Asim

ASIM & SHOAIB 2ND EDITION ERRATA Page 20 100-d,Page 22 106-e,Page 31 155-b Page 34 169-e Page 42 207-a, 208-e,
209-a Page 62 308-d Page 64 316-e Page 70 8-a, 10-b Page 81 62-d Page 89 105-c Page 94 128-e Page 114 229-d Page 115 232-a, 235-a Page 116 236-b, 238-a Page 118 250-d Page 119 252-b Page 122 268-a Page 132 318-b Page 133 321-a, 322-c Page 139 355-c Page 150 13-b Page 162 71-b, 75-c Page 164 82-b Page 168 101-c Page 177 148-a Page 179 157-c Page 191 217-d Page 194 235-d Page 197 249-a Page 216 345-c Page 220 364-e Page 223 377-a Page 239 457-c Page 240 462-e Page 246 494-c Page 249 506-d Page 252 4-a Page 257 28-e Page 260 44-c Page 270 91-d Page 277 129-b Page 286 29-b Page 287 33-b, 34-c Page 307 134-c Page 312 157-e Page 323 212-b Page 325 221-c Page 329 245-b Page 334 267-e Page 336 278-d Page 337 281-c
1) The midbrain is derived from which embryological structure? - Prosencephalon - Metencephalon - Myelencephalon Correct answer: Mesencephalon
2) The embryological metencephalon evenentually forms which two structures? - Pons and Midbrain - Cerebellum only - Medulla and Cerebellum Correct answer: Pons and Cerebellum
3) Which of the following is a SECONDARY BRAIN VESICLE? - Prosencephalon - Rhombencephalon - Mesencephalon Correct answer: Telencephalon
4) The diencephalon is located _____ to the brainstem
- Anteriorly - Dorsally - Laterally Correct answer: Superiorly
5) Which of the following is not true about dural venous sinuses? - They drain venous blood from the brain, delivering it to the internal jugular veins - They are bound by the two layers of dura mater - They are not found in the spinal cord Correct answer: They contain circulating CSF
6) Which of the following best describes the tentorium cerebelli - It is a fold of dura mater separating the cerebellum from the brainstem - It is a fold of arachnoid mater separating the cerebellum from the brainstem - It is a fold of arachnoid mater separating the cerebrum from the cerebellum Correct answer: It is a fold of dura mater separating the cerebrum from the cerebellum
7) The septum pelludicum separates - The fourth and third ventricles - The upper and lower portions of the fourth ventricle - The central canal from the median aperture Correct answer: The lateral ventricles
8) Which ventricle is located centrally within the brain, superior to the hypothalamus - Second - Third
- Fourth Correct answer: Third
9) What is the purpose of the choroid plexuses? - Reuptake of CSF - Formation of the blood brain brarrier - Drainage of venous blood from the brain Correct answer: Production of CSF
10) CSF is only produced in the lateral ventricles - TRUE Correct answer: FALSE
11) The cerebral aqueduct links which spaces? - The lateral ventricles to each other - The lateral ventricles to the third ventricle - The fourth ventricle to the subarachnoid space Correct answer: The third ventricle to the fourth ventricle
12) Which of the following is NOT true about the pyramids of the medulla? - They contain motor fibres only - They are composed of fibres extending from the cerebrum to the spinal cord - They are located on the anterior aspect of the medulla Correct answer: Its fibres control involuntary movements of the limbs
13) The cardiovascular centre and respiratory centre are nuclei located in/on
- the pons - the hypothalamus - the cerebellum Correct answer: the medulla
14) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the Pons? - It is associated with Cranial Nerves V, Vi, VII and VIII - It contains the pneumotaxic area and apneustic area - It is a bridge / relay station connecting different parts of the brain with each other Correct answer: It contains sensory tracts only
15) Which of the following does NOT arise from the vertebral arteries? - Basilar - Posterior cerebral - Cerebellar arteries Correct answer: Middle cerebral
16) Which of the following statements is true - The superior colliculus is responsible for processing information from the vestibulocochlear nerve - The superior and inferior colliculi are found on the pons - The superior colliculi are found on the tegmentum, whereas the inferior colliculi are found on the tectum Correct answer: The superior and inferior colliculi are found dorsal to the ventricular system of the brain
17) What is the general term given to a tract connecting the two cerebral hemispheres? - Funiculi - Peduncle
- Column Correct answer: Commisure
18) Which of the following refers to a sheet of white matter fibres enclosing grey matter? - Fasiculus - Peduncle - Tract Correct answer: Capsule
19) Which lobe is involved in visiospatial localisation - Temporal - Occipital - Frontal Correct answer: Parietal
20) Which part of the brain is described as having a 'neuroendocrine' role? - Thalamus - Hippocampus - Basal ganglia Correct answer: Hypothalamus
21) What is the function of the hypothalamus - Relay station between spinal cord and cerebrum - Memory - Neuroendocrine Correct answer: Controls the autonomic nervous system
FCPS PART1 MEDICINE PAPER 20th NOVEMBER 2012
1) A patient with a lesion in the nose,granulomas n proteinuria,most likely lesion? A) Wegner's granulomatosis B) leprosy c) sarcoidosis D ) TB 2) Which one is precancerous lesion?A) cervical erosion B) leukoplakia C) heamarthrosis d) duodenal ulcer 3) cardiac muscle cannot be tetanized because it has a) action potential with plateau b) gap junctions C) long duration of contraction d) long refractory period e) automaticity 4) In anion gap calculation NA is multiplied by 2 causes A) AnionsB) other cations C) proteins 5) Which of the following bone is first to ossify ?A) sternumB) clavicleC) humerusD) femur 6) Anterior fontanela close at ? A) 6 - 12 monthsB) 12- 18 monthsC) 18- 24 monthsD) 24- 30 months 7) Following causes activation of Cyclic Amp mechanism ?A) protein pumpB) Ion channelsC) receptorsD) hormoneE) Enzyme 8) which of the following is not in ant. relation to left kidney a) diaphragm b) pancreas c) stomach d) spleen E) splenic flexure 9) LIver held in its position in the body By?A) diaphgram B) peritoneal ligaments C) inferior vena ceva D) Falciform ligament 10) Cause of right shift of oxygen dissociation curve ?A) carbon monooxideB) fetal hemoglobinC) decrease PHD) increase PH 11) Avidin has the greatest affinity ?A) vitamin AB) B1C) biotinD) B 1E) vit C 12) highest caloric value ?A) carbohydratB) protiensC) fatsD) starch 13) Specificity of a test represnts ?A) true positivB) true negativeC) false positiveD) false negative 14) a know hypertensive on drug therapy..present in emergency with collapse..her plasma K is 6.1..what is the likely cause of collapseA..ARF B..CRF c...infection D..diuretics E..cushing 15) Triglycerides a. transported by lipoproteins b. 3 fatty acids having glucose 16) Which part of blood test should be sent for matching histo compatibility of the recipient and donor 1. WBC2. RBC3. Bone Marrow4. Serum5. Platelets 17) Which type of joint is Pubic Symphysis1. Sydesmosis2. Fibrocartilagenous3. Primary cartilagenous4. Secondary cartilagenous5. Synarthrosis
18) A tumor which changes its shape size and also reversible1. Metaplasia2. Anaplsia3. Desmoplasia4. Dysplasia 5. neoplasia
19) Pulse pressure is high in
1. heart Failure
2. haemmorhage
3. Aortic stenosis
20) A woman of 30 years old needs renal transplantation. 5 donors came up for her. Which of the following is best match for organ transplantation
1. Her Identical twin
2. Sister
3. Husband
4. Son
5. Half brother
21) What is correct regarding surfactant
1. Highest concentration in amniotic fluid is in last trimester
2. It decreases lung compliance
3. It forms a layer between maccro molecules
4. it is produced by Type 1 pneumocytes in the last trimester of pregnancy
5. Its production decreases as the size of alveoli decreases
22) prostacyclin is produced by
1. Peyer patches
2. Mast Cells
3. Fibroblasts
4. Endothelial Cells
5. Platelets
23)Thromboxane A2 is produced by
1. Peyer patches
2. Mast Cells
3. Fibroblasts
4. Endothelial Cells
5. Platelets
24) Which activates thirst center
1. ADH
2. Aldosterone
3. Renin
4. Angiotensin
5. ANP
25) Which of the following helps in regulation of sodium absorption
1. Atrial Natriuretic peptide
2. ADH
3. Aldosterone
4. Aldosterone + Atrial Natriuretic peptide
5. Renin
26) What is the rapidly acting antidote for Warfarin
1. VW factor
2. Platelets
3. Vit K
4. FFP
5. Factor VIII
27) Heparin is produced by
1. Plasma Cells
2. Basophils
3. Mast Cells
4. Mesenchymal Cells
5. Fibroblasts
28) What is the treatment of choice for the meningococcal meningitis, if he has no drug allergies.
1. Sulbactum
2. cefazolin
3. penicillin G
4. Ticarcillin
5. Methicillin
29) Which one of the following is helpful in the treatment of the subarachnoid haemmorhage
1. Nifedipine
2. Captopril
3. Nimodipine
4. Verapamil
5. Atenolol
30) In which one of the following disease there is a normal level of parathyroid hormone
1. Singers Nodule
2. Goitre
3. Osteomalacia
4. Osteoporosis
5. Hypothyroidism
31) In ECG what represents a T wave.
1. refractory period
2. ventricular re polarization
3. atrial systole
4. Ventricle diastole
5. Atrial re polarization
32) A 20 years old male feels dypsnea on on lying supine, which one of the following causes this.
1. puberty goitre
2. retrosternal goitre
3. thyrotoxcosis
4. toxic nodular goitre
5. Eu thyroid
33) Which tumor derives all the 3 germ layers.
1. Adenocarcinoma
2. Teratoma
3. Rhabdomyosarcoma
4. Chancroid
5. Bronchogenic Carcinoma
34) Which type of neurotransmitter will you find during slow wave sleep
1. Serotonin
2. Enkephalin
3. Dopamine
4. Endorphin
5. Melatonin
35) Subarachnoid space ends at
1. L1
2. T12
3. L3-L4
4. S2-S3
5. L5
36) Which of the following disease is caused by the bite of mosquito
1. Ochronosis
2. Filariasis
3. Whipple
4. Ascariasis
5. Ascariasis
37) A 32 year old woman with discoid rash, arthritis, and oral ulcers. Which of the following is the choice of test.
1. Anti double strand DNA
2. ANA
3. Warm Antibody test
4. Protein C
5. HLA B 3
38) A 40 year old man, by profession a fiherman, has following CBC report. Hb is 10.4, MCV is 60, Plt is 220. Which of the following is most likely parasite in his body.
1. Ascariasis
2. Diphyllobothrium latum
3. Hook worm
4. Strongyloides stercoralis
5. Scabies
39) COX 2 inhibitor
1. Ibuprofen
2. Indomethacin
3. Meloxicam
4. Piroxicam
40) A 15yr oldboy present with sudden onset generalized purpura.a diagnosis wad made.which one of the lab invt will b imp for diagnosis
1.capillary abnormality
2..platelet count 20.(10)9/L
3.platecount 90.(10)9/L
41) Secondery transport, a. urea b. protien c. amino acid d. glucose
42) leison of pyramid at medulla cause .
1. Balancing
2. motor loss
3. propeception
4. Discrimination loss
43) the fibrous pericardium and serous pericardium receives innervation from
1.vagus nerve
2.phrenic nerve
4.intercostal nerves
5.
44) Increased parasympathetic stimulation wiil cause relaxation of
1.gut walls
2.brochial smooth msc
3.GIT shincters
4.urinary bladder msc
5.pupillary shincter
45) external juguler vein is formed by
1. behind angle of mandible over the surface of sternocleidomastoid
2.union of posterior division of retromandibular vein and anterior auricular vein
3.have no tributaries
