MCAT Full Length3

03 MCAT FL Test3
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Physical Sciences
Time: 100 Minutes Questions 177
DO NOT BEGIN THIS SECTION UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.
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PHYSICAL SCIENCES
DIRECTIONS: Most of the questions in the Physical Sciences test are organized into groups, with a descriptive passage preceding each group of questions. Study the passage, then select the single best answer to each question in the group. Some of the questions are not based on a descriptive passage; you must also select the best answer to these questions. If you are unsure of the best answer, eliminate the choices that you know are incorrect, then select an answer from the choices that remain. Indicate your selection by blackening the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. A periodic table is provided below for your use with the questions.
PERIODIC TABLE OF THE ELEMENTS
1 H 1.0 3 Li 6.9 11 Na 23.0 19 K 39.1 37 Rb 85.5 55 Cs 132.9 87 Fr (223) 4 Be 9.0 12 Mg 24.3 20 Ca 40.1 38 Sr 87.6 56 Ba 137.3 88 Ra 226.0 21 Sc 45.0 39 Y 88.9 57 La * 138.9 89 Ac 227.0 22 Ti 47.9 40 Zr 91.2 72 Hf 178.5 104 Rf (261) 58 Ce 140.1 90 Th 232.0 23 V 50.9 41 Nb 92.9 73 Ta 180.9 105 Ha (262) 59 Pr 140.9 91 Pa (231) 24 Cr 52.0 42 Mo 95.9 74 W 183.9 106 Unh (263) 60 Nd 144.2 92 U 238.0 25 Mn 54.9 43 Tc (98) 75 Re 186.2 107 Uns (262) 61 Pm (145) 93 Np (237) 26 Fe 55.8 44 Ru 101.1 76 Os 190.2 108 Uno (265) 62 Sm 150.4 94 Pu (244) 27 Co 58.9 45 Rh 102.9 77 Ir 192.2 109 Une (267) 63 Eu 152.0 95 Am (243) 64 G d 157.3 96 Cm (247) 65 T b 158.9 97 Bk (247) 66 Dy 162.5 98 Cf (251) 67 Ho 164.9 99 Es (252) 68 Er 167.3 100 Fm (257) 69 Tm 168.9 101 Md (258) 70 Y b 173.0 102 No (259) 71 Lu 175.0 103 Lr (260) 28 Ni 58.7 46 Pd 106.4 78 Pt 195.1 29 Cu 63.5 47 Ag 107.9 79 Au 197.0 30 Zn 65.4 48 Cd 112.4 80 Hg 200.6 5 B 10.8 13 Al 27.0 31 Ga 69.7 49 In 114.8 81 Tl 204.4 6 C 12.0 14 Si 28.1 32 Ge 72.6 50 Sn 118.7 82 Pb 207.2 7 N 14.0 15 P 31.0 33 As 74.9 51 Sb 121.8 83 Bi 209.0 8 O 16.0 16 S 32.1 34 Se 79.0 52 Te 127.6 84 Po (209) 9 F 19.0 17 Cl 35.5 35 Br 79.9 53 I 126.9 85 At (210)
2 He 4.0 10 Ne 20.2 18 Ar 39.9 36 K r 83.8 54 Xe 131.3 86 Rn (222)
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Passage I (Questions 16) Historically, two different methods have been used to estimate the fluid pressure in capillary beds. Method 1 A glass pipette is inserted into the capillary. The level of blood rising in the pipette is measured and used to calculate the pressure. Alternatively, an inert fluid of density can be placed in the pipette and its height h can be measured. The pressure in the capillary is given by gh, where g is the acceleration due to gravity. pipette height of fluid
arterial pressure gut tissue venous pressure mass m
Figure 2 1. An arteriole is almost completely blocked by a blood clot as shown below. At which point will the velocity of blood flow be the greatest? (Assume ideal laminar flow throughout.)
B clot
C D
capillary bed Figure 1 Method 2 The pressure can be measured indirectly in the following way. A section of gut tissue is removed from a specimen and placed on a beam balance. Blood is circulated through the tissue by a pump. The arterial pressure is then decreased. This leads to a decrease in the capillary hydrostatic pressure in the gut capillaries. The constant osmotic pressure of plasma proteins in the capillary causes absorption of fluid from the gut section which will decrease its weight. To prevent a change in the weight of the gut section, the venous pressure is increased. This tends to increase the capillary pressure, reducing the flow of fluid from the gut tissue into the capillaries. The capillary pressure is thus held constant (and the balance kept level) as the arterial pressure is decreased and the venous pressure increased. The arterial and venous pressures meet at the capillary pressure being measured. ( = MRT, where is the osmotic pressure, M the molarity of the solutes, R the universal gas constant, and T the temperature in Kelvin.)
A. B. C. D.
A B C D
2. Assume that a mass (m) of 0.2 kg is placed 25 cm to the right of the fulcrum. A section of gut, initially weighing 0.1 kg is placed 50 cm to the left of the fulcrum. During the experiment, the mass m is seen to descend. In order to maintain the balance level the following action should be taken: A. B. C. D. the mass m should be moved away from the fulcrum. the arterial pressure should be decreased. the venous pressure should be increased. an inert fluid with higher density than that of blood should be used in the pipette.
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3. A researcher using Method 1 to determine the capillary pressure fills the pipette with an inert fluid less dense than blood. Compared to blood, the height of this fluid in the pipette will be: A. B. C. D. higher because the fluid is less dense. lower because the fluid is less dense. the same because the pressure being measured is the same. the same because the velocity of blood flow in the capillary bed is the same.
6. Assume that the beam balance of Method 2 is initially level. If the arterial pressure is decreased to a lower level while everything else is held constant, which graph best represents the change in the mass of the gut following the decrease in arterial pressure? A. mass of gut C. mass of gut time B. mass of gut D. mass of gut
4. Which of the following is sufficient information to determine the osmotic pressure of a solution? (Assume that the universal gas constant R is known.) A. B. C. D. Mass of solid dissolved, volume of solvent, temperature Molecular formula of solute, mass of solvent Number of particles in solution, volume of solution, temperature Number of moles of solid dissolved, density of solution, temperature
time
time
time
5. Method 2 relies on keeping the beam balance level. Which of the following must be true if the balance is level? A. B. C. D. The arterial pressure equals the osmotic pressure. The weight of the gut equals the weight of the mass (m). The net force on the beam is zero. The net torque on the beam is zero.
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Passage II (Questions 712) The automobile airbag was designed to inflate upon impact and decrease the risk of injury to drivers and passengers. Among the challenges to its development was the need to find a reliable inflation mechanism that was sufficiently rapid, controllable, and nontoxic. Prototypes employing compressed gases failed to meet these criteria. Researchers thus turned their attention to chemical alternatives. The ideal inflatant requires a chemical reaction in which the reactants are stable and relatively dense in the condensed phase while the products are mostly or completely gaseous at ambient temperature and pressure. Additionally, the ideal chemical reaction would require a low activation energy and have a high kinetic rate constant, without the large exothermicity characteristic of most such reactions. Traditional explosives such as nitroglycerin, C3H5N3O9 (l), were rejected almost immediately because of the extremely exothermic nature of their conversion. Benign solids such as calcium carbonate, CaCO3, were similarly rejected, because of their large activation requirements. The desired attributes were finally found in sodium azide, NaN3, a stable, dense, ionic solid which rapidly decomposes into elemental sodium and nitrogen gas when ignited by an electrical impulse. 2NaN3 2Na + 3N2 Reaction 1 The gas generating mixture includes excess KNO3 which reacts with the sodium metal from Reaction 1 to produce additional N2 and potassium and sodium oxides (Reactions 2 and 3). These oxides react with SiO2 to produce a non-toxic and stable alkaline silica (glass). 10Na + 2KNO3 Reaction 2 K2O + Na2O + SiO2 Reaction 3 (R = 0.082 Latm ) molK glass K2O + 5Na2O + N2
7. In order for the decomposition reaction to spread throughout the sodium azide after ignition, the H and G for Reaction 1 must be, respectively: A. B. C. D. positive, negative positive, positive negative, negative negative, positive
8. A sodium azide air bag inflates to a volume of 45 Liters at STP. According to the information contained in the passage, what is the mass of NaN3 (Mol. Wt. = 65) that is required to inflate the bag? A. B. C. D. 76 grams 81 grams 87 grams 130 grams
9. Potassium chlorate, KClO3 (s), decomposes when heated, yet it is unsuitable as an airbag inflatant. All of the following characteristics of KClO3 make it a poor candidate for an air bag inflatant EXCEPT: A. the decomposition requires a steady supply of energy due to its high activation energy and low exothermicity. the oxygen gas formed upon decomposition creates a combustion hazard during an automobile accident. the potassium chloride formed upon decomposition is a dense solid. the oxygen gas formed upon decomposition leads to rapid expansion of the reaction mixture.
B.
C. D.
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10. Decomposition of which of the following transition metal complexes would produce the highest theoretical yield of carbon monoxide per gram of reactant? A. B. C. D. Cr(CO)6 Mn(CO)5 Mo(CO)4 Pd(CO)6
12. A researcher wishes to make the decomposition of sodium azide (Reaction 1) less favorable. Which of the following adjustments to the reaction would NOT drive it to the left? A. B. C. D. removal of NaN3 from the reaction mixture addition of nitrogen gas to the reaction mixture decreasing the pressure of the reaction mixture increasing the temperature
11. All of the following are resonance structures of N3 EXCEPT: A. N B. N + N N + N 2N C. 2N D. + N + N N + N
2N
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Passage III (Questions 1317) Fireworks have been used for centuries in celebrations around the world. One of the primary components of these devices, black powder, was developed by the Chinese over a thousand years ago and is still used today as a propellant and explosive. Black powder is composed of potassium nitrate (KNO3), charcoal (primarily C) and sulfur (S8) in a 75:15:10 ratio by weight. It is very stable if kept dry but can easily be ignited by a spark or burning fuse to undergo the following reaction: 2KNO3 + 3C + S N2 + 3CO2 + K2S Reaction 1 The basic firework is shown in Figure 1. Fireworks rely on a particular kind of combustion in which oxygen is supplied by oxidizing agents included in the pyrotechnic mixture. When ignited, the solid propellant begins to liquefy and vaporize allowing the fuel and oxidizing agents to interact more intimately leading to rapid expansion of gases. Delay fuses time the ignition of the other compartments to occur when the shell is high above ground. fuse delay fuse stars and bursting charge stars and bursting charge cardboard barrier propellant
13. The molar ratio of N to C to S in black powder is approximately: A. B. C. D. 75:125:35 85:10:210 75:15:10 100:20:7
14. Which of the following chemicals is oxidized in the pyrotechnic reaction of gunpowder (Reaction 1)? A. B. C. D. KNO3 C S CO2
15. Which of the following bonds has the greatest ionic character? A. B. C. D. BaCl SrCl NN O=CO
16. Flares, a particular kind of pyrotechnic device, can burn underwater. Most materials, like wood, cannot burn underwater. Which of the following provides the best explanation for this difference? A. B. C. D. The combustion of wood has a lower H. Flares have a lower ignition temperature and can be easily ignited by a spark or fuse. Combustion of wood requires oxygen which is not provided by water. Water is a powerful flame retardant that extinguishes flames by increasing the activation energy of combustion.
Figure 1 The light generating units of the firework are called stars and are dispersed and ignited by the bursting charge in each compartment. The intense colors of modern fireworks are generated by molecular emitters. For example, barium chloride emits green light (510530 nm) and strontium chloride emits vibrant red light (605650 nm). Many of the molecular emitters are unstable at room temperature and so cannot be placed directly into the firework. Instead, they are synthesized in the flame of the pyrotechnic reaction and exist for a short time before decomposing. The flame temperature must be carefully adjusted so that these emitters do not decompose too rapidly. (h = 6.63 1034 Js, c = 3.0 108 ms1) 7
17. What is the energy of a photon of light emitted by a barium chloride emitter? A. B. C. D. 1.2 1019 J 3.8 1019 J 3.5 1040 J 4.2 1040 J
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Passage IV (Questions 1822) Musical instruments generate vibrations in the air that are perceived as musical tones. In many kinds of drums, these vibrations are created by a standing waves in a vibrating membrane. In a timpani drum, membrane vibration is coupled to the vibration of an enclosed volume of air. There may also be a second membrane whose vibration is coupled to that of the first by the enclosed air space, as in a snare drum. An idealized circular membrane will vibrate at normal mode frequencies given by Equation 1 where T is the membrane tension, r is the membrane radius, is the mass per unit area of the membrane, and frel is the relative frequency shown under each mode in Figure 1. The pitch of drums can be tuned by adjusting the membrane tension. 2.40 frel fmn = 2r Equation 1 The modes are designated by two numbers, m and n. m indicates the number of diameter nodes, and n indicates the number of circular nodes. Several modes of vibration are shown in Figure 1. T
19. Chladni patterns are formed when fine sand is placed on a vibrating membrane. The regions of localized sand indicate the: A. B. C. D. circular nodes only. antinodes. circular nodes and diameter nodes. region equidistant between nodes and antinodes.
20. The speed of sound is inversely proportional to the square root of the density of the gaseous medium through which it travels. Which of the following statements is true regarding an ideal membrane played in a low pressure environment? A. B. C. D. The sound intensity will decrease because the vibrations will be more rapidly dispersed. The vibration of the membrane will occur with greater amplitude at the higher modes. The pitch will be higher because the frequency of vibration will increase. The pitch will remain unchanged because the frequency of vibration is not changed.
21. The sound waves generated by a drum are: A. (0,1) 1.00 (1,1) 1.59 (2,1) 2.14 (0,2) 2.30 B. C. D. (3,1) 2.65 (1,2) 2.92 longitudinal waves because the displacement is perpendicular to the direction of propagation. longitudinal waves because the displacement is parallel to the direction of propagation. transverse waves because the displacement is perpendicular to the direction of propagation. transverse waves because the displacement is parallel to the direction of propagation.
Figure 1 18. If the tension of a drum membrane is increased by a factor of four and the radius is increased by a factor of two, then the (1,1) modal frequency would: A. B. C. D. not change. increase by a factor of 1.59. increase by a factor of 2. increase by a factor of 4.
22. Which of the following combinations of modal frequencies would generate the highest beat frequency? A. B. C. D. (0,1) and (2,1) (0,1) and (0,2) (1,1) and (3,1) (2,1) and (1,2)
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Questions 23 through 27 are NOT based on a descriptive passage.

