PERPETUAL HELP PARAMEDICAL SCHOOL

Happy Homes Subdivision Tagas, Tabaco City Ched Recognition No. H 0029 series 1994 e mail: phpcollege@yahoo.com

PRIMARY HEALTH CARE 2

FINAL EXAMINATION By: EDUARD E. GANDUL JR, RM, RN, EMT-B, MAN (c) Name: _________________________________ Year and Course: __________________ Date: ____________
INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. 1. This refers to group of people who share common characteristics, or developmental stage, common exposure to environmental factors thus has common health problems: A. Family B. Groups C. Sentinel D. Aggregate 2. In EPI immunization, the immunity is called: A. active acquired B. passive acquired C. active artificial D. natural passive D. recurrent convulsions D. pandemic

3. Which of the following are contraindicated for submitting the child for immunization? A. scar in the extremities B. recurrent convulsions C. fever 4. Diseases that occurs occasionally is referred to as: A. endemic B. sporadic C. epidemic

5. Living bodies that harbor, sustain and maintain the growth and multiplication of infectious agent: A. reservoir B. vehicle means to transport C. fomites inanimate objects of materials D. antibodies 6. Which type of infection control does an externally ill hospitalized patient with AIDS require? A. Respiratory isolation B. Blood and body fluids C. Contact isolation D. reverse isolation

7. A person who harbors the microorganism but does not manifest the signs and symptoms of the disease is called: A. Contact B. Infected C. Suspect D. Carrier 8. Which of the following term refers to the degree of pathogenicity of a microbe, or in other words the relative ability of a microbe to cause disease? A. Susceptibility B. Virulence C. Infection D. None of the above 9. Direct sputum smear microscopy (DSSM) is the primary diagnostic tool in tuberculosis case finding. Which of the following conditions does a DSSM is contraindicated? A. Fever B. Cough C. Hemoptysis D. Tonsillitis 10. The most hazardous period for development of clinical disease is how many months after infection with Mycobacterium Tuberculosis? A. 4-5 months B. 2-3 months C. 6-12 months D. 12-18 months 11. Treatment regimen for Category I TB patient on the continuation phase includes which Anti-TB drugs? A. Isoniazid and Rifampicin B. Pyrazinamide and Ethambutol C. Etambutol and Streptomycin D. Pyrazinamide, Etambutol, Isoniazid and Rifampicin 12. A client with TB who is taking anti-TB drugs who calls the nurse because of urine discoloration. According to the client his urine turned reddish-orange. The nurse told the client that the reddish-orange discoloration of urine is the side effect of which anti-TB drug? A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol 13. Prevention of TB includes the following measures: A. BCG vaccination newborns B. Public education about TB and its mode of transmission, methods of control and early diagnosis. C. Availability and accessibility of medical, laboratory and x-ray facilities for examination. D. All of these The time interval between the first exposure to the appearance of the first signs and symptoms is called: A. Prodromal period B. Incubation period C. Stage of illness D. Convalescence

14.

15. To prevent whooping cough, which of the following vaccines should be given to infants? A. BCG B. DPT C. OPV D. IPV 16. When a disease can be easily transmitted from one person to another, such infection is: A.communicable B.Infectious C. CONTAGIOUS D.Virulent

17. It is an illness due to a specific agent transmitted by an agent from a reservoir to a susceptible host through different modes of transmission: A. Contagious disease B.Communicable disease C. Infectious disease D.Iatrogenic disease

18. A clinically manifest disease of a man or animal resulting from an infection: A. Contagious disease B. Communicable disease C. Infectious disease D. Iatrogenic disease 19. An organism that is capable of invading and multiplying in the body of the host: A. Causative agent B. Reservoir C. Bacteria D. Carrier 20. The infecting ability of a microorganism depends on its degree of: A. Pathogenecity B. Communicability C. Teratogenecity D. Epidemiology

21. Another Term for Hepatitis B. A. Hepatitis A B. Homologous Serum Hepatitis C. Epidemic Hepatitis 22. Most common type of Hepatitis A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B 23. Type of hepatitis that is oral-fecal Infection. A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B 24. Measles is also known as, except. A. Three-day measles B. Rubeola 25. The pathognomonic signs of Measles is? A. Forscheimer spot B. Kopliks Spot

D.Post-Transfusion Hepa

C. Hepatitis C

D. Hepatitis D

C. Hepatitis C

D. Hepatitis D

C. 10 day fever

D. Morbili

D. Stimson Sign

D. Postherpetic Neuraglia

26. The Appearance of rashes of measles is characterized by all of the following except. A. Begins at the hairline and behind the ear C. Appears at the trunk first (unifocal) B. Desquamation occurs after rashes D. Cephalocaudal Appearance of Rashes is observed. 27. Measles Vaccine is given with the following consideration except. A. Introduced once at Nine Months C. 0.5 cc is introduced at deltoid, ID B. AMV can be given as early as 6 months D. Report experience of fever and mild rashes for 3-4 days 28. The STI disease that is the most concern in the Philippines A. Syphilis B. Gonorrhea

