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# Physics 1C First Week Class notes : Walter Gekelman

Fall 2012

## Class Notes : Walter Gekelman

Let us review once again the Force laws as well as those involving electric forces:

(1) F = q E + v B

(2)

0 Ei ndA = Q

Gausss law

## Bi ndA = 0 no magnetic monopoles

(Newton's/Amp 2 ) and Amperes Law: (4) Bidl = 0 i . This relates the magnetic field to the current.
Note the integral sign refers to the integral around a closed loop. Magnetic fields, in turn, always come from moving charges, or electrical current which is a collection of moving charges. For a moving charge:

0 = 4 10 7 N/A 2

0 q ( v r ) ( 5) B = here r is the distance to the observer of the magnetic field and v 2 4 r is the velocity of the charge. Because there is a cross product in the expression the magnetic field is out of the plane containing ( r, v) . This is all well illustrated in Figure
28.1 in the text. Fig 28-1

## Physics 1C First Week Class notes : Walter Gekelman

Fall 2012

What about the magnetic field from a wire with an arbitrary shape? To this end we use the Law of Biot and Savart:

oi d l r (6) B ( r ) = r2 4

## Always works, no symmetry required

dl

B
oi d l r Note dB ( r ) = (from a segment dl of the wire) 2 4 r To use the Law of Biot and Savart we have to:
1) Determine what the vectors r and dl are. 2) Find the angle between r and dl 3) Look for symmetries. Does a component of B cancel out so we need not do an integral to calculate it? 4) Find the limits of integration 5) When you have a final solution see if it makes sense. Equations 5 and 6 are basically the same. Consider a current moving through a tiny segment of wire of length dl. The current is constrained to be within the wire which implies that Idl = Idl . The definition of current density J (current per unit area ) and current (I) is:

(7) J = qnv

I = J idA = qn vidA

## Here j is the current density and the dot

product is between the velocity of the charge and the normal to the area. If the current flows into an area (along the normal to it) and not at an angle then I = nqvA . Putting 0 (nqdlA)v r this into the Biot Savart Law dB = . n is the number of charges per 4 r2 volume. The volume of a segment of the wire is Adl and if there is only 1 charge the equation reduces to equation 5. 2

## Physics 1C First Week Class notes : Walter Gekelman

Fall 2012

Let us do a problem with the law of Biot and Savart. What is the magnetic field (on axis) above a circular ring or radius R carrying a current I? The current I is counterclockwise

dB =

0 Idl
4 r 2

note |d l r| =dl
a 2 d

I B = dB = 0 i 4

(a

+x

3 2 2

## . The integral is now only over the angle. As we

integrate around the loop neither a or x changes so all that comes out of the integral. The solution then is (8)

I B = dB = 0 4

2 a 2

(a

+x

3 2 2

## Physics 1C First Week Class notes : Walter Gekelman

Fall 2012

Does this make sense? If we get very far from the loop then x>>a and Ia 2 Bxa = 0 3 i . The magnetic field drops off as one over the distance cubed. very fast. 2x If a=0 then of course there is no loop and B=0. If x = 0 then we get the B field in the center of the loop I a 2 0 I Bx=0 = 0 i 3 i = 2 2a 2 2 (a )

We can use Biot answers to solve what look like hard problems easily:

Note the straight section of the wire contribute nothing at point C because dl r = 0 . On the semicircular sections one can use the limit of B= 4 R2 + x 2

0 IR 2

3/ 2

x = 0 which is B =

## 0 I for each one. There is a 4 instead of a 2 in 4R

the denominator because we integrate over half the circle in this case.

## Physics 1C First Week Class notes : Walter Gekelman

Fall 2012

Now heres where you need to use the law of Biot and Savart:

The gold structures are magnetic coils for a type of machine called a Stellerator. The pink stuff in the center is a, plasma which is supposed to be confined by these magnetic fields. This is a general law about the integral of the field over a closed line. The line can be any line in three dimensional space. Th current that appears on the right hand side is the currents that thread through the loop. If there are currents outside the loop they wont contribute to the integral and the magnetic field due to them will not be picked up! Ampers law is always true but it may not be possible to find the magnetic field using it if the current is complicated. Consider one of the magnets on the HSX stellerator at Wisconsin shown below The magnets are the brown objects. Thousand of Amperes flow through them. They are clearly three dimensional objects with no symmetry whatsoever. It is impossible to use Amps law to find the field. One must, instead, use the law of Biot and Savart considering each dl of the coil.