23. A 2-stage rocket is launched vertically upwards at velocity v. At height h it discards its first stage in four fragments and travels faster without changing direction. Which of the following views from above could be the velocity vectors of the first stage fragments? A. C.
26. Which of the following molecules has the same geometric configuration of electron pairs about the central nucleus as CH4? A. B. C. D. H2O H2CO BH3 CO2
27. Which of the following solutions has the lowest molarity?
B.
D.
A. B. C. D.
2N H3PO4 2N HCl 1M H3PO4 2N H2CO3
24. A clown stands with her toes touching a fun house mirror with a convex bottom and a concave top. Which of the following best describes the distortion of the clowns image as she walks away from the mirror? A. B. C. D. Her head will shrink; her feet will grow, then shrink. Her head will shrink then grow; her feet will shrink, then grow. Her head will grow; her feet will grow. Her head will grow, then shrink; her feet will shrink.
25. The kinetic molecular theory describes gases as composed of randomly moving particles. According to this theory, at constant temperature, the pressure of a gas in a cylinder increases when the volume is decreased because: A. B. C. D. the kinetic energy of the gas increases. the collisions of gas particles with the cylinder become more energetic. the mass of the particles increases to compensate for the decrease in volume. the collisions of gas particles with the cylinder increase in frequency.
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Passage V (Questions 2831) Ink jet printers produce high resolution output, at a lower cost than laser printers, by generating charged ink droplets which are then deflected onto a sheet of paper by an electric field. Each droplet deflected by the field strikes the paper and forms a tiny dot of ink. While a typical printed letter requires about 100 drops, an ink jet printer is able to produce drops at a rate of 100,000 per second. The essential elements of the ink jet printer head are shown in Figure 1. The drop generator produces the ink droplets, each with a mass of approximately 1.2 1010 kg and a diameter of approximately 30 m. The drops then enter a highly precise charging unit which controls the charge q on each droplet to within 2%, with typical charges for drops generated by various ink jet printers ranging from 1.0 1013 C to 3.0 1014 C. The charged droplets are subsequently passed through the deflecting plates between which a variable electric field is generated. The electronically controlled electric field between the plates is typically varied over a range from 1.0 106 N/C to 5.4 106 N/C, and is used to aim the ink droplet at the i paper. (Note: B = 0 , F = Eq, and k = 8.99 109 2r Nm2/C2).
30. Suppose that an ink-jet printer head is programmed to produce the letter shown below (note that cross hairs are not produced by the ink jet printer head).
An uniform external electric field pointing upwards is superimposed on the printer head, and the letter is printed again. Which of the following diagrams best represents the new printer output? A. C.
B.
D.
drop generator
charging unit
deflector
paper
Figure 1 28. In which direction would the deflector in Figure 1 deflect the ink drop? A. B. C. D. Upwards in the plane of the page Downwards in the plane of the page Into the plane of the page Out of the plane of the page
31. In order to observe the velocity of the ink droplet, a magnetic field is generated to exactly counter the force applied to the ink droplet by the electric field. This magnetic field is oriented: A. B. C. D. towards the left. towards the right. out of the page. into the page.
29. An ink jet printer deflects a particular ink droplet by 1.5 mm in the region of the deflector. Which of the following is a possible value of the work done on the droplet? A. B. C. D. No work 4.5 1013 J 4.3 1010 J 8.1 108 J GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 10
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Passage VI (Questions 3237) The Activity Series is an experimentally derived relative ranking of the elements in order of their reactivities toward single displacement reactions. Historically, elements were categorized into four groups based on their activities relative to water and aqueous mineral acids as follows: 1. The most active group consisted of those elements which displace hydrogen from cold, neutral water (Reaction 1). 2. The second most active group was composed of those elements which are capable of displacing hydrogen from steam but not from liquid water (Reaction 2). 3. The third groups members do not react with steam, but do displace hydrogen from aqueous acid (Reaction 3). 4. The least active group consisted of those elements which do not displace hydrogen from hot, aqueous acid solution. A partial list of the elements in each group is shown in Table 1. M(s) + nH2O(l) M(OH)n + Reaction 1 M(s) + nH2O(g) M(OH)n + Reaction 2 M(s) + nH+(aq) Mn+ + Reaction 3 n H (g) 2 2 n H (g) 2 2 n H (g) 2 2
their neutral salts (Reaction 4). For example, metallic copper was found to displace silver from aqueous silver nitrate solution, while metallic silver remained unreacted in aqueous copper (II) nitrate solution of similar molarity. Thus, copper was ranked higher than silver in the activity series. Final refinements were accomplished via electrochemical measurements, resulting in the current version of the activity series. After many displacement and electrochemical experiments, a complete order of all the stable elements was determined. An abbreviated activity series is presented in Table 2. M(s) + M'Xn(aq) M'(s) + MXn(aq) Reaction 4 Activity Most Element K Ca Na Mg Al Zn Fe Cd Ni Sn Cu Ag Hg Pt Au Standard Reduction Potential 2.93 2.87 2.71 2.37 1.66 0.76 0.44 0.40 0.25 0.14 0.34 0.80 0.86 1.20 1.50
Least
Table 2 Group 1 2 3 4 Displaces H+ from: cold water steam acidic solution none Table 1 Later refinements in the activity series were achieved by conducting single displacement reactions of elements within a group to determine their relative reactivities. These reactions are designed to measure the propensity of an element to displace other elements in its group from GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 11 Elements Li, Na, K, Ca Mg, Al, Fe, Zn Ni, Cd, Sn Cu, Ag, Au, Pt 32. In which of the following ways do the group 1 elements in Table 1 differ from all of the elements in the other groups? A. B. C. D. They are stronger Lewis acids. They are stronger reducing agents. They are stronger oxidizing agents. They are stronger Lewis bases.
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33. Which one of the following is a valid representation of a single displacement reaction? A. B. C. D. 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) 2Fe2O3(s) Cu(OH)2(s) + 2HCl(aq) CuCl2(aq) + 2H2O(l) Cu(OH)2(s) CuO(s) + H2O(g) Cu(OH)2(s) + Fe(s) Cu(s) + Fe(OH)2(s)
36. A researcher attempts to determine the relative activity of the nonmetallic elements. Which of the following reactions, if spontaneous, would confirm that chlorine is more active than bromine? A. B. C. D. HBr(aq) + KCl(s) KBr(aq) + HCl(aq) AgCl(aq) + HBr(aq) AgBr(s) + HCl(aq) 2HBr(aq) + Cl2(aq) 2HCl(aq) + Br2(aq) Br2(l) + Cl2(g) 2BrCl(l)
34. Which of the following statements is true of an electrochemical cell based on the reaction below? 3Zn(s) + 2Al(OH)3(s) 3Zn(OH)2(s) + 2Al(s) A. B. C. D. The cell is galvanic with a cell potential 0.90V. The cell is galvanic with a cell potential +0.90V. The cell is electrolytic with a cell potential 0.90V. The cell is electrolytic with a cell potential +0.90V. of of of of
37. The activity of the alkali metals increases with atomic number. This trend in activity is most directly a result of a parallel trend in: A. B. C. D. effective nuclear charge. atomic radius atomic mass neutron/proton ratio
35. The value of the variable n in Reaction 1 equals: A. B. C. D. the oxidation state of the metal in the product. the oxidation state of the nonmetal in the product. the oxidation state of the metal in the reactant. the oxidation state of the nonmetal in the reactant.
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Passage VII (Questions 3844) In 1965, Boris Deryagin reported the discovery of an unusual substance formed during the condensation of water vapor in quartz capillaries. The material, called polywater, appeared to be a polymer of water monomers and differed from normal water in a number of ways. It had a freezing point of 40 C and solidified into a glass-like solid with substantially less volumetric expansion than that of ordinary water upon freezing. It had a density 40% greater than water and a refractive index of 1.48. An intricate apparatus was used to produce the polywater. Ordinary distilled water was placed in a chamber held at 160 C with pressure below atmospheric pressure. This chamber was connected to a second chamber by a tube held at 500 C in order to prevent the passage of liquid water. The second chamber was held at 0 C and contained a drawn quartz capillary in which the water vapor condensed, forming polywater.
Hypothesis 2 Another researcher was skeptical. Analysis indicated that polywater was merely a solution of water and dissolved particles including silicon, carbon dioxide, and substantial concentrations of ions (Na+ and Cl). These contaminants dissolved from the quartz capillary and from materials used in the apparatus. (constants for normal water : density = 1 g/cm2, index of refraction = 1.33 , freezing point depression constant Kf = 1.86Cm1) 38. Hypothesis 1 proposes that polywater is a repeating structure of H2O monomers. What is the formal charge on hydrogen in this structure? A. B. C. D. 1 +1 2 +2
< 1 Atm 160C
0C
500C
distilled water
quartz capillary
Hypothesis 1 Deryagin proposed that polywater was a polymer of water monomers arranged in a network of hexagonal units. The polymerization was catalyzed by the silicate surface of the quartz capillary.
O H O
O H O
-2
H O H O
O H O
O H O
Proposed Structure of Polywater
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39. According to the passage, polywater has all of the following properties EXCEPT: A. light entering polywater from air will bend more towards the normal than light entering normal water. polywater can be produced in a variety of conditions. 1 g of water has a larger volume than 1 g of polywater, at room temperature. polywater exists in the liquid state at 0 C.
42. The pressure (Pi) in the first chamber is decreased by raising a piston and increasing the volume of the chamber from Vi to Vf. If the temperature is kept at 160 C, which of the following values solves for the new pressure (Pf) in the chamber? A. B. C. PiVi Vf Pi nRT Vi ViTi VfTf
B. C. D.
PiVi Vf
40. Which of the following changes in the experimental apparatus would increase the rate of water vapor production in the first chamber of the experimental apparatus? (All other conditions kept constant.) A. B. C. D. Decreasing the temperature Decreasing the pressure Decreasing the cross-sectional area of the tube connecting the two chambers Adding NaCl to the distilled water in the first chamber
D.
43. Which of the following would be most likely to occur if the second chamber was kept at 50 C instead of 0 C? A. B. C. D. The water vapor would not condense. Liquid water would be able to travel through the tube between chambers. A different polymer of polywater would form. The water vapor would condense more slowly.
41. Assume that Hypothesis 2 is correct. Compared to normal water, polywater would have a: A. B. C. D. lower vapor pressure and higher boiling point. lower vapor pressure and lower boiling point. higher vapor pressure and lower boiling point. similar vapor pressure and boiling point.
44. Which of the following pieces of evidence would most support Hypothesis 1? A. B. C. D. The mass of the quartz capillary did not change throughout the experiment. Filtration of the polywater increased its freezing temperature. The polywater was found to differ from normal water in its boiling point. The second chamber could be kept at 50 C with similar results.
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Passage VIII (Questions 45-49) The nuclei of certain unstable isotopes will spontaneously decay, producing a more stable nucleus and releasing a particle or quantity of energy. Alpha decay releases a helium nucleus, beta decay emits an electron, while gamma decay is the emission of a high energy photon. Each type of radioactive decay is characterized, in part, by the half-life of the radioactive materialthe time required for half of the nuclei in a sample to undergo decay. Examples of such decays are shown in Figure 1. alpha decay beta decay gamma decay
238 92 60 27
45. Beta radiation differs from gamma rays in the following way: A. B. C. D. gamma rays can penetrate the Geiger counter cylinder, while beta rays cannot. beta particles and gamma rays will be deflected in opposite directions by a magnetic field. beta particles and gamma rays will be deflected in opposite directions by an electric field. beta particles will be deflected in a magnetic field while gamma rays will not.
234 90 60 28
Th +
2 0 1
Co Ni*
Th +
46. The half-life of 32P is 14.28 days. What fraction of an initially pure sample will have decayed after 28.56 days? A. B. C. D. 1/4 1/2 3/4 1
64 28
64 28
Ni +
Figure 1 A Geiger counter can be used to detect the decay of radioactive materials. A simple Geiger counter consists of a hollow metal cylinder with a wire along its axis. The cylinder is filled with low pressure argon gas and a high voltage difference is applied between the wire and the cylinder. When alpha, beta, or gamma radiation passes through the cylinder, it interacts with the gas particles and leads to the formation of ions which cause a discharge between the wire and the cylinder. The consequent current may be used to drive a speaker, producing the characteristic clicking sound of the Geiger counter each time a pulse of current occurs. The Geiger counter circuitry is shown in Figure 2.
metal cylinder wire
47. Assume that the values for V and R are known. What other information is needed to calculate the voltage drop across the speaker? A. B. C. D. The resistance of the speakers internal circuitry. The duration of the discharge between the wire and the cylinder. The current flowing through the resistor. No other information is required.
R V
speaker
Figure 2
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48. Which of the following statements is true concerning two isolated radioactive samples examined separately with a Geiger counter? A. B. C. D. The sample with the shorter half-life will produce a higher frequency of clicks. The sample with the longer half-life will produce a higher frequency of clicks. The sample with the shorter half-life will generate a larger current. The half-life cannot be determined from the click frequency alone.
49. A Geiger counter is best suited for which of the following applications: A. B. C. D. comparing the relative magnitudes of radioactivities of two nuclear waste depositories. spatially locating a radioactive isotope injected into a patient. calculating the total energy of a radioactive particle. determining the identity of various types of radioactivity.
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50. According to the reaction coordinate diagram shown below, which of the following forward reactions would proceed most rapidly at high temperatures?
52. An object at rest with the shape of an equilateral triangle is subject to three external forces as shown in the diagram. If the object does not exhibit translational motion, what must F and be, respectively? 285 10 N 30 N
A Energy B C D Reaction Coordinate A. B. C. D. A B C D A. B. C. D.
75
20 N, 120 20 N, 165 10 N, 120 10 N, 165
53. A solar-power collector has an area of 10 cm2 facing the sun. If the intensity of the sunlight incident upon this surface is 1.5 kW/m2, what is the maximum energy the device can supply in one hour? A. B. C. D. 1500 J 15000 J 5400 J 54000 J
51. 1M NaOH is added to a solution containing 1M Ag+, 1M Al3+, 1M Mg2+, and 1M Mn2+. Given the solubility data shown below, which of the following will precipitate first? AgOH Al(OH)3 Mg(OH)2 Mn(OH)2 A. B. C. D. AgOH Al(OH)3 Mg(OH)2 Mn(OH)2 Ksp 1.5 108 3.7 1015 1.2 1011 2.0 1013
54. For the chemical reaction A + B C, the initial rates of reaction under different conditions are given below. What is the overall order of this reaction? initial [A] (mol/L) 0.50 1.00 1.00 A. B. C. D. 1 2 3 4 initial [B] initial rate of (mol/L) reaction (mol/Lmin) 0.10 0.01 0.40 0.16 1.60 0.64
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Passage IX (Questions 5559) A hovercraft is a versatile vehicle capable of traveling over land, water, or any other essentially flat surface. The hovercraft consists of a body or hull onto which a rotor (lift fan) is mounted. The lift fan provides the vertical lift by propelling air into an area beneath the hovercraft called the skirt. The pocket of air in the skirt supports the moving hovercraft and reduces the friction between the vehicle and the ground to almost zero. As such, there is no contact between the hovercraft and the ground. A second fan, which generates a horizontal thrust, propels the hovercraft forward. Rudders which direct the airflow from this second fan are used by the pilot to control the movement of the hovercraft. The horizontal movement of the hovercraft is opposed by air resistance which generates aerodynamic drag. (1 atm = 1.01 105 Pa = 1.01 105 N/m2) 55. A 600 kg hovercraft hovers 0.6 meters above the ground. The rectangular hovercraft is 4 meters long and 2 meters wide with a skirt which hangs from the edge to a distance of 4 cm above the ground. What is the average pressure of air in the skirt? A. B. C. D. 735 Pa 980 Pa 47.040 kPa 101.735 kPa
57. A 600 kg hovercraft traveling across a frozen lake accelerates from rest to a speed of 60 kilometers per hour in 4 seconds. What is the average force produced by the thrust fan? A. B. C. D. 4.2 N 145 N 2500 N 9000 N
58. The thrust fan of a hovercraft is turned on at time t1 and turned off at time t2. In the absence of air resistance, which of the following graphs represents the velocity of this hovercraft as a function of time? A. C.
velocity
t1 B.
t2 D.
velocity
t1
t2
56. The horizontal thrust fan of a hovercraft traveling across a frozen lake in a large circle suddenly fails. Which of the following best describes the path of the hovercraft (as one looks down from above) immediately following thrust fan shutoff? A. C.
velocity
velocity
t1
t2
t1
t2
59. Which of the following conditions must be true for the thrust fan to propel the hovercraft horizontally? (Assume that the air is not compressed in the process.) A. B. The air intake velocity must be lower than the air output velocity. The air intake velocity must be greater than the air output velocity. The air intake volume must be lower than the air output volume. The air intake pressure must be greater than the air output pressure.
B.
D.
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Passage X (Questions 6065) The Earths atmosphere reaches hundreds of kilometers above the surface of the planet. The lowest layer, the troposphere, extends from the ground to a height of approximately 12 km. Air pressure within the troposphere decreases with height above the ground, accompanied by a parallel trend in air density. The decrease in density has important consequences for the dissipation of air pollution from industrial smoke stacks. The gas from the stack is typically hotter and less dense than the surrounding air and rises. As a parcel of hot air rises, it expands approximately adiabatically doing work on the surrounding air. This results in a decrease in both its temperature and its density.
500 400 Temperature (K) 300 200 temperature 100 0 0 20 40 60 80 100 120 140 Altitude (km) 20 kP 0 pressure 100 kP 80 kP 60 kP 40 kP Pressure (Pa)
60. The decrease in temperature of a parcel of hot air rising from a smoke stack is a result of: A. B. C. D. conductive heat losses to the surrounding cooler air. convective heat losses to the surrounding cooler air. an increase in kinetic energy. the expansion of the parcel.
61. Ozone molecules in the stratosphere absorb ultraviolet radiation and photodissociate into an oxygen molecule (O2), and a free oxygen atom (O). Which of the following best describes this phenomenon? A. The wavelength of the ultraviolet radiation is greater than the cutoff wavelength needed for photodissociation. The frequency of the ultraviolet radiation is greater than the cutoff frequency needed for photodissociation. The frequency of the ultraviolet radiation is less than the cutoff frequency needed for photodissociation. The wavelength of the ultraviolet light is less than the cutoff frequency.
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62. According to Figure 1, what is the approximate relationship between the energy content of a liter of air at 12 km and that of a liter of air at 120 km? A. B. C. D. The energy content in a liter at 12 km is greater because the mass is greater. The energy content in a liter at 120 km is greater because the temperature is higher. The energy content in a liter at 120 km is greater because the air is less dense. The energy contents are equal because the volumes are equal.
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Figure 1 A smoke stack functions to expel gaseous waste products from a chemical process. It is also an important means of removing heat from a reaction mixture. The heat corresponding to a change in temperature of a gas at constant pressure is given by Q=nCpT, where Q is the heat added to the gas, n is the number of moles of gas, Cp is the molar heat capacity of a particular gas at constant pressure, and T is the change in temperature. At atmospheric pressure, the molar heat capacity for steam, H2O (g) is approximately four times that of air.
th e
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63. Two identical balloons of negligible mass are tethered at altitudes of 2000 meters and 2600 meters, respectively. The balloons are filled with helium gas to equal volumes. Which of the following statements is true concerning the buoyant force acting on each balloon? A. B. C. D. The buoyant force on the balloon at 2600 meters will be greater. The buoyant force on the balloon at 2000 meters will be greater. The buoyant forces on the two balloons will be equal. The relationship between the buoyant forces cannot be determined.
65. At constant pressure, the ratio between the volume expansion of a mole of gas with a high Cp to that of a mole of gas with a low Cp for a given heat input will be: A. B. C. D. greater than 1. less than 1. equal to 1. cannot be determined.
64. A combustion engine in a production plant is surrounded by pipes carrying water that function to cool the engine. The water is converted to steam and flows through a long vertical pipe to be released into the atmosphere. Heat is transferred from the engine to the atmosphere by the following means: A. B. C. D. conduction then convection convection then conduction radiation then convection then conduction conduction then convection then conduction
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Passage XI (Questions 6672) A student conducts a chemical analysis of the components of a popular soft drink. The beverage label shows that the drink contains carbonated water, phosphoric acid, caffeine, and caramel color, but does not indicate the concentrations of these chemicals. Carbonic Acid 62.03 n/a (1) 4.3 107 (2) 5.61 1011 H2CO3 Table 1 Dissolved carbon dioxide will react reversibly with water to form carbonic acid. In an attempt to analyze the beverage composition, the student conducts the following experiments on a one liter sample of the beverage. Experiment 1 The sample is placed in a sealed beaker cooled to 10 C and a vacuum is created in the space above the beverage. The gas pumped from this space is passed through a solution of BaCl2, producing a white precipitate. The process continues until no more precipitate forms. The precipitate is dried and found to have a mass of 9.5 grams. Experiment 2 The remaining solution left in the sealed beaker is then titrated with 0.01 M NaOH to give the titration curve shown in Figure 1. Phosphoric Acid 98.00 42.35 (1) 7.52 104 (2) 6.23 108 (3) 2.2 1013 H3PO4
12 11 10 9 8 7 pH 6 5 4 3 2 1 0 0 250 500 750 1000 0.01 M NaOH (mL) A C D
MW mp (C) Ka
Formula
Figure 1 66. What is the approximate concentration of phosphoric acid in a 0.5 L sample of the beverage? A. B. C. D. 0.005 M 0.025 M 0.5 M 2.5 M
67. The student uses the data from Experiment 1 and Experiment 2 to calculate the initial pH of the beverage. If a significant quantity of precipitate was lost in the drying process of Experiment 1, the calculated pH: A. B. C. D. would be less than the actual pH. would be greater than the actual pH. would be the same as the actual pH. would differ from the actual pH in a random manner.
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68. Which of the following plots best indicates the composition of phosphoric acid in the 1 Liter sample during the titration? A. HPO4 1.0 0.8 Fraction 0.6 0.4 0.2 0.0 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 pH B. H3PO4 1.0 0.8 Fraction 0.6 0.4 0.2 0.0 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 pH C. H3PO4 H2PO41.0 0.8 Fraction 0.6 0.4 0.2 0.0 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 pH D. 1.0 0.8 Fraction 0.6 0.4 0.2 0.0 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 pH H2PO4
2-
69. Ba3(PO4)2 is completely insoluble in aqueous solution. Addition of barium chloride to a phosphoric acid solution will decrease the pH because: A. B. barium acts as a Lewis base. barium chloride reduces the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution. chloride ion acts to stabilize the hydrogen ions in solution. the precipitation of barium phosphate drives the acid dissociation to completion.
H2PO4
H3PO4
C. D.
70. Which region of the graph in Figure 1 provides the best buffering around neutral pH? A. B. C. D. A B C D
H2PO4HPO42-
71. Why did the student choose to keep the sealed beaker of beverage at 10 C while vacuuming the CO2 from solution? A. B. C. D. HPO42To reduce dipole-dipole interactions between the water and the CO2. To ensure that CO2 did not expand explosively. To minimize the loss of water vapor from the solution. To increase the kinetic energy of CO2 and make its removal more efficient.
72. In the body, rapid breathing (hyperventilation) leads to a decrease in the concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood. This will tend to: A. B. C. D. H3PO4 decrease the pH of the blood. increase the pH of the blood. increase the concentration of HCO3 in the blood. increase the concentration of O2 in the blood.
HPO42-
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73. Given the following H values, calculate the H of formation of Fe2O3 (s). 6Fe2O3(s) 4Fe3O4(s) + O2(g) A. B. C. D. +667 kJ mol1 1559 kJ mol1 824 kJ mol1 667 kJ mol1 +472.0 kJ mol1 1118.4 kJ mol1 3Fe(s) + 2O2(g) Fe3O4(s)
76. An automobile reaches a velocity of 30 m/s after accelerating at 4 ms2 for 5 seconds. What was its initial velocity? A. B. C. D. 10 m/s 0 m/s 10 m/s 20 m/s
77. A gibbon (lesser ape) of mass m and arm length l reaches to a branch level with its shoulder and starts to swing with its arm fully extended. At the bottom of the swing, its velocity is: A. B. C. D. 2gl 1 2 mv 2 m2 l 2 l g
74. A 5-kg mass M is being raised from the ground to the top of the inclined plane using the set-up shown in the diagram below. Assuming that the inclined plane is frictionless, what is the work done by the force F?
10 m
M
F 30 STOP. IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK. YOU MAY GO BACK TO ANY QUESTION IN THIS SECTION ONLY.
45 490 J 490 3 J 490 2 J 490 J 2
A. B. C. D.
75. In the circuit below, R1 = R2 = 10 ohms. Removing R1 will have which of the following effects on the current through R2?
R1
R2
V A. B. C. D. Decrease to 1/2 No change Double Increase by factor of 10
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Verbal Reasoning
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VERBAL REASONING
DIRECTIONS: There are nine passages in this Verbal Reasoning Section. Each passage is followed by several questions. After reading a passage, select the one best answer to each question. If you are not certain of an answer, eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining alternatives. Indicate your selection by blackening the corresponding oval on your answer document.
Passage I (Questions 7883) The anthropomorphic bias of those who would relegate marsupials to an inferior evolutionary status is most apparent in their recourse to data on brain structure and behavior. Unlike humans and other placentals, marsupials lack the corpus callosum, which facilitates inter-hemisphere transfer of data acquired through the senses. Yet it cannot be inferred that marsupials are thus deprived of such function. Didelphis Virginiana, one of the opossums, makes use of the anterior commissure, an adaptation that is also found in reptiles and monotremes. Diprodontons, including kangaroos and koalas, supplement the anterior commissure with the fasciculus aberrans. While the modes of neocortical interconnection may be diverse, the work of Johnson, Heath and Jones points to the conclusion that, functionally speaking the cortices and neocortices of both groups of mammals exhibit parallel connections. Parker also notes a similar range of brain size to body weight ratios and of neocortical expansion. Another stigma borne by marsupials is the consensus that they are less intelligent than placentals. Yet Williams argues that, all else being equal, natural selection will favor instinctive over learned behavior as being more biologically efficient and that it is the accidental death of the young that is the prime selective pressure for the evolution of intelligence. Seen in this light, marsupials have a competitive edge; their gestation period is brief and the young remain in the pouch for an extended period exposed only to those dangers which also affect the mother. There they are directly exposed to the mothers food supply and can observe her behavior at leisure. Placentals, on the other hand, not only have a longer gestation period but, once their young are born, must often leave while foraging. Such absences increase the risk of mortality and decrease the opportunity to learn. Thus, among placentals, selection would favor the apparent intelligence in the young and protective behavior in the mother. Marsupials are not known to exhibit maternal protective behavior. In fact, Serventy has reported that frightened female kangaroos will drop their pouch-young as they flee, drawing a predators attention to the less able offspring while the adult escapes. This behavior, whether purposeful or accidental, instantaneously relieves the female marsupial of the mechanical difficulties of pregnancy with which her placental counterpart would be burdened, while marsupials can replace any lost young quickly. Thus, in the absence of any need for close maternal supervision, sacrificing their offspring in this manner may well have been favored in selection. Pointing to the absence of the virtue of maternal protectiveness in marsupials is an instance of how mistaken are those theorists who see similarities with humans as marks of evolutionary sophistication.
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78. The authors primary purpose in this passage is to: A. B. C. correct some common misconceptions about marsupials. argue against the view that marsupials represent a less developed evolutionary stage than placentals. provide support for the proposition that marsupials have adapted more successfully to the environment. determine the place of marsupials in the evolutionary hierarchy.
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79. According to the passage, which of the following favor(s) the development of intelligence as a trait of placental mammals? I. The need to leave their young while foraging II. The comparatively great risk of accidental death of the young III. The opportunity for the young to observe the mother at leisure A. B. C. D. I only III only I and II only II and III only
82. With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree? A. B. Maternal protectiveness is a trait common to all higher mammals. Any physical or behavioral trait in animals should be evaluated primarily in terms of its contribution to species survival. Current conceptions of evolution must be modified to account for new data. Evolution is a progressive process culminating in the dominance of learned over instinctive behavior.
C. D.
80. The authors attitude toward those who consider marsupials to occupy an inferior evolutionary position would most probably be one of: A. criticism because they ignore evidence that marsupials are more intelligent than usually supposed. disagreement because current studies support the opposite view. disagreement because they apply human standards in an inappropriate context. agreement, but on the basis of marsupials lack of maternal protective behavior rather than their brain structure.
83. According to the passage, similarities between marsupials and placentals will most likely be found in: A. B. C. D. brain function. brain anatomy. maternal behavior. selection for intelligence.
B. C. D.
81. The author uses the word virtue (line 48) in order to: A. B. C. D. remind the reader that the word has specialized connotation in this context. ridicule the thinkers whom she is attacking in her conclusion. introduce the idea that moral concepts can be applied only to humans. indicate that the term reflects a mode of thinking with which she disagrees.
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Passage II (Questions 8490) By now the image of California in decline looms as large in the conventional media wisdom as the Golden Statetriumphant clichs of a generation ago this El Dorado, as Time magazine had put it in 1969, that was to 5 be the mirror of America as it will become. Hardly anyone mentions the sunshine these days, or the beaches, or the beautiful young families around the pool, or the new lifestyles that all Americans will soon emulate, or how the University of California is wall-to-wall with cyclotrons and 10 Nobel laureates, or how the states higher-education system is accommodating absolutely all comers at little or no cost. Today, California classrooms are among the most crowded in the country; many schools operate without libraries, without counselors, without nurses, without art or 15 music, with greatly diminished curricular offerings. And whats true for the schools is true for the other services that have no powerful constituencies: childrens protective services, probation, public health. Many cities have shut down swimming and wading pools because they cannot be safely 20 maintained, and fenced playgrounds have been shut because of the danger presented by cracked and splintered structures. The list could be extended indefinitely. As thousands of professors receive golden handshakes from the University of California and California State University, among 25 them some of the stars recruited in the go-go Fifties, the crowding in the lecture halls has increased and the lines at the classroom door have gotten longer and longer (Dont panic, says the T-shirt on a student waiting to enroll at a Sacramento junior college, but many have been in line 30 since four in the morning). U.C. tuition, which was roughly $800 a year in the early 1980s, is now over $4,000, a figure not out of line with tuitions at public colleges in other states but a far cry from the cost of a California state education in the golden daysand it is almost certain to 35 increase again next year. More than 200,000 students roughly 10 percenthave vanished from the rolls of the states colleges and universities in the past two years. While per capita tax revenues have been effectively frozen, and while they have declined relative to other states, 40 client rolls for state servicesschools, prisons, Medicaid, welfarehave been rising faster than population, leaving a structural gap that no one has yet confronted, much less closed. Again this year, the governor and legislature borrowed $7 billion from the banks and rolled over a $5 billion 45 budget deficit, for which few politicians have proposed any remedies. Thanks to the deficit, California, which a decade ago, had one of the highest bond ratings in the country, has one of the lowest. Were California a corporation, said John Vasconcellos, the chairman of the State Assembly
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Ways and Means Committee, it would have little option but to initiate some sort of bankruptcy proceeding. The new image of California is familiar enough: a state suffering from earthquakes, fires, drought, floods, urban riots, dirty air, schools as overcrowded as the freeways; a legislatureonce said to be the nations most professional and progressiveoozing with corruption and stuck in the budgetary gridlock; and of course, recession, unemployment, chronic budget deficits, and financial calamity. For those who know their Nathaniel West, their Raymond Chandler, and their Joan Didion, the California apocalypse imagery is hardly new; it was always there on the dark side of the dream. This was the place, as Didion wrote back in the 1960s, in which a boom mentality and a sense of Chekhovian loss meet in uneasy suspension; in which the mind is troubled by some buried but ineradicable suspicion that things better work here, because here, beneath that immense bleached sky, is where we run out of continent. Los Angeles has burnt before. If you believe people like Governor Wilson, most of the states problems were created somewhere else, usually in Washington, where the Clinton Administration has, on the one hand, cost California hundreds of thousands of jobs through excessive defense cuts and, on the other, allowed a horde of illegal immigrants to overrun the states schools and health facilities without paying them for the immense costs that come with themmuch has been changed in California since the days of West and Chandler, but the capacity for denial and self-deception is undiminished. In fact, Californias trouble is at once more prosaic and more complex than the political rhetoric claims or the apocalyptic imagery suggests. It began before the recent recession, the big 1991 fire in the Oakland hills or the San Francisco earthquake of 1989 (itself a rerun of a classic), before those L.A. cops beat up Rodney King or the riot and the fire that followed their acquittal in the first trial, before the eight-year drought that still may not be over. And contrary to what a lot of Californians believe, a lot of the damage didnt just happen to us: we inflicted it on ourselves. 84. The central purpose of this passage is to: A. B. C. D. ascribe Californias economic and social problems to a set of measurable factors. sketch the myriad difficulties facing California today. contrast Californias economic and social problems with those of other states. to dispute the contention that Californias problems were caused by the federal government. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
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85. Why does the author mention Governor Wilsons opinions in paragraph seven? A. He wishes to underscore the economic plight that California has been submerged in through federal policy. He wants to highlight a point of view with which he will disagree. He is portraying Californias plight as a natural result of unfortunate circumstances. He wishes to show that Californias governor is as guilty as any other party in the demise of Californias economy.
88. This passage argues that California has amassed overwhelming fiscal and social problems since the 1960s. The author uses which of the following to support this assertion? I. California has repeatedly borrowed funds to cover its budget shortfalls. II. Washington has played a major role in the decline of the California state economy. III. Californians demands for state services have far outstripped the states ability to provide them. A. B. C. D. I only II only II and III only I and III only
B. C. D.
86. The strongest contrasts between Californias educational system in the past and that of today can clearly be seen in: A. B. the quality of staff and equipment and the ratio of students to teachers. the availability of higher education to more people and the atypically high tuition compared to the rest of the nation. the lack of distinguished professors and increased tuition costs. the decrease in student enrollment at state universities and the ratio of students to teachers.
89. Which of the following most weakens the image of California as an El Dorado? A. B. C. the California apocalypse imagerywas always there on the dark side of the dream the University of California is wall-to-wall with cyclotrons and Nobel laureates U.C. tuitionis now over $4,000, a figure not out of line with tuitions at public colleges in other states the new lifestyles that all Americans will soon emulate
C. D.
D. 87. With which of the following statements concerning California would the author most likely agree? A. B. C. D. The state services with weak constituencies have suffered. The image of California as an alternate heaven and hell is not universal. The state legislature has always been ineffective. The recent waves of immigration are the key to understanding the overtaxed state infrastructure.
90. It can be inferred from the passage that compared to other states, California: A. B. C. D. had held one of the highest bond ratings. continues to make public education affordable to its residents. has a progressive and professional legislature. has been successful in balancing budgets.
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Passage III (Questions 9197) The mind, just like the body, has its needs. The needs of the body are the foundations of society; those of the mind are its amenities. While government and laws provide for the safety and well-being of men when they gather 5 together, the sciences and the arts, which are less despotic but perhaps more powerful, spread garlands of flowers over the iron chains that bind them, stifle in them the sense for that original liberty for which they seem to have been born, cause them to love their own enslavement, and turn 10 them into so-called civilized people. Necessity raised thrones; the sciences and the arts have strengthened them. O earthly powers: cherish talents and protect those who cultivate them. O civilized people, cultivate them: you happy slaves owe to them that delicate and refined taste of 15 which you are so proud, that gentleness of character and urbanity of manner which make relations among you so amiable and easyin other words, that semblance of all the virtues, none of which you actually possess How pleasant it would be to live among us, if our external appearance were always a reflection of what is in our hearts, if decency were virtue, if our maxims served as our rules, and if true philosophy were inseparable from the title of philosopher! But so many qualities are seldom found together, and virtue hardly ever walks in such great pomp. Richness of adornment may be the mark of a man of taste, but a healthy, robust man is known by other signs: it is beneath the rustic clothes of a farmer, and not the gilt of a courtier, that strength and vigor of the body will be found. Ornamentation is just as foreign to virtue, which is the strength and vigor of the soul. The good man is an athlete who prefers to compete in the nude: he disdains all those vile ornaments which would hinder the use of his strength, ornaments which were for the most part invented only to hide some deformity. Before art had molded our manners and taught our passions to speak an affected language, our customs were rustic but natural, and differences in conduct revealed clearly differences in character. Human nature, basically, was no better, but men found security in being able to see through each other easily, and this advantage, which we no longer appreciate, spared them many vices. Now that more subtle refinements and more delicate taste have reduced the art of pleasing to set rules, a base and deceptive uniformity prevails in our behavior, and all minds seem to have been cast in the same mold. Incessantly politeness and propriety make demands on us, and incessantly we follow usage but never our own inclinations. We no longer dare to appear as we are, and under this perpetual constraint, the men who form this herd called
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society, when placed in the same circumstances, will all act similarly unless stronger motives direct them to do otherwise. Therefore we will never know well those with whom we deal, for to know our friends we will have to wait for some crises to arisewhich is to say that we will have to wait until it is too late, as it is for these very crises that it is essential to know ones friends well. What vice would not accompany this uncertainty? No more sincere friendships, no more genuine esteem, no more well-based confidence. Suspicion, offenses, fears, coldness, reserve, hatred and betrayal will constantly hide under the same false veil of politeness, under that muchtouted urbanity which we owe to the enlightenment of our times. The name of the Master of the Universe will no longer be profaned by swearing, but insulted by blasphemies that will not offend our scrupulous ears. Men will not boast of their own merits, but belittle those of others. An enemy will not be crudely insulted, but adroitly slandered. National hatreds will die, but so will patriotism. A dangerous skepticism will take the place of the scorning of ignorance. Some excesses will be forbidden, some vices dishonored, but others will be dignified with the name of virtues, and one must either have them or feign them. Let those who want to praise the sobriety of the sages of our time do so; as for me, I see in it only a refinement of intemperance that is as unworthy of my praise as their hypocritical simplicity.
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91. According to the tone and content of the passage, which statement best reflects the authors opinion of the purpose of the sciences and the arts? A. B. C. D. They are necessary for the safety and well-being of mankind. They interfere with responsive action and honest communication. They reinforce the sense of original liberty that is present in all men. They have molded our reactions into predictable but essential forms. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 30
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92. In the context of this passage, the needs of the body are to government and laws as: A. B. C. D. the arts are to the earthly powers that cherish talents. the arts are to the semblance of all the virtues. the arts are to chains that bind men into slavery. the arts are to mans sense of original liberty.
95. According to the author, an urbane person is most likely to put the highest value on which of the following characteristics? A. B. C. D. simple, unadorned clothing. reflection on ones individual character. polite relations in public discourse. natural behavior and action.
93. The author of this passage would most likely have the greatest respect for a person who: A. B. C. D. is deterred from acting on his own inclinations by the needs of society. does not dilute his natural reactions through the artifice of correct behavior. exhibits his refinement through elaborate clothing and conversation. boasts of his own merit rather than belittling that of others.
96. Based on the opinions professed in the passage, the author would most likely believe that well-based confidence (line 59) would most likely arise from: A. B. C. D. the uncertainty of not knowing anothers true feelings. knowledge of the true content of anothers character. the parity between appearance and true virtue. knowledge of the absence of truth in the veil of politeness.
94. According to the authors arguments, a society that prizes its sciences and arts will: A. B. C. D. respect urbanity. scorn ignorance. foster sincere friendships. embrace simplicity.
97. Which of the following is given as a supporting example for the authors concept of the ideal man? A. B. C. D. One who exhibits courteous behavior. One who maintains a pleasant demeanor. One who rejects ornamentation. One who cultivates talent.
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Passage IV (Questions 98104)

