Jntuworld: Set No. 1

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Code No: K0121
R07
Set No. 1
IV B.Tech. II Semester Regular Examinations, April, 2011
ADVANCED STRUCTURAL DESIGN (Civil Engineering)

Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks Use of IS-456-2000 IS 800-1980 and design charts from SP-16 is allowed ******* 1. A cantilever retaining wall is retaining earth to a height of 4.5 subjected to a superimposed load of 30 KN/m2. The top surface is horizontal behind the wall. Density of soil is 18KN/m3 and angle of internal friction is 27o. The SBC is 200 KN/ m2. The coefficient of friction between base and soil is 0.55. Design a Stem of cantilever retaining wall. Use M20 & Fe 415 steel. 2. Design a circular water tank with flexible base for a capacity of 600000 liters resting on ground. Design a cantilever retaining wall using M20 concrete and Fe 415 steel. Draw reinforcement details. Draw the probable reinforcement diagram if the tank is designed as a rigid base water tank. Time: 3 Hours
3. Design a rectangular pressed steel tank 7.50m 6.25m 2.50m deep supported at 9.0m above ground level. Design tank bearers after planning the arrangement of the plates. 4. Explain procedure for designing a Cylindrical Bunker. List out various stresses induced under loading and how the suggested section is verified for stresses. 5. Explain IRC Class AA loading with neat sketches. Locate conditions for maximum bending moment and shear force when IRC class AA vehicle is passing through a T-Beam bridge. 6. Design a plate girder to withstand a total load of 35 kN/m uniformly distributed over a span of 18 m. The maximum depth of the beam is to be restricted to 1200mm 7. Explain procedural steps for designing steel truss bridges to support railway loading. 8. Discuss procedure for calculation of Wind forces on multistoried buildings and how the effect is incorporated in analysis and design of the building. Explain with typical frame. 1 of 1
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Code No: K0121
R07
Set No. 2

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks Use of IS-456-2000 IS 800-1980 and design charts from SP-16 is allowed ******* 1. Explain component of the Cantilever retaining wall. Explain steps involved in designing a cantilever retaining wall is retaining earth upto its full height. Draw a typical reinforcement diagram in various parts of the structure. 2. Design a rectangular water tank for a capacity of 500000 liters resting on ground. Design a cantilever retaining wall. Draw reinforcement details. 3. Design a rectangular pressed steel tank 7.50m 5.00m 2.50m deep supported at 9.0m above ground level. Design tank bearers after planning the arrangement of the plates. 4. Explain procedure for designing a concrete chimney. List out various stresses induced under full load condition and how the suggested section is verified for stresses. 5. Explain IRC Class A loading with neat sketches. Locate conditions for maximum bending moment and shear force when an IRC class A loading is passing through a T-Beam bridge. 6. Design a plate girder to withstand a total load of 1000 kN (W) uniformly distributed over a span of 20 m. The maximum depth of the beam is to be restricted to 1500mm 7. Explain procedural steps for designing steel truss bridges to support railway loading. 8. Explain phenomenon of Earthquake excitation and its influence of various types of structures. Explain Ductile detailing of reinforced concrete structures to take care of earthquake forces. 1 of 1
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Code No: K0121
R07
Set No. 3

Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks Use of IS-456-2000 IS 800-1980 and design charts from SP-16 is allowed ******* 1. A cantilever retaining wall is retaining earth to a height of 4.5m subjected to a superimposed load of 25 KN/m2. Density of soil is 18KN/m3 and angle of internal friction is 28o. The bearing capacity of soil is 175 KN/ m2. The coefficient of friction between base and soil is 0.5. Design a cantilever retaining wall using M20 concrete and Fe 415 steel. 2. List out various components of an Intze tank. Explain procedure for designing the roof dome, top ring beam and cylindrical wall for the intze tank. 3. Designing of pressed steel tank for retaining 75000 letres capacity. Draw detailed diagram with all details. 4. Design a concrete chimney of 60m height having external diameter 4m throughout. Check the suggested section for stresses. Use M20 concrete and Fe 415 steel. Assume the shell thickness same throughout the height. Assume any data missing appropriately. 5. Explain Pigeauds theory for analysis of wheel load on T-Beam bridges. 6. Design a gantry girder for an industrial building to carry an electric overhead traveling crane with the following data. Crane capacity = 350 kN Weight of crane excluding crab = 160 kN Weight of crab = 60 kN Span of crane between rails = 20 m Wheel base = 3.0 m Minimum hook approach = 1.0 m Span of gantry girder = 8 m Weight of rail section = 30kg/m Check the suggested section for bending stresses. 7. Explain procedural steps for designing steel truss bridges to support railway loading. 8. Explain Design Considerations of Multistoried buildings and discuss procedure for calculation of Earth quake forces on multistoried buildings and how the effect is incorporated in analysis and design of the building. Time: 3 Hours
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Code No: K0121
R07
Set No. 4

Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks Use of IS-456-2000 IS 800-1980 and design charts from SP-16 is allowed ******* 1. List out parts of Counterforte retaining wall. Explain various steps involved in designing a Counterforte retaining wall retaining earth upto its full height. Draw a typical reinforcement diagram in various parts of the structure. 2. Explain various components of an Intze type water tank and explain procedure for Designing the roof dome, top ring beam and cylindrical wall for the intze tank. 3. Design a rectangular pressed steel tank 7.50m 6.25m 2.50m deep supported at 9.0m above ground level. Design tank bearers after planning the arrangement of the plates. 4. Explain design of a Bunker and describe various parts of an RC Bunker with neat sketches 5. a) Explain various types of reinforced concrete bridges with neat sketches. b) Derive expression for economical span of the bridge 6. Design a gantry girder for an industrial building to carry an electric overhead traveling crane with the following data. Crane capacity is 220 KN. Weight of crane excluding crab is 150 KN. Weight of crab is 6 KN. Span of crane between rails is 18m. Minimum hook approach is 1.0 m. Wheel base is 2.8 m. Span of gantry girder is 8 m. Weight of rail section is 25 kg/m. Height of rail section is 75mm. 7. Explain procedural steps for designing steel truss bridges to support railway loading. 8. Discuss effect of Wind and Earth quake forces on multistoried buildings and how the effect is incorporated in analysis and design of the building. Time: 3 Hours
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Code No: K0122
R07
(Civil Engineering)
Set No. 1
GROUND WATER DEVELOPMENT AND MANAGEMENT
Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. a) Discuss in detail about origin of ground water. b) Calculate the fresh water flow in a coastal aquifer extending to a length of 40 km along the coast, assuming an average permeability of 40 m3/day/ m2, average thickness of aquifer of 20 m, and the piezometric gradient at 5 m/km. 2. a) Distinguish between ground surface contours and water table contour. Explain how the water table contours are prepared and state their uses b) How permeability is measured in laboratory? 3.
A tube well taps an artesian aquifer. Find its yield in litres per hour for a drawdown of 3 m when the diameter of the well is 20 cm and the thickness of the aquifer is 30 m. Assume the coefficient of permeability to be 35 m/day. If the diameter of the well is doubled find the percentage increase in the yield, the other conditions remaining the same. Assume the radius of influence as 300 m in both cases.
4. How yield of an open well is determined using a) Recuperation test, and b) Pumping test 5. A pump test was conducted on a fully penetrating well in a non-leaky artesian aquifer. Determine the drawdown in an observation well at 10, 50 and 200 min from the time of staring the pump, given the following data: Constant discharge from the well= 2800 lpm Distance of observation well from the pumping well = 20 m Storage coefficient of aquifer = 7.24 x Transmissibility of aquifer = 1500 lpm/m 1 of 2
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Code No: K0122
R07
Set No. 1
6. Discuss in detail how Aerial Photogrammetry techniques are used in ground water studies. 7. Explain in detail various ground water recharge methods and their relative merits. 8. Discuss conjuctive use of surface and ground waters in optimum development of water resources
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Code No: K0122
R07
(Civil Engineering)
Set No. 2
Time: 3 Hours Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. a) Explain various rock properties effecting ground water. b) Distinguish between (i) Aquifer and Aquifuge (ii) darcy velocity and actual velocity (iii) Aquiclude and Aquitard (iv) Groundwater and perched groundwater
Max Marks: 80
2. a) An aquifer has an average thickness of 50 m and an aerial extent of 150 ha. Estimate the available ground water storage if the aquifer is unconfined and fluctuation in GWT is observed as 10 m. b) State Darcys law and its limitations. 3. In a given year over 60 km2 catchment, 120 cm of rainfall was received and 1000 ha-m was (i) discharged through the outlet. The ground water table rose by 30 cm and the average specific (ii) yield of the soil was 18%. The soil moisture increased by 5 cm on an average. Estimate the (iii) evapotranspiration during the year.
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4. a) With a neat sketch and adopting usual notation, derive an expression for the steady state discharge of a well penetrating fully in a unconfined aquifer. b) List out the assumptions made in the analysis of steady radial flow into well.
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Code No: K0122
R07
Set No. 2
5. A 25 cm well 70 m deep is proposed in an aquifer having a transmissibility of 1.5x105 lpd/m and a coefficient of storage of 0.004. The static water level is expected to be 20 m below ground level. Assuming a pumping rate of 2000 lpm, what will be the drawdown in the well after (a) 1 year, (b) 2 years? 6. a) Sketch Wenner electrode arrangement and Schlumberger electrode arrangements. b) What are the advantages of ground water compare to surface water. 7. Discuss in detail how Remote Sensing and GIS techniques are used in artificial recharge of groundwater.
8. Discuss concept of conjunctive use and list out various advantages of conjunctive use.
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Code No: K0122
R07
(Civil Engineering)
Set No. 3
Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. a) An aquifer averages 50 m in thickness and is 100 ha in area. Determine the volume in ha-m of water available if (i) the aquifer is unconfined and is completely drained (ii) the aquifer is confined and the piezometric head is lowered from 30 m to 10 m above the (iii) aquifer. Assume Sy = 15%, b) Distinguish between i). Specific retention and specific yield ii). Confined aquifer and unconfined aquifer 2. Derive differential equation governing ground water flow in three dimensions. 3. In a recuperation test, the static water level in an open well was depressed by pumping by 3 m and it recuperated 1.5 m in 1 hour. If the diameter of the well is 2.5 m and the safe working depression head is 2.4 m, find the average yield of the well in lpm. 4. a) List out the assumptions made in the THEIS equation. b) Write down the Theis equation for unsteady radial flow into a well in a confined aquifer. Explain each term in the equation.
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Code No: K0122
R07
Set No. 3
5. A pump test was conducted on a fully penetrating well in a non-leaky artesian aquifer. Determine the drawdown in an observation well at 10, 50 and 200 min from the time of staring the pump, given the following data: (i) Constant discharge from the well= 2800 lpm (ii) Distance of observation well from the pumping well = 20 m (iii) Storage coefficient of aquifer = 7.24 x (iv) Transmissibility of aquifer = 1500 lpm/m 6. Explain the following with a neat sketch. (i) Electrical resistivity method (ii) Seismic refraction method
7. a) With a neat diagram explain upcoming of salt water beneath a pumped well. b) How do you control sea water intrusion
8. Discuss conjuctive use of surface and ground waters in optimum development of water resources.
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Code No: K0122
R07
(Civil Engineering)
Set No. 4
Time: 3 Hours Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. a) Explain in detail about ground water hydrological cycle. b) Distinguish between a) Water table and piezometric surface b) Vadose zone and phreatic zone c) Artesian well and flowing well d) Pumping test and recovery test
Max Marks: 80
2. a) During a falling head permeability test on a soil sample of 10 cm diameter and 20 cm length, the head in the stand pipe of 2 cm diameter dropped from 50 cm to 25 cm in 2 min. Determine the permeability of the sample. b) Distinguish between i). Transmissivity and storativity ii). Darcy velocity and actual velocity 3. A well penetrates into an unconfined aquifer having a saturated depth of 50 m. The discharge is 250 1pm at 8 m drawdown. What would be the discharge at 10 m drawdown. The radius of influence in both the cases may be taken as same. 4. Explain, with a neat sketch, the Cooper and Jacob method of determining the aquifer parameters 5. A 25 cm well 70 m deep is proposed in an aquifer having a transmissibility of 1.5x105 lpd/m and a coefficient of storage of 0.004. The static water level is expected to be 20 m below ground level. Assuming a pumping rate of 2000 lpm, what will be the drawdown in the well after (a) 1 year, (b) 2 years? 1 of 2
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Code No: K0122