46)In insulin deficiency
1. Liver produces ketones
47)Which reflex in defecation
1. anorectal
2. rectoanal
48) Enzymes which transfer radical from one molecule to another
*hydrolases
*oxidoreductases*
*transferases
49) question abt igA nephropathy
* increased mesnagial mass
* thicked Basemnt meb
*fused podocytes
50) melanoma risk increase in
*xeromantum pignosum
51) ant triangle sensory supply (dermatome)
*c2 c3
*c3 c4
*c2
*c4
52) pathologenic method of virus?
* alterations in proteins
* free radical formation
53) sicle cell disese
* hb s factor
*leukocytosis
54) sympthetic muscrainc supply
* sweat glands
55) glucagon increase in
* exercise
* free fatty acids
56) 8th cervical sympt loss
*partial ptosis
57) soldier came from high attitude, drug ?
* acetazolamaide(Ans)
* erythropaoitn
58) in exercise.. one of the following did nt get full blood supply ?
* kidney
* skin
* brain
*heart
*skeletal muscles
59) cerebeelum injury will cause inabilty of following except
* rapid movements
* co ordination of shoulder joint to raise hand
*initiate the movement
* can stop finger beyond the target
60) basal ganglia injry ( not apropriate)
atony of bladder
limba jerky movent swinging of hands
flat face intension tremors
61) beta endorphins found in
* basal ganglia
*thalamus
*hypothalamus
*brainstem
62) pharngeal swalloing
* palatophrangeal arch go lateraly
* larynx moves donward
*vocal cords approximated
*phrngeooesophageal sphincter contracts (Ans)?
63)muscular dystrophy wat is true
* duthchen type is x linke ressive
64) blood pressure increased frm 140/80 to 160/100/.. change in csf?
* no change in cerebralflow
* csf flow rate inc
* csf formation inc
* cushing reaction
65)stroke vol increased by
* diastole fall presure
* systolic pressure
* increased contraclity
66) peripheral n cns chemoreceptros
* inc in pco2(Ans)
* dec in o2
67) major paracrine inhibition of gastric hcl
* somatostatin
* gastrin
* histamine
*enterogastrone
68) male pt with breats enlargment, with no erection , increase?
* gonadotropin realasing hormone
* prolactin
69) physiological nystagmus
*intact vestibular system
* cerebellaer sys
* slow in long component
70) myosin head covered by
* tropomyosin( ans) ?
* tropnin C
* trop T
71) scenario... preneoplastic old male genital lesion
* balntidis ...
*lichen simplex c
* HSv
72) scenario pt unable to pass urine..
*atonia bladder
*parasym effernt to bladder
*viscearl effernt to blader
73) steroid hormone action thru
* nuclear mem changes
* genes activation
* cell mem permeabilty
74) Intestinal pain is reffered to
a.umblicus
b.epigastric
c.back
75) Which non vasodilator drug is effective in angina?
A.metoprolol
b.nitroglycerine
c.nifedipine
d.verapamil
76) Regarding inguinal canal what is most approriate
a.it is absent in infants
b.bounded superiorly by cojoint tendon
c.illiohypogastric n pases
78) A man lying naked at operation table with room temprature 21.5 C and 80% humidity by which mechanism heat transfer from body
a) By Veporization
b) Radiation and conduction (ans)
c) sweating
d) respiration
79) what is the best way of communication between a patient and doctor
a) A clean room
b) Active Listening (ans)
c ) speak Loudly
d) well furnished clinic
80) A man is diagnosed by a fatal illness which has v poor prognosis as a doctor what will u do
a) Hide every thing
b) tell the nature of illness to patients family only
c) tell the nature of illness to patient and his family only
d) tell the nature of illness only to the patient
e) Give crispy and evidence based whole information of the illness to patient
81) Atheroma...what is correct...
*core contain proteins
*only cause of ischemic heart disease
*only cause of arteriosclerosis
*More common in males than females
82) 20yr old male,smoker on climbing stairs c/o chest pain n dyspnea... Cause of breathlessnes in this patient
*Ventilation perfusion mismatch
83)sever dehydratiin...
A ecf decrease
b intracellular fluid decrease
c plasma decrease
d both ECF and ICF decrease
84) patient known case of HIV present with abdominal distention on aus bowel sounds absent... laprotomy reveals mass in ileum.. (description of mass i dnt remember exactly). diagnosis
* large B cell lymphoma
*hodgkins lymphoma
*metastatic adenocarcinoma
85) which carcinoma do not SPREAD to bones
a)kidney
b)breast
c)prostate...
86)Total Peripheral resistence in a vascular system depends on
a arterial pressure
b microcircution,
c venous tone
d vasomotor tone
87) most commonly associated with HIV
*toxoplasma
*pnemocystic carinii
*HSV
*chicken pox
88) child with skin itching..stool examination reveal worms.. presence of which wd aid in diagnosis *basophils
*eosinophils
*lymphocytes
89) a child with x linked agammaglobulinemia increase risk of infection
*pyogenic
*viral
*fungal
90) which is present in lateral sulcus of cerebral hemisphere
*insula
*opercula
*splenium
91) distal ileum removed..reabsorption decrease
*bile salts
*proteins
*iron
92) most imp feature distinguishing malignant n benign
*metastasis
*invasive n infiltrative margins
93) role of granulation tissue in wound healing by secondary intention
* wound contraction
*traps the bacteria
94) which is not true about coronary artery
*anastamose freely in wall of heart
*are first branch of aorta
*blockage result in ischemic heart disease
95) A new borne presented with tachypnea O/E there is decrease breath sound on left side normal breath on right side, chest x ray show gut loops in left side of the pleural cavity what is the likely cause? a) defective
pleuropericardial membrane b) atresia of lower esopahagus c) defective pleuroperitoneal membrane d) Hitus hernia e) Dextrocardia
96) Which artry does not suply breast
a.axilary
b.musculophrenic
c.thoracoacromial
97) CSf reabsorption most appropriate
Arachnoid villi
Choroid plexus
98) Child with vomitting, yellow discolaration of sclera,dark coloured urine. Relevant investigation... *hep A n B Serology
*serum bilirubin n ALT
*Alkaline phosphatase
* total bilirubin
99) In autosomal dominant disease
1.both parents of affected child have the disease
2.only one parent of affected child has the disease
3.none have the disease
100) pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
-indirectly measures left atrial pressure
-indirectly measures right atrial pressure
-is named because of wedge shape of catheter
101) most common agent of bacterial peritonitis?
a e coli
102) which is the short term iportant effect of angiotensin II?
a. vasoconstriction
b. stimulation of the thirst center
103) which of the following is responsible for the net reabsorption of sodium in the kidney?
a. aldosterone
b. atrial natriuretic peptide
c. Renin angiotensin system
d. aldosterone and ANP
104) Most common bacteria causing meningitis secndary to lung abcess
*streptococci
*peneumococci
*staphylococci
105) Mechanism of action of ondansetron
*5 HT3 antagonist
*dopamine antagonist at central chemoreceptor trigger zone
106) Edema fluid in acute inflammation
*contain lymphocye
*donot contain fibrinogen
*specific gravity 1.010
*protein more than 3gm
*is a transudate
107) Patient presented with lesion on nose. Lab shows proteinuria... Histopathology reveals granuloma vasculitis. Most likely diagnosis..
*Leprosy
*wegener granulomatosis
108) Median ligament is a remanant of
*umblical artery
*umblical vein
*urachus
109) In stress,level of all hormones increases except a GH b cortisol c ADH d insulin
110) A child with mental retardation,protuding tongue,umblicl hernia, upward slant of lateral canthus, hypotonia n hypermobility... Trisomy? *18 *21 *13
111) all genetic disease have common basis,it should include the defect of 1.dna 2.rna 3.nucleotide 4.mRNA
112) whats not correct about supra renal gland 1.both glands receives blood sypply only from aortic branches 2. inf phrenic artrery gives sup.suprenal artery 3.aorta supplies both gland 4.renal artery give branches to the gland
113) which vein accompany the left anterior interventricular septum artery great cardiac vein oblique vein small cardiac vein
114) nerve supply of sternocleidomastoid a)accessory b)facial c)glossopharngeal d)...
115) propagation of action potential is bcz of a increased intracellular Na+ b depolaization of membrane c ca inlux
116) which antacid slows gastric emptyng A.aluminium hydoxide B.magnesium hdroxide C.sodium bicarb
117) The transitional epithelium lining the urinary bladder is derived from (A) ectoderm (B) endoderm (C) mesoderm (D) endoderm and mesoderm (E) neural crest ..
ans : A
ref : BRS Embryology
118) Which is nt in post relatn of lesser sac *celiac ganglion *rt suprarenal gland *lt suprarenal gland *lt kidney
119) Which one is nt ant relatn of lt kidney *splenic flexure *spleen *pancreas *diaphragm *stomach
120) Most common acquired mutation in thrombotic disordr *antithrombin defeciency *protein c defeciency *protein s deficiency
Antiphopholipid syndrome
121) Which is not physiologicl function of thyroid *anabolic action on adipose tissue *catabolic action on muscle * inc metabolism of lipoprotein
122) Which is nt function of liver *cholesterol synthesis *albumin synthesis *lipogenesis *gamma globulin synthesis
123) Biguanides s/e *hypoglycemia *flatulence diarrhea
124) Infusion of large amount of dextrose in water.wht wd b inhibited *ADH *aldosterone *vasopressin *cortisol *insulin
125) Haemorrhage infarct seen in *spleen *lung with thromoembolism *liver
126) Pulse pressure increase with *aortic stenosis *heart failure *hypertensn *haemorrhage
127) Facial nerve paralysis with loss of taste sensation ant 2/3rd tongue.lesion at *facial canal *internal auditory meatus *stylomastoid foramen
128) most of the lymph is filtered by : peyer's patches lymph nodes spleen thymus
129) edema is caused by : Decreased hydrostatic pressure Increased osmotic pressure lymph obstruction
130) which route of administration of drug highly affects bio-availability? a-oral b-iv c-sc d-im e-sub lingual
131) Permanent cells are *myocardial cells *glial cells *hepatocytes
132) effect of clostridium botulinum toxin ingestion? a-fllacid paralysis of resp muscles b-vomiting c-fever
133) What is most appropriate abt thyroid gland... *parathyroid lies on superolateral surface *epithelium change acc to function *isthmus lies above cricoid cartilage
134) Patient on ATT c/o pain in joint uric acid 10 which drug must b stop *rifampicin *pyrizinamide *streptomycin
135) Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase score decrease in *CML
136) Heart sound produced by rapid ventricular filling *s3 *s4 *s1
137) a pateint has glucose level of 100mg/dl but glycosuria occurs this is due to a decrease renal threshold for glucose b proximal tubule is unable to absorb glucose c absorption in proximal tubule is decresed
138) anterior fontanelle close @ a 12 to 18 month b 18 t0 24 months
139) foot drop occur by which nerve paralysis a.tibial n b,commen peronial nerve c.post tibial n d,sciatic nerve
140) a women has been injected ppd after 24 hours there was a scar appears,and it was surrounded by macrophages and ? A.nuetophil B.basophill c.easinophill
Tcells
141) Child with peripheral edema,enlarged liver, mcv 105,dec hb... s.albumin decreased,which nutritional deficiency is the chid suffering: -marasmus -kwashiorkor -pernicioous anemia
