ACE ENGINEERING ACADEMY

HYDERABAD, A.P. Phones : 040-24752469, 24750437

GATE 2011 * KEY SHEET
CE : CIVIL ENGINEERING
Q.No. Answer
23 D
24 C
25 A
26 D
27 C
28 B
29 A
30 D
31 D
32 B
33 C
34 A
35 B
36 C
37 C
38 B
39 D
40 C
41 B
42 C
43 B
44 A
Q.No. Answer
45 B
46 A
47 B
48 D
49 B
50 C
51 A
52 B
53 D
54 C
55 A
56 B
57 A
58 D
59 D
60 C
61 D
62 C
63 D
64 C
65 A
Q.No. Answer
1 D
2 A
3 C
4 B
5 B
6 C
7 A
8 C
9 A
10 B
11 B
12 D
13 B
14 A
15 C
16 A
17 D
18 B
19 D
20 C
21 A
22
NOTES :
1. Utmost care is taken while preparing the above key. Discrepancies, if any,
may please be brought to our notice.
2. Please contact us immediately after GATE result, for M.Tech counseling
details and suggestions.
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Q. No. 1 25 Carry One Mark Each

1.
x 0
2
sin x
3
The lim is
x

(A)
2
3
(B) 1 (C)
1
4
(D)
1
2


2. Two coins are simultaneously tossed. The probability of two heads simultaneously
appearing is
(A)
1
8
(B)
1
6
(C)
1
4
(D)
1
2


3. The order and degree of the differential equation

3
3
2
3
d y dy
4 y 0 are respectively
dx dx

(A) 3 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 3 and 3 (D) 3 and 1

5. For the truss shown in the figure, the force in the member QR is





(A) Zero (B)
P
2
(C) P (D) 2P

6. The major and minor principal stresses at a point are 3MPa and -3MPa
respectively. The maximum shear stress at the point is
(A) Zero (B) 3MPa (C) 6MPa (D) 9MPa

Q
T
L
S
R
L
P

4. Two people weighing W each are sitting on a plank of length L floating on water
at from either end. Neglecting the weight of the plank, the bending moment
L
4
at the centre of the plank is
(A)
WL
8
(B)
WL
16
(C) (D) zero
WL
32
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7. The number of independent elastic constants for a linear elastic isotropic and
homogeneous material is
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1

8. The effective length of a column of length L fixed against rotation and translation
at one end and free at the other end is
(A) 0.5 L (B) 0.7 L (C) 1.414 L (D) 2L

9. As per India standard code of practice for pre stressed concrete (IS:1343-1980)
the minimum grades of concrete to be used for post-tensioned and pre-tensioned
structural elements are respectively
(A) M20 for both (B) M40 and M30 (C) M15 and M20 (D) M30 and M40

10. A solid circular shaft of diameter d and length L is fixed at one end and free at
the other end. A torque t is applied at the free end. The shear modulus of the
material is G. The angle of twist at three free ends is
(A)
4
16TL
d G
(B)
4
32TL
d G
(C)
4
64TL
d G
(D)
4
128TL
d G


11. In a compaction test, G, w, S and e represent the specific gravity, water content,
degree of saturation and void ratio of the soil sample, respectively. If
w
represents the unit weight of water and
w
represents the dry unit weight of the
soil, the equation for zero air voids line is
(A)
w
d
G
1 Se
(B)
w
d
G
1 Gw
(C)
w
d
w
G
e S
(D)
d
Gw
1 Se


12. A fine grained soil has liquid limit of 60 and plastic limit of 20. As per the
plasticity chart, according to IS classification, the soil is represented by the letter
symbols
(A) CL (B) CI (C) CH (D) CL-ML

13. Quick sand condition occurs when
(A) The void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0
(B) The upward seepage pressure in soil becomes zero
(C) The upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to the saturated unit
weight of the soil
(D) The upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to the submerged unit
weight of the soil

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14. The e-log p curve shown in the figure is representative of
(A) Normally consolidated clay

(B) Over consolidated clay

(C) Under consolidated clay

(D) Normally consolidated clayey sand

15. If
h v h v
, , , and represent the total horizontal stress, total vertical stress,
effective horizontal stress and effective vertical stress on a soil element,
respectively, the coefficient of earth pressure at rest is given by
(A)
h
v
(B)
h
v
'
(C)
v
h
(D)
v
h
'

16. A mild-sloped channel is followed by a steep-sloped channel. The profiles of
gradually varied flow in the channel are
(A)
3 2
M , S (B)
3 3
M , S (C)
2 1
M , S (D)
2 2
M , S

17. The flow in a rectangular channel is subcritical. If width of the channel is reduced
at a certain section, the water surface under no-choke condition will
(A) Drop at a downstream section (B) Rise at a downstream section
(C) Rise at an downstream section (D) Not undergo any change

18. The correct match of Group-I with Group-II is
Group-II Group-II
P. Evapotranspiration 1. Penman method
Q. Infiltration 2. Snyders method
R. Synthetic unit hydrograph 3. Muskingum method
S. Channel Routing 4. Hortons method
(A) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2 (B) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3

19. Group-I gives a list of devices and Group-II gives the list of uses
P. Pitot tube 1. Measuring pressure in a pipe
Q. Manometer 2. Measuring velocity of flow in a pipe
R. Venturimeter 3. Measuring air and gas velocity
S. Anemometer 4. Measuring discharge in a pipe

logp
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The correct match of Group-I with Group-II is
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
(C) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2

20. A coastal city produces municipal solid waste (MSW) with high moisture content,
high organic materials, low calorific value and low inorganic materials. The most
effective and sustainable option for MSW management in that city is
(A) Composting (B) Dumping in sea (C) Incineration (D) Landfill

21. According to the Noise Pollution (Regulation and control) Rules, 2000, of the
Ministry of Environment and Forests, India, the day time and night time noise
level limits in ambient air for residential areas expressed in dB(A) Leg are
(A) 50 and 40 (B) 55 and 45 (C) 65 and 55 (D) 75 and 70

22. An air parcel having 40C temperature moves from ground level to 500m
elevation in dry air following the adiabatic lapse rate. The resulting temperature
of air parcel at 500m elevation will be
(A) 35C (B) 38C (C) 41C (D) 44C

23. Aggregate impact value indicates the following property of aggregates
(A) Durability (B) Toughness (C) Hardness (D) Strength

24. As per IRC: 67-2001, a traffic sign indicating the Speed Limit on a road should be
of
(A) Circular Shape with White Background and Red Border
(B) Triangular Shape with White Background and Red Border
(C) Triangular Shape with Red Background and White Border
(D) Circular Shape with Red Background ad White Border

25. The local mean time at a place located in longitude 90 40E when the standard
time is 6 hours and 30 minutes and the standard meridian is 82 30E is
(A) 5 hours, 2 minutes and 40 seconds
(B) 5 hours, 57 minutes and 20 seconds
(C) 6 hours, and 30 minutes
(D) 7 hours, 02 minutes and 40 seconds

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Q. No. 26 51 Carry Two Marks Each

26. The solution to the ordinary differential equation
2
2
d y dy
6y 0 is
dx dx

(A)
3x 2x
1 2
y c e c e (B)
3x 2x
1 2
y c e c e
(C)
3x 2x
1 2
y c e c e (D)
3x 2x
1 2
y c e c e

27. The inverse of the matrix
3 2i i
is
i 3 2i

(A)
3 2i i 1
12 i 3 2i
(B)
3 2i i 1
12 i 3 2i

(C)
3 2i i 1
14 i 3 2i
(D)
3 2i i 1
14 i 3 2i


28. The table below gives values of a function F(x) obtained for values of x at
intervals of 0.25.

x 0 0.25 0.5 0.75 1.0
F(x) 1 0.9412 0.8 0.64 0.50
The value of the integral of the function between the limits 0 to 1 using
Simpsons rule is
(A) 0.7854 (B) 2.3562 (C) 3.1416 (D) 7.5000
29. The partial differential equation that can be formed from
z z
z ax by ab has the form with p and q
x y

(A) z=px+qy (B) z=px+pq (C) z=px+qy+pq (D) z=qy+pq

30. A parabolic cable is held between two supports at the same level. They horizontal
span between the supports is L. The sag at the mid-span is h. The equation of
the parabola is
2
2
x
y 4h ,
L
where x is the horizontal coordinate and y is the
vertical coordinate with the origin at the centre of the cable. The expression for
the total length of the cable is
(A)
L 2 2
4
0
h x
1 64 dx
L
(B)
L / 2 3 2
4
0
h x
2 1 64 dx
L

