B1 EXAMINATION THE STRUCTURE OF THE B1 UNIR EXAMINATION

SECTION 1.USE OF ENGLISH PURPOSE -Check knowledge of the main grammar points Check knowledge of sentence structure - General understanding - Specific information -Vocabulary TYPE OF TEST -Multiple choice -Matching items SCORE 10 TIME 30 MINUTES

2. READING COMPREHENSION

-Matching items -Multiple choice

20

30 MINUTES

15 MINUTE BREAK 3. WRITING SKILLS - Ability to write a general text - Ability to write an email or letter -Ability to translate from Spanish to English -Ability to understand essential information -Ability to understand detailed information -Introductions -Topic based conversation -Pronunciation and intonation - Correcting mistakes - Writing an email or letter - Translating 10 sentences from Spanish to English 20 40 MINUTES

4. LISTENING COMPREHENSION

-Multiple choice -True or false -Word gap

25

30 MINUTES

5. ORAL EXAMINATION

-Examination with two candidates

25

20 MINUTES

TOTAL SCORE

100

TOTAL EXAM TIME: 2.30 Hrs + 15 minutes break

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POINTS Less than 58 58-68.5 69-78.5 79-89.5 90-99.5 100 Not pass Pass Satisfactory Good Very Good Excellent

RESULTS Insuficiente Suficiente Bien Notable Sobresaliente Mat. de honor

ABOUT THIS EXAMINATION This examination has been especially designed for Spanish speaking students who want to be accredited with a B1 level. Keeping that in mind it should be noted that this examination differs in criteria from other examinations. One such difference lies in the writing section that includes short translations from Spanish to English. The purpose behind this is to assist any candidates who access the labour market in Spain, or abroad, as they will need to demonstrate a spoken and written understanding of both languages. In addition, with regards to the marking system, more importance is given to the listening and speaking sections than to the grammar one. The listening and speaking sections give 5 points more each than the writing and reading sections. The idea behind this scoring is to prevent the problem of only having students with a good grammar base and who can read and write sufficiently well, but are unable to communicate in spoken English. Our point of view is that grammar should be a tool to help the student to understand the structure of the English language, but not the main element as it has traditionally been for many years in the Spanish educational system. This lack of good spoken English has meant most Spanish teachers of English are unable to access the private labour market, which currently demands almost exclusively native English speakers. Another difference worth mentioning is that although the material and the examination are written mainly in British English, some concessions are made for American English and other accents. The listening and reading activities in the examination will not
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necessarily always be in British English. The idea behind this choice is to prepare the students for a global labour market which uses all types of English and also includes speakers of English as a second language. In addition, the choice of topics target adult students and are intended to be practical and contemporary to enable them to understand real English and use their recently gained English skills whilst developing their career skills. The examination is divided into five different parts: use of English, reading and writing, and, listening and speaking as most examinations of the kind. The purpose is to cover all the skills that the students will need to use in their future careers.

General Instructions to candidates 1. Carefully read all the questions before beginning the examination. 2. The total time of the examination will be two and a half hours. Note: there will be a fifteen minute break after the second sub-examination. 3. You can only use a black or blue pen for the examination. 4. You may only use the paper provided by UNIR for writing your answers on, no additional sheets will be accepted. (You can make notes or organize you work on additional sheets of paper but they are not to be handed in with your exam paper). 5. Make sure you fill in your personal details in the square at the top of all of the answer sheets. 6. Place your DNI/NIE/Passport on the table in front of you so they are available for possible verification. 7. Mobile telephones must be switched off during the exam. 8. You may not use a dictionary or any other grammar or lexical tool during the examination.

