, where the candidates
choose from a number of alternatives.
Productive Tasks
There are two main types of productive task, each of which
requires quite a different kind of response from the
candidate.
Note Taking
Candidates are asked to note down points of information
from the text in response to given prompts. These prompts
may take the form of questions to be answered, lists of points
under headings to be completed, or the notes made by an
imagined listener with certain sections gapped out.
Candidates are required to write a word or short phrase in
response to prompts which focus on the main points of
information presented in the text. Such tasks test listening
for detail, the ability to follow the structure of the text and
locate relevant information. Most answers will be short,
often single words or noun groups, and these should be
spelled correctly. Candidates will not be asked to produce
or interpret any particular system of note taking and will not
Sentence Completion
Candidates are asked to complete gaps in sentences with
information from the text. The sentences provide a kind of
summary of the main ideas presented in the text and may
focus on abstract ideas and feelings expressed by speakers as
well as points of information. Such tasks test a wide range
of listening skills, therefore, in addition to those tested by
note taking, including the attitudes and opinions of speakers,
both stated and implied. Most answers are short, again
generally in the form of single words or noun groups, must
be spelled correctly and must fit into the grammatical
structure of the sentence. Candidates need to check
carefully, therefore, that their answers produce a final
completed sentence which is both coherent and
grammatically correct, as well as including the relevant
information. Candidates should be discouraged from
attempting to write long or complicated answers, the size of
the boxes on the question paper and answer sheet serving as
a guide to the length of expected responses.
In productive tasks, the questions generally follow the order
of information found in the text, and candidates will often
write down actual words that are heard on the tape. They
should not automatically assume that there is a need to find
synonyms or to paraphrase ideas, but should aim to
complete the task with the information given in the manner
most appropriate to the task.
Objective Tasks
The most familiar objective task type is multiple choice
which is regularly used on the paper. It is especially suitable
for testing the understanding of texts that include both
concrete information and more abstract ideas. It is often used
to test understanding of the attitudes and opinions of
speakers, both stated and implied, as well as the ability to
distinguish what was said from what was not said.
Other objective tasks include those where two or three
alternatives are provided. They are often used with texts of a
more conversational nature and the testing focus may be on
the attitudes and opinions of speakers, on what was said or
not said, or may focus on whether or not speakers are in
agreement on certain points. For example, each of a list of
statements may reflect the views of one of three speakers, or
candidates may be asked to decide which of two speakers
holds a given opinion and whether they agree. In such tasks,
candidates should be listening for the attitudes of speakers as
expressed through intonation and choice of idiom as well as
through what is directly stated.
In objective tasks, the questions generally follow the order of
information found in the text, but the final question may test
global understanding of the text as a whole.
Page 41
Page 42
Page 44
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
26
25
24
23
22
21
20
19
18
17
Listen to this discussion between two friends, Anne and Dave, who have been to the cinema to
see a film. For questions 17 - 26, indicate which of the opinions listed are given by each
speaker.
PART THREE
PA P E R 4 TA P E S C R I P T
PART 1
Announcer:
Roland
Mackie:
Page 45
Marjorie
Interviewer:
Marjorie:
Interviewer:
Marjorie:
Interviewer:
Marjorie:
Interviewer:
PART 3
Marjorie:
Dave:
Anne:
Dave:
Anne:
Dave:
Anne:
Dave:
Anne:
Dave:
Interviewer:
Marjorie:
Interviewer:
Marjorie:
Page 46
Anne:
Dave:
Anne:
Dave:
Anne:
Dave:
Anne:
Dave:
Anne:
Dave:
Anne:
Dave:
Mmmm...?
Anne:
Dave:
Anne:
Dave:
Anne:
Dave:
Anne:
Dave:
Youre a softie.
Anne:
Dave:
Anne:
Dave:
Anne:
Page 47
PA P E R 4 A N S W E R K E Y
Part One
Part Three
1
2
3
4
5
6
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
C
B
C
B
D
C
Part Two
7
(worlds) largest/biggest (in the world)
8
isolated people/the community
9
one big pie/big pies/a giant pie
10
(went/was) bad
11
so/too big/large/vast/enormous
12
qualifications/degree (in food technology)/training
13
all night (cooking)
14
crying/weeping
15
organise the serving/organise sixty/60 women
16
(had) finished (serving) the pie
PA P E R 4 L I S T E N I N G C O M P R E H E N S I O N A N S W E R S H E E T
Page 48
A
B
D
A
A
D
A
B
B
D
PA P E R 5 I N T E RV I E W
Task Types
General Description
Paper Format
Task Focus
There are nine general theme based packages and three set
text packages.
Timing
The set text packages contain three parts: photographs,
extracts, discussion.
The test may be taken singly, in pairs, or in a group of three.
In the single, and sometimes the paired format, one
examiner acts as both interlocutor and assessor. In the group
format (and the paired format in some centres) there are two
examiners; one acts as interlocutor and the other as assessor.
The assessor takes no part in the interaction.
Part
Establishing the
theme
Marks
Candidates are assessed on their performance throughout the
test, in relation to Fluency, Grammatical Accuracy, Prosodic
Features, Individual sounds, Interactive Communication and
Vocabulary Resource.
Length of
Parts
Task Format
1 candidate
5 minutes
2 candidates
7 minutes
3 candidates
10 minutes
1 candidate
2 minutes
2 candidates
3 minutes
3 candidates
3 minutes
Communicative
activity based
on the theme
1 candidate
5 minutes
Demonstrating rhetorical
skills, e.g., negotiating,
collaborating, persuading,
reporting, justifying, etc.
