SAT PRACTICE EXAM #1

v1.2 2010-2012

Form Code APOS110

Test Serial #: 100103

No reproduction of any portion of this work, mechanical or electronic, is allowed without the express written permission of Apollo Prep. Inc. All rights reserved.

Time 25 Minutes
Turn to page 2 of your answer sheet to write your ESSAY.

The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively you can develop and express ideas. You should, therefore, take care to develop your point of view, present your ideas logically and clearly, and use language precisely. Your essay must be written on the lines provided on your answer sheetyou will receive no other paper on which to write. You will have enough space if you write on every line, avoid wide margins, and keep your handwriting to a reasonable size. Remember that people who are not familiar with your handwriting will read what you write. Try to write or print so that what you are writing is legible to those readers. Important Reminders: A pencil is required for the essay. An essay written in ink will receive a score of zero. Do not write your essay in your test book. You will receive credit only for what you write on your answer sheet. An off-topic essay will receive a score of zero. You have twenty-five minutes to write an essay on the topic assigned below.

Think carefully about the issue presented in the following excerpt and the assignment below.

Sometimes it's necessary to go a long distance out of the way in order to come back a short distance correctly. Edward Albee

Assignment: In order to achieve success, is it necessary to experience failure first? Plan and write an essay in which you develop your point of view on this issue. Support your position with reasoning and examples taken from your reading, studies, experience, or observations.

Time 25 Minutes 20 Questions

Turn to Section 2 (page 4) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

1. If x = 1, which of the following has the greatest value? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) x1 x+1 1x 1+x x2

2. Last month Jake read twice as many books as Tyler did, and Tyler read one-third of the number of books that Zoe read. If Jake read 60 books last month, how many books did Zoe read last month? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 10 20 40 90 360

x, x, x, 5x, 7x, 9x 3. If the median of the list above is 60, what is the value of x? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 12 15 20 24 60

Photography seminar Jones Williams Fernandez Ma Orozco Chang Tran Thomas

Layout seminar Williams Ma Orozco Thomas Jacobsson Steinberg ONeill Sanchez Thornton

At any point on the graph, the y-coordinate is larger than the x-coordinate. 4. Which of the following graphs has the property described above?

5. On a high schools yearbook staff, the students listed above signed up for one or both of two seminars. If 5 members of the staff signed up for neither seminar, how many members are on the entire staff? (No two students on the staff have the same last name.) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 8 12 13 18 22

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

6. In the figure above, ABCD is a square. What is the value of k? (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 1 1 3 5 7

7. If 6(x2 3) = 2(y + 2) = 18, then what is the value of (x2 3)(y + 2)? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 27 36 45 54 63

10. In the figure above, what is the value of x? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 18 24 30 36 45

8. In the figure above, the radii of circles A, B, and C are 2, 3, and 4 units, respectively. Points M, A, B, C, and N lie on a straight line. If the circles are tangent to each other and to the rectangle as shown, what is the area of the rectangle? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 36 54 72 108 144

11. When the integer k is divided by 4, the remainder is 3. What is the remainder when 3k is divided by 4? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 0 1 2 3 4

9. In the figure above, the tick marks are equally spaced on the number line and have integer coordinates. Which of the following could not be the value of y? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 7 10 12 25 34

12. At 3:00 P.M., Bobby left school on his bike, taking a linear route home. When he was halfway home, he realized that he had forgotten his keys, and so returned to school along the same route to get them. He then went home along the same linear route. If Bobby got home at 4:00 P.M. and did not stop anywhere besides home and school, which of the following graphs shows Bobbys distance from school, as a function of time, between 3:00 P.M. and 4:00 P.M.?

14. If

x "3
15 16 17 18 19

)(

x + 3 = 10 , what is the value of x?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

15. If a > 45, which of the following could be the slope of the line shown in the diagram? (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) "

1 1 (D) 2 2

(E) 2

(E)

16. If x y + z = x + y + z, which of the following must equal x + y? 13. The first term in a sequence of numbers is 1. Each subsequent term of the sequence is found by taking the reciprocal of the previous term and adding 1. What is the fifth term of the sequence? (A) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 2x x 0 x 2x

8 5

(B)

13 5 (C) 8 8

(D)

8 5 (E) 13 13

17. In the figure above, what is the value of k? (A) 3 " 3 (approximately 1.27) (B) 3 " 2 (approximately 1.59) (C) 2 (D) 3" (E) 3"

19. In the figure above, an equilateral triangle is inscribed in a circle of radius 2. What is the area of the triangle? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 3 2 3 (approximately 3.46) 3 3 (approximately 5.20) 4 3 (approximately 6.93) 6

! !

2 (approximately 2.29) 2 3 (approximately 2.39) 3

! ! !

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20. In one serving of a certain food, fat accounts for 200 calories. If N% of the calories in this food come from fat, how many total calories are in one serving of the food? (A) (B) 18. The values in the table above could correspond to which of the following functions? I. y = axb, where a and b are constants II. y = cdx, where c and d are constants III. y = mx + n, where m and n are constants (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) II only I and II only I and III only II and III only I, II, and III

! ! ! ! !

(C) (D) (E)

20,000 N 200 N 20,000 100 + N 200 100 + N 200 +100N

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Time 25 Minutes 24 Questions

Turn to Section 3 (page 4) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.

Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A through E. Choose the word or set of words that, when inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. Example: Tara is an extremely ------ shopper; even if she browses through hundreds or thousands of items, she will rarely be ------ purchasing more than one or two of them. (A) enthusiastic given to (B) promiscuous intent on (C) picky disappointed (D) savvy apathetic about (E) selective interested in

3. Surprisingly, having many options often creates ------: people who choose from extremely varied possibilities are generally less satisfied with their choices than are those whose options are more ------. (A) perplexity ... specialized (B) satisfaction sparse (C) contempt diversified (D) preoccupation uniform (E) discontent ... scarce 4. The executive had a habit of testing his new employees ------; he would often place them in situations in which they could benefit from dishonesty, to see whether they could resist the temptation. (A) volatility (B) enlightenment (C) comportment (D) probity (E) cordiality 5. Many of the physicians who discovered medical principles now accepted as ------, such as the circulation of blood, were originally denounced as ------: they were accused of fraud or deception. (A) hypothetical idealists (B) apocryphal quacks (C) predominant visionaries (D) canonical charlatans (E) specious impostors

1. The somber tones that pervade the artists works reflect his ------ disposition. (A) melancholy (B) resilient (C) daring (D) courteous (E) casual 2. When treating an injured body part, holistic practitioners do not regard other body parts as -----; rather, they regard the entire body as essential to the proper treatment of the injury. (A) relevant (B) vital (C) hazardous (D) benign (E) peripheral

Questions 6-7 are based on the following passage.

At ten o'clock every Friday and Saturday evening closing time our familys sleepy little Argentine restaurant in Miami would begin to stir. It drifted awake as we whisked the tables off to the sides of the 5 dining room; it waxed energetic as we flipped the chairs into stacks on the tabletops. By ten-thirty the old building was fully alive, belting out tango songs through its rusty old speakers, exhorting passersby to spend the night dancing away lifes troubles. 10 For my parents, the music was a weekly ticket back across the equator and back in time. As they danced, they became young again, their faces filled with the vigor of newfound love, as though their yellowed wedding portraits had come back to life. 6. The rhetorical device primarily featured in the first paragraph of this passage is (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) metaphor irony personification allusion understatement

Questions 8-9 are based on the following passage.

