MODEL - II

Bank PO
General Awareness
1. In India, central banking functions are performed by 1) Central Bank of India 2) Reserve Bank of India 3) State Bank of India 4) Punjab National Bank 5) None of these 2. Development expenditure of the Central government does not include 1) Defence expenditure 2) Expenditure on economic services 3) Expenditure on social and community services 4) Grant to states 5) None of these 3. Gilt-edged market means 1) Bullion market 2) Market of government securities 3) Market of guns 4) Market of pure metals 5) None of these 4. In the last one decade, which of the following sectors has attracted the highest foreign direct investment inflows in India? 1) Chemicals other than fertilizers 2) Service sector 3) Food processing 4) Telecommunication 5) None of these 5. The Reserve Bank of India calculates four components of money suppy - M l , M2, M3 and M4. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding these components? 1) Ml = Currency with public + Demand deposits with banks 2) M2 = M1 + Post office savings deposit 3)M3=M1+M2 4) M4 = M3 +Total post office deposits 5) None of these 6. Devaluation of a currency means 1) reduction in the value of a currency vis-a-vis major internationally-traded currencies 2) permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market 3) fixing the value of the currency in conjunction with the movement in the value of a basket of pre* determined currencies 4) fixing the value of a currency in multilateral consultations with the IMF, the World Bank and other major trading partners 5) None of these 7. In the second nationalisation of commercial banks, banks were nationalised. l)Four 2) Five 3)Six 4) Eight 5) None of these 8. Since independence, both development and nondevelopment expenditures have increased; the increase in 9. the former being a little more than that in the latter. Nondevelopment expenditure involves I. Interest payments II. Subsidies III. Defence IV. Irrigation 1) Only I and II 2) Only I 3) Only I, II and III 4) Only II and III 5) All the above Depreciation means 1) closure of a plant due to lock-out 2) closure of a plant due to labour trouble 3) loss of equipment over time due to wear and tear 4) destruction of a plant in a fire accident 5) None of these Deficit financing leads to inflation in general, but it can be checked if 1) government expenditure leads to increase in aggregate supply with respect to aggregate demand 2) only aggregate demand is increased 3) all the expenditure is denoted as national debt payment only 4) All the above 5) None of these If all the banks in an economy are nationalised and converted into a monopoly bank, the total deposits 1) will decrease 2) will increase 3) will neither increase nor decrease 4) will depend on market scenario 5) None of these The association of the rupee with pound sterling as the intervention currency was broken in 1)1990 2)1991 3)1992 4)1993 5)1995 Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? 1) Kalinga Award - Popularisation of science 2) David Cohen Award - Literature 3) Borlaug Award - Agriculture 4) Pulitzer - Progress in religion 5) All the above One of the reasons for India'^ occupational structure remaining more or less the same over the years has been that 1) investment pattern has been directed towards capitalintensive industries 2) productivity in agriculture has been high enough to induce people to stay with agriculture 3) ceiling on land holdings have enabled more people to own land and hence their preference to stay with agriculture 4) people are largely unaware of the significance of transition from agriculture to industry for economic development 5) None of these
JULY 2011

10.

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12. 13.

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57 BANKING SERVICES CHRONICLE

15. Gross domestic capital formation is defined as 1) flow of expenditure devoted to increase or maintain capital stock 2) expenditure incurred on physical assets only 3) production exceeding the demand 4) net addition to stock after depreciation 5) None of these 16. On July 12, 1982, the Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC) was merged into 1)RBI 2)NABARD 3)EXIMBank 4) None of above 5) All the above 17. Which of the following is the most appropriate cause of export surplus? 1) Country's exports promotion value 2) Country's stringent import policy 3) Developments in national and international markets 4) None of the above 5) All the above 18. If cash reserve ratio is lowered by the RBI, its impact on credit creation will be to 1) increase it 2) decrease it 3) No impact 4) None of the above 5) All the above 19. The currency convertibility concept in its original form originated in 1) Well Agreement 2) Bretton Woods Agreement 3) Taylors Agreement 4) None of the above 5) All the above 20. In the state of India, the State Financial Corporation have given assistance mainly to develop 1) agricultural farms 2) cottage industry 3) large-scale industries 4) medium and small-scale industries 5) None of these 21. The central co-operative banks are in direct touch with 1) farmers 2) state co-operative banks 3) land development banks 4) Central Government 5) None of these 22. The first wholly Indian bank was set up in 1)1794 2)1894 3)1896 4)1902 5) None of these 23. States earn maximum revenue through 1) land revenue 2) custom revenue 3) commercial taxes 4) excise duties on intoxicants 5) None of these 24. Our financial system has provided for the transfer of resources from the Centre to the states; the important means of resource transfer are 1) tax sharing 2) grant-in-aids 3) loans 4) All the above 5) None of these 25. Debenture holders of a company are its 1) shareholders 2) creditors 3) debtors 4) directors 5) None of these 26. The iconic spiritual leader Sri Sathya Sai Baba passed away at Puttaparthi in district of Andhra Pradesh, leaving behind millions of mourning devotees in India and abroad and a sprawling system of