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Candidate Surname _______________________________ Name _________________________________________ Candidate Number ________________________________

EXAMINATION B1 PAPER 1 - USE OF ENGLISH

Time limit: 30 minutes INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES: Do not turn the page until you are told to do so No de vuelta la pgina hasta que se le diga Write your surname, and name and candidate number above Read the instructions for each part of the paper carefully Answer all the questions USE OF ENGLISH Time limit: 30 minutes TOTAL POSSIBLE SCORE: 10 - Grammar quiz on the past simple and the past continuous: 4 questions worth 0.5 points each, total 2 points - Grammar quiz on the past tense 4 questions worth 0.5 points each, total 2 points - Grammar quiz on for, since and ago - 4 questions worth 0.5 points each, total 2 points - Grammar quiz on prepositions - 4 questions, worth 0.5 points each, total 2 points - Grammar quiz on conditional sentences: 4 questions, worth 0.5 points each, total 2

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Questions 1 - 4 Join these ideas using when and the past simple or past continuous of the verbs in brackets. 1 2 3 She (hurt) ___________ her back / she (lift) the heavy bags They (drive) ___________ to London / they (have) ___________ an accident We (play) ___________ tennis / it (begin) ___________ to rain ladder 4 He (clean) ___________ the windows / he (fall) ___________ off the

Questions 5 - 8 Find the incorrect past simple tense in each group 5 6 7 found wrote taken seen maked spoke beat were watched started stoped built stayed got left

8 bit

Questions 9 - 12 Complete the time expressions below using for, since or ago. 9 Ten days ___________

10 ___________ 9.30 a.m. 11 ___________ a few minutes 12 ___________ three weeks

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Questions 13 - 16 Complete the sentences using at, in, on or no preposition 13 Were you ___________ home ___________ nine oclock ___________ last night? 14 I was born ___________ South Carolina ___________ March 17th, 1976 15 He is a student ___________ a medical college ___________Amsterdam 16 We went to France___________ holiday ___________ July

Questions 17 - 20 Find the second part of each sentence 17 If I had his address 18 If I went to bed earlier 19 If I didnt eat so much . 20 If I were ill a) Id phone the doctor b) Id be slimmer c) Id write to him d) I wouldnt be so tired

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PAPER 2 - READING
Time limit: 30 minutes INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES: Do not turn the page until you are told so. No de vuelta la pgina hasta que se le diga. Write your surname, and name and candidate number above. Read the instructions for each part of the paper carefully. Answer all the questions. READING Time limit: 30 minutes Total possible score: 20 points Type of exercises: 1. Matching items: match the text with the correct title Five questions, 1 point each, 5 points total 2. Read the text and decide on the correct meaning (multiple choice) Five questions, 1 point each, 5 points total 3. Read the text and fill in the missing words from the list Five questions, 1 point each, 5 points total 4. Read the text and answer True or False Five questions, 1 point each, 5 points total

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Questions 1 - 5 Read the texts and match them to a suitable title from the list below.

1. Beautiful four bedroom colonial home with renovated basement. Gorgeous brick fire place in family room. Comes equipped with stainless steel appliances, stainless steel gas barbecue grill, full wicker patio set, full-sized washer and dryer. Call now to schedule a private viewing of your next home. 555 321 46312

2. YEAR 5/6 TEACHER NEEDED FOR MATERNITY COVER The successful candidate will; Be a fully qualified primary school teacher with at least 1years experience in a similar post. To be considered for this role, please attach a copy of your current and up-to-date CV. Should your application be successful, one of our consultants will be in touch shortly.

3. Computer problems reducing your work efficiency? Do you need help resolving IT related issues? We are an experienced and reliable team that offer support for PC hardware and software troubleshooting. We also offer 24/7 support and maximum 24-hour response times Contact us now.

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4. Antique tinted colour post card. Unused, unopened, undamaged item. Size: 4 x 6 inches (A6, 10x15cm) approx. Winning bidder pays for shipping and handling charges. We ship all orders within 5 business days after payment clearance.

5. I have lots of fun and treats for your dog on my walks and of course always bring little bags with me! (Just in case!) I pick up your dog on foot from your home and my walks generally last from 1 and a half to 2 hours. Services include: bathe, brush, feed and water for 20 pounds. Please feel free to email me for an appointment.

TITLES A B C D E Having Computer Problems? Need IT Assistance? Reliable Dog Walker Antique Card for Auction Affordable Colonial Home Only 340,000 $ Recruitment Offer

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Questions 6 - 10 Look at the text in each question and choose the correct meaning. 6. Children under 16 are not allowed in the pool area unattended. A. The pool area is unattended B. The pool area can hold up to 15 people C. If you are 15 or less, you can enter the pool area only under the supervision of an adult.

