Network Gujarat

1
Phase defination is covered in A CMM 1 C CMM 0 B CMM 2 D All of Above
Which is a black box testing method? A Equvivance partitioning C Code Coverage B Fault injection D None of above
A Metrics used to measure the charestric of documentation and code is called A LOC C Product Metric B Test Metric D Process Metric
A Non Functional Testing is called A Perfomance Testing C Black Box Testing B White Box Testing D Alpha Testing
1) Testing fault 2) Software fault 3) Design fault 4) Documentation Fault A 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & are not C 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 is not 1,2 are valid reasons;3 & 4 & are not All of them are valid reasons for D failure B
Which of the following statements about component testing is not true? A Component testing should be performed by development Component testing should have C completion criteria planned Component testing is also know as isolation or module testing Component testing does not D involve regression testing B
Function/Test matrix is a type of A Management report C Project status report B Interim Test report D Final test report
A reliable system will be one that: A Is unlikely to be completed on schedule B Is likely to be fault-free C Is unlikely to cause a failure D Is likely to be liked by the users
In unit testing of a module, it is found that for a set of test data, at the maximum 90% of the code alone were tested with the probability of success 0.9. The reliability of module is ? A At most 0.81 B Equal to 0.9 C Greater than 0.9 D At least 1/0.81
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10
A program P calls two subprograms P1 and P2. P1 can fail 50% times and P2 can fail 40% times. The program P can fail ? A C 50% 30% B D 60% 70%
11
Equivalence partitioning is:

A black box testing technique than A white box testing technique B can only be used during system appropriate for component testin testing A black box testing technique A black box testing technique C D appropriate to all levels of testing used only by developers To test a function, the programmer has to write a ______, which calls the function and passes it test data. A A Proxy C Stub B Driver D None of the above
12
13 A company needs to develop a strategy for software product development for which it has a choice of two programming languages L1 and L2. The number of lines of code (LOC) developed using L2 is estimated to be twice the LOC developed with L1. the product will have to be maintained for five years. Various parameters for the company are given in the table below. Parameter Language L1 Language L2 Man years needed for development LOC / 10000 LOC / 10000 Development Cost per year Rs. 10,00,000 Rs. 7,50,000 Maintenance time 5 years 5 years Cost of maintenance per year Rs. 1,00,000 Rs. 50,000 Total cost of the project includes cost of development and maintenance. What is the LOC for L1 for which the cost of the project using L1 is equal to the cost of the project using L2?
A C 14
4000
5000 4667
4333 D
A company needs to develop digital signal processing software for one of its newest inventions. The software is expected to have 40000 lines of code. The company needs to determine the effort in person-months needed to develop A 234.25 B 933.45 C 142.50. D 230.25
15
Use Case is used for A Capture test cases B Capture requirements
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C Capture design specification 16 Code review is for A Static testing C Dynamic Testing 17 Stress testing measures A ability of system to run without failure The poit at which system break C down
D all of the above.
B State Transition Testing D none of the above.
B ability of system to support users D all of the above.
18
QTP is A Testing tool C Test Metric B Test Methedology D all of the above.
19
Metric based technique is for A estimating testing effort C Defect calculation B perfoming LCSAJ testing D None of above
20
Is it possible to have a software product with "Zero defect"? A No C May be yes B Yes D None of the above.
21
A Testing which detect the defects in fully functional software is A Unit Testing C System Testing B Integration Testing D None of the above.
22
Pesting Paradox in testing testcase is A By repetating test case, remove errors B correct errors C update errors D None of the above.
23
Face to face Communication is in A Prototype Method C Waterfall Method B Agile Method D all of the above.
24
W - model is updation of A SpiralModel C V- Model B Waterfall model D all of the above.
25
Test Planning includes
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A Test Strategies C Test Bed Creation 26 Example of Testing Tool A QTP C Selenium 27 Non functional testing tool A Load Runner C Qtp 28
B Test methods D all of the above.
B Silktest D all of the above.
B BugZilla D all of the above.
To Detect cracks and Holes in the networks by A alpha testing C System Testing B Hardening testing D all of the above.
29
Data independence means A Integration testing C stress testing B Alpha Testing D Unit testing
30
COTS is A Common Testing System C Code and Test system B Commercial off the shelf D None of above
31
COTS example is A Autocad C Mcafee B Flash D all of the above.
32
Required Skill of Test Manager A Understanding of testing tools C Expertise team lcontromonitoring an B understanding of functional domain
D all of the above.
33
COTS is for A Reliablility C Portability B Reusablility D all of the above.
34
Which testing devides input domain into class for testcase? A Black Box Testing B White Box Testing
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C Equvivance Testing 35 Types of review A Inspection C Technical 36 Group Activity can be seen in A Inspection C Technical 37
D Boundry Value Analysis
B WalkThrough D all of the above.
B WalkThrough D all of the above.
The person who records the procedding of review meeting is A Recorder C Moderator B Author D Reviewer
38
SRS is an artifact of A Analysis phase C Code Phase B Design Phase D Testing Phase
39
Nonfunctional requirement is A Reliability C maintainability B usability D All of above
40
Evaluting Software during various phases of SDLC is called A Varification C Validation B Testing D all of the above.
41
Disadvtage of prototype model is A Less iteration C Not applied to real time system B Error detection at later stage D All of above
42
Risk Analysis phase is in A Waterfall model C Prototype Model B Spiral Model D all of the above.
43
advtage of prototype model is A User Get Idea about system C Fast Development B Low cost D All of above
44
Important aspect of coding is
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A productivity C reliability 45 Data structure of application is in A Architectural design C Interface design 46 RAD model was proposed by A IBM C Motorola 47 Which of the following is in design stage A Abstraction C refinement 48
B efficiency D all of the above.
B data design D All of above
B Microsoft D Intel
B Information Hiding D 90-120 days
If n number of programmers are in team , then number of paths is A n C nlog(n) B n*(n-1)/2 D n*(n+1)/2
49
if 99% code is written in C and 1% code is written in assembly lenguage then increse in execution time compare to 1% code written in assembly language is A C 10% 5% B D 20% 0
50
Which of these is not element in object oriented analysis model A Data Element C Class based element B Behaviour element D Scenario based element
51
Relationship shown in data model is for A cardinality C directionality B modality D Both (A) and (B)
52
UML diagram is useful in representing A Flow base element C Scenario base element B Class base element
D Data elements in the database can be modified by changing the data dic
53
Behaviour modeling is for A Well defined process C Specification design B Data element Hiarchy D Obeservable mode of behaviou
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54
State diagram is for A transorm data element C Reaction to external event B Show relationship between data D all of the above.
55
In unit testing of a module, the maximum 90% of the code alone were tested with the probability of success 0.5. The reliability of module is ? A C 45% 90% B D 100% 50%
56
A program P has p1 and p2 sub programs. Probability of p1 fails is 50% and p2 fails is 40%. What about the probability os P fails A C 30% 10% B D 70% 20%
57
Which of this is not software engineering layers A Method C Manufacturing B Tools D Process
58
Five generic software frame work activities are A analysis , Design, Code, maintenance,test communication,risk management, C design,code,test B communication,planning,modellin g,construction,deployment
D Analysis,planning,design,code,test
59
Evolutionary model is A iterative in nature C accommodate changes easily B not produce throw away D all of above
60
Incremental model approach in software development is useful in A complex project C develop core module B small project D all of above
61
The approach/document used to make sure all the requirements are covered when writing test cases A Test bed C Test Metric B Traceablity Matrix D All of above
62
Executing the same test case by giving the number of inputs on same build called as A Retesting C Adhoc Testing B Regresssion testing D perfomance testing
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63
Assertions are conditions which are true at the point of execution A Sometimes C Always B Many Times D None
64
Top down approach is used for A Testing and validation C Identification of faults B Reverse engineering D Development
65
The first item defined for a new system is its A Input C Storage B Output D Processing
66
The feature of the object oriented paradigm which helps code reuse is A Inheritance C Object B Aggregation D Class
67
68
To test competing product in to the market comparision testing is done A C TRUE B D FALSE
69
A key concept of quality control is that all work products A Are delivered on time and under budget Are thoroughly tested before C delivery to the customer B Have complete documentation D Have measurable specification for process outputs
70
What are the three generic phases of software engineering? A Analysis, design, testing C What, how, where B Definition, development, support D Programming, debugging, maintenance
71
Coupling and cohesion can be represented using a A Dependence matrix C Cause-effect graph B SRS D Chart
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72
Software feasibility is based on which of the following . A Scope, constraints, market C Technology, finance, time, resources B Business and marketing concerns D Technical prowess of the developers
73
74
The feature of the object oriented paradigm which helps code reuse is A Inheritance C Object B Aggregation D Class
75
The process is at least documented in CMM A Level 1 C Level 3 B Level 2 D Level 4
76
Which of the following statements are TRUE about an SQL query? P : An SQL query can contain a HAVING clause even if it does not have a GROUP BY clause Q: An SQL query can contain a HAVING clause only if it has a GROUP BY clause R : All attributes used in the GROUP BY clause must appear in the SELECT clause S : Not all attributes used in the GROUP BY clause need to appear in the SELECT clause
A P and R C P and S 77 An index is clustered, if
B Q and R D Q and S
78
the data records of the file are the data records of the file are B organized in the same order as organized not in the same order as the data entries of the index the of the index. it is on a set of fields that form a it isdata on aentries set of fields that include C D candidate key the primary key Function point metric of a software also depends on the A
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A Number of function needed Number of external inputs and outputs The worst type of coupling is C
Number of final users of the software
D all of above
79
A Stamp coupling C Control coupling 80
B Content coupling D Data coupling
FP-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on A Software functions C Information domain values B Process activities D Project schedule
81
Cohesion is closely bound to A Inheritance C coupling B abstraction D None of above
82
Which coupling is high ? A Control coupling C message coupling B Content coupling D None of above
83
Which is not a size metric? A Cyclomatic complexity C LOC B Function count D Program length
84
IEEE 830-1993 is a IEEE recommended standard for A Software design B Testing Both (A) and (B
C Software requirement specification D 85
The ISO quality assurance standard that applies to software engineering is A ISO 9000 C ISO9002 B ISO 9003 D ISO 9001
86
Many causes of the software crisis can be traced to mythology based on A Customer Myths B Management Myths
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C Practitioner Myths 87
D all of above
What is an incremental software process model that emphasize an extremely short development cycle? A RAD C SpiralModel B Prototype D None of above
88
Data structure coupling is also know as A content coupling C messsage coupling B stamp coupling D control coupling
89
For a data entry project for office staff who have never used computers before (user interface and user-friendliness are extremely important), one will use A Spiral Model C Water Fall Model B Prototype Model D all of above
90
Top-down design does not require A step-wise refinement C flow charting B modularity D loop invariants
91
Which of the following graph theoretic concept will be useful in software testing? A Cyclomatic number B Hamiltonian circuit D None of the above
C Eulerian cycle 92 One of the fault base testing techniques is A Stress testing
B Unit testing D Mutation testing
C Beta testing 93
Reliability of software is directly dependent on A user requirement B number of errors present
C quality of the design 94
D software engineers experience
Which one of these are not software maintenance activity A Error correction C Adaptation B Establishing scope
D Enhancement
95
Emergency fixes known as patches are result of A Adaptive maintenance C Corrective maintenance B Perfective maintenance
D None of above
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96
Changes made to an information system to add the desired but not necessarily the required features is called A Adaptive maintenance C Perfective maintenance B Corrective maintenance D Preventative maintenance
97
Reverse engineering is the process which deals with A Size measurement C Cost measurement B Design recovery D All of the above
98
Which of the following is not one of the WebApp requirements analysis tasks? A Analysis Modelling C Formulation B Requirement Gathering D User Interface Prototyping
99
As use-cases are organised to functional packages.Each functional Package must be A Highly Coheshive C Loosly coupled B Comprehenshive D All of above
100
Which of the following is not one of the dimensions of quality used to assess a WebApp A Content C links B maintainability D Nevigation
101
Which of the following is not the WebApp Interface Mechanism? A Forms C browser B cookies D links
102
Which of these terms is a level name in the Capability Maturity Model? A Reusable B Organized D Ad hoc
C Repeatable 103
Reliability of software is directly dependent on A user requirement B number of errors present
C quality of the design 104
D software engineers experience
Graph based testing is only applied to object oriented system? A Yes C Can't Say B No D May be yes
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105
Use case provide useful input for design of black-box test for A OO software C System Software B Application Software D None of above
106
____ a measure of some property of a piece of software or its specifications A SRS C output B input D Software Metric
107
Methods for estimation in software engineering include: A Analysis Effort method C COCOMO B Function Point Analysis D All of Above
108
if a software engineer has built a small web-based calculator application, we can say that the project effort is A 200 man-hours C 30 FP B 300 LOC D None of above
109
if a software engineer has built a small web-based calculator application, we can say that the software size is A 200 man-hours C 40 person-month B 300 LOC D None of above
110
Software Configuration Management include A version control C software archival agreements B naming convention (programming)
D all of above
111
The purpose of project monitoring and control is to keep the team and management up to date on A the project's progress B Project's scheudle D None of above
C Project's planning 112 Risk management is associated with A ISO 9000
B ISO 9001
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C ISO 31000 113 Composite Risk Index value =
D None of above
A Riskevent/Probability of occurance B C Constant (3.0) 114
Risk event x Probability of Occurrence
D None of above
sprinklers are designed to put out a fire to reduce the risk of loss by fire is called A Risk mitigation C Risk reduction B Risk monitoring D None of above
115
Self Insurance falls under A Risk mitigation C Risk reduction B Risk monitoring D Risk retention
116
In an if statement the problem of designing test data we can always design test data to B to execute the controlled execute the controlled statement statement is undecidable the problem of designing test data C D none of the above to execute the controlled is a intractable Jacobstatement has written program to complete the roots of the quadratic equation A ax2+bx+c=0. Assuming a 16 bit computer to exhaustively test his program for all integer values for a, b and c he requires A an infinite number of test cases C 2^164 test cases B 2^ 48 test cases D None of above
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118
119
Consider the code below begin If (y<=0) then y = 0-y; abs = y End; error in code as negative values A B The code finds absolute value of y remain negative error in code as positive values C D None of above remain negative Ashok rewrites part of the code in some production code making it more efficient. This maintenance activity is called
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A perfective C corrective 120
B adaptive D none of above
An error is detected in some production code. The maintenance effort to fix the error is called A perfective C corrective B adaptive D none of above
121
Choose the correct statement A Testing can show the presence of bug but never absence If we test enough we can find all C bugs B Testing can always find the bug D None of above
122
Testing is best done A By Analyst C By Software Engineer B By programmer D By independent test team
123
Clinton wants to test his module where he had forgotten to initialize x If x = 0 then Write ("abnormal") Else Write ("normal"); End if; The tests he generates may give The tests will always given B nonrepeatable results repeatable results He will find the bug for all runs of C D None of the above. the program Ramesh wants to test the folowing program by generating random test values for x and y. The error in the program is z = 22 should be there A read (x); read ( y); If (x== y) then z = 2; else z = 0; end If;
124
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Random testing is insufficient as the bug may never detected Random testing always generates equal value of x and y
Random testing will always find the bug
C 125
D None of above
Suresh and Ramesh design test cases for a fragment of code. Suresh runs 100 test cases but Ramesh runs 200 test cases Suresh's testing may be better A Ramesh's testing is much better B than Ramesh 200 test cases would have been C D None of the above enough
126
Mohit writes test data which will exercise each edge of the flow graph for his program
A His method of edge coverage is not enough B His testing is exhaustive as he will find all the bugs
His test data has to be carefuly C designed and will work for all flow graphs 127
D None of above
Consider the above modules Ca and Cb where a and b are the sizes. Then A E (a + b) > Ea + Eb C E (a + b) > =Ea + Eb B E (a + b) < Ea +Eb D None of the above
128
Variation in debugging : coding ability has been reported to be A C 01:10 01:05 B D 01:02 01:20
129
Form the detailed design speciication. If the coding is done in C++ : C : assembler the resulting code sizes will be on the average. A C 01:03:05 01:03:10 B D `1:10:100 01:02:05
130 Consider two modules A and B, both utility programs in the same organization developed by the same team of programmers, where a and b are the sizes, respetively. The cost to develop each module is Ca and Cb. The efforts are Ea and Eb. if Ca > Cb then A Ea < Eb B Ea > Eb
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C Ea = Eb 131 Informational cohesion is a realization of A Data abstraction C concurrency 132
D both (A) and (C)
B modularity D data hiding
The rating of coupling of modules for strongest (least desirable) to weakest (most desirable) are A content,common,control,stamp C stamp,control,content,common B common,content,control,stamp D None of above
133 The largest %cost of software life cycle is in
A feasibility
B Testing
C Design 134
D Maintenance
Which is not a component of Object Oriented s/w Engineering?