142) which nerve cross cavernous sinus a,occullo b,abducent c,trochela d,trg
143) In trigeminal neuralgia,injection is inserted into trigeminal ganglion present in: -ant cranial fossa -post cranial fossa -middle cranial fossa -pterigopalatine fossa
144) T wave in ECG *at the begining of refractory period *during ventricuLar repoLarization
145) an elderly t, on some antihyPertensive, comes with unconj bilirubin raised! which drug is being used? methyl doPa
146) if the percentage of heart diseases is 10% and hyperlipidemias is 30% than wt will be the percentage of these two occurring together? a)0.35 b)1 c)0.37 d)0.33
147) Antibodies formed in a) Thymus b) Plasma cells c) Lymphocytes d) Spleen e) liver
148) A patient receives radiotherapy for Squamous Cell Carcinoma, some time later the there is scarring & ulceration to the skin because of:
a- Damage to the squamous epithelium b- Endarteritis obliterans c- infection d- venous thrombosis
149)Bottom of Form
150) The most significant agent in causing Cerebral Malaria:
P.vivax P.Falciparum P.malarae P.Ovale
151) Athlete is unable to rotate his foot medially(inversion) bt turns easily laterally.cause is damage to...
a.ext haluucis longus nd flexr hallucis longus b.tibialis anterior nd hallucis longus c.tibialis posterior nd extnsr hallucis longus d.tibialis ant nd flexr hallucis longus
Tibialis anterior and tibialis posterior
152) A patient with tumor in the Right Superior bronchus which segment is likely to be affected: a- Apical Superior b- Apical Basal c- Superior Basa
153) effects of morphine is prefereble in which condition. A.crf B terminal stage of cancer C biliary colic
154) Difference b/w septc and hypovolumic shock., . temperature heart rate respiratory rate pallor hypotension
155) decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and serium parathyroid hormone increase because of a,hypoparathyroidisam b,renal failure
156) Diaphragm =
intercostals n phrenic nerves supply? 1. formed by somatic mesoderm, 2.esophagus pierce its central tendon, 3.some plexure or autonomic nerver pass thro/pierce it. ....
Tuberculous patient biopsy of lymph node done , diagnosis on a.epitheloid cell b.multinucled giant cell c.mono nucleitid cell
Caseous necrosis
157) iron is stored in parenchymal cells as A...ferritin B...hemosiderin
158) Wats true if a boy steps on needle? A. Its multisynaptic b. No interneuron c. Receptors are encapsulated
159) aglutinogens are a.antibodies b.secreted in saliva c.enzymes
160).auditory pathway...
amygdale is part new olfactory pathway
dendrites terminate on granule cells
161).Not presend in axon...
Golgi,
mitochondria,
nissl bodies
162).one q about tuberculous lesion and in option were........
antibodies transferable
antibody attached to mycobacterium
cell bound..
163) .cervicl lymph nod biopsy show difus polyclonal hyperplasia
infectious mononucleosis
brucellosis
lymphocytic lymphoma
164) .diazepam cause mescl relaxation actin on nurimscular jnctn,
cerebral cortex,
interneurons....
165) .balance of K+ in ECF and ICF maintained by-
Na-K ATPase pump
166) .wen will occcur bronchoconatriction morning
evening
night sleep
noon
167).41% hematocrit
41% RBCs
168) .plasma flow-
hippuric acid
169) .most impoortant for graft survuval?
ABO compatibility
HLA matching
170) .foam cels
macrophages Not part of diencephelon?
Zehra Jaffery March's ppr?? e ans...plz Yesterday at 1:57am via mobile Like Write a comment...
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday ANSWERS WILL BE POSTED AFTER FEW HOURS...
Like Share FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Regarding the clavicle, all are correct EXCEPT:
a. It is an example of the short bones.
b. It is the first bone to ossify in the fetal life.
c. It ossifies in membrane.
d. It is the commonly fractured bone.
e. It has no medullary cavity. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The most common site of fracture of the clavicle is:
a. Medial end.
b. Lateral end.
c. Midpoint of the clavicle.
d. Junction of the medial two-thirds and the lateral third.
e. Junction of the lateral two-thirds and the medial third. 2Like Share
View 2 more comments FCPS Part1 Q BANK d 12 hours ago Like Write a comment...
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday These muscles are attached to the medial two thirds of the clavicle EXCEPT:
a. Sternomastoid.
b. Deltoid.
c. Pectoralis major.
d. Subclavius.
e. Sternohyoid.
1Like Share
View 1 more comment FCPS Part1 Q BANK b 12 hours ago Like Kiramatullah Marwat b 10 hours ago via mobile Like Write a comment...
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Regarding the articulations of the clavicle, one is correct:
a. The medial end articulates with the manubrium by fibrous articulation. b. The medial end articulates with the manubrium by cartilaginous articulation.
c. The medial end articulates with the body of the sternum by saddle synovial joint.
d. The lateral end articulates with the acromion by fibrous articulation.
e. The lateral end articulates with the acromion by plane synovial articulation. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday One of he following is not attached to the medial border of the scapula:
a. Levator scapulae.
b. Teres minor.
c. Serratus anterior.
d. Rhombideus minor.
e. Rhomboideus major. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday
All of the following parts of the scapula can be felt EXCEPT:
a. Acromion process.
b. Crest of the spine.
c. Upper border.
d. Inferior angle.
e. Tip of the coracoid process. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The glenoid cavity articulates with the head of the humerus by a:
a. Fibrous articulation.
b. Cartilaginous articulation.
c. Plane synovial articulation.
d. Ball and socket synovial articulation.
e. Hinge synovial articulation. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The surgical neck of the humerus is related to the:
a. Radial nerve.
b. Axillary nerve.
c. Ulnar nerve.
d. Median nerve.
e. None of the above. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The deltopectoral groove contains:
a. Deltoid branch of the lateral thoracic artery. b. Cephalic vein. c. Apical group of axillary lymph nodes. d. All of the above. e. None of the above. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The axilla contains all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Axillary artery.
b. Axillary vein.
c. Trunks of the brachial plexus.
d. Fat.
e. Tail of the breast. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The bicipital groove of the humerus lodges (contains) the:
a. Axillary artery.
b. Long head of the biceps.
c. Long head of the triceps.
d. Coracobrachialis.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Muscle/s taking origin from the clavicle is/are:
a. Subclavius.
b. Trapezius.
c. Pectoralis major.
d. All of the above.
e. a and b only. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday One of the following is a branch of the second part of the axillary artery:
a. Lateral thoracic artery.
b. Anterior circumflex humeral artery.
c. Posterior circumflex humeral artery.
d. Superior thoracic artery.
e. Subscapular artery. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The thoracoacromial artery is a branch of the:
a. Subclavian artery.
b. First part of the axillary artery.
c. Second part of the axillary artery.
d. Third part of the axillary artery.
e. Brachial artery. Like Share
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The breast is supplied by:
a. Lateral thoracic artery.
b. Internal thoracic artery.
c. Intercostals arteries.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The female breast:
a. Has a nipple that is usually located opposite the 6th intercostals space.
b. Has Coopers ligament that suspends the breast.
c. Has a bed formed mainly by the serratus anterior muscle.
d. Has about 5 lactiferous sinuses.
e. Its lymphatics drain mainly in the parasternal lymph nodes. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The brachial plexus has:
a. 8 rami (roots).
b. 5 trunks.
c. 6 divisions.
d. 4 cords.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The usual number of branches of the medial cord of the brachial plexus:
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.
e. 5. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The usual number of branches of the lateral cord of the brachial plexus:
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.
e. 5. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The earliest bone to ossify in the body is:
a. Humerus.
b. Radius.
c. Ulna.
d. Clavicle.
e. Femur. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The deep pectoral fascia:
a. Invests the subclavius muscle.
b. Invests the pectoralis minor muscle.
c. Separates the pectoralis major from the breast.
d. Pierced by the lateral pectoral nerve.
e. All of the above. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Regarding the axilla, one is INCORRECT:
a. The axillary artery terminates at the lower border of teres major.
b. The brachial plexus terminates at the lower border of the pectoralis minor.
c. The third part of the axillary artery is related to the cords of the brachial plexus.
d. The axillary lymph nodes receive 75% of the lymphatics of the breast.
e. The anterior fold of the axilla is higher than the posterior fold. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The anterior wall of the axilla is formed by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Pectoralis major.
b. Teres major.
c. Pectoralis minor.
d. Subclavius.
e. Clavipectoral fascia. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday In Erbs paralysis, the deformity is called:
a. Winging of the scapula.
b. Claw hand.
c. Ape hand.
d. Wrist drop.
e. Policemans tip position. Unlike Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday In Klumpkes paralysis, the deformity is called:
b. Claw hand.
c. Ape hand.
d. Wrist drop.
e. Policemans tip position. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle causes:
b. Claw hand.
c. Ape hand.
d. Wrist drop.
e. Policemans tip position. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The suprascapular nerve is a branch from the:
a. Roots of the brachial plexus.
b. Upper trunk.
c. Middle trunk.
d. Posterior cord.
e. Lateral cord. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The root value of the long thoracic nerve is:
a. C5.
b. C6.
c. C7.
d. C5, 6 & 7
e. C5, 6, 7 & 8 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The anterior (pectoral) group of the axillary lymph nodes is located along the:
a. Upper part of the axillary vein.
b. Lower part of the axillary vein.
c. Lateral thoracic artery.
d. Subscapular artery.
e. None of the above. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday . Lymphatics from the skin of the back above the iliac crest drain into the:
a. Pectoral group of the axillary lymph nodes.
b. Subscapular group of the axillary lymph nodes.
c. Central group of the axillary lymph nodes.
d. Apical group of the axillary lymph nodes.
e. Parasternal lymph nodes. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Lymphatics that accompany the cephalic vein drain into the:
e. Lateral group of the axillary lymph nodes.
1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Lymphatics from the medial zone of the breast drain into the:
FCPS Part1 Q BANK e 12 hours ago Like
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Lymphatics from the nipple and areola drain into the:
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The trapezius muscle is supplied by the:
a. Cranial accessory nerve.
b. Spinal accessory nerve.
c. Long thoracic nerve.
d. Dorsal scapular nerve.
e. Thoracodorsal nerve. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday One of the following muscles is not a rotator cuff muscle:
a. Supraspinatus.
b. Infraspinatus.
c. Teres minor.
d. Teres major.
e. Subscapularis. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Paralysis of the deltoid muscle causes:
a. Loss of abduction of the arm from zero to 15.
b. Loss of abduction of the arm from 15 90
c. Loss of abduction of the arm from zero to 90.
d. Loss of abduction of the arm from 90 180
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The axillary nerve supplies the:
a. Muscle that abducts the arm from zero to15.
b. Muscle that abducts the arm from 15 90.
c. Muscle that forms the rounded contour of the shoulder.
d. a and c.
e. b and c.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The suprascapular nerve supplies:
a. Muscle inserted into the upper impression of the greater tuberosity of the humerus.
b. Muscle inserted into the middle impression of the greater tuberosity of the humerus.
c. Muscle that initiates abduction of the arm.
e. a and b only. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Lesion of the axillary nerve causes:
b. Flat shoulder.
c. Claw hand.
d. Ape hand.
e. Wrist drop. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Muscles that rotate the scapula downward are attached to:
a. Ventral lip of the medial border of the scapula.
b. Dorsal lip of the medial border of the scapula.
c. Upper lip of the crest of the spine.
d. Lower lip of the crest of the spine.
e. a and c. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Muscles that rotate the scapula upward are attached to the:
a. Ventral lip of the medial border of the scapula.
b. Dorsal lip of the medial border of the scapula.
c. Upper lip of the crest of the spine.
d. Lower lip of the crest of the spine.
e. a and c. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday All the muscles attached to the bicipital (intertubercular) groove:
a. Abduct the arm (shoulder joint).
b. Adduct the arm.
c. Medial rotation of the arm.
d. a and c.
e. b and c. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Anastomosis around the scapula connects the subclavian artery with the:
a. First part of the axillary artery.
b. Second part of the axillary artery.
c. Third part of the axillary artery.
d. Brachial artery.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Triangle of auscultation is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Latissimus dorsi.
b. Teres major.
c. Rhomboid major.
d. Trapezius.
e. Medial border of the scapula. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The quadrangular space is bounded by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Teres minor.
b. Teres major.
c. Long head of biceps.
d. Long head of triceps.
e. Surgical neck of the humerus. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Regarding the biceps brachii, one is INCORRECT:
a. Has long head attached to the supraglenoid tubercle.
b. Has short head attached to the tip of the coracoid process.
c. Has a tendon inserted into the radial tuberosity.
d. It flexes the elbow joint.
e. It is powerful supinator of the extended elbow. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The direction of the nutrient foramen of the humerus is:
a. Upward.
b. Downward.
c. Medially.
d. Laterally.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The bicipital aponeurosis passes obliquely deep to the:
a. Brachial artery.
b. Median cubital vein.
c. Median nerve.
d. Radial nerve.
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In movements of the arm, the coracobrachialis assists in:
a. Flexion.
b. Exatension.
c. Abduction.
d. Rotation.
e. Supination. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The brachial artery:
a. Bifurcates opposite the neck of the humerus.
b. Is deep throughout its entire course.
c. In the cubital fossa, it lies medial to the biceps tendon.
d. The median nerve crosses in front of the artery from the medial to the lateral side.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The cubital fossa is bounded by the:
a. Pronator quadratus.
b. Brachioradialis.
c. Coracobrachialis.
d. Biceps tendon.
e. a and b only Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm is derived from the:
a. C5.
b. C6.
c. C7.
d. C5, 6, 7
e. C6, 7, 8 Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The anterior compartment of the arm contains all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Biceps.
b. Triceps.
c. Brachialis.
d. Coracobrachialis.
e. Brachial artery. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Muscles innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve:
a. Brachialis.
b. Coracobrachialis.
c. Biceps.
e. Triceps. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The cubital fossa contains all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Brachial artery.
b. Radial artery.
c. Radial nerve.
d. Ulnar nerve.
e. Median nerve. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The constriction below the greater and lesser tuberosities of the humerus is called:
a. Anatomical neck.
b. Surgical neck.
c. Humeral shaft.
d. Humeral ring.
e. None of the abov Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The lesser tuberosity of the humerus gives attachment to the:
a. Supraspinatus.
b. Infraspinatus.
c. Teres minor.
d. Teres major.
e. Subscapularis. 1Like Share
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The proximal row of the carpal bones consists of all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Scaphoid.
b. Lunate.
c. Trapezium.
d. Pisiform.
e. Triquetral. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Regarding the ulnar nerve, all are correct EXCEPT:
a. Is the largest branch of the medial cord of the brachial plexus.
b. Carries fibers from C6, C7 and C8.
c. Has no branches in the arm.
d. It enters the hand superficial to the flexor retinaculum.
e. Injury of the nerve causes partial claw hand. 1Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Regarding the median nerve, all are correct EXCEPT:
a. Arises from both the medial and lateral cords of the brachial plexus.
b. It crosses the brachial artery at the insertion of the coracobrachialis.
c. In the cubital fossa, it lies lateral to the brachial artery.
d. It enters the hand in the carpal tunnel.
e. Injury of the nerve causes ape-like hand. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday One of the following is not a branch of the radial artery:
a. Radial recurrent artery.
b. Common interosseous artery.
c. Palmar (anterior) carpal.
d. Dorsal (posterior) carpal.
e. Deep palmar arch. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The median nerve supplies all of the following muscles EXCEPT:
a. Flexor carpi ulnaris.
b. Flexor carpi radialis.
c. Flexor digitorum superficialis.
d. Palmaris longus.
e. Pronator teres 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The ulnar nerve supplies all of the following muscles EXCEPT:
a. Adductor pollicis.
b. Flexor pollicis longus.
c. Interossei muscles.
d. Hypothenar muscles.
e. Medial 2 lumbricals. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK
Yesterday The ulnar nerve:
a. is a branch from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus.
b. Carries fibers from C8 and T1.
c. Supplies all the superficial muscles of the front of the forearm except flexor carpi ulnaris.
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The distal row of the carpal bones consists of:
a. Scaphoid.
b. Lunate.
c. Triquetral.
d. Pisiform.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Structure crossing superficial to the flexor retinaculum:
a. Median nerve.
b. Ulnar nerve.
c. Flexor digitorum superficialis.
d. Flexor pollicis longus.
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Carpal tunnel syndrome causes:
a. Claw hand.
b. Wrist drop.
c. Paralysis of all muscles of the hand.
d. Ape-like hand.
e. Waiters tip position.
Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The usual number of branches of the median nerve in the arm:
a. 0
b. 1
c. 3
d. 4
e. 6 Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The usual number of branches of the ulnar nerve in the arm:
a. 0
b. 1
c. 3
d. 4
e. 6 Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Branches of the radial artery at the wrist include:
a. 1st dorsal metacarpal artery.
b. 2nd dorsal metacarpal artery.
c. 3rd dorsal metacarpal artery.
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday . Regarding the bicipital aponeurosis, one is incorrect:
a. It is an extension from the tendon of the biceps.
b. It blends with the deep fascia covering the extensor muscles of the forearm.
c. Passes over the brachial artery.
d. Crosses the front of the median nerve.
e. Separates the median nerve from the median cubital vein. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Branches of the ulnar artery in the forearm include:
a. Common interosseous artery.
b. Anterior ulnar recurrent artery.
c. Superficial palmar branch.
e. A and B only. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The following muscles are innervated by the median nerve EXCEPT:
a. Pronator teres.
b. Pronator quadratus.
c. Flexor pollicis longus.
d. Opponens pollicis.
e. Adductor pollicis. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK
Yesterday Muscles taking origin from the radius:
a. Biceps.
b. Supinator.
c. Pronator quadratus.
d. Flexor pollicis longus.
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Relations of the ulnar artery at the wrist:
a. Lies anterior to the flexor retinaculum.
b. Lies lateral to the pisiform bone.
c. Lies medial to the ulnar nerve.
e. A and B only. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Relations of the median nerve at the wrist:
a. Lies in the carpal tunnel.
b. 2 inches above the wrist, it becomes subcutaneous.
c. Lies between the tendons of the palmaris longus and flexor carpi radialis.
e. A and B only.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday As a result of injury of the ulnar nerve at the wrist:
a. Marked wasting (atrophy) of the thenar eminence.
b. The thumb cannot be abducted.
c. The thumb cannot be adducted.
d. Loss of sensation over the thumb.
e. A and B are correct. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday answers of all the MCQ's have been posted. Like Share FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday MCQ' HAVE BEEN POSTED.. ANSWERS WILL BE POSTED AFTER 4HOURS :) Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK likes this. View 2 more comments Sana Shahid V dificult ques of neuro!! Made me tensed!!::-( Tuesday at 10:35pm via mobile Like 1 FCPS Part1 Q BANK its all about cramming.. Tuesday at 11:46pm Like Write a comment...