7. Birthday Sale 20% off! A. The owner has put on a special sale to celebrate his birthday B. Birthday party supplies are 20% cheaper C. Birthday party supplies account for 20 percent of total sales

8. Dear Sam. Im writing to you to find out if you would like to be my pen pal. Im 18 and I like music, dancing and playing tennis. I hope you will write soon. Best wishes, Tom A. Tom wants to meet Sam B. Sam has written to Tom before C. Sam and Tom do not know each other

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9. Soon after the kidnappers had telephoned Mr. Smith, he telephoned me at the office. I listened carefully as he explained what had happened What happened first? A. Mr. Smith telephoned me B. The kidnappers telephoned Mr. Smith C. Mr. Smith explained what had happened

10. Four Seasons Hotel All bookings must be fully paid on arrival A. You have to pay when checking in B. You are allowed to pay when checking out C. Reservations can be paid in installments

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Questions 11 - 15 Read the text and fill in the gaps with a word from below. Only one word is correct. Text adapted from Wikipedia, The Free Encyclopedia Image source: Wikipedia

Charles Spencer "Charlie" Chaplin, was an English comic actor, film director and composer best-known for his work during the silent film era. He became one of the most famous film stars in the world before the end ofWorld War I. Chaplin used mime and other visual comedy routines, and his fame continued into the era of speakies films with sound. His most famous role was that of The Tramp, ______________ 11 he first played in the Keystone comedy Kid Auto Races at Venice in 1914. Five years later, in 1919, he cofounded United Artists together with Mary Pickford,Douglas Fairbanks and D. W. Griffith. After the arrival of films with talking, Chaplin continued to focus ______________ 12 silent films which included sound effects and music with melodies based on popular songs or composed by him. 1936s Modern Times has his iconic Little Tramp ______________ 13 struggling to survive in the modern, industrialized world. The film is a comment on the desperate employment and fiscal conditions many people faced ______________ 14 the Great Depression. Chaplin was one of the most creative and influential personalities of the silent-film era. He ______________ 15 by his predecessor, the French silent film comedian Max Linder, to whom he dedicated one of his films. His working life in entertainment spanned over 75 years, until his death at the age of 88. 11. when 12. to 13. actor 14. during where at role for which in character while was influenced who on actress at influenced

15. were influenced influences

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Questions 16 - 20

Read the text and answer True or False to the statements below

From the VOA special English Technology Report

The earliest process of making paper was done almost five thousand years ago in Egypt and the Nile Valley. In those days, paper was made from strips of the papyrus plant.

Modern paper-making began in China about two thousand years ago. This process produced paper from cloth, straw, wood or the bark of trees. The raw materials are struck over and over until they become loose. Then they are mixed with water.

After the water has been removed, the flat, thin form remaining is permitted to dry. This becomes a sheet of paper.

Large machines started to be used for making paper near the end of the sixteenth century. Today, paper-making is a big business. But it is still possible to make paper by hand, since the steps are the same as using big machines.

You should choose paper with small amounts of print. Old envelopes are good for this reason. Coloured paper also can be used, as well as small amounts of newspaper. Small pieces of rags or cloth can be added. These should be cut into pieces about five centimetres by five centimetres.

Everything is placed in a container, covered with water and brought to a boil. It is mixed for about two hours with some common chemicals and then allowed to cool. Then it is left until most of the water dries up. The substance left, called pulp, can be stored until you are ready to make paper.

When you are ready, the pulp is mixed with water again. Then the pulp is poured into a mould. The mould is made of small squares of wire that hold the shape and thickness of the paper. To help dry the paper, the mould lets the water flow through the small wire squares.
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After several more drying steps, the paper is carefully lifted back from the mould. It is now strong enough to be touched.

The paper is smoothed and pressed to remove trapped air. You can use a common electric iron used for pressing clothes.

There are many other technologies for people making paper using small machines.

Internet users can do a search and find directions for making homemade paper. You can also order information about making paper from the website enterpriseworks.org.

And thats the VOA Special English Technology Report. Transcripts, MP3s and podcasts of our reports are at voaspecialenglish.com. Follow us on Facebook, Twitter, YouTube and iTunes at VOA Learning English. Im Christopher Cruise.