educational, medical and philanthropic services that has huge resources at its command. He was 85 years old. 1) Hyderabad 2)Nasik 3)Anantapur 4) Warangal 5) None of these 27. Name the prominent leader of farmers and Bharatiya Kisan Union (BKU) who died recently. 1) Mahendra Singh Tikait 2) Shared Joshi 3) Sukhbir Singh 4) Om Prakash Chautala 5) None of these 28. The Gujarat Co-operative Milk Marketing Federation (GCMMF), which markets the brand, has been awarded for the best environment initiative in the "sustainability category". The award was given by International Dairy Federation. l)Parag 2) Saras 3)Amul 4) Mother Dairy 5) None of these 29. Who among the following has won the Asian Snooker Championship held in Indore recently? 1) Sergelen Batdelger 2) Pankaj Advani 3) Geet Sethi 4) Manan Chandra 5) None of these 30. India's first legal clinic was inaugurated at Firojpur Nanak village in Mewat district of which of the following states? l)Haryana 2) UP 3) MP 4) Bihar 5) None of these 31. Name the Bahujan Samaj Party MLA who has been sentenced to life imprisonment along with nine others for murdering an engineer who refused to pay extortion money for Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister Mayawati's birthday celebrations. 1) Shekhar Tiwari 2) Manoj Tiwari 3) Mukhtar Ansari 4) Arun Kumar'Shukla 5) None of these 32. India plans to increase its allocation for health to 2%-3% of its GDP over the next years. Public spending on health was 0.94% of the GDP in 2004-05, which was among the lowest in the world. Private expenditure on health in India is about 78% as compared to 14% in the Maldives, 29% in Bhutan, 53% in Sri Lanka, 31% in Thailand and 61 % in China. l)One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Five 5) None of these 33. Who has been appointed as the new chief minister of Arunachal Pradesh? 1) PK Thungan 2) Tomo Riba 3) Jarbom Gamlin 4) Mukut Mithi 5) None of these 34. Members of Parliament can soon spend up to every year from their local area development fund for giving assistance to the physically challenged. This provision will come into effect from June 1,2011. The physically challenged can use the money for purchase of tricycles and artificial limbs only after proper verification from chief medical officer. l)`51akh 2)`101akh 3)`15 lakh 4)`20 lakh 5) None of these 35. Name the legendary Spanish golfer who died recently.

1) Seve Ballesteroa 2) Francisco Abreu 3) Sergio Garcia 4) Jose Manull Lara 5) None of these 36. Criticising the approach of the Mayawati government towards literature, name the noted poet and chairperson of Lalit Kala Akademi who has rejected the highest literary honour of Uttar Pradesh Hindi Sansthan, the Bharat Bharati Samman. l)Ashok Vajpayee 2)MamataKalia 3) Rajendra Yadav 4) Manager Pandey 5) None of these 37. Name the world's most wanted terrorist who was killed on May 2,2011, in Pakistan. 1) Osama bin Laden 2) Adam Yahye Gadhahn 3) Ayman al-Zawahiri 4) Ilyas Kashmiri 5) None of these 38. Name the operation which was undertaken by the US in Pakistan to kill Osama bin Laden. l)Geronimo 2) Hurricane 3) Last resort 4) Enduring justice 5) None of these 39. The world's population is projected to surge past before 2050 and then reach 10.1 billion by the end of the century if current fertility rates continue, according to the United Nations. Most of the increase will come from so-called "high fertility countries", mainly in sub-Saharan Africa and also from some nations in Asia, Oceania and Latin America. 1)5 billion 2) 9 billion 3) 11 billion 4) 12 billion 5) None of these 40. Name the Qatar-based news channel whose English service will be awarded the highest honour of New York's Columbia School of Journalism for its coverage of unrest in the Middle East. 1)A1-Arabia 2)A1-Jazeera 3)A1-Hilal 4) Al-Nasr 5) None of these 41. Relaxing norms for payments using mobile phones, known as m-wallet, the Reserve Bank has increased the limit of money-loading to `50,000 from the existing limit of 1)`5,000 2)`10,000 3)`15,000 4)`25,000 5) None of these 42. India has set a target to more than double its merchandise exports to in the next three years, banking on the increased demand for Indian engineering, pharma and chemical products in emerging markets. Commerce and Industry Minister Anand Sharma released a paper that detailed the strategy for doubling exports in three years. l)$500billion 2) $1000 billion 3)$1500billion 4) $2000 billion 5) None of these 43. Which is the second State in the country after Bihar, to officially oppose the genetically modified organisms? 1)UP 2) MP 3)AP 4) Kerala 5) None of these 44. Maldivians took to the streets in Male against the

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

government's decision to allow the Maldivian currency, the , to "float" in a 20 per cent band which, in effect, devalued it by 20 per cent. The Maldives imports all its essentials and fuels and the move has hit citizens hard. 1) Rival 2) Dinar 3)Rifiya 4)Dirham 5) None of these The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has built a supercomputer which will be India's fastest in terms of theoretical peak performance of220 TeraFLOPS (220 Trillion Floating Point Operations Per Second). Named , it is located at the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre in Thiruvananthapuram. 1) Satish Dhawan Super Computing Facility 2) HJ Bhabha Super Computing Facility 3) CV Raman Super Computing Facility 4) Jagdish Bose Super Computing Facility 5) None of these Name the former British and European heavyweight boxing champion who died two days short of his 77th birthday. He was at his peak during the 1960s and is best remembered for a defeat by Cassius Clay, later Muhammad Ali, in a non-title fight at Wembley in 1963. 1) Nigel Benn 2) Chris Eubank 3) Henry Cooper 4) John Conteh 5) None of these Who has been appointed as the new chief minister of West Bengal? l)MamataBanerjee 2) Sudip Bandopadhyay 3) Sultan Ahmed 4) Partha Chaterj ee 5) None of these Who has been appointed as the new chief minister of Tamil Nadu? 1) VR Nedunchezhiyan 2) J Jayalalithaa 3) O Pannerselvam 4) M Karunanidhi 5) None of these Who has been appointed as the new chief minister of Kerala? 1) VS Achuthanandan 2) AK Antony 3) K Karunakaran 4) Oommen Chandy 5) None of these Who has been appointed as the new chief minister of Puducherry? 1) N Rangasamy 2) V Senthil Balaji 3)CVShanmugam 4) KA Senkottaiyan 5) None of these

