Unit1: Chapter1 1) Which of the following properties or processes do we associate with living things?

A) evolutionary adaptations B) energy processing C) responding to the environment D) growth and reproduction *E) all of the above
2)

Which of the following sequences represents the hierarchy of biological organization from the least to the most complex level? A) organelle, tissue, biosphere, ecosystem, population, organism B) cell, community, population, organ system, molecule, organelle C) organism, community, biosphere, molecule, tissue, organ D) ecosystem, cell, population, tissue, organism, organ system *E) molecule, cell, organ system, population, ecosystem, biosphere
3)

Organisms interact with their environments, exchanging matter and energy. For example, plant chloroplasts convert the energy of sunlight into A) the energy of motion. B) carbon dioxide and water. *C) the potential energy of chemical bonds. D) oxygen. E) kinetic energy. 4) The main source of energy for producers in an ecosystem is *A) light energy. B) kinetic energy. C) thermal energy. D) chemical energy. E) ATP. 5) Which of the following is a false statement regarding deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)? A) Each deoxyribonucleic acid molecule is composed of two long chains of nucleotides arranged in a double helix. B) Genes are composed of deoxyribonucleic acid. C) DNA is composed of chemical building blocks called nucleotides. D) DNA is a code for the sequence of amino acids in a protein. *E) DNA is an enzyme that puts together amino acids to make a protein. 6) Which of the following statements concerning prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is not correct? A) Prokaryotic cells lack a membrane-bound nucleus. *B) Prokaryotic cells contain small membrane-enclosed organelles. C) Eukaryotic cells contain a membrane-bound nucleus.

D) DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is present in both prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells. E) DNA or deoxyribonucleic acid is present in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells.
7)

A type of protein critical to all cells is organic catalysts called A) feedback activators. B) feedback inhibitors. *C) enzymes. D) metabolites. E) nutrients.
8)

When blood glucose level rises, the pancreas secretes insulin, and as a result blood glucose level declines. When blood glucose level is low, the pancreas secretes glucagon, and as a result blood glucose level rises. Such regulation of blood glucose level is the result of A) catalytic feedback. B) positive feedback. *C) negative feedback. D) bioinformatic regulation. E) protein-protein interactions.
9)

Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells generally have which of the following features in common? A) a membrane-bounded nucleus B) a cell wall made of cellulose *C) ribosomes D) flagella or cilia that contain microtubules E) linear chromosomes made of DNA and protein Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains. What are the domains? A) Bacteria and Eukarya B) Archaea and Monera C) Eukarya and Monera D) Bacteria and Protista *E) Bacteria and Archaea
10) 11)

Species that are in the same __________ are more closely related than species that are only in the same __________. A) phylum; class *B) family; order C) class; order D) family; genus E) kingdom; phylum
12)

A water sample from a hot thermal vent contained a single-celled organism that had a cell wall but lacked a nucleus. What is its most likely classification?

A) Eukarya *B) Archaea C) Animalia D) Protista E) Fungi

13)

Which of the following is (are) true of natural selection? A) requires genetic variation B) results in descent with modification C) involves differential reproductive success D) B and C only *E) A, B, and C
14)

Charles Darwin proposed a mechanism for descent with modification which stated that organisms of a particular species are adapted to their environment when they possess A) non-inheritable traits that enhance their survival in the local environment. B) non-inheritable traits that enhance their reproductive success in the local environment. C) non-inheritable traits that enhance their survival and reproductive success in the local environment. *D) inheritable traits that enhance their survival and reproductive success in the local environment. E) inheritable traits that decrease their survival and reproductive success in the local environment.
15)

In a hypothetical world, every 50 years people over 6 feet tall are eliminated from the population. Based on your knowledge of natural selection, you would predict that the average height of the human population will A) remain unchanged. *B) gradually decline. C) rapidly decline. D) gradually increase. E) rapidly increase. 16) The method of scientific inquiry that describes natural structures and processes as accurately as possible through careful observation and the analysis of data is known as A) hypothesis-based science. *B) discovery science. C) experimental science. D) quantitative science. E) qualitative science.
17)