(C)
L / 2 2 2
4
0
h x
1 64 dx
L
(D)
L / 2 2 2
4
0
h x
2 1 64 dx
L

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31. Given a function

2 2
f x, y 4x 6y 8x 4y 8
The optimal value of f(x, y)
(A) Is a minimum equal to 10/3 (B) Is a maximum equal to 10/3
(C) Is a minimum equal to 8/3 (D) Is a maximum equal to 8/3

32. A double cover butt riveted joint is used to connect two flat plates of 200mm
width and 14mm thickness as show in the figure. There are twelve power driven
rivets of 20mm diameter at a pitch of 50mm in both directions on either side of
the plate. Two cover plates of 10mm thickness are used. The capacity of the joint
in tension considering bearing and shear ONLY, with permissible bearing and
shear stresses as 300MPa respectively is









(A) 1083.6kN (B) 871.32kN (C) 541.18kN (D) 433.7kN

33. Two plates, subjected to direct tension, each of 10mm thickness and having
widths of 100mm and 175mm, respectively are to be fillet welded with an overlap
of 200mm. Given that the permissible weld stress is 110MPa and the permissible
stress in steel is 150MPa, then length of the weld required using the maximum
permissible weld size as per IS: 800-1984 is








(A) 245.3mm (B) 229.2mm (C) 205.5mm (D) 194.8mm

50mm
50mm
50mm
50mm
50mm 50mm 50mm
100mm 175mm
200mm
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34. For the simply supported beam of length L, subjected to a uniformly distributed
moment M kN-m per unit length as shown in the figure, the bending moment (in
kN-m) at the mid-span of the beam is







(A) Zero (B) M (C) ML (D) M/L

35. A disc of radius r has a hole of radius
r
2
cut-out as shown. The centroid of the
remaining disc (shaded portion) at a radial distance from the centre is








(A)
r
2
(B)
r
3
(C)
r
6
(D)
r
8

36. A three hinged parabolic arch having a span of 20m and a rise of 5m carries a
point load of 10kN at quarter span from the left end as shown in the figure. The
resultant reaction at the left support and its inclination with the horizontal are
respectively






(A) 9.01kN and 56.31 (B) 9.01kN and 33.69
(C) 7.50kN and 56.31 (D) 2.50kN and 33.69

L
MkN- mper unit length
r /2
' O'
O
r
5m 5m 10m
5m
10kN
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37. The vertical stress at point P
1
due to the point load Q on the ground surface as
shown in figure is s
2
. According to Boussinesqs equation, the vertical stress at
point P
2
shown in figure will be








(A)
z
2
(B)
z
(C)
z
2 (D)
z
4

38. An open ended steel barrel of 1m height and 1m diameter is filled with saturated
fine sand having coefficient of permeability of
2
10 m/ s . The barrel stands on a
saturated bed of gravel. The time required for the water level in the barrel to
drop by 0.75m is
(A) 58.9s (B) 75s (C) 100s (D)150s

39. The ultimate load capacity of a 10m long concrete pile of square cross section
500mm x 500mm driven into a homogeneous clay layer having undrained
cohesion value of 40kPa is 700kN. If the cross section of the pile is reduced to
250mm x 250mm and the length of the pile is increased to 20m, the ultimate
load capacity will be
(A) 350kN (B) 632.5kN (C) 722.5kN (D) 1400kN

40. For a rectangular channel section, Group I lists geometrical elements and Group
II gives proportions for hydraulically efficient section.
Group I Group II
P Top width 1
e
y
2

Q Perimeter 2
e
y
R Hydraulic Radius 3
2
e
y
S Hydraulic Depth 4
4
e
y
y
e
is the follow depth corresponding to hydraulically efficient section. The correct
match of Group I with Group II is
(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 (B) P-3,Q-1,R-4,S-2
(C) P-3,Q-4,R-1,S-2 (D) P-3,Q-4,R-2,S-1
Q
z
2
2
P
r
2
1
P
z
r
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41. The Froude number of flown in a rectangular channel is 0.8. If the depth of flow
is 1.5m, the critical depth is
(A) 1.80m (B) 1.56m (C) 1.36m (D) 1.29m

42. A wall of diameter 20cm fully penetrates a confined aquifer. After a long period of
pumping at a rate of 2720litres per minute, the observations of drawdown taken
at 10m and 100m distances from the center of the wall are found to be 3m and
0.5m respectively. The transmissivity of the aquifer is
(A) 676m
2
/day (B) 576 m
2
/day (C) 526 m
2
/day (D) 249 m
2
/day

43. If the BOD
3
of a wastewater sample is 75mg/L and reaction rate constant k
(base e) is 0.345 per day, the amount of BOD remaining in the given sample
after 10days is
(A) 3.21 mg/L (B) 3.45 mg/L (C) 3.69 mg/L (D) 3.92 mg/L

44. Consider the following statements in the context of geometric design of roads.
I: A simple parabolic curve is an acceptable shape for summit curves.
II: Comfort to passengers is an important consideration in the design of summit
curves.
The correct option evaluating the above statements and their relationship is
(A) I is true, II is false
(B) I is true, II is true, and II is the correct reason for I
(C) I is true, II is true, and II is NOT the correct reason for I
(D) I is false, II is true

45. The design speed for a two-lane road is 80kmph. When a design vehicle with a
wheelbase of 6.6m is negotiating a horizontal curve on that road, the off-tracking
is measured as 0.096m. The required widening of carriageway of the two-lane
road on the curve is approximately
(A) 0.55m (B) 0.65m (C) 0.75m (D) 0.85m

46. Consider the following statements in the context of cement concrete pavements.
I. Warping stresses in cement concrete pavements are caused by the seasonal
variation in temperature.
II. Tie bars are generally provided across transverse joints of cement concrete
pavements
The correct option evaluating the above statements is
(A) I: True II: False (B) I: False II: True
(C) I: True II: True (D) I: False II: False
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47. A bench mark has been established at the soffit of an ornamental arch at the
known elevation of 100.0m above sea level. The back sight used to establish
height of instrument is an inverted staff reading of 2.105m. A forward sight
reading with normally held staff of 1.105m is taken on a recently constructed
plinth. The elevation of the plinth is
(A) 103.210m (B) 101.000m (C) 99.000m (D) 96.790m

Common Data Questions: 48 & 49

Ion concentrations obtained for a groundwater sample (having pH=8.1) are given
below.
Ion Ca
2+
Mg
2+
Na
+
HCO
3
-
SO
4
2-
Cl
-
Ion
concentration
(mg/L)
100 6 15 250 45 39
Atomic Weight Ca=40 Mg=24 Na=23 H=1,
C=12,
O=16
S=32,
O=16
Cl=35.5

48. Total hardiness (mg/L as CaCO
3
) present in the above water sample is
(A) 205 (B) 250 (C) 275 (D) 308

49. Carbonate hardness (mg/L as CaCO
3
) present in the above water sample is
(A) 205 (B) 250 (C) 275 (D) 289

Common Data Questions: 50 & 51

The moisture holding capacity of the soil in a 100 hectare farm is 18cm/m. the field is to
be irrigated when 50 percent of the available moisture in the root zone is depleted. The
irrigation water is to be supplied by a pump working for 10hours a day, and water
application efficiency is 75%. Details of crops planned for cultivation are as follows:
Crop Root zone depth (m)
Peak rate of moisture use
(mm/day)
X 1.0 5.0
Y 0.8 4.0
50. The capacity of irrigation system required to irrigate crop X in 36 hectares is
(A) 83litres/sec (B) 67 liters/sec (C) 57 liters/sec (D) 53 liters/sec

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51. The area of crop Y that can be irrigated when the available capacity of irrigation
system is 40 liters / sec is
(A) 40hectares (B) 36 hectares (C) 30 hectares (D) 27 hectares

Linked Answer Questions 52 & 53

A doubly reinforced rectangular concrete beam has a width of 300mm and an effective
depth of 500mm. the beam is reinforced with 2200mm
2
of steel in tension and 628mm
2

of steel in compression. The effective cover for compression steel is 50mm. Assume that
both tension and compression steel yield. The grades of concrete and steel used are M20
and Fe250 respectively. The stress lock parameters (rounded off to first two decimal
places) for concrete shall be as per IS 456:200.

52. The depth of neutral axis is
(A) 205.30mm (B) 184.56mm (C) 160.91mm (D) 145.30mm

53. The moment of resistance of the section is
(A) 206.00kN-m (B) 209.20 kN-m (C) 236.80 kN-m (D) 251.90kN-m,

Statement for Linked Answer Questions: 54 & 55

The unconfined compressive strength of a saturated clay sample is 54kPa.

