RAILWAY

PRBATIONARY ASSISTANT STATION MASTER EXAM

Minimum Educational Qualification: Bachelors degree from any recognized University. Diploma in Rail transport and Management Transport Economics and Multi model Transport considered as additional qualification. Age Limit: 18 to 33 years (the age is generally reckoned as on 1st July) Selection Procedure: Generally written Test is followed by physiological Test Which will be of qualifying nature. The qualified candidates in the written Test are allowed to appear physiological test. The Railway Recruitment Boards are authorized to conduct written test in Two parts(Preliminary & Mains) Generally candidates are not subject to appear Interview The list of qualified candidates in the written Test is prepared after scrutinizing the original copies of Caste Certificates, Certificates of Educational Qualifications, Experience Certificates,etc. The Written Test Consists Objective Type Multiple Choice Questions are asked on Linguistic Efficiency (Hindi/English), General Knowledge , General Intelligence, Arithmetic. The writers Test is based on the Prescribed Syllabus.

TICKET COLLECTOR (TC) Exam:

Minimum Educational Qualification: Matriculation with 50% marks For Scheduled Caste/ Scheduled Tribe the condition of 50% is not a must Candidate with higher qualification are allowed to appear the test even though marks obtained in matriculation is lower than 50% (As per the Advertisement made by the RRB Mumbai and RRB Bhopal, in the Employment News , 28 June-4 July 2003) Age Limit: 18 to 30 years Selection Procedure: Generally the written Test consists of two parts. The Recruitment process does not include interview or personally Test. The list of qualified candidates in the written Test is prepared on the basis of marks obtained in the Test. the final list of qualified candidates is prepaid after scrutinizing the original copies of Caste Certificate (if necessary), certificates of Educational Qualifications, Experience Certificates, etc. The written Test comprises objective Type Multiple Choice Questions. Questions are asked on Linguistic Efficiency (Hindi/ English) General Knowledge, Reasoning, ability and on Commercial / Technical know how of the relevant field. The syllabus of the Written Test is commensurate with the educational qualification.

COMMERCIAL CLERK (CC) EXAM:

Minimum Educational Qualification: Matriculation with 50% marks For Scheduled Caste/ Scheduled Tribe the condition of 50% is not a must Candidate with higher qualification are allowed to appear the test even though marks obtained in matriculation is lower than 50% (As per the Advertisement made by the RRB Mumbai and RRB Bhopal, in the Employment News , 28 June-4 July 2003) Age Limit: 18 to 30 years Selection Procedure: Generally the written Test consists of two parts. The Recruitment process does not include interview or personally Test. The list of qualified candidates in the written Test is prepared on the basis of marks obtained in the Test. the final list of qualified candidates is prepaid after scrutinizing the original copies of Caste Certificate (if necessary), certificates of Educational Qualifications, Experience Certificates, etc. The written Test comprises objective Type Multiple Choice Questions. Questions are asked on Linguistic Efficiency (Hindi/ English) General Knowledge, Reasoning, ability and on Commercial / Technical know how of the relevant field. The syllabus of the Written Test is commensurate with the educational qualification.

APPRENTICE DISEL/ ELECTRIC ASSISTANT (DRIVER) EXAM:

Minimum Educational Qualification: Matriculation (10th pass) in the 10 , +2 system of Educational in addition to this Apprenticeship/ ITI Certificate in any one of the following trade as per Apprentice Act 1961. 1) Fitter 2) Electrician 3) Instrument Mechanic 4) Mill Right/ Maintenance Mechanic 5) Radio& T.V. Mechanic 6) Electronic Mechanic 7) Motor Vehicle Mechanic 8) Ware man 9) Tractor Mechanic 10) Armature and Coil Winder 11) Diesel Mechanic 12) Heat Engine 13) Turner 14) Machinist 15) Refrigeration & A/C Mechanic or Diploma in Place of Certificate Course from IIT Age Limit: 18 to 30 years Selection procedure: Generally candidates are to appear a written Test and Qualified candidates are to appear psychological Test, Subsequently. But Railway Boards are empowered to conduct Written Tests in two parts(prelim& Mains) in which one may be a Written Test. Generally in this Exam, there is no Interview/ Personality Test . The list of qualified candidates in the written Test is prepared on the basis of marks obtained in the Test. The final lis5 of qualified candidates is prepared after scrutinizing then original copies of Caste Certificates (if necessary), Certificates of Educational Qualifications, Experience Certificates etc.