2 candidates
8 minutes
3 candidates
12 minutes
Page 49
P R E PA R I N G F O R PA P E R 5
The Speaking Test consists of a theme-based conversation
between the candidate and the examiner, or in the case of
group tests, among the candidates with occasional
intervention by the examiner. Prompt material consisting of
photographs, short passages, authentic texts and problemsolving activities is used to stimulate and guide the
discussion.
The Speaking Test is divided into three parts and candidates
can be prepared for the test by practising talking in groups
or in pairs about a wide variety of topics. Learners should
be encouraged at all times to do more than just answer
questions and to participate actively in a variety of
communicative activities and discussions. The examination
expects candidates to have a certain maturity of approach to
their topic as well as more straightforward ones. They are
required to produce long stretches of clear, coherent speech
and to perform well in complex and serious discussions.
The material that is used in this test is designed to give
candidates the opportunity to demonstrate that ability.
When preparing, candidates should be given similarly
suitable material as a stimulus. Throughout the test
candidates should not be afraid to ask for clarification if they
have not understood what has been said.
After a brief introduction, in which the examiner greets the
candidates and asks one or two brief, social questions to
settle them, the candidates are then handed the themerelated material.
The Photographs
In this part the candidates are asked to speak about the
people or places in the photographs or to compare the
photographs. The conversation starts with specific
commentary of the situation shown in the pictures, but
detailed descriptions requiring specialised vocabulary are
not part of the test. It moves to an in-depth discussion on
associated themes, with the candidates being encouraged to
speak freely. This part of the test is intended to elicit an
extended sample of language and candidates should be
given practice in developing topics based on their own
views and experiences.
The Passages
The candidates are then asked to read through one of the
short passages quickly to themselves and to comment on it,
saying where they think the passage may have been taken
from and how it relates to the general theme of the
discussion, giving reasons for their opinion. This part tests
candidates ability to comment on the source and the register
of the passage as well as to expand further the theme for
discussion. Learners may need practice in absorbing the
discussion content quickly from short texts and other
material, without attempting to puzzle out every word or
background reference. The passages may be taken from a
Page 50
1 Fluency
2 Grammatical
Accuracy
3 Pronunciation
(sentences)
4 Pronunciation
(individual sounds)
Correct use of consonants and vowels in stressed and unstressed position for
ease of understanding.
5 Interactive
Communication
6 Vocabulary
Resource
Page 51
Cambridge
Main Suite
CPE
CAE
FCE
PET
KET
CAMBRIDGE LEVEL 5
Fully operational command of the spoken language.
Able to handle communication in most situations, including unfamiliar or unexpected ones.
Able to use accurate and appropriate linguistic resources to express complex ideas and concepts and
produce extended discourse that is coherent and always easy to follow.
Rarely produces inaccuracies and inappropriacies.
Pronunciation is easily understood and prosodic features are used effectively; many features including
pausing and hesitation are native-like.
CAMBRIDGE LEVEL 4
Good operational command of the spoken language.
Able to handle communication in most situations.
Able to use accurate and appropriate linguistic resources to express ideas and produce discourse that is
generally coherent.
Occasionally produces inaccuracies and inappropriacies.
Maintains a flow of language with only natural hesitation resulting from considerations of appropriacy
or expression.
L1 accent may be evident but does not affect the clarity of the message.
CAMBRIDGE LEVEL 3
Generally effective command of the spoken language.
Able to handle communication in familiar situations.
Able to organise extended discourse but occasionally produces utterances that lack coherence and
some inaccuracies and inappropriate usage occur.
Maintains a flow of language, although hesitation may occur whilst searching for language resources.
Although pronunciation is easily understood, L1 features may be intrusive.
Does not require major assistance or prompting by an interlocutor.
CAMBRIDGE LEVEL 2 (Threshold)
Limited but effective command of the spoken language.
Able to handle communication in most familiar situations.
Able to construct longer utterances but is not able to use complex language except in well-rehearsed
utterances.
Has problems searching for language resources to express ideas and concepts resulting in pauses and
hesitation.
Pronunciation is generally intelligible, but L1 features may put a strain on the listener.
Has some ability to compensate for communication difficulties using repair strategies but may require
prompting and assistance by an interlocutor.
CAMBRIDGE LEVEL 1 (Waystage)
Basic command of the spoken language.
Able to convey basic meaning in very familiar or highly predictable situations.
Produces utterances which tend to be very short - words or phrases - with frequent hesitations and pauses.
Dependent on rehearsed or formulaic phrases with limited generative capacity.
Only able to produce limited extended discourse.
Pronunciation is heavily influenced by L1 features and may at times be difficult to understand.
Requires prompting and assistance by an interlocutor to prevent communication from breaking down.
Pre-Waystage Level
Zero
Page 52
GENERAL
What is the mark allocation for each paper?
Papers 1, 2, 3 and 5 are weighted at 40 marks; Paper 4
(Listening Comprehension) is weighted at 20 marks.
PA P E R 1 R E A D I N G C O M P R E H E N S I O N
PA P E R 3 U S E O F E N G L I S H
PA P E R 4 L I S T E N I N G C O M P R E H E N S I O N
If candidates make a mistake in filling in their answer
sheets, is this picked up by the computer?
If they omit a question, the computer accepts the answer
sheet. If they fill in more than one lozenge for a question,
the computer rejects it.
PA P E R 2 C O M P O S I T I O N
PA P E R 5 I N T E RV I E W
E N T R I E S & R E S U LT S
Page 58