16. The Chinese used strips of the papyrus plant to make paper. True False

17. Nowadays, making paper by hand is no longer possible. True False

18. To make paper by hand, it is better not to use paper with large amounts of print. True False

19. It is not necessary to dry the pulp before lifting the paper back from the mould. True False

20. It is difficult to find information about paper-making on the internet. True False

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PAPER 3 WRITING

Date: Time limit: 40 minutes INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES: Do not turn the page until you are told to do so No de vuelta la pgina hasta que se le diga. Write your surname, and name and candidate number Read the instructions for each part of the paper carefully Answer all the questions Type of exercises: 1) Correct the mistakes 10 mistakes, 0.5 points each: total 5 points 2) Translate the following sentences from Spanish to English. 10 sentences, 0.5 points each: total 5 points 3) Write a story Total number of points: 5 4) Write an email Total number of points: 5

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Question 1 Correct the mistakes Each mistake found is worth 0.5 points Anyone is free to speak at SpeakersCorner in Hyde Park. The speakers, which normally stands on boxes to be above the crowds of people listening to they, are coming every Saturday and Sunday. They talk about subjects as religion, politics or social problems. Part of the fun of be at Speakers Corner is to listen to the hecklers, who are trying to interrupt the speakers with their own comments or questions. Indeed, the hecklers are sometimes more interested to listen to than the speakers themself.

Question 2 Translate the sentences into English Each correct translation is worth 0.5 points 1. Has encontrado el monedero que perdiste? 2. Quin te vio ayer en el cine? 3. A quin viste ayer en el cine? 4. Puede que mi padre empiece a trabajar de nuevo. 5. No veo a Pedro desde hace 2 aos. 6. Han vendido el coche que yo quera comprar. 7. Con qu frecuencia va tu hija al dentista? 8. Ana me cont que su marido haba dejado su trabajo. 9. No toques eso! 10. Cunto tiempo llevas esperndome?

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Question 3 (5 points) Write a story of 100 words on your answer sheet

The story should begin with this sentence:

It was just after five oclock on a wet Monday afternoon when I received a telephone call from Inspector Smith.

Question 4 (5 points)

You have decided to study English abroad during the summer and you see an advert in a magazine for a language school in Dublin. Write an email of about 75 words requesting information about: Types of courses available Duration Cost and types of accommodation offered (apartments, students residence) Leisure activities included

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PAPER 4 LISTENING
Time limit: 30 minutes You will listen to all the recordings twice. Types of questions and scores 1) Listen to each sentence and decide which is the right answer 5 questions, one point each 2) Listen to the recording and answer true or false. 8 questions, one point each 3) Listen to the recording and choose the right answer 7 questions, one point each 4) Listen to the recording and fill in the missing information 5 questions, one point each Total score for section: 25

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LISTENING 1 Listen to the following excerptsand then choose the correct answer to the questions below Dream House Fuente original: www.elllo.org. Clic aqu para escuchar el audio Questions 1-5: total 5 points 1. Who wants the simplest house? B) Jonathan 2. Does Emily like big cities? A) No, she doesnt. B) Only New York and Tokyo C) Yes, she does. 3. Who are the most similar in their views? A) Cheryl and Samir B) Hoa and Jonathan C) Jonathan and Demelza 4. Does Demelza want to live near the beach? A) Yes, she does. B) We dont know. C) It depends on the season 5. Who doesnt like cities? A) Cheryl and Emily B) Hoa and Emily C) Samir and Hoa A) Samir

C) Emily

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LISTENING 2 Listen to the recording and answer the questions (True or False)