What is a hypothesis? A) the same thing as an unproven theory *B) a tentative explanation that can be tested and is falsifiable C) a verifiable observation sensed directly, or sensed indirectly with the aid of scientific instrumentation D) a fact based on qualitative data that is testable

E) a fact based on quantitative data that is falsifiable

18)

Which of these is based on a deduction? A) My car won't start. B) My car's battery is dead. C) My car is out of gas. D) I lost my car key. *E) If I turn the key in the ignition while stepping on the gas pedal, then my car will start.
19)

Why is it important that an experiment include a control group? A) The control group is the group that the researcher is in control of; it is the group in which the researcher predetermines the nature of the results. B) The control group provides a reserve of experimental subjects. C) A control group is required for the development of an "if, then" statement. D) A control group assures that an experiment will be repeatable. *E) Without a control group, there is no basis for knowing if a particular result is due to the variable being tested or to some other factor.
20)

A common form of regulation in which accumulation of an end product of a process slows that process is called positive feedback.
Answer: FALSE

Unit1: Chapter2 1) About 25 of the 92 natural elements are known to be essential to life. Which four of these 25 elements make up approximately 96% of living matter? A) carbon, sodium, chlorine, nitrogen B) carbon, sulfur, phosphorus, hydrogen C) oxygen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium *D) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen E) carbon, oxygen, sulfur, calcium 2) Three or four of the following statements are true and correct. Which one, if any, is false? A) Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen make up approximately 96% of living matter. B) The trace element iodine is required only in very small quantities by vertebrates. *C) Virtually all organisms require the same elements in the same quantities. D) Iron is an example of an element needed by all organisms. 3) The mass number of an element can be easily approximated by adding together the number of __________ in an atom of that element. *A) protons and neutrons B) energy levels C) protons and electrons D) neutrons and electrons E) isotopes 4) Which of the following best describes the relationship between the atoms described below? Atom 1
31 15 P

Atom 2
32 15 P

A) They contain 31 and 32 electrons, respectively. B) They are both phosphorus cations. C) They are both phosphorus anions. *D) They are both isotopes of phosphorus. E) They contain 31 and 32 protons, respectively. 5) An atom with an atomic number of 9 and a mass number of 19 would have an atomic mass of approximately A) 9 daltons. B) 9 grams. C) 10 daltons. D) 20 grams. *E) 19 daltons. 6) 3 H is a radioactive isotope of hydrogen. One difference between hydrogen-1 ( 1 H ) 1

and hydrogen-3 ( 3 H ) is that hydrogen-3 has 1 A) one more neutron and one more proton than hydrogen-1. B) one more proton and one more electron than hydrogen-1. C) one more electron and one more neutron than hydrogen-1. *D) two more neutrons than hydrogen-1. E) two more protons than hydrogen-1. 7) Electrons exist only at fixed levels of potential energy. However, if an atom absorbs sufficient energy, a possible result is that *A) an electron may move to an electron shell farther out from the nucleus. B) an electron may move to an electron shell closer to the nucleus. C) the atom may become a radioactive isotope. D) the atom would become a positively charged ion, or cation. E) the atom would become a negatively charged ion, or anion. 8 What is the valence of an atom with six electrons in its outer electron shell? A) 1 *B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 9) What is the maximum number of electrons in the 1s orbital of an atom? A) 1 *B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 10)What is the maximum number of electrons in the 1s orbital of an atom? A) 1 *B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Nitrogen (N) is much more electronegative than hydrogen (H). Which of the following statements is correct about the atoms in ammonia (NH3)? *A) Each hydrogen atom has a partial positive charge. B) The nitrogen atom has a strong positive charge. C) Each hydrogen atom has a slight negative charge. D) The nitrogen atom has a partial positive charge. E) There are covalent bonds between the hydrogen atoms.
11) 12)

What results from an unequal sharing of electrons between atoms? A) a nonpolar covalent bond

*B) a polar covalent bond C) an ionic bond D) a hydrogen bond E) a hydrophobic interaction In ammonium chloride salt (NH4Cl) the anion is a single chloride ion, Cl-. What is the cation of NH4Cl? A) N, with a charge of +3 B) H, with a charge of +1 C) H2 with a charge of +4 *D) NH4 with a charge of +1 E) NH4 with a charge of +4
13)