The written Test consists of objective Type Multiple Choice Questions. Questions are asked on Linguistic Efficiency (Hindi/English), General Knowledge, Reasoning ability and on Commercial/ Technical know how of the relevant field.

GOODS CUARD EXAM:

Minimum Educational Qualification : Degree from any recognized University Additio0nal Desirable Qualification: Diploma in Rail Transport and Management transport Economics and Multi Model Transport (Containerization) and logistic Management awarded by institution of Rail Transport, Rail Bhavan, New Delhi. Age Limit: 18 to 33 years Selection procedure: Generally the Written Test Consists of Two parts Generally there is no provision of Interview/ Personality Test The list of qualified candidates in the Written Test is prepared after scrutinizing the original copies of Caste Certificate (if necessary), Certificate of Educational Qualifications, Experience certificates, etc. The Write Test consists of objective Type Multiple choice Questions. Questions are asked on Linguistic efficacy (Hindi/English), General Knowledge, Reasoning ability and on commercial/ Technical Know how of the relevant field.

RRB ASM (MT) EXAM

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
1) During which Sultans period the boundaries of Khalsa were extensively extended? 1) Ghiyasuddin Balban 2) Allauddin Khilji 3) Mohammad Bin Tughalaq 4) Froze shah Tughalag 2) Who was he author of Barahmasa? 1) Amir Khusro 2) Isami 3) Malik mohamad Jaiyasi 4) Rashkan 3) Where did the Britisher establish their first factory in 1612? 1) Goa 2) Hooghly 3) Arcot d) Surat 4) The year is longest on: 1) Pluto 2) Jupiter 3) Neptune 4) Earth 5) When is the Elders day celebrated? 1) October 1 2) October 2 3) October 3 4) October 4 6) When is the valentine day celebrated ? 1) 6 February 2) 12 February 3) 14 February 4)24 February 7) Which amongst the following is known as White Coal? 1) Hydro-Electricity 2) Ice 3) Uranium 4) Diamond 8) Which state in India is known as the sugar bowl? 1) Andrea Pradesh 2) Madhya Pradesh 3) Uttar Pradesh 4) Tamil nadu 9) In Which year were the states organized on linguistic basis? 1) 1947 2) 1951 3) 1956 4) 1966 10) When was Pachyati Raj started in India? 1) 1950 2) 1952 3) 1958 4) 1962

11) When did the constitution of Jammu and Kashmir come into existence? 1) 26 Jan 1957 2) 26 Jan 1951 3) 26 Jan 1958 4)None of these 12) Who was the chairman of the fifth pay commission? 1) G.V. Ram Krishnan 2) V.C. Vohra 3) S.R. Pandian 4) M.P. Modi 13) What is new name of Calcutta ? 1) Kalkutta 2) Calicuta 3) Kaligaon 4) Kolkata 14) On whose name will the new name of Church agate be kept? 1) Shivaji 2) Balasaheb Devras 3) Chintamani Rao Deshmukh 4) Raj kapoor 15) Who is the winner of world cup cricket 1999? 1) Kenya 2) Australia 3) Canada 4) South Africa 16) Who is the owner of star television? 1) Tata group 2) George Luckas 3) Rupert Murdork 4) Attenborough 17) Alexander the great the ruler ofa) Greece 2) Rome 3) Macedonia 4) Sparta 18) When was the capital of India shifted from kolkata to Delhi? a) 1909 2) 1910 3) 1911 4) 1914 19) On the bank of which river is Hyderabad situated? a) Bhima b) sabaramti 3) Musi 4) Luni 20)When the supreme court was constituted in 1950. How many judges were there including th4e chief justice in the supreme court? 1) 10 2) 9 3) 8 4)7 22) Who was the author of Indian unrest ? 1) Dadabhai Naoroji 2) Annie Besant 3) Lala Lajpat Rai 4) Valentie Chirol 23) Which amongst the follwing sates are involved in Cauvery dispute?

1) Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Pondichery, Kerala 2) Karnataka, Andra Pradesh , and kerala 3) Karnataka and Tamil nadu 4) Karnataka , Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and kerala 24)From which amongst the follwing minerals, uranium is obtained? 1) Lime stone 2) Pitcblend 3) Rutile 4) Hematite 25) In a mans life, how many teeth are formed twice? 1) 4 2) 12 3) 20 4) 28 26) Who wrote the book Hind India? 1) J.L. Nehru 2) B.G. Tilak 3) Aurobindo Ghosh 4) Mahatma Gandhi 27) When was the first newspaper published in India ? 1) 1689 2) 1898 3) 1783 4) 1527 28) What was the currency of Portugal? 1) Escudo 2) Franc 3) Pound 4) None 29) By which name is the religious book of Jews known? 1) Bible 2) Talmad 3) Tora 4) none 30) Who is the first woman judge of the supreme court? 1) Nirmala Gokhale 2) Malavika Dube 3) Kancan giri 4) Fatima bibi 31) Which amongst the follwing is the main constituent of Gobar gas? 1) Nitrogen 2) Methane 3)_ Ethane 4) propane 32) Which part of the body Produces RBCs? 1) Liver 2) Lungs 3) Bone marrow 4) none 33) When the speaker of lok Sabha resigns, whom does he address his resignation letter? 1) Deputy speaker 2) Prime Minster 3) Governor 4) Chief Minister 34) Who amongs the follwing contributed maximum to the bhagwad Sampradaya? 1) Parthian 2) Indo-Greek 3) Kushan 4) Guptas 35) Which is that only pillar in which Ashoka has called himself ruled of Magadh?

1) Muni-pillar of Maski 2) Rumeindie Pillar 3) Queen pillar 4) Bhabra Pillar 36) Indias Coastline is 1) 6,200 k.m. long 2) 6,100 k.m. long 3) 5,985 k.m. long 4) 6,175 k.m. long 37) In which article of the constitution of India would you find the provision of constitutional amendment? 1) Article 320 2) Article 325 3) Article 358 4) Article 368 38) How many bacteria may exist one gram of soil fit for cultivation? 1) one lakh 2) one crore 3) 10 cross 4) more than 100 cross 39) Which is the winning team of the 1997 Nehru gold Cup tournament? 1) Iraq 2) Uzbekistan 3) Mohan Bagan 4) None 40) Who has won the Nobel prize for literature in 1999? 1) Tasleema Nasreen 2) Henry Beckett 3) Anita Desai 4) Gunter grass

ARITHMETIC

41) In an election between the two candidates. One gets 55% of the valid votes. The number of invalid votes is 20% of the total votes. If the total number of votes is 7500, then the number of valid that the second candidate got is.. 1) 2700 2) 2900 3) 3000 4) 3100 5) None 42) If 1) O.6241 2) 6.241 3) 62.41 4) None 43) In a school, 1/5 of the boys and 1/8 of the girls took part in a social camp. How many students of the schools took part in the social camp? 1) 13/40 2) 13/80 3) 2/13 4) None 44) The value of 3-[(8-5)-{(4-2)-(2+8/13)}] 1) 13/17 2) 68/13 3)17/13 4) 13/68