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding the medial geniculate body, all are correct EXCEPT:
a. It receives auditory information from both ears but mainly from the opposite ear. b. It receives auditory information from the superior colliculus. c. It projects to the auditory area in the superior temporal gyrus.
d. It projects through the sublenticular part of the internal capsule. e. A lesion causes bilateral diminution of hearing. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday . Regarding the thalamic nuclei, all are correct EXCEPT:
a. The anterior nucleus is part of the limbic system. b. The medial nucleus is connected with the prefrontal cortex (personality center). c. The ventral anterior nucleus is connected with the motor and premotor areas. d. The ventral posterior lateral nucleus receives the medial lemniscus. e. The ventral posterior medial nucleus receives the spinal lemniscus. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding the facial nerve, all are correct EXCEPT:
a. It supplies all muscles of the second pharyngeal arch. b. It exits from the cerebello-pontine angle. c. Has motor nucleus that forms the facial colliculus. d. Has parasympathetic fibers that relay in the sphenopalatine ganglion. e. Has sensory fibers that end in the nucleus solitarius. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding the parasympathetic nuclei of the brainstem, all are correct EXCEPT:
a. Fibers from the inferior salivatory nucleus relay in the otic ganglion. b. Fibers from the inferior salivatory nucleus pass through the deep petrosal nerve. c. The Edinger-Westphal nucleus gives fibers to the oculomotor nerve. d. Fibers from the superior salivatory nucleus relay in the submandibular ganglion. e. The dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus is present in the floor of the 4th ventricle. Like Share
a. The Edinger-Westphal nucleus is located in the midbrain opposite the inferior colliculus. b. Fibers from Edinger-Westphal nucleus relay in the ciliary ganglion. c. The superior salivatory nucleus is located in the pons. d. The inferior salivatory nucleus is located in the medulla oblongata. e. The dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus is located in the medulla oblongata. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK a Yesterday at 12:05am Like Write a comment...
a. The superior salivatory nucleus supplies the lacrimal gland. b. The superior salivatory nucleus supplies the submandibular salivary gland. c. Fibers from the superior salivatory nucleus relay in the sphenopalatine ganglion. d. The inferior salivatory nucleus supplies the parotid gland. e. The Edinger-Westphal nucleus supplies the dilator pupillae muscle. 1Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK e Yesterday at 12:05am Like Kiramatullah Marwat e 9 hours ago via mobile Like Write a comment...
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Nucleus solitarius receives all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Taste sensation from the anterior two thirds of the tongue via the chorda tympani. b. Taste sensation from the posterior third of the tongue via the glossopharyngeal nerve. c. Taste sensation from the epiglottis via the vagus nerve. d. General sensation from the anterior two thirds of the tongue via the lingual nerve. e. General sensation from the viscera supplied by the vagus nerve. 1Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK d Yesterday at 12:04am Like 1 Kiramatullah Marwat d 9 hours ago via mobile Like Write a comment...
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday
Nucleus ambiguous supplies all of the following muscles EXCEPT:
a. All muscles of the larynx. b. Stylopharyngeus muscle. c. Constrictor muscles of the pharynx. d. Palatoglossus muscle. e. Tensor palati. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Nucleus ambiguous gives fibers to all of the following nerves EXCEPT:
a. Glossopharyngeal nerve. b. Vagus nerve. c. Spinal accessory nerve. d. Cranial accessory nerve. e. Recurrent laryngeal nerve. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Nucleus ambiguous gives fibers to all of the following nerves EXCEPT:
a. Glossopharyngeal nerve. b. Vagus nerve. c. Spinal accessory nerve. d. Cranial accessory nerve. e. Recurrent laryngeal nerve. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Constriction of the right pupil when light is directed at the left eye needs all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Left optic nerve. b. Left pretectal nucleus.
c. Right oculomotor nerve. d. Right optic nerve. e. Right Edinger-Westphal nucleus. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Constriction of the right pupil when light is directed at the left eye needs all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Left optic nerve. b. Left pretectal nucleus. c. Left optic radiation. d. Right Edinger-Westphal nucleus. e. Optic chiasma. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday A vascular lesion of the primary visual area (17) may cause one of the following:
a. Blindness. b. Binasal hemianopia. c. Bitemporal hemianopia. d. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia. e. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday A pituitary adenoma (tumor) may cause one of the following:
a. Blindness.
b. Binasal hemianopia. c. Bitemporal hemianopia. d. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia. e. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Contralateral homonymous hemianopia indicates a lesion in all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Optic chiasma. b. Optic tract. c. Lateral geniculate body. d. Optic radiation. e. Primary visual area. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Bitemporal hemianopia indicates a lesion in:
a. Optic nerve. b. Central part of the optic chiasma. c. Peripheral part of the optic chiasma. d. Optic tract. e. Optic radiation. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Concerning the trigeminal nuclei, one is CORRECT:
a. The main sensory nucleus is located in the medulla oblongata. b. The spinal nucleus extends in the spinal cord till the 6th cervical segment. c. The main sensory nucleus conveys pain and temperature sensations from the face. d. The mesencephalic nucleus conveys proprioceptive impulses from the muscles of mastication. e. They project to the ventral posterior lateral nucleus of the thalamus. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday . The hypoglossal nerve:
a. Carries taste sensation from the posterior third of the tongue. b. Carries fibers from the2nd and 3rd cervical nerves. c. Emerges between the olive and the inferior cerebellar peduncle. d. Supplies all the muscles of the tongue. e. Its lesion causes deviation of the protruded tongue to the same side as the lesion. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Lesion in the medial lemniscus causes:
a. Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. b. Contralateral loss of sense of movement. c. Ipsilateral loss of discriminative touch. d. Ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. e. Ipsilateral loss of sense of movement. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Clarke's nucleus transmits the following sensation:
a. Pain and temperature sensation. b. Sense of movement of the upper limb to the cerebellum. c. Sense of movement of the upper limb to the cerebral hemisphere. d. Sense of movement of the lower limb to the cerebellum. e. Sense of movement of the lower limb to the cerebral hemisphere. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday In lesions of the left cuneate tract, one of the following is INCORRECT:
a. Loss of sense of movement of the left shoulder joint. b. Loss of sense of flexion of the left index finger. c. Loss of sense of movement of the right elbow joint. d. Intact sense of extension of the right knee joint. e. Intact sense of pain from the left upper limb. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Lesion in the gracile tract causes all of the following in the ipsilateral side EXCEPT:
a. Loss of sense of movement of the thumb. b. Loss of sense of movement of the big toe. c. Loss of discriminative touch from the region of the umbilicus.
d. Loss of sense of vibration over the medial malleolus. e. Loss of tactile localization over the front of the thigh. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday In syringomyelia, all are correct EXCEPT:
a. Bilateral loss of pain and temperature in the affected dermatomes. b. Bilateral loss of touch sensation in the affected dermatomes. c. Dilatation of the central canal. d. Destruction of the crossing fibers of the lateral spinothalamic tracts. e. Destruction of the crossing fibers of the ventral spinothalamic tracts. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday . An upper motor neuron lesion can occur in any one of the following EXCEPT:
a. Internal capsule. b. Pyramid of the medulla. c. Crus cerebri of the midbrain. d. Ventral nerve root of the spinal nerve. e. Corticoispinal tract. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday A lower motor neuron lesion is a lesion in the:
a. Anterior horn cells of the spinal cord. b. Peripheral nerve. c. Motor area of the cerebral hemisphere. d. All of the above. e. A and b only. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday An upper motor neuron lesion is a lesion in the:
a. Anterior horn cells of the spinal cord. b. Peripheral nerve. c. Pyramidal and extrapyramidal tracts. d. All of the above. e. None of the above. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday . Regarding the thalamic radiations, all are correct EXCEPT:
a. The anterior thalamic radiation connects nuclei of the limbic system with the cerebral cortex. b. The posterior thalamic radiation carries visual fibers to area 17. c. The inferior thalamic radiation carries auditory fibers to area 41 and 42. d. Lesion in the posterior thalamic radiation causes contralateral homonymous hemianopia.
e. Lesion in the inferior thalamic radiation causes contralateral loss of hearing. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The following nuclei project their axons to the cerebellum EXCEPT:
a. Red nucleus. b. Accessory cuneate nucleus. c. Arcuate nucleus. d. Clarkes nucleus. e. Inferior olivary nucleus. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Unconscious proprioception is mediated through:
a. Dorsal spinocerebellar tract. b. Spino-olivary tract. c. Ventral spinocerebellar tract. d. All of the above. e. A and c only. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday . Typical features of lateral medullary syndrome include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Dysphagia. b. Ataxia. c. Vertigo. d. Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation from the face. e. Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation from the body Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Typical features of medial medullary syndrome include:
a. Ipsilateral loss of discriminative touch and kinesthesia. b. Contralateral deviation of the protruded tongue. c. Contralateral hemiplegia. d. All of the above. e. None of the above. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Tract/s which is/are important for maintaining the upright posture include:
a. Pontine (medial) reticulospinal tract. b. Lateral vestibulospinal tract. c. Medullary (lateral) reticulospinal tract. d. All of the above. e. A and b only.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Signs of lower motor neuron lesion include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Atrophy of muscles. b. Fibrillation. c. Flaccidity. d. Clonus. e. Hypotonia Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Signs of upper motor neuron lesion include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Spasticity.
b. Hypertonia. c. Hyperreflexia. d. Babinski sign. e. Fasciculations. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Accomodation-convergence reflex is mediated by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Optic nerve and optic tract. b. Pretectal nucleus. c. Edinger-Westphal nucleus. d. Short ciliary nerves. e. Area 17. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding the ventricular system, one of the following is INCORRECT:
a. It contains choroids plexus that secrete the CSF. b. It represents the cavity of the neural tube. c. It contains about 100 ml of CSF. d. Obstruction of the aqueduct of Sylvius causes dilatation of the lateral and third ventricles. e. The lateral ventricle is the cavity of the cerebral hemisphere. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday One of the following statements is INCORRECT:
a. Lesion in the premotor area 6 causes apraxia. b. Lesion in area 22 causes receptive aphasia.
c. Lesion in area 8 causes contralateral conjugate deviation of both eyes. d. Irritative lesion in the uncus causes olfactory hallucination. e. Lesion in Brocas area in the dominant hemisphere causes motor aphasia. 1Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding the corticospinal tract, one of the following is INCORRECT:
a. It takes origin from both primary motor and general sensory areas. b. It is supplied by the vertebrobasilar system throughout its course. c. In the brainstem and the spinal cord, the cervical fibers are the most medial fibers. d. Descends in the middle 3/5 of the crus cerebri. e. Decussates in the lower part of the medulla. 1Like Share
Regarding the cerebral arteries, one of the following is INCORRECT:
a. They are present in the subarachnoid space. b. Occlusion of the right anterior cerebral artery may cause paralysis of the left upper limb. c. The anterior cerebral artery courses in the callosal sulcus. d. The middle cerebral artery courses in the lateral sulcus. e. The posterior cerebral artery courses in the calcarine sulcus. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Hemisection in the cervical spinal cord may cause one of the following:
a. Contralateral loss of proprioception from the lower limb. b. Contralateral flaccid weakness in the upper limb. c. Contralateral flaccid weakness in the lower limb. d. Contralateral spinothalamic sensory loss in the trunk and lower limb. e. Ipsilateral spinothalamic sensory loss in the upper limb. 2Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Signs of Horners syndrome include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Ptosis. b. Mydriasis. c. Anhidrosis. d. Enophthalmos. e. Dry skin of the ipsilateral side of the face. 1Like Share
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Regarding the spinal nerves, one of the following is TRUE:
a. C6 spinal nerve exits below C6 vertebra. b. T6 spinal nerve exits below T6 vertebra. c. The sacral nerve roots are shorter than the cervical nerve roots. d. The ventral nerve roots contain preganglionic autonomic fibers. e. The spinal nerves are 31 pairs. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The crus cerebri of the midbrain contains all of the following fibers (tracts) EXCEPT:
a. Frontopontine fibers. b. Non-frontopontine fibers. c. Corticospinal tract. d. Corticobulbar tract. e. Medial lemniscus. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday A lesion in the following cranial nerve causes dysphagia and hoarseness of voice:
a. Vagus nerve. b. Glossopharyngeal nerve. c. Hypoglossal nerve. d. Facial nerve. e. Spinal accessory nerve. 1Like Share
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The superior cerebellar peduncle contains one of the following tracts:
a. Dorsal spinocerebellar tract. b. Ventral spinocerebellar tract. c. Olivocerebellar tract. d. Cuneocerebellar tract. e. Pontocerebellar tract. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The following tract mediates pain and temperature sensations from the body:
a. Gracile tract. b. Ventral spinothalamic tract. c. Lateral spinothalamic tract. d. Ventral spinocerebellar tract. e. Dorsal spinocerebellar tract. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The tract mediating unconscious proprioceptin from the upper limb to the cerebellum is:
a. Gracile tract. b. Dorsal spinocerebellar tract. c. Ventral spinocerebellar tract. d. Cuneocerebellar tract. e. Lateral spinothalamic tract. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding the spinal cord, all are correct EXCEPT:
a. The spinal cord is the continuation of the medulla oblongata. b. The spinal cord ends at the level of L3 in the adult. c. In the adult, the dura mater ends at the level of S2 vertebra. d. The ventral 2/3 are supplied by the anterior spinal artery. e. The conus medullaris is fixed to the coccyx by the filum terminale. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding the anterior limb of the internal capsule, all the statements are correct EXCEPT:
a. Lies between head of the caudate nucleus and the lentiform nucleus. b. Contains the anterior thalamic radiation. c. Contains fibers from the anterior thalamic nucleus to the cingulate gyrus. d. Contains nonfrontopontine fibers. e. Supplied by branches of the anterior cerebral and middle cerebral arteries. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The commissural fibers of the brain include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Corpus callosum. b. Cingulum. c. Anterior commissure. d. Posterior commissure. e. Hippocampal commissure. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The inferior cerebellar peduncle contains all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Dorsal spinocerebellar tract. b. Ventral spinocerebellar tract. c. Vestibulocerebellar tract. d. Olivocerebellar tract.
e. Cuneocerebellar tract. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday One of the following arteries is not part of the circulus arteriosus:
a. Anterior cerebral artery. b. Middle cerebral artery. c. Posterior cerebral artery. d. Anterior communicating artery. e. Posterior communicating artery. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding Corpus callosum all of the following are correct EXCEPT:
a. It connects similar cortical areas of the two hemispheres. b. It is supplied by the anterior cerebral artery. c. It is formed of association fibers. d. It transmits information between the 2 hemispheres. e. The posterior end is called the splenium. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Association fibers include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Corpus callosum. b. Superior longitudinal fasciculus. c. Inferior longitudinal fasc iculus. d. Cingulum. e. Fasciculus uncinatus. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Language areas are located in all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Supramarginal gyrus. b. Angular gyrus. c. Superior temporal gyrus. d. Middle frontal gyrus. e. Inferior frontal gyrus. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday . Nuclei of the limbic system include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Hippocampus. b. Amygdaloid nucleus. c. Mamillary body. d. Caudate nucleus. e. Anterior thalamic nucleus. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday . Regarding the ventricular system, one of the following is INCORRECT:
a. The ependymal lining contributes to the formation and circulation of the CSF. b. It represents the cavity of the neural tube. c. It contains about 30 ml of CSF. d. Obstruction of the aqueduct of Sylvius causes dilatation of all the ventricles. e. Communicates with subarachnoid space through foramina of Luschka and Megendie. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday In the midbrain:
a. The two superior colliculi are connected by the anterior commissure. b. The inferior brachium connects the inferior colliculus with the lateral geniculate body. c. The substantia nigra contains nerve cells that secrete noradrenaline.
d. The posterior part (tectum) contains visual and auditory reflex centers. e. The trochlear nerve exits from the interpeduncular fossa medial to the crus cerebri Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday All of the following are correct EXCEPT:
a. Area postrema is the vomiting center. b. The tuber cinereum of the interpeduncular fossa is part of the hypothalamus. c. The stria medullaris of the 4th ventricle are arcuatocerebellar fibers. d. The stria medullaris thalami is part of the limbic system and the epithalamus. e. Foramen of Megendie of the 4th ventricle is present in the superior medullary velum. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The epithalamus:
a. Is part of the diencephalon. b. Contains a gland that secretes melatonin. c. Contains a nucleus that is part of the limbic system. d. All of the above are correct. e. a and b only are correct. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The medial medullary syndrome is due to occlusion of the:
a. Anterior cerebral artery. b. Middle cerebral artery. c. Posterior cerebral artery. d. Anterior spinal artery. e. Posterior spinal artery. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday . The lateral medullary syndrome is usually due to occlusion of the:
a. Anterior spinal artery. b. Posterior spinal artery. c. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery. d. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery. e. Posterior cerebral artery. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding the cortical areas of the cerebral cortex, one is INCORRECT:
a. All the motor areas are present in the frontal lobe. b. Brocas area is supplied b the middle cerebral artery. c. The primary visual area (area 17) is supplied by the posterior cerebral artery. d. The prefrontal cortex (frontal pole) contains the personality center. e. The auditory association area (area 22) lies in the middle temporal gyrus. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The midbrain contains all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Crus cerebri. b. Substantia nigra. c. Third ventricle. d. Oculomotor nerve nuclei. e. Trochlear nerve nucleus. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday . The epithalamus is formed of all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Pineal gland. b. Habenular nucleus.
c. Anterior commissure. d. Posterior commisure. e. Stria medullaris thalami. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding the CSF, one of the following is INCORRECT:
a. The main volume is present in the ventricles of the brain. b. The choroid plexus is the main site of production. c. The arachnoid villi and granulations are the main site of absorption (drainage). d. It reaches the subarachnoid space through the 3 foramina of the fourth ventricle. e. It protects the brain and spinal cord. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK
Tuesday This cortical area is present in the frontal lobe of the cerebral hemisphere:
a. Gustatory (taste) area (area 43). b. Primary auditory area (areas 41 and 42). c. Primary visual area (area 17). d. Brocas area (motor speech area). e. Somatosensory association area (area 5 and 7). 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday One of the following cortical areas of the brain is present in the parietal lobe:
a. Primary motor area (area 4). b. Primary auditory area (area 41, 42). c. Motor eye field area (area 8). d. Primary visual area (area 17). e. General sensory area (area 3, 1, 2).
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The anterior cerebral artery supplies all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Upper one inch of the parietal lobe. b. Medial surface of the frontal lobe. c. Anterior limb of the internal capsule. d. Anterior part of the corpus striatum. e. 0ccipital lobe. 1Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday One of the following is not present in the interpeduncular fossa:
a. Tuber cinereum.
b. Infundibulum of the pituitary gland. c. Mamillary bodies. d. Posterior perforated substance. e. Trochlear nerve. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday In the midbrain, one of the following is INCORRECT:
a. The substantia nigra contains nerve cells that secrete dopamine. b. The superior colliculi are visual reflex centers. c. The inferior colliculi are auditory reflex centers. d. The inferior brachium connects the inferior colliculus with the lateral geniculate body. e. The aqueduct of Sylvius connects the third ventricle with the fourth ventricle. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The hypoglossal nerve exits from the:
a. Anterior median fissure. b. Preolivary fissure. c. Postolivary fissure. d. Horizontal fissure. e. Cerebellopontine angle. 2Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The facial colliculus is formed by the:
a. Facial nerve only. b. Facial nucleus only.
c. Facial and vagus. d. Facial nerve and abducent nucleus. e. Facial and trigeminal. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The medulla contains all the following features EXCEPT:
a. Hypoglossal trigone. b. Clava. c. Area postrema. d. Facial colliculus. e. Pyramidal decussation. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Multipolar neurons usually contain axons:
a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4. e. 5. Like Share FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The medulla is supplied by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Anterior spinal artery. b. Posterior spinal artery. c. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery. d. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery. e. Branches from the vertebral artery. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The rhombencephalon is made up of the:
a. Cerebrum and cerebellum. b. Cerebrum, cerebellum and pons. c. Cerebellum and thalamus. d. Spinal cord, medulla and cerebellum. e. Medulla, pons and cerebellum. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The superior cerebellar peduncle connects the cerebellum with the:
a. Restiform body. b. Inferior olive. c. Medulla. d. Midbrain.
e. Pons. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The cerebellum is separated from the cerebral hemisphere by the:
a. Falx cerebri. b. Falx cerebelli. c. Tentorium cerebelli. d. Galea aponeurotica. e. fourthventricle. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The primary fissure of the cerebellum separates the:
a. Superior surface from the inferior surface. b. Anterior lobe from the posterior lobe. c. Posterior lobe from the flocculonodular lobe. d. Paleocerebellum from the neocerebellum. e. None of the above. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The floor of the 4th ventricle is formed by the:
a. Superior medullary velum. b. Inferior medullary velum. c. Cerebellum. d. Back of the medulla. e. None of the above. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The brainstem is formed of:
a. Medulla oblongata. b. Midbrain. c. Pons. d. All of the above. e. None of the above. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding the cerebellar arteries, one of the following is INCORRECT:
a. The superior cerebellar artery supplies the superior cerebellar peduncle. b. The anterior inferior cerebellar artery supplies the middle cerebellar peduncle. c. The posterior inferior cerebellar artery supplies the inferior cerebellar peduncle. d. The anterior inferior cerebellar artery is a branch of the vertebral artery. e. The posterior inferior cerebellar artery may give the posterior spinal artery. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday One of the following is a branch of the vertebral artery:
a. Anterior cerebral artery. b. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery (AICA). c. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA). d. Superior cerebellar artery. e. Posterior cerebral artery. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding the cerebellar arteries, one of the following is INCORRECT:
a. The superior cerebellar artery supplies the superior cerebellar peduncle. b. The anterior inferior cerebellar artery supplies the middle cerebellar peduncle. c. The posterior inferior cerebellar artery supplies the inferior cerebellar peduncle.
d. The anterior inferior cerebellar artery is a branch of the vertebral artery. e. The posterior inferior cerebellar artery may give the posterior spinal artery. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday One of the following arteries is a branch of the basilar artery:
a. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery. b. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery. c. Anterior spinal artery. d. Posterior spinal artery. e. Radicular arteries to the cervical part of the spinal cord. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The central canal of the spinal cord opens out into the:
a. Subarachnoid space. b. Lumbar cistern. c. Sacral hiatus. d. Third ventricle. e. Fourth ventricle. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding the cerebellum, one of the following is INCORRECT:
a. It develops from the metencephalon. b. The medullary center contains 4 deep cerebellar nuclei on each side. c. The paleocerebellum is formed of the lateral zone of the cerebellar hemisphere. d. The neocerebellum is connected with the cerebral cortex. e. The flocculonodular lobe is connected with the vestibular system. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The fourth ventricle is the cavity of the:
a. Telencephalon. b. Diencephalon. c. Mesencephalon. d. Rhombencephalon. e. None of the above. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The subdural space:
a. Contains the cerebrospinal fluid. b. Dilates in some areas to form the subarachnoid cisterns. c. Subdural hemorrhage is usually due to rupture of superficial cerebral veins. d. All of the above are correct. e. A and B only are correct. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The subarachnoid space:
a. Contains the cerebrospinal fluid. b. Dilates in some areas to form the subarachnoid cisterns. c. Subarachnoid hemorrhage is usually due to rupture of superficial cerebral veins. d. All of the above are correct. e. A and B only are correct. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday . Regarding the cerebellar arteries, one of the following is INCORRECT:
a. The superior cerebellar artery supplies the superior cerebellar peduncle. b. The anterior inferior cerebellar artery supplies the middle cerebellar peduncle.
c. The posterior inferior cerebellar artery supplies the inferior cerebellar peduncle. d. The anterior inferior cerebellar artery supplies the choroid plexus of the 3rd ventricle. e. The posterior inferior cerebellar artery supplies the choroid plexus of the 4th ventricle. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday These cranial nerve nuclei are present in the floor of the 4th ventricle EXCEPT:
a. Abducent nucleus. b. Facial nucleus in the facial colliculus. c. Dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus. d. Hypoglossal nucleus. e. Vestibular nuclei. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK
Tuesday Regarding the meningeal spaces:
a. Extradural hemorrhage is usually arterial. b. Subdural hemorrhage is usually venous. c. Subarachnoid hemorrhage is usually arterial. d. All are correct. e. a and b only are correct Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding spina bifida, one of the following is incorrect:
a. Usually occurs in the cervical region. b. Spina bifida occulta is the commonest type. c. May be associated with meningocele. d. Is due to failure of fusion of the vertebral arches. e. The spinal cord may project through the defect.
Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Failure of the neural tube to close causes:
a. Hydrocephalus. b. Anencephaly. c. Meningocele. d. All of the above. e. None of the above. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK
Tuesday The presence of the following in the amniotic fluid indicates anencephaly:
a. Glucose. b. Blood. c. Lymphocytes. d. Alpha fetoprotein. e. None of the above. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The lateral ventricle communicates with the 3rd ventricle through:
a. Aqueduct of Sylvius. b. Foramen of Magendie. c. Foramen of Monro. d. Foramen of Luschka. e. Central canal. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday One of the following is not derived from the neural crest:
a. Dorsal root ganglia. b. Suprarenal cortex. c. Geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve. d. Gracile tract. e. Sympathetic chain. 1Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The 3rd ventricle is the cavity of the:
a. Metencephalon. b. Myelencephalon. c. Mesencephalon. d. Telencephalon. e. Diencephalon. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday . One of the following is not derived from the neural crest:
a. Pia mater. b. Arachnoid mater. c. Dura mater. d. Spinal ganglia. e. Schwann cells. 1Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK c
Tuesday at 10:31pm Like Kiramatullah Marwat c 3 hours ago via mobile Like Write a comment...
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday SPECIAL PATHOLOGY MCQS IN FCPS-1 1. Hepatic hemengioma is associated with: A. Vinyl Chloride. 2. Which of the disease is common in I/V drug abusers: A. Infective Endocarditis. 3. Typhoid carriers are: A. Usually asymptomatic. 4. Intestinal metaplasia due to reflux esophagitis leads to: A. Adenocarcinoma. 5. Embryological marker that reappears in circulation in Ca Colon is: ...See More 3Like Share
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ASIM & SHOAIB 2ND EDITION ERRATA Page 20 100-d,Page 22 106-e,Page 31 155-b Page 34 169-e Page 42 207-a, 208-e,