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Todays new urban Asia is just as sophisticated and in many ways more exciting than Western cities. Urban Asian consumers are knowledgeable, modern, and keen to embrace the global lifestyle. Young, urban Asians have 5 grown up accustomed to many things that originated in the West. They have, for example, completely embraced pizza, some even claiming that it is a part of their heritage. The story is told about a young Singaporean boy who was taken by his father to Rome. Hey, look, Dad, the little 10 boy exclaimed, they have pizza here too! On sampling the product, the boy decided that it was not as good as the original back home. Nury Vitachi, who writes for the South China Post and the Far Eastern Economic Review, describes the Asian 15 middle-class phenomenon: Executives in Asia have become rich at warp speed by taking full control of their own lives. They invest a great deal of time in their work, they use strategy to scramble up the corporate ladder, and they demand payment in cashso they can make their 20 money work as hard as they do. Signs of affluence are everywhere, but dont get carried away. Traveling around Asia, no matter how rich the Asians become, signs of their frugal nature are still apparent. And they are very cost-conscious. Shopkeepers in 25 many Asian cities, most notably in Hong Kong, demand payments for discounted merchandise in cash instead of plastic, and many Asians are accustomed to that. Most people save the increases in their income, and many prefer to put it into fixed or other income-generating assets. 30 Stock, land, and property are their favorites. Many affluent Asians still regard financial security as the most important form of security, and they are confident that Asia is the place to be to achieve that. While many have begun to savor the good life, they are not letting go 35 of their top priority of education for their children. Education is looked upon as the most important contributing factor to success in life. And in many of Asias competitive urban centers, there is a rush to acquire a second degree and other forms of professional qualification to ensure per40 sonal competitiveness in the workplace. There are extraordinary opportunities in Asia for education and training programs from language to software programming. Despite the rise in their assertiveness, Asians still look to the United States and not so much to Europe for ideas 45 and trends. In general, except for those in Hong Kong and Japan, they are not particularly concerned with being fashionable. For todays Asia, Japan and Hong Kong are the sources of Asian fashion ideas, but as Asia becomes more
affluent, there is a great opportunity to develop an indigenous fashion industry. For example, a huge market potential exists in introducing new materials and simplified but fashionable designs for countries in tropical Asia with a hot humid climate throughout the year. The population density and lack of space in urban areas has prohibited Asians from exercising frequently and few indulge in outdoor activities. This is changing. Most Asians consider themselves in good health. Compared with Americans, few are overweightlargely as a result of their Asian diet. But now health clubs are becoming popular among younger Asians. Potential for indoor exercise equipment holds great promise. It is also important to dress for the gym, and younger Asians are serious about looking good, complete with makeup, sunglasses, designer exercise shoes and outfits, and a gym bag. In trying to hit Asias moving targets, regardless of what you are selling, it is a good idea to stick with market densitynot country by country, but, mostly, city by city. Asian markets can be a marketers dream in that their densities are among the highest in the world. Java, Indonesias main island, has 115 million people. On Nanjing Road, Shanghais busiest street, businesses are open twelve hours a day almost every day of the year. More than 1.5 million people visit the shops there and spend more than $50 million every day. Someone said that you can only become rich if you sell to the rich. I would add that you can become rich faster if you sell to the new rich. For investors in the West, watch for Western companies that are preparing a big push in Asia. The world has not yet seen anything like it before, and you can reap handsome dividends if you back those stocks that are going eastward.
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98. According to the author, many Asians view education as: A. B. C. D. 32 the most fulfilling aspect of life. a sector with tremendous growth opportunity. the foremost step toward personal success. an indicator of a familys wealth and breeding. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
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99. It can be inferred from the passage that: A. B. C. D. the Asian fashion market is already saturated with indigenous designs and manufacturers. credit cards are gaining acceptance slowly as a form of payment for merchandise in Asia. the comparative lack of space in urban Asia has led to increased health problems. competitive professionals often pursue additional education and training.
102. The quote by Vitachi (lines 1520) is used by the author to illustrate that: A. B. C. D. Asians have an economic environment much different than the rest of the global economy. Asian executives are becoming wealthy by adopting patterns similar to Western executives. Asia is developing a middle class that has characteristics similar to those of Westerners. Asian executives efforts to become rich are proving fruitful.
100. Suppose that Asian urban centers have seen the construction of many new hiking and nature trails. How would this information affect the authors observation on Asians interest in health? A. B. C. It supports the authors claim that Asians are exercising more. It refutes the claim that health clubs are becoming more popular. It supports the claim that outdoor activities are becoming more popular if it can be shown that these trails are heavily used. It refutes the claim that Asians consider themselves in good health if it can be shown that these trails are heavily used.
103. Which of the following is NOT directly supported by the passage? A. B. C. D. Asians have already assimilated many Western customs and fashions. Future investment in Asian markets will be the most lucrative action for Western manufacturers. Urban professionals in Asia consider education as beneficial to their careers. The affluence of many Asians is not always evident in their spending patterns.
D.
104. In the passage, the author does all of the following EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. resolve a seeming economic paradox. offer an interpretation of an observed trend. project consequences of current developments. make the information presented relevant to the reader.
101. Based on the information presented in the passage, with which of the following statements would the author most likely agree? A. B. C. D. Every Asian nation shows some evidence of wealth. Routine exercise keeps many Asians in prime physical condition. Many Asian cities are large enough to be considered independent markets. Asias markets have recently been flooded with American goods.
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Passage V (Questions 105111) [TV Guides] immediate concern was the television quiz show scandal, which had reached its climax two weeks earlier when Charles Van Doren, the appealing young man whod taught viewers the value of learning 5 while winning big on MCAs Twenty-one, stood before a House committee and admitted he was a fraud. But the issue went well beyond rigged quiz shows. The charge was that through their stranglehold on talent, MCA and William Morris monopolized the medium to the detriment 10 of their clients, the industry, and the public at large. This was why the Justice Department had launched a secret investigation of both agencies more than two years before. The Morris Agency had started the quiz show vogue in 1955, when it packaged The $64,000 Question for Revlon 15 and sold it to CBS. While the show won praise for its educational nature, the real source of its appeal was in its crapshoot formatthe idea that once contestants winnings hit the $32,000 mark, they had to decide whether to go double or nothing on the final, $64,000 question, or 20 play it safe and go home. The response was tremendous. Within weeks, the show knocked I Love Lucy out of the number-one slot in the ratings. Casinos in Vegas emptied out when it went on the air. Bookies took odds on whether the first contestant to go for the big onea marine captain 25 whose specialty was cookingwould get the answer right. (He did.) Revlon sold so much Living Lipstick that its factory was unable to meet the demand. The $64,000 Question quickly inspired imitators, among them an MCA package called Twenty-one. Based 30 on the card game, more or less, Twenty-one was a dismal failure at first. Do whatever you have to do, the sponsor ordered angrily, so the producers put the fix in. In December 1956, when Charles Van Doren, a boyishly attractive English instructor at Columbia University, beat Herb 35 Stempel, a short, squat, nerdy grad at City College, Van Doren became the first intellectual hero of the television age. Honors and acclaim poured inthe covers of Time, letters by the hundreds, offers of movie roles and tenured professorships and a regular guest spot on The Today 40 Show. But Herb Stempel didnt like being told to lose, especially to some Ivy League snot. He went to the press. The DAs office started to investigate. The walls began to close in. Meanwhile, the shows producers agreed to sell the 45 rights to NBC for $2 million. One of them started to feel queasy about selling the show without letting the network know the score, so he went to Sonny Werblin, MCAs top man in New York, and asked his advice. Werblin, the man behind such hits as The Ed Sullivan Show and The Jackie 34
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Gleason Show, ran the television department as if it were a football team coached by Attila the Hun. Dan, he asked the producer, have I ever asked you whether the show was rigged? No, he hadnt. And has NBC ever asked you whether the show is rigged? No, they hadnt either. Well, Werblin concluded, the reason that none of us has asked is because we dont want to know. And with good reason. Not only was Twenty-one an MCA package and Van Doren himself an MCA client; Werblin had a special relationship with NBCs president, Robert Kintner. Kintner had been president of ABC untilABCs chairman forced him out in his determination to move the network out of third place. MCA used its influence to place him at NBC, where he proved an extremely pliant customer. In the spring of 1957, when the networks were putting together their schedules for the next season, Werblin went to a meeting of NBC programming executives led by Kintner and his boss, RCA chairman Robert Sarnoff. Sonny, look at the schedule for next season, Kintner said when he walked in, here are the empty slots, you fill them.
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105. Suppose that the contestants on the television game shows mentioned in the passage had not been supplied with answers. Which of the following conclusions would most likely be correct? A. The Justice Department would have ended its investigation into the television production industry. Herb Stempel would have continued as champion on Twenty-one. The ABC chairman would not have removed Robert Kintner from the presidency. Herb Stempel would not have gone to the press shortly after December 1956. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
B. C. D.
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106. Which of the following is neither supported nor contradicted in the passage? A. B. C. D. Charles Van Doren received assistance that enabled him to win. Sonny Werblin was the sole creator of The Ed Sullivan Show. The $64,000 Question quickly dethroned I Love Lucy from the top of the television ratings. Robert Kintner had worked with another network before NBC.
109. The authors description of Kintner as an extremely pliant customer (line 64): A. B. C. D. reinforces his description of Werblin as an exacting taskmaster. supports his contention that NBC lacked strong leadership. indicates the degree of MCAs influence over the network. contradicts the implication that NBC knew their quiz show was rigged.
107. The information in the passage would support the following claims EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. Werblin had an influential role at NBC. Before 1955, quiz shows did not predominate in television ratings. While a contestant on Twenty-one, Charles Van Doren was aware that he was cheating. Concern over fraud in television game shows was the primary reason why the Justice Department investigated MCA.
110. The quote by Werblin (lines 5556) is offered primarily as support of which of following contentions? A. B. C. D. Werblin did not believe that quiz-show rigging was in the best interest of the public. Werblin was an ambitious person who sought admiration for his successes. Werblin was a ruthless executive who was influential with the William Morris Agency. Werblin was a shrewd character who knew the consequences of knowingly promoting a rigged game show.
108. Based on the passage, which of the following must NOT be true? A. B. C. D. Sonny Werblin was a difficult and exacting man to work with. Herb Stempel refused to offer information to the media concerning his appearances on Twenty-one. The $64,000 Question was rigged. Sonny Werblin was unfamiliar with Robert Kintner before he was made president of NBC.
111. According to the passage, which of the following are true statements? I. A correlation between successful contestants and successful sponsors exists in the television industry. II. Most game shows in the 1950s were rigged. III. Van Dorens quiz-show success provided him with further opportunity in his academic career. A. B. C. D. I only II only III only None of the above
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Passage VI (Questions 112116) Squeaking sand produces sounds with very high frequenciesbetween 500 and 2,500 hertz, lasting less than a quarter of a second. The peals are musically pure, often containing four or five harmonic overtones. Booming sand 5 makes louder, low-frequency sounds of 50 to 300 hertz, which may last as long as 15 minutes in larger dunes (although typically they last for seconds or less). In addition, they are rather noisy, containing a multitude of nearby frequencies. Booms have never been observed to contain 10 more than one harmonic of the fundamental tone. These dramatic differences once led to a consensus that although both types of sand produce acoustic emissions, the ways in which they do so must be substantially different.In the late 1970s, however, Peter K. Haff, then at the 15 California Institute of Technology, produced squeaks in booming sand, suggesting a closer connection between the two. Both kinds of sand must be displaced to make sounds. Walking on some sand, for example, forces the sand under20 foot to move down and out, producing squeaks. In the case of booming sand, displacement occurs during avalanches. It is within the avalanche that sound begins and where the answers must be hiding. Before an avalanche can occur, winds must build a dune up to a certain angle, usually about 35 degrees for dry desert sand. Once an angle is achieved, the sand on the leeward side of the dune begins to slump. Intact layers of sand slip over the layers below, like a sheared deck of cards. At the same time, the individual grains in the upper layers 30 tumble over the grains underneath, momentarily falling into the spaces between them and bouncing out again to continue their downward journey. Their concerted up-anddown motion is believed to be the secret source of sound. Fully developed avalanches, in which sliding plates of 35 sand remain intact for most of their motion, have the greatest acoustic output. In some places, where large amounts of sand are involved, booming can be heard up to 10 kilometers away.
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ing dune are very similar in size, especially near the leeward crest, where the sound most often originates; such uniformity allows for more efficient shearing. Otherwise, the smaller grains impede the smooth motion of the larger ones. Similar sizes do not alone allow sand to boom. On the contrary, the booming sands of Korizo and Gelf Kebib, also in Libya, feature an uncharacteristically broad range of particle sizes. Moreover, silent dune sand often contains grains somewhat similar to nearby booming sand. Grains of booming sand also tend to have uncommonly smooth surfaces, with protrusions on the scale of mere microns. Booming dunes are often found at the downwind end of large sand sources; having bounced and rolled across the desert for long distances, the sand grains in these dunes are usually highly polished. Over time a grain can also be polished by repeated shifts within a moving dune. And squeaking sand as well tends to be exceptionally smooth. Another important factor is humidity, because moisture can modify the friction between grains or cause sand to clump together, thus precluding shearing. Sounds occur in those parts of the dune that dry the fastest. Precipitation may be rare in the desert, but dunes retain water with remarkable efficiency. Sand near the surface dries quickly, however, and sand around a dunes crest tends to dry the fastest.
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Because it is caused by large volumes of shearing sand, the roaring is also loud. In fact, sounds made by booming sand can be nearly deafening, and the vibrations causing them can be so intense that standing in their midst is nearly impossible.
112. Which of the following characteristics is most helpful in differentiating booming sand from squeaking sand? A. B. C. D. 36 duration of the sound frequency of the sound size of the sand grains smoothness of the sand grains GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
A good place to start in exploring the vibrational prop45 erties of sand is with the grains themselves. The mean diameter of most sand grains, whether acoustically active or not, is about 300 microns. Usually the grains in a boom-
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113. Booming occurs mostly in big dunes deep in the desert. All of the following, if true, are factors that may plausibly account for this EXCEPT: A. The grains need to be carried over large distances by wind so they have a chance to be polished down. The sounds created by the booming dunes need a large distance to dissipate. A relatively large sand source is needed so dunes can build up to the requisite volume before an avalanche occurs. The dunes need to be far removed from any source of moisture.
115. A dune is found to be comprised of smooth grains and produces sounds that last less than a second. What further information, if any, would enable one to unambiguously characterize the sand as squeaking sand? A. B. C. D. The grains are not uniform in size. The sound is generated by walking upon it rather than through avalanches. The information given is already sufficient to conclude that the sand is squeaking sand. The sand cannot possibly be squeaking sand from the information given.
B. C.
D.
114. According to information presented in the passage, which of the following is true of all booming dunes? A. B. C. D. The dune needs to build up to a certain critical angle. The dune is composed of sand grains of similar size. The dune is composed of exceptionally rough sand grains. The dune needs to be dried for a while by winds to have moisture removed.
116. Which of the following discoveries would give the most support to the hypothesis that squeaking sand and booming sand differ only in the mechanism by which the sounds are produced? A. B. C. D. Avalanches can be induced in squeaking sand. Squeaking sand can be made to generate booming sounds. Booming sounds made by dunes can be generated by mechanisms other than avalanches. Smooth grains are not a requirement for booming sand.
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Passage VII (Questions 117124) When Gwendolyn Brooks published her first collection of poetry A Street In Bronzeville in 1945 most reviewers recognized Brooks versatility and craft as a poet. Yet, while noting her stylistic successes few of her contempo5 raries discussed the critical question of Brooks relationship to the Harlem Renaissance. How had she addressed herself, as a poet, to the literary movements assertion of the folk and African culture, and its promotion of the arts as the agent to define racial integrity? The New Negro poets of the Harlem Renaissance expressed a deep pride in being Black; they found reasons for this pride in ethnic identity and heritage; and they shared a common faith in the fine arts as a means of defining and reinforcing racial pride. But in the literal expres15 sion of this impulse, the poets were either romantics, or realists and, quite often within the same poem, both. The realistic impulse, as defined best in the poems of McKays Harlem Shadows (1922), was a sober reflection upon Blacks as second class citizens, segregated from the main20 stream of American socio-economic life, and largely unable to realize the wealth and opportunity that America promised. The romantic impulse, on the other hand, as defined in the poems of Sterling Browns Southern Road (1932), often found these unrealized dreams in the collec25 tive strength and will of the folk masses.
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Renaissance world-view. Although her poetry is often conditioned by the optimism that was also a legacy of the period, Brooks rejects outright their romantic prescriptions for the lives of Black women. And in this regard, she serves as a vital link with the Black Arts Movement of the 1960s that, while it witnessed the flowering of Black women as poets and social activists as well as the rise of Black feminist aesthetics in the 1970s, brought about a curious revival of romanticism in the Renaissance mode.
117. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage? A. The evolution of realism in Black womens poetry can be traced from Gwendolyn Brooks to the present day. Gwendolyn Brooks first poems were unique in the context of early twentieth-century poetry. Contemporary scholars misinterpreted the crucial issue of Gwendolyn Brooks relationship to the Harlem Renaissance. Gwendolyn Brooks poetry brought a new emphasis on the realistic elements of the Harlem Renaissance tradition.
In comparing the poems in A Street in Bronzeville with various poems from the Renaissance, it becomes apparent that Brooks brings many unique contributions to bear on this tradition. The first clue that A Street In Bronzeville 30 was, at its time of publication, unlike any other book of poems by a Black American is its insistent emphasis on demystifying romantic love between Black men and women. During the Renaissance, ethnic or racial pride was often focused with romantic idealization upon the Black 35 woman. A casual streetwalker in Hughes poem, When Sue Wears Red, for example, is magically transformed into an Egyptian Queen. In A Street In Bronzeville, this romantic impulse runs headlong into the biting ironies of racial discrimination. There are poems in which Hughes, 40 McKay and Brown recognize the realistic underside of urban life for Black women. But for Brooks, unlike the Renaissance poets, the victimization of poor Black women becomes not simply a minor chord but a predominant theme.
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D.
118. According to the passage, the poems in A Street in Bronzeville are similar to the poems in Harlem Shadows because they each: A. portray Black women in early twentieth-century America as resourceful individuals who were able to make successes of themselves. influenced the poetry and social activism of Black women poets during the Black Arts Movement of the 1960s. are based entirely on the romantic impulse of the New Negro poets of the Harlem Renaissance. illustrate the grim realities of suffering and discrimination faced by Black Americans in early twentieth-century America. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 38
B.
Brooks relationship with the Harlem Renaissance poets, as A Street in Bronzeville ably demonstrates, was hardly imitative. As one of the important links with the Black poetic tradition of the 1920s and 1930s, she enlarged the element of realism that was an important part of the
C. D.
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119. The passage suggests that the author would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements about the poetry of the Harlem Renaissance? A. B. C. D. The movement was inspired by a revival of folk and African culture. The Harlem Renaissance poets portrayed a common heritage in different ways. The movement has been widely criticized for its lack of realism. Brooks was more technically accomplished than other Harlem Renaissance poets.
122. According to the passage, critics praised the quality of Brooks first collection of poetry but: A. B. C. D. rejected her description of the plight of poor Black women in urban America. failed to consider the links between her work and the work of earlier Black poets. assumed incorrectly that she had borrowed many ideas from the poems of Sterling Brown. argued that she had neglected to demystify romantic love between Black men and women.
120. The author most probably mentions Hughes poem When Sue Wears Red (line 3536) in order to: A. B. C. D. prove that Brooks had not simply imitated the Harlem Renaissance poets. highlight the critical role of the imagination in the creative process. contrast the irony of Brooks poetry with the naivet of earlier poetry. provide an example of the romanticized portrayal of Black women.
123. Which of the following would best complete the last paragraph of the passage? A. B. For many readers, however, Brooks will best be remembered for her virtuosity in poetic technique. In many ways, Brooks poetry owes more to the influence of the Black Arts movement than to the poets of the Harlem Renaissance. For while poets of the Black Arts movement would often idealize their culture, their work was tempered by realism. But while her importance for later movements is established, Brooks relationship to the Harlem Renaissance remains open to question.
C.
D.
121. With which one of the following statements about A Street in Bronzeville would the author most likely agree? A. B. C. D. It further developed the realistic impulse of the Harlem Renaissance tradition. It was marred by an optimism inherited from Harlem Renaissance poetry. It completely rejected the poetic conventions of the Harlem Renaissance. It was the first significant work of a Black feminist writer.
124. Suppose that a recently-discovered collection of Gwendolyn Brooks poems contained female protagonists that embodied the ideal woman. This information would: A. B. C. support the authors contention that women poets were self-serving. negate the authors view that black poets presented women and men with inequality. contradict the authors opinion that Gwendolyn Brooks allowed readers to experience a more accurate description of the modern Black woman. neither support nor contradict the authors claim that Brooks served as an integral link between Harlem Renaissance poets and the Black Arts Movement poets.
D.
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Passage VIII (Questions 125131)