English
Directions (Q. 51-65): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases in the passage are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. In a country where consumers have traditionally had a raw deal, the Consumer Protection Act was one of the most progressive acts of legislation introduced in 1986. Before this, a shop could get away easily with the line "goods once sold will not be taken back or exchanged" or a car parking

contractor with "park at your own risk". It is not that things have changed now but at least a legislation is in place and a f o r u m is available to seek r e d r e s s a l . One of the basic limitations of this act is its mystification and general ignorance. No consumer agency or group has made its provisions general, nor has any redressal commission or forum. Restricted as it is by a l a c k o f i n f r a s t r u c t u r e a n d p e r s o n n e l a n d g r e a t v e r d i c t s to encourage consumers. The legislation is comprehensive. It gives consumers the right to redress against defective goods, deficient services and unfair trade practices. Consumer courts must deliver their judgments within 40 days, but rarely is this deadline adhered to. This reviewer had a first-hand experience of the chairman of a consumer court in Delhi who a d j o u r n e d a case against a foreign airline for two years on the grounds that he did not have staff to type the orders. His replacement found the backlog so shocking that he dismissed several cases without applying his mind, in the process working against the interests of consumers. But what is more important is that the law has it that a consumer can approach court on his own without having to pay legal fees. In practice, this does not happen. The chairperson of the National Commission, who is a sitting judge, is so a t t u n e d to delivering judgments which can stand scrutiny in a civil court of law that it is insisted upon that a consumer must be represented by a lawyer. If not, cases are adjourned with i m p u n i t y and set for another day. Girimaji's attempt is creditable in that it is the first of its kind and has addressed almost all possible angles. She has discussed redressals in complaints about housing, basic telephony, rail transportation, power supply, life insurance and medical negligence. There are even tips on how to file a complaint. But it is m i r e d in the case files of the National/ State Commissions of the Consumer Forum. A useful dimension would have been a comparison with the Law of Torts practised abroad. It is necessary here also, especially in an era of economic liberalisation, when the c o n s u m e r i s l i k e l y t o b e s w e p t o f f h i s f e e t by free-market forces. 51. Why is the consumer likely to be swept off his feet? 1) He is easily taken in by the deceptive publicity. 2) He is wooed by the charm of foreign brands readily available in the market. 3) He is not aware of the Law of Torts as practised abroad. 4) He is not aware of the benefits of the consumer rights. 5) The Consumer Protection Act has been implemented and he can seek redressal. 52. What does 'lack of... verdicts' imply? 1) A lack of the basis of the system, trained staff and decisions based on fact 2) A paucity of funds, jury and judgement 3) A lack of resources, employees and final decision based on facts 4) Not having the required manpower, economy and decisive ruling 5) None of these 53. Which of the following statements is/are true? A. Girimaji's attempt is comprehensive but could have done with an angle or two more.