54. The value of cohesion for the clay is
(A) zero (B) 13.5kPa (C) 27kPa (D)54kPa

55. If a square footing of size 4m x 4m is resting on the surface of a deposit of the
above clay, the ultimate bearing capacity of the footing (as per Terzaghis
equation) is
(A) 1600kPa (B) 315kPa (C) 27kPa (D)54kPh

Q. No. 56 60 Carry One Mark Each

56. Which of the following options is closest in meaning to the word Circuitous.
(A) cyclic (B) indirect (C) confusing (D) crooked

57. The question below consists of a pair of related words followed by four pairs of
words. Select the pair that best expresses the relation in the original pair.
Unemployed: Worker
(A) fallow: land (B) unaware: sleeper
(C) wit: jester (D) renovated: house
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58. Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the
following sentence:
If we manage to ____________ our natural resources, we would leave a better
planet for our children.
(A) uphold (B) restrain (C) cherish (D) conserve

59. Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to the complete
the following sentence:
His rather casual remarks on politics ___________ his lack of seriousness about
the subject.
(A) masked (B) belied (C) betrayed (D)suppressed

60. 25 persons are in a room. 15 of them play hockey, 17 of them play football and
10 of them play both hockey and football. Then the number of persons playing
neither hockey nor football is:
(A) 2 (B)17 (C)13 (D) 3

Q. No. 61 65 Carry Two Marks Each

61. Hari (H), Gita (G), Irfan (I) and Saira (S) are siblings (i.e. brothers and sisters).
All were born on 1
st
January. The age difference between any two successive
siblings (that is born one after another) is less than 3 years. Given the following
facts:
i. Haris age + Gitas age > Irfans age + Sairas age
ii. The age difference between Gita and Saira is 1 year. However Gita is not the
oldest and Saira is not the youngest.
iii. There are no twins.
In what order were they born (oldest first)?
(A) HSIG (B) SGHI (C) IGSH (D) IHSG

62. 5 skilled workers can build a wall in 20days: 8 semi-skilled workers can build a
wall in 25 days; 10 unskilled workers can build a wall in 30days. If a team has 2
skilled, 6 semi-skilled and 5 unskilled workers, how long will it take to build the
wall?
(A) 20 (B) 18 (C) 16 (D) 15

63. Modern warfare has changed from large scale clashes of armies to suppression of
civilian populations. Chemical agents that do their work silently appear to be
suited to such warfare; and regretfully, there exist people in military
establishments who think that chemical agents are useful tools for their cause.
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Which of the following statements best sums up the meaning of the above
passage:
(A) Modern warfare has resulted in civil strife.
(B) Chemical agents are useful in modern warfare.
(C) Use of chemical agents in warfare would be undesirable
(D) People in military establishments like to use chemical agents in war.
64. Given digits 2,2,3,3,4,4,4,4 how many distinct 4 digit numbers greater than 3000
can be formed?
(A) 50 (B) 51 (C) 52 (D) 54

65. If 137+276=435 how much is 731+672?
(A) 534 (B) 1403 (C) 1623 (D)1513
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v=v ln k / k
fj , where v and kfj are the free flow speed and jam density
respectively. When the highway is operating at capacity, the density obtained as
per this model is
(A) e.kj (B) kj (C) k / 2j (D) k / ej
48. A three-phase traffic signal at an intersection is designed for flows shown in the
figure below. There are six groups of flows identified by the numbers 1 through
6. Among these 1, 3, 4 and 6 are through flows and, 2 and 5 are right turning.
Which phasing scheme is not feasible?
5 4
6
3
1 2
Combination choice Phase I Phase II Phase III
(A) P
P
Q
R
S
(B) Q
1, 4
1, 2
2, 5
1, 4
2, 5
4, 5
1, 3
2, 6
(C) R
3, 6
3, 6
4, 6
3, 5
(D) S
49. The magnetic bearing of a line AB was N 59 30 W in the year 1967, when the
declination was 4 10 E. If the present declination is 3W, the whole circle
bearing of the line is
(A) 299 20 (B) 307 40 (C) 293 20 (D) 301 40
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CE
50. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the
Reason [r] :
Assertion [a] : Curvature correction must be applied when the sights are long
Reason [r] : Line of collimation is not a level line but is tangential to the level
line
(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) [a] is false but [r] is true
Common Data Questions: 51 & 52
Examine the test arrangement and the soil properties given below
5m
Concrete block
1.5 1.0 0.6m high
Saturated dense sand
5m
Rigid Steel Beam
G.W.T.
500mm diameter bored pile
3
18kN / m
sat
35 , c 0 kPa
5m Angle of friction 24
N 40
3
Earth pressure coefficient K 1.5
w
10kN / m
51. The maximum pressure that can be applied with a factor of safety of 3 through
the concrete block, ensuring no bearing capacity failure in soil using Terzaghis
bearing capacity equation without considering the shape factor, depth factor and
inclination factor is
(A) 26.67kPa (B) 60kPa (C) 90kPa (D) 120kPa
52. The maximum resistance offered by the soil through skin friction while pulling out
the pile from the ground is
(A) 104.9kN (B) 209.8kN (C) 236kN (D) 472kN
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Common Data Questions: 53 & 54
Following chemical species were reported for water sample from a well:
Specials
Chloride (Cl
-
)
Sulphate (SO4
2-
)
Carbonate (CO3
2-
)
Bicarbonate (HCO3
-
)
Calcium (Ca
2+
)
Magnesium (Mg
2+
)
pH
Concentration (milli equivalent/L)
15
15
05
30
12
18
8.5
53. Total hardness in mg/L as CaCO3 is
(A) 1500 (B) 2000 (C) 3000 (D) 5000
54. Alkalinity present in the water in mg/L as CaCO3 is
(A) 250 (B) 1500 (C) 1750
Common Data Questions: 55 & 56
(D) 5000
One hour triangular unit hydrograph of a watershed has the peak discharge of
60m
3
/sec.cm at 10hours and time base of 30 hours. The index is 0.4cm per
hour and base flow is 15m
3
m/sec
55. The catchment area of the watershed is
(A) 3.24km
2
(B) 32.4km
2
(C) 324km
2
(D) 3240km
2
56. If these is rainfall of 5.4cm in 1 hour, the ordinate of the flood hydrograph at 15
th
hour is
(A) 225 m
3
/sec (B) 240 m
3
/sec (C) 249 m
3
/sec (D) 258 m
3
/sec
Linked Answer Questions: Q.57 to Q.60 Carry Two Marks Each
Statement for Linked Answer Questions: 57 & 58
In the cantilever beam PQR shown in figure below, the segment PQ has flexural
rigidity EI and the segment QR has infinite flexural rigidity
W
P
El
L
Q Rigid
L
R
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CE
57. The deflection and slope of the beam at Q are respectively
3 2 3 2 3 2 3 2
(A)
5WL
6EI
and
3WL
2EI
(B) WL
3EI
and
WL
2EI
(C) WL
2EI
and
WL
EI
WL
(D)
3EI
and
3WL
2EI
58. The deflection of the beam at R is
8WL
3
5WL
3
7WL
3
8WL
3
(A)
EI
(B)
6EI
(C)
3EI
(D)
6EI
Statement for Linked Answer Questions: 59 & 60
59. A saturated undisturbed sample from a clay strata has moisture content of
3
22.22% and specific weight of 2.7. Assuming
w10kN / m , the void ratio and
the saturated unit weight of the clay, respectively are
3 3
(A) 0.6 and 16.875kN / m
3
(B) 0.3 and 20.625 kN / m
3
(C) 0.6 and 20.625kN / m (D) 0.3 and 16.975 kN / m
60. Using the properties of the clay layer derived from the above question, the
consolidation settlement of the same clay layer under a square footing
(neglecting its self weight) with additional data shown in the figure below
(assume the stress distribution as 1H:2V from the edge of the footing and
3
w10kN / m ) is
1.0m
200kN
G.W.T.
Saturated sand
3
18kN / m
1.0m
1.0m
2m 2m
1
2
sat
Stiff Clay
C
(A) 32.78mm (B) 61.75mm
Compression Index C 0.4
Dense sand
(C) 79.5mm (D) 131.13mm
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1 1
is
(A) 0.247 (B) 2.47