Fall 2012

## Consider problem 28.70. We wish to find the magnetic field at point P.

The horizontal part of the wire gives nothing as a and dl are parallel. The vertical part is essentially half of an infinite wire. The magnetic field from an infinite wire is calculated I on page 963 and in this problem it would be 0 , but since this is half an infinite wire 4 a I the solution (using the right hand rule to determine the direction of B) is B = 0 ( k) or 4 a into the paper. What is dl r ? dl points down and r from some point on the wire upwards towards P

x dl r = dlysin = dysin k = dy 2 k 2 x +y

()

Ix B= 0 4
0

dy

(x

+y

3 2 2

0 Ix 4

y x2 x2 + y

1 2 2

0 Limy=

0 I 4 x

Amperes Law: This is one of the 4 maxwells equations. Later we will see it there is a term missing which has to do with time varying electric fields, but if nothing is changing in time then : (9)

B i dl = 0 i

; Ampres Law

What does this mean? The circle in the integral sign means we must integrate over a closed curve. It could be a circle , an ellipse or the horrible curve shown on the next page. The integral of the magnetic field along the curve (hence the dot product) always gives you the current flowing through the curve.

## Physics 1C First Week Class notes : Walter Gekelman

Fall 2012

The diagram above shows a closed loop in blue with a current somewhere inside it. B i dl is the projection of the magnetic field along the path of integration. Amperes law is always true but it is only useful to find B in cases where there is symmetry. You wouldnt dream of using the path of integration shown. If you choose a circle centered on the current then the problem becomes trivial. BUT looking at the diagram

dB i dl

is rd . This is a small segment of the circumference of a circle. So each part of the jelly beam shape will give us a result identical to one in which the closed curve was a circle. So we might as well use a circle with the current at its center. When you do this you I immediately (see the textbook) that B = B = 0 2 R Lets do a problem: Consider a coaxial cable (used every moment of the day to carry signals) The setup is as shown

## Physics 1C First Week Class notes : Walter Gekelman

Fall 2012

Given that in the inner conductor that J = rk , the current density j varies with r! The current density is the current flowing through the area of the cylinder of radius R1. If the total current in the inner conductor is I we can immediately find .
10)

R1 0

## front area. Therefore

R1 R1 R1 2 3 dA = J dA = r2 r dr = 2 r 2 dr = I0 = J i n R1 3 0 0 0 0 R1

3I 0 2 R13

What is the magnetic field inside the inner conductor at r<R1 ? Use Amps law

r < R1

B d l = 2 rB = 0 iin

r 2 r 3 iin = j i n dA = r2 r dr = 3 0

; (r R1 )

()

; (r R1 )

## In the center region between the conductors:

r > R1

I B= 0 0 2 r r > R2 B d l = 0 ( i0 i0 ) B=0

B d l = 2 rB = 0 iin

## and outside it is zero:

What about between R2 and R3? That depends on how the return current varies with r there. If it is similar to case a) J = r k then we have to do another integration. Try

( )

it Note that the condition that to total currents in the inner and outer conductors are equal will fix the value of beta. It wont be the same as alpha. 8

## Physics 1C First Week Class notes : Walter Gekelman

Fall 2012

Next lets go over the force law. In this case consider a square loop. This is related to the Force law problems of Physics 1B but now let us examine the forces on each wire due to the presence of the others and due to the long wire on the right hand side of the diagram with an upward flowing current I. An object cannot exert a net force on itself (or we could have perpetual motion). The forces on the wires cancel in pairs (check it out!). Now let us examine the force on the loop due to the vertical current.

b 1 2

The loop has dimensions a and b and for whatever reason a current flows around it in a counterclockwise direction. The current has magnitude i. A current, i, flows upwards along a wire on the right. What is the force on the loop due to the wire on the right? To find it we have to sum over the 4 elements on the loop. The force on a current element is:

dF = idl B

B is the magnetic field due to the wire on the right, which also carries current I.

I B= 0 k 2 x

for element 4:

0 bI 2 F4 = ( i ) 2 2a

( )

## Physics 1C First Week Class notes : Walter Gekelman

Fall 2012

For element 2: F2 = I 2
a

2a

0 dx 2a ( i k) = I 2 0 ln = I 2 0 ln 2 . j j 2 x 2 a 2

()

For element 1 we see that the magnitude of the force is the same as that for 2, but it has the opposite sign so they cancel. What about element 4 and 1? The force in the x direction is: F = F1+F4
2 2 0bI 2 ) + 0bI (i ) = 0bI i Floop = + (i 2 ( 2a ) 2 ( a ) 4 a

The loop is pulled in towards the wire. What is the magnetic field due to a spinning disk?