By now, vanishingly few serious biologists would argue against the theory of evolutionary physiology the notion that an animals anatomy and bodily functions have been extensively shaped by its 5 ancestral environment. From the same general idea, though, has emerged a new and controversial field of thought evolutionary psychology, which posits that human emotions and thought processes can be similarly explained. 10 Researchers in this new field should, as the saying goes, be careful what they wish for: in their field, new discoveries may poison more than they illuminate. This isn't a problem for the physiologists; after all, no age-old aura of mystery was dispelled when we 15 figured out the history of sugar metabolism. But, can the same be said of the thrill of victory, the agony of defeat, the ecstasy of love? Would reducing these to chemical reactions and evolutionary histories be a step forward? Or would it actually be a catastrophic loss? 8. The general idea mentioned in line ___ is best summarized by which of the following statements? (A) All human emotions and thought processes come from fundamentally similar origins. (B) An organisms history can help to explain current facts about it. (C) Animals have not changed appreciably since they inhabited their ancestral environments. (D) An animal's ancestral environment is the only important determinant of its traits. (E) Animals from the same ancestral environment will have similar traits. 9. The author writes that the discovery of evolutionary explanations for human emotions could potentially be a catastrophic loss (line ___) because it would (A) obscure the current scientific understanding of those emotions (B) cause people to feel emotions less strongly (C) remove the air of mystery surrounding those emotions (D) create the perception that humans are no different from other animals (E) reduce the role of emotion in human decisionmaking

7. Which of the following words in the second paragraph is not used in a figurative sense? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) ticket (line 10) across the equator (line 11) back in time (line 11) became young (line 12) yellowed (line 13)

Questions 10-15 are based on the following passage.

Are viruses alive? Many contentious questions of science elicit strongly worded, and even more strongly felt, answers -- answers often put forth with zeal and certitude in inverse relation to the firmness of the definition upon which the question rests. What is the chance that intelligent life exists on other planets? Is adult sexuality controlled by genes, or by early childhood experience? Are viruses alive? Certainly these are stimulating topics for the dinner table, bearing all the outer markings of a healthy debate; from a closer vantage point, though, it can be seen that the two sides of the "debate" are not truly in opposition. Round and round the arguments go, with increasing fury, but on completely different planes -- horizontal planes, as it were, separated by the vertical coordinate of definition. The more passionate the debate (and the debaters themselves), the more essential -- but the less likely -becomes the clear elucidation of exactly what constitutes "intelligence," "sexuality," or "life." Not infrequently, opponents in such disputes actually agree on every single point of substantive fact, but fail to recognize the chasm between their respective definitions of key terms -- a gulf that is so wide as to be mistaken, even by estimable professionals, for genuine factual disagreement. On the opening question, the current consensus -however tenuous -- is that viruses do not deserve to be regarded as "alive" because they lack at least some of the conditions currently in vogue as requirements for "life," such as unassisted reproduction and metabolism. To focus the lens on whether viruses are "alive," however, inevitably blurs our perception of the much greater issue in the background: How do viruses interact with, and influence, the living world? Thus far, the classification of viruses as "not alive" -- the answer to a wrongheaded question based on essentially arbitrary definitions -- has led to a dearth of research on the role played by viruses in evolution. That role, much to the surprise and chagrin of many scientists, has turned out to be much more pervasive than had been previously thought.

10. The author's perspective on the questions Are viruses alive? (line 1) and How do world? (lines 34-35) is most accurately reflected by which of the following statements? (A) The second is a further inquiry raised by the currently accepted answer to the first. (B) The second is narrower in scope than the first, but it can be answered while the first cannot. (C) They are essentially the same question, but are phrased in order to elicit different answers. (D) The first has mostly been considered in casual discussion, while the second has mostly been considered in the course of serious scientific inquiry. (E) The second has greater importance, but is unfortunately obscured by the first. 11. By describing the two questions in lines 6-9 as stimulating topics for the dinner table, the author implies that these questions (A) do not merit serious scientific inquiry (B) can be meaningfully addressed without specialized knowledge (C) are well suited to superficial argument (D) have answers that may be influenced by one's family background (E) are likely to create disagreements among individuals with otherwise similar perspectives 12. The author implies that clear elucidation of the definitions discussed in lines 19-20 (A) is most likely to come from individuals who are particularly passionate about the subjects in question (B) cannot be achieved in the same way as for other scientific definitions (C) results from debate between individuals who agree on most relevant points of fact (D) is often the only point on which the parties agree in certain heated debates (E) would be sufficient to settle certain disagreements about the topics thus defined

10

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13. The authors discussion of the requirements for labeling something as alive (lines 29-31) implies that (A) those requirements could be changed at any time (B) an entity capable of unassisted reproduction and metabolism should be considered alive (C) one must specify those requirements before considering how an entity interacts with other organisms (D) further research is needed before those requirements can be permanently defined (E) none of those requirements characterize viruses

15. In lines 35-39, the author implies that recent evolutionary research has (A) ignored central issues in favor of more marginal ones (B) produced results that scientists view as worrisome (C) been directed at arbitrarily chosen subjects (D) focused disproportionately on entities labeled as alive (E) proceeded independently of how the topics in question are defined

14. The use of quotation marks around terms such as life and alive (lines 20 and 30-31) serves primarily to (A) set off a direct quotation from the surrounding text (B) highlight the importance of these terms in the discussion (C) emphasize the subjective quality of these definitions (D) contrast opposing definitions found in different parts of the passage (E) show that these terms are used in ironic opposition to their literal meanings

Questions 16-24 are based on the following passage. The following passage is taken from a business book intended for a general audience.
In many instances, innovation has resulted not so much from expertise in a particular field as from the transfer of experience and observations from one field to another. Especially in fields in which an established practice is dominant and tightly-knit social networks discourage or prevent the advancement of maverick professionals, only those who have already established a considerable reputation in another field may practicably introduce unorthodox ideas or practices into the mainstream. One such iconoclast is the Frenchman G. Clotaire Rapaille, who revolutionized the advertising industry with insights gleaned from his estimable career in child psychology. Rapaille, known for his research on children's learning of new words and concepts, hypothesized that adult consumers' brains would apprehend brands and products in a similar manner. Children, Rapaille had observed, invariably learn not only semantically** but emotionally. The literal meanings of words, or the sensory impressions of objects, are inextricable from the tenor -- what Rapaille called the "code" -- of the context in which those words or objects are introduced. In fact, Rapaille realized, these attendant emotions are central to learning and retention: without emotion, the neurotransmitters required for the production of new mental connections are not produced. Furthermore, the locus of emotions is the hindbrain -- the most primitive part of the brain, responsible for basic and universal concerns such as survival and reproduction -- while semantic associations reside uniquely in the human cerebral cortex, whose functioning is subordinate to that of the hindbrain. Therefore, Rapaille reasoned, any conflict between literal meanings or sensations and their emotional "code" would invariably be won by the latter; in any conflict between the conscious and unconscious minds, the latter would inevitably win. Upon entering the advertising industry, Rapaille flouted the prevailing convention of using consumer surveys in developing advertising campaigns. Indeed, he went so far as to ignore consumers' conscious input altogether, instead relying on cultural immersion -extensive personal observation of everyday social behavior -- to ascertain the "codes" associated with products by different cultures. Rapaille's findings, and thus the resultant marketing campaigns, often marginalized or even contravened priorities and values that consumers had explicitly declared. Rapaille's methods were wildly successful, and he was soon employed by prominent corporations - first in rebranding their products, and eventually in introducing those products to foreign cultures. Among

55

60

65

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15

Rapailles most notable successes was his orchestration of the Nestl corporation's effort to introduce coffee into Japan, a nation in which previous attempts to market coffee as an alternative to tea -- which is a staple at almost every Japanese meal - had been ineffectual. Rapaille's explanation for these fiascoes was remarkably simple: the very concept of coffee as an alternative to tea was a Western "code", irredeemably at odds with Japanese custom. Still, Rapaille saw opportunity: since no archetype whatsoever existed for coffee in Japanese culture, Nestl could create such a "code" with effective advertising. He proceeded with a formidable study of every conceivable aspect of Japanese social behavior involving food and beverages, eventually concluding that the only way to introduce coffee into the culture was to "imprint" it into younger generations. Thus Nestl first introduced not coffee itself but a coffee-flavored dessert for children, and, sure enough, within a couple of decades -- once those children had matured into adult consumers with purchasing power -- Japan had developed a substantial market for coffee. **Semantics refers to the meanings of words. Semantic associations are the thoughts, ideas, and feelings evoked by the meanings of words.