3

4
3
(C) 24.7
5
(D) 247
Q.26 The Eigen values of the matrix
are
(A) -7 and 8
2 5
(B) -6 and 5 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 2
Q.27 A person on a trip has a choice between private car and public transport. The
probability of using a private car is 0.45. While using the public transport, further
choices available are bus and metro, out of which the probability of commuting
by a bus is 0.55. In such a situation, the probability (rounded up to two decimals)
of using a car, bus and metro, respectively would be
(A) 0.45, 0.30 and 0.25
(C) 0.45, 0.55 and 0.00
(B) 0.45, 0.25 and 0.30
(D) 0.45, 0.35 and 0.20
Q.28 The following simultaneous equations
x+y+z=3
x+2y+3z=4
x+4y+kz=6
will NOT have a unique solution for k equal to
(A) 0 (B) 30 (C) 6
uv
u
v
(D) 7
Q.29 The inner (dot) product of two vectors and is zero. The angle (degrees)
between the two vectors is
(A) 0 (B) 5 (C) 90 (D) 120
Q.30 Cross-section of a column consisting of two steel strips, each of thickness t and width
b is shown in the figure below. The critical loads of the column with perfect bond and
without bond between the strips are P and P
0
respectively. The ration P/P
o
is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
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Q.31 A rigid bar GH of length L is supported by a hinge and a spring of stiffness K as
shown in the figure below. The buckling load, Pcr for the bar will be
(A) 0.5 KL
(B) 0.8 KL
(C) 1.0KL
(D) 1.2KL
Q.32 The degree of static indeterminacy of the rigid frame having two internal hinges
as shown in the figure below, is
(A) 8
(B) 7
(C) 6
(D) 5
Q.33 The members EJ and IJ of a steel truss shown in the figure below are subjected to
a temperature rise of 30
0
C. The coefficient of thermal expansion of steel is
0.000012 per
0
C per unit length. The displacement (mm) of joint E relative to
joint H along the direction HE of truss, is
(A) 0.255
(B) 0.589
(C) 0.764
(D) 1.026
Q.34 The maximum shear stress in a solid shaft of circular cross-section having
diameter subjected to a torque T is . If the torque is increased by four times and
the diameter of the shaft is increased by two times, the maximum shear stress in
the shaft will be
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(B) (C) /2 (D) /4
Q.35 The span(s) to be loaded uniformly for maximum positive (upward) reaction at
support P, as shown in the figure below, is (are)
(A) PQ only (B) PQ and QR (C) QR and RS (D) PQ and RS
Q.36 A vertical PQ of length L is fixed at its top end P and has a flange to the bottom
end Q. A weight W is dropped vertically from a height h (<L) on to the flange.
The axial stress in the rod can be reduced by
(A) increasing the length of the rod
(B) decreasing the length of the rod
(C) decreasing the area of cross-section of the rod
(D) increasing the modulus of elasticity of the material
Q.37 Un-factored maximum bending moments at a section of a reinforced concrete
beam resulting from a frame analysis are 50, 80, 120 and 180kNm under dead,
live, wind and earthquake loads respectively. The design moment (kNm) as per
IS: 456- 2000 for the limit state of collapse (flexure) is
(A) 195 (B) 250 (C) 345 (D) 372
Q.38 A reinforced concrete column contains longitudinal steel equal to 1 percent of net
cross-sectional area of the column. Assume modular ration as 10. the loads carried
(using the elastic theory) by the longitudinal steel and the net area of concrete, are
P
s
and P
c
respectively. The ration P
s
/P
c
expressed as percent is
(A) 0.1 (B) 1 (C) 1.1 (D) 10
Q.39 A pre-tensioned concrete member of section 200mm x 250mm contains tendons
of area 500 mm
2
at the centre of gravity of the section. The pre-stress in tendons
is 1000N/mm
2.
Assuming modular ratio as 10, the stress (N/mm
2
) in concrete is
(A) 11 (B) 9 (C) 7 (D) 5
6
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Q.40 Rivets and bolts subjected to both shear stress ( vf, cal) and axial tensile stress
( tf,cal) shall be so proportioned that the stresses do not exceed the respective
allowable stresses
vf
and tf, and the
value of