Which of the following explains most specifically the attraction of water molecules to one another? A) nonpolar covalent bond B) polar covalent bond C) ionic bond *D) hydrogen bond E) hydrophobic interaction
14)

A van der Waals interaction is the weak attraction between A) the electrons of one molecule and the electrons of a nearby molecule. *B) the nucleus of one molecule and the electrons of a nearby molecule. C) a polar molecule and a nearby nonpolar molecule. D) a polar molecule and a nearby molecule that is also polar. E) a nonpolar molecule and a nearby molecule that is also nonpolar.
15) 16)

Which of the following would be regarded as compounds? A) H2 B) H2O C) O2 D) CH4 *E) B and D, but not A and C

16)

Refer to the following figure to answer the following questions.

17) In the methane molecule shown here, bonds have formed that include both the s orbital valence electrons of the hydrogen atoms and the p orbital valence electrons of the carbon. The electrons in these bonds are said to have A) double orbitals. B) tetrahedral orbitals. C) complex orbitals. *D) hybrid orbitals. E) reduced orbitals.

18) Which one of the atoms shown would be most likely to form a cation with a charge of +1? *A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Fig1

Which of the following is true for this reaction? 3 H2 + N2 2 NH3 A) The reaction is nonreversible. B) Hydrogen and nitrogen are the reactants of the reverse reaction. C) Hydrogen and nitrogen are the products of the forward reaction. *D) Ammonia is being formed and decomposed. E) Hydrogen and nitrogen are being decomposed.
19)

A group of molecular biologists is trying to synthesize a new artificial compound to mimic the effects of a known hormone that influences sexual behavior. They have turned to you for advice. Which of the following compounds is most likely to mimic the effects of the hormone? A) a compound with the same number of carbon atoms as the hormone B) a compound with the same molecular mass (measured in daltons) as the hormone *C) a compound with the same three-dimensional shape as part of the hormone
20)

D) a compound with the same number of orbital electrons as the hormone E) a compound with the same number of hydrogen and nitrogen atoms as the hormone
21)

Atoms can be represented by simply listing the number of protons, neutrons, and electronsfor example, 2p+; 2n0; 2e- for helium. Which one of the following lists represents the 18O isotope of oxygen? A) 6p+; 8n0; 6e*B) 8p+; 10n0; 8eC) 9p+; 9n0; 9eD) 7p+; 2n0; 9eE) 10p+; 8n0; 9e-

Unit 1:Chapter 3
1)

In a single molecule of water, two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom

by A) hydrogen bonds. B) nonpolar covalent bonds. *C) polar covalent bonds. D) ionic bonds. E) van der Waals interactions.
2)

Water is able to form hydrogen bonds because A) oxygen has a valence of 2. B) the water molecule is shaped like a tetrahedron. *C) the bonds that hold together the atoms in a water molecule are polar covalent bonds. D) the oxygen atom in a water molecule has a weak positive charge. E) each of the hydrogen atoms in a water molecule is weakly negative in charge.
3)

Equal volumes of vinegar from a freshly-opened bottle are added to each of the following solutions. After complete mixing, which of the mixtures will have the highest pH? A) 100 mL of pure water B) 100 mL of freshly-brewed coffee *C) 100 mL of household cleanser containing 0.5M ammonia D) 100 mL of freshly-squeezed orange juice E) 100 mL of tomato juice
4)

Carbon dioxide (CO2) is readily soluble in water, according to the equation CO2 + H2O H2CO3. Carbonic acid (H2CO3) is a weak acid. Respiring cells release CO2. What prediction can we make about the pH of blood as that blood first comes in contact with respiring cells? *A) Blood pH will decrease slightly. B) Blood pH will increase slightly. C) Blood pH will remain unchanged. D) Blood pH will first increase, then decrease as CO2 combines with hemoglobin. E) Blood pH will first decrease, then increase sharply as CO2 combines with hemoglobin.
5)

Consider two solutions: solution X has a pH of 4; solution Y has a pH of 7. From this information, we can reasonably conclude that A) solution Y has no free hydrogen ions (H+). B) the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution X is 30 times as great as the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution Y. C) the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution Y is 1,000 times as great as the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution X. D) the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution X is 3 times as great as the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution Y.