20

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16. In transferring his knowledge and experience of child psychology to the domain of product marketing, as mentioned in lines 11-13, Rapaille assumed a fundamental similarity between (A) the human brains handling of emotions and its handling of literal and semantic information (B) the functioning of the cerebral cortex and the functioning of the hindbrain (C) the social networks in the advertising industry and those in the academic field of child psychology (D) adults and childrens perceptions of corporations and product brands. (E) the ways in which adults' and children's learning is influenced by emotion

30

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17. The statement that "without ... produced" (lines 2426) suggests that (A) emotional involvement is a necessary part of the learning process (B) children's learning includes an essential component that is unnecessary in adult learning (C) emotional connections are necessarily created by the learning process (D) emotions and literal word meanings are realized in the same region of the brain (E) neurotransmitters are responsible for the production of emotions 18. As used in line 27, "primitive" most nearly means (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) savage unsophisticated makeshift ancestral fundamental

21. The statement in lines 45-47 about Rapaille's findings ("often ... declared") implies that (A) marketers are sometimes unconcerned with consumers' concerns and values (B) consumers are sometimes unaware of or dishonest about their actual everyday behavior (C) consumers' explicitly declared priorities and values are sometimes self-contradictory (D) Rapaille often ignored the observations from his cultural immersion in designing marketing campaigns (E) Rapaille used consumer surveys in new and innovative ways 22. Which of the following statements about Rapaille's task of "rebranding products" (line 50) is supported by the passage? (A) He was extremely and immediately successful in rebranding products. (B) His rebranding campaigns often marginalized the priorities previously held by the corporations that employed him. (C) His rebranding efforts were based on the results of both consumer surveys and direct behavioral observation. (D) He was first hired to rebrand products marketed to cultures that were already familiar with those products. (E) The branding strategies that he developed were influenced by foreign cultures.

19. The statement that the functioning of the cerebral cortex is "subordinate to that of the hindbrain" (lines 31-32) is intended as (A) proof that emotions play a key role in survival and reproduction (B) evidence that semantic associations are unimportant in the learning process (C) a basis for constructive criticism of Rapaille's theory (D) justification for the conclusion in the following sentence (E) a demonstration of the difference between children's and adults' learning 20. Which of the following quotes best explains why Rapaille "went so far as to ignore consumers' conscious input altogether" (lines 40-41)? (A) Rapailles methods were wildly successful (line 48) (B) semantic associations reside uniquely in the human cerebral cortex (lines 30-31) (C) "in any conflict between the conscious and unconscious minds, the latter would inevitably win" (lines 35-36) (D) he was soon employed by prominent corporations -- first in rebranding their products (lines 49-50) (E) emotions are central to learning and retention (line 23-24)

23. The description of the Nestle corporation's "ineffectual" initial attempts to introduce coffee into Japan (lines 55-57) suggest which of the following about introducing new products into a culture? (A) Attempts to get people in Eastern countries to make the same emotional associations as people in Western countries are likely to be unsuccessful. (B) Attempts to introduce a new product as a substitute for a product that is centrally important in that culture are likely to fail. (C) Products that are staples or that are used extremely frequently in one country will be more difficult to introduce into other countries than will products that are used less often. (D) Research based on consumer surveys is insufficient to ensure the success of the products in those new cultures. (E) The new culture will be more resistant to products introduced by large corporations than to products introduced by trusted individuals

24. As used in line 64, "formidable" most nearly means (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) intimidating sinister proficient intensive formal

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Time 25 Minutes 35 Questions

Turn to Section 5 (page 5) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.

The following sentences test correctness and effectiveness of expression. Part of each sentence or the entire sentence is underlined; beneath each sentence are five ways of phrasing the underlined material. Choice A repeats the original phrasing; the other four choices are different. If you think the original phrasing produces a better sentence than any of the alternatives, select choice A. If not, select one of the other choices. In making your selection, follow the requirements of standard written English: that is, pay attention to grammar, word choice, sentence construction, and punctuation. Your selection should result in the most effective sentenceclear and precise, without awkwardness or ambiguity. Example: The battery powered Dans radio for much longer than expected, and that lasted over three months. (A) and that lasted over three months (B) when it lasted over three months (C) more than three months was how long it lasted (D) upon having lasted over three months (E) lasting over three months

2. Geologists believe in the earths continents once being united as a single large landmass, to which they have given the name Pangaea. (A) in the earths continents once being united (B) that the earths continents were once united (C) in the continents of the earth that were once united (D) in the earths continents, once united (E) that the earths continents are once united

3. Not found on Interstate highways, many state and federal highways have intersections controlled by traffic lights and stop signs. (A) Not found on (B) Contrasting to (C) Unlike (D) They are not found on (E) Unlike the intersections on 4. Gary Locke, the first Chinese-American that they elected governor of a U.S. state, spent his childhood in Seattles Yesler Terrace housing project. (A) that they elected (B) that was elected to be (C) elected when he became (D) being elected (E) to be elected

1. Builders on the island, which is hit by at least one major hurricane every year since 1978, have invented creative techniques for reinforcing structures against gale-force winds. (A) is (B) was (C) is being (D) has (E) has been

5. Many stores have replaced their security patrols with closed-circuit cameras that have unintentionally created for thieves the opportunity to steal items while they are in areas outside of or shielded from the cameras field of view. (A) cameras that have unintentionally created for thieves the opportunity to steal items while they are in areas outside of or shielded from the cameras (B) cameras, to unintentionally create the opportunity for thieves to steal items from areas outside of or shielded from their (C) cameras, which have unintentionally created for thieves the opportunity to steal items from areas that are outside of or shielded from their (D) cameras, unintentionally creating the opportunity for thieves to steal items from areas outside of or shielded from the cameras (E) cameras, unintentionally creating thieves opportunity to steal items while they are in areas outside of or shielded from their 6. Seventeenth-century alehouses usually kept several puzzle jugs, they were glasses that had hollow handles and hidden channels that carried fluid in unexpected directions. (A) they were glasses that had (B) these were glasses which had (C) glasses had (D) glasses with (E) glasses were made with

7. Tracing the history of the Filipino martial art of eskrima is confusing and difficult in that the origin of eskrima is surrounded by myths and legends; however, many different fighting systems are called eskrima. (A) difficult in that the origin of eskrima is surrounded by myths and legends; however, (B) difficult, not only because the origin of eskrima is surrounded by myths and legends but also because (C) difficult, and the origin of eskrima is surrounded by myths and legends because (D) difficult since the origin of eskrima has been surrounded by myths and legends, because (E) difficult, seeing as the origin of eskrima is surrounded by myths and legends, also 8. One of the worlds largest language families, over 1200 different languages belong to the Austronesian language family and are spoken from Madagascar to Easter Island. (A) over 1200 different languages belong to the Austronesian language family and are spoken from Madagascar to Easter Island (B) the languages of the Austronesian language family, spoken from Madagascar to Easter Island, are over 1200 in number (C) the Austronesian language family, which includes over 1200 languages that are spoken from Madagascar to Easter Island (D) the Austronesian language family includes over 1200 languages, which are spoken from Madagascar to Easter Island (E) spoken from Madagascar to Easter Island, the Austronesian language family includes over 1200 languages

9. Many bottom-dwelling ocean fish, such as the scorpionfish, can easily be mistaken by inexperienced divers for parts of the ocean floor itself. (A) for (B) that they are (C) as (D) with (E) as being

11. The most challenging part of the biology exam was the set of three free-response questions at the very beginning. (A) exam was the set of three (B) exam were the three (C) exam, the three (D) exam were the group of three (E) exam, which was the three

10. James found it difficult to secure a loan because he had not lived with a single address for any period of two consecutive years. (A) with (B) on (C) according to (D) at (E) located at