Q R2

I=

Q :definition t

dI =

10

## Physics 1C First Week Class notes : Walter Gekelman

Fall 2012

dI =

Q rdr R2

In the book the field above a ring is solved for on page 968. (Eq 28-16). The magnetic field due to a current ring , on axis, a distance x above the center. Note as before the B field is in the x direction.

B=
rings.

2 r 2 + x2
0 r 2

(
(

0 Ir 2

3/ 2

It points along the axis of the ring. Now sum up over many

dB =

2 r 2 + x2
R

3/ 2

dI =

2 r 2 + x2

0 r 3

3/ 2

Q dr R2

B=

2 r 2 + x2

0 r 3

3/ 2

Q dr 2 R R 1/ 2 0

r2 2 r 2 + x2 + B= 2 R 2 r 2 + x2

0Q

Q B= 0 2 2 R

3R 2 + 2x 2 2x R 2 + x 2 R2 + x 2

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## Physics 1C First Week Class notes : Walter Gekelman

Fall 2012

Note as x becomes very large it dominates the square root term and the magnetic field 3 Q 0 R 2 goes like: B(Limx ) = 0 = . This is only an approximation. Let us 2 x x plot both the exact solution and the approximation.

B on axis

Distance x
The red line with the arrow pointing toward it is the 1/x approximation. You can see that far away the two solutions agree very well but close to the disk the 1/x approximation breaks down. In fact it becomes infinite at the origin while the exact answer does not.

Consider the case of two parallel wires shown above and a square, conducting loop. What is the magnetic field everywhere inside the loop? This is similar to the force on a wire type of problems but here there is no current flowing in the loop. Let x = 0 be at the position of the right vertical wire. Using Amperes law the field from the left hand wire 0i 0i is: B = k , into the page. The field of the second wire is B = k . 2 ( x + D ) 2 ( x )

( )

()

Therefore the total magnetic field at any x position is 1 1 0 D B= 0 k = x ( x + D ) k . When we discussed Gausss law we use 2 x ( x + D ) 2 the concept of electric flux, it is defined as:

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## Physics 1C First Week Class notes : Walter Gekelman

Fall 2012

E = EindA . The electric flux can go through an area such as a rectangle. If the total
flux out/in of a surface bounding a volume is not zero then there is charge inside the volume:

q EindA = enclosed 0
(8)

## B ndA = 0 . This states there are no magnetic monopoles. Similarly we can

ask what is the magnetic flux through an area such as the square loop in the problem above.
y= a x = 2b

Bloop = Bloop

y= 0 x =b

0 2

## 1 1 k i kdxdy let u=x+D, du =dx x ( x + D)

a a 2b 2b + D 2b 2b = 0 {ln x |b ln u |b ++ D } = 0 ln ln D b+ D 2 2 b

Therefore

the magnetic flux through an area which does not close around a volume is not zero. The importance of magnetic flux through an area is the subject of the next chapter.

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## Physics 1C First Week Class notes : Walter Gekelman

Fall 2012

There are N parallel current channels each carrying current I. The total current is, therefor NI. We can use Amps law to solve this one. Looking at the sheet of current side on we use an rectangular closed line as shown.

I (current)

We integrate counter clockwise. If the sheet is infinite the magnetic field on top and bottom must be parallel to the surface (why?). The vertical parts of dl are at right angle to B so they dont count. Assume the length of one side of the rectangle is L. Amps law gives us

2LB = 0 I enclosed . But if I is the total current the the current enclosed is nIL where n is
the number of square rods per unit length.

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## Physics 1C First Week Class notes : Walter Gekelman

Fall 2012

0 nI . It points to the right on top and the left on the bottom. Note 2 that it does not depend on height. No matter how high above it you are you still see an infinite plane. Compare this to the electric field above an infinite sheet of charge.
2LB = 0 InL ; B=
Magnetic Dipole moment. The magnetic dipole moment is defined as (11) = IA where A is an area and I is the current passing normal to that area. If the current passes through the area at an angle the dipole moment can be generalized to be.

(12) = J i n dA where J is the current density (current per unit area). Why do we
introduce this? As you recall a positive and negative charge separated by a distance d are an electric dipole with dipole moment p = qd, and which points from the negative to positive charge. The pattern of field lines of an electric dipole is exactly the same as that of a magnetic dipole. The mathematical formula is the same if you replace p by mu.