*E) None of the other answer choices correctly describes these solutions.
6)

Buffers are substances that help resist shifts in pH by A) releasing H+ in acidic solutions. B) donating H+ to a solution when they have been depleted. C) releasing OH- in basic solutions. D) accepting H+ when the are in excess. *E) Both B and D are correct.
7)

If the pH of a solution is decreased from 9 to 8, it means that the A) concentration of H+ has decreased to one-tenth (1/10) what it was at pH 9. B) concentration of H+ has increased 10-fold (10X) compared to what it was at pH 9. C) concentration of OH- has increased 10-fold (10X) compared to what it was at pH 9. D) concentration of OH- has decreased to one-tenth (1/10) what it was at pH 9. *E) Both B and D are correct.
8)

Which of the following solutions has the greatest concentration of hydroxyl ions [OH-]? A) lemon juice at pH 2 B) vinegar at pH 3 C) tomato juice at pH 4 D) urine at pH 6 *E) seawater at pH 8 A given solution contains 0.0001(10-4) moles of hydrogen ions [H+] per liter. Which of the following best describes this solution? A) acidic: H+ acceptor B) basic: H+ acceptor *C) acidic: H+ donor D) basic: H+ donor E) neutral
9) 10)

You have a freshly prepared 0.1M solution of glucose in water. Each liter of this solution contains how many glucose molecules? A) 6.02 1023 B) 3.01 1023 C) 6.02 1024 D) 12.04 1023 *E) 6.02 1022
11)

A small birthday candle is weighed, then lighted and placed beneath a metal can containing 100 mL of water. Careful records are kept as the temperature of the water rises. Data from this experiment are shown on the graph. What amount of heat energy is released in the burning of candle wax?

Fig2 *A) 0.5 kilocalories per gram of wax burned B) 5 kilocalories per gram of wax burned C) 10 kilocalories per gram of wax burned D) 20 kilocalories per gram of wax burned E) 50 kilocalories per gram of wax burned
12)

Which of the following ionizes completely in solution and is considered to be a strong acid? A) NaOH *B) HCl C) NH3 D) H2CO3 E) CH3COOH What is the pH of a solution with a hydrogen ion [H+] concentration of 10-8 M? A) pH 2 B) pH 4 C) pH 6 *D) pH 8 E) pH 10
13)

One liter of a solution of pH 2 has how many more hydrogen ions (H+) than 1 L of a solution of pH 6? A) 4 times more B) 400 times more C) 4,000 times more *D) 10,000 times more E) 100,000 times more
14) 15)

One of the buffers that contribute to pH stability in human blood is carbonic acid (H2CO3). Carbonic acid is a weak acid that dissociates into a bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) and a hydrogen ion (H+). Thus, H2CO3 HCO3- + H+

If the pH of the blood drops, one would expect A) a decrease in the concentration of H2CO3 and an increase in the concentration of HCO3-. B) the concentration of hydroxide ion (OH-) to increase. C) the concentration of bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) to increase. *D) the HCO3- to act as a base and remove excess H+ with the formation of H2CO3. E) the HCO3- to act as an acid and remove excess H+ with the formation of H2CO3. 16) Research indicates that acid precipitation can damage living organisms by A) buffering aquatic systems such as lakes and streams. B) decreasing the H+ concentration of lakes and streams. C) increasing the OH- concentration of lakes and streams. *D) washing away certain mineral ions that help buffer soil solution and are essential nutrients for plant growth. E) both B and C
17)

You have two beakers; one contains pure water, the other contains pure methanol (wood alcohol). The covalent bonds of methanol molecules are nonpolar, so there are no hydrogen bonds among methanol molecules. You pour crystals of table salt (NaCl) into each beaker. Predict what will happen. A) Equal amounts of NaCl crystals will dissolve in both water and methanol. B) NaCl crystals will NOT dissolve in either water or methanol. *C) NaCl crystals will dissolve readily in water but will not dissolve in methanol. D) NaCl crystals will dissolve readily in methanol but will not dissolve in water. E) When the first crystals of NaCl are added to water or to methanol, they will not dissolve; but as more crystals are added, the crystals will begin to dissolve faster and faster. 18) Many mammals control their body temperature by sweating. Which property of water is most directly responsible for the ability of sweat to lower body temperature? A) water's change in density when it condenses B) water's ability to dissolve molecules in the air C) the release of heat by the formation of hydrogen bonds *D) the absorption of heat by the breaking of hydrogen bonds E) water's high surface tension
19)

Which of the following is a hydrophobic material? A) paper B) table salt *C) wax D) sugar E) pasta

20)

Draw three water molecules and label the atoms. Draw solid lines to indicate covalent bonds and dotted lines for hydrogen bonds. Add partial charge labels as appropriate.