The following sentences test your ability to recognize grammar and usage errors. Each sentence contains either a single error or no error at all. No sentence contains more than one error. The error, if there is one, is underlined and lettered. If the sentence contains an error, select the one underlined part that must be changed to make the sentence correct. If the sentence is correct, select choice E. In choosing answers, follow the requirements of standard written English. Example: It has occasionally been difficult to find home A B decorations that appeal to both my wife and I. C D No error E

15. The ethical issues stemming from the new discovery has not yet been formally A B addressed by the scientists, who are still C researching its objective ramifications. D No error E

16. On our most recent road trip, my nephew A and I saw several breathtaking views of Lake B Superior driving down Minnesotas C D Highway 61. No error E

12. Each camp counselor must either attend A B C a first-aid training session or a previous C D first-aid certification. No error E

13. For her final project, Andrea made several A richly detailed dioramas, each representing B C one of Earths climate zones. No error D E

17. By the time of her first opportunity to travel A to South America, over ten years after her B high-school graduation, Jo has forgotten C nearly all of the Spanish that she had once D known. No error E

14. Many office workers pretend to be busier than they really are, so as not to appear lazily A B C to their bosses. No error D E

18. Neither Randy, a champion weightlifter, or A his brother John, a professional football B player, was able to push the truck out of the C mud where it had become stuck. No error D E

19. Applied statistics, a branch of mathematics in which analytical techniques are applied to A B real-world data, enable scientists to predict C D numerical figures accurately. No error E 20. Although Colombian food is very different A from Finnish food, they use potatoes often B C D in both cuisines. No error E 21. To conserve battery power, the recording A machine enters a power-saving state when idle and reactivates itself B C when speaking words aloud. No error D E 22. Although the domestic cat is famous A for sleeping up to 18 hours a day, they B are often quite active when awake. C D No error E 23. Each football players vertical leap, which A measures explosive power, and 40-yard dash time, which measures acceleration, B is recorded during the tryouts. No error C D E

24. In the year 1960 alone, seventeen different A European colonies, most of them in Africa, B have become independent sovereign nations. C D No error E 25. The fashion designers new summer line A features colors that are brighter, and fabrics B C that are thinner, than any previous season. D No error E 26. Until her death in March 2011, Elizabeth A Taylor had been married eight times, B twice to actor Richard Burton. No error C D E 27. When tropical fish grow larger and more A B mature, it can be sold for higher prices at C D an aquarium store. No error E 28. Many right-handed people find that using A the left hand to eat with a spoon is, surprisingly, more difficult than B to write with that hand. No error C D E 29. The protein in whey can be digested by the A B human body more quickly than that in C D eggs. No error E

Directions: The following passage is an early draft of an essay. Some parts of the passage need to be rewritten. Read the passage and select the best answers for the questions that follow. Some questions are about particular sentences or parts of sentences and ask you to improve sentence structure or word choice. Other questions ask you to consider organization and development. In choosing answers, follow the requirements of standard written English.

30. Of the following, which would most improve the first paragraph (sentences 1-8)? (A) Describing the appearance of a crocodile's snout (B) Describing alligators' and crocodiles' prehistoric ancestors (C) Giving the scientific names of alligators and crocodiles (D) Deleting sentence 4 (E) Placing sentence 5 after sentence 6

Questions 30-35 are based on the following passage. (1) Crocodiles and alligators are distinct species of animals, but few people know how to tell them apart. (2) The easiest way to distinguish between the two is to look at the shape of the snout: Alligators, unlike crocodiles, have a wide, U-shaped snout, which gives them enough crushing power to be able to eat prey such as turtles. (3) Another important physical difference is in the two animals' jaws. (4) An alligator's upper jaw is wider than its lower jaw, so only its upper teeth are exposed along the jawline. (5) In a crocodile, on the other hand, the upper and lower jaws are approximately the same width, so the teeth of both jaws are exposed in an interlocking pattern. (6) Most notably, the enormous fourth tooth on the crocodile's lower jaw is prominently exposed. (7) Alligators have this as well, but their upper jaw covers it. (8) Crocodiles are naturally light brown in color, and, in addition, alligators are more blackish. (9) Both alligators and crocodiles have glands all over their tongues. (10) Crocodiles actively use these glands to excrete excess salt. (11) The glands on alligators' tongues are very similar in structure, but they do not have the same ability to excrete salt. (12) Which ability biologists think alligators lost at some point during their evolution. (13) Because they cannot excrete excess salt, alligators have very little tolerance for salt water and prefer freshwater habitats. (14) Crocodiles have no problem with salt water and in fact prefer saltier habitats. (15) The resulting difference in abilities helps to explain why the two animals prefer different types of habitats. 31. In context, which of the following is the best replacement for sentence 7 (reproduced below)? Alligators have this as well, but their upper jaw covers it. (A) (As it is now) (B) Alligators have the same oversized tooth, but it is covered by their upper jaw. (C) Alligators have the same fourth tooth, but the upper jaw covers them. (D) Unlike crocodiles, the alligator's upper jaw covers its equally large fourth tooth. (E) In alligators, on the other hand, the upper jaw covers this fourth tooth and is as large as a crocodile's.

32. Which of the following sentences, if inserted immediately after sentence 7, would most effectively link sentences 7 and 8? (A) Finally, alligators and crocodiles may also be distinguished by their coloration. (B) The massive fourth tooth is well-known to artists and cartoonists, who frequently exaggerate it in their drawings of crocodiles. (C) Both alligators and crocodiles are popularly depicted as green. (D) Both alligators and crocodiles are dangerous to humans, although crocodiles are more likely to attack unprovoked. (E) The average adult alligator has about 80 teeth in its mouth.

34. Which of the following would most appropriately be inserted at the beginning of sentence 14? (A) Therefore, (B) Nonetheless, (C) Surprisingly, (D) Moreover, (E) On the other hand,

35. In context, sentence 15 should be (A) left where it is (B) placed between sentences 9 and 10 (C) placed between sentences 11 and 12 (D) placed between sentences 12 and 13 (E) deleted

33. In context, which is the best replacement for sentence 12 (reproduced below)? Which ability biologists think alligators lost at some point during their evolution. (A) (As it is now) (B) Biologists think that alligators lost this ability at some point during their evolution. (C) An ability that biologists think alligators lost at some point during their evolution. (D) According to biologists, alligators lost this ability and had it at an earlier point in their evolution. (E) Alligators are said to have lost this ability at some point, during their evolution by biologists.

!"#$%&'()%#*+)*+#,*'--.%-)/+%0-'*1%

Time 25 Minutes 20 Questions

Turn to Section 6 (page 6) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

2. In the figure above, what is the value of x? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 5 15 25 35 45

1. The graph above shows the number of undergraduates in interdisciplinary majors at Directional State University in each of three consecutive years. How many more undergraduates were in interdisciplinary majors in 2008 than in 2006? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 2 40 60 80 100

3. For a barbecue Robert buys 20 packs of hot dogs, containing a total of 174 hot dogs. If each pack contains either 8 or 10 hot dogs, how many of the packs contain 8 hot dogs? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 5 7 9 11 13

6. Line m has a positive slope and does not pass through (0, 0). If a is the x-intercept of line m and b is the y-intercept of line m, which of the following statements must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) ab is negative. ab is positive. a + b is negative. a + b is positive. a is greater than b.

4. If w = 4, which of the following is NOT equal to w ? (A)

(B) (C) (D) (E)

w 2 w2 2w 6 6w 8 2w

7. Two sides of a triangle each have length 10. If all three sides of the triangle have integer lengths, what is the largest possible perimeter of the triangle? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 29 30 31 39 40

8. Among the 40,000 students at a certain university, females outnumber males by 600. What percent of the students at the university are female? 5. In the figure above, circle O is inscribed in equilateral triangle ABC, and the length of OD is 6. What is the area of the shaded portion of the circle? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 2! 4! 6! 9! 12! (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 50.075% 50.15% 50.3% 50.75% 51.5%

9. If (2x + 3)3 = 173, what is the value of x?

10. When the number a is rounded to the nearest integer, the result is 8. When a is rounded to the nearest tenth, the result is less than 8 and also less than a itself. What is one possible value for a?

