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congruent squares, we have U (f ; Pn ) = m/4n , where m is the number of subsquares containing a point of D. We also have L(f ; Pn ) = 0 for all n. We have already calculated m, and so we have U (f ; Pn ) L(f ; Pn ) = m 3 2n 2 3 2 = = 4n 4n 2n 4n
and since that expression obviously goes to 0 as n tends to +, the Riemann condition is satised and f is integrable. 2. (6 marks) Use Exercise 6 to prove the following: Theorem. Let f : Q R be bounded. Then the statement that f is integrable over Q, with Q f = A, is equivalent to the statement that given > 0, there is a > 0 such that if P is any partition of mesh less than , and if, for each subrectangle R determined by P , xR is a point of R, then | f (xR )v (R) A| < .
R
Proof. Assume f is integrable. Then by Exercise 6, > 0, > 0 s.t. partitions P with mesh less than , U (f, P ) L(f, P ) < . Now, for such partitions, we have for any choice of xR , L(f ; P ) =
R
mR (f )v (R)
R
f (xR )v (R)
R
MR (f )v (R) = U (f ; P )
As well, L(f, P )
Q
Thus since [L(f, P ), U (f, P )] is a interval of length < R f (xR )v (R) and Q f in it, we obviously have |
R
mR (f )v (R)
Q
f| <
which is what we wanted to prove Assume > 0, there is a > 0 such that if P is any partition of mesh less than , and if, for each subrectangle R determined by P , xR is a point of R, then |
R
Now U (f, P ) =
R
f (XR )v (R))
f (XR )v (R)A|
Similarly |L(f, P ) A| so |U (f, P ) L(f, P )| 2 by the triangle inequality. So by the Riemann condition, f is integrable. As well, |A
Q
f | |A U (f, P )| + |U (f, P )
Q
f | + U (f, P )
Q
3. (3 marks) Show that if A has measure zero in Rn , the sets A and Bd A need not have measure zero. It is a well-known fact that Q is countable. With that, it is also easy to see that Q2 is countable, and that in fact Qn is countable for any nite n. Let A = Qn . A single point in Rn has measure 0. There are countably many points in A, so according to theorem 11.1(b), A has measure zero. On the other hand, it follows from the density of the rationals in the reals and the density of the reals in the rationals that A = Bd A = Rn , which clearly does not have measure zero. We have found our counterexample. 4. (3 marks) Show that no nontrivial open set in Rn has measure zero in Rn . Let A be a non-trivial open set in Rn . There must exist at least one point x0 A. By denition of openness, there exists > 0 such that the -neighbourhood centered at x0 is contained in A. Since the sup and Euclidean metrics are topologically equivalent in Rn , well use the sup-metric. An -neighbourhood in the sup metric is an open cube C = C (x0 ; ). Thus, C A. According to theorem 11.1(a), if A has measure zero in Rn , then so does C . However, a cube is a special case of a rectangle, and according to theorem 11.1(d), C does not have measure zero in Rn . Thus, it is impossible for A to have measure zero in Rn , and we are done. 3
5. (3 marks) Show that Rn1 0 has measure zero in Rn . First, we cover R by the set S of rectangles [m, m + 1] for m Z. Since S is countable, S n is also countable for any nite n. Write S n1 = {S1 , S2 , S3 , . . .}, and dene Am = Sm [ , ] 2m+2 2m+2
Since S n1 covers Rn1 and [ 2m+2 , 2m+2 ] covers 0, the set of Am s cover Rn1 0. v (Am ) = 2m+1 and so
v (Am ) =
m=1 m=1
2m+1
= /2 <
which proves that Rn1 0 has measure zero. 6. Let Q = A B , where A is a rectangle in Rk and B is a rectangle in Rn . Let f : Q R be a bounded function. (a) (3 marks) Let g be a function such that f (x, y ) g (x)
y B y B
f (x, y )
for all x A. Show that if f is integrable over Q, then g is integrable over A, and Q f = A g . We know from monotonicity in Exercise 1 that g (x)
A A y B
f (x, y ) f , so that we
g (x)
so that f
Q A
g (x)
A
g (x)
Q
g (x) =
Q Q
so g is integrable with
g (x) =
f
Q
and
y B x A
f (x, y )
exists but the other does not. Let A = B = [0, 1] and consider the following function: f (x, y ) = y 0 if x is irrational and y is of the form 1/n for some n N, otherwise.
Now, an analogous proof to that of exercise 11.3 above will show that R {1/n} is of measure zero in R2 for all n N. Since there are countably many numbers of the form 1/n, according the theorm 11.1(b) the set of discontinuities of f is of measure zero. Thus, according to theorem 11.2, f is integrable over Q; and in fact, according to theorem 11.3, the integral is 0. Let us examine yB f (x, y ). If x is rational, then f (x, y ) = 0 and the integral is 0. If x is irrational, then f (x, y ) = y 0 if y is of the form 1/n for some n N, otherwise.
Thus, the set of discontinuities is countable, and again yB f (x, y ) exists and is equal to 0. According to Fubinis theorem, xA yB f (x, y ) exists and equals 0. How about xA f (x, y )? If y = 1/n for some n N then f (x, y ) = 0 and so does the integral. However, if y = 1/n for some n N, then the we have f (x, y ) = 1/n 0 if x is irrational, otherwise.
which is obviously unintegrable (e.g., see example 2 on p. 86). Thus, xA f (x, y ) is not even dened in (countably) innitely many points, and so yB xA f (x, y ) obviously does not exist. This completes our counterexample. 5
(c) (4 marks) Find an example where both the iterated integrals of (b) exist, but the integral Q f does not. Let Q = [0, 1]2 and S = {( m n , ); p is prime and 0 < m, n < p} p p f (x, y ) = 1 0 if (x, y ) S , otherwise.
Then, for any particular x = r, if x is not of the form m/p, we have f (x, y ) = 0 everywhere, and if it is, then we have f (x, y ) = 0 except at p 1 points. In either case, the set of discontinuities has measure 0 and yB f (x, y ) = 0 and thus xA y Bf (x, y ) = 0. Since the function is symmetric, the same argument can be made for the other integral. On the other hand, note that S is dense in Q by the density of numbers of the form m/p in R (this can be proved analogously to the proof that the rationals are dense, using the innitude of primes instead of the innitude of natural numbers). The complement of S is also dense (by the denisty of irrationals), so that f will be discontinuous on all of Q. In particular, this implies that the integral Q f cannot exist.