Answer:

Unit 1: Chapter 4 1)

Organic chemistry is a science based on the study of A) functional groups. B) vital forces interacting with matter. *C) carbon compounds. D) water and its interaction with other kinds of molecules. E) inorganic compounds.
2)

One of the following people set up a closed system to mimic Earth's early atmosphere and discharged electrical sparks through it. A variety of organic compounds common in organisms were formed. Who did this? *A) Stanley Miller B) Jakob Berzelius C) Friedrich Wohler D) Hermann Kolbe E) August Kekul
3)

Which of the following people used this apparatus to study formation of organic compounds?

Fig2 *A) Stanley Miller B) Jakob Berzelius C) Friedrich Wohler D) Hermann Kolbe E) August Kekul 4) Which of the following people synthesized an organic compound, acetic acid, from inorganic substances that had been prepared directly from pure elements? A) Stanley Miller B) Jakob Berzelius

C) Friedrich Wohler *D) Hermann Kolbe E) August Kekul

5)

How many electron pairs does carbon share in order to complete its valence shell? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 *D) 4 E) 8
6)

Shown here in Figure 3 are the structures of glucose and fructose. These two molecules are A) geometric isotopes. B) enantiomers. C) geometric isomers. *D) structural isomers. E) nonisotopic isomers.

Figure 3 20) The two molecules shown in Figure 4.3 are best described as A) enantiomers. B) radioactive isotopes. C) structural isomers. D) nonisotopic isomers. *E) geometric isomers.
8)

Which is the best description of a carbonyl group? A) an oxygen joined to a carbon by a single covalent bond B) a nitrogen and two hydrogens joined to a carbon by covalent bonds C) a carbon joined to two hydrogens by single covalent bonds D) a sulfur and a hydrogen joined to a carbon by covalent bonds *E) a carbon atom joined to an oxygen by a double covalent bond
9)

Which of the following is a false statement concerning amino groups? A) They are basic in pH. B) They are found in amino acids.

C) They contain nitrogen. *D) They are nonpolar. E) They are components of urea. The following questions refer to the functional groups shown in Figure 4.6.

Figure 4 10) Which is a hydroxyl functional group? * A) B) C) D) E) 11) Which is an amino functional group? A) B) C) *D) E) 12) Which is a carbonyl functional group? A) *B) C) D) E) 13) Which is a functional group that helps stabilize proteins by forming covalent crosslinks within or between protein molecules? A) B) C) D) *E)
14)

Which is a carboxyl functional group?

* A)

B) C) D) E) 15) Which is an acidic functional group that can dissociate and release H+ into a solution? A) B) *C) D) E) 16) Which is a basic functional group that can accept H+ and become positively charged? A) B) C) *D) E) 17) ) Testosterone and estradiol are A) nucleic acids. B) carbohydrates. C) proteins. D) phospholipids. *E) steroids. 18) Identify the asymmetric carbon in this molecule:

19) Which functional group is not present in this molecule?

A) carboxyl *B) sulfhydryl C) hydroxyl D) amino

20) Which chemical group is most likely to be responsible for an organic molecule behaving as a base? A) hydroxyl B) carbonyl C) carboxyl *D) amino E) phosphate

Chapter 5 1) For this pair of items, choose the option that best describes their relationship. (A) The number of alpha glucose 1-4 linkages in cellulose (B) The number of alpha glucose 1-4 linkages in starch A) Item (A) is greater than item (B). B) Item (A) is less than item (B). C) Item (A) is exactly or very approximately equal to item (B). D) Item (A) may stand in more than one of the above relations to item (B). 2) The enzyme amylase can break glycosidic linkages between glucose monomers only if the monomers are the form. Which of the following could amylase break down? A) glycogen B) cellulose C) chitin D) A and B only E) A, B, and C 3) A molecule with the chemical formula C6H12O6 is probably a A) carbohydrate. B) lipid. C) monosaccharide D) carbohydrate and lipid only. E) carbohydrate and monosaccharide only.