11. A cupboard contains a number of identical bowls, 30 of which are painted white. If a bowl is selected from the cupboard at random, then the probability 3 that the chosen bowl is not painted white is . 8 How many bowls are in the cupboard?

13. Among the socks in Stellas drawer, there are five black socks for every two white socks. If half of the socks in Stellas drawer are knee-highs, what is the smallest possible number of socks that could be in Stellas drawer? (Each sock is paired with another that is identical to it.)

12. Four points, A, B, C, and D, lie on a number line, not necessarily in that order. The length of AB is 6, the length of BC is 10, and the length of CD is 7. What is the smallest possible length of AD?

14. For every article she writes, a blogger is paid a flat fee of $20, plus a commission of n dollars for every 10,000 hits that the article receives. If the blogger receives $80 for an article that gets 40,000 hits, how many dollars will she receive for an article that gets 100,000 hits?

15. What is the sum of all values of x that satisfy the 3 5 equation x " = ? 4 2

17. In the diagram above, squares ABCD and EFGH intersect so that their intersection, DXFY, is a smaller square. If AB = GH = 8 and the area of the entire region ABCYGHEX is 110, what is the length of the diagonal XY?

The product of the four digits is odd. If the four-digit integer is rounded to the nearest ten, the result is less than the original integer. If the four-digit integer is tripled, the result is another four-digit integer. The hundreds digit is greater than the tens digit. No two of the digits are the same. 16. A four-digit positive integer is formed according to the rules above. What is one possible value of this integer?

18. The graph above shows the function h(x) = k(x 1)(x 4), where k is a constant. If a is a positive constant such that h(a + 2.2) = 0, what is the value of a?

!"#$%&'()%#*+)*+#,*'--.%-)/+%0-'*1%

Time 25 Minutes 24 Questions

Turn to Section 7 (page 6) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.

Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A through E. Choose the word or set of words that, when inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. Example: Tara is an extremely ------ shopper; even if she browses through hundreds or thousands of items, she will rarely be ------ purchasing more than one or two of them. (A) enthusiastic given to (B) promiscuous intent on (C) picky disappointed (D) savvy apathetic about (E) selective interested in

4. Far too often, Milos attempts at ------ humor came across as ------ instead: his jokes, though intended to be good-natured and gently teasing, struck listeners as bitter and sardonic. (A) solicitous ... antagonistic (B) ironic ... erudite (C) chivalrous ... misanthropic (D) wry ... caustic (E) cosmopolitan ... malicious 5. The manager wrote her most positive recommendations for employees who were ------ to her, but not ------: she appreciated a show of respect, but only to a reasonably modest extent. (A) acquiescent ... obstinate (B) deferential ... obsequious (C) servile ... antagonistic (D) facetious ... acerbic (E) confident ... pompous 6. In the hospitals ------ of priorities, the preservation of life is ------: the mandate to prevent patients from dying supersedes all other objectives. (A) presentation ... marginal (B) distribution ... nominal (C) hierarchy ... paramount (D) enumeration ... commensurate (E) repudiation ... primary 7. Joshuas occasional ------ remarks contrast jarringly with his otherwise urbane demeanor. (A) adroit (B) pointed (C) crass (D) erudite (E) sanguine 8. Though normally volatile, Terrence is a model of ------ in crisis situations, in which his usual capricious nature gives way to an unflappable, calm confidence. (A) equanimity (B) ardor (C) truculence (D) insularity (E) inexorability

1. James is known for his witty ------: he always has a quick and clever response to any insult or challenge. (A) platitudes (B) accusations (C) suppositions (D) creeds (E) retorts 2. Several players in yesterdays football game broke the rules so ------ that the violations were obvious even to observers with little knowledge of the sport. (A) plausibly (B) dextrously (C) dejectedly (D) fitfully (E) blatantly 3. The movie critics review of Smiths latest film was a complete and utter ------, containing not a single positive comment. (A) endorsement (B) critique (C) plaudit (D) denunciation (E) rendition

Questions 9-12 are based on the following passages.

In the following excerpts, two authors discuss the human relationship with nature.

9. The authors of Passage 1 and Passage 2 would both agree with which of the following statements? (A) Modern humans are often distanced from their primitive way of living. (B) People may find fulfillment in entirely manmade entities and pastimes. (C) Although modern life is often hectic and stressful, it has also afforded humans a more agreeable standard of living. (D) People should attempt to make at least some aspects of their lives coincide with those of their primitive ancestors. (E) Humans are primarily distinguished from other animals by their technology.

Passage 1
In their relentless quest for the always-elusive happiness promised by the latest feel-good medicine or the toniest downtown pied--terre*, todays urbanites are unfortunately prone to marginalize, or more 5 commonly to shun altogether, the most universally reliable source of human joy: nature. Many explanations have been put forward for the anomie** seen in large northern cities, most of which completely miss the obvious: the further from nature, the more 10 miserable the people. The bad news is that these urban malcontents must make room in their oh-so-hectic lives for Mother Nature at least to visit, if not to stay. The good news, though is that drastic measures, such as leaving it all behind for a small hut in the tropics, are 15 not necessary; indeed, greater tranquility may derive even from such trifles as merely planting a small garden or placing plants on ones desk. Passage 2 Among those who seek to decry modern society in just about any conceivable way, one of the most frequent 20 complaints is that society is not natural which, in actual reality, simply means that we humans no longer have to put up with short, disease-ridden, violent lives fraught with the constant threats of predation and starvation. Indeed, if pressed to say exactly what 25 makes humans human, most everyone including the aforementioned fault-seekers will (grudgingly, in the fault-seekers case) name some invention or ability that has enabled our separation from nature, whether toolmaking, language, or whatever else. Thus, ironically, 30 the state of further and further separation from nature is perhaps our most natural state. * A small, usually upscale, apartment. ** Loss of social cohesion and cooperation.

10. The tone with which the author of Passage 1 addresses the lifestyle and priorities of the urbanites (line 3) is best described as (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) laudatory inquisitive disinterested resigned derisive

11. Which of the following literary devices is used by the author of Passage 2? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Double meaning Personification Understatement Metaphor Rhetorical question

12. The author of Passage 2 includes the words in actual reality (lines 20-21) most likely in order to emphasize that those putting forward the cited complaint are (A) aware that the complaint is valid, but unaware of the true reasons why (B) understating their case considerably (C) attempting to find fault with the overall structure of society (D) unaware of the true meaning of their words (E) hostile to material improvements in quality of life

Questions 13-24 are based on the following passage.

Conventional wisdom holds that the best teachers of any language should, naturally, be native speakers of that language; indeed, some educational advocates, seizing upon that notion, have gone so far as to recommend that only native English speakers be certified to teach English grammar and usage at the university level. However, as we all know, conventional wisdom tends to have a spotty record when it comes to complex systems and human language acquisition is a system that is about as complicated as systems get. Therefore, the question of whether language instruction is best left to native speakers deserves a deeper look. The educational advocates generally build their case upon the obvious and remarkable mastery that native speakers have over the English language. By the age of eight or nine, most native-English-speaking children already have a command of English idiom, usage, and diction that is largely unattainable to those who learn the language as adults. They have a firm command of extremely subtle rules of word order as evinced by the sidelong, squinty gazes they will shoot at those unfortunate foreign speakers who dare to refer to a big red truck as a red big truck and they can spit out complex sentences, complete with subordinate clauses, modifiers, and other such embellishments, at will. By contrast, even in an entire adult lifetime of total immersion in an English-speaking community, most second-language speakers could never hope to achieve this level of casual mastery of the English language. Why then, the educational advocates say, should we extend professorships of English to these foreign speakers, if their language prowess cannot even match the lowly abilities of a third-grader? However, the advocates are missing or perhaps deliberately ignoring another distinction, one at least as great as the difference upon which they build their case: namely, the yawning gap between mastery of a subject and competence at teaching that subject. While the former is certainly necessary for the latter, it is by no means sufficient. Great athletes do not necessarily make great coaches of their sport; world-class tango dancers are not necessarily world-class tango instructors; and, likewise, the most gifted writers and speakers of English will not necessarily be the best teachers of the language. Thus, while the advocates are certainly correct in claiming that the highest levels of mastery of the English language are reserved for native speakers, by no means does this claim automatically extend to correspondingly high levels of teaching competence. In fact, language is probably the single area in which the opposite is most likely to be true. Of note, in particular, is that native speakers mastery of English the mastery that makes routine,

