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CHEMISTRY TEST
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2. A gaseous mixture contains oxygen and nitrogen in the ratio of 1:4 by wt. Therefore the
ratio of their number of molecules is?
A) 1:4 B) 2:7 C) 7:32 D) 3:16
3. The largest number of molecules is in?
A) 36g H2O B) 28g CO C) 46 g C2H5OH D) 54g NO5
4. 1.12 litre of oxygen at .T.P contains 3x1022 molecules. The volume SO2 at .T.P which
will contain the same number of molecules?
A) 22.4 l B) 1.12 l C) 0.56 l D) 4.44 l
6. 2.4 g of a gaseous compound having same volume as that of 0.4 g of ethane gas. The mol.
Wt. of gaseous compound is?
A) 180 B) 240 C) 120 D) None
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CHEMICAL LANGUAGE
15. 12g of magnesium on reacting completely with acid gives hydrogen gas, the volumes of
which of .T.P would be?
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16. One litre of a gas at S.T.P weight 1.16g.It can be possible be?
A) C2H2 B) CO C) O2 D) CH4
17. 0.5 mole of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.2 mole of a3PO4.The maximum number of mole of
Ba3(PO)4 that can be formed is?
A) 0.7 B) 0.5 C) 0.3 D) 0.1
18. 19.7kg of gold was recovered from a smuggler. How many atoms of gold were recovered?
A) 100 B) 6.02 x 1023 C) 6.02 x 1024 D) 6.02 x 1025
19. How many formula units are there in a 42g sample of (H4)2Cr2O7 (formula wt=252)?
A) 7.0 x 1023 B) 1x 1023 C) 6 x 1023 D) 1.4 x 1023
20. The number of atoms present in 1 g of hydrogen gas is the same as present in?
A) 0.4 g of He B) 22 g of CO2 C) 6 g of H2O D) 12 g of CO
24. A hydrogen contains C=80%, H=20%. What is the empirical formula of compound
(C=12, H=1)
A) CH2 B) CH3 C) CH4 D) C2H6
26. Paracetamol C6H5(OH)HCOOH3 has molecular mass 156. It contains nitrogen by
weight?
A) 8.9 B) 11.1 C) 14 D) None of them
27. An anti-freeze has empirical formula CH3O. Its molecular mass is 62. What is its
molecular formula
A) CH3O B) C6H186O62 C) C2H6O D) C2H6O2
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CHEMICAL LANGUAGE
29. Which one of the following compound, does not have the empirical formula CH2O
A) HCHO B) C6H12O12 C) CH3COOH D) CH3CH2OH
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CHEMICAL LANGUAGE
CHEMISTRY TEST
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2. Which of the following process is used to separate insoluble particles from liquid?
A) Separation B) Filtration C) Crystallization D) Condensation
7. When a solid which has high vapour pressure at a temperature below its boiling point, is
heated, it starts
A) Subliming B) Melting C) Decomposing D) Condensing
9. In which process solid phase and vapour phase are directly involved?
A) Sublimation B) Condensation C) Vaporization D) Filtration
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CHEMICAL LANGUAGE
A) Quality analysis B) Quantitative C) Determination of D) All of above
purity of substance
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CHEMICAL LANGUAGE
CHEMISTRY TEST
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6. Excluding H and He, the smallest element in the periodic table is?
A) Li B) F C) Cs D) I
10. Which of the following will have the greatest value of Electronegativity when combined
with hydrogen?
A) Na B) Si C) S D) Cl
13. Which of the following metal require radiation of highest frequency to cause emission of
electrons?
A) Na B) Mg C) K D) Ca
14. Which of the following have lowest ionization energy?
A) Pb B) Sn C) Si D) C
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CHEMICAL LANGUAGE
15. Among O, C, F, Cl and Br, the correct order of increasing radii is?
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16. The correct arrangement of increasing order of atomic radius among a, K, Mg, Rb is?
A) Mg< K<Na<Rb B) Mg<Na<K<Rb C) Mg<a<Rb<K D) Na<K<Rb<Mg
17. The correct order of electron affinity among the following is?
A) F > Cl > Br B) Br > Cl > F C) Cl > F > Br D) F > Br > Cl
18. The element with the highest value of electron affinity among the halogens is?
A) F B) Cl C) Br D) I
19. Which of the following iso-electronic ions has the lowest ionization energy?
A) K+ B) Ca2+ C) Cl- D) S2-
21. Two elements whose electronegativities are 1.2 and 3.0, will form which bond?
A) Ionic B) Covalent C) Coordinate D) Metallic
23. Which of the following ion has the highest value of ionic radius?
A) Li+ B) F- C) O2- D) B3+
24. The halogens are expected to have high electron affinity because of their?
A) Small Size B) Outer Electronic C) Large size D) None
Configuration
25. A compound with formula XY is likely to be formed, if the elements X and Y are in
group?