4) Figure 5.1 4) If 2 molecules of the general type shown in Figure 5.1 were linked together, carbon 1 of one molecule to carbon 4 of the other, the single molecule that would result would be A) maltose. B) fructose. C) glucose. D) galactose. E) sucrose. 6) All of the following statements concerning saturated fats are true except A) They are more common in animals than in plants. B) They have multiple double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids.

C) They generally solidify at room temperature. D) They contain more hydrogen than unsaturated fats having the same number of carbon atoms. E) They are one of several factors that contribute to atherosclerosis.

7) Figure 5 7) Which of the following statements is true regarding the molecule illustrated in Figure 5.3? A) It is a saturated fatty acid. B) A diet rich in this molecule may contribute to atherosclerosis. C) Molecules of this type are usually liquid at room temperature. D) A and B only E) A, B and C Large organic molecules are usually assembled by polymerization of a few kinds of simple subunits. Which of the following is an exception to this statement? A) a steroid B) cellulose C) DNA D) an enzyme E) a contractile protein
8) 9)

Why are human sex hormones considered to be lipids? A) They are essential components of cell membranes. B) They are steroids, which are not soluble in water. C) They are made of fatty acids. D) They are hydrophilic compounds. E) They contribute to atherosclerosis. All of the following contain amino acids except A) hemoglobin. B) cholesterol. C) antibodies. D) enzymes. E) insulin. 11) Which type of interaction stabilizes the alpha () helix and the beta () pleated sheet structures of proteins? A) hydrophobic interactions B) nonpolar covalent bonds C) ionic bonds D) hydrogen bonds
10)

E) peptide bonds The tertiary structure of a protein is the A) bonding together of several polypeptide chains by weak bonds. B) order in which amino acids are joined in a polypeptide chain. C) unique three-dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide. D) organization of a polypeptide chain into an helix or pleated sheet. E) overall protein structure resulting from the aggregation of two or more polypeptide subunits.
12)

What method did Frederick Sanger use to elucidate the structure of insulin? A) X-ray crystallography B) bioinformatics C) analysis of amino acid sequence of small fragments D) NMR spectroscopy E) high-speed centrifugation
13)

Roger Kornberg used this method for elucidating the structure of RNA polymerase. A) X-ray crystallography B) bioinformatics C) analysis of amino acid sequence of small fragments D) NMR spectroscopy E) high-speed centrifugation
14) 15)

Which of the following are nitrogenous bases of the pyrimidine type? A) guanine and adenine B) cytosine and uracil C) thymine and guanine D) ribose and deoxyribose E) adenine and thymine The difference between the sugar in DNA and the sugar in RNA is that the sugar in DNA A) is a six-carbon sugar and the sugar in RNA is a five-carbon sugar. B) can form a double-stranded molecule. C) has a six-membered ring of carbon and nitrogen atoms. D) can attach to a phosphate. E) contains one less oxygen atom.
16)

The element nitrogen is present in all of the following except A) proteins. B) nucleic acids. C) amino acids. D) DNA. E) monosaccharides.
17) 18)

Enzymes are

A) carbohydrates. B) lipids. C) proteins. D) nucleic acids. A fat (or triacylglycerol) would be formed as a result of a dehydration reaction between A) one molecule of 9 and three molecules of 10. B) three molecules of 9 and one molecule of 10. C) one molecule of 5 and three molecules of 9. D) three molecules of 5 and one molecule of 9. E) one molecule of 5 and three molecules of 10.
19)

Which of the following pairs of base sequences could form a short stretch of a normal double helix of DNA? A) 5'-purine-pyrimidine-purine-pyrimidine-3' with 3'-purine-pyrimidine-purinepyrimidine-5' B) 5'-A-G-C-T-3' with 5'-T-C-G-A-3' C) 5'-G-C-G-C-3' with 5'-T-A-T-A-3' D) 5'-A-T-G-C-3' with 5'-G-C-A-T-3' E) All of these pairs are correct.
20)