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Until last year many peoplebut not most economiststhought that the economic data told a simple tale. On one side, productivitythe average output of an average workerwas rising. And although the rate of pro5 ductivity increase was very slow during the 1970s and early 1980s, the official numbers said that it had accelerated significantly in the 1990s. By 1994 an average worker was producing about 20 percent more than his or her counterpart in 1978. On the other hand, other statistics said that real, inflation-adjusted wages had not been rising at anything like the same rate. In fact, some of the most commonly cited numbers showed real wages actually falling over the last 25 years. Those who did their homework knew that the 15 gloomiest numbers overstated the case.Still, even the most optimistic measure, the total hourly compensation of the average worker, rose only 3 percent between 1978 and 1994.
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past 25 years has been much slower than it was in the previous 25. Even if Boskins numbers are right, the income of the median familywhich officially has experienced virtually no gain since 1973has risen by only about 35 percent over the past 25 years, compared with 100 percent over the previous 25. Furthermore, it is quite likely that if we Boskinized the old datathat is, if we tried to adjust the C.P.I. for the 50s and 60s to take account of changing consumption patterns and rising product qualitywe would find that official numbers understated the rate of progress just as much if not more than they did in recent decades. Moreover, while workers as a group have shared fully in national productivity gains, they have not done so equally. The overwhelming evidence of a huge increase in income inequality in America has nothing to do with price indexes and is therefore unaffected by recent statistical revelations. It is still true that families in the bottom fifth, who had 5.4 percent of total income in 1970, had only 4.2 percent in 1994; and that over the same period the share of the top 5 percent went from 15.6 to 20.1. And it is still true that corporate C.E.O.s, who used to make about 35 times as much as their employees, now make 120 times as much or more. While these are real and serious problems, however, one thing is now clear: the truth about what is happening in America is more subtle than the simplistic morality play about greedy capitalists and oppressed workers that so many would-be sophisticates accepted only a few months ago. There was little excuse for buying into that simplistic view then; there is no excuse now.
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But now the experts are telling us that the whole thing may have been a figment of our statistical imaginations.a blue-ribbon panel of economists headed by Michael Boskin of Stanford declared that the Consumer Price Index [C.P.I.] had been systematically overstating inflation, probably by more than 1 percent per year for the 25 last two decades, mainly failing to take account of changes in the patterns of consumption and improvements in product quality.
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The Boskin report, in particular, is not an official documentit will be quite a while before the Government 30 actually issues a revised C.P.I., and the eventual revision may be smaller than Boskin and his colleagues propose. Still, the general outline of the resolution is pretty clear. When all the revisions are taken into account, productivity growth will probably look somewhat higher than it did 35 before, because some of the revisions being proposed to the way we measure consumer prices will also affect the way we calculate growth. But the rate of growth of real wages will look much higherand so it will now be roughly in line with productivity, which will therefore rec40 oncile numbers on productivity and wages with data that show a roughly unchanged distribution of income between capital and labor. In other words, the whole story about workers not sharing in productivity gains will turn out to have been based on a statistical illusion.
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125. Which of the following can be inferred as the best description of the Boskin report? A. B. C. D. A document that clarifies the existing percentage distribution of income to labor and to capital. A document that exposes the fact that the C.P.I. has overstated inflation for the past twenty years. A document that reveals that worker productivity has been overstated over the last twenty years. A document that reveals that wages have significantly decreased over the last twenty years. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 40
It is important not to go overboard on this point. There are real problems in America, and our previous concerns were by no means pure hypochondria. For one thing, it remains true that the rate of economic progress over the
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126. What is the effect of revising the C.P.I. on the calculation of labors percentage share of national income? A. B. C. D. A greater disparity will be apparent between the highest and lowest incomes. The percentage share will appear the same. The percentage share will appear smaller. The percentage share will appear larger.
129. It can be inferred from the passage that in the 1950s and 1960s: A. B. workers accounted for approximately the same percentage of national income as in 1994. workers experienced more substantial yearly pay increases than did workers in the 1970s and 1980s. workers wages, according to a revised C.P.I., increased at a rate higher than economic progress. workers incomes accurately reflected the periods economic progress.
C.
127. According to the passage, Boskinization adjusts the C.P.I. by: A. B. C. D. increasing wages and decreasing productivity to reconcile the present disparity. taking into account technologys role in an improved efficiency. reassessing consumption patterns and quality of product. evaluating the inequalities in various levels of incomes.
D.
130. Which of the situations below best reflects public perception regarding the economy prior to the release of Boskins report? A. B. C. Productivity has increased at a much higher rate than employee compensation since 1970. The rate of growth of productivity was approximately that of wages. The distribution of income to labor has radically changed over the last fifteen years. Economic progress has been steady since 1945.
128. The Boskin report does all of the following EXCEPT: A. B. Reveals that the C.P.I. was inaccurate. Reconciles the present disparity between productivity levels, wage levels, and the percentage of labors share in national income. Reveals the reasons for the increasing disparity between the highest and lowest income earners. Helps clarify economic progress in the 1950s and 1960s.
D.
131. The author mentions the figures in paragraph six (lines 6772) in order to show that: A. B. the total productivity of America has not seen a significant increase since the 1970s. each American workers productivity is directly proportional to overall national productivity gains. the income inequality in America is a problem that is not eliminated by revision of the price index. Boskins report is unable to explain the discrepancy between productivity growth and wage increases.
C. D.
C.
D.
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Passage IX (Questions 132137)