A) II and VII B) I and VII C) V and VII D) III and VII
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CHEMICAL LANGUAGE
CHEMISTRY TEST
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3. The rate of diffusion of methane at a given temperature is twice that of a gas X. The
molecular weight of X is?
A) 64 B) 32 C) 4 D) 8
4. Helium diffuses twice as fast as another gas B. If the vapour density of Helium is two, the
molecular weight of B is?
A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) 24
5. The vapour density of a gas is 11.2. The volume occupied by 11.2 g of the gas at .T.P is?
A) 1 litre B) 11.2 litre C) 22.4 litre D) 44.8 litre
6. Two gases A and B, having moles ration 4:8 in a container; exert a pressure of 12 atm. If
A is removed, what would be the pressure due to B only, temperature remaining constant?
A) 4 atm B) 8 atm C) 12 atm D) None
7. A mixture in a gas cylinder at 1 atm pressure contains 65% 2, 15% O2, and 20% H2 by
volume. The partial pressure of nitrogen is?
A) 0.65 atm B) 65 atm C) 130 atm D) None
8. A closed vessel contains equal number of oxygen and hydrogen molecules at a total
pressure of 7400 mm. If oxygen is removed from the system, the pressure will?
A) become 1/9th of B) become ½th of C) remain D) becomes double
740 mm 740 mm unchanged of 740 mm
9. At what temperature will be the volume of a gas at 0°C double itself pressure remaining
constant?
A) 546 °C B) 273 K C) 546 °F D) 546 K
10. When the temperature of 23 ml of dry CO2 gas changed from 10°C to 90°C at constant
pressure of 760 mm the volumes of the gas becomes closest to?
A) 21 ml B) 29.5 ml C) 24.6 ml D) 25 ml
11. If 2 moles of an ideal gas at 546 K occupies a volume of 44.8 litres the pressure must be?
A) 2 atm B) 4 atm C) 3 atm D) 1 atm
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CHEMICAL LANGUAGE
12. A bottle of cold drink contains 200 ml liquid in which CO2 is 0.1 molar. Suppose CO2
behaves like an ideals gas, the volume of the dissolved CO2, at STP is?
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13. The temperature of a sample of SO2 gas is raised from 27°C to 327°C.The average
kinetic energy of the gas molecule is?
A) doubled B) halved C) multiplied by the D) raised to the
factor of 327/27 power of two
14. The ratio of the rates of diffusion of CO2 and a gaseous oxide is 1.2:1 .The molecular
weight of the gaseous oxide is?
A) 63.36 B) 0.6336 C) 6.336 D) None
15. The volume of a given mass of gas is 117 ml at 39°C .At what temperature will it be 213
ml?
A) 273 K B) 39°C C) 426 K D) 153 K
16. If 3 litres of oxygen are heated from 27°C to 45°C keeping pressure constant at 1 atm,
the new volume will be?
A) 5 litres B) 4.67 litres C) 4.06 litres D) 3.18 litres
17. The rate of diffusion of a gas A and B of mol. Wt. 100 and 81 respectively are in the
ratio of?
A) 9:10 B) 10:09 C) 100:81 D) 81:100
18. If 10 g of a gas at 1 atm pressure is cooled from 273C 10 0C keeping the volume
constant, its pressure would become?
A) 1/2 atm B) 1/273 atm C) 2 atm D) 273 atm
23. Gases exert pressure on the walls of the containing vessel because of the gas molecules
A) Possess B) Collide with each C) Have finite D) Obey gas laws
momentum other volume
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CHEMICAL LANGUAGE
24. In the kinetic molecular theory of gases; One assumes that the collisions between the
molecules are?
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31. Most crystals show good cleaning because their atoms, ions and molecules are?
A) Weakly bonded B) Strongly bonded C) Spherically D) Arranged in
together together symmetrical planes
33. If the concentration of water vapour in the air is 1% and the total atmospheric pressure
equals to 1 atm then partial pressure of water vapour is?