A Process
B Method
C Architectue 135
D None of above
Cyclomatic complexity metric provide information regarding number of
A error in the program
B cycle in the program
C independent logical path 136
D statement in the program
Cyclomatic complexity metric provide information regarding number of A error in the program C independent logical path B cycle in the program D statement in the program
137
Which of the following is not the characteristic of software ?
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A Software does not wear out C Software is not manufactured 138
B Software is flexible D Software is always correct
Which of the following is not a product matrix ? A C Reliability B Productivity D Size
139
Which of the following is not a process metric ? A Functionality C quality B Productivity D Efficiency
140
Efforts is measured in terms of ? A Rupee C Person - Months B Person D Month
141
Match the following
A 1-A , 2-C , 3-D, 4-B C 1-C , 2-A , 3-B, 4-D 142
B 1-B , 2-C , 3-D, 4-A D 1-C , 2-A , 3-D, 4-B
To completely write the program in FORTRAN and rewrite the 1% code in assembly language, if the project needs 13 days, the team consists of ? A 10 programmers C 13 programmers B 8 programmers D 100/13 programmers
143 If 99% of the program is written in FORTRAN and the remaining 1% in assembly language, the percentage increase in the programming time compared to writing the entire program in FORTRAN and rewriting the 1% in assembly language is ? A C 144 If the entire program is written in FORTRAN, the percentage increase in the execution time, compared to writing the entire program in FORTRAN and rewriting the 1% in assembly language is ? 10 5 B D 13 8
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A C 145
B D
8 0.9
Stress testing measures A Robustness C Security B Recovery from error D None of above
146 Given a source code with 10 operators includes 6 unique operators, and 6 operand including 2 unique operands. The program volume is ? A C 147 100 40 B D 48 36
Project indicator enables a software project manager to ? uncover problem araes before B track potential risks they " go critical " assess the status of an ongoing C D All of above project Once object oriented programming has been accomplished, unit testing is applied for each class. Class tests includes ? A A Partition teting C Fault based testing B Random testing D All of above
148
149
In risk analysis of spiral model, which of the following risk includes ? A Technical C Both A and B B Management D None of above
150
To avoid errors in transcription and transposition, during data entry the system analyst should ? A Provide batch totals C Provide hash totals B Provide for a check digit D all of above
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1 What is the grammar for generating strings like a=b=c? A C rightleer=right|leer lettera|b|..|z rightleer=leer|leer lettera|b|..|z B D rightleer=leer lettera|b|..|z rightright=leer|leer lettera|b|..|z
2 Out of the following grammars, which one is right associative grammar? A stringstring+string|0|1|2|3 C 3 rightleer=right|leer lettera|b|..|z B stmtif (expr) stmt else stmt D listlist+digit|digit digit0|1|2|3
An attribute is said to be ____ if its value at a parse tree node is determined from attribute values at the children of the node. A synthesized C syntax B inherited D parsed
__________is the process of determining if a string of tokens can be generated by a grammar. A scanning C stack B parsing D analysis
__________ can handle large class of grammars and translation schemes. A left-to-right C right-to-left B top-down D Bottom-up
In compiler, analysis consists of which three phases? A Linear,Hierarchical,Semantic C Linear,nonlinear,synthesis B linear,portable,bottom-up D linear,nonlinear,top-down
Hierarchical analysis is also called ___________ A lexical analysis C syntax analysis B semantic analysis D synthesis
__________ is the compressed representation of the parse tree. A syntax tree C directed acyclic graph B semantic tree D graph
Who allows a user to define shorthands for longer constructs? A macro preprocessor C language extensions B rational preprocessors D File inclusion
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10
The output of the second pass of assembler is called what? A hypothetical machine code C pass code B relocatable machine code D register transfer code
11
The technique of merging intermediate and target code generation into one pass is called __________. A backtracking C backpatching B forwarding D looping
12
In a translation scheme, ______ are embedded within the right sides of the production. A parsing rule C operator precedence B syntax directed definition D semantic actions
13
___________ is used to describe patterns A token C lexeme B context free grammar D regular expression
14 Which part of the compiler strip out comments from the source programme? A semantic analyzer C code generator 15 B lexical analyzer D parser
Lexical analyzers are divided into cascade of which two phases? A parsing,semantic analysis C scanning,lexical analysis B regular expression,context free grammar
D code generator,code optimization
16
The advantage of separating analysis phase into lexical analysis and parsing is ______________ A enhanced writability C enhanced readability B enhanced portability D enhanced security
17
const pi=3.1416, pi in lexical analysis is called _______ A lexeme C pattern B identifier D symbol
18
Which error will not be identified by lexical analyzer? A fi (a==f(x)) C a=b c B a=(b D all of the above
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19
Which is the prefix of the string ahmedabad? A ahmedabad C bad B med D abad
20
Which is the substring of string gujarat? A gjrt C gja B jar D rag
21
Which is the subsequence of the string gujarat? A gjrt C jug B rjg D rgu
22
What can not be described by regular expressions? A balanced constructs C repeating strings B nested constructs D all of the above
23
Out of the following , which one is the syntactic error? A misspelling an identifier C arithmetic expression with unbalanced parantheses B operator applied to incompatible operand
D infinitely recursive calls
24
synchronizing token is used in which type of error recovery? A phrase level C error production B panic mode D global correction
25
Rightmost derivations are sometimes called _________ A canonical derivation C derived derivation B left derivation D constant derivation
26
E-(E+E)-(id+E)(-id+id) , this is the example of A rightmost derivation C top down derivation B leftmost derivation D bottom-up derivation
27
A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is said to be A context free C ambiguous B context sensitive D regular
28
A left recursive grammar can cause a recursive descent parser with backtracking to go into ____________
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A infinite loop C recovery mode 29
B panic mode D execution mode
Which four components are there in table driven predictive parser? A C input buffer,stack,parsing table,output stream input buffer,stack,regular definition,output stream B D input string, stack, transition diagram, output stream input buffer,stack, error recovery, output stream
30
FOLLOW function can be used as what during panic mode recovery? A nonterminal C synchronizing token B terminal D casesensitive character
31
Left recursion elimination and left factoring make the resulting grammar ______________ A both B and C C difficult to use for translation process B hard to read D none of the above
32
A rightmost derivation in reverse can be obtained by what? A handle C left sentential form B right sentential form D handle pruning
33
The set of prefixes of right sentential forms that can apper on stack of a shift reduce parser are called ______________ A handle C viable prefixes B viable suffixes D suffixes
34
In LR(k) - k refers to ___________ A number of symbols of lookahead C number of symbols on stack B number of iterations D number of sets
35
In LR(k) parsing, "L" refers to _________ A left most derivative C left recursion B left-to-right scanning D left factoring
36
In LR(k) parsing, "R" refers to A right-to-left scanning C right most derivation in reverse B right side of the production D right recursion
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37
Which attribute value at a node in a parse tree is defined in terms of attributes at the parent and/or siblings of that node? A synthesized C terminal B Nonterminal D inherited
38
The directed graph that depicts interdependencies among the inherited and synthesized attributes at the nodes in the parse tree is called ____ A dependency graph C parse tree B directed graph D syntax tree
39
Which storage allocation strategy manages the run time storage? A run time allocation C heap allocation B static allocation D stack allocation
40
When there is a reference to storage that has been deallocated, the reference is called ___________________ A pointer reference C null reference B dangling reference D deallocated reference
41
Shift reduce parsers are A top down parser C predictive parser B bottom up parser D recursive descent parser
42
YACC builds up A SLR parsing table C LALR parsing table B Canonical LR parsing table D None of the above
43
Inherited attribute is a natural choice in A C Keeping track of variable declaration B Checking for the correct use of L values and R values
44
both A and B An intermediate code form is A syntax tree C three address code
D None of these
B post fix notation D all of these
45
Instructions involving register operands are usually _______ and ______ than those involving operands in memory. A shorter and slower C longer and slower B shorter and faster D longer and faster
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46
A ____ is a rule that describes that set and a _____ is a sequence of characters matching the patterns A lexeme,pattern C pattern,token B pattern,lexeme D token,lexeme
47
Non backtracking top-down parsers are also called ___________ A predictive parser C Both a and b B recursive descent parser D Canonical LR parsing
48
All SLR(1) grammars are also ________________. A LR(1) C LL(1) B LALR(1) D operator precedence
49
S-attributeddefinition can be implemented using ________ parsers. A LL C both a and b B LR D neither a nor b
50
The execution of a procedure body is called ___ of the procedure maintained on _____. A Expansion,control stacks C Activation,control stacks B copying, control stacks D None of these
51
Static binding is performed at ____ while dynamic binding is performed at _____ A Run time,compile time C compile time,run time B link time,compile time D link time,link time
52
_____ and _____ are disadvantages of manual deallocation. A starvation,dangling references C starvation,memory leaks B memory leaks,dangling references D starvation,heap allocation
53
Eliminating redundant load is an example of ____ optimization. A Runtime C Algorithmic B Peephole D logical
54
Instructions that compute a value that is never used is called ____. A Dead code C static code B Hibernating code D dynamic code
55
What will be the precedence relation id __ + __id
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A >,< C >,= 56 Initial item S'.S is considered _________ A kernel item C itemset 57
B <,> D <,=
B nonkernel item D initial item
The term l-value refers to the _________ of an expression and r-value refers to the ____ of an expression. A nonterminal,value C storage location,value B value,storage location D terminal,storage location
58
In call-by-reference mechanism of parameter passing, the _____ of actual parameter is passed to the function. A value C name B address of the memory location D none of the above
59
The stack holds all the ____ variables defined within a function during its activation. A global C control B environment D local
60
What type of language is "C"? A weakly typed C strongly typed B static type D none of the above
61
What is the regular expression for matching quoted strings? A \"[a-zA-Z0-9]\" C \"[^"\n]*["\n] B \"[a-zA-Z]\" D \"[a-zA-Z0-9]\"\n
62
What is the prurpose of -d option when following command is executed? yacc -d ch3-01.y A make y.tab.c C make y.tab.c and link to lex library B make y.tab.c and y.tab.h D make y.tab.c and lex.yy.c
63
What is the interpretation of following YACC declaration? %left '+' '' "+" and "-" appears on the left B "+" appears to the left of "-" A side of production "+" has a higher precedence than D "+" and "-" are left associative C "-"
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64
What is the meaning of regular expression A{1,3} A C match one,two or three occurences of letter A match one to three occurences of letter A B D match if the string contains A,1,2 and 3. match if the string contains A,1 and 3.
65 What will be the output of the code optimizer, if the following input is given? temp1:=inttoreal(60),temp2:=id3*temp1,temp3:=id2*temp2,id1:=temp3 temp1:=id3*60 id1:=id2+id3*60.0
A id1:=id2+id3*60 C temp1:=id3*60 id1:=id2+temp1 66
D temp1:=id3*60.0 id1:=id2+temp1
What will be the output if we remove the left recursion? exprexpr+term|term A C exprtermexpr' expr'+termexpr'| exprtermexpr' expr'+termexpr' B exprexpr' expr'term+expr expr'
D exprtermexpr'
67
What is the regular definition of unsigned numbers? numdigit+(.digit+)?(E(+|)?digit+) numdigit+(.digit+)?(E(+|C numdigit+(.digit+)?(E(+)?digit+)? D )?digit+)? In call-by-reference mechanism of parameter passing, the _____ of actual parameter is passed to the function. A B A value C address B position D sata numdigit(.digit+)?(E(+|)?digit+)?