4) The diencephalon is located _____ to the brainstem

- Anteriorly - Dorsally - Laterally Correct answer: Superiorly

- Fourth Correct answer: Third

- Column Correct answer: Commisure

FCPS PART1 MEDICINE PAPER 20th NOVEMBER 2012

19) Pulse pressure is high in

1. Her Identical twin

21) What is correct regarding surfactant

1. Highest concentration in amniotic fluid is in last trimester

2. It decreases lung compliance

3. It forms a layer between maccro molecules

4. it is produced by Type 1 pneumocytes in the last trimester of pregnancy

5. Its production decreases as the size of alveoli decreases

22) prostacyclin is produced by

24) Which activates thirst center

25) Which of the following helps in regulation of sodium absorption

1. Atrial Natriuretic peptide

4. Aldosterone + Atrial Natriuretic peptide

26) What is the rapidly acting antidote for Warfarin

27) Heparin is produced by

31) In ECG what represents a T wave.

4. toxic nodular goitre

33) Which tumor derives all the 3 germ layers.

35) Subarachnoid space ends at

36) Which of the following disease is caused by the bite of mosquito

1. Anti double strand DNA

3. Warm Antibody test

39) COX 2 inhibitor

2..platelet count 20.(10)9/L

41) Secondery transport, a. urea b. protien c. amino acid d. glucose

42) leison of pyramid at medulla cause .

44) Increased parasympathetic stimulation wiil cause relaxation of

2.brochial smooth msc

4.urinary bladder msc

45) external juguler vein is formed by

1. behind angle of mandible over the surface of sternocleidomastoid

2.union of posterior division of retromandibular vein and anterior auricular vein

46)In insulin deficiency

1. Liver produces ketones

47)Which reflex in defecation

48) Enzymes which transfer radical from one molecule to another

49) question abt igA nephropathy

* increased mesnagial mass

* thicked Basemnt meb

50) melanoma risk increase in

51) ant triangle sensory supply (dermatome)

52) pathologenic method of virus?

* free radical formation

53) sicle cell disese

54) sympthetic muscrainc supply

55) glucagon increase in

* free fatty acids

56) 8th cervical sympt loss

57) soldier came from high attitude, drug ?

59) cerebeelum injury will cause inabilty of following except

* co ordination of shoulder joint to raise hand

*initiate the movement

* can stop finger beyond the target

60) basal ganglia injry ( not apropriate)

limba jerky movent swinging of hands

flat face intension tremors

61) beta endorphins found in