B. Though the Act allows the consumer to approach the court on his own, yet a lawyer to represent him is insisted upon. C Despite the Act, much remains the same. l)OnlyAandC 2)OnlyAandB 3)AHA,BandC 4) Only B and C 5) None of these 54. What does the author mean by 'mystification of the Act'? 1) The mysterious Act is yet to be resolved. 2) The consumer is wary of the Act. 3) The Act is not easily accessible. 4) The consumer remains unaware of his rights and privileges. 5) The plight of the consumer is yet to end. 55. Which of the following best describes the judge's replacement? 1) He was partial towards the airline as it was a foreign one. 2) He never bothered to safeguard the interests of the reviewer. 3) He dismissed cases without even giving a second thought to what cases came to him. 4) He was apathetic and uninterested about the direction the case might head in. 5) He passed irrelevant verdicts indifferently. 56. What does the Act broadly cover? 1) It protects the right to redress. 2) It is a forum that protects the redresser. 3) It shields the consumer from deceptive and unfair trade practices. 4) It enables the plaintiff to fight his case free of cost. 5) None of these 57. Which of the following is a limitation of the Act? 1) It does not cover the international law of torts. 2) It is not comprehensive with regard to liberal economy. 3) No forum or commission has come forward to bring it to light. 4) Its red-tapism 5) None of these 58. How has Girimaj i's attempt been creditable? 1) It has given the Act a new dimension. 2) She has brought all the loopholes in the Act to the consumer's notice. 3) She has looked at the Act in a very disinterested and impersonal manner. 4) She has discussed the law in the most explicit manner. 5) Her implicit dialogue with the consumer has made him aware of his rights. 59. What is the functionary role of the chairman of the National Commission? 1) To be the titular head of the commission 2) To be accountable to the public 3) To prevent any dissent arising out of his verdicts and Acts 4) To adjourn the cases with impunity 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 60-62): Choose the word which is most SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 60. Forum l)Dias 2) Podium. 3) Platform 4) Stage 5) None of these 61. Attuned 1) Brought into harmony 2) Adjusted 3) Hazardous 4) Out of tune 5) Malpractice 62. Adjourned 1) Stopped 2) Postponed 3) Decided 4) Cleared 5)Pended Directions (Q. 63-65): Select the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 63. Impunity 1) Penalised 2) Fine 3) Sentence 4) Freedom from punishment 5) None of these 64. Mired 1) Buried 2) Muddy 3) Steeped 4) Free 5) None of these 65. Redressal l)Plea 2) Justice 3) Sue for compensation 4) Not to compensate 5) Put right Directions (Q. 66-70): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 5), ie No error. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) 66. 1) Salma had no other/ 2) hobby than that/ 3) of wearing dresses of / 4) the latest design./ 5) No error 67. 1) Being a rainy day,/ 2) Rakesh decided to stay/ 3) and work further/ 4) on the problem./ 5) No error 68. 1) A five-star hotel/ 2) is to build/ 3) in the centre I A) of the city. / 5) No error 69. 1) The report said/ 2) that the judge acquitted/ 3) him of all/ 4) the charges. 5) No error 70. 1) In spite of being / 2) very busy/ 3) she saves time/ 4) for the visitors./ 5) No error Directions (Q. 71-80): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. The researchers 71 tiny bubbles into the beaker, and 72 them with sound waves. The bubbles rapidly expanded and then 73. It caused a momentary shock wave that created high pressure, high temperature and a 74 of light. Achieving 75 nuclear fusion would be a scientific 76 if not the 77. The experiment produced only 78 amount of energy, but scientists feel it might be possible to enlarge the 79 to a commercially 80 scale. 71. 1) poured 2) introduced 3) filled 4) thrust 5) pulled 72. 1) zapped 2) collided 3) hit 4)axed 5)sunk

73. 1) vanished 2) fell 3) collapsed 4) swooned 5)sunk 74. 1) flame 2) flash 3) current 4) beam 5) spot 75. 1) sustainable 2) tenable 3) therefore 4) culpable 5) commendation 2) landmark 3) milestone 76. 1) pinnacle 5) commendation 4) earmark 77. 1) final 2) curtain call 3) road 4) finals 5) finality 2) miniature 3) sweeping 78. l)fit 5) massive 4) minuscule 79. 1) method 2) technology 3) proceeds 4) experimentation 5) process 80. 1) success 2) massive 3) manageable 4) marketable 5) viable Directions (Q. 81-90): In each of the following sentences there are certain blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five options denoted by the numbers 1,2,3,4 and 5. Find out which option can used to fill up the blank in the sentence in the same sequence to make it meaningfully complete. 81. Every human being is to the Almighty. 1) faithful 2) approachable 3) responsible 4) accountable 5) None of these 82. I don't know where he is, but I could ' a guess. 1) suggest 2) attempt 3) estimate 4) give 5) None of these 83. We must trade with neighbouring country. l)add 2) promote 3) enter 4) deal 5) None of these 84. Though of many acquaintances, I prefer only with a few. 1) want, close 2) bunch, intimate 3) fond, intimacy 4) like, closeness 5) None of these 85. It is really surprising why my car always has troubles, whenever I to go to the cinema. 1) imagine 2) decide 3) wanted 4) prefer 5) None of these 86. He appealed to the president as a last . 1) solution 2) route ' 3) method 4) resort 5) None of these 87. She has been ill but now she is back in __. 1) circle 2) work 3) motion 4) move 5) None of these 88.- Roshan and his wife were from the hospital1) released 2) relieved 3) left 4) discharged 5) None of these 89. The cashier, along with his , has been indicted in a case of . 1) colleague, speculation 2) subordinate, fraudulent 3) accomplice, hoax 4) associate, embezzlement 5) None of these 90. Appropriate dosage of correct will the pain. 1) medicine, elude 2) meditation, ameliorate 3) medicine, alleviate 4) recommendation, lessen 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 91-95): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below. A. I, on my own, cannot make the trip. B. We do write letters to each other. C So, my friends have recently sent me an air ticket. D. Some of my friends stay in the US. . E Now, they have asked me to come over there. 91. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence? 1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E 92. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence? 1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E 93. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence? 1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E 94. Which of the following would be the FIFTH sentence? 1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E 95. Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence? 1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E Directions (Q. 96-100): Arrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a meaningful sequence with the given introductory and concluding parts. 96. L In a setback P. the commission has directed Q. to the centre R as witness S. the government to produce 1L those who had signed the affidavit 1)PSQR 2)QPSR 3)RQPS 4)PQRS 5)QRPS 97. L An Indo-American scientist P. along with an American colleague Q. with IIT background R has caused a stir S. by claiming to achieve nuclear fusion IL in a table-top experiment 1)QRPS 2)SRPQ 3)SRQP 4)QPRS 5)RQPS 98. L She could find herself behind the bars P. against the apex court Q. its judgement on contempt of court case R when the supreme court delivers S. for allegedly raising slogans IL at its very gates. 1)QRPS 2)PSRQ 3)RQSP 4)SPRQ 5)RQPS 99. L Having examined the claims P. of all political parties Q. and realising that none was R in a position to provide S. a stable government to the state IL he has recommended the imposition of President's rule. 1)PQRS 2)RSPQ 3)QRSP 4)SPQR 5)QPSR 100. L A virtual siege P. at camps for volunteers Q. up to meet the situation R as authorities gear themselves S. has been laid IL and patrolling has been intensified. 1)SQPR 2)SPRQ 3)PSQR 4)RQPS 5)QPRS

Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. 116-120): What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series? 116.6, 26, 96, 276, 650, 1326, ? 1)2416 2)2426 3)2436 4)2446 5)2456 117. 1521, 1369, 1225, 1089, 961, 841, ? 1)612 2)668 3)692 4)729 5)754 118.1745, 2778, 4147, 5900, 8085, 10750, ? 1)13943 2)13945 3)13948 4)13951 5)13954 119.7, 10, 32, 123, 540, 2775, ? 1)16542 2)16612 3)16758 4)16834 5)16969 120.23, 39, 103, 247, 503, 903, ? 1)1469 2)1479 3)1489 4)1499 5)1509 Directions (Q. 121-125): Following table shows the GDP (in USD million) of different countries and percentage contribution by different sectors in total GDP. Answer questions based on this table. Total Agriculture Industry Service Sector GDP A 1640 40% 30% 30% B 1200 37% 42% 21% C 1580 25% 40% 35% D 960 30% 45% 25% E 1050 40% 20% 40% F 1375 20% 60% 20% G 1320 50% 25% 25% H 850 16% 34% 50% I 720 45% 25% 30% J 1100 27% 36% 37% 121. Total GDP of Country A is what percentage more than the total GDP of Country B? 1)24.84% 2)36.66% 3)37.5% 4)42% 5)44.24% Country

122. What is the average contribution by Industry in the total GDP, taking all the ten countries together? (Answer in million USD) 1)423 2)425 3)427 4)429 5) None of these 123. The GDP of Country I contributed by the Service sector is what percentage more than the contribution by Industry? 1)16% 2)20% 3)24% 4)30% 5) None of these 124. GDP of Country E contributed by Agriculture is what percentage of GDP of Country D contributed by the Service sector? 1)120% 2)125% 3)150% 4)175% 5)180% 125. What is the ratio of the total GDP of Country J to the GDP of Country G contributed by the Service sector? 1)10:4 2)10:3 2)2:1 4)11:5 5)11:4 126. Two equal amounts are deposited in two different banks at 7.5% pa interest rate each for 14years and 9 years respectively. If the difference between their interest is `1732, what is the amount deposited? 1)`6400 2)`6000 3)?5400 4)`4800 5)`4200 127. The difference between the simple interest and the compound interest compounded every six months at the rate of 18% pa at the end of two years is ?20632.644. Find the amount. 1)`6400 2)`6000 3)`5400 4)`4800 5)`4200 128. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'PAKISTAN' be arranged in such a way that the vowels always come together? 1)360 2)720 3)2160 4)4320 5)40320 129.20 persons are sitting around a circular table. What is the probability that 10 particular persons sit together?

130. In a 3kg mixture of water and milk, 50% is milk. How much water should be added so that the proportion of milk becomes 20%? 1) 1.5 kg 2) 2 kg 3) 2.5 kg 4) 3 kg 5) None of these

is added to the first number, it becomes 70% of the second number. What is the second number? 1)35 2)70 3)135 4)45 5)90 132. A tank has a leak which would empty it in 12 hours. Atap is turned on which fills the tank at the rate of 140 litres per hour and it is now emptied in 26 hours. What is the capacity of the tank? 1) 3060 litres 2) 3120 litres 3) 3280 litres 4) 3640 litres 5) None of these 133. If 28 women earn ` 10080 in 12 days, how many men must work for 25 days to earn `28125, if the daily wages of a man is two-and-a-half times those of a woman? 1)10 2)12 3)15 4)16 5)18

134. A man covers a certain distance on a bicycle. Had he moved 3 kmh' faster, he would have taken 1 hour less. If he had moved 2 kmh slower, he would have taken 1 hour more. What is the distance covered by him? l)30km 2)45km 3)50km 4)60km 5)75km 135. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 3 metre and the breadth is decreased by 1 metre, the area of the rectangle remains unchanged. If the length is decreased by 6 metre and the breadth is increased by 5 metre, again the area remains unchanged. What is the length of the rectangle? l)24metre 2)18metre 3)l6metre 4) 12 metre 5) 9 metre Directions (Q. 136-140): Following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of total population of six different cities in the year 1980. The total population all the six cities together is 2 crore. The line graph shows the percentage growth of population of these six cities in two decades, 1980-1990 and 1990-2000.
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140. What is the total population of all the six cities together in 2000? 1)34128 lakh 2) 342.1728 lakh 3)343.1621akh 4) 344.352 lakh 5) None of these Directions (Q. 141-145): Following table shows the total number of TV sets produced by seven different companies and the cost price per TV set. The line graph shows the percentage sale and percentage profit per TV set for all the seven companies. No. of TV sets produced 36000 45000 50000 28000 39000 24000 30000 Cost Price per TV (in?) 75000 64000 52000 45000 42000 36000 32000