68
69
In case of procedure calls in C, what is saved on the stack? A value C address B program counter register machine
D function definition
70
The storage layout for data object is strongly influenced by the_______of the target machine A data constraints C stack constraints B heap constraints D addressing constraints
71
what is true in case of static allocation
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A C 72
the size of the data object must be known at compile time data structure can be created dynamically
recursive procedure are unrestricted
D all of these
what is placed in the middle in case of activation records ? A fields whose sizes are not fixed early B fields whose sizes are defined at run time
C fields whose sizes are not proper 73
D fields whose sizes are fixed early
Use of dangling references, is what type of error? A logical error C lexical B syntactical D semantic
74
consider the grammer S (L) | S L L, S | S which string we can generate out of above grammer ? A (a,((a,a),(a,a))) C (a,((a,a,(a,a))) B (a,(a,a),(a,a))) D (a,((a,a,a,a)))
75
consider the grammer bexpr bexpr or bterm | bterm bterm bterm and bfactor | bfactor rootbfactor | (bexpr) | true | false A C grammer generates all relational expression grammer generates all mathematical expression B D
bfactor grammer generates all logical expression grammer generates all boolean expression
76
This grammar is R R' | 'R | RR | R* | (R) | a|b ______________ A not ambiguous C ambiguous B not a valid grammar D none of the above
77
What type of grammer is this ? S Aa | bAc | dc | bda Ad A LALR(1) C SLR(1) B operator precedence D undefined
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78
consider the grammer S aSbS | bSaS | which string can be generated by the above grammer ? A ab C abab B aabb D all of these
79
S AaAb | BbBa A B A {a} C {b}
what is in the FIRST(A) ? B {} D {a,b}
80
S AaAb | BbBa A B what is in the FIRST(S) ? A {$,a,b} C {a,b} B {} D {}
81
Which string is not generated by the following grammer ? S aSa | aa A 6 a's C 4 a's B 3 a's D 8 a's
82
how lexical analyzer can be implemented ? A produce a lexical analyzer from a regular-expression B use context free grammar D use heap storage
C use directed acyclic graph 83
out of following what is the most concerned part for compiler design ? A logical operations C stack implementation B speed of lexical analysis D ease of operations DO 5 I
84
what does the lexical analyzer do in case of following input ? = 1.25 A DO is a keyword C lexical error B DO is not a keyword D
lexical analyzer does panic mode recovery
85
what is the purposr of function ungetc if used with lexical analyzer ? A to push scanned characters back in the input stream to push lookahead characters back in the input stream B To stop taking the input
D To read next character
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86
how can we specify pattern of zero or more a's in lexical analysis ? A a-a C a+ B [a-a] D a*
87
what does the following rule specify if we write (rs)t = r(st) where r and s are regular expressions. A bracket is not important C concatenation is associative B order of regular expression is not important
D regular expression r,s,t are equal
88
what is the alternate representation for r* A r+ C (r|0)* B (r|)* D r+0
89
for what purpose yylval is in LEX tool ? A To check whether the entered text B To convert the value to integer is tring or integer D undefine the value
C to hold the lexical value returned 90 for what purpose yyleng is in LEX tool ? A integer telling how long the lexeme is
string telling the value of the lexeme
C number of digits in lexeme 91
D number of alphabets in lexeme
in the input buffering in lexical analysis where the sentinel character is kept ? each buffer half holds a sentinel character at the beginning each buffer half does not hold a sentinel character at the end both buffer half holds a sentinel B character at the end and beginning D each buffer half holds a sentinel character at the end
C 92
what regular expression lexical analyzer will use to strip out white spaces ? delim blank | tab | newline ws delim delim blank | tab | newline ws delim+ delim blank | tab | newline ws delim*
D ws blank | tab | newline
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93
what regular expression lexical analyzer will we to find optional fractional part of decimal number ? A optional_fraction (.digits) C optional_fraction (.digits) * B optional_fraction (.digits) + D optional_fraction (.digits) ?
94
I={EE'.+T} then goto(I,+) consists of ____________ A I={EE'+.T} C I={EE'.+T} B I={EE'+T} D I={EE'+T.}
95
What type of grammar is this? SL=R SR L*R Lid RL A not SLR(1) C ambiguous B SLR(1) D right recursive
96
The process of computing the attribute values at the nodes is called ______ the parse tree. A evaluating C analyzing B decorating D traversing
97
What identifies the common subexpression in the expression? A directed acyclic graph C syntax tree B directed graph D parse tree
98
The flow control in a program corresponds to _____ traversal of the activation tree. A active C top down B breadth first D depth first
99
Match the static notation and its dynamic counterpart in context of compiler. A C definition of a procedure activation of the procedure scope of a declaration - lifetime of binding B declaration of a name-binding of the name
D all of these
100
How symbol table is stored in compiler? A as a hash indexed on the lexeme B as a pointer to the lexeme
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C as a pattern index 101
D as an array of values
Which pattern will match if following command is executed? egrep -n -e '[^b]a' A labs C ball B bat D bracket
102
What regular expression will be written if we want to match any input line where letter p or q or s exist? A egrep -n -e '[$p-s]' C egrep -n -e '[^p-s]' B egrep -n -e '[p|s]' D egrep -n -e '[p-s]'
103
In which case we cannot build predictive parser? A nonrecursive call C recursive procedure call B nondeterminism in transition diagram
D determinism in transition diagram
104
Which methods can be used to compute the attributes of different symbols in syntax directed definition? A translation interleaved with parsing B parse tree method D all of these
C rule based method 105
Who determines the shift reduce parsing decision? A C state current input symbol B D state symbol on the top of the stack and current input symbol FOLLOW set
106
in upon constructing LR(1) sets of items following grammer generates which type of conflict ? S' S S aAd | bBd | aBe | bAe Ac Bc A reduce - reduce conflict C shift - shift conflict B shift-reduce conflict D reduce-shift conflict
107
what is the syntex directed definition for the following ? 1. D TL 2. T int 3. T real 4. L L1, id 5. L id
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1. L.in := T.type 2. T.type := integer 3. T.type := real A 4. L1.in := L.in addtype(id.entry, L.in) 5. addtype(id.entry, L.in) 1. T.type := L.in T.type := integer T.type := real C L1.in := L.in addtype(id.entry, L.in) 5. addtype(id.entry, L.in) 108 2. 3. 4.
1. L.in := T.type 2. T.type := integer B 3. T.type := real 4. L1.in := L.in 5. addtype(id.entry, L.in) 1. T.type := integer 2. T.type := real 3. L.in:=T.type D 4. L1.in := L.in addtype(id.entry, L.in) 5. addtype(id.entry, L.in)
what is the initial set of items in case of LR(1) items for the following augmented grammer ? S' S S CC C cC | d I0:S' S,$ S CC, $ A C cC, c C d, d I0:S' S,$ S CC, $ C C cC, C C d, d I0:S' S,$ S CC, $ B C cC, c|d C d, c|d I0:S' S,$ S CC, $ D C cC, C C d, C
109
Which type of three address code requires lesser space? A Quadruples C Triples B Indirect triples D none of these
110
Out of the following, which translation scheme maps infix expression to corresponding postfix expression? ETR A Raddop T{print(addop.lexeme)}R1 | ETR C Raddop {print(addop.lexeme)} T R1 | ETR Raddop T R1 |
ETR D Raddop T R1 {print(addop.lexeme)} |
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111
For the semantic rule A.a:=f(X.x,Y.y,Z.z) is associated with the production AXYZ. Before XYZ is reduced to A,which aribute will be on the top of the stack? A X.x C Y.y B Z.z D A.a
112
In which case stack allocation strategy cannot be used? A value of local names must be retained when activation ends B A called activation outlives the caller
C both of these 113
D none of these S
What is the result if left factoring is done on the grammar? iEtS | iEtSeS |a Eb S iEtSS' A S'eS Eb S iEtSS' C S'S| Eb S iEtS' B S'eS| Eb S iEtSS' D S'eS| Eb
114
What is the result if left recursion is removed from the grammar? S Aa|b AAc|Sd| A grammar is not left recursive S Aa|b C AbdA'|A' A'cA'|adA'| B S Aa|b AcA'|adA'|
D cannot remove left recursion
115
Why LR parser is attractive? A recognize all programming language construct B most general nonbacktracking shift reduce parsing
C superset of predictive parsers 116 What is the drawback of LR parser?
D all of these
117
too much work to construct LR parser by hand No tool available to generate C No drawback D parser What is the three address code for the statement if x<y goto lbl A difficult to understand B
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A lbl LT x y C LT x y lbl 118
B lbl x y LT D none of these
f:=g is related to which issue of the code optimization in compiler? A common subexpression C copy propagation B dead code elimination D Loop optimization
119
Which method decreses the amount of code in a loop? A common subexpression C copy propagation B code motion D Loop optimization
120
What is the code motion equivalent of the statement while (i<=limit-2) A while(limit-2>=i) C t=limit-2 while(i<=t) B while (i>limit-2) D for(i=0;i<=limit-2;i++)
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process is an executing program, including the current values of the ____, _________ and ___________. A counter,registers and variables C functions,stack,program counter B counter,interrupt,functions D local and global variables
In UNIX process is created by which system call? A create C system B fork D process
Which data structure contains the address of interrupt service procedure? A interrupt array C interrupt address B interrupt routine D interrupt vector
What term is used to indicate that if one process is using shared variable or file , the other processes will be excluded from doing the same thing. A deadlock C mutual awareness B mutual exclusion D mutual denial
The part of the program, where the shared memory is accessed is called _____________ A shared heap C crtitical section B shared region D not accessible data
Which criteria constitutes a good scheduling policy? A Turnaround C throughput B response time D all of these
Allowing processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily suspended that type of scheduling is called _____________ A preemptive scheduling C premature leaving B process starvation D process observation
In round robin scheduling , what is the effect of setting the two short quantum? A too many process switches C increases CPU efficiency B too few process switches D too many sleeps
A ___________ can be thought of as a program in execution. A assembly program C executable program B thread D processs
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10
A batch system executes _____, wheareas a time-shared system has ____________. A tasks,threads C jobs,user programs B processes,threads D jobs,tasks
11
A process includes the ________, which contains temporary data(such as function parameters,return addresses and local variables) A stack C data section B program counter D heap
12
What does a process include that is memory that is dynamically allocated during processes run time? A array C vector B heap D stack
13
Only one process can be ______ on any processor at any instant. Many processes may be ______ and ___________. A running,ready,waiting C waiting,running,ready B running,terminated,waiting D ready,waiting,running
14
The CPU registers in a process control block include which of the following? A accumulators C stack pointers B index registers D all of these
15
Page tables and segment tables are part of which piece of information in process control block? A memory management information B cPU registers D accounting information
C process state 16
What is included as part of accounting information in case of process control block? A CPU and real time used C page tables B process priority D list of I/O devices
17
What data structure is used to store all processes? A vector C tree B linked list D array
18
What does a ready queue header contain?
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A C 19
pointer to first process control block pointer to first and final process control block
pointer to final process control block
D do not contain any thing
The list of processes in a device queue is waiting for a _______ A process C CPU B particular I/O device D thread
20
What type of scheduler is needed for batch system? A process scheduler C CPU and real time scheduler B short term scheduler D long term scheduler
21
What type of scheduler is needed for processes that are ready to execute? A process scheduler C CPU and real time scheduler B short term scheduler D long term scheduler
22
short time scheduler is _________ A slow C fast B inefficient D improper
23
_________ uses more of its time doing computations. A interrupt processes C CPU bound processes B I/O bound processes D memory bound processes
24
In which case short term scheduler has little work to do? A C all processses are interrupt processes all processses are CPU bound processes B D all processses are I/O bound processes all processses are memory bound processes
25
Which type of systems do not have long term scheduler? A real time system C time sharing system B batch system D single process system
26
The task of performing the state save of currrent process and state restore of a different process is called __________ A context switch C memory switch B process switch D task switch
27
context switch time is overhead for the operating system because _____
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A system goes in wait mode C 28 system creates many new processes
B system does useful work D system does no useful work
On UNIX, listing of processing can be obtained using which command? A ps C process B execute D ls
29
Which process in UNIX, serves as a root parent process for all processes? A root C init B parent D login
30
each process in UNIX is identified by __________ A process pointer C process identifier B process tag D process table
31
A process is _____ if it can affect or be affected by the other processes executing in the system. A cooperating C memory sharing B CPU sharing D I/O sharing
32
Which two models can be used for interprocess communication? A shared memory,vactor passing C segmented memory,message passing B shared memory,message passing D page memory,message passing
33
Which concept is easier to implement for intercomputer communication? A page memory C message passing B shared memory D segmented memory
34
message passing is useful for _______ A intermediate amount of data C B larger amounts of data D smaller amounts of data
35
In which case send() call of message passing is considered blocking send? sending process is blocked until A the message is received by receiving process sending process is blocked until B the message is not received by receiving process
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C 36
sending process is blocked until the communication is established
sending process is blocked until the shared memory is defined
shared memory segment can be removed with the help of which system call? A shmget() C shmctl() B shmat() D shmcreate()
37
A system has one network address and it has ____ port A undefined C one B many D none
38
Communication in client server system may use A sockets C Java's remote method invocation B remote procedure calls D all of these
39
Java provides an interface java.io.serializable. What is the use of object serialization? A C allows a state of an object to be written to an array allows a state of an object to be written to a byte stream B D allows a state of an object to be written to a vector allows a state of an object to be written to a file
40
Which two problems are faced by process creation method? A time consuming and resource intensive B D time consuming and resource starvation time consuming and memory starvation
C time sharing and deadlock 41
Which types of threads are managed directly by the operating system? A kernel threads C message threads B user threads D memory threads
42
What is the problem if relationship between user level and kernel level threads is many to one? A entire process will block if a thread makes a computation entire process will block if a thread makes an exit entire process will block if a B thread makes a blocking system call D no problem
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43
What is the problem if relationship between user level and kernel level threads is one to one? A overhead of data C overhead of starting Operating system B overhead of creating user threads D overhead of creating kernel threads
44
The benefits of multithreading include A increased responsiveness to user C economy B resource sharing within the process
D all of these
45
The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is the ____ time. A tunaround time C average time B throughput time D wait time
46
The criteria of waiting time in CPU scheduling includes A time during which a process executes B time during which a process does I/O
C spends waiting in the ready queue 47
D all of these
In which type of system turnaround time may not be best criteria for CPU scheduling? A real time system C time sharing B interactive D batch system
48
Process execution consists of ___________ A cycles of CPU execution C both A and B B cycle of I/O wait D none of these
49 To guarantee that all users get good service, _____ the maximum response time. A minimize C average 50 B maximize D none of these
When a process enters the ready queue, what is linked onto the tail of queue? A process control block C process identifier B process table D free memory block
51
What type of scheduling is first come first served?