(75.24+x) = 8. 71, then the value of x is-----

45) The ratio of the incomes of A and B is 3:2. The ratio of their expenditure is 5:3. If each of them save Rs. 10000 then what is the income of A? 1) Rs. 3000 2) Rs. 4000 3) Rs. 6000 4) Rs. 9000 5) None 46) The average weight of A, B and C is 45kg. If the average weight of A and B is 40kg and that of B and C is 43 kg. 1) 178 kg 2) 20 kg 3) 26 kg 4) 31 kg 5) None 47) The value of the square root of 0.324*0.081*4.624 1.5625*0.0289*72.9*64 is -----1) 24 2) 2.4 3) 0.024 4) None 48) The greatest 5 digit number which is a complete square -----------1) 99999 2) 99764 3) 99976 4) 99856 5) None 49) The value of

{ (0.1) -(0.01)
2

+1 3)

is --------5) None

0.0001 1) 100 2) 101

1010 4) 1101

50) if 91+27/169) = (1+x/13) then value of x is --1) 1 2) 3 3) 5 4) 7 5) None 51) The smallest square number which is divisible by 3, 4, 5, 6 and 8 is -------1) 900 2) 1200 3) 2500 4) 3600 5) None 52) By how much is 12% of 242 grater than 10% of 14.2? 1) 0.1484 2) 14.84 3) 1.484 4)2.762 5) None 53) The prime factor of (8)20(15)24 (7)15 is -----1) 59 2) 98 3) 123 4) 138 5) None 54) 3420/19=?/0.01*7

1) 35/9 2) 18/7 3) 63/5 4) 9/35 5) None 55) Alok buys 25kg. Rice at the rate of Rs. 6 per kg. And 35 kg. Rice at the rate of Rs. 7 per kg. Her mixes the two and sells it at Rs. 6.75 per kg. What is his profit or loss percentage? 1) Rs. 16 profit 2) Rs. 16 loss 3) Rs. 10 loss 4) Rs. 10 profit 56) In a bag 25 paise, 10 paise and 5 paise coins are in the ratio of 1:2:3. If their total value is Rs. 30, then the number of 5 paise coins is 1) 50 2) 100 3) 150 4) 2005) None 57) In a school there are 600 students, each amongst them study Englishy or Hindi or both. If 75% study English of 45% study Hindi. Then what is the number studying both? 1) 48 2) 60 3) 80 4) 120 5) None 58) Which is that smallest number which when divided to 3600 gives a complete cube? 1) 9 2) 50 3) 300 4) 450 5) None 59) A ship goes at the speed of 15 km./ hr. and returns at the rate of 10 km./hr. What is the average speed of the ship? 1) 5 km./ hr 2) 12 km./ hr 3) 12.5 km./ hr 4) 25 km./ hr 5) None 60) A batsman scores some average runs in 11 innings. He makes and his average becomes 5 less. What is his average in the 12 innings? 1) 127 2) 145 3) 150 4) 217 5) None 61) If in schools 70% students are boys and the number of girls is 504, then what is the number of boys? 1) 1176 2) 1008 3) 1208 4) 3024 5) None 62) Rakesh spends 15% of his salary on purchasing clothes and 30% of the rest on his family. If he has Rs. 2380 left. Then what is his salary?

1) Rs. 3500 2) Rs. 4000 3) Rs. 4500 4) Rs. 5000 5) None 63) If 75 is added to the 75% of number then it becomes equal to that number. Then that number is ------1) 150 2) 200 3) 225 4) 300 5) None 64) If 90% of A= 30% of B and B = x% of A, then value of x is -----1) 600 2) 800 3)900 4) 300 5) None 65) The length of a rectangle has been increased by 60%. By what percentage should the width be reduced so that no change in the area takes place? 1) 37 % 2) 60% 3) 75% 4) None 66) When a number is multiplied by 13, then in the result we get only 5s. Which is that number? 1) 41625 2) 42551 3) 42735 4)42135 5) None 67) The ratio of the ages of father and son is 4:1. The product of their ages is 196. 5 year later, the ratio of their ages will be 1) 3:1 2) 10:3 3) 11:4 4) 14:5 68) If a=16 and b=5, then a2+b2+ab/ a3-b3 will be 1) 1/11 2) 1/9 3) 121/3971 4) None 69) Rs. 1050 is to be divided between P, Q, and R. The share of P is 2/5th of the sum of the shares of Q and R. Therefore, P gets 1) Rs. 200 2) Rs. 300 3) Rs. 320 4) 420 70) The sum of the first four Prime Numbers is 1) 10 2) 11 3) 16 4) 17 5) None GENERAL ENGLISH Directions (71-73): In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word. Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four. 71. There is a disturbing nexus .politics and sports in India. 1) Among 2) with 3) by 4) between 72. Ritus marriage .Rakesh was tumultuous.