6. Explain the following a) Geophysical logging b) Resistivity logging
R07
Set No. 4
7. a) Explain with a neat sketch fresh water-salt water interface. b) With a neat sketch discuss upconing 8. Discuss concept of conjunctive use and list out various advantages of conjunctive use.
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Code No: K0123
R07
(Civil Engineering)
Set No. 1
ENVIRONMENTAL IMPACT ASSESSMENT AND MANAGEMENT
Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 80
1.
Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* a) What are the various types of impacts? b) How do you assess the significance of any particular environmental impact? a) What are Adhoc methods? How are they useful? What are its limitations? b) What are the advantages of Check lists over ad-hoc methods?
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3.
a) What are the remedial measures that can be adopted during and after execution of any developmental project if the soil is contaminated? b) How do you delineate study area for assessment of impact on ground water? a) What are the key elements in assessment of biological impacts of any project activity? b) How do you predict soil impacts using qualitative approaches? a) What are the environmental impacts of Deforestation? b) How do you assess the impact of development activities on wild life? a) What are the various Onsite activities of the environmental audit? b) What are on-site activities needed in the preparation of an environmental audit report? a) What are the powers and functions of State Pollution Control Boards as per Water Act, 1974? b) What are the penalties that can be imposed as per Wildlife Protection Act, 1972? Explain the preparation of environmental impact statement of a typical road project.
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Code No: K0123
R07
(Civil Engineering)
Set No. 2
Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. a) Explain the various steps involved in adopting EIA as a planning tool for any major activity. b) What is the necessity of Initial Environmental Examination for any project? 2. a) What is the criteria for the selection of best EIA Method in a given situation? b) Explain the cost/benefit analysis of Environmental Impact Assessment Methodology?
3. a) Discuss different activities in a major road laying project likely to have impacts on soil and ground water? b) Describe the qualitative approaches for prediction of soil impacts with special reference to pipeline construction. 4. a) What are the various air pollution sources? b) What are the main steps of generalised approach for assessment of air pollution impact? 5. a) What are the effects of deforestation on wild life? b) How do you assess impacts of development activities on vegetation? 6. a) What are the legislative objects of an environmental audit? b) What is an audit protocol? Explain in detail. 7. a) What are the typical post-audit activities? b) What are the salient features of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972? 8. Explain the preparation of environmental impact statement of Integrated Steel Plant. 1 of 1
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Code No: K0123
R07
(Civil Engineering)
Set No. 3
Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. a) Explain the different aspects to be presented in chronological order in any EIA report. b) What are the various factors to be taken into in EIA studies? 2. a) What are scaling and weighing scaling checklist methods? b) What are the salient features of Matrix methods?
3. a) What are the impacts of developmental activities on different factors of soil formation? b) How do describe the background information of soil environment?
4. a) How do assess the air quality impact using modelling approach? b) Enumerate the various impacts on biological environment? 5. a) Explain the role of poverty in deforestation. b) Explain the various effects of deforestation with special reference to deforestation in India. 6. a) What the types of environmental audit? b) What are the various steps involved in the preparation an audit report?
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7. a) What are the powers and functions of Central Pollution Control Board as per Water Act, 1974. b) What are the salient features of Air Act? 8. Explain the preparation of environmental impact statement of a typical Airport project.
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Code No: K0123
R07
(Civil Engineering)
Set No. 4
Time: 3 Hours Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. a) How do you select the preferred alternative from EIA studies? b) What are the various elements of an environmental base map? 2.
Max Marks: 80
a) What are Overlay methods? How GIS is useful as advanced tool in Overlay Methods? b) Explain any Networks method with suitable example.
3. a) What are the impacts of induced development with reference to soil and ground water? b) What are the environmental impacts of a road project on soil and ground water? 4. a) Describe the methodology for assessment of impacts on surface water. b) What are the various human induced changes on soil characteristics? 5. a) What are the impacts of developmental activities on wild life? b) Explain the main causes of deforestation with special reference to India. 6. a) What is an environment audit? What are its objectives? b) Explain the various stages of environmental audit? 7. a) What are the issues involved in the enforcement of environmental legislation? b) What are the salient features of Environment Act 1986? 8. Explain the preparation of environmental impact statement of a Fertilizer Industry.
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Code No: K0221
R07
(Electrical & Electronics Engineering)
Set No. 1
UTILIZATION OF ELECTRICAL ENERGY

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. a) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of electric drive over other drives. b) Explain what you mean by "Individual drive" and" Group drive. Discuss their relative merits and demerits. [8+8] 2. a) Discuss the advantages of electric heating as compared to other heating methods. Also state the desirable properties of a heating element. b) The power required for dielectric heating of a slab of resin 150 cm2 in area and 2cm thick is 200 watts at a frequency of 30x106 Hz. The material has a relative permittivity of 5 and power factor of 0.05. Determine the voltage necessary and current flowing through the material. If the voltage is limited to 600 V, what will be the value of the frequency to obtain the same heating? [8+8] 3. a) Describe with neat sketches various methods of electric resistance welding. b) Compare DC and AC welding. [8+8] 4. a) A lamp having a uniform candle power of 200 in all directions is provided with a reflector which directs 60 % of total light uniformly on to a circular area of 10 m diameter. The lamp is hung 6 meters above the area. Calculate the illumination (i) at the center (ii) at the edge of the surface with and without the reflector. Determine also the average illumination over the area without reflector. b) Explain any one method of measuring a brightness of light source. [8+8] 5. a) Explain with connection diagram the operation of the low-pressure fluorescent lamp and state its advantages. b) Prove that in a filament lamp the diameter of the filament is directly proportional to I2/3, where I is the current flowing in the filament. [8+8]
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Code No: K0221
R07
Set No. 1
6. a) What are the various methods of electric braking? Explain these methods in reference to a DC series motor. b) Discuss the special features of electric traction motor. [8+8] 7. Explain the speed time curve for a main line service and derive the expression
1 1 1 3600 D Vm + = 1 , where the symbols have their usual meaning. 2 2 Vm Va
[16]
8. a) Explain the terms dead weight, effective weight and adhesive weight in a locomotive. b) What is tractive effort of a train and what are its functions. [9+7]
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Code No: K0221
R07
Set No. 2

Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. a) Compare group drive and individual drive in industrial environment. b) What are the reasons for using load equalization in electrical drives? Explain with example a drive requiring load equalization. [8+8] 2. What are the advantages of electric heating? Give classification of various electric heating methods along with brief account of their working principles. Time: 3 Hours
3. a) What is a resistance welding? What are its limitations? b) Describe briefly the various types of arc welding processes used in industry. [8+8] 4. a) State and explain about the laws of Illumination. Derive the relation between E, Land I for a uniform diffused source. b) A small light source with intensity uniform in all directions is mounted at a height of 10 meters above a horizontal surface. Two points A and B both lie on the surface with point A directly beneath the source. How far the point B from the point A if the illumination at point B is only 1/10 as great as at point A. [8+8] 5. a) Discuss the flood lighting with suitable diagrams. b) What do you understand by discharge lamp? Explain the construction and working of high-pressure mercury lamp. 6. a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of track electrification. b) Explain the requirements of ideal traction and show which drive satisfies almost all the requirements.
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[16]
[8+8]
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Code No: K0221
R07
Set No. 2
7. a) Write a short note on mechanics of train movement. b) The speed-time curve of a train consists of i). Uniform acceleration of 6 km/hr/s for 26 seconds; ii). free running for 10 minutes; iii). Uniform deceleration of 6 km/hr/s to stop the train; iv). A stop of 5 minutes. Find the distance between stations, the average, and scheduled speeds.
8. a) Describe the procedure for calculating the specific energy consumption of an electric train. b) Explain the terms i). coefficient of adhesion ii). tractive effort iii). gradient [10+6]
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Code No: K0221
R07
Set No. 3
Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. a) Derive an expression for the temperature rise of an electrical machine. State the assumptions made. b) A 200 V shunt motor has an armature resistance of 0.6 . It takes a current of 15amps on full load and runs at 700 r.p.m. If a resistance of 0.4 is placed in the armature circuit, find the ratio of the stalling torque to the full load torque and derive the expression used. [8+8] 2. a) With a neat sketch explain the working principle of coreless type induction furnace. b) Discuss various methods of temperature control in the resistance heating.
3. a) Draw a neat sketch of a spot welding machine and describe its construction and working in detail. b) Describe with a neat sketches, various methods of electric resistance welding. [8+8] 4. a) A lamp fitted with 120 degrees angled cone reflector illuminates circular area of 200 meters in diameter. The illumination of the disc increases uniformly from 0.5- meter-candle at the edge to 2- meter-candle at the centre. Determine (i) the total light received (ii) Average illumination of the disc (iii) Average candlepower of the source. b) What is an integrating sphere? Explain its use in illumination engineering. [8+8]
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Code No: K0221
R07
Set No. 3
5. a) A building frontage 50 m X 15 m is to be illuminated by flood lighting projectors situated 25 m away. If the illumination is 100 lux, coefficient of utilization is 0.5, depreciation factor is 1.5, Waste light factor is 1.2, estimate the number and size of projectors. Sketch the projectors recommended indicating the usual adjustments provided. b) Explain with sketches the constructional features of a filament lamp. [8+8] 6. a) Discuss about electric traction system in India. How it is different from distribution system. b) Describe how plugging and rheostatic braking are employed with DC motors.
7. a) For a quadrilateral speed-time curve of an electric train, derive expression for the distance between stops and speed at the end of the coasting period. b) A suburban electric train has a maximum speed of 70 kmph. The scheduled speed including a station stop of 30 seconds is 45 kmph. If the acceleration is 1.5kmphps, find the value of retardation when the average distance between stops is 4 km. [8+8] 8. a) What is coefficient of adhesion? How does it affect slipping of the driving wheel of a traction unit? b) Derive an expression for the tractive effect developed by a train unit.
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Code No: K0221
R07
Set No.4

Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. a) Discuss the terms continuous, intermittent and variable loads with examples. b) A motor works on 2 minute load cycle constituted as follows: 0 to 15 seconds load rising from 0 to 1050 h.p.; 15 to 85 seconds constant load of 600 h.p.; 85 to 95 seconds regenerative braking with the h.p. returned falling uniformly from 200 to 0 h.p.; and 95 to 120 seconds motor is at rest. Determine the continuous rating of the motor that would be suitable for the load cycle. Assume the rating to depend upon the (i) R.M.S value of the loading (ii) Average value of the loading. [8+8] 2. a) What are the factors which decide the frequency and voltage of dielectric heating? Derive the expression for the heat produced in the dielectric material. b) Give relative advantages and disadvantages of direct and indirect electric resistance heating methods. [8+8] 3. a) Discuss the differences between carbon and metallic arc welding and give their relative merits and demerits. b) What are the important components of DC and AC welding sets and explain their functions. [8+8] 4. a) Define and explain the following terms: (i) MHCP (ii) MSCP (iii) MHSCP (iv) Solid angle b) What are polar curves? How it is useful to an illumination engineer.
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[8+8]
5. a) Compare a tungsten filament lamp with fluorescent lamp stating their merits and demerits. b)What are the various types of lighting schemes? Explain with relevant diagrams. [8+8]
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Code No: K0221
R07
Set No.4
6. a) Briefly discuss the special design features of traction motor. b) Which system you consider the best for the suburban railways near large cities? Give reasons for your answer.
[8+8]
7. a) Discuss the main features of various train services. What type of train services corresponds to trapezoidal and quadrilateral speed time curves. b) A train has a scheduled speed of 50 km/hr between two stops, which are 5 km apart. Determine the crest speed over the run, if the duration of stops is 60 sec and acceleration and retardation both are 3 km/hr/sec each. Assume simplified trapezoidal speed-time curve. [8+8] 8. a) What is specific energy consumption of a train? Discuss various factors affecting it. b) Differentiate between adhesive weight and total weight of an electric locomotive.
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Code No: K0321
R07
Set No. 1
PRODUCTION PLANNING AND CONTROL (Mechanical Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. a) Define Production Planning & Control (PPC). b)Production Planning & Control System is factorys nervous system. Justify the statement with logical explanation. 2. a) Give your observations pertaining to the exponential smoothing constant () b) Forecast the production for next two years when the production quantity for last ten years is as follows: 200, 225, 235, 240, 255, 260, 265, 275, 270, 271 Use the following methods to compute the forecast and comment on results i) Moving average ( 5 years) ii) Exponential smoothing for =0.3 3. Ten items kept in inventory are listed below. Which items should be classified as A, B and C . What percentage of items is in each class? What percentage of total annual value is in each class? Item no Annual use Price
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1 200 40 2 100 360
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3 2000 0.2 4 400 20
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0.8 100
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8 2000 0.7 9 1000 1.00
5 6 7 6000 1200 120 0.04
10 80 400
4. a) Explain various steps involved in MRP system. b) Explain the JIT Kanban working principle. 5. a) What is route sheet? What is the information it contains? Explain it by drawing a route sheet. b) What is the significance of loading? Explain with the help of machine load record. 1 of 2
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Code No: K0321
R07
Set No. 1
6.
Andy Arthurson is an independent computer software consultant. After completing his most recent project, he had five jobs awaiting completion. Following are the estimated work times required to complete each job and due dates requested by customers Job A B C D E Processing time 12 16 8 20 6 Due date(days from present) 52 37 28 57 31
a) Construct job sequences using the Critical ratio rule, and Slack Time Remaining rule and b) Compute the average flow time, and average number of jobs in the system. 7. The Basic Block Company needs to produce 4000 boxes of blocks per 40 hour week to meet upcoming holiday demand. The process of making blocks can be broken down into six work elements. The precedence and time requirements for each element are as follows. a) Draw precedence diagram for the production process b) Determine minimum number of work stations and c) balance efficiency.
Work element A B C D E F
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Precedence
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A A C,D B,E
Performance time(min) 0.1 0.4 0.5 0.2 0.6 0.4
8. a) Explain various activities of dispatcher. b) List out various forms raised by dispatcher? Explain any three with neat sketch.
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Code No: K0321
R07
(Mechanical Engineering)
Set No. 2
PRODUCTION PLANNING AND CONTROL

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. a) State the objectives for which PPC department is established in a factory system. b) Explain the characteristics of various types of production systems.
2. The sales particular of a company a for 13 years of operation is furnished below Year 1 2 Sales 96 116 a) b) 3 119 4 127
Fit simple regression for the above data Forecast the sales for the 14th year of operation.
3. a) Derive the Wilson EOQ formula. What are the practical limitations of the EOQ formula ? b) A company requires 10000 units of an item per annum. The cost of ordering is Rs.100 per order. The inventory carrying cost is 20%. The unit price of the item is Rs.10. Calculate i) the economic order quantity ii) Optimal total annual cost iii) time between the orders.
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5 146
6 145
7 153
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8 158 9 160
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10 165 11 177
12 190
13 205
4. a) Explain Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) logic in detail. b) With respect to LOB, explain with examples the following i) Objective chart ii) Program plan 1 of 2
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Code No: K0321
R07
Set No. 2
5. a) State the important factors that affecting routing procedure. b) Explain the importance of bills of material in production control. How does it help in assembly production? 6. a) Explain the characteristics of various scheduling policies. b) Three jobs go over three machines M1, M2 and M3 in that order. From the data given below, find the sequence that minimizes the total elapsed time and find the minimum time Jobs Machines M1 M2 M3 A 1 6 5 B 2 2 6 C 3 3 2
7. A company makes a special type of pipe wrench. The marketing department has estimated the demand for this product during the next six months to be as follows: Month Demand January 370 February 430 March 380 April 450 May 520 June 440 With its current labour force, the company can make approximately 420 pipe wrenches per month at a cost of Rs.40 per wrench using regular time production. An additional 80 wrenches per month can be made using overtime production but then the cost per wrench is Rs.45. Wrenches can be made in one month and held in inventory for later shipment at a cost of Rs.3 per month per wrench. The monthly demand for wrenches must be satisfied every month. At the end of December, the company has 10 wrenches in inventory. The company wants to plan its production including overtime and inventory for the next six months so as to minimize cost while satisfying demand a) Formulate the company problem as a transportation model and b) Develop an aggregate plan for the next six months. 8. a) What is follow up? Explain its significance in production? b) Explain the applications of computer in Production Planning & Control. 2 of 2
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Code No: K0321
R07
Set No. 3

Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. Explain various functions of production control department. Draw internal organization chart of Production planning department. 2. A local building products store has accumulated sales data for 2x 4 lumber and the number of building permits in its area for the past 10 quarters. Quarter 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Building permits(X) 8 12 7 9 15 6 5 8 101 12 Time: 3 Hours
a) Develop a linear regression model for these data and determine the strength of the linear relationship using correlation b) If the model appears to be relatively strong , determine the forecast for lumber given ten building permits in the next quarter. 3. a) Define inventory? Explain various functions of inventory. b) Explain various costs associated with inventory. 4. a) What types of demand are formally considered in MRP. b) Explain the methodology of MRP system briefly. 1 of 2
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Lumber sales(Y) 12.6 16.3 9.3 11.5 18.1 7.6 6.2 14.2 15.0 17.8
D L
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Code No: K0321
R07
Set No. 3
5. Product X is made of two units Y and three of Z. Y is made of one unit of A and two units of B. Z is made of two units of A and four units of C. Lead time for X is one week; Y two weeks; Z three weeks; A, two weeks, B: one week and C:three weeks. a) Draw the bill of material b) If 100 units of X are needed in week 10, develop a planning schedule showing when each item should be ordered and in what quantity? 6. Bright Expressions, a house painting contractor has five houses to paint. Following are the estimated times required to paint each house and due date for completion. House Adams Bradley Chin Dalton Evans Estimated Time (days) 2.5 4.0 3.0 5.0 2.0
a) Use the Shortest Processing Time rule to sequence the five jobs Compute average flow time and average tardiness per job using this sequence b) Earliest due date rule to sequence the five jobs Compute average flow time and average tardiness per job using this sequence. 7. a) What is aggregate planning? Explain various objectives of aggregate planning. b) What is expediting? What are the duties of expediter? 8. List out various forms raised by dispatcher. Explain any three with neat sketch.
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Due date 8 10 7 14 16
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Code No: K0321
R07
Set No. 4

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. a) List out the planning functions and controlling functions separately. b) What are differences between job shop, batch type and continuous production systems? 2. a) Explain the characteristics of various types of forecasting briefly. b) Alpha company has the following sales pattern during 1988 to 1996. Compute the sales forecast for 1997 Year 1988 Sales in lakhs 6 1989 8
3. An engine manufacturing company stocks the items as shown in the following table in its stores. The unit price, annual consumption quantity in terms of units/year are also given in the same table. Classify the items into A, B, and C categories and mention nature of control one has to exercise on each category. Component Code C001 C002 C003 C004 C005 C006 C007 C008 C009 C010
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1990 11 1991 23 500 4000 2000 3000 4000 500 500 1000 1500 500 1 of 2
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1992 29 1993 34
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1994 40 1995 45 Unit/year 600 600 600 600 600 1200 600 1200 600 600
1996 56
Description Connecting rod Crank case Cylinder Cylinder head Crank shaft Cam Nozzle Valve set Fuel injection pump Exhaust pipe
Price /unit
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Code No: K0321
R07
Set No. 4
4. a) List out and explain any three various segments of ERP system. b) Define Line Of Balance (LOB)? State its objectives. 5. a) What are the reasons for scheduling? Explain how scheduling improves process production control significantly b) Distinguish between loading and scheduling. 6. a) List out various scheduling rules. Explain at least three of them. b) State the standard scheduling methods. Explain at least one in detail.
7. Professional Image Briefcases is an exclusive producer of handcrafted, stylish cases. The company assembles each case with care and attention to detail. This work requires the completion of the six primary work elements listed here. Work Element A B C D E F
J
a) b) c) d)
Draw precedence diagram for the production process. Determine minimum number of work stations to assembly 50 cases in a 40 hour week and Balance efficiency
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Precedence A B C,D E
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Time (min) 30 15 10 5 10 10
D L
8. a) Describe advantages & disadvantages of dispatching jobs all at once and operation by operation. b) Explain the role of follow up men in production control.
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Code No: K0421
R07
OPTICAL COMMUNICATIONS
(Electronics & Communication Engineering)
Set No. 1
Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. a) Discuss the advantages of optical fibers over conventional copper cables. [8] b) A multimode step index fiber has a relative refractive index difference of 1% and a core refractive index of 1.5. The number of modes operating at a wave length of 1.3 meters is 1500. Determine the diameter of the fiber core. [8] 2. a) Explain the following i). Cut off wave length ii). Mode field diameter. b) Explain the bending losses in the optical fiber.
3. a) Derive the expression for the wave guide dispersion and obtain the relationship between mode number V and . b) Explain about straight sleeve connectors. 4. a) Explain internal quantum efficiency and modulation capability of LED with suitable expressions. b) Explain about Mechanical splices with a neat diagrams.
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[8]
[8]
[8] [8]
[8] [8]
5. a) Explain about lensing schemes for coupling efficiency improvement. [8] b) An optical source has a circular emitting area of radius 25 m and an associated lambertian emission pattern. Determine B0 if the amount of power coupled from this source in to a graded index fiber with core radius as 20 m and a parabolic index profile as 0.735. Take n1 and n2 as 1.45 and 1.435 respectively. [8] 1 of 2
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Code No: K0421
R07
Set No. 1
[10] [6] [8] [8] [8] [8]
6. a) Derive an equation for SNR at the input of an optical receiver and discuss. b) Discuss the temperature effect on Avalanche gain. 7. a) Discuss power budget Analysis with an example. b) Write short notes on Overall fiber dispersion in multimode fibers. 8. a) What is the necessity of WDM? How it is different from FDM? Explain. b) Write short notes on Measurement of Dispersion using Frequency domain measurement technique.
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Code No: K0421
R07
Set No. 2
Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. a) Explain the following in brief i) Total internal reflection ii) Numerical Aperture iii) V number iv) Skew Rays b) Calculate the number of modes at 820 nm in a graded index fiber having a parabolic index profile 1.90, of a 25 meters core radius, n1 = 1.48 and n2 = 1.46. How does it compare to a step index fiber? 2. a) Discuss briefly about radioactive losses in the optical fiber. b) Explain effective Refractive index in detail with necessary mathematical expressions.
3. a) For a fiber material dispersion parameter is 58.8 ps/nm/km. The relative spectral width / of the source is 0.0015 at the wave length of 820nm. Calculate the RMS pulse broadening per km. [8] b) Explain Biconical ferrule connectors with a neat diagram. [8]
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[8] [8] [8] [8]
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Code No: K0421
R07
Set No. 2
4. a) Draw the schematic of Edge emitting double hetero junction LED and explain its working in detail. [8] b) A 10 m core diameter single mode step index fiber has a normalized frequency of 2.0. A fusion splice at a point along its length exhibits an insertion loss of 0.15dB. Assume only lateral misalignment contributes to the splice insertion loss, estimate the magnitude of lateral misalignment. [8] 5. a) Explain about LED coupling to single mode fibers. [8] b) A GaAs optical source with a refractive index of 3.6 is coupled to a silica fiber that has a refractive index of 1.48. If the fiber end and the source are in close physical contact, find the Fresnel reflection at the interface and power loss in dB. [8] 6. a) Explain the principle of operation of PIN photodiode with a neat diagram. b) Draw the block diagram of an optical receiver and explain its operation.
7. a) Calculate the rise time limit for the optical fiber system working at 1.3 m wavelength and 1Gb|s bit rate over a single mode fiber with a link length of 50 km. The rise times of the transmitter and receiver are 0.25ns and 0.35ns respectively. The source spectral width is 3nm and the dispersion parameter is 2ps/(km-nm). [8] b) Discuss the point to point optical link and its characteristics. [8] 8. Write short notes on a) Measurement of Attenuation using cut back method . b) Line coding.
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[8] [8]
[8] [8]
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Code No: K0421
R07
Set No. 3
Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. a) Compare the step index fiber and graded index fibers with a neat diagram. [8] b) A single mode step index fiber has a core diameter of 7 m and core refractive index of 1.49. Estimate the shortest wavelength of light which allows single mode operation when the relative refractive index difference for the fiber is 1%. 2. a) What is absorption in optical fiber? Explain in brief the different types of mechanism of absorption in the fiber? [8] b) Determine the cut off wave length for a single mode optical fiber of 5 meters core radius having a core refractive index of 1.450. Take = 0.002. [8] 3. a) A butt jointed fiber connection used on a multimode step index fiber with a core refractive index of 1.42 and a relative refractive index difference of 1% has an angular misalignment of 9o. There is no longitudinal or lateral misalignment but there is no a small air gap between the fibers in the connection. Estimate the insertion loss of the connector. [8] b) Distinguish between material dispersion and wave guide dispersion. [8]
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4.
a) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the fusion splicing and adhesive splicing. b) Define the following with respect to LED i) Internal Quantum efficiency ii) Modulation capability. iii) Power band width product 1 of 2
[8]
[8]
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Code No: K0421
R07
Set No. 3
[8] [8] [6] [10] [8] [8]
5. a) Explain about coupling losses from the light source to the fiber. b) Explain about lensing schemes for coupling efficiency improvement. 6. a) Draw a simple model of a photo detection receiver and its equivalent circuit. b) Compare digital and Analog receivers. 7. a) Discuss the system considerations of optical fiber link. b) Write short notes on Rise time budget Analysis. 8. Write short notes on a) Bidirectional WDM b) Measurement of Attenuation
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[8] [8]
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Code No: K0421
R07
Set No.4
Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. a) Briefly explain historical development of optical fiber communications. b) Prove that the total number of modes entering the step index fiber is M = V2/2. 2. a) Explain the following i) Cut off wave length ii) Mode field diameter. b) Explain about Rayleigh scattering and Mie scattering
3. a) A single mode fiber operating at the wavelength of 1.3 meter is found to have a total material dispersion of 2.81ns and a total waveguide dispersion of 0.495 ns. Determine the received pulse width and approximate bit rate of the fiber if the transmitted pulse has a width of 0.6 ns. [8] b) Explain about connector return losses. [8] 4. a) A mechanical splice in a multimode step index fiber has a lateral offset of 16% of the fiber core radius. The fiber core has a refractive index of 1.49 and an index matching fluid with a refractive index of 1.45 is inserted in the splice between the butt Jointed fiber ends. Assuming the longitudinal or angular misalignment, estimate the insertion loss of the splice. [8] b) Discuss the reliability of double hetero junction Laser diode and explain how to improve the reliability of the system. [8] 1 of 2
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[8] [8] [8]
[8]
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Code No: K0421
R07
Set No.4
[8] [8] [8] [8]
5. a) Explain about Laser diode to fiber coupling b) Write short notes on Equilibrium Numerical Aperture. 6. a) Explain the principle of operation of an Avalanche photo diode. b) Derive an expression for receiver sensitivity.
7. a) Calculate the maximum bit rate that may be achieved on the fiber link length of 50km without repeater and using NRZ format. Transmitter rise time = 4ns, Intermodal rise time = 5ns km-1. Intermodal rise time =1ns km-1 and Receiver rise time =2ns. b) Discuss the system considerations of optical fiber link. 8. Write short notes on a) Dispersion measurement b) Unidirectional WDM
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[8] [8]
[8] [8]
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Code No: L0521
R07
MANAGEMENT SCIENCE
Set No. 1
IV B.Tech. II Semester Regular Examinations, April, 2011 (Common to Computer Science & Engineering and Information Technology) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. Briefly discuss the nature of management and its process
2. List and discuss on the fourteen principles of management developed by Henry Fayol. 3. What are the types of layout? Explain them with examples.
4. What do you mean by ABC analysis? What are its advantages? 5. Describe the nature and importance of Human Resource Management. Explain its main objectives. 6. Define strategy. How strategy is managed?
7. Write short notes on the following (a) MRP (b) End User computing (c) Value chain Analysis 8. What is difference between a schedule graph based on ES & a schedule graph bsed on LS? Explain
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Code No: L0521
R07
MANAGEMENT SCIENCE
Set No. 2
Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. Along with successful and professionally managed companies, we also find such business orgnisations which refuse to give good service to customers and still thrive. What do you sugest to get these organizations more professionalised? 2. Explain the three Howthrone experiements along with their implications and conclusion. 3. What do you mean by production? Write about different types of production methods. 4. What is marketing mix? Describe various elements of marketingmix.. 5. What are the main differences between HRM and Personnel Management and Industrial relations? 6. What is the important of environment scanning? Explain the PEST analysis in detail. 7. Explain how modern concepts like JIT, MRP, Six Sigma changed the production environment? 8. What is the difference between work plan and action plan?
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Code No: L0521
R07
MANAGEMENT SCIENCE
Set No. 3
1.
Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* Define Management. Explain the significance of the management
2. State and compare the X and Y theories of motivation proposed by Mc Gregor. 3. What do you mean by statistical quality control? Explain its importance in quality control. 4. Wxplain the product life cycle stages. How marketing strategies different product life cycle stages? 5. What do you mean by Manpower Planning? Explain the different steps in manpower planning. 6. What are steps in strategy formulation and implementation.? 7. Explain the Six Sigma Concept and its advantages. 8. Explain the term SWOT/TOWS.
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Code No: L0521
R07
MANAGEMENT SCIENCE
Set No. 4
IV B.Tech. II Semester Regular Examinations, April, 2011 (Common to Computer Science & Engineering and Information Technology) Time: 3 Hours Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* What are the social responsibilities of Management? Max Marks: 80
1. 2.
What is Decentralization? Where is it suitable? Enumerate its advantages and disadvantage. Explain in detail about Deming,s contribution to quality management. What is Economic Order Quantity (EOQ)? How it is determined? What are the major issues involved in wage and salary administration?. What are the generic strategies that are adopted by organizations? What is bench marking? How is useful? Discuss the guidelines for constructing a project network.
3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
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Code No. K0821
R07
Set No.1
IV B.Tech II Semester Regular Examinations, April, 2011
INDUSTRIAL POLLUTION CONTROL ENGINEERING (Chemical Engineering)

Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. Explain in detail about the various emissions from the chemical industry and what is their effect on environment
2. a) What is BOD and what you understand about 5 day BOD as well as 21 day BOD? b) Explain briefly about self running streams 3. Mention and explain various removal techniques available for the removal of SO2 from gaseous effluents 4. a) Explain in detail about the method of analysis of CO and hydrocarbons present air. b) What is the permissible range of SPM and RSPM for ambient air
5. a) List out the suitable solvents used in absorption for control of various gaseous pollutants. [6] b) Discuss the basic design concepts of adsorption process. [10] 6. a) Explain bacterial growth curve. b) Discuss the process control in sludge recycle system. 7. What is Ozonation step in primary treatment? Explain the role of ozone in disinfecting water.
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[16]
[8] [8]
[16]
[10] [6]
[6] [10]
[16]
8. a) List the advantages and disadvantages of the Open dumping methods of solid waste disposal [8] b) Write about the disposal of biomedical wastes. [8]
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Code No. K0821
R07
Set No.2

Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. a) What is meant by MINAS and explain in detail ? [6] b) What are the limits of standards for presence of lead and calcium in air? [4] c) Explain briefly air pollution act [6]
2. a) Explain briefly about the method for determination of COD b) What are permissible limits for BOD, COD and TOC in drinking water and give reasons 3. What is VOC and explain in detail about various methods available for the separation of these components from the air
4. a) What are the pollutants that will present in the air and explain methods of their collection as well as their analysis [10] b) Explain the word stack sampling [6] 5. a) List out the advantages and disadvantages of i) Electro Static Precipitators; ii) Wet collectors. b) Draw a schematic diagram of a parallel plate precipitator. a) Draw a sketch showing the sequence of operations for sludge treatment. b) Compare and contrast Suspended and Attached growth processes. Explain Carbon adsorption process emphasizing its use in waste water treatment.
6.
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[8] [8]
[16]
[6+6] [4] [8] [8]
7.
[16] [8] [8]
8. a) Write short notes on biomedical waste control. b) Write about the potential methods for solid waste disposal.
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Code No. K0821
R07
Set No.3

Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. a) What are the factors that led to enactment of legislation on pollution? Discuss. b) Elucidate the need for the Environmental legislation 2. a) Write the important characteristics of effluent water b) Explain in detail about the DO and BOD estimation in water
3. Explain in detail about the treatment of liquid and gaseous effluents in fertilizer Industry.
4. a) Explain the method of analyzing the NOx present in the air [8] b) What do understand about the words SPM and RPM present in air and explain briefly how to measure them [8] 5. a) Describe the process of cleaning gaseous equipments particulate emission control. b) Discuss the need to control air pollution. 6. a) Explain the removal of suspended solids from waste water. b) Discuss briefly the Rotary Drum Filters. 7. a) Explain briefly the recovery of materials from process effluents. b) Why is a pre-treatment step necessary in treating waste water? 8. a) What are the latest techniques to treat the solid waste? Explain. b) Explain Hazardous waste management.
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[8] [8] [8] [8]
[16]
[10] [6] [10] [6] [10] [6] [8] [8]
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Code No. K0821
R07
Set No.4

Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. Explain the approaches generally followed in environmental legislation and write a brief note on water act of 1974.
2. a) Explain in detail about the TOC estimation in water [8] b) Write short notes on the waster effluent characteristics from petroleum industry [8] 3. Mention and explain various removal techniques available for the removal of NOx from gaseous effluents [16] 4. a) What are the important meteorological parameters that influence the air pollution and also brief about the methods of measuring them? [10] b) Explain the method of analyzing the SO2 present in the air [6] 5. a) List and explain the chemical reactions which cause pollution in the atmosphere.[10] b) What is collection efficiency? Give the equations to determine it. [6] 6. a) Elucidate the need for waste water treatment. b) Justify the statement Secondary treatment is also called as biological treatment. 7. a) Discuss the zone settling in detail with relevant diagrams. b) Write a short note on: Flocculation and Coagulation. 8. a) What are the precautions to be taken while transportation of solid wastes like nuclear, chemical, etc? b) Which are the places, where the solid waste can be disposed off? Explain the disposal.
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[16]
[6] [10] [10] [6]
[8] [8]
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Code No. K1021
R07
Set No.1
INDUSTRIAL ELECTRONICS (Electronics and Instrumentation Engineering)

Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. a) What are the drawbacks of a basic differential amplifier? [4] b) Draw the circuit diagram of an improved-version of instrumentation amplifier and [8] derive the expressions for output voltage Vo. c) Draw the circuit diagram of common emitter dc amplifier with stabilization elements and briefly explain. [4] 2. a) Explain the following terms with reference to voltage regulators. (i) Regulation factor (ii) Stabilization factor b) In the given circuit estimate the values of RLmin, RLmax, RT.
[Given zener is of 3Watts and 15Volts. Minimum holding current of zener is 5mA]. c) Draw the circuit of simple series voltage regulator and explain its operation. 3. a) Discuss the limitations of linear voltage regulator. b) What is the principle of switched mode power supplies? Discuss its advantages and disadvantages. c) Draw the circuit diagram to convert three terminal fixed voltage regulator to convert it as a adjustable regulator and explain its operation with relevant output expression of Vo. [4] [4] [6] [6]
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30 V
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RT 3Z15A
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x
RL
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[4]
[8]
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Code No. K1021
R07
Set No.1
4. a) Draw the equivalent circuit of SCR using two transistor model and explain how it [8] acts as a switch. b) List out various protection methods used for proper operation of SCR and explain [8] briefly about each method. 5. a) Why equalization network is necessary in SCRs operation? What is meant by [8] static equalization and dynamic equalization? Briefly discuss. b) Why derating factor is taken into account when SCRs are operated in series or in [8] parallel? Write expressions for series derating factor and parallel derating factor. 6. a) Draw the circuit of synchronized UJT triggering of SCR and describe its operation. [8] b) Draw the circuit and describe the principle of operation of type B single quadrant [8] dc chopper and draw its Vo - io characteristics. 7. a) Draw the block diagram of digital timer unit and explain its operation. b) Describe the principle of spot welding and butt welding. What are their main applications? 8. a) Describe the principle of soldering and welding by ultrasonic waves. b) What are the merits of induction heating and explain any two applications of induction heating.
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[8] [8]
[8] [8]
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Code No. K1021
R07
Set No.2

Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. a) How can you differentiate dc amplifier from ac amplifier. Justify with proper explanation. [4] b) Draw the circuit diagram of common emitter dc amplifier with stabilizing elements and explain its operation. [6] c) What is meant by drift in dc amplifiers? What are the main causes of drift and how can drift be minimized. [6] 2. a) Draw the complete circuit of a series voltage regulator circuit using BJTs and a reference diode and explain the role of each component accounts for stabilization.[8+4] b) With reference to voltage regulators, define the following terms. [4] i) Regulation factor ii) Stabilization factor 3. a) Compare the merits and demerits of linear and switched mode voltage regulators. b) Draw the ckt diagram to convert fixed voltage regulator 78xx into a current source and explain its operation and design considerations. c) Draw the ckt diagram of a switched mode power supply and explain its operation with required to relevant waveforms.
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[4] [4] [8]
4. a) Give the experimental set up to obtain output characteristic of SCR for different values of gate current and sketch the waveform and hence obtain its firing characteristics. [8] b) Draw the circuit of class A commutation with RL in series with C and RL in parallel with C and explain its performance. [8]
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Code No. K1021
R07
Set No.2
5. a) What is the purpose of equalizing network when SCRs are connected in series? Draw the circuit of static voltage equalization for series connected SCRs and describe its working. b) Draw the circuit diagram to trigger simultaneously at the same instant of time of two SCRs connected in parallel and explain its working and the role of each component.
[8]
6. a) Draw the circuit of RC full wave firing circuit and explain how it controls the conduction angle. Explain with the help of relevant input and output wave forms. [8] Also derive expression for average load current Idc. b) Draw the circuit and describe the principle of operation of four quadrant dc chopper and also draw its Vo-io characteristic. [8] 7. a) List out various types of electric Resistance welding and describe the principle and application of each of them. b) Draw the block diagram of electronic timer system and describe the function of each block. 8. a) List out different types of electric resistance welding and briefly explain about each type. b) Describe the working of pulsed echo ultrasonic flaw detector.
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[8]
[8] [8]
[8] [8]
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Code No. K1021
R07
Set No.3

Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. a) In what aspects dc amplifier is different from ac amplifier? b) Draw the circuit diagram of a d.c. amplifier. Using Darlington pair explain its operation and also write expressions for Ri, Ro, Av. c) List out the properties of an ideal operational amplifier.
2. a) Explain the terms with related to voltage regulators. i) Load regulation ii) Line regulation b) Draw the circuit diagram of a simple zener regulator and explain its operation with the help of load characteristics. What are the limitations of this circuit? c) Draw the circuit of a simple series voltage regulator and explain how the role of the reference diode used in the circuit. 3. a) State and explain the principle of switched mode regulator. b) List out the advantages and disadvantages of switched mode regulator. c) Draw the circuit diagram of a 5V fixed voltage power supply using 78xx and 79xx and the role of each external component used.
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[4] [8] [4]
[4] [8] [4] [4] [4] [8]
4. a) Draw the volt-amp characteristics of SCR for different values of Ig including Ig=0 and explain about various regions. b) In the given circuit Vgg & Rg are so adjusted such that the SCR fires at 600 of supply voltage Vm Sint. Sketch the voltage waveform across SCR and the load current waveform and hence derive expressions for the average value of the load current. 1 of 2
[8]
[8]
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Code No. K1021
R07
RL Rg
Set No.3
Vgg
Vm Sint
5. a) Draw the circuit diagram for three SCRs of different ratings to trigger simultaneously and explain its operation. b) Draw the circuit diagram to trigger simultaneously at the same instant of time two SCRs connected in parallel and explain its operation and the role of each component.
6. a) Draw the circuit diagram of RC half wave firing circuit for SCR and describe its working. Sketch the source waveform, voltage waveform across SCR and load current wave form. b) Draw the circuit diagram 1, Bridge type controlled converter using SCRs and sketch the relevant waveforms? Derive expression for Vdc.
7. a) Draw the circuit diagram of SCR delay timer with UJT triggering and explain its operation. [8] b) Draw the block circuit arrangement of AC electric resistance welding and describe its principle of operation.
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[8]
[8]
[8] [8]
8. a) List out the merits of Induction heating and what are the applications of Induction heating. [8] b) Describe the working of pulsed-echo ultrasonic Flaw detector. [8]
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Code No. K1021
R07
Set No.4

Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. a) List out the properties of an ideal operational amplifier. b) Draw the circuit diagram of an Instrumentation amplifier with high input resistance and high CMRR and justify with proper explanation. Also derive expression for the output voltage.
2. a) Draw the circuit diagram of a typical series voltage regulator and explain its operation in detail. b) Define the following terms with reference to regulators. i) Regulation factor ii) Stabilization factor c) Draw the circuit diagram of simple zener regulator and explain how regulation is obtained in this circuit. 3. a) Compare the merits and demerits of linear and switched mode voltage regulators. b) Draw the functional diagram of a low voltage regulator using LM723 to regulate voltage from 2 V to 7 V and explain its operation. c) Draw the circuit of 7812 voltage regulator and explain the role of each external component used.
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[4]
[6+6]
[8] [4]
[4] [4] [8] [4]
4. a) Draw the equivalent circuit of SCR using two transistor mode and explain the behavior of the circuit. [4] b) List out different turn-on methods of SCR and explain briefly about each method. [4] c) Draw the circuit of class A commutation with RL in series with C and RL in shunt with C and explain its performance. [8]
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Code No. K1021
R07
Set No.4
5. a) What is meant by sequential triggering and simultaneous triggering of SCRs and draw the schematic circuit of each case and explain. b) What is the main advantage of optical triggering and draw the circuit and explain for optical triggering of series connected SCRs. 6. a) What is the difference between Rectifier and controlled rectifier? Draw the circuit diagram of single phase full wave controlled rectifier with freewheeling diode and describe its operation. Sketch the input and output waveforms. b) Draw the circuit and describe the principle of operation of four quadrant dc chopper and also draw its Vo-io characteristics. 7. a) Classify the timer based on their function and briefly describe each function and its application. b) Draw the block diagram of digital timer unit and explain its operation.
[8] [8]
8. a) What are the merits of induction heating and explain any two applications of induction heating. b) List out different types of electric resistance welding and briefly explain about each type.
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[8] [8]
[8] [8]
[8] [8]
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Code No. K1121
R07
BIOMEMS (Bio-Medical Engineering)
Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks *****
Set No.1
Time: 3 hours
Max. Marks: 80
1. a) What are the Applications for bio- MEMS? b) Explain the Advantages of MEMS and Nano Manufacturing.
[8+8]
2. a) Explain electrochemical etching with block diagram b) What is additive process? Explain the techniques present in additive process
3. What is additive process? Explain the techniques present in additive process
4. a) Explain the steps in preparing the LIGA mask with schematics. b) What are the basic safety rules in clean rooms
5. Explain different blocks in retinal scanning display
6. a) Explain the working principle of Thermal biomorph with neat schematic b) Write short notes on thermal sensors.
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[8+8]
[16]
[8+8]
[16]
[10+6]
[16] 7. Draw a simple series resonant Oscillator. Draw the Bode plot for low Q and for high Q
8. a) Differentiate between the traditional assembly and micro-assembly. b) Explain the application of MEMS In cochlear implants
[8+8]
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Code No. K1121
R07
Set No.2
Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. Explain MEMS Flow Sensor Based on Drag Force with necessary mathematical equations. [16]
Time: 3 hours
2. a) What is additive process? Explain the techniques present in additive process b) A cantilever beam having dimensions of (length: breadth: width) 100:2:2 micrometers, How much does beam bend in 1g gravity field? Assume necessary data. 3. a) Describe the principle behind electrostatic Comb Drives with a schematic. b) Elaborate the differences between additive process and subtractive process.
4. a) Dene toxicity. Describe the poisoning effects in clean rooms. b) Describe the types of poisons appeared in clean room process. c) What are the types of poisoning effects?
5. a) Brief the digital micro-mirror device and DLP technology. b) Detail the function of micro-mirror and its various applications.
6. Explain the concepts of scanning tunneling microscope (STM). Explain the factors affecting the tunneling current 7. a) Describe in the terms of the power is supplied for the MEMS and its technology. b) Explain the analogy between mechanical and electrical Resonators with an example
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[8+8]
[8+8]
[6+5+5]
[8+8]
[16]
[8+8]
8. a) Discuss on the reasons associated with reliability and cost of micro-system assembly. b) Describe with neat sketch of plastic-encapsulated microcircuits. 1 of 1
[8+8]
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Code No. K1121
R07
Set No.3
Time: 3 hours Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. a) With a neat schematic explain, how do we do MEMS? b) Explain wet etching with agitation and no agitation with schematic. 2. a) Explain the attractive forces between surfaces present in wet etching. b) Describe Critical point drying in micro matching.
Max. Marks: 80
[8+8]
3. a) Describe CMOS with an example. b) Draw and explain the CMOS inverter with a schematic.
4. Explain CMOS fabrication steps with simple schematics.
5. a) Explain the different types of optical switches with neat diagram. b) Discuss the merits and demerits of the optical switches.
6. a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of scanning probe microscopy. b) Explain about the atomic force microscope (AFM).
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[8+8]
[8+8]
[16]
[10+6]
[8+8]
7. a) List out the types of power used for MEMS and its advantages. b) Describe on thin lm batteries and its usage life, its advantages and disadvantages.
[8+8]
8. a) Explain on deterministic and stochastic process of MEMs processing. b) Mention the applications of Neural Microprobes 1 of 1
[8+8]
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Code No. K1121
R07
Set No.4
Time: 3 hours Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. a) When does one want to use wet etching and dry etching? b) Explain the Applications for bio- MEMS
Max. Marks: 80
[10+6]
2. a) What are the Applications for bio- MEMS? b) Explain the Advantages of MEMS and Nano Manufacturing.
3. a) Explain the methodologies used in MEMS post processing. b) Explain the packaging aspects of MEMS in medical area.
4. a) Explain the physics of ber ltration in clean rooms. b) Explain briey about High efficiency particulate air lters in clean rooms.
5. a) Explain the light valve and also grating technique used in it. b) State and explain Lens makers equation.
6. a) Describe the piezo resistance, material types used in MEMs. b) Explain about piezoresistivity, p-type material uses and application to MEMs.
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[8+8]
[8+8]
[8+8]
[8+8]
[8+8]
7. a) Define quality factor? How fast the energy dissipate in a MEMS resonators b) Differentiate between thin lm and micro uid cell.
[8+8]
8. a) Describe on hexsil process. Explain the various techniques involved in it. b) Explain briefly about MEMS Drug Delivery Devices
[8+8]
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Code No: K1921
R07
(Electronics & Computer Engineering)
Set No. 1
ADVANCED COMPUTER ARCHITECTURE
Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 80
1.
Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* (a) Summarize some of the most important functional requirements to be considered While designing a new computer. (b) Describe the quantitative principles of computer design for obtaining enhanced Of performance.
2. (a) What is the role of a compiler in advanced systems? How the architect can help the compiler writer? (b) Describe the addressing modes usually used for signal processing operations. 3. (a) What is data Hazards? Give the different possible data Hazards. (b) Describe the steps involved in instruction execution using hardware based speculation. 4. (a) Explain how loop unrolling enhances the processors ability in instruction level parallelism. (b) Describe the five primary approaches for multiple issue processors (ILP) to eliminate data and control stalls and also give their characteristics. 5. (a) How the performance of cache memory is measured ? What are the reasons for high miss rates ? (b) Describe the six basic cache optimizations, for improving its performance.
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Code No: K1921
R07
Set No. 1
6. (a) What is multiprocessor cache coherence ? Describe basic schemes for enforcing coherence. (b) Explain the basic synchronization mechanism lock and unlock. 7. Summarize the fine standard levels of RAID levels, showing how eight disks of user data must be Supplemented by redundant or check disks at each RAID level. 8. Write short notes on the following. (a) Designing a cluster (b) Multithreading (c) Limitation of ILP
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Code No: K1921
R07
Set No. 2
Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. (a) Describe the two important quantifiable metrics to measure dependability of computer systems (b) Define Amdahls law. How speed up of a computer system be estimated with some enhancement made in the processor. (c) Derive the processor performance equation. 2. (a) What are the competing forces that should be balanced when encoding an instruction set? (b) Give the structure of a recent compiler. (c) Describe, with example, displacement and indexed addressing modes. 3. (a) Differentiate among three :data dependences, name dependences and control dependences. Give examples. (b) Describe how static branch prediction reduces the branch costs. 4. (a) Compare and contrast Hardware verses software solutions for elimination of data and control Hazards. (b) Describe the advanced techniques for increasing instruction delivery BW and for implementing a speculation. 5. (a) Describe the mechanism for protecting processes from each other via virtual memory. (b) What is the impact of virtual machines on virtual memory and I/O. 1 of 2
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Code No: K1921
R07
Set No. 2
6. (a) What are the limitations in symmetric shared memory multiprocessors. (b) Show the way in which processors and memory modules are connected using inter connection network In a multiprocessor system with uniform memory access. (c ) How cache coherence is implemented in distributed memory multiprocessors. 7. (a) What is the relation between faults, errors and failure in a storage system point of view. (b) Classify the 4 different categories of faults. (c) Describe the transaction processing bench marks in a storage device. 8. Write a short notes on the following (a) Designing a I/O system (b) Practical issues in interconnecting networks (c) Internet Archive cluster
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Code No: K1921
R07
Set No. 3
Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. (a) Describe the quantitative principles of computer design. (b) Describe atleast 4 parameters that can be used as a measure of performance of computers. (c) What is the role of bench marks in measuring performance of computers?
2. (a) Describe at least three addressing modes used for control flow instructions. (b) Name the optimizations, performed by modern compilers, based on the style of the transformation. (c) Describe the operations that can be supported by most instruction set architectures. 3. (a) What are the major hurdles of pipelining? Name the techniques that can help to reduce these hurdles. (b) How pipeline deals with branch instructions for a consistent performance? 4. (a) Describe the methodology for reducing branch costs in ILP, with prediction. (b) Is it possible to reduce the value of performance index, CPI, below one ? If yes,explain how? (c) What are the primary approaches, in use, for multiple issue processors, for hazard detection. 5. (a) Describe the techniques for reducing the miss penalty for obtaining better cache performance and explain any one of the techniques in detail. (b) Name any three techniques used for increasing the cache bandwidth .Explain one of the techniques in detail. 1 of 2
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Code No: K1921
R07
Set No. 3
6. (a) Give the basic structure of a centralized shared memory multiprocessor. (b) Differentiate between loosely coupled and tightly coupled multiprocessors. (c) Explain the multi threading in ILP. 7. (a) Name the restrictions on response time of I/O systems along with their throughout metrics. (b) Name the designing and evaluating goals of an I/O system. (c) Name the 6 RAID levels and give the pros and cons of each of the levels. 8. Write a short notice on the following. a) Congestion management in Interconnection networks. b) Internet archive cluster.
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Code No: K1921
R07
Set No. 4
Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. (a) How the performance results of a computer system is reported? (b) Describe the principle of locality. (c) Name the parameters that dictates the performance of a processor. Discuss the ways to achieve the best performance index.
2. (a) Name the 3 most common types of general purpose register computers. Give their relative advantages and disadvantages . (b) Describe the two addressing modes auto increment and auto decrement with example instructions along with their meaning and usefulness. 3. (a) Describe, how to overcome data hazards with dynamic scheduling. (b) What are the 3 key ideas used by hardware based speculation to achieve more instruction level Parallelism? How does it maintain control dependency? 4. (a) Describe the basic VLIW approach for achieving good CPI index. (b) Describe the advanced speculation techniques used in ILP for high performance pipeline. 5. (a) Name at least 8 advanced optimizations of cache performance. (b) Describe how hardware prefetching technique reduces the cache miss ratio . (c) Name three techniques used for reducing the hit time so as to improve cache performance . 1 of 2
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Code No: K1921
R07
Set No. 4
6. (a) Give the basic architecture of a distributed memory multiprocessor system. (b) What fraction of the original computation can be sequential, to achieve a speed up 80 with 100 processors? (c) Explain a synchronization mechanism in distributed shared memory. 7. (a) Name at least 4 transaction processing council benchmarks for I/O system. (b) How the I/O system performance can be evaluated? (c) Differentiate between synchronous I/O and Asynchronous I/O. 8. Write a short notice on the following. (a) Characteristics and practical issues of inter connection networks. (b) Design methodology of a cluster.
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Code No: K2121
R07
Set No. 1
IV B.Tech. II Semester Regular Examinations, April, 2011 AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS AND INSTRUMENTATION (Aeronautical Engineering)
Time: 3 Hours Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. Describe, with neat sketches, a hydraulic system in an aircraft. 2. Write short notes on the following: (a) Vapor cycle system (Freon). (b) Oxygen regulators. (c) Fire extinguisher. (d) Need of cabin pressurization. Max Marks: 80
3. (a) Explain Rigging of an airplane. (b) List out and explain in detail various control system components which one may come across during rigging of an aero plane. 4. Explain the functioning of a communication system in an aircraft. Why is it required? 5. a) What is the function of `Mechanical anti-icing' system? b) Explain `Thermal Anti-icing' system for an airliner. 6. a) Why does an oxygen system is listed under aircraft Utility Systems? b) With the help of a rough sketch explain a typical oxygen system for a light twin engine airplane. 7. Explain the vapor cycle system of an air conditioning unit in an aircraft.
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[16] [16]
[8] [8]
[16]
[8+8] [8] [8] [16] [6] [10]
8. (a) What is meant by Fuel sediments? (b) Explain various quality check tests to be carried out on Aviation fuel. 1 of 1
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Code No: K2121
R07
Set No. 2
Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. Compare and contrast the two hydraulic systems-open systems and closed systems. 2. a) Define the term Mach number and explain how airspeed indicator is modified as Mach meter. b) Describe the working of a pitot-static pressure sensing probe. 3. Using a schematic layout of analog air data computer, explain the operation of a fully powered airplane control system.
4. Describe the functioning of VOR (Very High frequency Omni-Range) System? [16] 5. a) Draw the diagram of a vapour cycle cooling system and explain. b) How does a basic air cycle system differs from vapour cycle cooling system? 6. a) Explain a simple cabin heating and de-frosting system of a basic trainer air-plane. b) Explain in detail the working of a aircraft ventilating system. 7. Explain the need for limiting the pressure differential between the inside of the cabin and outside of the cabin at different altitudes. 8. a) What is the principle of operation of altitude alerting system. b) Explain the Q-code for altimeter setting as per ICAO.
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[16]
[8] [8]
[16]
[8] [8]
[8] [8]
[16] [8] [8]
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Code No: K2121
R07
Set No. 3
Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. Describe in detail the different types of Pumps in the hydraulic system of an aircraft. 2. a) With the help of a schematic arrangement explain how a Digital Air Data Computer (ADC) works in the aircraft. b) Describe the Auto-pilot system in detail.
3. a) Explain the reasons for designing a stall warning indicator. b) Draw a schematic diagram and explain take-off warning system of an airliner. 4. Discuss the flight control and monitoring requirements of an aircraft. 5. a) With the help of a neat sketch explain the working of the retractive system for landing gear assembly in an aircraft. b) Describe the working principle of a pneumatic braking system employed in aircraft. 6. a) How does a photo-electric cell detector work in a fire suppression circuit. b) With the help of a block diagram, explain the fire extinguisher circuit of Jet Aircraft. 7. Write short notes on: a) Water separators in cabin-air conditioning system. b) Oxygen generation. 8. a) Write about various protection systems, which are found commonly in use with Aircraft electric systems. b) Draw a diagram and explain `Differential relay' in aircraft electrics.
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[16]
[8] [8] [8] [8] [16]
[8] [8] [8] [8]
[8] [8]
[8] [8]
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Code No: K2121
R07
Set No. 4
Time: 3 Hours Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. Explain the different types of values in an aircraft hydraulic system. 2. Write short notes on the following: a) Oxygen masks. b) Basic air-conditioning. c) Fire extinguisher d) Ventilation system. Max Marks: 80
3. a) Using a schematic layout explain the functioning of a typical fly-by-wire system interfacing a digital computer and Air?engine data flow. b) Compare conventional control systems with power assisted flight control sys-tems. 4. Describe the navigation systems in a modern aircraft. 5. a) List out the parameters that are to be monitored during the operation of an aero engine. b) Explain a supervisory electronic engine control system of a modern airplane with a schematic layout. 6. a) List out the requirements of fire protection system. b) Draw the wiring diagram for the fire warning system for smaller aircraft and explain. 7. Explain the air conditioning system of an airliner with the help of a block diagram. 8. Write short notes on the following: a) Scavenge oil system. b) Flash point of lubricating oil. c) Fuel dump system. d) Oil dilution systems. 1 of 1
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[16] [16]
[8] [8] [16]
[8] [8] [8] [8]
[16] [16]
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Code No: K2221
R07
Set No. 1
IV B.Tech II Semester Regular Examinations, April 2011 DISTRIBUTED COMPUTER CONTROL SYSTEMS (Instrumentation And Control Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks
1. What is data highway system and mention its application in distributed computer control system? [16] 2. Draw the block diagram of a digital PID controller with single input signal and derive the control law. [16] 3. Write in detail about:
(a) Centralized, Decentralized $ Multilevel optimizing structures (b) Online Hierarchical Control.
4. Draw a block diagram to model a virtual interface transducer. Consider an air heater system. [16] 5. Explain the major dierences between SDRTS and SRSS.
6. What are critical sections and explain damage containment due to faults in multi tasking system. [16] 7. Write in detail about expert systems and describe this with a suitable example. [16] 8. Explain two phase commit protocol for site failure (due to local lock) in a non replicated distributed data base. [16]
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[6+10]
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Code No: K2221
R07
Set No. 2
1. What are the advantages of distributed systems and mention its signicance in present day technology? [16] 2. How do you interface digital control system with distributed computing system with suitable diagram? [16] 3. Write the similarities between open loop and closed loop strategy and mention their advantages and disadvantages. [16] 4. Draw a neat diagram and explain the structure of SDRTS notation (Structured Design of Real Time Systems) what are the bubbles and what do the directed lines represent? [16] 5. Mention the important concepts in real time control systems and mention the advantages of implementing this system. [16] 6. Explain the problem of synchronization in replicated distributed data base. How is the inconsistency amongst the replicas is tackled? [16] 7. Draw a sector diagram and explain the services rendered by the RTOS kernel. [16] 8. Explain with suitable examples the following issues related to design of distributed data base: (a) Data partition
(b) Data fragmentation (c) Data Replication. [5+5+6]
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Code No: K2221
R07
Set No. 3
1. Write about data highway system with suitable examples.
[16]
2. Explain a distribuited and hierarchical Micro Computer System with neat diagram. [16] 3. What do you mean by supervising control systems and how it is implemented in practical system and explain briey? [16] 4. How an integrated system is useful to make distributed system more ecient and mention how these systems are interrelated? [16] 5. Explain briey (a) MASCOT Kernel
(b) MASOT ACP Diagram.
6. How faults in distributed system are cleared and mention any method?
7. Write in detail about expert systems in distributed systems and mention its importance. [16] 8. Explain Briey the issuses in Distribuited data base systems.
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Code No: K2221
R07
Set No. 4
1. Write about real time, system time in a computer controlled process. What is the signicance of real time operating system? [16] 2. How do you use digital controller in DAC system and explain in detail with suitable gures? [16] 3. Write in detail about the 4 layer hierarchical system with the help of a functional diagram. [16] 4. What is an Essential model? Describe the methods recommended by Ward and Mellor for checking the correctness of the essential model. [16] 5. Explain the major dierences between SDRTS and SRSS.
6. Write in detail about fault tolerance and mention its eects with suitable theory. [16] 7. Draw a sector diagram and explain the services rendered by the RTOS kernel. [16] 8. What is synchronization and mention its importance in real time system?
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Code No: K2321
R07
(Bio-Technology)
Set No. 1
ANIMAL CELL SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. Give a detailed illustration on somatic cell nuclear transfer technique. Mention the potential importance of this technique in future stem cell therapy. 2. Give an account on a) CO2 incubator b) Micromanipulator c) Flourescent Activated Cell sorter
3. Make a difference between culture medium and growth medium. What is the importance of serum in growth medium? 4. Explain in detail about varoius organ culture techniques with limitations. 5. What is cytotoxicity? Explain the various methods employed for measuring cytotoxicity in cell culture? 6. Explain about a) Microcarrier culture b) Culture based vaccines c) Passaging of monolayer 7. Discuss in detail about tissue engineering by giving a note on importance of scaffolds. 8. Give a neat and labelled representation on programmed cell death.
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Code No: K2321
R07
(Bio-Technology)
Set No. 2

Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. What are caspases? Give a neat illustration on programmed cell death by giving importance of caspases in execution of apoptosis. 2. Make a) b) c) differences between Organ culture and histotypic culture Finite cell line and continous or established cell line Emryonic stem cells and adult stem cells
3. Give a neat representation on passaging of monolayers and suspension cultures by giving a note on importance of passaging. 4. Discuss in detail about various practices involved in scale up of mammalian cell culture with applications and limitations. 5. Give an account on lab layout for mammalian cell culture and essential equipments used in. 6. Write in short about a) Serum free media b) Somatic cell genetics 7. Give a neat representation on following a) Centrifugal elutriator b) Micromanipulator c) Hemocytometer 8. Discuss about a) Cell synchronization b) Cell cloning 1 of 1
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Code No: K2321
R07
(Bio-Technology) Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks *******
Set No. 3

1. Write short notes on a) Microcarrier culture b) Somatic cell nuclear transfer
2. Make difference between embyonic and adult stem cells. How embryonic stem cells can be the future tools in therapeutic treatment. 3. Write in detail about a) Mitochondria mediated apoptotic pathway b) Caspases and their importance
4. What is the importance of transformation in cell culture? Explain in detail about various methods used in building transformed cell lines. 5. Write in short about a) Enzymatic disagregation methods b) Scaffolds and their importance in tissue engineering. 6. Explain in detail about a) Balanced salt solution b) Serum as a growth medium c) Laminar air flow unit 7. Enumerate the importance of characterization of a cell line by adding note on various methods used for characterization. 8. Write in detail about a) Methods used in measuring the growth of mammalian cells. b) Chemical blockade methods in cell synchronization. 1 of 1
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Code No: K2321
R07
(Bio-Technology) Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks *******
Set No. 4

1. Write in detail about a) Stem cell culture b) Organ culture c) Microcarrier culture
2. Discuss in brief about the role of different constituents in maintenance of chemical physical and metabolic functions in culture medium. 3. Explain in detail about a) MTT assay b) Cell cloning c) Isozyme analysis
4. Write in detail about various methods involved in cell seperation with neat diagramatic representation. 5. Write in short about a) Transformation by using oncogenes b) Subculturing by using trypsin c) Measuring growth by using particle counter
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6. Apoptosis is a natural phenomena. Justify the statement and discuss about death receptor pathway in programmed cell death. 7. Write in short about a) Somatic cell hybridization b) Cell synchronization 8. Write in detail about tissue engineering by giving a note on importance in future therapies. 1 of 1
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Code No: K0121

IV B.Tech. II Semester Regular Examinations, April, 2011

ADVANCED STRUCTURAL DESIGN (Civil Engineering)

Code No: K0121

IV B.Tech. II Semester Regular Examinations, April, 2011

ADVANCED STRUCTURAL DESIGN (Civil Engineering)

Code No: K0121

IV B.Tech. II Semester Regular Examinations, April, 2011

ADVANCED STRUCTURAL DESIGN (Civil Engineering)

Code No: K0121

IV B.Tech. II Semester Regular Examinations, April, 2011

ADVANCED STRUCTURAL DESIGN (Civil Engineering)

Code No: K0122

IV B.Tech. II Semester Regular Examinations, April, 2011

GROUND WATER DEVELOPMENT AND MANAGEMENT

Code No: K0122

Code No: K0122

IV B.Tech. II Semester Regular Examinations, April, 2011

GROUND WATER DEVELOPMENT AND MANAGEMENT

Code No: K0122

Code No: K0122

IV B.Tech. II Semester Regular Examinations, April, 2011

GROUND WATER DEVELOPMENT AND MANAGEMENT

Code No: K0122

Code No: K0122

IV B.Tech. II Semester Regular Examinations, April, 2011

GROUND WATER DEVELOPMENT AND MANAGEMENT

Code No: K0122

Code No: K0123

IV B.Tech. II Semester Regular Examinations, April, 2011

ENVIRONMENTAL IMPACT ASSESSMENT AND MANAGEMENT

Code No: K0123

IV B.Tech. II Semester Regular Examinations, April, 2011

ENVIRONMENTAL IMPACT ASSESSMENT AND MANAGEMENT

Code No: K0123

IV B.Tech. II Semester Regular Examinations, April, 2011

ENVIRONMENTAL IMPACT ASSESSMENT AND MANAGEMENT

Code No: K0123

IV B.Tech. II Semester Regular Examinations, April, 2011

ENVIRONMENTAL IMPACT ASSESSMENT AND MANAGEMENT

Code No: K0221

IV B.Tech. II Semester Regular Examinations, April, 2011

UTILIZATION OF ELECTRICAL ENERGY

Code No: K0221

1 1 1 3600 D Vm + = 1 , where the symbols have their usual meaning. 2 2 Vm Va

Code No: K0221

IV B.Tech. II Semester Regular Examinations, April, 2011

UTILIZATION OF ELECTRICAL ENERGY

Code No: K0221

Code No: K0221

IV B.Tech. II Semester Regular Examinations, April, 2011

UTILIZATION OF ELECTRICAL ENERGY

Code No: K0221

Code No: K0221

IV B.Tech. II Semester Regular Examinations, April, 2011

UTILIZATION OF ELECTRICAL ENERGY

Code No: K0221

Code No: K0321

IV B.Tech. II Semester Regular Examinations, April, 2011

PRODUCTION PLANNING AND CONTROL (Mechanical Engineering)

5 6 7 6000 1200 120 0.04