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A preemptive scheduling C maximum output sceduling 52
B nonpreemptive scheduling D minimum wait scheduling
first come first served scheduling algorithm is troublesome for ____ systems A real time system C time sharing B interactive D batch system
53
shortest job first scheduling algorithm cannot be implemented at the level of ______ A short term CPU scheduling C both of these B long term CPU scheduling D none of these
54
shortest job first scheduling algorithm is A preemptive scheduling C both of these B nonpreemptive scheduling D none of these
55
What is a major problem with priority scheduling? A unavailable I/O C unavailable CPU B unavailable memory D starvation
56
What criteria can be used to define priority in priority scheduling? time limits,memory requirements,the number of open A files, the average of I/O burst to average CPU burst time limits,memory requirements,the previous C priority, the average of I/O burst to average CPU burst time limits,memory requirements, B the average of I/O burst to average CPU burst
57
time limits,memory requirements,the number of D processes in ready queue, the average of I/O burst to average CPU burst What is the time quantum in case of round robin scheduling? A 10 to 20 milliseconds C 1 to 10 milliseconds B 10 to 100 milliseconds D 10 to 50 milliseconds
58
In round robin scheduling , if there are n processes in the ready queue and time quantum is q What is the maximum waiting time for a process until its next time quantum? A n-1 C (n-1)xq B q D nxq
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59
Which type of kernel is free from race conditions? A nonpreemptive C both of these B preemptive D none of these
60
preemptive kernel is suitable for which kind of process? A multiuser C batch B interactive D real time
61
Which type of semaphores are known as mutex locks? A counting C binary B infinite D none of these
62
Deadlock avoidance require which information in advance? A resources a process will request and use during lifetime B memory usage pattern D cannot avoid deadlock
C resources a process will request 63
Which of the following resource cannot be simultaneously shared by several processes? A read only files C both of these B printer D none of these
64 A deadlock can occur if which of the following conditions hold simultaneously? 1. mutual exclusion 2. hold and wait 3. nopreemption 4. circular wait A 1,2 C 1,2,3,4 65 B 2,3 D 1,2,4
If program can logically access all addresses from 300040 through 420940(inclusive) then what value is hold by base register and limit register? A 300040 C 300041 120900 110999 B 300000 D 300940 120940 120000
66
If the processs can be moved during its execution from one memory segment to another , binding must be delayed until ____ time. A compile C execution B run D all of these
67
What is the role of memory management unit?
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A C 68
run time maaping from virtual to physical adddresses compile time maaping from virtual to physical adddresses
load time maaping from virtual to physical adddresses
D all of these
The memory is divided into which two partitions? A resident operating sytem,user processes B resident operating sytem,kernel processes
C resident operating sytem,loader 69
D resident operating sytem,compiler
What is worst fit strategy to select a free hole from the set of available holes in case of dynamic storage allocation problem? A allocate the first hole big enough C allocate contiguous blocks B allocate smallest hole D allocate largest hole
70
first fit and best fit strategies of memory allocation suffer from ____ A external fragmentation C both of these B internal fragmentation D none of these
71
There is a memory allocation scheme with a hole of 18464 bytes. If a processes requests 18462 bytes. Then 2 bytes are left with a hole if exact requested block is allocated. This is called ___________ A external fragmentation C both of these B internal fragmentation D none of these
72
_____________ is a memory management scheme that permits the physiacl address of a process to be noncontiguous. A external fragmentation C paging B internal fragmentation D none of these
73
If a process needs npages plus 1 byte. It would be allocated n+1 frames, resulting in an _____ fragmentation of _____ frame. A internal,entire C internal,0 B external, last D external,0
74
In memory allocation, segment 2 is 400 bytes long and begins at location 4300. Reference to byte 53 of segment 2 is mapped onto location ____ A C 4300 B 4302 D 4353 4355
75
In which situation Direct access files are of great use?
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For indirect access to small amount of information For immediate access to small C amounts of information implement identity dependent access
For immediate access to indirect information For immediate access to large D amounts of information B
76
For what purpose access control list is used in operating system? A B implement group identity D implement file list
C implement role dependent access 77
Which command can be used in Linux to set priority in priority based scheduling? A grep C nice B egrep D cal
78
aging is the solution to which problem? A indefinite blockage of low priority process in priority scheduling preemptive scheduling in shortest job first B nonpreemptive scheduling in First come first served scheduling nonpreemptive scheduling in shortest job first
C 79
When a process creates a new process which two possibilities exist in terms of execution? 1. parent continues to execute concurrently with children 2. The parent waits until some or all of its children have terminated. 3. The parent exits so children gets memory for execution A 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 D 1,2 and 3
80
When a new process is created, which are the two possibilities in terms of the address space? 1. The child process is a duplicate of the parent process 2. The child process has a new program loaded into it. 3. The parent,child process are shifted to new memory area. A 1 and 3 C 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 D 1,2 and 3
81
What is deferred cancellation in case of cancellation of a target thread? The target thread allows itself an A opportunity to terminate init process The target thread allows itself an B opportunity to terminate itself in an orderly fashion
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The target thread allows itself an C opportunity to terminate memory operations 82
The target thread allows itself an D opportunity to terminate I/O operations
When fork() is used to create a child process, what is the pid for the child process? A random number greater than 0 C B 1 0
1356 D
83
Which resources are deallocated by operating system when a process terminates? A physical and virtual memory C I/O buffers B open files D all of these
84 In which case parerent may terminate the execution of one of its children? 1. The child has exceeded its usage of some of the resources that it has been allocated. 2. The task assigned to the child is no longer required. 3. The parent is exiting and the operating system does not allow a child to continue if its parent terminates. A 1,2,3 C 2,3 85 The assembler generates object modules for loader who is a consumer in this? A assembler C object module 86 B loader D none of these B 1,2 D 1,3
What does IPC_PRIVATE in case of system call shmget(IPC_PRIVATE,size,S_IRUSR|S_IWUSR) A a new shared memory segment is created. a new shared memory segment is created with write permission B a new shared memory segment is created with read permission. a new shared memory segment is created in private memory are.
C 87
What is the meaning of NULL in the system call shmat(id,NULL,0)? user selects the location where B the shared memory will be attached
A shared memory is detached
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operating system selects the C location where the shared memory will be attached 88 Thread pools offer which benefit? servicing a request with an A existing thread is usually faster than writing to create thread. C A and B 89
process selects the location where D the shared memory will be attached
A thread pool limits the number of B threads that exist at any one point. D none of these
What is the reason for CPU scheduling decisions? A C When a process switches from running to waiting state When a process switches from waiting to ready state B When a process switches from running to ready state
D all of these
90
In First come First serve scheduling policy, the burst time for processes A,B,C is 24,3,3. burst time in milliseconds. If the processes arrive in orser B,C,A - the average waiting time A 24 milliseconds C 10 milliseconds B 27 milliseconds D 17 milliseconds
91
The four processes A,B,C,D has burst time 6,8,7,3. burst time in milliseconds. The average waiting time in case of simple shortest job first scheduling algorithm is ____ A 6 milliseconds C 5 milliseconds B 7 milliseconds D 4 milliseconds
92
The four processes A,B,C,D has burst time 8,4,9,5 and arrival time 0,1,2,3. burst time and arrival time in milliseconds. The average waiting time in case of preemptive shortest job first scheduling algorithm is ____ A 6.5 milliseconds C 6 milliseconds B 7 milliseconds D 4 milliseconds
93
The four processes A,B,C,D has burst time 8,4,9,5 and arrival time 0,1,2,3. burst time and arrival time in milliseconds. The average waiting time in case of nopreemptive shortest job first scheduling algorithm is ____ A 6.5 milliseconds C 7.75 milliseconds B 7 milliseconds D 6 milliseconds
94
The five processes A,B,C,D,E has burst time 10,1,2,1,5 and priority 3,1,4,5,2 respectively. burst time in milliseconds. The average waiting time in case of priority scheduling algorithm is ____
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A 6.9 milliseconds C 7.75 milliseconds 95
B 8.2 milliseconds D 6.3 milliseconds
If three processes A,B,C arrive at time 0 and length of the CPU burst in milliseconds is 24,3,3 respectively and if the time quantum is of 4 milliseconds then average waiting time in round robin scheduling is _____. A 10 milliseconds C 6.2 milliseconds 96 B 7.4 milliseconds D 5.66 milliseconds
If time quantum is too large, round robin scheduling degenerates to which scheduling policy? A First come first served C priority B shortest job first D none of the above
97
What is a critical section problem? A design a protocol that the process can use to cooperate design a protocol that the process can use to access shared memory B design a protocol that the process can use to access kernel thread design a protocol that the process can use to access CPU
C 98
In priority scheduling, if priorities range from 127(low) to 0(high) anf if priority of waiting process is increased by 1 every 15 minutes, then how many hours will be taken for a priority 127 to reach to priority 0. A 30 hours C 28 hours B 32 hours D 24 hours
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If short term scheduler takes 10 milliseconds to decide to execute a process for 100 milliseconds then _____ percent of the CPU is being used for scheduling the work. A C 10% B 0.10% D 9% 0%
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The shared buffer is implemented in a circular array with two logical pointer in and out. The variable in points to the next free position in the buffer; out points to the first full position in the buffer. In which situation buffer is full? A in = out C buffer cannot be full B ((in+1)%BUFFER_SIZE)=out D in + 1 =out
SUJJECT CODE:
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PGCET
A Relation R is called Equivalence Relation if R is 1 A C 2 Reflexive Transitive B D Symmetric All of these
A function is called onto or surjective If domain and coB If the range and codomain are same domain are same C If the range and D None of these domain are same For Language L following is not true A C L+ = L*L L+ = L*L* B D L+ = L L* All are true A
In which machine all of the moves for an alphabet must be specified? A Finite Automata B NFA C NFA D All of these
Turing Machine is more powerful than Finite Automata because A It has no finite state control B It has the capabilities to remember arbitrary long sequence of input symbols None of these
Tape movement is confined to one direction only Push Down Automata uses A C Tape Stack
B D
Queue Tree
Regular Grammar is subset of A C Context Free Grammar Unrestricted Grammar B D Context Sensitive Grammar All of these
(00 + 01 + 10)(0+1)* represents Strings of even length B Strings not starting with D 11 (00 + 01 + 10 + 11)* represents A C Strings of even length Strings starting with 00 B D A C Strings of Odd length None of these
Strings of Odd length None of these
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The regular expression 0*1(0*10*1)* represents strings with A C Even no. of 1s Odd no. of zeroes B D Odd no. of 1s None of these
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Finite Automata can not have A C Accepting State Transition Function BC Rule is not allowed in Context Free Grammar Regular Grammar B D Context Sensitive Grammar CNF B D Starting State More than one transitions for same input from a state
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A A C
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Starting Symbol of a Grammar is subset of A C Terminal Symbols Alphabet B D Non Terminal Symbols Language
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Following is not a primitive operation of a Regular Language A C L1 L2 L1.L2 B D L1 L2 L1*
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The Regular expression for strings of 0's and 1's which have no pairs of consecutive 0's is A (1 + 01)* (0 + ) B (0 +10) * C (0 +11) * D None of these
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The set of strings over {a, b}* that contain the substring aa is. A C a(a*ba*b)*a* (aa + bb)* B D (a)*(b+a)(b) (a + b)*aa (a + b)*
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The regular expression (a + b)* abb denotes: all possible B set of all strings ending with abb combinations of as and bs C set of all strings starting D None of these with and ending with abb Given two DFAs M1 and M2 They are equivalent if: M1 and M2 has the same B M1 and M2 has the sane number number of states of final states. D None of these C M1 and M2 accepts the same language i.e. L(M1)= L(M2) Given a finite automata M =(Q, , , qo F), If maps Q x to 2Q then: A C M is NFA M is NFA with -moves B D M is DFA None of these A A
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Which of the following phase of compilation process is an optional phase : A Lexical analysis phase B Syntax analysis phase C Code generation phase. D Code optimization phase Which of the following statement is negation of the statement? 2 is even and -3 is not B 2 is odd or -3 is not negative negative C 2 is odd and -3 is not D 2 is even or -3 is not negative negative Which of the following are the aspects of the high level languages? A C Ease of understanding portability B D Naturalness All of Above A
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In a Finite State Machine, M = (Q,,,q0, A) transition function is a function which maps A Q XQ B QX Q C Q A D Q X q0
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In an NFA, M = (Q,,,q0, A) transition function is a function which maps A QX Q B Q X Q2 C Q X 2Q D Q X * Q
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By Kleens theorem we prove that Any language is B Any Regular Language is accepted by FA accepted by FA C Any CFG is accepted D None of these by FA For two FAs M1 = (Q1,,1,q1, A1) M = M2 = (Q2,,2,q2, A2) accepting languages L1 and L2 If we find L1 L2 then A Only A1 is accepting B Only A2 is accepting State State C We must add new D Both A1 and A2 are accepting accepting States State For two FAs M1 = (Q1,,1,q1, A1) M = M2 = (Q2,,2,q2, A2) accepting languages L1 and L2 If we find L1. L2 then A Only A1 is accepting B Only A2 is accepting State State C We must add new D Both A1 and A2 are accepting accepting States State For two FAs M1 = (Q1,,1,q1, A1) M = M2 = (Q2,,2,q2, A2) accepting languages L1 and L2 If we find L1.L2 then A q1 is starting State B q2 is starting State C We must add new D None of these starting State If f(x) = cos(x) and g(x) = x3 , then (f O g)(x) is A C (cos(x))3 x3(cosx) B D cos (3x) Cos(x3) A
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P A C
q is logically equivalent to (here ~ is Negation Sign) ~q p ~p q B D ~p q ~p q
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Let the classes of Languages accepted by finite state machines be L1 and the class of Languages represented by regular expressions be L2 then, A L1 is subset of L2 B L2 is subset of L1 C L1 = L2 D L1 L2 =
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Tautology is A C Always True Partially True B D Always False None of these
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* of Finite Automata is
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Transition Function B Non Recursive Function D
Extended Transition Function None of these
Following is an Ambiguous Grammar A C S S S+S|S*S|a aS | B D S aSa | None of these
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CFG stands for A C Compile Free Grammar Context Free Grammar B D Content Free Grammar None of these
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In a Push Down Automata, Which of the following Stack operations can not be performed on a particular move? A PUSH B PEEP C POP D None of these Recursive Languages are recognizable by A C FA NFA - B D NFA Turing Machine
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Minimum length of the string formed by Regular Expression (a+b)* abac*(a+b)+ A 3 B 6 C 4 D 8 (a+b)* represents A C Null String String starting with a B D All Strings of as and bs None of these
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If the language L is Recursive language then L is finite or infinite is A C Decidable Still an open question B D Un-decidable None of these