,
,

does not exceed

(A) 1.0 (B) 1.2 (C) 1.4

(D) 1.8

Q.41 A continuous beam is loaded as shown in the figure below. Assuming a plastic
moment capacity equal to MP, the minimum load at which the beam would
collapse is
( )
4
( )
6
( )
8
( )
10
Q.42 The maximum tensile stress at the section X-X shown in the figure below is
( )
8
( )
6
( )
4
( )
2
Q.43 The stepped cantilever is subjected to movements, M as shown in the figure
below. The vertical deflection at the free end (neglecting the self weight) is
2
(A)
8
2
(B)
4
2
(C)
2
(D) Zero
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Q.44 The liquid limit (LL), plastic limit (PL) and shrinkage limit (SL) of a cohesive
soil satisfy the relation
(A) LL>PL<SL (B) LL>PL>SL (C) LL<PL<SL (D) LL<PL>SL
Q.45 A footing 2m x 1m exerts a uniform pressure of 150kN/mm
2
on the soil.
Assuming a load dispersion of 2 vertical to 1 horizontal, the average vertical
stress (kN/m
2
) at 1.0m below the footing is
(A) 50 (B) 75 (C) 80 (D) 100
Q.46 A direct shear test was conducted on a cohesion-less soil (c=0) specimen under a
normal stress of 200kN/m
2
. The specimen failed at a shear stress of 100kN/m
2
.
The angle of internal friction of the soil (degrees) is
(A) 26.6 (B) 29.5 (C) 30.0 (D) 32.6
Q.47 A pile of 0.50m diameter and length 10m is embedded in a deposit of clay. The
undrained strength parameters of the clay are cohesion = 60kN/m
2
and the angle
in internal friction = 0. The skin friction capacity (kN) of the pile for an adhesion
factor of 0.6, is
(A) 671 (B) 565 (C) 283 (D) 106
Q.48 A saturated clay stratum draining both at the top and bottom undergoes 50 percent
consolidation in 16 years under an applied load. If an additional drainage layer
were present at the middle of the clay stratum, 50 percent consolidation would
occur in
(A) 2 years (B) 4 years (C) 8 years (D) 16 years
Q.49 A test plate 30cm x 30cm resting on a sand deposit settles by 10mm under a
certain loading intensity. A footing 150cm x 200cm resting on the same sand
deposit and loaded to the same load intensity settles by
(A) 2.0mm (B) 27.8mm (C) 3.02mm (D) 50.0mm
Q.50 A volume of 3.0 x 10
6
m
3
of groundwater was pumped out from an unconfined
aquifer, uniformly from an area of 5km
2
. The pumping lowered the water table
from initial level of 102m to 99m. The specific yield of the aquifer is
(A) 0.20 (B) 0.30 (C) 0.40 (D) 0.50
Q.51 A weir on a permeable foundation with down-stream sheet pile is shown in the
figure below. the exit gradient as per Khoslas method is
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Q.52 Water emerges from an ogee spillway with velocity = 13.72 m/s and depth = 0.3m
at its toe. The tail water depth required to form a hydraulic jump at the toe is
(A) 6.48m (B) 5.24m (C) 3.24m (D) 2.24m
Q.53 The flow of water (mass density = 1000 kg/m
3
and kinematic viscosity = 10
-6
m
2
/s) in a commercial pipe, having equivalent roughness k
s
as 0.12mm, yields an
average shear stress at the pipe boundary = 600 N/m
2
. The value of ks / (
being the thickness of laminar sub-layer) for this pipe is
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.50 (C) 6.0 (D) 8.0
Q.54 A river reach of 2.0km long with maximum flood discharge of 10000m
3
/s is to be
physically modeled in the laboratory where maximum available discharge is
0.20m
3
/s. For a geometrically similar model based on equality of Froude number,
the length of the river reach (m) in the model is
(A) 26.4 (B) 25.0 (C) 20.5 (D) 18.0
Q.55 An outlet irrigates an area of 20ha. The discharge (I/s) required at this outlet to
meet the evapotranspiration requirement of 20mm occurring uniformly in 20 days
neglecting other field losses is
(A) 2.52 (B) 2.31 (C) 2.01 (D) 1.52
Q.56 A wastewater sample contains 10
-56
mmol /I of OH
-
ions at 25
o
C. The pH of this
sample is
(A) 8.6 (B) 8.4 (C) 5.6 (D) 5.4
Q.57 Group I lists estimation methods of some of the water and wastewater quality
parameters. Group II lists the indicators used in the estimation methods. Match
the estimation method (Group I) with the corresponding indicator (Group II).
P.
Q.
R.
S.
Azide modified Winkler
method for dissolved oxygen
Dichromate method for
chemical oxygen demand
EDTA titrimetric method for
hardness
Mohr or Argentometric
method for chlorides
1. Eriochrome Black T
2. Ferrion
3. Potassium chromate
4. Starch
(A) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
(C) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
(B) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
(D) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
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Q.58 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and Reason [r]
The crown of the outgoing larger diameter sewer is always matched
with the crown of incoming smaller diameter sewer.
It eliminates backing up of sewage in the incoming smaller diameter
sewer.
(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a].
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a].
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) [a] is true but [r] is false
Q.59 The 5-day BOD of a wastewater sample is obtained as 190mg/I (with k = 0.01h
-1
).
The ultimate oxygen demand (mg/I) of the sample will be
(A) 3800 (B) 475 (C) 271 (D) 190
Q.60 A water treatment plant is required to process 28800m
3
/d of raw water (density =
1000kg/m
3
, kinematic viscosity = 10
-6
m
2
/s). The rapid mixing tank imparts a
velocity gradient of 900s
-1
to blend 35mg/I of alum with the flow for a detention
time of 2 minutes. The power input (W) required for rapid mixing is
(A) 32.4 (B) 36 (C) 324 (D) 32400
Q.61 Match Group I (Terminology) with Group II (Definition / Brief Description) for
wastewater treatment systems
P.
Q.
Primary treatment
Secondary treatment
1. Contaminant removal by
physical forces
2. Involving biological and / or
R.
S.
Unit operation
Unit process
chemical reaction
3. Conversion of soluble organic
matter to business
4. Removal of solid materials
(A) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
from incoming wastewater
(B) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
(D) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
Q.62 A roundabout is provided with an average entry width of 8.4m, width of weaving
section as 14m, and length of the weaving section between channelizing islands as
35m. the crossing traffic and total traffic on the weaving section are 1000 and
2000 PCU per hour respectively. The nearest rounded capacity of the roundabout
(in PCU per hour) is
(A) 3300 (B) 3700 (C) 4500 (D) 5200
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Q.63 Design parameters for a signalized intersection are shown in the figure below. the
green time calculated for major and minor roads are 34 and 18s, respectively.
The critical land volume on the major road changes to 440 vehicles per hour per
lane and the critical lane volume on the minor road remains unchanged. The green
time will
(A) increase for the major road and remain same for the minor road.
(B) Increase for the major road and decrease for the minor road.
(C) Decrease for both the roads.
(D) Remain unchanged for both the roads.
Q.64 It is proposed to widen and strengthen an existing 2-lane NH section as a divided
highway. The existing traffic in one direction is 2500 commercial vehicles (CV)
per day. The construction will take 1 year. The design CBR of soil subgrade is
found to be 5 percent. Given: traffic growth rate for CV = 8 percent, vehicle
damage factor = 3.5 (standard axles per CV), design life = 10 years and traffic
distribution factor = 0.75. The cumulative standard axles (msa) computed are
(A) 35 (B) 37 (C) 65 (D) 70
Q.65 A linear relationship is observed between speed and density on a certain section
of a highway. The free flow speed is observed to be 80 km per hour and the jam
density is estimated as 100 vehicles per km length. Based on the above
relationship, the maximum flow expected on this section and the speed at the
maximum flow will respectively be
(A) 8000 vehicles per hour and 80km per hour
(B) 8000 vehicles per hour and 25km per hour
(C) 2000 vehicles per hour 80km per hour.
(D) 2000 vehicles per hour and 40km per hour
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Q.66 The plan of a survey plotted to a scale of 10m to 1cm is reduced in such a way
that a line originally 10cm long now measures 9cm. the area of the reduced plan is
measured as 81cm
2
. the actual (m
2
) of the survey is
(A) 10000 (B) 6561 (C) 1000 (D) 656
Q.67 The length and bearings of a closed traverse PQRSP are given below.
PQ
QR
RS
SP
200
1000
907
?
0
o
45
o
180
o
?
The missing length and bearing, respectively of the line SP are
(A) 207m and 270
0
(C) 707m and 180
0
(B) 707m and 270
0
(D) 907m and 270
0
Q.68 The focal length of the object glass of a tacheometer is 200mm, the distance
between the vertical axis of the tacheometer and the optical centre of the object
glass is 100mm and the spacing between the upper and lower line of the
diaphragm axis is 4mm. with the line of collimation perfectly horizontal, the staff
intercepts are 1m (top), 2m (middle), and 3m (bottom). The horizontal distance
(m) between the staff and the instrument station is
(A) 100.3 (B) 103.0 (C) 150.0 (D) 153.0
Q.69 A road is provided with a horizontal circular curve having deflection angle 55
0
and centre line radius of 250m. A transition curve is to be provided at each end of
the circular curve of such a length that the rate of gain of radial acceleration is
0.3m/s
3
at a curve required at each of the ends is
(A) 2.57m (B) 33.33m (C) 35.73m (D) 1666.67m
Q.70 A light house of 120m height is just visible above the horizon from a ship. The
correct distance (m) between the ship and the light house considering combined
correction for curvature and refraction, is
(A) 39.098 (B) 42.226 (C) 39098 (D) 42226
A rectangular channel 6.0m wide carries a discharge of 16.0m
3
/s under uniform condition
with normal depth of 1.60m. Mannings n is 0.015.
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Q.71 The longitudinal slope of the channel is
(A) 0.000585 (B) 0.000485 (C) 0.000385 (D) 0.000285
Q.72 A hump is to be provided on the channel bed. The maximum height of the hump
without affecting the upstream flow condition is
(A) 0.50m (B) 3.8m (C) 4.1m (D) 4.5m
Q.73 The channel width is to be contracted. The minimum width to which the channel
can be contracted without affecting the upstream flow condition is
(A) 3.0m (B) 3.8m (C) 4.1m (D) 4.5m
A reinforced concrete beam of rectangular cross section of breadth 230mm and effective
depth 400mm is subjected to maximum factored shear force of 120kN. The grades of
concrete, main steel and stirrup steel are M20, Fe415 and Feb250 respectively. For the
area of main steel provided, the design shear strength
c
is per IS: 456-2000 is 0.48N /
mm
2
. The beam is designed for collapse limit state.
Q.74 The spacing (mm) of 2-legged 8mm stirrups to be provided is
(A) 40 (B) 115 (C) 250 (D) 400
Q.75 In addition, the beam is subjected to a torque whose factored value is 10.90kNm.
the stirrups have to be provided to carry a shear (kN) equal to
(A) 50.42 (B) 130.56 (C) 151.67 (D) 200.23
Beam GHI is supported by these pontoons as shown in the figure below. the horizontal
cross-sectional area of each pontoon is 8m
2
, the flexural rigidity of the beam is 10000
kN-m
2
and the unit weight of water is 10kN-m
3
.
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Q.76 When the middle pontoon is removed, the deflection at H will be
(A) 0.2m (B) 0.4m (C) 0.6m (D) 0.8m
Q.77 When the middle pontoon is brought back to its position as shown in the figure
above, the reaction at H will be
(A) 8.6kN (B) 15.7kN (C) 19.2kN (D) 24.2kN
The ground conditions at a site are shown in the figure below
Q.78 The saturated unit weight of the sand (kN/m
3
) is
(A) 15 (B) 18 (C) 21 (D) 24
Q.79 The total stress, pore water pressure and effective stress (kN/m
2
) at the point P
are, respectively
(A) 75, 50 and 25
(C) 105, 50 and 55
(B) 90, 50 and 40
(D) 120, 50 and 70
A column is supported on a footing as shown in the figure below. the water table is at a
depth of 10m below the base of the footing.
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Q.80 The net ultimate bearing capacity (kN/m
2
) of the footing based on Terzaghis
bearing capacity equation is
(A) 216 (B) 432 (C) 630 (D) 846
Q.81 The safe load (kN) that the footing can carry with a factor of safety 3 is
(A) 282 (B) 648 (C) 945 (D) 1269
An automobile with projected area 2.6m
2
is running on a road with speed of 120km per
hour. The mass density and the kinematic viscosity of air are 1.2 kg/m
3
and 1.5x10
-5
m
2
/s,
respectively. The drag coefficient is 0.30.
Q.82 The drag force on the automobile is
(A) 620N (B) 600N (C) 580N (D) 520N
Q.83 The metric horse power required to overcome the drag force is
(A) 33.23 (B) 31.23 (C) 23.23 (D) 20.23
A horizontal circular curve with a centre line radius of 200m is provided on a 2-lane, 2-
way SH section. The width of the 2-lane road is 7.0m. Design speed for this section is 80
km per hour. The brake reaction time is 2.4s, and the coefficients of friction in
longitudinal and lateral directions are 0.355 and 0.15, respectively.
Q.84 The safe stopping sight distance on the section is
(A) 221m (B) 195m (C) 125m (D) 65m
Q.85 The set-back distance from the centre line of the inner lane is
(A) 7.93m (B) 8.10m (C) 9.60m (D) 9.77m
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1 1 3