Fuente original: www.listen-to-english.com. Clic aqu para escuchar el audio. That was Miss Binnie Hale, singing a song called A Nice Cup of Tea, which she recorded 70 years ago, in 1941. We British love tea. We drink more tea per head of population than any other country in the world, except for Ireland. If you go to the Tea Council website, you will see a counter at the top of the page which shows how many cups of tea we have drunk so far today. By the end of the day, the counter will reach 165 million that is three cups of tea per person per day. Coffee has become more popular in Britain in recent years, but even today we drink more than twice as much tea as coffee. However, tea drinking is not an old tradition in Britain. We made our first cup of tea sometime in the middle of the 17th century. We found that we liked it, that it refreshed us and made us strong and happy, and we have continued drinking tea ever since. In the 19th century, tea became popular among working-class people, and it has remained the favourite drink of ordinary British people ever since. And it is well-known that the Queen likes a nice cup of tea, as well. Tea drinking has a much longer history in China, where people have drunk tea for thousands of years. But British tea is not pale and delicate like tea in China. It has a rich brown colour and a strong taste. Nearly everyone in Britain puts milk in their tea, and about a third of people add sugar to make the tea sweet. (Yuk! I cannot stand tea with sugar!) It is well known that no-one outside Britain knows how to make tea properly. When we British go on holiday in, for example, France or Spain, and we ask for a cup of tea in a hotel or cafe, the waiter brings us a cup of lukewarm water and a tea bag on the end of a piece of string. This is wrong, completely wrong, and in the interests of international harmony and understanding I shall now explain how to make a nice cup of tea, British style. First, you put some water in a kettle and put it on the stove to boil. When it is nearly boiling, you pour a small amount of the hot water into a tea-pot, and swill it round, and pour it out again. This warms the tea pot. Then you put tea or tea bags into the tea-pot. How much tea? Well, my mother used to say that you should put in one teabag for each

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person, plus one for the pot. So, if you are making tea for two people, you should put three teabags into the pot. Then you pour boiling water onto the tea, and let the tea stand for about three minutes. If you have milk in your tea, put the milk in the cup first and pour the tea onto the milk, not the other way round. After you have poured the tea, and offered sugar to those strange people who like sweet tea, you should pour some more boiling water into the tea-pot. Why? Because the one thing which is nicer than a nice cup of tea is another nice cup of tea. We use the word nice all the time in spoken English. Its nice weather today. Did you have a nice time on holiday? It was so nice of you to come and visit us. Did you meet Janes mother? She is such a nice person. Please sit down. Ill make us a nice cup of tea. In fact, nice is probably the most overused word in the English language. We use it so much that it has become almost meaningless. It is a good idea to find other words to use instead of nice, if you can. Did you notice something else about the song at the beginning of the podcast? I am talking about the names of different meals. At half past eleven, my idea of heaven is a nice cup of tea, sings Binnie. We have a special word in English for a snack in the middle of the morning, which you will hear sometimes, though it is now a bit oldfashioned elevenses, because of course we have our snack at about eleven oclock. After elevenses, Binnie has her next cup of tea with her dinner. Until perhaps 30 years ago, most working people in Britain had their main meal in the middle of the day. They called it dinner, and many older people still do. Later in the day, people had a light meal at five or six oclock and they called it tea. And, like Binnie, they had a cup of tea with their tea! Today, most people have a light meal in the middle of the day perhaps a sandwich and an apple, which they eat at their desk in the office. We call this meal lunch. People eat their main meal of the day in the evening, when they get home from work, and they call this meal supper. Dinner nowadays means a formal evening meal for a special occasion, where we dress up in smart clothes, and have nice food and wine and candles! So, a lot has changed since Binnie Hale recorded her song seventy years ago. But a nice cup of tea is still a nice cup of tea! I am going to make one now.

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Questions 6 to 13: total 8 points 6. The British drink more coffee than tea True or False 7. The narrator loves sweet tea. The more sugar, the better. True or False 8. According to the narrator, Spanish people know how to make tea properly. True or False 9. Tea tastes much better if the tea-pot is warmed first with nearly boiling water. True or False 10. The word nice is not widely used in English. True or False 11. The word tea may also refer to a light meal eaten mid-afternoon. True or False 12. For British people, meal habits have changed over the past 30 years. True or False 13. Nowadays, people eat their main meal in the middle of the day True or False

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Listening 3 Listen to the recording and then choose the correct answer to the questions below Fuente original: www.listen-to-english.com. Clic aqu para escuchar el audio