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Turing Machine cant solve Halting Problem is A C True Still an open question B D False None of these
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If P = NP then A C P and NPC are different B P,NP and NPC are same D NP and NPC are different None of these
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The Coloring Problem is A C NP Hard Problem P Problem B D NP Complete Problem None of these
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Conversion from NFA to DFA is done by Subset construction B Kleens Theorem Minimization D Cooks Theorem Algorithm Pumping Lemma is used to decide whether Language L is A C Context Sensitive Recursive B D Context Free Not a Regular A C
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Which of the following is true? A C (a+b)* = (a+b)(a+b)* (a+b)* = (a*b*)* B D (a+b)* = a*b* None of these
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(1+0)*0 represents A C Binary number that are multiples of 2(two). String starting with 0 B D String starting with 1 None of these
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CFG : S A C
SS+ | SS* | a , generates B D Postfix Expression None of these
Prefix Expression Infix Expression
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CFG: S A C
aSb | , generates language B D ab(a+b)* anbn
(ab)n (a+b)*(ab)n
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The Regular Sets are closed under A C Union Kleens Closure B D Concatenation All of Above
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The output of a moore machine is A C Depend on present state and present input Depend only on present input B D Depend only on the present state All of these
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In a Context Sensitive Grammar, no. of Grammar symbols on the left side of a Production cant be greater than the no. of A Grammar Symbols on B Terminals on the right side right side C Non Terminals on right D All of these side A given grammar is called ambiguous if 2 or more productions B A derivation tree has more than have same non terminal on associated sentence on the left hand side C Brackets are not present D There is a sentence with more in the grammar than one derivation tree. Let L be a language recognizable by a Finite Automata, then reverse of the language is a A Regular Language B Context Free Language C Context Sensitive D Recursively Enumerable Language Language The logic of Pumping Lemma is a good example of A C Pigeon Hole principle Recursion B D Divide & Conquer Technique Iteration A
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The no. of Auxiliary memory required for a Push Down Automata to behave as a Finite Automata is A 2 B 1 C 0 D 4 A Push Down Automata behaves like a Turing Machine when no. of Auxiliary memory it has is A 2 B 1 C 0 D 4 Context Free Grammar is not closed under A C Concatenation Complementation B D Union Kleens
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For two regular languages L1 = (a+b)*b and L2 = b(a+b)*, then L1 L2 is given by A (a+b)*ab B ab(a+b)* C a(a+b)*b D b(a+b)*a If L is a language recognizable by a Finite Automata then subset of the Language is A Regular Language B Context Free Language
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Context Sensitive D Recursively Enumerable Language Language Which of the following is not accepted by any deterministic Push Down Automata? A String ending in B Strings in which a given symbol particular alphabet is present atleast twice C Even palindromes D None of these If S be an infinite set and S1 2 = S, then Atleast one of the set Si B Atleast one of the sets Si is an is a finite set infinite set C Not more than on of the D None of these set Si can be finite A Grammar that produces more than one Parse tree for same sentence is A C Ambiguous Regular B D Unambiguous None of these A
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Which of the following Regular Expressions denotes a language comprising all possible strings over the alphabet (a,b) A a*b* B (a+b)* + C (ab) D (a+b*) An Finite Automata can be considered to be a Turing Machine of finite length A Rewinding capability B Without rewinding capability and unidirectional tape and unidirectional tape movement movement C Rewinding capability D Without rewinding capability and bidirectional tape and bidirectional tape movement movement Palindromes cant be recognized by any Finite Automata because A FA cant deterministically fix the mid-point Both A and B B FA cant remember arbitrary large amount of information None of these
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If = (a,b,c,d,e,f), then no. of string in of length 4 such that no symbol is used more than once in a string is A 60 B 360 C 240 D 720 If L = x*(x + yx), then which of the following is not a legal string within L? A yx B xyx
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xyxyx
If every string of a language can be determined, whether it is legal or illegal in finite time, the language is called A Decidable B Undecidable C Interpretive D Non-determinstic Can a DFA simulate NFA? A C No Sometimes B D Yes Depends on NFA
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Regular Expression (a+b) denotes the set A C {a} {a,b} B D {, a,b} {ab}
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Regular Expression (a+b)(a+b) denotes the set A C {a,b,ab,aa} {a,b} B D {a,b,ba,bb} {aa,ab,ba,bb}
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Which of the following regular expression denotes zero or more instances of a or b? A a+b B (ab)* C (a+b)* D a* +b The automata is a ____ device and a grammar is a _____ device A C generative,cognitive acceptor,cognitive B D generative,acceptor cognitive, generative
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The Regular sets are closed under A C Union Kleens Closure B D Concatenation All of these
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To accept strings with N characters the Finite Automata contains minimum A N states B N + 1 States C N + 2 States D N - 1 States
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Number of Articulation Points in a Rectangle is A C 0 2 B D 1 4
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For a simple connected graph G with n vertices and n edges(n>2), which of the following statement are true? A G has no cycles B G is a Spanning Tree
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G has atleast one cycle
None of these
Finite State Machine can recognize A C Any Grammar Any Unambiguous Grammar aSa | bSb | recognizes B D Only Context Free Grammar Only Regular Grammar
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S A
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Even Palindrome in B Odd Palindrome (a,b)* (a,b)* C Any Palindrome in D None of these (a,b)* Match all items in Group 1 with correct options from those given in Group 2. Group 1 P. Regular expression Q. Pushdown automata R. Dataflow analysis S. Register allocation A C P-4. Q-1, R-2, S-3 P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 Group 2 1. Syntax analysis 2. Code generation 3. Lexical analysis 4. Code optimization B D P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
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Find a regular expression for strings of 0's and 1's which have no pairs of consecutive 0's. A (1 + 01)* (0 + ) B (0 +10) * C (11 +010) * D None of these Which phase detects and ignores the comments? A C Lexical Semantic B D Syntax Code Generator
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The set of strings over {a, b} that contain the substring aa. A C (ab)*a a*(a+b)* B D (a + b)*aa (a + b)* None of these
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The Left Linear Grammar is A C Regular Grammar Not a Regular Grammar B D CNF None of these
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Modification of Simple Turing Machine(TM) can be done by
A C 87
Multi-Tape TM Universal TM
B D
Multi-Head TM All of these
Regular Grammar is A C Type 0 Type 2 B D Type 1 Type 3
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Dangling else is a phenomenon related to A C Regular Grammar Ambiguous Grammar B D Unambiguous Grammar None of these
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For minimization of Finite Automata we find A C Equivalent States Finite States B D Unreachable State None of these
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Any Regular Expression is easily converted to A C FA NFA - B D NFA None of these
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- closure (Null Closure) of a state in NFA - contains A C The state itself Both A and B B D All states obtained from transitions from the state None of these
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(11+101)(1+0)* represents A C String starting with 11 and 101 Strings always starting with 11 R, f(x) = x2 function is Both onto and one-toone onto but not one-to-one B D String starting either with 11 or 101 None of These
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f:R+ A C
B D
Not onto but one-to-one Neither onto nor one-to-one
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f:R+ A C
R+, f(x) = x2 function is Both onto and one-toone onto but not one-to-one B D Not onto but one-to-one Neither onto nor one-to-one
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If NFA contains n states then by subset construction the equivalent DFA contains maximum of A n2 states B 2n states 3 C n states D 2n states Recursively Enumerable Grammar falls in A C Type 0 Type 2 B D Type 1 Type 3
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For simplification of CFG following can be done Eliminate Null B Eliminate not reachable Production Variables C Eliminate Unit D All of these Production In case of Turing Machine(TM) by reading input x, TM May go to infinite loop B May go to halt-non final state May go to halt-final D All of these state Recursively Enumerable Languages are A proper subset of B Always recognizable by PDA. CFLs C Also called type-0 D All of these languages Any language generated by a Unrestricted Grammar is A C Regular Language Context Free Language B D Recursively Enumerable Language None of these A A C A
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Which of the following properties of Recursively Enumerable sets are decidable? A Emptiness B Finiteness C Regularity D None of these Finite State Machine can recognize A C Only Context Free Grammar Any unambiguous Grammar B D Only Regular Grammar Any Grammar
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Which of the following problem is not NP-Hard? A Travelling Salesman Problem B 0/1 Knapsack Problem
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Graph Coloring
None of these
In a Grammar : S aSa | bSb | For recognizingstring abba the number of productions used are A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5 Finite Automata do not find application in Syntax Checking B Recognition of Tokens Checking string ending D None of these with some alphabets NFA can be simulated by a DFA. The statement is A C True Depends on NFA B D False Depends on DFA A C
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Universal Turing Machine influenced the concept of A C Stored program computers Computability B D Interpretive implementation of programming language All of these
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Following is not a proof method Contra-positive Principle of Mathematical Induction Finite Automata is a particular case of NFA. The statement is A C False Partially true B D True Depends upon NFA A C Contradiction Recurrence B D
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In NFA, a particular state can have Zero Transition on an alphabet C More than One Transition on an alphabet (00+11+01+10)* represents A C Strings of odd length Strings starting with 00 A B D One Transition on an alphabet All of above
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B D
Strings of even length Strings ending in 10
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For the language (00)*(11)* drawing/designing ____ is easier. A FA B NFA
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NFA -
Universal TM
Which of the following is not true with respect to regular expression? A C (a+b)* = (b+a)* (ab+ba)* = (ba+ab)* B D (ab)* = a*b* (a+b)+ = (a+b)(a+b)*
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Bottom Up Parsing have A C Shift operation Both A and B B D Reduce Operation None of these
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With respect to Grammar, Following is the part of actual string of a Language A Variables B Start Symbol C Non Terminal Symbol D Terminal Symbol Grammar: S A C [S] | {S} | SS | represents B Strings with Unbalanced Brackets Strings like {SSSS}
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Strings with symbols
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Strings with Balanced D Brackets L={xcxr / x (a,b)* } can be recognized by A C FA NFA - B D
NFA Push Down Automata
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A function f is called bijection if f is onto Both onto and surjective 0(1+0)*0 represents all strings A C Starting with 0 Contains substring 00 A C B D surjective None of these
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B D
Ending in 0 Starting with and ending in 0
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Total no. of substrings of the letter TOC (without considering NULL) equal to A 3 B 4 C 5 D 6
The depth of a complete binary tree is given by 1 A C 2 Dn = n log2n Dn = log2n B D Dn = n log2n+1 Dn = log2n+1
Which of the following sorting algorithm is of divide-andconquer type? A Bubble sort B Insertion sort C Quick sort D All of above
The time factor when determining the efficiency of algorithm is measured by A Counting microseconds B Counting the number of key operations C Counting the number D Counting the kilobytes of of statements algorithm The Worst case occur in linear search algorithm when Item is not in the array at all C Item is the last element in the array or is not there at all The Average case occur in linear search algorithm A When Item is somewhere in the middle of the array When Item is the last element in the array B When Item is not in the array at all A Item is somewhere in B the middle of the array Item is the first element D in the array
When Item is the last element in the array or is not there at all The complexity of Bubble sort algorithm is A C O(n) O(n2) B D O(log n) O(n log n)
An algorithm is made up of 2 modules Ml and M2. If order of M1 is f(n) and M2 is g(n) then the order of the algorithm is A max (f (n) ,g (n)) B min (f (n) ,g (n) ) C f (n) + g (n) D f (n) x g (n )
There are 4 different algorithms AI, A2, A3, A4 to solve a given problem with the order Iog(n), log(log(n)), nIog(n) ,n / log(n) respectively. Which is the best algorithm? A B A1 A2 C A3 D A4
The time complexity of an algorithm T(n), where n is the input size, is given by T( n) = T( n - 1) + (1/n) if n > 1 The order of this algorithm is A log n B n 2 C n D nn The running time of an algorithm is given by T(n) = T(n - 1) + T(n - 2) - T(n - 3), if n > 3 n, otherwise. A n B log n n C n D n2 Which of the following algorithms solves the all-pair shortest path problem? A Dijkstra's algorithm B Floyd's algorithm C Prim's algorithm D Warshall's algorithm For merging two sorted lists of sizes m and n into a sorted list of size m + n, we require comparisons of A O(m) B O(n) C O(m + n) D O(log(m) + log(n)) Which of the following algorithm design technique is used in the quick sort algorithm? A Dynamic programming B Backtracking C Divide and conquer D Greedy method
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The correct matching for the following pairs is (A) 0/1 Knapsack (1) Greedy (B) Quick sort (2) Depth-first search (C) Minimum weight (3) Dynamic programming (D) Connected Components (4) Divide and conquer
A C 15
A-2 , B-4 , C-1, D-3 A-3 , B-4 , C-2 , D-1
B D
A-3 , B-4 , C-l , D-2 A-4 , B-1 , C-2 , D-3
In the worst case, the number of comparisons needed to search a single linked list of length n for a given element is A log(n) B n/2 C log(n/2)-1 D n For the bubble sort algorithm, what is the time complexity of the best/worst case? (assume that the computation stops as soon as no more swaps in one pass) A best case: O(n) worst B best case: O(n) worst case: case: O(n*n) O(n*log(n)) C best case: O(1) worst D best case: O(n*log(n)) worst case: O( n ) case: O(n*n) When we say the order of a tree is M, we mean Every non-leaf node B Every non-leaf node must have must have M subtrees M keys C Every non-leaf node D The Height of the tree is M. can have at most M subtrees Worst case Time Complexity of Merge Sort is A C O(n2) O(2 log(n) ) B D O(n log(n) ) O(n2 log(n) ) A
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The number of edges in a Minimum Spanning Tree of a connected Graph G with n vertices is A n log(n) B n! C n*(n-1)/2 D n-1 Time Complexity of Tower of Hanoi Problem (Recursive) with n disks is A n2 B 2n C 3n D n3
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Total Degree of a Triangle is A C 6 3 B D 4 2
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Travelling Salesman Problem is A NP Problem B P Problem
C 22
Halting Problem
All of Above
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For the Quick sort algorithm, what is the time complexity of the best/worst case? B best case: O(n2) A best case: O(log(n)) worst case: O(n2) worst case: O(n log(n)) C best case: O(n log(n) ) D best case: O(n2) 2 worst case: O(n ) worst case: O(n2log(n) ) A Bi-connected Graph Certainly does not contain any A C Cycle Parallel Edges B D Path Cut Vertex
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N-Queens Problem can be solved easily by A C Dynamic Programming Greedy Method B D Backtracking Method Divide and Conquer Method.