Company A B C D E F G

136. What will be the population of City C in the year 2000? 1)54.8 lakh 2) 57.96 lakh 3) 58.24 lakh 4) 60.96 lakh 5) 64 lakh 137. The population of City D in the year 2000 is what percentage of its population in the year 1980? 1)145% 2)150% 3) 122.5% 4) 125% 5)120% 138. What is the ratio of the population of City D in the year 1990 to the population of City B in the year 1990? 1)3:5 2)1:2 3)25:32 4)15:28 5)3:4 139. What is the percentage rise in the population of City A from 1980 to 2000? 1)55% 2)27.5% 3)62.5% 4) 155% 5) None of these

141. What is the average production of TV sets by all the seven companies together? 1)34500 2)35200 3)36000 4)36400 5)36800 142. What is the total profit earned by Company G? l) ` 11.2cr 2)`llcr 3)?12.4cr 4)`12.5cr 5)`13.6cr 143. What is the total number of TV sets sold by all the companies together? 1)148900 2)149600 3)158000 4)152900 5)156450 144. What is the ratio of the total cost price of all the TV sets of Company F to that of Company A? 1)8:15 2)8:17 3)8:21 4)8:23 5)8:25 145. What is the difference between the net profit of Company C and that of Company D? 1) `62.4 cr 2) `59.1 cr 3) `58.6 cr 4)`57.5cr 5) ` 56cr

Directions (Q. 146-150): Following Venn-diagram shows the number of students passing three different tests T,, T and T .Answer the following questions based on this information.
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150. The number of students who passed all the three tests is what percentage of the number of students who failed all the three tests? (Answer in approximate value) 1)21.4% 2)22.6% 3)25.5% 4)26.8% 5)29%

Test of Reasoning
Directions (Q. 151-155): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are travelling in three cars, viz Ferrari, Audi, and Toyota, with at least two persons in each car. There are three female members among them with at least one in each car. E is not travelling in Ferrari. C is travelling in Audi with his best friend G only. B is not travelling with either A or D and his best friend F is travelling in Ferrari. D is not travelling in Toyota. 151. Which of the following definitely represents a group of male members? 1)CBA 2)CBF 3)CBFA 4)CBAD 5) Data inadequate 152. In which car is B travelling? 1) Ferrari 2) Toyota 4) Audi 5) Cannot be determined 5) None of these 153. Which of the following cars is carrying three persons together? 1) Toyota 2)Audi 3) Ferrari 5) Cannot be determined 5) None of these 154. In which car is A travelling? l)Ferrari 2)Audi 3) Toyota 5) Cannot be determined 5) None of these 155. Which of the following represents a group of three female members? 1)DEG 2)AEG 3)FEG 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these Directions (Q. 156-160): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circle facing the centre. S is sitting between P and V. U is second to the right of V and T is second to the right of U. R is not an immediate neighbour of V. 156. Who is on the immediate left of T? 1)P 2)R 3)U 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these 157. Which of the following is not true? 1) V is second to the right of P. 2) Q is second to the right of S. 3) U is second to the left of T. 4) T is second to the left of S. 5) All are correct 158. In which of the following groups is the third member sitting between the first and second members? 1)TPS 2)SVQ 3)VUQ 4)SPV 5) None of these 159. Who is sitting between R and P? 1)T 2)S 3)U 4)V 5) None of these

T (180)
3

146. How many students are there who passed Test T3 only? 1)90 2)92 3)94 4)96 5)98 147. What is the percentage of students who failed all the three tests? 1)12% 2)14% 3)16% 4)18% 5)20% 148. What is the difference between the number of students who passed Test Ti only and that of those who passed T only? 1)6 2)8. 3)10 4)12 5)14 149. The number of students who passed exactly two tests is what percentage of the number of students who passed Test T ? 1)25% 2)35% 3)45% 4)55% 5)65%
2 2

160. Who is on the immediate right of V? 1)U 2)S 3)Q 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Directions (Q. 161-165): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by three conclusions. You have to find which of the given conclusions follows from the given statements. 161. Statements: M < T , T K , K = D Conclusions: I. D T I I . K > M I H . D > M 1) Only I and II are true 2) Only I and III are true 3) Only II and III are true 4) All are true 5) None of these 162.Statements: B>H,HA,A = K Conclusions: I.BK I I . K H III.A<B 1) Only I and II are true 2) Only I and III are true 3) Only II and III are true 4) Only II is true 5) None of these 163. Statements: WN, N > R , RF Conclusions: I. F > N II. W > N III. R < W 1) None is true 2) Only HI is true 3) Only I and II are true 4) Only II and III are true 5) None of these 164. Statements: F = K, K>M, MV Conclusions: I. FV I I . V K III.M>K 1) Only I is true 2) Only II is true 3) Only HI is true 4) All are true 5) None of these 165. Statements: N D , D<T, T J Conclusions: I . J < D I I . N > J III.T>N 1) Only III is true 2) Only II is true 3) Only I is true 4) Only I and II are true 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 166-170): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven students of a college belonging to three streams Computer Science, IT and Electronicswith at least two students in each stream. Each of them has a different choice of a soft drink, viz Coca-Cola, Pepsi, Thums-up, Sprite, Limca, Fanta and 7-Up, not necessarily in the same order. C is in Electronics and his choice of soft drink is 7-Up. F does not like either Pepsi or Fanta and has the same stream as that of only G among them. B's stream is the same as that of Abut neither Electronics nor Computer Science. E's stream is not Electronics and he likes Sprite. The one who likes CocaCola does not have either Computer Science or IT. A likes Thums-Up. The one who likes Fanta does not have IT stream. 166. What is B's favourite soft drink? 1) Coca-Cola 2) 7-Up 3) Fanta 4) Pepsi 5) None of these 167. What is D's favourite soft drink? 1) Fanta 2) Thums-Up 3) Coca-Cola 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these 168. Which of the following streams has three persons together? 1) Computer Science 2) IT 3) Electronics 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these 169. What is F's favourite soft drink? 1) Pepsi 2) Sprite 3) Fanta 4) Coca-Cola 5) None of these 170. What is G's stream? 1) Computer Science 2) IT 3) Electronics 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Directions (Q. 171-175): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow. Five professors A, B, C, D and E, residing in five different cities, teach five different subjects. 1. A does not live in either Bangalore or Lucknow and he teaches Philosophy. 2. B lives neither in Hyderabad nor in Lucknow. He teaches Mathematics. , 3. D lives in Jaipur and does not teach Economics. 4. E lives neither in Bangalore nor in Delhi. He teaches Geography. 5. C does not teach History and he lives in Delhi.