Like lots of people, I have Google as the home page on my web browser. On the Google page, there is a search box where I can type what I am looking for. For example, I can type English lessons if I want to find web sites which teach people English. Underneath the search box, there are two buttons. One says Search. If I click this button, I get a page of Google search results about English lessons. The other one says Im feeling lucky! I have often looked at this button and wondered what it did, and whether I really had to feel lucky before I could click on it. So, today I decided to make a podcast about the word lucky, and to click on the Im feeling lucky! button, just to see what happens. Lucky means fortunate. If I say, I am lucky it means that good things have happened to me. Maybe I have won the lottery. Maybe I have just met the most beautiful girl in the world. Maybe bad things have happened to other people, but not to me. I have escaped. I am lucky. So now I will click on the Im feeling lucky button. What will happen? Will I win a lot of money? Will I enjoy good health and happiness and live to be 100? No, actually. The click takes me to a Google page about the Google logo. I am disappointed. I expected something much more exciting. I do not feel very lucky at all. Kevin does not feel lucky either. Last Saturday was the worst day of his life. Or, at least the worst day this football season. Last Saturday, Kevins team, United, lost 4-0 to their old rivals, Albion. How can this happen? says Kevin. Now, most people who were at the football match know why it happened. It happened because United played really badly. But Kevin cannot agree. It was luck, he says. Albion were lucky. The referee did not see a foul against Uniteds striker. And United were unlucky that the referee disallowed their only goal. If you are a football fan, you will know how Kevin feels. Your team never loses because they are bad. They lose because they are unlucky. But now let us meet someone who is really lucky. His name is Adam Potter, and he lives in Glasgow in Scotland. He is a keen mountaineer. A mountaineer is someone who climbs mountains as a hobby. Mountaineering can be great fun, but it can also be very

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dangerous, particularly in Scotland in winter. A week or so ago, Adam and some friends and his dog set off to climb a mountain near Ben Nevis, which is the highest mountain in Britain. As they climbed higher, snow and ice covered the ground. They stopped, and Adam suggested that they should take out their ice axes and put crampons on their boots, to stop them from slipping. And at that very moment, he slipped on the ice. He fell down the side of the mountain, over rocks and cliffs. He finally stopped falling and slipping and sliding 1000 feet (about 300 metres) down the mountain. Now, if you or I had fallen 300 metres down an icy Scottish mountain, we would probably be dead. In fact, more than 20 people are killed every year in falls on Scottish mountains. But Adam was lucky. He was unconscious for a minute or two when he stopped falling. Then he stood up and took a map out of his rucksack to work out where he was. He looked up to see the mountain rescue helicopter looking for him. The mountain rescue team expected to find a dead body. The leader of the rescue team said, He is a very, very lucky man. Adam is in hospital, recovering from his injuries, but he does not intend to stay there for long. In 8 weeks time, he plans to travel to the area around Mount Everest, the worlds highest mountain, for a ten week expedition. Lets wish him lots of luck.

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Questions 14 to 20: total 7 points 14. If you click the Im feeling lucky button A) you will get a page of Google search results about English lessons B) you will enjoy good health and happiness. C) the click will take you to a Google page about the Google logo. 15. Who is Kevin? A) A professional football player. B) A football fan. C) A referee. 16. According to the text, how many goals did United score? A) Four. B) Only one, though the referee decided that it wasnt legal. C) Two. 17. Kevin thinks that United lost because A) the referee did not see a foul against Uniteds striker. B) they played really badly. C) they were unlucky. 18. Who fell down the side of a mountain? A)Adam Potter. B) Adam Potter and Ben Nevis. C) Adam and some of his friends. 19. When Adam stood up A) he called the rescue team. B) he found a map. C) he didnt know where he was. 20. Adam is in hospital now and A) intends to stay there for 8 weeks. B) hes is already planning to travel to the area around Mount Everest C) wants to recover from his injuries in less than 8 weeks.

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Listening 4 Listen to the recording and fill in the gaps with the correct answers. Fuente Original: www.voanews.com.Clic aqu para escuchar el audio. Questions 21 - 25: total 5 points The Global Fund to Fight AIDS, Tuberculosis, and Malaria began in 2002. Recently, international donors gave almost $12 21)___________ to the Global Fund to Fight AIDS, Tuberculosis (TB), and Malaria. A) billion B) million C) dollars D) trillion This is the largest donation the Global Fund has ever received. Stefan Emblad of the Global Fund is pleased. These are difficult economic times. The donation is 22)______________ higher than before, but the Fund needs a billion dollars more to fight these diseases. A) 20% B) 30% C) 40% D) 50% The Global Fund is a partnership of public and private organizations. The Fund is the main source of money for programs to 23)_____________ and prevent AIDS, tuberculosis, and malaria. Donations support programs in more than 140 countries. A) beat B) treat C) deed D) bring