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Max Heap Tree has following Property. A C Right Child > Parent Both Children < Parent B D Both Children > Parent None of above
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Heap Tree is A C Complete Binary Tree 3-way Search Tree B D Cyclic Graph Forest
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Dynamic Programming Method is not suitable to solve A C 0/1 Knapsack Problem Binomial Co-efficient B D Making Change Problem Fractional Knapsack Problem
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Krushkals Algorithm uses A C Greedy Method Dynamic Programming B D Divide and Conquer Method. Branch & Bound Method
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NP Problem is A C Polynomial Problem Easy to Solve problem B D Non Deterministic Polynomial Problem All of Above
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For a same problem If Time Complexity of Recursive algorithm is x and Time Complexity of Iterative algorithm is y, then A x <y B x >y
C 31
x=y
can not be said
for(i=1 ; i<=n ; i++) printf(**) ; The above C code has Time Complexity of A 1 B log(n) C n log(n) D N Binary Search Method has Worst Case Time Complexity of A C 2n log(n) B D nlog(n) n*n
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The number of ways to multiply 4 Matrices in a Chained Matrix Multiplication A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5 Worst case Time Complexity of Linear Search is A C O(n) O(1) B D O(log(n)) O(nlog(n))
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Breadth First Search method uses A C Stack Hash Table B D Queue None of these
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Minimum no. of states to Search/Recognize string nano with Finite Automata is A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5 Following is a NP Problem related to Graph To find Longest Path B To find Shortest Path To find Minimum D To find a Cycle Spanning Tree The Principle of Optimality is used in A C Greedy Method Dynamic Programming B D Backtracking Branch & Bound A C
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Worst case Time Complexity of Multiplication of two n X n Matrix is A C n2 n log(n) B D n2log(n) n3
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Worst case Time Complexity of Addition of two n X n Matrix is A C n2 n log(n) B D n2log(n) n3
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The running time of the following sorting algorithm depends on whether the partitioning is balanced or unbalanced A Insertion sort B Selection Sort C Quick Sort D Merge Sort The average case complexity of Insertion Sort is A C O(2n) O(n3) B D O(n2) O(2n)
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The spanning tree of connected graph with 10 vertices contains A C 9 edges 11 edges B D 10 edges 11 vertices
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Worst case Time Complexity of Heap Sort Algorithm is A C O(log(n))2 O(n2) B D O(n) O(nlog(n))
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In a heap tree bottom level should be filled A C From left to right. Completely. B D From right to left. None of these
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The height of heap tree of N data is A C O(N) O(log(N) ) B D O(N log(N)) O(2N)
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A sorted array in ascending order is A C MAX Heap Not a Heap Tree B D MIN Heap None of these
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Which of the following algorithm do not have a time complexity of O(n2) A Bubble Sort B Shell Sort C Radix Sort D Quick Sort Consider the Array: 26, 35, 11, 49, 54, 30, 80. How array will look like after 2 (two) iterations of Bubble Sort? A 26, 11, 35, 49, 54, 30, B 26, 11, 35, 49, 30, 54, 80 80 C 11, 26, 35, 30, 49, 54, D None of these 80
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In a Selection Sort of n elements, how many times is the swap function called in the complete execution of the algorithm? A 1 B n-1 C n log(n) D n2 Which of the following sorts have a O(n log(n)) Worst case performance? A Insertion Sort B Quick Sort C Heap Sort D None of these An hash table with chaining as a collision resolution technique degenerates to a A Stack B Queue C Linked List D Tree Consider the following statements. I. An algorithm is a no. of steps to be performed to solve a problem. II. To a given problem there may be more than one algoritm. A Only I is correct B Only II is correct C Both I and II are false D Both I and II are correct Analyzing of an algorithm involves Evaluating the B Validating the algorithm Only complexity only C Both Validating the D None of these algorithm and Evaluating the Complexity The running time of an algorithm means A No. of Primitive Operations(Steps) executed in a machineindependent manner Time taken by the algorithm on a particular input size. B Time taken on a Standard Computer to execute the program None of these A
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f(n) = (g(n) ) is A C g(n) is asymptotic upper B bound for f(n) g(n) is asymptotic lower D bound for f(n) g(n) is asymptotic tight bound for f(n) None of these
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f(n) = (g(n) ) is g(n) is asymptotic upper B bound for f(n) C g(n) is asymptotic lower D bound for f(n) f(n) = O (g(n) ) is g(n) is asymptotic upper B bound for f(n) C g(n) is asymptotic lower D bound for f(n) f(n) = (g(n) ) implies A C A A g(n) is asymptotic tight bound for f(n) None of these
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g(n) is asymptotic tight bound for f(n) None of these
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f(n) = O (g(n) ) only B f(n) = (g(n) ) only f(n) = O (g(n) ) and D None of these f(n) = (g(n) ) T(n) = 2 T(n/2) + k.n , where k is constant, then T(n) is equal to A C O(n log(n)) O(n ) B D O( log(n) ) O(n2 )
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Time Complexity of Recursive Fibonacci algorithm is A C O(n2) O(n2 log(n) ) B D O(n3) O(Cn), where C is a constant
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Assume the input array is nearly sorted. Then performance of Quick sort is A Better than Average B Worst than Average case case C Same as in Average D None of these case At least how many comparisons are required for merging two sorted lists of n elements each? A 2n -1 B n-1 C 2n+1 D n Which of the following data structure may be used to aid implementation of radix sort? A Stack B Heap C Binary Search Tree D Queue
64
65
What is the preferred form of representation of Dense graph? A Adjacency Matrix B Adjacency List
C 66
Incidence Matrix
None of these
What is the running time of an efficient algorithm to find an Euler Tour in a graph if one exists? A O( |V| ) B O( |E| ) C O( |V| |E| ) D O( |V|2 ) Following Problem(s) is NP Complete A C Vertex Cover K-Colouring B D SAT(Satisfiable) All of these
67
68
Graphs are represented using A C Adjacency tree Adjacency Graph B D Adjacency linked list Adjacency Queue
69
Infinite recursion leads to A C Overflow of run-time stack Overflow of I/O cycles B D Underflow of registers usage Underflow of run-time stack
70
The running time for creating a heap of size n is A C O (n) O (n log n) B D O (log n) O (n2)
71
Recursive procedures are implemented by using ____ data structure. A C Queues Linked Lists B D Stacks Strings
72
A technique for direct search is A C Binary Search Tree Search B D Linear Search Hashing
73
For an undirected graph with n vertices and e edges, the sum of the degree of each vertex is equal to A 2n B (2n-1)/2 C 2e D e2 /2
74
Which of the following sorting methods would be most suitable for sorting a list which is almost sorted A Bubble Sort B Selection Sort C Quick Sort D Merge Sort
75
A BST is traversed in the following order recursively: Right, root, left. The output sequence will be in A Ascending order B Descending order C Bitomic sequence D No specific order Quick sort is also known as A C merge sort bubble sort B D heap sort None of these
76
77
An algorithm is made up of two independent time complexities f (n) and g (n). Then the complexities of the algorithm is in the order of A f(n) x g(n) B Max ( f(n),g(n)) C Min (f(n),g(n)) D f(n) + g(n) The goal of hashing is to produce a search that takes A C O(1) time O( log n ) time B D O(n2) time O(n log n ) time
78
79
The time required to find shortest path in a graph with n vertices and e edges is A O(e) B O(n) 2 C O(e ) D O(n2) Search tables used by compilers for efficient searching generally use A C Hash Tables Binary Search Tables B D Linear lists of Records Binary Search Trees
80
81
For merging two sorted lists of size m and n into a sorted size of m+n, we require comparisons of A O(m) B O(n) C O(m+n) D O(log(m) + log(n ))
82
The running time T(n) is given as T(n) = c + T(n-1) , if n >1 = d , if n<=1 The order of the algorithm is
A C 83
n2 n3
B D
n nn
Which of the following shows the correct relationship? A C O(nlog(n) ) < O(n) O(n3) < O(n2log(n) ) B D O(2n) < O(n2 ) O(log(n) ) < O(n)
84
Breadth First Traversal (BFS) is a method to traverse A Graph using shortest path B All successors of a visited node before any successors of any of those successors None of these
85
A single path of the D graph as far as it can go The way a card game player arranges his cards as he picks them up one by one , is an example of A Bubble Sort B Selection Sort C Insertion Sort D Merge Sort The concept of Order (Big O) is important because It can be used to decide B It determine the Maximum space the best algorithm that occupied by the algorithm solves a given problem C It is the lower bound of D None of these the growth rate of the algorithm The common implementation of a heap is A C Array Multilinked Structure B D Linked List Doubly Linked List A
86
87
88
The depth-first search A C Uses a queue Searches a tree B D Uses a stack Searches a linked list
89
For NP-Complete problem A Several Polynomial time algorithms are available. B Polynomial Time algorithms are not exist, hence can not be discovered
90
No Polynomial Time D algorithm is discovered yet If P(n) = n2 then what is correct? A C P(n) = n3 P(n) = n2 B D
None of Above
P(n) = n4 All of the above
91
An algorithm Is a finite set of B Any well defined computational instructions procedure C Zero or more quantities D All are correct are externally supplied and at least one quantity is produced. Which of the following is type of amortized analysis? A C Aggregate Method Potential Method B D Accounting Method All of these A
92
93
Divide and Conquer is a general design paradigm does not consist the following part A Divide B Recursion C Iteration D Conquer f(n) =n2 , g(n) = n3 ,then which of the following is not correct? A C g(n) = (n) g(n) = O(n3) B D g(n) = O(n2) g(n) = (f(n))
94
95
In the division method for creating hash function, which of the following hash table size is appropriate? A 2 B 4 C 7 D 8 Greedy Algorithms have following characteristic. A C Objective function Selection function B D Feasible solution All of these
96
97
Divide and Conquer method is not suitable to solve Problem like A Merge Sort B Finding Minimum Spanning Tree
C 98
Exponentiation
Binary Search
Chained Matrix Multiplication can be solved by A C Dynamic Programming Branch & Bound B D Greedy Method Backtracking
99
Longest Common Subsequence Problem can be solved by A C Greedy Method Backtracking B D Dynamic Progamming None of these
100
What is the minimum number of Stacks of size n required to implement a Queue of size n? A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4 Maximum number of edges in a n node graph is A C n(n-1)/2 n2 log(n) B D n2 n+1
101
102
Level Ordered Traversal of a Rooted Tree can be done by starting from the root and performing A In-order traversal B Preorder traversal C Breadth First Search D Depth First Search Which of the following Pairs of traversals define Binary Tree uniquely? Pre-order and PostB In-order and Pre-order order C Level order and PostD None of these order The Time Complexity of finding Transitive Closure of a Binary Relation on a set of n elemtns is known to be A O (n3) B O (n) 2 C O (n log n) D O (n2) In a binary max heap containing n elements, the smallest element can be found in A (1 ) B (n ) C (log(n) ) D (nlog(n) ) A
103
104
105
106
Which of the following sorting algorithm has minimum worst case time complexity?