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everyday communication both clear and effortless is 55 almost entirely subconscious. Upon hearing Take the pizza out of the box and leave it on the counter, native speakers will recognize immediately that it is the pizza, and not the box; non-native speakers, by contrast, will often struggle with assigning such 60 pronouns. However and this is the crux of the issue when it comes to teaching native speakers almost never know why this is the case; they just know. Similarly, native speakers just know the difference between retirement ideas and the idea of retirement, 65 or between the baseball game and the game of baseball, while foreign speakers must painstakingly assemble this knowledge, bit by bit, idiom by idiom, and instance by instance. Although this learning process is truly excruciating, it creates in the minds of 70 tenacious foreign speakers a conscious understanding of English grammar, usage, and idiom far surpassing that of all but the most thoroughly educated native speakers. And since its impossible to teach anything without a solid conscious understanding think how 75 awful we would be at teaching another human how to walk, for instance, even though we walk thousands of paces every day it follows that proficient foreign speakers of English may, ironically, be better suited to teaching the language than are those who have spoken 80 it since they were in diapers. 13. The primary purpose of the passage is to (A) compare and contrast two approaches to the same problem (B) explain a learning process in detail (C) argue for restricting candidacy for a particular profession (D) provide a counterargument to a common notion (E) argue that two sets of abilities are mutually exclusive 14. With which of the following statements about the conventional wisdom described in line 1 would the author most likely agree? (A) It is largely accurate, but the following policy recommendation should not be implemented. (B) It is largely misguided. (C) It is difficult to come up with real-life examples by which this conventional wisdom may be judged. (D) It is worryingly inaccurate, but, fortunately, the subsequent policy recommendation are still advisable. (E) Although it is supported by considerable historical evidence, it has recently become more questionable.

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15. In line 1, holds most nearly means (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) posits retains supports continues contains

19. The attitude reflected by the childrens sidelong, squinty gazes (line 22) is most closely described as (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) apprehensive solicitous supportive mocking indifferent

16. The authors attitude toward conventional wisdom, in the context of the first paragraph, would be best described as (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) disdain affirmation skepticism indifference resignation

20. In line 32, extend most nearly means (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) broaden prolong offer reach straighten

17. In the context of the first paragraph, which of the following statements about language acquisition is implied by the authors statement that human language systems get (lines 9-11)? (A) It is extremely difficult for those who do not begin it at an early age. (B) Few people will be able to master it at a level sufficient for teaching competence. (C) It is a subject for which mastery is irrelevant to teaching ability. (D) It causes more controversy, and produces a less unified conventional wisdom, than do simpler processes. (E) Conventional wisdom is unlikely to yield valid insights about it. 18. In context, the author most likely regards the advocates claim that By the age adults (lines 1620) in what way? (A) It is true and provides compelling support for the advocates argument. (B) Whether it is true is unknown, and so the advocates argument is called into question. (C) It is most likely false, though it would lend credence to the advocates claim if it were true. (D) It is true, but does not support the advocates argument as they think it does. (E) It is true, but not for the reasons supplied by the advocates.

21. It can be inferred from lines 39-41 (While the former sufficient) that the author would disagree with which of the following statements? (A) It is possible for someone with mastery of a subject to lack sufficient competence to teach that subject. (B) It is impossible for someone without mastery of a subject to teach that subject competently. (C) It is possible for a competent teacher of a subject to lack mastery of that subject. (D) All competent teachers of a subject will have mastery of that subject. (E) The process of mastering a subject is significantly different from the process of becoming a competent teacher of that subject. 22. The authors use of repetitive language (bit by bit idiom by idiom ) in line 68 is most probably intended to emphasize that foreign speakers knowledge of English is (A) ultimately more thorough than native speakers (B) more heavily dependent on grammar than on the meanings of words (C) fragmented and lacking cohesion (D) random and devoid of patterns (E) acquired only through a long and tedious process

23. It can be inferred from the passage that the understanding of grammar possessed by the most thoroughly educated native speakers (lines 72-73) is (A) superior to that possessed by the most thoroughly educated foreign speakers (B) unnecessary to their daily use of the language (C) acquired starting in early childhood (D) a more formal, exhaustive extension of native speakers traditional way of learning the language (E) learned quite differently from the way foreign speakers acquire such understanding

24. Which of the following endeavors could be used as another example in the same context as how to walk (lines 75-76)? (A) How to read other peoples facial expressions (B) How to recognize when a sports team should receive a penalty (C) How to distinguish the symptoms of two similar diseases (D) How to hold and swing a golf club properly (E) How to factor an algebraic expression

!"#$%&'()%#*+)*+#,*'--.%-)/+%0-'*1%

Time 20 Minutes 16 Questions

Turn to Section 8 (page 7) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

1. Among the exchange students depicted in the chart above, the total number of male students is (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 2 more than the number of female students 1 more than the number of female students the same as the number of female students 1 less than the number of female students 2 less than the number of female students

2. In the diagram above, point O is the center of the circle, segment CD is a diameter, and the radius of the circle is 6. Which of the following statements must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) EF < 6 EF < 12 CD < 12 AB > 6 AB > EF

!"# " 3. For positive integers a and b, let a b be defined " !"# " ! a b as a b = b a . What is the value of 2 3 ?
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 3 1 0 1 3

5. The Smiths have a dog, a cat, a parrot, and a ferret. The ferret was the first pet that the Smiths ever had. The Smiths walk their dog less now than they did before they acquired their cat. If the Smiths already had their parrot when they acquired their dog, when, among their four animals, did the Smiths acquire their cat? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) First Second Third Fourth It cannot be determined from the information given.

4. In the xy-coordinate plane, one diameter of a particular circle has endpoints (1, 4) and (5, 4). What is the area of the circle? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 4! 9! 16! 36! 64! 6. If AB and CD are parallel in the figure above, what is the value of c? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 50 55 65 75 80

7. The average of a, b, and c is 3, and the average of a, b, c, and d is 4. What is the value of d? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 1 3 5 7 It cannot be determined from the information given.

9. The figure above shows the graph of y = f(x) from x = 5 to x = 5. At what value of x in this interval does the function f attain its minimum value? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 5 3 2 2 5

8. If a and b are positive integers such that what is the value of a b ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 3 4 5 8 10

2a = 8, 2b

10. If m = 4n, what does (A) (B)

n equal, in terms of m? 2

2 m 8 m m 2 m 4 m 8 !

! ! ! ! !

(C) (D) (E)

11. A cube with volume 64 cubic inches is resting on one of its faces. What is the area (in square inches) of the cubes surface, excluding the top and bottom faces? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 16 32 48 64 96

3, 6, 10, 16, 20 13. An integer n is to be added to the list above. Once n has been added, what is the largest possible value of the lists median? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 10 12 13 16 18

12. If a, b, and c are coordinates on the number line as shown above, which of the following expressions has the least value? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) a+c ac a+b ab abc

14. A retail item is originally sold at price x. If the items price is marked up by 60%, but then a discount of 40% is taken off that new price, then the final price (after both the markup and the discount) will be (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 24% greater than x 20% greater than x 10% greater than x the same as x 4% less than x

15. A certain restaurant offers six different entres. The restaurants dinner special consists of a small plate of one of the entres and a large plate of another of them. If the large plate and the small plate cannot be the same dish, in how many different ways can the dinner special be ordered? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 12 15 18 30 36

P = 4d 2 "104d + C 16. The function above models the number of parcels, P, mailed by a certain shipping company, which ! operates 7 days per week, on each date d last December. (For instance, d = 5 corresponds to December 5.) C is a constant. According to the model, on which of the following dates did the company ship the same number of parcels that it shipped on December 6? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) December 14 December 16 December 18 December 20 December 22

!"#$%&'()%#*+)*+#,*'--.%-)/+%0-'*1%

Time 25 Minutes 24 Questions

Turn to Section 9 (page 7) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.

Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A through E. Choose the word or set of words that, when inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. Example: Tara is an extremely ------ shopper; even if she browses through hundreds or thousands of items, she will rarely be ------ purchasing more than one or two of them. (A) enthusiastic given to (B) promiscuous intent on (C) picky disappointed (D) savvy apathetic about (E) selective interested in

3. Scientific theories can be disproved by ------, but they cannot be proved by examples; they can merely be supported by large amounts of ------ evidence. (A) inference incontrovertible (B) statistics quantitative (C) fiat circumstantial (D) deduction qualitative (E) counterexamples collaborative 4. Although many businesses must contend with -----profits during economic downturns, some firms, such as those that help the unemployed find temporary jobs, are able to ------ during the same recessions. (A) dwindling ... extrapolate (B) accruing burgeon (C) flagging prosper (D) deteriorating founder (E) unsurpassed innovate

1. Claudes severe shyness was made even more noticeable when he was in the company of his more -------- sister. (A) robust (B) bashful (C) modest (D) earnest (E) extroverted 2. Patients undergoing physical therapy with the goal of ------ pain must be aware that such therapy, even if ultimately effective, may first ------ that pain. (A) alleviating escalate (B) relieving diminish (C) apprehending diffuse (D) augmenting amplify (E) eradicating degenerate

5. Some liquids are so ------ that they are impossible to stir at room temperature without mechanical tools. (A) amorphous (B) viscous (C) evanescent (D) volatile (E) indelible 6. Coach Smith has earned a reputation as a ---- because of his intense focus on discipline and his excessive punishments for even slight infractions of the teams code of sportsmanship. (A) vagabond (B) martinet (C) churl (D) charlatan (E) pedagogue

Questions 7-19 are based on the following passage.

The following passage is adapted from a short story written in 1920. As Bernice busied herself with tooth-brush and paste this night she wondered for the hundredth time why she never had any attention when she was away from home. That her family were the wealthiest in Eau Claire; that her mother entertained tremendously, gave little dinners for her daughter before all dances and bought her a car of her own to drive round in, never occurred to her as factors in her hometown social success. Like most girls she had been brought up on novels in which the female was beloved because of certain mysterious womanly qualities always mentioned but never displayed. Bernice felt a vague pain that she was not at present engaged in being popular. She did not know that had it not been for Marjorie's campaigning she would have danced the entire evening with one man; but she knew that even in Eau Claire other girls with less position and less pulchritude were given a much bigger rush. She attributed this to something subtly unscrupulous in those girls. It had never worried her, and if it had her mother would have assured her that the other girls cheapened themselves and that men really respected girls like Bernice. She turned out the light in her bathroom, and on an impulse decided to go in and chat for a moment with her aunt Josephine, whose light was still on. Her soft slippers bore her noiselessly down the carpeted hall, but hearing voices inside she stopped near the partly opened door. Then she caught her own name, and without any definite intention of eavesdropping lingeredand the thread of the conversation going on inside pierced her consciousness as sharply as if it had been drawn through with a needle. She's absolutely hopeless! It was Marjorie's voice. Oh, I know what you're going to say! So many people have told you how pretty and sweet she is, and how she can cook! What of it? She has a bum time. Men don't like her. "What's a little cheap popularity?" Mrs. Harvey sounded annoyed. "It's everything when you're eighteen," said Marjorie emphatically. "I've done my best. I've been polite and I've made men dance with her, but they just won't stand being bored. When I think of that gorgeous coloring wasted on such a ninny, and think what Martha Carey could do with itoh!" There's no courtesy these days. Mrs. Harvey's voice implied that modern situations were too much for her. When she was a girl all young ladies who belonged to nice families had glorious times. Well, said Marjorie, no girl can permanently 55

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up a lame-duck visitor, because these days it's every girl for herself. I've even tried to drop hints about clothes and things, and she's been furiousgiven me the funniest looks. She's sensitive enough to know she's not getting away with much, but I'll bet she consoles herself by thinking that she's very virtuous and that I'm too gay and fickle and will come to a bad end. All unpopular girls think that way. Sour grapes! Sarah Hopkins refers to Genevieve and Roberta and me as gardenia girls! I'll bet she'd give ten years of her life and her European education to be a gardenia girl and have three or four men in love with her and be cut in on every few feet at dances. It seems to me, interrupted Mrs. Harvey rather wearily, that you ought to be able to do something for Bernice. I know she's not very vivacious. Marjorie groaned. Vivacious! Good grief! I've never heard her say anything to a boy except that it's hot or the floor's crowded or that she's going to school in New York next year. Sometimes she asks them what kind of car they have and tells them the kind she has. Thrilling! There was a short silence and then Mrs. Harvey took up her refrain: All I know is that other girls not half so sweet and attractive get partners. Martha Carey, for instance, is stout and loud, and her mother is distinctly common. Roberta Dillon is so thin this year that she looks as though Arizona were the place for her. She's dancing herself to death. But, mother, objected Marjorie impatiently, Martha is cheerful and awfully witty and an awfully slick girl, and Roberta's a marvelous dancer. She's been popular for ages! Mrs. Harvey yawned.

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7. On which of the following points do Marjorie and her mother most explicitly agree? (A) Bernice lacks charisma. (B) It is important for young women to cultivate popularity. (C) Marjorie is capable of enhancing Bernices social status. (D) A young woman does not need exceptional qualities to have suitors. (E) Unpopular young women view moral virtues differently than do popular young women.

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8. The description in lines 1-9 suggests that Bernice (A) is indifferent to her mothers gifts and dinner parties (B) is not accustomed to having high social status (C) places a higher value on social validation than on material goods (D) does not look forward to traveling away from her hometown (E) receives significant attention in social situations in her hometown 9. Lines 4-9 (That success) implies that a teenage girls high social status (A) is not solely determined by her personality characteristics (B) flows primarily from her familys wealth (C) reflects the social status enjoyed by her mother (D) is not sustainable when she travels to other towns (E) is usually determined by factors unknown to the girl herself 10. Which of the following words from the passage is LEAST representative of the womanly qualities characterized in line 11? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) wealthiest (line 4) something subtly unscrupulous (lines 19-20) vivacious (line 68) sweet (line 77) slick (line 84)

12. The hypothetical words of reassurance from Bernices mother (the other Bernice, lines 21-23) imply that the most popular young women (A) (B) (C) (D) strive to be respected by young men are not necessarily the most respected as well act with the intention of demeaning themselves are generally more beautiful than less popular girls (E) are often introduced to young men by other young women 13. The passage as a whole suggests that the overheard conversation pierced [Bernices] consciousness (line 32) by (A) evoking painful memories of previous ridicule (B) deeply contradicting Bernices longstanding self-image (C) convincing Bernice that her social aspirations were unattainable (D) revealing that the Harveys affections toward Bernice were insincere (E) raising Bernices awareness of wealth and status as factors in her social standing 14. Mrs. Harvey responds to Marjories complaints in lines 34-84 by (A) lamenting the fact that young people value them (B) acknowledging their truth (C) mentioning positive qualities that offset them (D) abruptly changing the subject (E) dismissing them as unimportant 15. The word cheap, as used in line 39, is closest in meaning to (A) economical (B) illusory (C) inferior (D) pedestrian (E) superficial