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For the last two decades many earth scientists have supported the notion that the Mediterranean was once a huge, dry desert, lying 3,000 meters below sea level. This death valley was thought to have existed at the end of Miocene time, about 6 to 5.5 million years ago. From a geological point of view, the Mediterranean is a tectonically mobile land-enclosed depressionsmall (about 3,000,000 square kilometers) in comparison to the major world oceansImmediately obvious on all charts is the highly variable topography and relief of both the seafloor and adjacent borderland. The coastline is highly irregular and continental shelves, though generally narrow, are well developed off the major river deltas (Nile, Rhone, Po, and Ebro). Moreover, the deep-sea basins and trenches have distinctive relief, with basin plains ranging in depth from less than 1,000 meters to more than 4,000Observation that rocks dredged offshore are similar to those on land raised a fundamental conceptthe key to understanding Mediterranean history lies in the adjacent emerged land masses, and vice-versa. Early paleographic reconstructions showed that the once-open communication with the Atlantic deteriorated during the upper Miocene. Water-mass exchange continued for a while in the Rif Strait, but then ceased completely prior to the beginning of the Pliocene. High relief near what is now the Strait of Gibraltar served as a barrier to the exchange of waters with the Atlantic. Exposed to a hot and dry climate, water evaporated and the then-dry basin elicited comparison with a gigantic Death ValleyMicrofossil studies suggested that the depth of the Mediterranean basin at these times had been deep. Estimates suggested a dry seafloor as far as 2,000 meters below ocean level As a response to suddenly lowered sea level, rivers feeding the Mediterranean and canyons on the now-dry seafloor began a geologically dramatic phase of erosion. Deep, Grand Canyon-like gorges of the Nile and Rhone rivers, presently buried on land, were apparently cut during a great drawdown of waterwhen the Mediterranean floor lay exposed 1,000 meters or more below its present levelThe sudden flooding through a gigantic waterfall at Gibraltar drowned the exposed basin floor. These falls would have been 1,000 times bigger than Niagara FallsThis flooding event is recorded by the Miocene Pliocene boundary, a time when open marine faunal assemblages were suddenly reintroduced from the Atlantic. Geological theories usually fall at a glacial pace into a sea of controversy, and this one is no exception. Today 42
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charging that proof for the theory is lackingmany scientists believe that the Med always contained saltwater, with only the depth of the seafloor and the water being in question Some of the tenets on which the theory was formulated are, if not defective, very seriously in question. To interpret their findings, a respectable number of geologists studying the surrounding emerged borderland as well as subsea sections indicate that alternative, more comprehensive concepts must be envisioned. It is not realistic to envision the Mediterranean seafloor of about 5 million years ago as a desert at 3,000 meters below present ocean level. Several years agothe Mediterranean [was compared] to a complex picture-puzzle that comprises numerous intricate pieces, many of which are already in place. A general image is emerging, although gaps in some areas of the picture remain fuzzy and indistinct.
10
60
15
65
20
25
132. All of the following are features of the desert theory EXCEPT: A. B. C. Around 5.5 to 6 million years ago, the earths climate was similar to that of modern day Earth. The arid region compared to a Death Valley existed below sea level. The start of the Pliocene period saw a waterfall at the Strait of Gibraltar that rivaled Niagara in its intensity. During the Miocene, the Rif Strait served as a channel for the Atlantic waters to mix with the Mediterranean.
30
D.
35
40
133. It can be inferred from the passage that geological theories tend to: A. B. C. D. exist in the world of science with little controversy. develop over short periods of time after multiple research efforts. be disproved with the next trend in scientific thought. evolve to incorporate the growing body of knowledge derived from geological research. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
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134. In the context of the passage, the term emerged land masses (lines 19-20) refers to: A. B. C. D. regions of land that surround the Mediterranean. barriers that develop into waterfalls. saline-concentrated soil that extracts water from surrounding tributaries. continents that have come to touch one another.
137. According to the author, which of the following is the most likely theory concerning the formation of the Mediterranean? A. B. Once a Death Valley, the Mediterranean basin eventually filled with water to become a sea. At the beginning of the Pliocene, an intense waterfall connected the Atlantic Ocean to the desert land mass that later became the Mediterranean. The approaching Eurasian and African land masses pinched off a large body of water that developed into the modern day Mediterranean. None of the above
135. All of the following are characteristics of the modern day Mediterranean EXCEPT that it: A. B. C. D. has a variety of depths. has a seafloor with a very regular and smooth topography. is land-enclosed and tectonically mobile. contains well-developed continental shelves.
C.
D.
STOP. IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK. YOU MAY GO BACK TO ANY QUESTION IN THIS SECTION ONLY.
136. According to the passage, during the Miocene period: A. B. C. D. tectonic plates collided creating the massive waterfall at the Strait of Gibraltar. the composition and size of the Mediterranean differed greatly than the present. rivers dried up as they filled the Mediterranean. an abundance of flora and fauna existed that are now extinct.
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Writing Sample
Time: 60 Minutes 2 Items, Separately Timed: 30 Minutes Each
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WRITING SAMPLE
DIRECTIONS: This section is a test of your writing skills. The section contains two parts. You will have 30 minutes to complete each part. Your responses to the prompts given in the Writing Sample will be written in the ANSWER DOCUMENT. Your response to Part 1 must be written only on the answer sheets marked 1, and your response to Part 2 must be written only on the answer sheets marked 2. You may work only on Part 1 during the first 30 minutes of the test and only on Part 2 during the second 30 minutes. If you finish writing on Part 1 before the time is up, you may review your work on that part, but do not begin writing on Part 2. If you finish writing on Part 2 before the time is up, you may review your work only on Part 2. Use your time efficiently. Before you begin writing a response, read the assignment carefully and make sure you understand exactly what you are being asked to do. You may use the space below each writing assignment to make notes in planning your responses. Because this is a test of your writing skills, your response to each part should be an essay composed of complete sentences and paragraphs, as well organized and clearly written as you can make it in the allotted time. You may make corrections or additions neatly between the lines of your responses, but do not write in the margins of the answer booklet. There are six pages in your answer booklet to write your responses, three pages for each part of the test. You are not required to use all of the pages, but to be sure that you have enough space for each essay, do not skip lines. Essays that are illegible cannot be scored. In addition, essays that are not written in English will not be scored.
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Part 1
Consider the following statement: Education comes not from books but from practical experience. Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above statement means. Describe a specific situation in which books might educate students better than practical experience. Discuss what you think determines when practical experience provides a better education than books do.
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Part 2
Consider the following statement: Developed nations have an obligation to provide aid to the underdeveloped nations of the world. Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above statement means. Describe a specific situation in which a developed nation might not be obligated to provide aid to an underdeveloped nation. Discuss what you think determines when developed nations have an obligation to provide aid to underdeveloped nations.
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Biological Sciences
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BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES
DIRECTIONS: Most of the questions in the Biological Sciences test are organized into groups, with a descriptive passage preceding each group of questions. Study the passage, then select the single best answer to each question in the group. Some of the questions are not based on a descriptive passage; you must also select the best answer to these questions. If you are unsure of the best answer, eliminate the choices that you know are incorrect, then select an answer from the choices that remain. Indicate your selection by blackening the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. A periodic table is provided below for your use with the questions.
PERIODIC TABLE OF THE ELEMENTS