A C 107
Selection Sort Quick Sort
B D
Bubble Sort Merge Sort
Which of the following is not a Graph Traversal technique? A C In-order Traversal DFS B D BFS None of These
108
Greedy algorithms have following characteristics A C Objective function Selection Function B D Feasible solution All of these
109
Divide & Conquer cant solve Problems like Merge Sort B Exponentiation Minimum Spanning D Binary Search Tree Chained Matrix Multiplication problem can be solved by A C Greedy Method Backtracking B D Dynamic Programming None of these A C
110
111
Longest Common Subsequence Problem can be solved by A C Greedy Method Dynamic Programming B D Divide & Conquer None of these
112
If there is an NP-Complete Language L whose Complement is in NP, Then the Complement of any Language in NP is in A P B NP C Both A and B D None of these Both P and NP are closed under the operation of A C Union Concatenation B D Intersection Kleenes
113
114
Binary Search method uses as input A C Unsorted Array Sorted Array B D Linear Linked List Hash Table
115
Which of the method is used to solve Recurrences?
A C 116
Substitution Method Master Method
B D
Recursive Tree Method All of these
Applying Krushkals algorithm to find Minimum Spanning Tree is more suitable for A Sparse Matrix B Dense Graph C Sparse Graph D None of these Applying Prims algorithm to find Minimum Spanning Tree is more suitable for A Sparse Matrix B Dense Graph C Sparse Graph D None of these Algorithm analysis is useful for finding A C Space Complexity Correctness B D Time Complexity All of these
117
118
119
Which of the following is not the required condition for binary search algorithm? A There must be B there should be the direct access mechanism to delete or to the middle element in any insert elements in the sublist list C The list must be sorted D None of these In Hamiltonian Cycle for n vertices, we A C Can visit to same vertex two times Can omit one vertex B D Cant visit same vertex more than one time None of these
120
121
Preconditioning term is used with A C Linked List Graph B D Dequeue Priority Queue
122
Min-max Principle is used for A C Gaming Finding Non Leaf Node B D Finding Minimum Spanning Tree Divide and Conquer
123
The approach used by linear search is A C Greedy Probabilistic B D Divide & Conquer Brute-Force
124
One NP-Complete Problem can be reduced to another problem of NP in What time? A Polynomial Time B Exponential Time C Linear Time D Logarithmic Time Which of the following functions are often referred as exponential growth function? A 2n, log(n) B 2n, n! C n!, nlog(n) D n!, log(n) Branch & Bound Technique uses Lower Bound Both Lower Bound & Upper Bound Simple Merge merges A C Two sorted array Two Trees A C B D Upper Bound None of these
125
126
127
B D
Two unsorted array None of these
128
In Dynamic Programming after table is created of m rows and n columns, finding a particular solution takes order of A log(m) B m*n C m+n D n2 Feasible Solution in Greedy Method is A C Satisfying constraints Not a solution B D Always optimal None of these
129
130
Which of the following is not a property of algorithm? A C Finiteness Unambiguousness B D Effectiveness None of these
Which of the following is true? A C is middle level language C C supports bit-wise operators B C has no I/O statements D All of the above
Which of the C operator finds the remainder of integer division? A / C * B % D None of the above
Which of the following symbol is permitted in C variable name? A - (hyphen) B _ (underscore) D | (pipe)
C & (ampersand) 4
What is true for the following C statement? extern int x; A It is definition C it is declaration B It is function declaration D It is error
Which of the following is character constant in C? A '1' C 1 B "1" D None of the above
The size of long double in ANSI C is A 32 bits C 80 bits B 64 bits D 128 bits
Which of the following is not valid? A long int C long double B long float D All are correct
Which is correct format specifier for long integer? A %ld C Both A and B B %li D None of the above
The sizeof operator gives the size of data in A bits C words B bytes D double words
10
Which of the following is not a logical operator in C? A != B !
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C && 11
D ||
Which of the following is not an unary operator in C? A sizeof C ~ B ! D bitwise &
12
Trigraph character in C starts with A ?? C ## B $$ D None of the above
13
Which is the best data type for 8-bit integer? A short int C unsigned char B unsigned short int D char
14
The range of 'unsigned char' in C is A 0 to 128 C -128 to +127 B 0 to 255 D None of the above
15
What is the value of C expression 16 >> 2? A 4 C 16 B 8 D 32
16
Which of the following is not a valid floating point constant? A -4.5 C 3.15 B 78 D All are valid
17
Which of the following character constant is used for bell? A '\f' C '\a' B '\r' D None of the above
18
Which of the following is not a valid variable name in C? A max1 C max_1 B max$ D max_high
19
Value of which type of C variable can be changed by external source? A auto C static B extern D volatile
20
What is the value of x after executing following statement? x = (a=5, b=10, a+b);
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A 15 C 5 21 What is the output of printf("%d",'A'); ? A Character A C error 22 Which loop executes at least once? A for C do-while 23
B 10 D None of the above
B ASCII value of A D None of the above
B while D All
Which of the following loop is an exit control loop? A for C do-while B while D All
24
Which of the C feature indicates it is middle level language? A structure C bit-fields B union D bitwise operators
25
Which of the following is not C operator? A sizeof C , (comma) B . (dot) D All are operators
26
C is ................ Langauge. A Procedural C Object based B Object oriented D None of the above
27
The array index in C starts from A 0 C 0 or 1 B 1 D User defined
28
For C array, int a[5] = {23,45}, the value of a[3] is A 23 C 0 B 45 D Can't say
29
............. Operator is used to access the structure member in C. A = B . (dot) D None of the above
C () 30
Which C function is appropriate for inputting a string?
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A gets() C getche() 31
B getch() D All
C uses ................ Statement to separate the cases in switch? A ; (semicolon) C break B continue D newline
32
Which of the following is an example of infinite loop? A for( ; ; ) { } C Both A and B B while(1) { } D None of the above
33
A string always ends with ............. A $ C # B Null ('\0') character D ?
34
Which of the following operation can not be performed on pointer? A adding two pointers C assigning pointer to same type B adding an integer to pointer D All are possible
35
Which of the following is correct pointer declaration in C? A int pointer a; C *int a; B int *a; D int a*;
36
if function does not return value, its return type is A int C void B none D auto
37
Which of the following variable type is used to retain value even after function is over? A local C static B auto D All of the above
38
Which of the variable type is accessible to all the functions in a file? A local C static B register D global
39
The logical end of C program is A End of main() C depends on input B End of last function D None of the above
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40
Which of the following C data type allocates memory in bits? A structure C bit-fields B union D array
41
Dynamic memory allocation in C means A Allocating memory at run time C Both A and B B Allocating memory at compile time
D None of the above
42
A structure in C is A group of variables of same types B group of variables of different types
C group of integer types 43
D None of the above
Which of the following operator is used to access structure member if pointer to structure is used? A ampersand (&) C arrow (->) B dot (.) D Any of the above
44
The && is ................ Operator. A Logical C Bit-wise B Relational D Arithmetic
45
What is true regarding C string? A Character array C Stored as ASCII values B Ends with NULL D All of the above
46
Writing a prototype of a function is same as A declaring a function C calling a function B defining a function D All of the above
47
The function header includes A return type C parameters B name of function D All of the above
48
An union in C is A a group of variables C same as structure B a variable D None of the above
49
Which of the following represents the address of variable x?
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A *x C &x 50
B %x D !x
If x is declared as an integer pointer, which of the following incorrect? A x = &a; C x = 0; B x = NULL; D x = 3456;
51
Assume that p1 and p2 are structure variables of same type, which of the following is valid operation? A p1 = p2 C p1 != p2 B p1 = = p2 D All are valid
52
Which of the following variable type is not accessible to other files? A global C Both A and B B static global D None of the above
53
Which of the following variable has life same as local variable? A global C register B static D None of the above
54
Which is true for a function in C? A It must return a value C Both A and B B It must have at least one parameter
D None of the above
55
Assume that a string is defined in C with name str, which of the following is valid operation? A str = "Hello"; C str + "Hello"; B strcpy(str, "Hello"); D All are valid
56
A pointer variable stores A value like simple variable C Both A and B B address of another variable D None of the above
57
What is true regarding following declaration? int **p; A It is pointer to pointer C It can store address of a pointer to an integer B It can store address of an integer variable
D Both A and C
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58
Which of the following specifier is used in C to read number in Hex? A %u C %x B %o D %h
59
By default, the number is ................ in given field width. A left-justified B right-justified D User defined
C centre-justified 60
Which of the following is not a C keyword? A main C int B auto D register
61
What is true regarding switch statement? A All cases must have break C default case must be present B use any variable with switch D None of the above
62
Which one of the following C statement differs from others in effect? A x++ C x = +1 B x += 1 D x=x+1
63
Which of the following operation is not valid for float data type? A %= C <= B && D *=
64
Why type casting is used? A to convert data type C B to create new data type
65
to convert data to desired D All of the above form for use in expression In which order, following C expression is evaluated? z = x - y + c / 2 * e; A -+/*= C +-*/= B /*-+= D */+-=
66
Right side expression of || operator is not evaluated, if the left side expression is A true B false D None of the above
C always evaluated 67
Right side expression of && operator is not evaluated, if the left side expression is
SUJJECT CODE:
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true
B false D None of the above
C always evaluated 68
What is similarity between structure and enum in C? A Both defines new values C Both defines new data types B both define new pointers D None of the above
69
Which of the following statement is correct? A bit-fields are allowed inside structure only B bit-fields are allowed inside union only
C Both A and B 70
D None of the above
if a structure inside structure is used, it is called A nested structure C self-referential structure B recursive structure D Any of the above
71
If a structure contains variable of itself as member, then it is called A nested structure C self-referential structure B recursive structure D Any of the above
72
Which function is used to deallocate the memory? A delete() C deallocate() B remove() D free()
73
Consider following C statements int *p; p = (???) malloc(100); The ??? Is replaced with which of the following? A int C int ** B int * D int &
74
malloc() allocates memory in terms of . A words C bytes B bits D double words
75
How many bytes are used by near pointer in DOS? A 2 C 8 B 4 D 16
76
How many bytes are used by far pointer in DOS?
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A 2 C 8 77
B 4 D 16
If p is an pointer to integer, which of the following increments the value of variable pointed by p? A (++*ptr) C Both A and B B (*ptr++) D None of the above
78
Consider the following C statements. int y=50; const int x=y++; printf("%d\n", x); What is output? A 50 C error B 51 D None of the above
79
Consider the following C statements. int y=50; const int x=++y; printf("%d\n", x); What is output? A 50 C error B 51 D None of the above
80
If str1 and str2 are same, what is return value of strcmp(str1,str2); A 1 C -1 B 0 D Error
81
If str1 lexically comes before str2, what is return value of strcmp(str1,str2); A 1 C -1 B 0 D Error
82
What will be output of following? for(i=0;i<10;i++); printf("%d ",i); A 0123456789 C Error B 10 D None of the above
83
What will be output of following? for(i=0;i<10;); printf("%d ",i);
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A 0123456789 C 0000000000 84
B 10 D No output as printf never execute
What would be output of following? int x = 5; If (x = 5) printf("Hello"); else printf("Fine"); A Hello C Compile error B Fine D HelloFine
85
if function max() finds the maximum of two numbers, which of the following determines maximum of three numbers? A max(x, max(y,z)); C max(max(x,y),max(y,z)); B max(max(x,y),z); D All of the above
86
For the following function prototype, which of the call is correct? void exch(int *, int *); A exch(x,y); C exch(); B exch(&x,&y); D exch(5,y);
87
What is the meaning of following statement? int *ptr(a,b); A ptr is a function returning an integer ptr is a function returning a C pointer to integer B ptr is a pointer to function returning an integer
D None of the above
88
What would be the output of following statements? char str[] = "Hello\0World"; printf("%s",str); A Hello C Hello World B Hello World D Hello World
89
Which of the following prints '\n'? A printf("\n"); C printf("\n\"); B printf("\\n"); D printf("/n");
90
What would be the output of following statements? char str[] = "\0World"; printf("%s",strlen(str)); A 7 C 6 B 5 D 0
SUJJECT CODE:
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91
The main() in C is A reserve word C user defined function B library function D All of the above
92
In C expression (5/10)*(f - 32), if f = 50, what would be value of expression? A 0 C 18 B 9 D None of the above B used to break the loop D None of the above
93
Which of the following is true regarding break statement? A used to break block C used to return from function
94
The life of local variable declared in main() is same as A local variable C global variable B static variable D None of the above
95
Which of the following is true for C array? A All the elements are of same type B Array name is an address of first element
C Array index starts from 0 96
D All of the above
Which of the following declaration is true for "array of 5 pointers to char" A char **ptr[5]; C char (*ptr)[5]; B char *ptr[5]; D None of the above
97
When an array is passed as argument to function, what is actually passed? A All the elements B only first element
C address of first element 98
D None of the above
How many bytes are occupied in memory by following string? char str[]="Computer"; A 8 C 10 B 9 D 11
99
if for a scanf("%s",str); input is "Hello World", the str stores A Hello C World B Hello World D NULL
100
How can we declare generic pointer in C?
