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9. Which of the following are the three main types of metrics as defined in
Continual Service Improvement (CSI)?
1. Process Metrics
2. Supplier Metrics
3. Service Metrics
4. Technology Metrics
5. Business Metrics
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 4 and 5
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4
10. The priority of an Incident refers to?
a) The relative importance of the Incident based on impact and urgency
b) The speed with which the Incident needs to be resolved
c) The number of staff that will be assigned to work on the Incident so that it is
resolved in time
d) The escalation path that will be followed to ensure resolution of the incident
11. The goal of Service Asset and Configuration Management is to?
a) Account for all financial assets of the organization
b) Provide a logical model of the IT infrastructure, correlating IT services and
different IT components needed to deliver the services
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) All of the above
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
15. Business drivers and requirements for a new service should be considered
during?
a) Review of the router operating system patches
b) Review of the current capabilities of IT service delivery
c) The Post Implementation Review (PIR) of a change
d) Decommissioning legacy servers
16. The BEST definition of an event is?
a) An occurrence where a performance threshold has been exceeded and an
agreed Service Level has already been impacted
b) An occurrence that is significant for the management of the IT infrastructure or
delivery of services
c) A known system defect that generates multiple incident reports
d) A planned meeting of customers and IT staff to announce a new service or
improvement program
17. What does the Service V model represent?
a) A strategy for the successful completion of all Service Management projects
b) The path to Service Delivery and Service Support for efficient and effective
utilization of resources
c) Levels of Configuration and testing required to deliver a Service Capability
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
25. Which of the following statements are CORRECT about Functions?
1. They provide structure and stability to organizations
2. They are self-contained units with their own capabilities and resources
3. They rely on processes for cross-functional coordination and control
4. They are costlier to implement compared to processes
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
26. If an organization is able to become more proactive in its ITSM processes,
what is likely to happen to support costs?
a) They are likely to increase gradually
b) They are likely to increase dramatically
c) They are likely to gradually reduce
d) They are likely to reduce initially and then gradually return to current level
27. Which of the following statements about Supplier Management is INCORRECT?
a) Supplier Management negotiates internal and external agreements to support
the delivery of services
b) Supplier Management ensures that suppliers meet business expectations
c) Supplier Management maintains information in a Supplier and Contracts
Database
d) Supplier Management should be involved in all stages of the service lifecycle,
from Strategy through Design and Transition to Operations and Improvement
28. Which of the following BEST describes a Local Service Desk structure?
a) A Service Desk that also provides onsite technical support to its users
b) A Service Desk where analysts only speak one language
c) A Service Desk that is situated in the same location as the users it serves
d) A Service Desk that could be in any physical location but uses
telecommunications and IT systems to make it appear that they are in the same
location
29. What is the role of the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)?
a) To assist the Change Manager in ensuring that no urgent changes are made
during particularly volatile business periods
b) To assist the Change Manager in implementing emergency changes
c) To assist the Change Manager in evaluating emergency changes and to decide
whether the change should be approved
d) To assist the Change Manager in speeding up the emergency change process so
that no unacceptable delays occur.
30. Which of the following is a good use of a baseline?
a) The desired end state of a project
b) A marker or starting point for later comparison
c) The current desktop models in use
d) The type of testing to be done for a release
31. The main objective of Availability Management is?
a) To monitor and report availability of services and components
b) To ensure that all targets in Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are met
c) To guarantee availability levels for services and components
d) To ensure that service availability matches or exceeds the agreed needs of the
business
39. What is the CORRECT order of the first four activities in the 7 Step
Improvement Process?
a) Define what you should measure, define what you can measure, gather data
and process data
b) Gather data, process data, analyze data and present data
c) What is the vision, where are we now, what do we want to be, how do we get
there?
d) Gather data, process data, define what you should measure and define what
you can measure
40. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for all processes?
a) They define activities, roles, responsibilities, functions and metrics
b) They create value for stakeholders
c) They are carried out by a Service Provider in support of a Customer
d) They are units of organizations responsible for specific outcomes
6. Which of the following statements about the Service Desk are CORRECT?
1. The Service Desk is a function that provides a means of communication
between IT and its users for all operational issues
2. The Service Desk is always the owner of the Incident Management process
a) 2 only
b) 1 only
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
7. How does an organization use Resources and Capabilities in creating value?
a) They are used to create value in the form of output for production management
b) They are used to create value in the form of goods and services
c) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Support
d) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Delivery
8. In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of the following?
1. Service Portfolio Management
2. Demand Management
3. Financial Management
a) Service Operations
b) Service Strategy
c) Service Transition
d) Continual Service Improvement
9. Which of the following statements BEST describes the role of Communication
during Service Operation?
a) Communication is defined as part of all processes and is executed in Service
Operation
b) Communication is a separate process that needs to be defined and executed
with Service Operation
c) Good communication is essential for successful Service Operation, just as it is
for any other phase of the Lifecycle
d) Communication is more important in Service Operation than in any other stage
of the Service Lifecycle
10. A Process owner is responsible for which of the following?
a) Purchasing tools to support the Process
b) Ensuring that targets specified in an SLA are met
c) Carrying out activities defined in the Process
d) Monitoring and improving the Process
11. Demand Management is primarily used to?
a) Increase customer value
b) Eliminate excess capacity needs
c) Increase the value of IT
d) Align business with IT cost
12. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of organizing Continual Service
Improvement (CSI) using the RACI model?
19. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the
Service Transition phase of the lifecycle?
1. Data mining and workflow tools
2. Measurement and reporting systems
3. Release and Deployment technology
4. Process Design
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above
20. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about good practice?
a) It can be used to drive an organization forward
b) It is something that is in wide industry use
c) It is always documented in international standards
d) It is always based on ITIL
c) Ensuring that all changes have appropriate back-out plans in the event of
failure
d) Protecting services by not allowing changes to be made
29. Functions are best described as?
a) Without their own body of knowledge
b) Closed loop systems
c) Self-Contained units of organizations
d) Focusing on transformation to a goal
30. What is the best definition of an Incident Model?
a) The template used to define the Incident logging form used to report Incidents
b) A type of Incident involving a standard (or model) type of Configuration Item
(CI)
c) A set of pre-defined steps to be followed when dealing with a known type of
Incident
d) An Incident that is easy to solve
31. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY defines Insourcing and
Outsourcing delivery model options?
a) Insourcing relies on internal resources; outsourcing relies on external
organization(s) resources
b) Insourcing relies on external organization(s) resources; outsourcing relies on
internal resources
c) Insourcing relies on co-sourcing; outsourcing relies on partnerships
d) Insourcing relies on knowledge process outsourcing; outsourcing relies on
application service provisioning
32. Why should monitoring and measuring be used when trying to improve
services?
a) To validate, direct, justify and intervene
d) 1 and 3 only
36. Which is the first activity of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model?
a) Assess the current business situation
b) Understand high-level business requirements
c) Agree on priorities for improvement
d) Create and verify a plan
37. An Incident occurs when:
1. A user is unable to access a service during service hours
2. An authorized IT staff member is unable to access a service during service
hours
3. A redundant network segment fails, and the user is not aware of any disruption
to service
4. A user contacts the Service Desk about slow performance of an application
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
a) All of the above
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None of the above
38. Which process reviews Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) on a regular
basis?
a) Supplier Management
b) Service Level Management
c) Service Portfolio Management
d) Contract Management
39. The 7 Step Improvement Process can most accurately be described as?
a) The Seven Ps of Continual Service Improvement (CSI)
b) A service improvement methodology based on the Deming Cycle
c) A set of roles and responsibilities for managing service improvements
d) A process for defining what is to be measured, gathering the data, processing
the data and using it to take corrective action
40. The Information Security Policy should be available to which groups of
people?
a) Senior business managers and all IT staff
b) Senior business managers, IT executives and the Security Manager
c) All customers, users and IT staff
d) Information Security Management staff only
Answers to ITIL V3 Sample Paper 2:
01. c. 02. d. 03. c 04. d. 05. b. 06. d. 07. b. 08. b. 09. c. 10. d.
11. b. 12. d. 13. a. 14. b. 15. a. 16. d. 17. b. 18. a. 19. a. 20. b.
21. b. 22. d. 23. d. 24. d. 25. c. 26. c. 27. b. 28. a. 29. c. 30. c
31. a. 32. a. 33. a. 34. d. 35. c. 36. b. 37. a. 38. b. 39. d. 40. c.
Certification 3
ITIL Dumps Practice Paper 3
1. Which of the following best means Combination of Internal & External
Sourcing?
A. Internal Sourcing-.
B. External Sourcing
C. Co-Sourcing
D. Managed Services
2. Major Incidents require?
A. Separate procedures
B. Less urgency
C. Longer timescales
D. Less documentation
3. Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
A. Knowledge
B. Information
C. Wisdom
D. Data
4. The spell check module of a word-processing software package contains a
number of errors. The Development department has corrected these errors in a
new version. Which process is responsible for ensuring this updated version is
tested?
A. Configuration Management
B. Incident Management
C. Problem Management
D. Release Management
5. The Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle can be used to plan and implement Service
Management Processes:
How many times should each stage of the cycle be visited?
A. There should be a single Plan and Do, and then Check and Act should be
carried out multiple times to Implement Continual Improvement
B. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to Implement Continual
Improvement
D. There should be a single %n. then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated
multiple times to Implement Continual improvement
6. Consider the following statements:
1. Processes should be implemented in such a way that the Role and
Function in an organization are defined
2. The RACI model Is beneficial to design Function
Which of the above statements are CORRECT?
A. 1 Only
B. Both of the above
C. Neither of the above
D. 2 only
7. Which of the following is the process rather than a department?
A. Application Management
B. Operations Management
C. Service Desk
D. Availability Management
8. Which of the following statements fully describes the aim of Release and
Deployment Management?