1) to 2) between 3) with 4) of 73. God is a circle whose.is everywhere but circumference nowhere. 1) Presence 2) centre 3) lens 4) kindness Directions (74-77): Choose the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word given in question. 74. CLANDESTINE 1) Dim 2) Clear 3) Open 4) Congested 75. ONEROUS 1) Light 2) Tough 3) Heavy 4) Dark 76. LACKADISICAL 1) Dull 2) Sensible 3) Hopeful 4) Enthusiastic 77. TURGID 1) Fair 2) Rough 3) Tall 4) Smooth Directions (78-81): In each of the following groups, a word has been spelled in four different ways out of which only one is correct. Select the correct answer. 78. 1) Amacher 2) Amature 3) Amateur 4) Ametur 79. 1) Itenerery 2) Itinerary 3) Itinery 4) Itinerary 80. 1) Connisear 2) Connoisser 3) Connoisseur 4) Connissure 81. 1) Ridiculous 2) Ridiculus 3) Riddiculous 4) Riddiculus Directions (82-85): One part of the following sentences has an error; point out the portion carrying error in the answer sheet. In case no error is there mentioned accordingly. 82. I have been to a few of his lecturers (1)/ but understood little of (2)/ what he has said (3)/ No error (4). 83. Not only the bandits robbed (1)/ the traveler of his purse (2)/ but also wounded him grievously. (3)/ No error (4) 84. The old woman has had the best medical facilities available (1)/ but she will not be cured (2)/ unless she does not have a strong desire to live. (3)/ No error (4)

85. Frozen foods are so popular today (1)/ that many people wonder (2)/ how they ever lived without them. (3)/ No error (4) Directions: Question number 86 to 88 is based on the following diagram

86. The number of triangles in the given figures is (1) 12 (2) 14 (3) 16 (4) 18 87. The number of quadrilaterals in the given figures is (1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 9 (4) 10 88. The number of pentagon in the given figures is. (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 (5) None Directions (89-94): In the following questions, there is a letter series, in which there are some blank spaces. Identify the group of letters which will complete the series? 89. abc bbcbc abcaa cab (1) aacb (2) abcd (3) aabc (4) abac 90. ac acbbac ac b cba (1) bbac (2) bbca (3) bbaa (4) baaa 91. aba bba baa aab abba (1) aaab (2) aabb (3) abbb (4) baaa 92. ab bcbcac abab bc (1) cabc (2) cacc (3) cacb 4) ab-bcbcba-ab 93. aba bab baca acba (1) ccca (2) cccb (3) ccab (4) bcac 94. ab aa bbaabb(1) bbba (2) bbaa (3) baaa (4) aaab Directions (95-105): In the following questions, there is a letter series, in which there are some blank spaces. Identify the group of letters which will complete the series? 95. 8, 4, 12,.., 18

(1) 6 (2) 8 96. 64, 49, 36,., 16 (1) 20 (2) 24 97. 28, 15, 6, .., 0 (1) 3 (2) 2 98. 96, 48, , 12, 6 (1) 18 (2) 24 99. -3, -2, .3, 7 (1) -1 (2) 0 100. 27, 18, 15, 13 (1) 20 (2) 21

(3) 9 (3) 25 (3) 0 (3) 30 (3) 1 (3) 22

(4) 15 (4) 32 (4) 1 (4) 36 (4) 2 (4) 23