A) 0.1 atm B) 1 mm of Hg C) 7.6 mm of Hg D) 100 atm
34. The pressure of gas having 2 moles in 44.8 litre vessel at 540 K is?
A) 1 atm B) 2 atm C) 3 atm D) 4 atm
36. If the rate of diffusion of A is 5 times that of B. What will be the density ratio of A and
B?
A) 1/25th B) 1/5th C) 25 D) 5
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CHEMICAL LANGUAGE
37. If the pressure of a gas contained in a closed vessel is increased by 0.4% when heated by
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38. Which has the highest rate of diffusion under similar conditions of P and T?
A) CO2 B) NH3 C) N2 D) O2
40. The temperature at which real gases obey the ideal gas laws over a wide range of
pressure is called?
A) Critical B) Boyle C) Inversion D) Reduced
temperature Temperature Temperature Temperature
41. Equal masses of methane and hydrogen are mixed in an empty container at 25°C.The
fraction of the total pressure exerted by Hydrogen is?
A) ½th B) 8/9th C) 1/9th D) 16/17th
46. The densities of two gases are in the ratio of 1:16. The ratio of their rates of diffusion is?
A) 16:1 B) 4:1 C) 1:4 D) 1:16
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CHEMICAL LANGUAGE
CHEMISTRY TEST
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3. The most important factor in determining the chemical behaviour of an atom is its?
A) Nuclear Structure B) Electronic C) Atomic Weight D) Solubility
Configuration
6. The lightest and simplest canal ray particles are formed when a gas discharge tube
contains?
A) Nitrogen B) Hydrogen C) Helium D) Oxygen
9. When electrons are allowed to pass through magnetic field, they bend towards?
A) North Pole B) South Pole C) None D) All
10. The nuclear radiation that has the maximum capacity to ionize the gases is called?
A) Beta B) Gamma C) Alpha D) Cathode Rays
11. Which of the following colours have the shortest wavelength in the visible spectrum of
light?
A) Red B) Violet C) Green D) Yellow
12. Which of the following colours have the longest wavelength in the visible spectrum of
light?
A) Red B) Violet C) Green D) Yellow
13. Which of the following was the major discovery in the field of atomic science, credited
to Sit Rutherford?
A) Proton B) Neutron C) Electron D) Nucleus
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CHEMICAL LANGUAGE
14. Which of the following quantum numbers is in that describes the energy of an electron
in an atom?
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15. Which of the following quantum numbers is in that describes the shape of an orbital?
A) Magnetic B) Spin C) Azimuthal D) Principal
16. Which of the following quantum numbers is the one that describes the orientation of an
orbital?
A) Magnetic B) Spin C) Azimuthal D) Principle
17. Which of the following quantum numbers is the one that describes the magnetic
properties of an electron?
A) Magnetic B) Spin C) Azimuthal D) Principle
23. With Increasing principal quantum number, the energy difference between adjacent
energy levels in H atom?
A) Decreases B) Increases C) Remains Constant D) Changes with Z
25. The maximum number of electrons in a sub-shell for which l=3 is?
A) 14 B) 10 C) 8 D) 4
26. The number of electrons in the M shell of the element with atomic number 24 is?
A) 14 B) 12 C) 13 D) 8
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CHEMICAL LANGUAGE
28. Which quantum number is sufficient to describe the electron in hydrogen atom?
A) l B) n C) m D) s
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31. Sodium Chloride imparts yellow colour to the Bunsen flame. This can be interpreted
due to?
A) Low I.P of B) Sublimation of C) emission of excess D) Photosensitivity
Sodium metallic Na to give energy absorbed as of Sodium
yellow vapour a radiation in
visible region
32. Subsidiary quantum number specifies?
A) Size of Orbital B) Shape of Orbital C) Orientation of D) Nuclear Stability
Orbitals
34. If atomic numbers of nickel and copper are 28 and 29 respectively, which of the
following does the electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d6 represent?
A) Cu+ B) Cu2+ C) Ni2+ D) Ni
37. The total number of possible values of magnetic quantum number for the value of l=3
is?
A) 3 B) 1 C) 5 D) 7
38. If the value of principal quantum number is 3, the total possible values for magnetic
quantum number will be?
A) 1 B) 4 C) 9 D) 12
39. For which of the following sets of quantum numbers, an electron will have the highest
energy?