171. Who lives in Bangalore? , 1)A 2)B 3)C 4) D 5) None of these 172. Which of the following subjects does C teach? 1) Philosophy 2) Mathematics 3) History 4) Economics 5) None of these 173. In which of the following cities does E live? 1) Bangalore 2) Hyderabad 3)Lucknow 4) Delhi 5) None of these 174. Which of the following subjects does D teach? 1) Mathematics 2) Philosophy 3) Economics 4) History 5) None of these 175. Which of the following combinations is wrong? 1)A-Hyderabad 2) B-Geography 3)C-Delhi 4) D-History 5) All are true Directions (Q. 176-180): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. Given an input line, a coding machine rearranges the input following certain steps as explained below. Input: 47 desert go 56 there often 32 12 Step I: there 47 desert go 56 often 32 12 Step II: there 12 47 desert go 56 often 32 Step III: there 12 often 47 desert go 56 32 StepD/: there 12 often 32 47 desert go 56 StepV: there 12 often 32 go 47 desert 56 Step V is the last step of the arrangement. In each of the following questions, the rearrangement is done following the same rules as explained in the above illustration. 176. If the fourth step of an input is "wonderful 22 seashore 36 48 fine 62 morning", what was its first step? 1) fine 48 wonderful 22 seashore 36 62 morning 2) fine 48 wonderful 22 36 seashore 62 morning 3) fine 48 seashore wonderful 22 36 morning 62 4) fine 48 seashore wonderful 36 22 morning 62 5) Cannot be determined 177. What will be the third step for the following input? Input: paper common 36 51 pencil 28 test 66 1) test 28 paper pencil common 36 51 66 2) test 28 pencil 66 paper common 36 51 3) test 66 pencil paper 28 common 5136 4) test 28 pencil paper common 36 51 66 5) None of these 178. If step II of an input is "waive 14 available time 38 46 probation 85", how many more steps will be required to complete the arrangement? 1) Three 2) Four 3) Five 4) Two 5) None of these 179. Which step will be the last step for the input "27 sports 48 television commentary 18 house 36"? 1)IV 2)V 3) VI 4) W 5) None of these 180. What will be the third step of an input having first step as "number game 54 23 always lacking 16 75"? 1) number 16 lacking 23 game always 54 75

2) number 16 lacking 23 always 54 game 75 3) number 16 lacking 23 game 54 always 75 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these Directions (Q. 181-185): In each question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, EE and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. 181. Statements: All grapes are mangoes. Some oranges are mangoes. Some leaves are oranges. Conclusions: I. Some leaves are mangoes. II. Some oranges are grapes. III. Some leaves are grapes. 1) Only I follows 2) Only II follows 3) Only III follows 4) Only I and II follow 5) None of these 182. Statements: Some desks are benches. Some benches are rooms. Some rooms are walls. Conclusions: I. Some walls are benches. II. Some rooms are desks. III. Some desks are walls. 1) None follows 2) Only I follows 2) Only II follows 4) Only III follows 5) All follow 183. Statements: Some hotels are towns. All towns are villages. All villages are cities. Conclusions: I. Some cities are hotels. II. Some villages are hotels. III. All villages are towns. 1) Only I and II follow 2) Only I and III follow 3) Only II and III follow 4) All follow 5) None of these 184. Statements: All books are garments. Some garments are houses. All houses are vehicles. Conclusions: I. Some vehicles are garments. II. Some houses are books. III. Some vehicles are books. 1) All follow 2) Only I follows 3) Only II follows 4) Only I and II follow 5) Only II and III follow 185. Statements: All kites are crows. All crows are bananas. All bananas are apples. Conclusions: I. Some apples are kites. II. All bananas are kites. III. Some apples are crows. 1) All follow 2) Only I follows 3) Only HI follows 4) Only I and III follow 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 186-190): In each of the questions given below, a statement is followed by two courses of action. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true and then decide which of the given courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing. Give answer 1) if only I follows. 2) if only II follows. 3) if either I or II follows. 4)ifbothIandIIfollow. 5) if neither I nor II follows. 186. Statement: Jaundice and Typhoid are on the rise in city A. Courses of action: I Government must increase medical facility as soon as possible. II Government should take steps to clean the city. 187. Statement: Three girls were molested in a prestigious university campus by a group of people. Courses of action: I Police must catch them and put them behind the bars. IL The university authority should provide security on the campus for the safety of the students. 188. Statement: False currency is being supplied to India through a bus service that works across IndiaPakistan border. Courses of action: I Indian government should stop this bus service. H Indian police should check the bus properly and keep proper vigilance of the bus. 189. Statement: On a No Tobacco Day, it was observed that the number of smokers is increasing rapidly. Courses of action: L Government should highlight the harms caused by the use of tobacco. D. Government should ban smoking.