A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by
Service Design and that will accomplish the stakeholders requirements and
deliver the Intended objectives
B. To ensure that each release package specified by Service Design consists of a
set of related assets and service components that are compatible with each other
C. To ensure that all release and deployment packages can be tracked, installed,
tested, verified, and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate
D. To record and manage deviations, risks, and issues related to the new or
changed service
9. Which of the following may be defined in a process?
1. Roles
2. Activities
3. Functions
4. Guidelines
5. Standards
6. Governance Framework
A. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
B. All of the above
C. 1. 2, 5 and 6 only
D. 1, 2, 4, and 5 only
10. A Service Provider is?
A. An organization supplying services to one or more external customers
B. An organization supplying services to one or more internal customers or
external customers
A. The Process responsible for allowing Users to make use of IT Services, data, or
other Assets.
B. Access Management helps to protect the Confidentiality, Integrity and
Availability of Assets by ensuring that only authorized Users are able to access or
modify the Assets.
C. Access Management is sometimes referred to as Rights Management or
Identity Management.
D. All of above
15. What aspects would you not expect to see in a Service Level report designed
for the customer?
A. The average utilization level of the Service Desk
B. The level of availability realized and the time not available per period
C. The percentage of incidents that was resolved within the target
D. The successful and reverted Changes during a specific period
16. Availability Management is responsible for availability of?
A. Services and Resources
B. Services and Business Processes
C. Resources and Business Processes
D. Services, Resources and Business Processes
17. What is the difference between a process and a project?
A. A process is continuous and has no end date, whereas a project has a finite
lifespan.
B. A project is continuous and has no end date, whereas a process has a finite
lifespan.
C. A process stops when the objective has been achieved, whereas a project does
not stop when the objective is met.
D. In a project the focus is not on the result, whereas with a process the result is
important
18. Which of the following is the correct set of steps for the Continual Service
improvement (CSI) Model?
A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the
Solution; continually improve
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived;
How do we keep the momentum going?
C. identifies the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes;
Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; improve the
solution
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we
get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
19. What is the meaning of the term Serviceability?
A. The degree of availability of the IT services that can be offered
B. The degree of support that the Service Desk provides to the customer
C. The degree to which the provision of IT services can be supported by
maintenance contracts
D. The degree to which the services agreed in the Service Level Agreement (SLA)
are complied with
20. A user reports a PC problem to the Service Desk. A Service Desk
representative determines that the PC is defective and indicates that according to
the services catalogue, the PC will be replaced within three hours. Which ITIL
process is responsible for having this user's PC replaced within three hours?
A. Availability Management
B. Change Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Service Level Management
29. Which of the following steps from the continual improvement Model is
missing?
1. What Is the vision?
2. Where are we now?
3. Where do we want to be?
4. How do we get there?
5. Did we get there?
6.?
A. What is the ROI
B. How much did it cost.
C. How do we keep the momentum going.
D. What is the VOI?
30. Which of the following best describes the goal of Information Security
Management Process?
A. To align IT security with business security and ensure that information security
is effectively managed in all service and Service Management activities.
B. To ensure that that the information security risks are appropriately managed
and enterprise information resources are used responsibly.
C. To provide a focus for all aspects of IT security and manage all IT security
activities.
D. To provide the strategic direction for security activities and ensures objectives
are achieved
31. Which of the following statements about Supplier and Contract Database
(SCD) are correct?
1. A database or structured Document used to manage Supplier Contracts
throughout their Lifecycle.
2. The SCD contains key Attributes of all Contracts with Suppliers
B. The term Event is also used to mean an Alert or notification created by any IT
Service, configuration Item or Monitoring tool.
C. Events typically require IT Operations personnel to take actions, and often lead
to Incidents being logged
D. All of above
35. Which of the following is the best description of the contents of the Definitive
Media Library (DML)?
A. Copies of all software versions that are needed
B. Copies of all live software programs
C. Authorized versions of all software used on the infrastructure
D. Software awaiting user acceptance testing
36. Application Portfolio
1. A database or structured Document used to manage Applications throughout
their Lifecycle.
2. The Application Portfolio contains key Attributes of all Applications.
3. The Application Portfolio is sometimes implemented as part of the Service
Portfolio, or as part of the Configuration Management System.
Which of the above statements is correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 & 3only
C. All of above
D. 1 & 2 only
37. Which of the following best describes Fault Tolerance?
A. The ability of an IT Service or Configuration Item to continue to operate
correctly after Failure of a Component part.
B. The ability of a third-party supplier to meet the terms of their contract. Often
this contract will include agreed levels of availability, reliability and/or
maintainability for a supporting service or component.
C. A measure of how quickly and effectively a service, component or CI can be
restored to normal working after a failure.
D. A measure of how long a service, component or CI can perform its agreed
function without interruption
38. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Capacity Plan?
A. Capacity Forecasts
B. Recommendations
C. Components and resource forecasts
D. Countermeasures for risks
39. How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Service Level
Management process?
A. By checking contracts with suppliers
B. By measuring customer satisfaction
C. By defining service levels
D. By reporting on all incidents
40. What is the first activity when implementing a release?
A. Designing and building a release
B. Testing a release
C. Compiling the release schedule
D. Communicating and preparing the release