A) 3, 2, 1, ½ B) 4, 2, -1, ½ C) 4, 1, 0, -½ D) 5, 0, 0, ½
41. If the radius of first Bohr orbit be a0, then the radius of third Bohr orbit would be?
A) 3 x a0 B) 6 x a0 C) 9 x a0 D) ½ x a0
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CHEMICAL LANGUAGE
42. An electron has principal quantum number 3. The number of its (a) subshells and (b)
orbitals would be?
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43. The four quantum numbers of the valence electron of potassium are?
A) 4, 1, 1, ½ B) 4, 0, 0, ½ C) 4, 1, 0, ½ D) 4, 4, 0, ½
46. The third line of the Balmer series, in the emission spectrum of hydrogen atom is due to
the transition from the?
A) 4th Bohr orbit to B) 6th Bohr orbit to C) 7th Bohr orbit to D) 5th Bohr orbit to
st rd rd
1 Bohr Orbit 3 Bohr Orbit 3 Bohr Orbit 2nd Bohr Orbit
48. Which of the following element’s outermost orbits last electron has magnetic quantum
number m=0?
A) Na B) O C) Cl D) N
52. The atomic number of an element is 35. What is the total number of electrons present in
all the p-orbitals of the ground state atom of that element?
A) 6 B) 11 C) 17 D) 23
53. For the principal quantum number, n = 4, the total number of orbitals having l = 3 is?
A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9
54. The correct set of quantum numbers (n, l & m) respectively of the unpaired electron of
chlorine atom is?
A) 2, 1, 0 B) 2, 1, 1 C) 3, 1, 1 D) 3, 2, 1
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CHEMICAL LANGUAGE
CHEMISTRY TEST
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7. Total number of electrons that take part in the forming bonds in 2 is?
A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 10
11. Among the following one with the highest second ionization potential is?
A) Nitrogen B) Carbon C) Fluorine D) Oxygen
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CHEMICAL LANGUAGE
15. Type of bonding in HCl molecule is?
A) Pure covalent B) Polar covalent C) Highly polar D) H-bonding
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18. The molecule which has the largest dipole moment is?
A) CH4 B) CHCl3 C) CCl4 D) CHI3
23. Which of the following halogen has the highest bond energy?
A) F2 B) Cl2 C) Br2 D) I2
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CHEMICAL LANGUAGE
30. In the electronic structure of H2SO4 the total number of unshared electrons is?
A) 16 B) 20 C) 12 D) 8
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33. In ice, the bond present between two molecules of water is?
A) Ionic bond B) Metallic bond C) Covalent bond D) All of the above
34. The type of bonding between two atoms is determined by the difference of?
A) Electron Affinity B) Electronegativity C) Ionization D) None
Values Values Potential Values
38. The atomic number of Magnesium is 12. When magnesium reacts to form an ionic
compound, the electronic configuration of the magnesium ion formed is?
A) 2, 8 B) 2, 8, 1 C) 2, 8, 2 D) 2, 8, 3
40. The double bonds are present between the atoms of the molecules of?
A) CO2 B) H2O C) CH3 D) CH4
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CHEMICAL LANGUAGE
44. The formation of H2 molecules from hydrogen atom is?
A) Endothermic B) Exothermic C) Both (A) & (B) D) None
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CHEMICAL LANGUAGE
CHEMISTRY TEST
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10. Under adiabatic conditions and constant volume a system will be in equilibrium when
which of the following quantities is at minimum?
A) Internal Energy B) Enthalpy (H) C) Helmholtz D) Gibb’s Energy (G)
(E or U) Energy (A)
12. The sum of internal energy and product of its pressure and volume is called?
A) Thermochemistry B) 1st Law of C) Enthalpy D) Heat of system
Thermodynamics
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CHEMICAL LANGUAGE
13. In a process 240 J of heat is absorbed by a system, while 120 J of work is done on the
system. The change in internal energy is?
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14. If 600 calories of heat are added to a system, which does work equivalent to 800 calories
by expanding against the surrounding. What is the value of ∆E for the system?
A) 200 B) -200 C) 1400 D) -1400
15. If two moles of hydrogen at 3 atm pressures expand isothermally at 50°C, the change of
internal energy is?
A) 12 J B) 6 J C) 100 J D) Zero
17. A decrease in the internal energy of the system usually accompanied by decrease in?
A) Potential Energy B) Kinetic Energy C) Thermal Energy D) Chemical Energy
18. The mechanical work done by the engine of an automobile is a result of which of the
following processes?