Global Fund programs treat nearly three million people for AIDS. 24) ____________ million receive malaria drugs. Seven million people receive tuberculosis treatment. The Global Fund has saved over five million lives. A) 143 B) 134 C) 133 D) 183

Stefan Emblad says they wont be cutting funding to their programs. The United States promised to give $4 billion over the next three years, the largest 25) ____________ ever. The United States was the first donor to the fund and is the largest. France is second. Japan, Britain and Canada are in the top five. A) dream B) reef C) give D) gift

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PAPER 5 ORAL SKILLS

Time limit: 20 minutes One candidate/Two candidates Scores: 25 points total

Questions
1.

Pair introduction worth 5 points (each student), 1.5 minutes each: total 3 minutes

2. Individual pictures commentary worth 10 points, 3.5 minutes each: total 7

minutes
3. Pair picture commentary worth 10 points (each student), 10 minutes

Question 1 Introduce yourself to the other student and the examiner: Points will be given for varied vocabulary, fluency and lack of repetition Consider: Name Origin Course Interests Future ambitions Any additional relevant information

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Question 2 You will receive a set of written and/or visual stimuli use them to give your opinion, you will not have time to view the stimuli in advance Do not just explain the stimuli (Fuente de las imgenes: Wikipedia) Candidate 1

Internet: a blessing or a curse?

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Candidate 2

Unemployment Whose Fault Is It?

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Question 3 Both candidates will see the same picture at the same time. You have one minute to prepare your thoughts. Then together discuss any issues the picture stimulates. Points will be given for good interaction and feedback to one another. (Examiner: there are two pictures to alternate so pairs do not relay information to next pair only select one of the pictures for each pair of candidates)

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KEY TO EXERCISES
Questions 1 - 4 1 - She hurt her back when she was lifting the heavy bags 2 - When they were driving to London they had an accident 3 - We were playing tennis when it began to rain 4 - He was cleaning the windows when he fell off the ladder

Questions 5 - 8 Find the incorrect past simple tense in each group 5 6 7 8 found wrote taken bit seen maked spoke beat were watched started stoped built stayed got left

Questions 9 - 12 9 10 11 12 Ago Since For For

Questions 13 - 16 13 14 15 16 at / at / no preposition in / on at / in on / in

Questions 17 - 20 17 18 19 20 c d b a

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READING - Exercise 1: 1d 2e 3a 4c 5b READING - Exercise 2: 6c 7a 8c 9b 10a READING - Exercise 3: 11. when 12. to 13. actor 14. during where at role for which in character while was influenced who on actress at influenced

15. were influenced influences

READING - Exercise 4: 16 false 17 false 18 true 19 false 20 false

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WRITING - Exercise 1 Anyone is free to speak at Speakers Corner onin Hyde Park. The speakers, which whonormally stands stand on boxes to be above the crowds of people listening to they them, are coming come every Saturday and Sunday. They talk about subjects as like religion, politics or social problems. Part of the fun of bebeing at Speakers Corner is to listen to the hecklers, who are trying try to interrupt the speakers with their own comments or questions. Indeed, the hecklers are sometimes more interestedinteresting to listen to than the speakers themselfthemselves .

WRITING - Exercise 2 1. Have you found the purse (that) you lost? 2. Who saw you yesterday at the cinema? 3. Who did you see yesterday at the cinema? 4. My father may (might / could) start working again. 5. I havent seen Pedro for 2 years. 6. They have sold the car (that / which) I wanted to buy. 7. How often does your daughter go to the dentist? 8. Ana told me that her husband had given up his job. 9. Dont touch that! 10. How long have you been waiting for me?

Universidad Internacional de la Rioja

LISTENING - Exercise 1: 1a 2a 3a 4b 5b LISTENING - Exercise 2: 6 - False 7 - False 8 - False 9 - True 10 - False 11 - True 12 - True 13 False

LISTENING - Exercise 3: 14c 15b 16b 17c 18a 19c 20b LISTENING - Exercise 4: 21a 22a 23b 24a 25d

Universidad Internacional de la Rioja