The minimum and the maximum eigen values of the matrix 1 5 1 are -2 and

6, respectively. What is the other eigen value?
3 1 1
5 (B) 3 (C) 1
2
3
= 0 is
(D) -1
The degree of the differential equation
2 2
0 (B) 1 (C) 2
2
(D) 3
Q.3 The solution for the differential equation
x=0 is
with condition that y = 1 at
1 3 2
3
(A)
2
( ) ln( )
4
3
( ) ln( )
2
3
( )
Q.4 An axially loaded bar is subjected to a normal stress of 173 MPa. The shear stress
in the bar is
(A) 75MPa (B) 86.5MPa (C) 100MPa (D) 122.3MPa
Q.5 A steel column, pinned at both ends, has a buckling load of 200kN. If the column
is restrained against lateral movement at its mid-height, its buckling load will be
(A) 200kN (B) 283kN (C) 400kN (D) 800kN
Q.6 The stiffness coefficient k
ij
indicates
(A) force at i due to a unit deformation at j.
(B) deformation at j due to a unit force at i.
(C) deformation at i due to a unit force at j.
(D) force at j due to a unit deformation at i.
Q.7 For an isotropic material, the relationship between the Youngs modulus (E),
shear modulus (G) and Poissons ratio ( ) is given by
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
2(1 ) 2(1 ) (1 2 ) 2(1 )
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Q.8 A clay soil sample is tested in triaxial apparatus in consolidated-drained
conditions at a cell pressure of 100 kN/m
2
. What will be the pore water pressure at
a deviator stress of 40kN/m
2
?
(A) 0kN /m
2
(B) 20kN/m
2
(C) 40kN/m
2
(D) 60kN/m
2
Q.9 The number of blows observed in a Standard Penetration Test (SPT) for different
penetration depths are given as follows.
0-150mm
150-300mm
300-450mm
The observed N value is
(A) 8 (B) 14
6
8
10
(C) 18 (D) 24
Q.10 The vertical stress at some depth below the corner of a 2m x 3m rectangular
footing due to a certain load intensity is 100 kN / m
2
below the centre of a
4m x 6m rectangular footing at the same depth and same load intensity?
(A) 25 (B) 100 (C) 200 (D) 400
Q.11 There is a free overfall at the end of a long open channel. For a given flow rate,
the critical depth is less than the normal depth. What gradually varied flow profile
will occur in the channel for this flow rate?
(A) M
1
(B) M
2
(C) M
3
(D) S
1
Q.12 The consumptive use of water for a crop during a particular stage of growth is
2.0mm / day. The maximum depth of available water is the root zone is 60mm.
Irrigation is required when the amount of available water is 50% of the maximum
available water in the root zone. Frequency of irrigation should be
(A) 10 days (B) 15days (C) 20days (D) 25days
Q.13 As per the Laceys method for design of alluvial channels, identity the true
statement from the following
(A) Wetted perimeter increases with an increase in design discharge
(B) Hydraulic radius increases with an increase in silt factor.
(C) Wetted perimeter decreases with an increase in design discharge.
(D) Wetted perimeter increases with an increase in silt factor.
Q.14 At two points 1 and 2 in a pipeline the velocities are V and 2V, respectively. Both
the points are at the same elevation. Both the points are at the same elevation. The
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fluid density is . The flow can be assumed to be in compressible, inviscid, steady
and irrotational. The difference in pressures P
1
and P
2
at points 1 and 2 is
(A) 0.5 V
2
(B) 1.5 V
2
(C) 2 V
2
(D) 3 V
2
Q.15 The presence of hardness in excess of permissible limit causes
(A) Cardio Vascular problems
(C) Calcium deficiency
(B) Skin discolouration
(D) Increased laundry expenses
Q.16 The dispersion of pollutants in atmosphere is maximum when
(A) environmental lapse rate is greater than adiabatic lapse rate.
(B) environmental lapse rate is less than adiabatic lapse rate.
(C) environmental lapse rate is equal to adiabatic lapse rate.
(D) maximum mixing depth is equal to zero.
Q.17 The alkalinity and the hardness of a water sample are 250mg/L and 350 mg/L as
CaCo
3
, respectively. The water has
(A) 350 mg/L carbonate hardness and zero non-carbonate hardness.
(B) 250mg/L carbonate hardness and zero non-carbonate hardness.
(C) 250mg/L carbonate hardness and 350 mg/L non-carbonate hardness.
(D) 250mg/L carbonate hardness and 100 mg/L non-carbonate hardness.
Q.18 The consistency and flow resistance of bitumen can be determined from the
following.
(A) Ductility test
(C) Softening point Test
(B) Penetration test
(D) Viscosity test
Q.19 If a two-lane national highway and a two-lane state highway intersect at right
right angles, the number of potential conflict points at the intersection, assuming
that both the roads are two-way is
(A) 11 (B) 17 (C) 24 (D) 32
Q.20 In signal design as per Indian Roads Congress specifications, if the sum of the
ratios of normal flows to saturation flow of two directional traffic flow is 0.50 and
the total lost time per cycle is 10 seconds, the optimum cycle length in seconds is
(A) 100 (B) 80 (C) 60 (D) 40
Q.21 For what values of and the following simultaneous equations have an infinite
number of solutions?
x + y + z = 5;
x + 2y + z =
x + 3y + 3z = 9;
(A) 2,7 (B) 3,8 (C) 8,3 (D) 7,2
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Q.22 A velocity vector is given as
CE Civil Engineering: Gate 2007 Paper
r r 2 r 2
r
5 2 3 .
The divergence of this velocity vector at (1,1,1) is
(A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 14 (D) 15
Q.23 A body originally at 60
0
C cools down to 40
0
C in 15minutes when kept in air at a
temperature of 25
0
C. What will be the temperature of the body at the end of
30minutes?
(A) 35.2
0
C (B) 31.5
0
C (C) 28.7
0
C (D) 15
0
C
Q.24 The following equation needs to be numerically solved using the Newton-
Raphson method.
x
3
+ 4x 9 = 0
The iterative equation for this purpose is (k indicates the iteration level)
2 3 9 3 2 4
( )
1
2
3
4 ( )
1
2
2
9
2
4 2 3
( ) 3
4
( )
1
sin
1
2
9
2
Q.25 Evaluate
0
( )
dt
( )
2
( )
4
( )
3
Q.26 Potential function is given
as
2 2
. What will be the stream function
( ) with the condition = 0 at x = y = 0?
(A) 2xy (B) x
2
+ y
2
(C) x
2
y
2
1 2
(D) 2x
2
y
2
Q.27 The inverse of the 2 x 2 matrix is
1 7 2
5 7
1 7 2
( )

( )