A) Combustion B) Oxidation C) Reduction D) Catalysis
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CHEMICAL LANGUAGE
CHEMISTRY TEST
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12. The atoms of the same element which have the same atomic number but different mass
numbers are called?
A) Isotopes B) Actinides C) Isobars D) None
13. Atoms having same atomic weights but different atomic numbers are called
A) Isotopes B) Actinides C) Isobars D) None
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CHEMICAL LANGUAGE
15. Which liberates H2 with KOH?
A) Zn B) B C) Al D) All
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23. Temporary hardness of H2O is due to _______________ of Ca2+ & Mg2+ ions?
A) Chloride B) Sulphate C) Carbonates D) Bicarbonates
25. Which of the properties best explains – Why water is such a good solvent?
A) High dielectric B) Relatively small C) Hydrogen D) Symmetrical
constant molecule bonding orientation of
polar bonds
26. The laws of chemical combination of are not obeyed by which hydrides?
A) Polymeric B) Covalent C) Interstitial D) None of these
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CHAPTER # 2 CHAPTER # 3
1. A B C D E 38. A B C D E 1. A B C D E 39. A B C D E
2. A B C D E 39. A B C D E 2. A B C D E 40. A B C D E
3. A B C D E 40. A B C D E 3. A B C D E 41. A B C D E
4. A B C D E 41. A B C D E 4. A B C D E 42. A B C D E
5. A B C D E 42. A B C D E 5. A B C D E 43. A B C D E
6. A B C D E 43. A B C D E 6. A B C D E 44. A B C D E
7. A B C D E 44. A B C D E 7. A B C D E 45. A B C D E
8. A B C D E 45. A B C D E 8. A B C D E 46. A B C D E
9. A B C D E 46. A B C D E 9. A B C D E 47. A B C D E
10. A B C D E 47. A B C D E 10. A B C D E 48. A B C D E
11. A B C D E 48. A B C D E 11. A B C D E 49. A B C D E
12. A B C D E 49. A B C D E 12. A B C D E 50. A B C D E
13. A B C D E 50. A B C D E 13. A B C D E 51. A B C D E
14. A B C D E 51. A B C D E 14. A B C D E 52. A B C D E
15. A B C D E 52. A B C D E 15. A B C D E 53. A B C D E
16. A B C D E 53. A B C D E 16. A B C D E 54. A B C D E
17. A B C D E 54. A B C D E 17. A B C D E 55. A B C D E
18. A B C D E 55. A B C D E 18. A B C D E 56. A B C D E
19. A B C D E 56. A B C D E 19. A B C D E 57. A B C D E
20. A B C D E 57. A B C D E 20. A B C D E 58. A B C D E
21. A B C D E 58. A B C D E 21. A B C D E 59. A B C D E
22. A B C D E 59. A B C D E 22. A B C D E 60. A B C D E
23. A B C D E 60. A B C D E 23. A B C D E 61. A B C D E
24. A B C D E 61. A B C D E 24. A B C D E 62. A B C D E
25. A B C D E 62. A B C D E 25. A B C D E 63. A B C D E
26. A B C D E 63. A B C D E 26. A B C D E 64. A B C D E
27. A B C D E 64. A B C D E 27. A B C D E 65. A B C D E
28. A B C D E 65. A B C D E 28. A B C D E 66. A B C D E
29. A B C D E 66. A B C D E 29. A B C D E 67. A B C D E
30. A B C D E 67. A B C D E 30. A B C D E 68. A B C D E
31. A B C D E 68. A B C D E 31. A B C D E 69. A B C D E
32. A B C D E 69. A B C D E 32. A B C D E 70. A B C D E
33. A B C D E 70. A B C D E 33. A B C D E 71. A B C D E
34. A B C D E 71. A B C D E 34. A B C D E 72. A B C D E
35. A B C D E 72. A B C D E 35. A B C D E 73. A B C D E
36. A B C D E 73. A B C D E 36. A B C D E 74. A B C D E