1 H 1.0 3 Li 6.9 11 Na 23.0 19 K 39.1 37 Rb 85.5 55 Cs 132.9 87 Fr (223) 4 Be 9.0 12 Mg 24.3 20 Ca 40.1 38 Sr 87.6 56 Ba 137.3 88 Ra 226.0 21 Sc 45.0 39 Y 88.9 57 La * 138.9 89 Ac 227.0 22 Ti 47.9 40 Zr 91.2 72 Hf 178.5 104 Rf (261) 58 Ce 140.1 90 Th 232.0 23 V 50.9 41 Nb 92.9 73 Ta 180.9 105 Ha (262) 59 Pr 140.9 91 Pa (231) 24 Cr 52.0 42 Mo 95.9 74 W 183.9 106 Unh (263) 60 Nd 144.2 92 U 238.0 25 Mn 54.9 43 Tc (98) 75 Re 186.2 107 Uns (262) 61 Pm (145) 93 Np (237) 26 Fe 55.8 44 Ru 101.1 76 Os 190.2 108 Uno (265) 62 Sm 150.4 94 Pu (244) 27 Co 58.9 45 Rh 102.9 77 Ir 192.2 109 Une (267) 63 Eu 152.0 95 Am (243) 64 G d 157.3 96 Cm (247) 65 T b 158.9 97 Bk (247) 66 Dy 162.5 98 Cf (251) 67 Ho 164.9 99 Es (252) 68 Er 167.3 100 Fm (257) 69 Tm 168.9 101 Md (258) 70 Y b 173.0 102 No (259) 71 Lu 175.0 103 Lr (260) 28 Ni 58.7 46 Pd 106.4 78 Pt 195.1 29 Cu 63.5 47 Ag 107.9 79 Au 197.0 30 Zn 65.4 48 Cd 112.4 80 Hg 200.6 5 B 10.8 13 Al 27.0 31 Ga 69.7 49 In 114.8 81 Tl 204.4 6 C 12.0 14 Si 28.1 32 Ge 72.6 50 Sn 118.7 82 Pb 207.2 7 N 14.0 15 P 31.0 33 As 74.9 51 Sb 121.8 83 Bi 209.0 8 O 16.0 16 S 32.1 34 Se 79.0 52 Te 127.6 84 Po (209) 9 F 19.0 17 Cl 35.5 35 Br 79.9 53 I 126.9 85 At (210) 2 He 4.0 10 Ne 20.2 18 Ar 39.9 36 K r 83.8 54 Xe 131.3 86 Rn (222)
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Passage I (Questions 138143) Early experimentation on the single-celled organism Acetabularia led to important discoveries about the role of the nucleus in regulating cell function. Acetabularia is an enormous single cell with three distinct regions: a cap, a root-like rhizoid, and a stalk which connects the two. The following experiments were conducted to study the development of the cell: Experiment 1 The stalk of an Acetabularia was cut, fragmenting the cell. The fragment which included the cap died shortly afterwards while the fragment containing the rhizoid regenerated to form a complete Acetabularia. Experiment 2 The nucleus from Acetabularia mediterranea, which has a flat cap, was transplanted into Acetabularia crenulata, which has a tufted cap, following removal of the Acetabularia crenulata nucleus. The Acetabularia crenulata cap eventually assumed the flat shape. Experiment 3 The nucleus of Acetabularia mediterranea was removed from the young cell before it first formed a cap. A normal cap formed several weeks later. The cell proved to be inviable and died shortly thereafter. Experiment 4 A young Acetabularia was fractioned into a number of portions before it first formed a cap. Several weeks later, both the portion containing the nucleus and the portion containing the apical tip of the stalk formed caps. The other portions did not form caps.
138. One explanation for the results of Experiment 4 is that the instructions for forming the cap are stored in the apical tip of the stalk several weeks prior to stalk formation. Which of the following pieces of evidence best supports this explanation? A. Isolation of DNA coding for cap-inducing proteins from samples of Acetabularia taken several weeks prior to stalk formation. Exposure of a young Acetabularia to ribonuclease, which cleaves RNA, blocks cap formation. Exchange of nuclei between Acetabularia crenulata and Acetabularia mediterranea leads to formation of the cap associated with each nucleus. mRNA coding for cap-inducing proteins is found to accumulate in the stalk apex.
B. C.
D.
139. Acetabularia is a(n): A. B. C. D. virus. prokaryote. eukaryote. bacterium.
140. Which of the following conclusions can be logically drawn from the fact that the Acetabularia segment containing the rhizoid regenerated a complete and viable Acetabularia in Experiment 1? A. B. C. D. The cell nucleus is located in the rhizoid. Acetabularia reproduces by budding. The Acetabularia cap is a vestigial structure. Cap-coding mRNA is stored in the rhizoid.
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141. It can be inferred from the experiments in the passage that development of the cap in Acetabularia is regulated by which of the following mechanisms? A. Transcriptional regulation because mRNA in the cytoplasm lies dormant for several weeks before cap formation occurs. Translational regulation because mRNA is not produced by the nucleus until it is required for cap production. Translational regulation because mRNA in the cytoplasm lies dormant for several weeks before cap formation occurs. Neither transcriptional regulation nor translational regulation.
143. The mRNA sequence shown below is transcribed from which of the following DNA fragments? 5'-UGUAAUC-3' A. B. C. D. 5'-GAUUACA-3' 5'-ACATTAG-3' 5'-CTAATGT-3' 5'-GATTACA-3' mRNA
B.
C.
D.
142. The differences in cap structure between Acetabularia mediterranea and Acetabularia crenulata are caused by differences in: A. B. C. D. genotype. phenotype. genus. phylum.
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Passage II (Questions 144149) Nitric oxide, NO, has recently been found to have widespread physiological effects, acting as a major regulator in the nervous, cardiovascular, and immune systems. The production of NO in the body is regulated by specific NOS enzymes which exist in at least three different isoformsbNOS, eNOS, and macNOS. Each of these isoforms differ in location and function and serve to mediate different physiological responses to NO. Some physiological roles of NO have been demonstrated as follows: I. In the central nervous system, NO production is regulated by bNOS. Calcium ion concentrations of 200-400 nM in the central nervous system activate bNOS to catalyze the formation of NO. NO exerts definite effects on brain function although its specific roles are not well established. bNOS inhibitors have been found to block the release of neurotransmitter from presynaptic neurons. Excess levels of NO are also thought to contribute to neurodegenerative disorders such as Alzheimers disease. In the blood vessels, NO is produced by eNOS which is activated by Ca2+ concentrations of 200-400 nM. NO acts as the major endogenous vasodilator in blood vessels. It diffuses into smooth muscle cells and leads to muscle relaxation by stimulating cGMP formation through activation of guanylyl cyclase. In addition, NO regulates the vascular system by inhibiting platelet aggregation and adhesion. The role of NO in the immune system is regulated by macNOS through a pathway that is not Ca2+ dependent. Rather, exposure to cytokines, including interleukin-1 and interferon-, leads to synthesis of large amounts of NO by activation of macNOS in response to inflammatory stimuli. The NO produced plays a definitive role in the mediation of the activities of macrophages and neutrophils. NO also acts to inhibit the mechanism of viral replication.
144. Based on information in the passage, which of the following is a possible effect of NO in the brain? A. B. C. D. Inhibit the fusing of neurotransmitter vesicles at the presynaptic membrane Promote neurotransmitter release into the synaptic cleft Enhance vasoconstriction to maintain blood pressure Decrease neurotransmitter synthesis by the presynaptic neuron
145. A knock out mouse with a mutant bNOS protein was generated by recombination techniques. The mutant protein was identical to the wild-type protein except for the identity of amino acid 675; the mutated bNOS has Tryptophan instead of Cysteine at position 675. Which of the following is responsible for the mutant protein? A. B. C. D. Frame shift mutation Single base-pair deletion Point mutation Nonsense mutation
II.
146. A patient has accidentally ingested a toxin which acts as an eNOS inhibitor. According to the passage, the effects of this toxin would most likely include: A. B. C. D. decreased blood pressure. increased immune response. decreased urine production. increased blood pressure.
III.
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147. A patient with hypertension (high blood pressure) is treated with nitroglycerin, which spontaneously breaks down to give NO. This treatment will be: A. B. C. D. effective because NO will activate eNOS. effective because NO will lead to vasodilation. ineffective because eNOS will not be activated. ineffective because NO will build up, leading to neurotoxicity.
149. Which of the following Ca2+ concentrations could lead to activation of bNOS? A. B. C. D. 3.2 107 M 2.5 109 M 1.9 107 M 3.8 108 M
148. According to the passage, NO may counter viral infection by all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. inducing white blood cells to engulf and destroy foreign agents. inhibiting the synthesis of viral RNA. denaturing viral protein coats in the interstitial fluid. blocking viral release from infected cells.
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Passage III (Questions 150155) Synthetic dyes constitute a commercially significant area of organic chemistry. The color producing properties of these compounds are the result of highly delocalized electron systems giving rise to electronic transitions whose absorptions occur in the visible region. Most commercially useful dyes can be classified as one of three types anthraquinones, azo dyes, or triarylmethyl salts. Examples of each type are illustrated in Figure 1.
O N N HO OH O azo dye (aniline yellow) NH2
NH(CH2)6NH C(CH2)4 C nylon 66 O O
NH(CH2)6NH C(CH2)8 C nylon 610 O O
CC6H4 C O CH2CH2O Dacron Figure 2 150. Certain natural protein fibers such as silk or wool can be treated with aqueous base, then with solutions containing cationic dyes such as malachite green to produce color fast yarns. The most likely explanation for the affinity of malachite green for silk or wool via this process is that: A. many of the R groups on the amino acids of which these fibers are composed contain COOH groups. very few of the R groups on the amino acids of which these fibers are composed contain OH groups. the aqueous base hydrolyzes some of the peptide linkages in these fibers. the aqueous base neutralizes the cationic dye.
anthraquinone (alizarin)
C+
(H3C)2N
triarylmethyl cation (malachite green)
N(CH3)2
B.
Figure 1 In order for a dye to be useful in the fabric industry, it must have sufficient affinity for the polymeric fibers of which the material is composed; the dye must not only impart a color to the fabric, but must also do so in a relatively permanent manner (color fastness). Proper design of synthetic polymers requires the placement of acidic or basic side chains along the polymer backbone such that binding sites are available for dying. Similarly, dyes must be produced not only with the appropriate color-producing structure, but also with an affinity for the fabric in question. The structural units of several common synthetic fibers are shown in Figure 2.
C. D.
151. Dacron belongs to which of the following general classifications? A. B. C. D. Polyamide Polyester Polyurethane Polypeptide
152. Cotton is a natural fiber composed of cellulose, a polymer of glucose. Which of the compounds shown in Figure 1 would adhere to a cotton fiber via hydrogen bonding? A. B. C. D. Alizarin only Malachite green only Alizarin and aniline yellow only Malachite green, alizarin, and aniline yellow GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 55
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153. Nylon, Dacron, and many other synthetic fibers are produced via condensation reactions. Which of the following would be the best starting materials for the production of nylon 66? A. B. C. D. cis-2-butenoic acid and 1,6-hexanediamine butanedioic acid and 1,6-hexanediamine n-hexanoic acid and 2,5-hexanediamine hexanedioic acid and 1,6-hexanediamine
155. Hydrogenation of alizarin over a specific rhodium catalyst results in the complete saturation of all the carbon-carbon bonds, but does not affect any other functional groups. Which of the following effects should also be expected? A. B. C. The hydrogenated product will no longer have any affinity for Dacron fibers. The hydrogenated product will no longer be soluble in aqueous base. The hydrogenated product will no longer appear colored. The hydrogenated product will have a greatly increased affinity for nylon 610.
154. Azo dyes are synthesized via diazotization. The sequence of diazotization involves first treating an aromatic amine with NaNO2 in acidic solution, thereby converting it to the corresponding diazonium salt (with the general formula ArN2X), then reacting with a second aromatic compound to form the azo dye. What is the structure of the azo dye produced by the reaction sequence below?
O2 N OCH3
D.
NaNO2 HCl
NH2
diazonium salt
A. N B. N C. H3CO N NO2 D. H3CO N N NO2 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 56 N N NO2 N OCH2
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Passage IV (Questions 156162) Hypoxia refers to a physiological condition in which the body lacks sufficient oxygen for normal cellular functioning. Prolonged hypoxia generally leads to an inhibition of mental capacity and a reduction in the work capacity of muscle. Severe cases of hypoxia can lead to coma or even death. Depending on the cause, hypoxia can be classified into four general types: Hypoxic hypoxia is a type of hypoxia that occurs when the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood is too low. For example, climbers at high altitude, where the air contains less oxygen, might experience hypoxic hypoxia because the partial pressure of oxygen in the air inhaled is very low, leading to insufficient partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. Anemic hypoxia describes a diminished ability of the blood to transport oxygen. Several factors can influence the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Primary causes of anemic hypoxia include a lower than normal number of functional erythrocytes or an insufficient quantity of hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying molecules of the blood. Abnormal hemoglobin can also decrease the bloods capacity to carry oxygen and lead to anemic hypoxia. Ischemic hypoxia is caused by a decreased delivery of blood to the tissues. Localized circulatory deficiencies, such as blood clots, and global circulatory deficiencies, such as heart failure, decrease the delivery of blood to the tissues, and can therefore cause ischemic hypoxia. Histotoxic hypoxia results from the inability of cells to utilize the oxygen available in the blood. Causes of histotoxic hypoxia include the poisoning of cellular enzymes involved in aerobic respiration, as well as the decreased metabolic capacity of the oxidative enzymes due to vitamin deficiency. Cyanide poisoning causes histotoxic hypoxia by blocking the action of cytochrome oxidase in the electron transport chain so that tissues cannot use oxygen even though it is available. 156. Cigarette smoking causes emphysema, a condition in which the net surface area of the lungs is greatly decreased leading to a decrease in the diffusing capacity of the lungs. Emphysema leads to which type of hypoxia? A. B. C. D. Hypoxic hypoxia Anemic hypoxia Ischemic hypoxia Histotoxic hypoxia
157. Exposure to high levels of radiation has been demonstrated to cause anemia. The most likely explanation is that radiation damages the: A. B. C. D. blood vessels. spleen. thymus. bone marrow.
158. If cyanide is radioactively-labeled and its position traced within the cell, it will most likely be found in: A. B. C. D. the Golgi apparatus. membrane bound vesicles. the nucleus. the mitochondria.
159. The passages of the respiratory tract which do not participate in gas exchange are called the physiological dead space. Compared to air in the alveoli, air in the physiological dead space will have: A. B. C. D. higher PCO and higher PO . 2 2 higher PCO and lower PO . 2 2 lower PCO and higher PO . 2 2 same PCO and same PO .
2 2
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160. Carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin as shown in the dissociation curve below. The dissociation curve for oxygen is also shown. These dissociation curves indicate that:
100 % Hb saturation % Hb saturation 75 50 25 0 0 0.2 PCO (mmHg ) 0.4 100 75 50 25 0
162. A patent foramen ovale occurs when an infants foramen ovale does not close completely at birth. Based on the information presented in the passage, this can lead to: A. hypoxic hypoxia because much of the blood does not reach the lungs to be oxygenated leading to a low PO . anemic hypoxia because the blood does not carry enough oxygen. ischemic hypoxia because the flow of blood is shunted away from the lungs. none of the above.
2
B. C.
0
2
70 PO (mmHg)
140
D.
A. B. C.
D.
carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin with the same affinity as does oxygen. carbon monoxide saturates hemoglobin at much lower partial pressures than does oxygen. oxygen will saturate hemoglobin more rapidly than will an equal partial pressure of carbon monoxide. carbon monoxide forms covalent bonds to hemoglobin while oxygen is held by non-covalent interactions.
161. Hypoxia can often be treated by ventilation with pure oxygen. The increased PO in the alveoli will lead to
2
an increased PO in the blood. Treatment with pure