C. Chlamydia

D. Trichomonas

29. The Leading Mode of Transmission of HIV and STI in the Philippines. A. Sharing needles for injection of drug use C. Vertical Transmission B. Sexual Contact D. Blood transmission 30. What is the most Preventive means of STI A. Used of Condom B. Contact Tracing 31. The Pathognomonic Sign of gonorrhea is, Except A. Nocturnal Ani B. Gleet

C. Drug Compliance

D. Routine Screening of Sexual Workers

C. Dyspareunia

D. Chancre

32. Neisseria Gonorrhea can be transmitted or has the ability to be transferred from infective male going to partner through. A. Adhesion of the microorganism to the sperm during expulsion B. Enterotoxin Production that is transmitted by the Sperm C. Penile Contact to the Mucosa of the vagina Transmit the Microorganism D. Oral and anal Sex even without withdrawals 33. The process of rendering immune is? A. Immunity B. Antibody C. Immunization D. Passive 34. Tetanus Toxoid provide what kind of Immunity? A. Active Artificial B. Passive Artificial 35. Tetanus Immunoglobulin is what type of immunity? A. Active Artificial B. Passive Artificial

D. Active Natural

D. Active Passive

D. Active Natural

D. Active Passive

36. BCG Vaccination is given during at birth provides what type of immunity?

A. Active Artificial B. Passive Artificial D. Active Natural D. Active Passive 37. the process of rendering the area free all types of microorganism is? A. Infertility B. Sterile Technique C. Medical Mission D. Hand Washing 38. The single and most effective Way of Preventing Transmission of Microorganism from one person to another is? A. Infertility B. Sterile Technique C. Medical Mission D. Hand Washing 39. the following are the characteristics of conybacterium diptheraie, except. A. Aerobic, non motile B. Gram positive C. Arrange like Chinese Character D. Drum stick in Appearance 40. Patient with Diptheria must have how many negative results should be taken to confirm absence of infection? A. Three B. Two C. One D. None, Clinical Manifestation is enough to confirm absence 41. If the client is experiencing Diptheria, Which of the following is a must at the clients bedside? A. Pair of scissors B. Mechanical Ventilator C. Tracheostomy set D. Bottle 42. Preventive Measures against Diptheria is through vaccination. Which of the following considerations are not intended for diphtheria vaccine? A. 3 doses, given first 6 weeks C. Booster dose every 2 years especially for travelers B. Injected at deltoid region D. DPT antigen is a whole cell vaccine 43. What is the causative agent of tuberculosis? A. Mycobactrum Tubercolosis B. Mycobacterium Diptherae C. Mycobacterium Tubercolosis D. SECRET 44. Tubercolosis causing agent can be transmitted by any of the following means except? A. Coughing,Sneezing, singing C. Feco-Oral Route B. Direct invasion through mucosa or break in the skin D. Unpasteurized milk or dairy Products 45. which of the following TB category according to DOH, has new smear negative PTB with Minimal Parenchymal lesion on Chest X-ray A. Categoy I B. Category II C. Category III D. Category IV 46. the standard diagnostic procedure for tuberculosis is? A. Direct Sputum Smear B. Chest X-ray C. Mantous Test D. Purified protein derivatives 47. Which of the following drug for TB is in capsule form? A. Rifampicin B. Ethambutol C. Pyrazynamide D. Isoniazid 48. Allergic Reaction is frequently observed with A. Rifampicin B. Ethambutol C. Pyrazynamide D. Isoniazid 49. Which drug is also used for chemoprophylaxis for TB A. Rifampicin B. Ethambutol C. Pyrazynamide D. Isoniazid 50. BCG immunization came from what type of mycobacterium strain? A. Mycobacterium Tubercolosis C. Mycobacterium Africanum B. Mycobacterium Bovis D. Mycobacterium Caninum

Vaccine
1. BCG a. Infant b. School Entrants 2. OPV 3. Hepatitis B 4. DPT

Dose

# of Dos e
8. 1

Minimum Age at 1st Dose

14. Birth 15. School entrants

Site of Administration
25. Deltoid region of the

Route of Administrati on
Intradermal

1.0.05 ml 2.0.1 ml

right arm left arm

27. Mouth

26. Deltoid region of the Oral Intramuscular 30. Deep IM

2 drops 0.5 ml

9. 3 10. 3 11. 3

16. 6 weeks 17. A birth 18. 6 weeks

28. Upper outer portion

of the thigh 29. Deltoid region of the thigh

0.5 ml
5. Measles 12. 1 19. 9 months Deltoid region of the arm Subcutaneous

0.5 ml

6. Tetanus Toxoid

0.5 ml

13. 5

20.TT1 as early as possible during pregnancy. 21. TT 2- 1 month later 22. TT3 at least 6 mos. later 23. TT4 at least 1 year late 24. TT5 at least

1 year later