37. A B C D E 74. A B C D E 37. A B C D E 75. A B C D E
1. A B C D E 38. A B C D E 1. A B C D E 38. A B C D E
2. A B C D E 39. A B C D E 2. A B C D E 39. A B C D E
3. A B C D E 40. A B C D E 3. A B C D E 40. A B C D E
4. A B C D E 41. A B C D E 4. A B C D E 41. A B C D E
5. A B C D E 42. A B C D E 5. A B C D E 42. A B C D E
6. A B C D E 43. A B C D E 6. A B C D E 43. A B C D E
7. A B C D E 44. A B C D E 7. A B C D E 44. A B C D E
8. A B C D E 45. A B C D E 8. A B C D E 45. A B C D E
9. A B C D E 46. A B C D E 9. A B C D E 46. A B C D E
10. A B C D E 47. A B C D E 10. A B C D E 47. A B C D E
11. A B C D E 48. A B C D E 11. A B C D E 48. A B C D E
12. A B C D E 49. A B C D E 12. A B C D E 49. A B C D E
13. A B C D E 50. A B C D E 13. A B C D E 50. A B C D E
14. A B C D E 51. A B C D E 14. A B C D E 51. A B C D E
15. A B C D E 52. A B C D E 15. A B C D E 52. A B C D E
16. A B C D E 53. A B C D E 16. A B C D E 53. A B C D E
17. A B C D E 54. A B C D E 17. A B C D E 54. A B C D E
18. A B C D E 55. A B C D E 18. A B C D E 55. A B C D E
19. A B C D E 56. A B C D E 19. A B C D E 56. A B C D E
20. A B C D E 57. A B C D E 20. A B C D E 57. A B C D E
21. A B C D E 58. A B C D E 21. A B C D E 58. A B C D E
22. A B C D E 59. A B C D E 22. A B C D E 59. A B C D E
23. A B C D E 60. A B C D E 23. A B C D E 60. A B C D E
24. A B C D E 61. A B C D E 24. A B C D E 61. A B C D E
25. A B C D E 62. A B C D E 25. A B C D E 62. A B C D E
26. A B C D E 63. A B C D E 26. A B C D E 63. A B C D E
27. A B C D E 64. A B C D E 27. A B C D E 64. A B C D E
28. A B C D E 65. A B C D E 28. A B C D E 65. A B C D E
29. A B C D E 66. A B C D E 29. A B C D E 66. A B C D E
30. A B C D E 67. A B C D E 30. A B C D E 67. A B C D E
31. A B C D E 68. A B C D E 31. A B C D E 68. A B C D E
32. A B C D E 69. A B C D E 32. A B C D E 69. A B C D E
33. A B C D E 70. A B C D E 33. A B C D E 70. A B C D E
34. A B C D E 71. A B C D E 34. A B C D E 71. A B C D E
35. A B C D E 72. A B C D E 35. A B C D E 72. A B C D E
36. A B C D E 73. A B C D E 36. A B C D E 73. A B C D E
37. A B C D E 74. A B C D E 37. A B C D E 74. A B C D E
1. A B C D E 38. A B C D E 1. A B C D E 38. A B C D E
2. A B C D E 39. A B C D E 2. A B C D E 39. A B C D E
3. A B C D E 40. A B C D E 3. A B C D E 40. A B C D E
4. A B C D E 41. A B C D E 4. A B C D E 41. A B C D E
5. A B C D E 42. A B C D E 5. A B C D E 42. A B C D E
6. A B C D E 43. A B C D E 6. A B C D E 43. A B C D E
7. A B C D E 44. A B C D E 7. A B C D E 44. A B C D E
8. A B C D E 45. A B C D E 8. A B C D E 45. A B C D E
9. A B C D E 46. A B C D E 9. A B C D E 46. A B C D E
10. A B C D E 47. A B C D E 10. A B C D E 47. A B C D E
11. A B C D E 48. A B C D E 11. A B C D E 48. A B C D E
12. A B C D E 49. A B C D E 12. A B C D E 49. A B C D E
13. A B C D E 50. A B C D E 13. A B C D E 50. A B C D E
14. A B C D E 51. A B C D E 14. A B C D E 51. A B C D E
15. A B C D E 52. A B C D E 15. A B C D E 52. A B C D E
16. A B C D E 53. A B C D E 16. A B C D E 53. A B C D E
17. A B C D E 54. A B C D E 17. A B C D E 54. A B C D E
18. A B C D E 55. A B C D E 18. A B C D E 55. A B C D E
19. A B C D E 56. A B C D E 19. A B C D E 56. A B C D E