11. The passage implies that the purpose of Marjorie's campaigning (line 15) was to (A) increase Bernices social standing among her peers (B) give Bernice advice regarding her behavior and dress (C) set Bernice up for a relationship with a certain suitor (D) prevent Bernice from acting in ways that might be perceived as unscrupulous (E) encourage young men to interact with Bernice

16. In lines 44-46 (When ... with it), Marjorie implies that Martha Carey (A) is less easily bored than Bernice (B) enjoys dancing more than Bernice does (C) lacks Bernices attractive complexion (D) resembles the way Marjorie herself was at age eighteen (E) lacks certain elements of basic courtesy

18. According to Marjorie, the epithet gardenia girl given to her by other young women (lines 61-62) (A) shows the contempt with which they view her lifestyle (B) unintentionally reveals their envy of her (C) refers to her familys high standing in the community (D) is a form of amicable teasing (E) mocks specific aspects of her appearance

17. The tone of Mrs. Harveys response in line 47 (Theres no courtesy these days) is best described as (A) irate (B) perplexed (C) grateful (D) resigned (E) regretful

19. Marjorie responds to her mothers suggestion that she ought to be able to do something (lines 66-67) by (A) ignoring it, having already described her relevant efforts (B) rejecting it on the grounds that it is unreasonable (C) relating some social skills that she has taught Bernice (D) inquiring further into its specific meaning (E) describing particular plans for implementing it

Time 25 Minutes 35 Questions

Turn to Section 10 (page 7) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.

The following sentences test correctness and effectiveness of expression. Part of each sentence or the entire sentence is underlined; beneath each sentence are five ways of phrasing the underlined material. Choice A repeats the original phrasing; the other four choices are different. If you think the original phrasing produces a better sentence than any of the alternatives, select choice A. If not, select one of the other choices. In making your selection, follow the requirements of standard written English: that is, pay attention to grammar, word choice, sentence construction, and punctuation. Your selection should result in the most effective sentenceclear and precise, without awkwardness or ambiguity. Example: The battery powered Dans radio for much longer than expected, and that lasted over three months. (A) and that lasted over three months (B) when it lasted over three months (C) more than three months was how long it lasted (D) upon having lasted over three months (E) lasting over three months

2. Now taller than all of her classmates, Stephanie's height had been unusually short before puberty. (A) Now taller than all of her classmates, Stephanie's height had been unusually short before puberty (B) Though she had been unusually short before puberty, Stephanie was now taller than everyone in her class (C) Stephanie's height was unusually short before puberty; therefore, she is now taller than all of her classmates (D) Stephanie was unusually short before puberty, but now she had been taller than all of her classmates (E) Stephanie, who was unusually short before puberty, is now taller than everyone else in her class

3. Throughout the fable of the ants and the elephant, weaker people can defeat stronger adversaries by organizing into groups. (A) Throughout the fable of the ants and the elephant, (B) The fable of the ants and the elephant illustrates the principle that (C) In the fable of the ants and the elephant, they teach that (D) The main lesson of the fable of the ants and the elephant is, (E) It is evident from the fable of the ants and the elephant,

1. Peering through the telescope, a large cluster of asteroids just beyond Mars was clearly visible. (A) a large cluster of asteroids just beyond Mars was clearly visible (B) a large cluster of asteroids was clearly visible just beyond Mars (C) we could see clearly a large cluster of asteroids just beyond Mars (D) a large cluster of asteroids were clearly visible just beyond Mars (E) just beyond Mars, we could clearly see a large cluster of asteroids

4. A basic analog synthesizer is a device that produces a waveform, modifies it via a series of filters, and then exports it to an amplifier. (A) that produces a waveform, modifies it via a series of filters, and then exports it to an amplifier (B) that produces a waveform and then modifies it via a series of filters, exporting it to an amplifier (C) producing a waveform, modifying it via a series of filters, and exporting it to an amplifier (D) producing a waveform; after this, it modifies the waveform via a series of filters and exports it to an amplifier (E) that produces a waveform, after which it modifies the waveform via a series of filters and exports it to an amplifier

6. Because the violinist was missing two pages of her musical score, she was still able to improvise notes in proper harmony with the rest of the orchestra. (A) Because (B) Despite (C) As (D) However (E) Though 7. The cost of homes cooled in a desert climate is greater than homes heated in a wintry climate. (A) homes cooled in a desert climate is greater than homes heated (B) homes cooled in a desert climate is greater than those heated (C) cooling homes in a desert climate is greater than heating homes (D) cooling homes in a desert climate is greater than that of heating them (E) the cooling of homes in a desert climate, greater than the cost of heating them 8. The two species of bird can be distinguished by the pitch of their mating call and also because they have differently colored plumage. (A) by the pitch of their mating call and also because they have differently colored plumage (B) both by the pitch of their mating call and also by the color of their plumage (C) either by the pitch of their mating call or their differently colored plumage (D) because of the pitch of their mating call and the different colors of their plumage (E) by either the pitch of their mating call or the color of their plumage

5. Many weightlifters have lost contests to opponents with inferior raw strength but superior technical skill. (A) to opponents with inferior raw strength but superior technical skill (B) to opponents, having inferior raw strength but superior technical skill (C) because their opponents' raw strength was inferior but their technical skill was superior (D) despite their opponents' inferior raw strength and superior technical skill (E) despite their opponents' inferior raw strength, their technical skill being superior

9. Unlike famous people of yesteryear, who usually wrote memoirs in their golden years, many autobiographies of the lives of today's celebrities have been written before they had even entered middle age. (A) many autobiographies of the lives of today's celebrities have been written before they had even entered (B) many of today's celebrities have written autobiographies of their lives before entering (C) many of today's celebrities have written autobiographies before entering (D) many celebrities of today, having already written autobiographies, have not even entered (E) many autobiographies of today's celebrities have been written before those celebrities have even entered

11. That no two identical twins are exactly alike establish that genes alone do not determine all human characteristics. (A) That no two identical twins are exactly alike establish that genes alone do not determine all human characteristics (B) No identical twins are exactly alike, an observation establishing that genes alone do not determine all human characteristics (C) No two identical twins are exactly alike, having established that genes do not determine all human characteristics alone (D) The fact of no identical twins being exactly alike establishes that genes do not determine all human characteristics alone (E) Genes alone do not determine all human characteristics, this is established by the fact that no two identical twins are exactly alike

10. Las Vegas is now nicknamed Sin City, was, ironically, settled first by missionaries from the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints. (A) Vegas is now nicknamed Sin City, was, ironically, settled first (B) Vegas, now nicknamed Sin City, first settled, ironically, (C) Vegas now nicknamed Sin City was, ironically, first settled (D) Vegas, even though it is now nicknamed Sin City, first settled ironically (E) Vegas is now nicknamed Sin City, as it was first settled ironically

12. Simple carbohydrates such as sugar is essential in providing the sustained energy needed by endurance athletes. (A) is essential in providing (B) is essential, providing (C) are essential, they provide (D) are essential; they provide (E) are essential for providing

13. In every game played between the Wildcats and the Bulldogs, they won, but by a margin of less than five points. (A) In every game played between the Wildcats and the Bulldogs, they won, but by a margin of less (B) In every game played by them against the Bulldogs, the Wildcats have won, and by less than five points in each (C) In each of their games against the Bulldogs, the Wildcats have won by fewer (D) The Wildcats have won every game that they have played against the Bulldogs; each by a margin of less (E) In each game between the Wildcats and the Bulldogs, they won by fewer

14. Newtons laws of physics have been superseded by Einsteins theory of relativity, still useful to describe the motion of everyday objects. (A) Newtons laws of physics have been superseded by Einsteins theory of relativity, (B) Having been superseded by Einsteins theory of relativity, Newtons laws of physics are (C) Newtons laws of physics, having been superseded by Einsteins theory of relativity, but (D) Despite having been superseded by Einsteins theory of relativity, but Newtons laws of physics are (E) Although Newtons laws of physics have been superseded by Einsteins theory of relativity, they are

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