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## Physics 1C First Week Class notes : Walter Gekelman

Fall 2012

Appendix : Forces , Particle Motion in a Magnetic Field Stuff you had in the previous course. Force on a charge q in a B field only! The magnetic field is in the +z direction and is constant.

F = qv B dvx i k dt j dvy = q v v v = q v B i v B B = B0 k m y 0 x 0j x y z dt 0 0 B0 dvz dt dvy dvz dv m x = qvy B0 m = qvx B0 = 0 vz = v0 z (a constant) dt dt dt dvy d 2v d 2 vx q2 B2 m 2x = q B0 = 20 vx dt dt dt 2 m 2 2 d vy d vy dv q2 B2 m 2 = q x B0 = 20 vy dt dt dt 2 m qB Define c 0 (cylotron frequency) m vx = A cos ct + Bsin ct vy = C cos ct + D sin ct

We have to use initial conditions to find all the constants vx ( t = 0 ) = v vy ( t = 0 ) = 0 this yields B=0, A=v

vx ( t ) = v cos ct

vy = C cos ct + D sin ct , vy ( t=0 ) =0 , C=0 since m dvx = mqvy B0 =- c v sin ct =qB0 D sin ct dt m c v D= = v and vy = v sin ct qB0

vx =

dx dt

etc

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## Physics 1C First Week Class notes : Walter Gekelman

Fall 2012

v v v sin ct y = cos ct Define R c = c c c mv R= qB x= This is the cyclotron radius. Note for electrons: fc =

## c = 2.8X10 6 hz/Gauss 2 T R c = 2.38 T is temperature in electron volts, B gauss B

Note that vz is constant so that whatever the z velocity was at the outset, it wont change. Thus the motion of the particle is a spiral. One can take advantage of this in building instruments to measure the properties of elementary particles. One such device is a bubble chamber in which a charged particle leaves a track in a super-cooled liquid for a example a mixture of liquid helium and liquid hydrogen. The liquid is kept at about 5 atmospheres and just before the experiment the pressure is suddenly reduced to atmosphere and the liquid although still cold becomes superheated. Under these conditions any charged particle moving through it leaves a track of bubbles. A photograph is taken of the bubbles. The pressure is then reduced and the bubbles vanish ready for the next shot. One such track is shown below. here the incoming elementary particle ( a type of meson that caused it all has an energy equivalent to 10 billion volts!)

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Fall 2012

## End of appendix!!@! What follow is new material

There is another interesting point. We learned in the past the energy and momentum is conserved. It turns out (we wont prove it) that another quantity called the adiabatic invariant is also conserved (there are other conserved quantities as well.) Consider a single +q charge gyrating about the a magnetic field. It has a circular current

q q2 B = qf = q c = T 2 2 m Let us look at the product of the current multiplied by the area within its orbit (Assume it has no velocity parallel to the B field) 1 2 2 mv 2 2 q B q B mv 2 2 magnetic moment iA = Rc = = 2 m 2 m qB B i=
It can be proven that this quantity is conserved. What does this imply? What is the magnetic flux inside the orbit of the rotating charged particle? 18

Fall 2012

## mv 2 M = Bin dA = RC B = B Here B is the background uniform magnetic qB orbit

field. With a bit of algebra we can re-write this

M =

B m 2 v2 2 m = . Since the charge and mass are both constants and the q2 B2 q2

magnetic moment is conserved and is also a constant the magnetic flux with the orbit is also conserved.

## d M =0 dt Consider the types of motion shown below:

In the diagram on the left the particle simply orbits around the magnetic field line. In the center diagram the magnetic field is stronger on the top and bottom. Since the flux within the orbit is conserved the perpendicular velocity of the particle must get larger 1 1 2 when B increases. Since the particle energy (also conserved) is E = mv2 + mv the 2 2

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## Physics 1C First Week Class notes : Walter Gekelman

Fall 2012

parallel velocity must decrease as B goes up. At some point v will go to zero. The particle will either remain in the high B region or be reflected back into the lower B region, but it wont get out along the magnetic field. This is a magnetic trap, often called a magnetic mirror. If the magnetic field is curved as in the extreme left or right diagram another drift comes into play. It is complicated to derive but it turn out the the drisf velocity will be proportional to vD qB B . This means the particles will drift in the azimuthal direction as shown. Opposite charges in the +/- phi direction. This means that particles trapped in the earths radiation belts mirror and drift:

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