2
oxygen is LEAST effective in treating which of the following types of hypoxia? A. B. C. D. Hypoxic hypoxia caused by hypoventilation Anemic hypoxia caused by sickle cell anemia Ischemic hypoxia caused by poor circulation Histotoxic hypoxia caused by the disease beri beri
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163. Which of the following molecules would produce the NMR spectrum shown below?
164. Which of the following best illustrates the contracted state of the sarcomere shown below?
A.
B.
6.0
5.0
4.0 3.0 PPM ( )
2.0
1.0
A. Br H3C C CBr3 Br B. Br H3C C CH3 Br
C. Br H3C C CBr3 H D. Br H3C C CH3 H
C.
D.
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165. In the small intestine, most amino acids are transported from the lumen of the gut into the epithelial cells against their concentration gradient. This movement of amino acids is coupled to the movement of sodium ions down their concentration gradient in a form of transmembrane movement called: A. B. C. D. simple diffusion. facilitated diffusion. secondary active transport. primary active transport.
167. When humans are submerged in water, the mammalian dive reflex acts to alter circulation. Heart rate decreases, blood flow to the extremities is reduced, and mean arterial blood pressure is increased. These accomodations lead to: A. B. C. D. decreased oxygen demand by the tissues. increased heat retention by the body. decreased partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. increased venous return.
166. Which of the following functional groups are NOT found on the side chains of any of the naturally occurring amino acids? A. B. C. D. Hydroxyl Methyl Carboxylic acid Aldehyde
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Passage V (Questions 168172) In 1972, Georges Ungar reported the discovery of a peptide that appeared to transfer learning. Ungars claim was based on experiments in which rats placed in a chamber with specially designed dark and light regions were trained to avoid the dark regions of the chamber. Following their training, the rats were killed and brain extracts were prepared. These brain extracts were injected into naive rats which were then observed to acquire the fear of darkness without training. Two hypotheses were proposed to explain these remarkable results: Hypothesis 1 Ungar concluded that the extracts contained some chemical that transmitted the learned fear of darkness to the naive rats. A fifteen amino-acid polypeptide was isolated from the brain extracts and sequenced. Ungar claimed that this peptide, called scotophobin, was a chemical transmitter of learning. The peptide had the primary structure shown below: C-ser-asp-asn-arg-gln-gln-gly-lys-ser-ala-arg-gln-glygly-tyr-N scotophobin Hypothesis 2 Other researchers, who tested scotophobin but could not reproduce Ungars results, argued that scotophobin did not transfer the learned fear of darkness. Instead, they suggested that scotophobin, which is structurally similar to ACTH and vasopressin, acted to increase stress in the rats. Since stress increases sympathetic nervous activity, rats injected with scotophobin would become hyperactive and tend to spend less time in the dark regions of the experimental chamber. They argued that such stress responses in the rats could be misinterpreted as a fear of darkness. Ungars claim was further weakened by chemical analysis in which both the scotophobin extracts which Ungar had injected into the naive rats and a sample of synthesized scotophobin peptide were subjected to SDS polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis, as shown in Figure 1.
A B top () (large molecules)
168. Hydrolytic enzymes cleave polypeptides at specific amino acid residues. Which of the following hydrolytic enzymes could be used to cleave scotophobin into three fragments? Enzyme Trypsin Clositripain Chymotrypsin Pepsin Sites of Cleavage Lys or Arg Arg Phe, Trp, or Tyr Asp, Glu, Leu, Phe, Trp, or Tyr Bond Cleaved carboxy end carboxy end carboxy end carboxy end
A. B. C. D.
Trypsin only Trypsin or clositripain only Clositripain or chymotrypsin only Clositripain or pepsin only
169. In a follow-up experiment, researchers administered scotophobin to rats in order to examine its physiological effects. Which of the following observations of physiological effects in the rat would provide the best support for Hypothesis 2? A. B. C. D. Increase in urine volume The rat pupils dilate causing the rat to prefer darkness and avoid light Increase in heart rate Dilation of arterioles regulating blood flow to the digestive tract
D Ungar's Extract Synthetic scotophobin bottom (+) (small molecules)
Figure 1 61
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
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170. Researchers isolated a polypeptide from the brains of goldfish trained to avoid darkness. This goldfish scotophobin was 15 amino acids long and differed from rat scotophobin by one amino acid. The gene for goldfish scotophobin must differ from that of rat scotophobin by: A. B. C. D. one amino acid. three codons. at least one nucleotide. at least three nucleotides.
172. The chemical analysis of Ungars extract most likely weakened his claim that scotophobin transferred the learned fear of darkness because it showed that: A. B. C. D. the extract was not pure scotophobin. the extract did not contain scotophobin. scotophobin was not present in sufficient concentrations to illicit a response. scotophobin was similar in structure to other proteins.
171. Researchers were interested in purifying a second protein (protein X) from Ungars extract. The gene segment encoding protein X was believed to consist of thirty nucleotides. According to Figure 1, which band could represent protein X? A. B. C. D. A B C D
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Passage VI (Questions 173178) Morphine alkaloids derived from the opium poppy have long been used as analgesics. Codeine, the methyl ether of morphine, is a naturally occurring alkaloid with medicinal properties very similar to those of morphine. Thousands of derivatives of morphine have been synthesized and tested for their biological effects. For example, the diacylated derivative of morphine, heroin, is a highly addictive drug. Much effort has gone into understanding how morphine and its derivatives function.
HO H3CO
physical symptoms accompanying withdrawal without producing many of the other effects of heroin.
O C6H5 CCH2CH3 CH3 CH3 N CH3 Methadone
O N H HO H Morphine O CH3CO H CH3 H HO
O N H H Codeine CH3
N Meperidine (demerol)
CH3
Figure 2 173. One of the requirements of the morphine rule is that an aromatic ring be attached to a quaternary carbon in order for the molecule to be biologically active. The quaternary carbon of any morphine-like substance must be: I. a stereocenter II. sp3 hybridized III. sp2 hybridized A. B. C. D. I only II only I and II only I and III only
O N H O CH3CO H Heroin H CH3
Figure 1 Studies have shown that certain common structural features of alkaloids are required for the compound to exhibit biological activity. These structural requirements are summarized by the so called morphine rule: 1. an aromatic ring adjacent to a quaternary carbon; 2. two carbons between this quaternary carbon and a tertiary amine. Demerol and methadone, shown in Figure 2, are two synthetic alkaloids designed to satisfy the morphine rule. Synthetic alkaloids such as these have been found to mimic certain physiological properties of morphine and its derivatives, and have found pharmacological application due to other, more desirable biological effects. Methadone has been used widely in the United States and Great Britain as a treatment for heroin addiction; it reduces the
174. How many chiral carbons are there in morphine? A. B. C. D. 4 5 6 7
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175. Which of the following compounds would be most likely to have morphine-like biological effects? A.
HO N
177. Hofmann elimination involves methylation of the amine nitrogen followed by elimination (E2). Which of the following represents a possible product of one sequence of Hofmann elimination on Meperidine (demerol)? A.
B.
HO
+ N
CH3
CH3
B.
O NH H HO H H
CH3 CH3
C.
C.
CH3
NH2
D.
D.
CH3
176. Morphine can be reacted with 2 equivalents of ethanoyl chloride (acetyl chloride) to form heroin. In this reaction, the hydroxy groups of morphine function as: A. B. C. D. nucleophiles. electrophiles. leaving groups. Lewis acids.
178. Researchers have discovered that the stereochemistry of the alkaloids is critical to their physiological effects. For example, ()-methadone produces powerful analgesic effects while (+)-methadone produces no effect. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this difference in activity? A. B. C. D. (+)-Methadone does not follow the morphine rules. Alkaloids bind to stereospecific receptors. Analgesic effects require the rotation of plane polarized light. ()-Methadone is the naturally occurring enantiomer. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 64
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Passage VII (Questions 179185) The hydrogens of alkanes have pKa values that are over 30 or 40. In contrast, the -hydrogens of aldehydes and ketones have pKa values that range from 19 to 21. These fairly acidic -hydrogens can be removed by strong bases to form anions called enolates. The enolate ions are strongly stabilized by resonance. Protonation of the enolate at oxygen produces an enol. Interconversion between the keto and enol forms is called tautomerization and is illustrated in Figure 1. The keto form is usually highly favored.
O OH
179. A scientist attempts to follow the progress of the -deuteration shown in Figure 2 using proton NMR. Which of the following would be the best indicator that the reaction has proceeded to completion? A. B. C. D. Singlet at 9.8 ppm Quadruplet between 1.0 and 2.0 ppm Doublet between 3.0 and 4.0 No signal
180. The IUPAC name for the reactant in Figure 3 is: A. B. C. D. (R)-3-methyl-2-pentanone (R)-3-ethyl-2-butanone (R)-3-ethyl-3-methyl-propanal (R)-2,2-diethyl-propanone
keto
enol
Figure 1 Keto-enol tautomerization has some interesting consequences. For example, if a ketone is treated with acid or base in a solvent of D2O (heavy water), all of the hydrogens will be exchanged for deuterium. This reaction is shown in Figure 2.
O D2O, DOH3C CH3 D3C CD3 O
181. Which of the following ketones will have the most acidic -hydrogen: A.
O
C.
O
H3C B.
O
CH3
H2NH2C D.
O
CH3
Cl3C Figure 2 Another consequence of keto-enol tautomerization is the racemization of chiral -carbons. In the enol form, the -carbon adopts a planar configuration and is no longer chiral. Tautomerization back to the ketone produces a racemic mixture of products. This is shown in Figure 3.
O C2H5 O C2H5 H3C H
EtO-, EtOH
CH3
Cl3C
CCl3
182. The two products formed by the racemization reaction in Figure 3 could best be described as: A. B. C. D. enantiomers diastereomers conjugate acid and base same compound
H H3C
S C O
CH3
R C
CH3
C2H5 H3C H
R C
CH3
Figure 3 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 65
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183. The aldol condensation proceeds through formation of an enolate anion. This is followed by nucleophilic attack by the enolate ion on the carbonyl carbon of the original aldehyde. Which of the following reactants would lead to the product indicated below?
O
184. All of the following reactions will lead to formation of an aldehyde EXCEPT: A. O
H2, Pd-BaSO4
Cl
aldol condensation aldehyde HO product H
Quinoline
B. OH PCC H C. OH
A. O D. Cl B. O
KMnO4
1. Dicyclohexylborane R C CH 2. H2O2
H C. O
185. Which of the following best represents the enolate ion intermediate of the racemization reaction shown in Figure 3? A. C2H5 H + + O CH3 C. C2H5 H3C D. O C2H5 H3C H C CH2 O C2H5 C H2C CH3 O CH3
D. O
H3C B.
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Passage VIII (Questions 186191) Artificial kidneys have been used for almost 50 years to treat patients with different forms of renal failure. The artificial kidney (dialysis machine) removes unwanted substances from the blood by diffusion. A patients blood is passed through channels bounded by a porous, semi-permeable membrane that allows the free diffusion in both directions of all plasma constituents except the plasma proteins. Erythrocytes and other cellular components of blood cannot pass through the membrane. The other side of the membrane is exposed to the dialyzing fluid which carries away the unwanted materials. If the concentration of a material in the blood is greater than in the dialyzing fluid, there will be a net flow of the material from the plasma to the dialyzing fluid. If the concentration of a material in the blood is less than in the dialyzing fluid, there will be a net flow of the material from the dialyzing fluid into the blood. The composition of normal plasma, plasma in an individual suffering renal failure, and dialyzing fluid are shown in Table 1. Constituent Normal Plasma (mEq/L) Na+ K+ Cl HCO3 Urate 142 5 107 27 0.3 Plasma w/ renal failure (mEq/L) 142 7 107 14 2 Plasma renal failure (mg/dl) 100 200 6 Table 1 Dialysis replaces some functions of the kidneys and attempts to correct the effects of renal failure. For example, patients with renal failure develop acidosis due to a buildup of metabolically produced acids in the circulation. Without dialysis, the pH of the blood will drop and coma may occur. Dialyzing fluid contains a relatively high concentration of bicarbonate which diffuses into the circulation and neutralizes the acid. w/ Dialyzing Fluid (mEq/L) 133 1.0 105 35.7 0 Dialyzing Fluid (mg/dl) 125 0 0
186. In order to prevent the net movement of water between the blood and the dialyzing fluid, the dialyzing fluid: A. B. C. D. is hypoosmotic to blood. is isoosmotic to blood. contains a higher concentration of solutes than blood. contains hydrophilic proteins.
187. Which of the following provides the best explanation for the urea plasma concentration in individuals with renal failure? A. B. C. D. Urea filtration decreases Urea absorption decreases Urea filtration increases Urea secretion increases
188. The semi-permeable membrane of the dialysis machine functions in a manner most analogous to which part of the kidney? A. B. C. D. Glomerulus Ureter Descending loop of Henle endothelium Vasa recta
Constituent Normal Plasma (mg/dl) 100 26 1
Glucose Urea Creatinine
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189. A patient with renal failure has nephrons which lack the ability to actively secrete or reabsorb any substances. Which of the following actions will the patients kidney still be able to perform? A. B. C. D. Removal of salt from the blood Production of hypertonic urine Production of hypotonic urine Conservation of amino acids
191. Healthy kidneys secrete the hormone renin in response to decreased arterial pressure. Renin secretion leads to aldosterone secretion by the adrenal cortex. The body would most likely respond to ingestion of a large volume of isotonic solution by: A. B. C. decreasing renin secretion and sodium and water reabsorption. decreasing renin secretion and sodium and water reabsorption. increasing renin secretion and sodium and water reabsorption. increasing renin secretion and sodium and water reabsorption. increasing decreasing increasing decreasing
190. All of the following are removed from the plasma by dialysis EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. Na+ K+ Urea Glucose
D.
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192. Concentrated nitric acid is capable of autoionization according to: 2 HNO3 H2NO3+ H2NO3+ + NO3H2O + NO2+
193. Which of the following reactants should be used to form the product shown below? O ? H3C Cl H3C O O
One piece of experimental evidence for this phenomenon is that certain activated aromatic compounds have been found to undergo nitration in concentrated nitric acid without the assistance of a catalyst. Which of the following compounds is most likely to undergo such an unassisted nitration? A. CN
A. B. C. D.
Sodium ethanoate 1-propanol Ammonia and ethane Dimethyl ether
194. Oversecretion of gastric HCl can be treated by severing the vagus nerve in a procedure called a vagotomy which reduces parasympathetic activity. Which of the following effects is LEAST likely to be caused by a vagotomy? A. B. C. D. Decreased heart rate Decreased gastric motility Decreased HCl production Increased blood pressure
F B. O
Cl C.
Cl
195. Tetrodotoxin, the extremely potent poison produced by the puffer (fugu) fish, binds tightly to Na+ channels and blocks the flow of Na+ ions but does not affect K+ or Cl channels. Tetrodotoxin directly blocks which phase of action potential propagation? A. B. C. D. Depolarization Repolarization Hyperpolarization Saltatory conduction
N Cl D. OCH3
196. Female athletes may fail to menstruate (amenorrhea) because extremely low body fat reduces the release of GnRH from the hypothalamus, affecting the secretion of LH and FSH. Which of the following is most likely to be absent in a female long-distance runner? A. B. C. D. Ovary Anterior pituitary Corpus luteum Hypothalamus
OCH3
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Passage IX (Questions 197201) Sugars are carbohydrates, that is, molecules usually with the empirical formula C(H2O), and structural formulas made up of polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones. Because of their polyfunctional nature, sugars can undergo a wide variety of transformations upon treatment with acids, bases, or heat, and upon reaction with other simple reagents and enzymes. While many sugars occur in nature and are thus readily available, the synthesis and modification of simple sugars is a necessary step in studies of enzymatic processes. Higher sugars can be synthesized from the simple carbohydrate D-glyceraldehyde with the following procedure: D-glyceraldehyde (Compound A) is reacted with HCN to produce a cyanohydrin (Compound B). Compound B is then treated with hydrogen gas and a modified palladium catalyst (similar to the Lindlar reagent) to give Compound C. Compound C is hydrolyzed to give the higher sugars in Mixture D. This reaction is summarized in Figure 1. Mixture D contains two compounds, which can be separated by crystallization. Two doublets near 9.5 (, ppm) are observed in the 1H NMR spectrum of mixture D, with each doublet corresponding to one of the two products present in the mixture. IR spectroscopy shows broad absorptions for both products around 3300 cm1. HC H O OH CH2OH
D-glyceraldehyde (Compound A) HCN cyanohydrin (Compound B)
The hydroxyl groups of carbohydrates can also participate in reactions. For example, D-glyceraldehyde can react with chloromethane under basic conditions to yield a completely methylated product. This SN2 reaction is shown in Figure 2.
HC H O 2 CH3Cl, NaOH OH CH2OH
D-glyceraldehyde
HC H
O OCH3
CH2OCH3 Compound E
Figure 2 Methylation of D-glyceraldehyde 197. The reaction shown in Figure 2 most likely proceeds via the formation of a(n): A. B. C. D. water leaving group. nucleophilic alkoxide ion. carbocation intermediate. tetrahedral intermediate.
198. The modified palladium catalyst is used instead of platinum to: A. B. C. D. avoid reduction of the cyanohydrin to the amine. make the reaction energetically favorable. act as a Lewis acid. reduce the likelihood of attack at the carbonyl carbon.
H2, Pd-BaSO4, H+, H2O, 4atm
199. The two sugars in Mixture D are: HC CHOH H OH CH2OH

