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Sample Intercept for Men
01Sexi + U0i
Sample effect of Sex on the intercept Random Intercept Deviation
1i
Linear Slope person i
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Sample Linear Slope for Men
11Sexi + U1i
Sample effect of Sex on the linear slope Random Linear Slope Deviation
2i
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21Sexi + U2i
Psyc 945 Class 1b 5 of 36
YES, surprisingly. In theory, if a growth effect does not vary randomly over individuals, then predictors of that effect are not needed it has no real variance to predict However, because power to detect random effects is often lower than power to detect fixed effects, fixed effects of predictors can still be significant even if there is no (0) variance for them to predict Small (0) random variance harder to find significant interactions Change in language when describing level-1 effects is needed
Psyc 945 Class 1b 7 of 36
Significant Sex*Time? Linear effect of time is systematically varying Linear effect of time is systematically varying Linear effect of time is RANDOM
Random time initially sig, Linear effect of time still sig. after sex*time is RANDOM
The effects of level-1 predictors (time-level) can be fixed, random, or systematically varying. The effects of level-2 predictors (person-level) can only be fixed or systematically varying (nothing to be random overyet).
Psyc 945 Class 1b 8 of 36
Numerator DF > 1
In an unstructured variance model, all effects use level-2 DDF Differences in inference not likely to matter often in practice
e.g., critical t-value at DDF=20 is 2.086, at infinite DDF is 1.960
Compare nested models with ML -2LL test Useful for borderline cases - example:
Education*time2 interaction at p = .04, with nonsignificant education*time and main effect of education fixed effects? Is it worth keeping a marginal higher-order interaction that requires two (possibly non-significant) lower-order effects? ML -2LL test on 3 df: -2LL must be > 7.82 REML is WRONG for -2LL tests for models with different fixed effects, regardless of nested or non-nested Because of this, it may be more convenient to switch to ML when focusing on modeling fixed effects of predictors
Time-invariant predictors modify the level-1 created growth curve predict individual intercepts and slopes
They account for random effect variances (the predictors are the reasons WHY people need their own intercepts and slopes) If a level-1 effect is not random, it can still be moderated by a cross-level interaction with a time-invariant predictor
but then it will predict L1 residual variance instead The level-1 effect will be called systematically varying
Psyc 945 Class 1b 13 of 36
Some people just have more stress than others all the time:
BP variation in stress (represented as mean predictor over time)
PMC Level 1
WPxti = xti PMxi -1 1 -1 1
GMC Level 1
TVx = xti 5 -3 -1 1 3
Under PMC, WPxti DOES NOT contain level 2, BP variation, so PMxi is NOT correlated with WPxti
Under GMC, TVxti DOES contain level 2 BP variation, so PMxi IS correlated with TVxti
*** This means that the effects of PMxi and TVxti together under GMC will be different than their effects by themselves
Psyc 945 Class 1b 16 of 36
Grand-mean-centering:
Absolute effect of X (time-varying X) varies over people e.g., people respond differently to absolute level of stress
Caveats
In using Time0x instead of PMx and change from Time0x instead of WPx, a complete separation of BP and WP is not obtained:
If the time-varying predictor shows change, you are not fitting a model for that change no separation of true change from error
So, change in X is both true change and eti error deviations from change
Therefore, there may be systematic BP differences with regard to slope still contained in the change in X predictor (which may be related to BP differences in level at time 0) so BP is 2+ things, not 1 thing
Pseudo R 2 e =
Pseudo R 2 U =
You would have a pseudo-R2 value for EACH variance component in the model.
If the interacting level 1 predictor not random, any cross-level interaction with it will reduce the L1 WP residual variance e2 instead
e.g., if time2 is fixed, then sex*time2, ed*time2, and sex*ed*time2 will reduce the L1 (WP) residual variance e2 Different quadratic slopes from sex and ed will allow better trajectories, reduce the variance around trajectories
Psyc 945 Class 1b 26 of 36
What happens at level 2 depends on what kind of variance the level-1 predictor has:
If the level-1 predictor ALSO has L2 variance (e.g., GMC predictors, age in accelerated longitudinal designs), then that L2 variance will also likely reduce the L2 random intercept variance U02 If the level-1 predictor DOES NOT have L2 variance (e.g., PMC predictors, time in balanced designs), then its reduction in the L1 residual variance e2 will cause an INCREASE in L2 random intercept variance U02
Same thing happens in other case, but you dont generally see it
Psyc 945 Class 1b 27 of 36
Negative Pseudo-R2???
As a consequence of reducing level-1 residual variance, the level-2 random intercept variance (U02) will usually INCREASE
This is not really a problem, but heres how it happens:
ML estimate of true U02 uses this as a correction factor: true U02 observed U02 (e2 / n)
But U02 was not reduced, so true U02 = 4.65 (2.17 / 4) = 4.10 now
Psyc 945 Class 1b 28 of 36
PMi* timeti
PMi* timeti
More on Pseudo-R2
What about effect size for random effects of time?
Does not apply: fixed effects reduce variance, but random effects only re-partition variance (random effect = new pile of variance)
e.g., Add fixed linear time slope? Reduce e2 e.g., Add random linear time slope? CREATE U12 e2 will appear to be reduced, but its not really just re-partitioned
Calculate random effects confidence intervals instead! Pseudo-R2 is only calculable for models with same piles of variance
e.g., Add fixed quadratic to random linear model? Reduce e2 Interpret as reduction in level-1 residual variance that was left after accounting for individual differences in linear change U12 Meaning of random intercept variance changes when Xs = 0 Another problem: Adding level-2 predictors of one random effect may cause other random effect variances to decrease through their correlation
Psyc 945 Class 1b 32 of 36
2. Start with WP effects, track change in level-1 variances Add BP effects, track change in level-2 variances Be clear about what your baseline model is when reporting!
Psyc 945 Class 1b 33 of 36
Only allows intercept and residual variance, so must remove random slopes (even if it was needed -- pseudo-R2 will be similar for random intercept only and for random intercepts and slopes models, however)
Psyc 945 Class 1b 34 of 36
Psuedo-R2, continued
Snijders & Boskers method of R2 per level protects against negative R2 better than simple proportion reduction in each variance If R12 or R22 is negative, this probably means:
Chance fluctuation (population value would actually be 0) Mis-specified model of fixed effects try again
MORAL OF THE STORY: Specify EXACTLY which kind of pseudo-R2 you used -- give the formula and the reference!!
Psyc 945 Class 1b 35 of 36
Level-1 predictors are time-specific things that predict time-specific variance (residual deviation from growth curve)
But they also usually contain systematic person and group variance that function like level-2 and level-3 predictors, respectively
Psyc 945 Class 1b 36 of 36