20. A B C D E 57. A B C D E 20. A B C D E 57. A B C D E
21. A B C D E 58. A B C D E 21. A B C D E 58. A B C D E
22. A B C D E 59. A B C D E 22. A B C D E 59. A B C D E
23. A B C D E 60. A B C D E 23. A B C D E 60. A B C D E
24. A B C D E 61. A B C D E 24. A B C D E 61. A B C D E
25. A B C D E 62. A B C D E 25. A B C D E 62. A B C D E
26. A B C D E 63. A B C D E 26. A B C D E 63. A B C D E
27. A B C D E 64. A B C D E 27. A B C D E 64. A B C D E
28. A B C D E 65. A B C D E 28. A B C D E 65. A B C D E
29. A B C D E 66. A B C D E 29. A B C D E 66. A B C D E
30. A B C D E 67. A B C D E 30. A B C D E 67. A B C D E
31. A B C D E 68. A B C D E 31. A B C D E 68. A B C D E
32. A B C D E 69. A B C D E 32. A B C D E 69. A B C D E
33. A B C D E 70. A B C D E 33. A B C D E 70. A B C D E
34. A B C D E 71. A B C D E 34. A B C D E 71. A B C D E
35. A B C D E 72. A B C D E 35. A B C D E 72. A B C D E
36. A B C D E 73. A B C D E 36. A B C D E 73. A B C D E
37. A B C D E 74. A B C D E 37. A B C D E 74. A B C D E
1. A B C D E 38. A B C D E 1. A B C D E 38. A B C D E
2. A B C D E 39. A B C D E 2. A B C D E 39. A B C D E
3. A B C D E 40. A B C D E 3. A B C D E 40. A B C D E
4. A B C D E 41. A B C D E 4. A B C D E 41. A B C D E
5. A B C D E 42. A B C D E 5. A B C D E 42. A B C D E
6. A B C D E 43. A B C D E 6. A B C D E 43. A B C D E
7. A B C D E 44. A B C D E 7. A B C D E 44. A B C D E
8. A B C D E 45. A B C D E 8. A B C D E 45. A B C D E
9. A B C D E 46. A B C D E 9. A B C D E 46. A B C D E
10. A B C D E 47. A B C D E 10. A B C D E 47. A B C D E
11. A B C D E 48. A B C D E 11. A B C D E 48. A B C D E
12. A B C D E 49. A B C D E 12. A B C D E 49. A B C D E
13. A B C D E 50. A B C D E 13. A B C D E 50. A B C D E
14. A B C D E 51. A B C D E 14. A B C D E 51. A B C D E
15. A B C D E 52. A B C D E 15. A B C D E 52. A B C D E
16. A B C D E 53. A B C D E 16. A B C D E 53. A B C D E
17. A B C D E 54. A B C D E 17. A B C D E 54. A B C D E
18. A B C D E 55. A B C D E 18. A B C D E 55. A B C D E
19. A B C D E 56. A B C D E 19. A B C D E 56. A B C D E
20. A B C D E 57. A B C D E 20. A B C D E 57. A B C D E
21. A B C D E 58. A B C D E 21. A B C D E 58. A B C D E
22. A B C D E 59. A B C D E 22. A B C D E 59. A B C D E
23. A B C D E 60. A B C D E 23. A B C D E 60. A B C D E
24. A B C D E 61. A B C D E 24. A B C D E 61. A B C D E
25. A B C D E 62. A B C D E 25. A B C D E 62. A B C D E
26. A B C D E 63. A B C D E 26. A B C D E 63. A B C D E
27. A B C D E 64. A B C D E 27. A B C D E 64. A B C D E
28. A B C D E 65. A B C D E 28. A B C D E 65. A B C D E
29. A B C D E 66. A B C D E 29. A B C D E 66. A B C D E
30. A B C D E 67. A B C D E 30. A B C D E 67. A B C D E
31. A B C D E 68. A B C D E 31. A B C D E 68. A B C D E
32. A B C D E 69. A B C D E 32. A B C D E 69. A B C D E
33. A B C D E 70. A B C D E 33. A B C D E 70. A B C D E
34. A B C D E 71. A B C D E 34. A B C D E 71. A B C D E
35. A B C D E 72. A B C D E 35. A B C D E 72. A B C D E
36. A B C D E 73. A B C D E 36. A B C D E 73. A B C D E
37. A B C D E 74. A B C D E 37. A B C D E 74. A B C D E
PREPARED BY
OSAMA HASAN
ANSWER KEYS TEST HANDOUTS
NSTC-6 Preparation Programme| Aga Khan Higher Secondary School, Karachi.