190. Statement: Primary teachers are on an indefinite strike. Courses of action: I Alternative arrangements should be made by appointing teachers on daily wages. tt, Government should meet the demands of the teachers. Directions (Q. 191-195): Given below are pairs of events A and B. You have to read both the events A and B and decide their nature of relationship. You have to assume that the information given in A and B is true and you will not assume anything beyond the given information while deciding the answer. Mark answer 1) if A is the effect and B its immediate and principal cause. 2) if A is the immediate and principal cause and B its effect. 3) if A is an effect but B not its immediate and principal cause. 4) if B is an effect but A not its immediate and principal cause. 5) None of these 191. Event (A): This year, the government has decided to procure foodgrain earlier than the stipulated date. Event (B): This year, the government has decided to sell the crops to private traders. 192. Event (A): Many people have been reported to be suffering from a rare form of malaria in the city. Event (B): There are a large number of cases of people suffering from gastroenteritis being treated in various hospitals of the city. 193.Event (A): Majority of the govt school teachers in the town joined the one-day strike called by the local teachers' union. Event (B): The state government had recently imposed ban on the teachers of the govt schools joining private coaching centres. 194.Event (A): Many villages in the district are marooned as the river overflowed the banks and many people have managed to survive on the trees and whichever place they could find above water.

Event (B): The district administration has sent relief teams to the affected villages to rescue the stranded villagers and have sent supplies of food and water to the nearby villages. 195. Event (A): The government has decided to reduce the excise duty on petroleum products by five per cent with immediate effect. Event (B): The demand for crude oil in the international market has increased substantially in the recent months. Directions (Q. 196-200): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered land EL An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement Give answer 1) if only assumption I is implicit. Give answer 2) if only assumption II is implicit. Give answer 3) if either assumption I or II is implicit. Give answer 4) if neither assumption I nor II is implicit. Give answer 5) if both assumptions I and II are implicit. 196. Statement: A prestigious management institute has decided to open admissions for its postgraduate programme for students having work experience of at least three years. Assumptions: I. There may be adequate number of students having work experience of at least three years who are desirous of joining the institute. II. The management institute may dilute the condition if it does not receive adequate number of applications. 197. Statement: The credit cooperative society has decided to increase the upper limit of loan to ?3 lakh. Assumptions: I. The members might have been demanding loans of up to ?3 lakh. II. The credit cooperative society might have enough money to disburse such loans.

198. Statement: The high court has ordered the municipal corporation to repair all the roads within the next fortnight. Assumptions: I. The municipal corporation has the capability of carrying out the repair work within the next fortnight. II. The vehicle owners may start an agitation against the municipal corporation. 199. Statement: In view of increase in fares announced by different airlines, Mahesh has decided to travel by train to attend his friend's wedding in Delhi. Assumptions: I. Railways may also increase fares in near future. II. Mahesh may be able to get reservation in a suitable train to Delhi before the wedding date. 200. Statement: Govt has recently allowed private medical colleges to increase their fees by about 30 per cent over the previous year's. Assumptions: I. Private medical colleges may not agree with 30 per cent increase and might demand for more hike. II. The guardians of the students may disagree with the govt's decision and boycott the admission process. Directions (Q. 201-206): Study the following information and answer these questions: P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. No two males or two females are immediate neighbours of each other. P is the wife of W. P sits third to the left of T. U sits second to the right of S. S is not an immediate neighbour of either P or T. W and R are immediate neighbours of each other. U is not an immediate neighbour of his wife Q. 201. Which of the following is true about V? 1) Vis a male. 2) V sits exactly between U and W. 3) V sits third to the left of T. 4) V sits second to the right of Q. 5) None of these

202. Who sits third to the left of Q ? 1)U 2)W 3)S 4)P 5) None of these 203. How many people sit between Q and U when counted in anticlockwise direction from Q? .l)One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four * 5) More than four 204. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1)W 2)U3)T 4)V 5)S. 205. Which of the following groups consists of only female members? 1)PQW 2)VUR 3)RWV 4)SWR 5) None of these 206. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order in clockwise direction starting from P, the positions of how many (excluding P) will remain unchanged as compared to their original seating positions? l)None. 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) Four

207. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1) Building 2) Toy 3) Vehicle 4) Mountain 5) Machine 208. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on English alphabetical series and so form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group? 1)HJ 2)PR 3)NP 4)BE 5)VX 209. Roma walked 25 metre towards south, took a right turn and walked 15 metre. She then took a left turn and walked 25 meter. Which direction is she now from her starting point? 1) South-east 2) South 3) South-west 4) North-west 5) None of these 210. In a certain code, BROUGHT is written as PSCTVJI. How is HEARING written in that code? 1)BFIQIPK 2)IFBQIPK 3)BFIQKPI 3)BFIQHOJ 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 211-220): In each of the questions given below, which one of the five Answer Figures on the right should come after the Problem Figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?