3 5
1
3 5 1
( )
1 7 2

( )
1 7 2

3 5 1 3 5 1
Q.28 Given that one root of the equation x
3
-10x
2
+31x-30=0 is 5, the other two roots are
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 4 (C) 3 and 4 (D) -2 and -3
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Q.29 If the standard deviation of the spot speed of vehicles in a highway is 8.8 kmph
and the mean speed of the vehicles is 33kmph, the coefficient of variation in
speed is
(A) 0.1517 (B) 0.1867 (C) 0.2666 (D) 0.3646
Q.30 A metal bar of length 100mm is inserted between two rigid supports and its
temperature is increased by 10
0
C. If the coefficient of thermal expansion is 12 x
10
-6
per
0
C and the Youngs modulus is 2 x 10
5
MPa, the stress in the bar is
(A) zero (B) 12MPa (C) 24MPa (D) 2400MPa
Q.31 A rigid bar is suspended by three rods made of the same material as shown in the
figure. The area and length of the central rod are 3A and L, respectively while that
of the two outer rods are 2A and 2L respectively. If a downward force of 50kN is
applied to the rigid bar, the forces in the central and each of the outer rods will be
(A) 16.67 kN each
(C) 30kN and 10kN
(B) 30kN and 15kN
(D) 21.4kN and 14.3kN
Q.32 The maximum and minimum shear stresses in a hollow circular shaft of outer
diameter 20mm and thickness 2mm, subjected to a torque of 92.7 N.m will be
(A) 59 MPa and 47.2 MPa
(C) 118 MPa and 160 MPa
(B) 10MPa and 80MPa
(D) 200 MPa and 160 MPa
Q.33 The shear stress at the neutral axis in a beam of triangular section with a base of
40mm and height of 20mm, subjected to a shear force of 3kN is
(A) 3MPa (B) 6MPa (C) 10MPa (D) 20MPa
Q.34 U
1
and U
2
are the strain energies stored in a prismatic bar due to axial tensile
forces P1 and P2 respectively. The strain energy stored in the same bar due to
combined action of P
1
and P
2
will be
(A) U = U
1
+ U
2
(C) U <U
1
+ U
2
(B) U = U
1
U
2
(D) U >
1
+ U
2
Q.35 The right triangular truss is made of members having equal cross sectional area of
1550 mm
2
and Youngs modulus of 2 x 10
5
MPa. The horizontal deflection of the
joint Q is
(A) 2.47mm (B) 10.25mm (C) 14.1mm (D) 15.68mm
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Q.36 The influence line diagram (ILD) shown is for the member
(A) PS (B) RS (C) PQ (D) QS
Q.37 Consider the following statements:
1.
2.
3.
The compressive strength of concrete decreases with increase in water-
cement ratio of the concrete mix.
Water is added to the concrete mix for hydration of cement and
workability.
Creep and shrinkage of concrete are independent of the water-cement ratio
in the concrete mix.
The true statements are
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 2 and 3 (D) only 2
Q.38 The percentage loss of prestress due to anchorage slip of 3mm in a concrete beam
of length 30m which is post-tensioned by a tendon with an initial stress of 1200 N
/ mm
2
and modulus of elasticity equal to 2.1 x 10
5
N/mm
2
is
(A) 0.0175 (B) 0.175 (C) 1.75 (D) 17.5
Q.39 A concrete beam of rectangular cross-section of size 120mm (width) and 200mm
(depth) is prestressed by a straight tendon to an effective force of 150kN at an
eccentricity of 20mm (below the centroidal axis in the depth direction). The
stresses at the top and bottom fibres of the section are
(A) 2.5 N/mm
2
(compression), 10N/mm
2
(compression)
(B) 10N / mm
2
(tension), 3.75 N / mm
2
(C) 3.75 N/mm
2
(tension), 3.75 N/mm
2
(compression)
(D) 2.75 N/mm
2
(compression), 3.75 N/mm
2
(compression)
Q.40 Consider the following statements:
I. Modulus of elasticity concrete increases with increase in compressive
strength of concrete.
II. Brittleness of concrete increases with decrease in compressive strength of
concrete.
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III. Shear strength of concrete increases with increase in compressive strength
of concrete.
The TRUE statements are
(A) II and III (B) I, II and III (C) I and II (D) I and III
Q.41 A steel flat of rectangular section of size 70 x 6 mm is connected to a gusset plate
by three bolts each having a shear capacity of 15kN in holes having diameter
11.5mm. If the allowable tensile stress in the flat is 150MPa, the maximum
tension that can be applied to the flat is
(A) 42.3kN (B) 52.65kN (C) 59.5kN (D) 63.0kN
Q.42 A bracket connection is made with four bolts of 10mm diameter and supports a
load of 10kN a an eccentricity of 100mm. the maximum force to be resisted by
any bolt will be
(A) 5kN (B) 6.5kN (C) 6.8kN (D) 7.16kN
Q.43 The plastic collapse load W
p
for the propped cantilever supporting two point loads
as shown in the figure in terms of plastic moment capacity, M
p
is given by
(A) 3M
p
/L (B) 4M
p
/L (C) 5 M
p
/L (D) 6M
p
/L
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Q.44 Sieve analysis on a dry soil sample of mass 1000g showed that 980g and 270g of
soil pass through 4.75mm and 0.075mm sieve, respectively. The liquid limit and
plastic limits of the soil fraction passing through 425 sieves are 40% and 18%
respectively. The soil may be classified as
(A) SC (B) MI (C) CI (D) SM
Q.45 The water content of a saturated soil and the specific gravity of soil solids were
found to be 30% and 2.70, respectively. Assuming the unit weight of water to be
10kN / m
3
, the saturated unit weight (kN/m
3
), and the void ratio of the soil are
(A) 19.4, 0.81 (B) 18.5, 0.30 (C) 19.4. 0.45 (D) 18.5, 0.45
Q.46 The factor of safety of an infinite soil slope shown in the figure having the
0
3 3
is
properties c=0, 0, 35 , 16 / 20 /
approximately equal to
(A) 0.70 (B) 0.80 (C) 1.00 (D) 1.20
Q.47 Match the following groups
P Constant head permeability test
Q Consolidation test
R Pycnometer test
S Negative skin friction
1. Pile foundations
2. Specific gravity
3. Clay soil
4. Sand
(A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(B) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
(D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
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Q.48 The bearing capacity of a rectangular footing of plan dimensions 1.5m x 3m
resting on the surface of a sand deposit was estimated as 600 kN/m
2
when the
water table is far below the base of the footing. The bearing capacities in kN/m
2
when the water level rises to depths of 3m, 1.5m and 0.5m below the base of the
footing are
(A) 600, 600, 400
(C) 600, 500, 250
(B) 600, 450, 350
(D) 600, 400, 250
Q.49 What is the ultimate capacity in kN of the pile group shown in the figure
assuming the group to fail as a single block?
(A) 921.6 (B) 1177.6 (C) 2438.6 (D) 3481.6
Q.50 A horizontal water jet with a velocity of 10m/s and cross sectional area of 10mm
2
strikes a flat plate held normal to the flow direction. The density of water is 1000
kg/m
3
. The total force on the plate due to the jet is
(A) 100N (B) 10N (C) 1N (D) 0.1N
Q.51 A 1:50 scale model of a spillway is to be tested in the laboratory. The discharge in
the prototype is 1000M
3
/s. The discharge to be maintained in the model test is
(A) 0.057m
3
/s (B) 0.08m
2
/s (C) 0.57m
3
/s (D) 5.7m
3
/s
Q.52 A triangular open channel has a vertex angle of 90
0
and carries flow at a critical
depth of 0.30m. the discharge in the channel is
(A) 0.08m
3
/s (B) 0.11 m
3
/s (C) 0.15 m
3
/s (D) 0.2 m
3
/s
Q.53 Flow rate of a fluid (density = 1000kg/m
3
) in a small diameter tube is 800 m
3
/s.
The length and the diameter of the tube are 2m and 0.5mm, respectively. The
pressure drop in 2m length is equal to 2.0MPa. The viscosity of the fluid is
(A) 0.025N.s/m
2
(B) 0.012N.s/m
2
(C) 0.0092 N.s/m
2
(D) 0.00102 N.s/m
2
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Q.54 The flow rate in a wide rectangular open channel is 2.0m
3
/s per meter width. The
channel bed slope is 0.002. The Mannings roughness coefficient is 0.012. The
slope of the channel is classified as
(A) Critical (B) Horizontal (C) Mild (D) Steep
Q.55 The culturable command area for a distributary channel is 20,000 hectares. Wheat
grown in the entire area and the intensity of irrigation is 50%. The kor period for
wheat is 30 days and the kor water depth is 120mm. The outlet discharge for the
distributary should be
(A) 2.85m
3
/s (B) 3.21m
3
/s (C) 4.63m
3
/s (D) 5.23m
3
/s
Q.56 An isolated 4-hour storm occurred over a catchment as follows
Time
Rainfall (mm)
1
st
hour
9
2
nd
hour
28
3
rd
hour
12
4
th
hour
7
The index for the catchment is 10mm/h. The estimated runoff depth from the
catchment due to the above storm is