Compound C H2O
NH
A. B. C. D.
enantiomers. anomers. epimers. disaccharides.
higher sugar (Mixture D)
Figure 1 Synthesis of higher sugar GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 70
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200. What are the missing compounds, respectively, in the following reaction? H2NNH2 Compound E ? NaOH ?
201. In glucose, the carbonyl carbon can be attacked, intramolecularly, by the hydroxyl oxygen of carbon5 to form: A. B. C. D. glucofuranose. a hemiacetal. a lactone. a glycoside.
A. HC H O ONH2 CH2ONH2 B. HC H NNH2 OCH3 CH2OCH3 C. OH H H NH2 OCH3 CH2OCH3 D. HC H NNH2 OCH3 CH2OCH3 , H CH3 OCH3 CH2OCH3 , H H ONH2 OCH3 CH2OCH3 H , HC NNH2 OCH2OH , HC O ONH2 CH2ONH2
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Passage X (Questions 202208) Before birth, the rodent brain is sexually undifferentiated. It is only in the first few days following birth, during a period referred to as the critical period, that the rodent brain differentiates along male or female lines. The hormone testosterone plays a critical role in this development. Specifically, sexual differentiation is determined by the presence of estradiol, an estrogen derivative of testosterone, in certain areas of the brain. Testosterone is converted to estradiol in critical brain cells that contain the enzyme aromatase. To study the effects of testosterone on the neonatal rodent brain, the following experiments were conducted:
Expt. wait 2-3 months 1 neonatal male neonatal male castrated at birth neonatal male castrated at birth neonatal female castrated at birth wait 2-3 months inject testosterone at birth inject testosterone at birth transplant ovaries transplant ovaries
202. A mutant male neonatal rodent with a defective aromatase enzyme is injected with large doses of testosterone during the critical period. Which of the following would occur? A. B. C. D. Induction of male sex behavior Development of female sex behavior Loss of both cyclicity and female sex behavior Loss of both cyclicity and female sex behavior and induction of male sex behavior
203. The conversion of testosterone to estradiol is what type of reaction?

OH CH3
acyclic and shows male sex behavior cycles and shows female sex behavior
CH3 testosterone O
transplant ovaries
acyclic and shows male sex behavior
transplant ovaries
OH CH3
inject large dosage of estradiol female neonate in critical period
estradiol HO
Figure 1 The above research, combined with additional studies, concluded that testosterone has two organizational effects on the male rodent brain: Defeminization Moderate levels of testosterone-derived estradiol during the critical period are sufficient for defeminization of the brain. Defeminization of the rodent brain results in loss of estrogen positive feedback on LH and FSH secretion and the ensuing loss of cyclicity, as well as loss of female sex behavior. Masculinization High levels of estradiol due to high levels of testosterone during the critical period results in masculinization of the brain. Masculinization leads to the induction of male sex behavior including antagonism towards other males and the mounting of females.
A. B. C. D.
Reduction Aromatization Electrophilic aromatic substitution Methylation
204. A researcher proposes that very low doses of estradiol are required for induction of female sex behavior and cyclicity in the rodent brain. Which of the following observations would best support this hypothesis? A. Female neonates injected with the anti-estrogen tamoxifen are acyclic and show neither male nor female sex behavior. Female neonates lacking the aromatase enzyme develop normally. Female neonates injected with large doses of estradiol are acyclic and show male sex behavior. Male neonates injected with low dosages of estradiol develop normally. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 72
B. C.
D.
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205. In Experiment 2, researchers most likely waited 2-3 months before implanting ovaries: A. B. C. D. to allow the rat to recover from previous surgery. to allow testosterone levels to rise to necessary concentrations. to wait for the critical period to pass. to promote the defeminization of the rat brain.
207. Steroid hormones bind to receptors in the nucleus and directly regulate: A. B. C. D. the transcription of mRNA. the translation of protein. the production of cAMP. the replication of DNA.
208. A normal female rat injected with estradiol will respond by: 206. An adult male rat that is acyclic is observed to mount females. However, the rat also allows itself to be mounted by male rats. According to the passage, the most likely explanation for these observations is that: A. B. C. D. the rat is hermaphroditic, with both male and female sex organs. the rat has been demasculinized. the rat has been masculinized but not fully defeminized. the rat has been defeminized but not fully masculinized. A. B. C. D. decreasing secretion of LH from the anterior pituitary. increasing secretion of LH from the anterior pituitary. decreasing secretion of GnRH from the hypothalamus. increasing secretion of progesterone from the follicle.
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209. Maternal lineage can be traced by sequencing the mitochondrial DNA because the mitochondrial genome is derived primarily from the mother. The best explanation for this phenomenon is that: A. sperm have no mitochondria and thus cannot contribute to the mitochondrial genome of the offspring. the zygote divides rapidly, diffusing the paternal mitochondria amongst many cells. following penetration, the sperm derived mitochondria disintegrate within the egg. all the genes coding for mitochondria are located on the X chromosome.
212. At its isoelectric point, an amino acid in an electric field will migrate towards the: A. B. C. D. anode. cathode. basic region. it will not migrate.
213. Which of the following species will form the most stable radical? A. C.
B. C. D.
B.
D.
210. The endosymbiosis theory proposes that mitochondria originated through the engulfing of aerobic prokaryotes by anaerobic host prokaryotes. Many of the enzymes required for aerobic respiration are located on the inner membrane of the mitochondria. Where would these enzymes, or their precursors, most likely have been found three billion years ago (prior to endosymbiosis)? A. B. C. D. In the cytoplasm of the anaerobic prokaryotic host cells On the plasma membrane of the anaerobic prokaryotic host cells On the plasma membrane of the aerobic prokaryotic engulfed cells In the cytoplasm of the prokaryotic aerobic cells
214. A hydropathy plot indicates the hydrophilicity (negative values) and hydrophobicity (positive values) of different regions of a protein. According to the hydropathy plot below, how many cellular membrane spanning regions are possible in this protein? +40 hydropathy index +20 0 -20 -40
211. A mountain climber living at sea level ascends to a very high altitude during the course of a day long climb. By the end of the day, all of the following acclimatizations will occur EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. increased tidal volume. increased respiration rate. right shift of the hemoglobin dissociation curve. increased concentration of erythropoietin in the blood. A. B. C. D. 1 2 3 4
20
40 60 80 amino acid residues
100
STOP. IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK. YOU MAY GO BACK TO ANY QUESTION IN THIS SECTION ONLY.
74
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03 MCAT FL Test3

DO NOT BEGIN THIS SECTION UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

PERIODIC TABLE OF THE ELEMENTS

2 He 4.0 10 Ne 20.2 18 Ar 39.9 36 K r 83.8 54 Xe 131.3 86 Rn (222)

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 2

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11. All of the following are resonance structures of N3 EXCEPT: A. N B. N + N N + N 2N C. 2N D. + N + N N + N

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 6

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Questions 23 through 27 are NOT based on a descriptive passage.

27. Which of the following solutions has the lowest molarity?

2N H3PO4 2N HCl 1M H3PO4 2N H2CO3

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 9

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< 1 Atm 160C

Proposed Structure of Polywater

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Questions 50 through 54 are NOT based on a descriptive passage.

A Energy B C D Reaction Coordinate A. B. C. D. A B C D A. B. C. D.

20 N, 120 20 N, 165 10 N, 120 10 N, 165

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12 11 10 9 8 7 pH 6 5 4 3 2 1 0 0 250 500 750 1000 0.01 M NaOH (mL) A C D

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Questions 73 through 77 are NOT based on a descriptive passage.

45 490 J 490 3 J 490 2 J 490 J 2

V A. B. C. D. Decrease to 1/2 No change Double Increase by factor of 10

DO NOT BEGIN THIS SECTION UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

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Passage IV (Questions 98104)

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Passage VIII (Questions 125131)

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 41

Passage IX (Questions 132137)

DO NOT BEGIN THIS SECTION UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

DO NOT BEGIN THIS SECTION UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

PERIODIC TABLE OF THE ELEMENTS

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 50

139. Acetabularia is a(n): A. B. C. D. virus. prokaryote. eukaryote. bacterium.

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NH(CH2)6NH C(CH2)4 C nylon 66 O O

NH(CH2)6NH C(CH2)8 C nylon 610 O O

triarylmethyl cation (malachite green)

A. N B. N C. H3CO N NO2 D. H3CO N N NO2 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 56 N N NO2 N OCH2

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 57