(A) 10mm (B) 16mm (C) 20mm (D) 23mm
Q.57 Two electrostatic precipitators (ESPs) are in series. The fractional efficiencies of
the upstream and downstream ESPs for size d
p
are 80% and 65%. Respectively.
What is the overall efficiency of the system for the same d
p
?
(A) 100% (B) 93% (C) 80% (D) 65%
Q.58 50g of CO
2
and 25g of CH
4
are produced from the decomposition of municipal
solid waste (MSW) with a formula weight of 120g. What is the average per capita
green house gas production in a city of 1 million people with a MSW production
rate of 500 ton / day?
(A) 104 g/day (B) 120 g/day (C) 208 g/day (D) 313 g /day
Q.59 The extra widening required for a two-lane national highway at a horizontal curve
of 300 m radius, considering a wheel base of 8m and a design speed of 100kmph
is
(A) 0.42m (B) 0.62m (C) 0.82m (D) 0.92m
Q.60 While designing a hill road with a ruling gradient of 6%, if a sharp horizontal
curve of 50m radius is encountered, the compensated gradient at the curve as per
the Indian Roads Congress specifications should be
(A) 4.4% (B) 4.75% (C) 5.0% (D) 5.25%
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Q.61 The design speed on a road is 60kmph. Assuming the driver reaction time of 2.5
seconds and coefficient of friction of pavement surface as 0.35, the required
stopped distance for two-way traffic on a single lane road is
(A) 82.1m (B) 102.4 (C) 164.2m (D) 186.4m
Q.62 The width of the expansion joint is 20mm in a cement concrete pavement. The
laying temperature is 20
0
C and the maximum slab temperature in summer is 60
0
C.
The coefficient of thermal expansion of concrete is 10 x 10
-6
mm/mm /
0
C and the
joint filler compresses upto 50% of the thickness. The spacing between expansion
joints should be
(A) 20m (B) 25m (C) 30m (D) 40m
Q.63 The following data pertains to the number of commercial vehicles per day for the
design of a flexible pavement for a national highway as per IRC: 37-1984
Type of commercial Number of vehicles per day
Vehicle Damage Factor
vehicle considering the number of lanes
Two axle trucks 2000 5
Tandem axle trucks 200 6
Assuming a traffic growth factor of 7.5% per annum for both the types of
vehicles, the cumulative number of standard axle load repetitions (in million) for
a design life of ten years is
(A) 44.6 (B) 57.8 (C) 62.4 (D) 78.7
Q.64 Match the following tests on aggregate and its properties
P.
Q.
R.
S.
Crushing Test
Los Angles abrasion test
Soundness test
Angularity test
1.
2.
3.
4.
Hardness
Weathering
Shape
Strength
(A) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
(B) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
(D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-2
Q.65 The plan of a map was photo copied to a reduced size such that a line originally
100mm, measures 90mm. The original scale of the plan was 1:1000. The revised
scale is
(A) 1:900 (B) 1:11111 (C) 1:1121 (D) 1:1221
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Q.66 The following table gives data of consecutive coordinates in respect of a closed
theodolite traverse PQRSP.
P
Q
R
S
400.75
100.25
199.0
300.0
300.5
199.25
399.75
200.5
The magnitude and direction of error of closure in whole circle bearing are
(A) 2.0m and 45
0
(C) 2.82m and 315
0
(B) 2.0m and 315
0
(D) 3.42m and 45
0
Q.67 The following measurements were made during testing a leveling instrument.
P
Q
2.800m
2.700m
1.700m
1.800m
P
1
is close to P and Q
1
is close to Q. If the reduced level of station P is 100.000m,
the reduced level of station Q is
(A) 99.000m (B) 100.000m (C) 101.000m (D) 102.000m
Q.68 Two straight lines intersect at an angle of 60
0
. The radius of a curve joining the
two straight lines is 600m. The length of long chord and mid-ordinates in metres
of the curve are
(A) 80.4, 600.00 (B) 600.0, 80.4 (C) 600.0, 39.89 (D) 40, 89,300
Q.69 The magnetic bearing of a line AB is S 45
0
E and the declination is 5
0
West. The
true bearing of the line AB is
(A) S 45
0
E (B) S 40
0
E (C) S 50
0
E (D) S 50
0
W
Water is flowing through the permeability apparatus as shown in the figure. The
coefficient of permeability of the soil is km/s and the porosity of the soil sample is
0.50.
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Q.70 The total head, elevation head and pressure head in metres of water at the point R
shown in the figure are
(A) 0.8, 0.4, 0.4
(C) 0.4, 0, 0.4
(B) 1.2, 0.4, 0.8
(D) 1.6, 0.4, 1.2
Q.71 What are the discharge velocity and seepage velocity through the soil sample?
(A) k, 2k (B) 2/3k, 4/3k (C) 2k,k (D) 4/3k, 2/3k
Ordinates of a 1-hour unit hydrograph at 1 hour intervals, starting from time t = 0,
are 0, 2, 6,4,2,1 and 0 m
3
/s.
Q.72 Catchment area represented by this unit hydrograph is
(A) 1.0 km
2
(B) 2.0 km
2
(C) 3.2 km
2
(D) 5.4 km
2
Q.73 Ordinate of a 3-hour unit hydrograph for the catchment at t=3 hours is
(A) 2.0m
3
/s (B) 3.0m
3
/s (C) 4.0m
3
/s (D) 5.0m
3
/s
A completely mixed activated sludge process is used to treat a wastewater flow of
1 million litres per day (1 MLD) having a BOD
5
of 200 mg/L. The biomass
concentration in the aeration tank is 2000 mg/L and the concentration of the net
biomass leaving the system of 50mg/L. the aeration tank has a volume of 200 m
3
.
Q.74 What is the hydraulic retention time of the wastewater in aeration tank?
(A) 0.2h (B) 4.8h (C) 10h (D) 24h
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Q.75 What is the average time for which the biomass stays in the system?
(A) 5h (B) 8h (C) 2days (D) 8 days
A two span continuous beam having equal spans each of length L is subjected to a
uniformly distributed load per unit length. The beam has constant flexural
rigidity.
Q.76 The reaction at the middle support is
2
(A) L
(B)
5
2 (C)
5
4
(D)
16
A singly reinforced rectangular concrete beam has a width of 150mm and an effective
depth of 330mm. The characteristic compressive strength of concrete is 20 MPa. Adopt
the stress block for concrete as given in IS 456-2000 and take limiting value of depth of
neutral axis as 0.48 times the effective depth of the beam.
Q.78 The limiting value of the moment of resistance of the beam is kN.m is
(A) 0.14 (B) 0.45 (C) 45.08 (D) 156.82
Q.79 The limiting area of tension steel in mm
2
is
(A) 473.9 (B) 412.3 (C) 373.9
(D) 312.3
The ground conditions at a site are as shown in the figure. The water table at the
site which was initially at a depth of 5m below the ground level got permanently
lowered to a depth of 15m below the ground level due to pumping of water over a
few years. Assume the following data
i. unit weight of water = 10kN/m
3
ii. unit weight of sand above water table = 18kN/m
3
iii. unit weight of sand and clay below the water table = 20kN/m
3
iv. coefficient of volume compressibility = 0.25m
2
/MN
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Q.80 What is the change in the effective stress in kN/m
2
at mid-depth of the clay layer
due to the lowering of the water table?
(A) 0 (B) 20 (C) 80 (D) 100
Q.81 What is the compression of the clay layer in mm due to the lowering of the water
table?
(A) 125 (B) 100 (C) 25 (D) 0
A rectangular open channel needs to be designed to carry a flow of 2.0m
3
/s under
uniform flow conditions. The Mannings roughness coefficient is 0.018. The
channel should be such that the flow depth is equal to half the width, and the
Froude number is equal to 0.5.
Q.82 The bed slope of the channel to be provided is
(A) 0.0012 (B) 0.0021 (C) 0.0025 (D) 0.0052
Q.83 Keeping the width, flow depth and roughness the same, if the bed slope of the
above channel is doubled, the average, boundary shear stress under uniform flow
conditions is
(A) 5.6 N/m
2
(B) 10.8 N/m
2
(C) 12.3 N/m
2
(D) 17.2 N/m
2
A plain sedimentation tank with a length of 20m, width of 10m, and a depth of 3m
is used in a water treatment plant to treat 4 million litres of water per day (4
MLD). The average temperature of water is 20
0
C. The dynamic viscosity of water
is 1.002 x 10
-3
N.s/m
2
at 20
0
C. Density of water is 998.2 kg/M
3
. Average specific
gravity of particles is 2.65.
Q.84 What is the surface overflow rate in the sedimentation tank?
(A) 20m
3
/ m
2
/ day
(C) 67m
3
/ m
2
/ day
(B) 40m
3
/ m
2
/ day
(D) 133m
3
/ m
2
/ day
Q.85 What is the minimum diameter of the particle which can be removed with 100%
efficiency in the above sedimentation tank?
(A) 11.8 x 10
-3
mm
(C) 50 x 10
-3
mm
(B) 16.0 x 10
-3
mm
(D) 160 x 10
-3
mm
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