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A Not possible C NULL *ptr; 101
B generic *ptr; D void *ptr;
If a pointer points to memory location which deallocated, it is called A dangling pointer C null pointer B dealign pointer D nomemory pointer
102
Consider the following C statements. enum COLOR {RED, BLACK, GREEN, BLUE}; What would be the value of GREEN? A 0 C 2 B 1 D 3
103
Which of the following is best to define multiple named constants in C? A #define C enum B const D Any of the above
104
Which of the following results into an error in C? A Defining a local and a global variables with same name Defining a global variable as static Defining a local variable inside B a function with same name as function argument D Defining a function argument as register
C 105
If a variable is declared inside a loop, its scope is A file C function B program D block
106
For following C expression, what is incorrect statement? (x > 5) || (y = = 4) A if x is 6, (y = = 4) is not evaluated C B if x is 4, (y = = 4) is evaluated
107
Both (x > 5) and (y = = 4 ) are D All are correct evaluated always For following C expression, what is correct statement? (x > 5) && (y = = 4) A if x is 6, (y = = 4) is not evaluated C Both parts of && are always evaluated B if x is 4, (y = = 4) is not evaluated D All are incorrect
108
For C expression x = y = 10; which of the following order is true? A x = y, y = 10 B y = 10, x = y
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C x = 10, y = x 109
D None of the above
Which of the following is not valid for C union? A It is a variable C It is a group of variable B occupies memory equal to size of its largest member
D None of the above
110
int a[] = {1,2,3,4,5}; for(i=0;i<4;i++) printf("%d ",a[++i]); What would be output of above? A 1234 C 135 B 24 D 12345
111
int a[] = {1,2,3,4,5}; for(i=0;i<4;i++) printf("%d ",a[i++]); What would be output of above? A 1234 C 13 B 135 D 12345
112
What is the total size of all the command line arguments including spaces? A 64 C 256 B 128 D Operating system dependent
113
The command line argument 'argc' means A argument control C argument counter B argument count D None of the above
114
Consider the following C statements. int x = 10; int *p = &x; Which of the following increments x by 1? A x = *p + 1; C (*p)++; B *p = *p + 1; D All of the above
115
What the following code performs? int count = 0; for(i=0;i<10;i++) if(a[i]%2) count++; A counts from 0 to 9 C counts even values in array B counts odd values in array D counts zero values in array
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116
What the following code performs? int count = 0; for(i=0;i<10;i++) if(!(a[i]%2)) count++; A counts from 0 to 9 C counts even values in array B counts odd values in array D counts zero values in array
117
Assume that p and q are pointers to integers, what will the value of p - q ? A Another pointer C Not valid operation B An integer D Can't say
118
Consider the following C statements. int a[10], *p; p = a; The expression p+3 points to ....... Element. A a[0] C a[6] B a[3] D a[9]
119
Consider the following C statements. int a[10]; int *p; p = a; The last statement p = a; is same as A p = a[0]; C p = &a[0]; B p = &a; D None of the above
120
Consider the following C structure. struct { int r_no; char name[20]; } s; Which of the following is true? A It does not use tag C It defines one structure variable It is not possible to define B more variable of this structure at other place in program D All of the above
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121
Consider the following C structure. struct std { int r_no; char name[20]; } s; What is output of sizeof(struct std) if integer is of 32-bits? A 20 C 24 B 22 D 26
122
If a structure needs 4 bytes and ptr is a pointer to that structure, the the expression ptr = ptr + 4; internally incremented by ............ Bytes. A 4 C 12 B 8 D 16
123
If p is a pointer to an integer, p = p + 2; is same as A p = p + 2*2; C p = p + 2 * sizeof(int); B p = p + 2*4; D All of the above
124
If p points to start of a string and q points to '\0' at the end of the string, p - q gives A length of a string C number of bytes occupied B number of character in string D All of the above
125
Consider the following macro definition. #define SQR(x) (x*x) The z = SQR(5+2) results into A 17 C 25 B 49 D Invalid
126
Consider the following macro definition. #define SQR(x) ((x)*(x)) The z = SQR(5+2) results into A 17 C 25 B 49 D Invalid
127
The C statements starting with # are processed at A run time C before compilation B during compilation D None of the above
SUJJECT CODE:
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128
Consider the following C statements. for(i=0;i<3;i++) { printf("%d",i); break; printf("%d",i); } What would be the output of above? A 012 C Error B 001122 D None of the above
129
Consider the following C statements. for(i=0;i<5;i++) { if(i = = 3) continue; printf("%d",i); } What would be the output of above? A 012 C 01234 B 0124 D None of the above
130
How many bytes are allocated to variable of following union? union data { int x; float y; double z; }; A 2 C 8 B 4 D None of the above
131
Consider the following C statements. for(i=0;i<5;i++) { if(i = 3) continue; printf("%d",i); } What would be the output of above? A 0124 C No output B 01234 D Error
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132
Consider the following C statements. int a[5], sum = 0; for(i=0;i<5;i++) { if(!(a[i]%2)) continue; sum += a[i]; } What would be output of above code? A sum of odd numbers of a[] C sum of all the numbers of a[] B sum of even numbers of a[] D None of the above
133
Which of the following causes "unreachable statements" error in C? A unconditional break C B unconditional continue
134
unconditional return in middle of D All of the above function body if integers sum = 25 and n = 10, What would be the results of avg = sum/n; and avg = (float)sum/n; if avg is float? A 2.0 and 2.5 C 2 and 2.5 B 2 and 2 D 2.5 and 2.5
135
Consider the following C statements. int a[5], sum = 0; for(i=0;i<5;i++) { if((a[i]%2)) continue; sum += a[i]; } What would be output of above code? A sum of odd numbers of a[] C sum of all the numbers of a[] B sum of even numbers of a[] D None of the above
136
For the following C statement, what will be the value of x in hex? x = -2<< 2; A 0xFFF8 C 0x0000 B 0xFFFF D Error
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137
Consider the following C code? union data { int x; char s[2]; } u; u.s[0] = 5; u.s[1] = 3; printf("%d %d %d",u.x); What would be the output? A 53 C 573 B 35 D Error
138
Consider the following C code? union data { int x; int y; } u; u.x = 10; u.y = 20; printf("%d %d %d",u.x); What would be the output? A 10 C 30 B 20 D Error
139
Consider the following C statements. struct value { int b1:1; int b2:4; int b3:4; } bit; printf("%d\n", sizeof(bit)); What would be the output? A 1 C 4 B 2 D 8
140
Consider the following C statements. int x = 10; printf("%d %d %d",x++,x,++x); What would be the output? A 10,11,12 C 11,11,12 B 10,11,11 D 11,11,11
SUJJECT CODE:
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141
Consider the following C statements. enum month {JAN=5,FEB,MAR=8,APR,MAY}; printf("%d %d %d",FEB,MAR,APR); What would be the output? A 689 C 089 B 081
D None of the above
142
Consider the following C statements. int y=-5; printf("%x",y); What would be the output? A FFFF C FFFE B FFFB D Error
143
Consider the following C statements. struct data { int d:1; }; struct data x = {1}; printf("%d\n", x.d); What would be the output? A 0 C -1 B 1 D Error
144
Consider the following C statements. enum month {JAN=5,FEB,MAR=8,APR,MAY}; printf("%d %d %d",++FEB,MAR,APR); What would be the output? A 689 C 089 B 081
D Error
145
Consider the following C statements. enum COLOR {RED, BLACK, GREEN, BLUE}; enum COLOR c; Which of the following is incorrect? A c = BLACK; C c = (enum COLOR)2; B c = 2; D All of the above
146
void fun(int n) { printf("%d", n); n = - 1; if(n > 0) fun(n); } What would be output of above function when called as fun(5)?
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A 54321 C 543210 147
What would be output of following C code? int x = 10; void main() { int x = 20; { int x = 30; printf("%d ",x); } printf("%d ",x); } A 10 20 C 30 20 B 20 30 D Error
148
What would be output of following C code? int x = 10; void main() { int x = 20; { int x = 30; printf("%d ",x); } f(); printf("%d ",x); } void f() { printf("%d", x); } A 10 20 30 C 30 20 10 B 30 10 20 D Error
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149
What would be output of following C program? void main() { int i; for(i=0;i<5;i++) fun(); } void fun() { static int x = 10; printf("%d ",x); x += 2; } A 10 10 10 10 10 C 10 11 12 13 14 B 10 12 14 16 18 D Error
150
What would be output of following C program? int y = 3; void main() { int i; for(i=0;i<5;i++) fun(); } void fun() { int y = 5; static int x = 10; printf("%d ",x); x += y; } A 10 10 10 10 10 C 10 15 20 25 30 B 10 13 16 19 22 D Error
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Data structure means A logical relation among data items B how data are stored in memory D None of the above
C Both A and B 2
Which of the following is a primitive data structure? A an integer C an array B a structure variable in C D All of the above
How an integer is stored in computer memory? A mantissa form C Both A and B B sign-magnitude form D None of the above
Which of the following is true for an array? A primitive data structure C uses sequential allocation B non-linear data structure D All of the above
Which of the following is linear data structure? A Array C Linked list B Stack D All of the above
Windows explorer is an example of ............ data structure? A Linked list C Graph B Tree D Stack
Which of the following defines preorder sequence? A left-root-right C root-left-right B left-right-root D None of the above
Which search method compares data elements one-by-one in sequence? A Linear C Hashing B Binary D All of the above
Which of the following tree traversal starts from root node? A inorder C postorder B preorder D None of the above
10
Which of the following tree traversal visits root node last? A inorder B preorder
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C postorder 11
D None of the above
Which of the following is non-linear data structure? A Tree C Stack B Linked list D Array
12
Which of the following follows LIFO manner? A Stack C Both A and B B Queue D None of the above
13
Which of the following data structure allows operations at only one end? A Stack C Both A and B B Queue D None of the above
14
Which of the following data structure allows operations at both the ends? A Stack C Both A and B B Queue D None of the above
15
A simple queue uses ............. order. A FIFO C LILO B LIFO D None of the above
16
Insertion operation occurs at .............. end in a queue. A front C top B rear D bottom
17
Deletion operation occurs at ............ end in a queue. A front C top B rear D bottom
18
Which of the following points to element to be deleted next in stack? A front pointer C top pointer B rear pointer D None of the above
19
Which of the following condition relates to push operation in stack? A overflow C Both A and B B underflow D None of the above
20
Which of the following condition relates to pop operation in stack? A overflow B underflow
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C Both A and B 21
D None of the above
Which of the following search method needs data in sorted order? A Linear C Hashing B Binary D All of the above
22
Which of the following is true for tree? A Root node have indegree 0 C Outdegree of leaf node is 0 B Should not contain cycle D All of the above
23
Which of the following node in binary tree has indegree 0. A Root C Intermediate B Leaf D All of the above
24
What is true for non-primitive data structures? Not processed directly by user defined data types in C are A B machine instructions examples are non-primitive C More complex D All of the above
25
Array uses .................. Method to access the elements. A Computed address C Sequential address B Linked address D None of the above
26
Linked list uses .................. Method to access the elements. A Computed address C Sequential address B Linked address D None of the above
27
Array is an example of .............. and ............. memory allocation. A Run, dynamic C Compile, dynamic B Run, compile D Compile, sequential
28
An integer is an primitive data type as A it is basic data type C Both A and B B processed by machine directly D None of the above
29
Which of the following does not have subtree in tree? A Root node C Intermediate node B Leaf node D None of the above
30
......... type of node is only one in given tree? A Root node B Leaf node
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C Intermediate node 31 Stack can be implemented using A Array C Both A and B 32 A node structure for binary tree has A only one pointer C no pointers 33
D None of the above
B Linked list D None of the above
B two pointers D None of the above
The expressions used in programming languages are A infix expressions C postfix expressions B prefix expressions D depends on language
34
Which of the expression is most suitable for evaluation using stack? A infix C postfix B prefix D All of the above
35
The address field in the node of singly linked list A stores address of next node C Both A and B B can be NULL D None of the above
36
Which of the following allows insertion and deletion at either end? A queue C stack B dqueue D None of the above
37
End of the list is denoted in the singly linked list as A marked by special node C using NULL pointer B by storing length of list D All of the above
38
If last node in linked list points to first list it is called A circular linked list C loop B round list D None of the above
39
If a linked list has no nodes, it is called A zero list C null list B empty list D no node list
40
If the root node of a binary tree has both left and right pointers NULL, then it contains ........... nodes.
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A 0 C 2 41
B 1 D 3
Which of the following inserts value at first position, if rear end is pointing to last position? A simple queue C circular queue B dqueue D All of the above
42
If singly linked list allows insertion at the end and deletion at the start, it implements .................... data structure. A queue C dqueue B stack D circular queue
43
If singly linked list allows insertion and deletion only at start, it implements .................... data structure. A queue C dqueue B stack D circular queue
44
What is true for inorder successor in binary search tree? A left most node in right subtree C root of the left subtree B right most node in left subtree D root of the right subtree
45
Inorder traversal of a binary starts from A root node C left most node of the tree B right most node of the tree D None of the above
46
Which is true for tree? A acyclic graph C has a root node with indegree 0 B directed graph D All of the above
47
Performing search operation in binary search tree is ......... A linear search C hash search B Binary search D None of the above
48
Which of the operation returns top most value in stack? A push C peep B pop D change
49
Which of the following stores elements in sequential manner in memory? A Array B Tree
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C Graph 50
D All of the above
Which of the following search needs data in sorted order? A linear search C hash search B Binary search D None of the above
51
Which of the following list points to previous and next node both? A Singly linked list C Doubly linked list B Circular list D All of the above
52
Which of the following binary tree operation does not change the tree? A Search C Deletion B Insertion D None of the above
53
Which of the following data structure is hierarchical? A stack C Queue B List D Tree
54
Which of the following is true for AVL tree? A C Difference of heights of left and right subtrees is 0 Difference of heights of left and right subtrees is <= 1 B Difference of heights of left and right subtrees is 1
D None of the above
55
The value of root node in max-heap is A Largest of all C Any value B smallest of all D Can't say
56
Which is true for 2-3 tree? A It is height balanced tree C Length of path from root to each leaf is same B Non leaf nodes have 2-3 offsprings
D All of the above
57
The value of root node in min-heap is A Largest of all C Any value B smallest of all D Can't say
58
Binary heap is used to implement ............. data structure. A dqueue C priority queue B circular queue D None of the above
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59
Binary heap can be represented using A Array C Both A and B B Binary tree D None of the above
60
Binary heap is similar to A Simple binary tree C AVL tree B Complete binary tree D 2-3 tree
61
Which of the following is useful for checking the balanced parantheses for the expression? A stack C list B queue D tree
62
Which of the following array operation is time consuming? A Changing value of an element C Inserting a new element B Reading an element D All of the above
63
Which of the following is fastest operation on array? A Changing value of an element C Inserting a new element B Deleting an element D None of the above
64
C language uses .................. method for array storage? A row-major C Both A and B B column-major D Any of A and B
65
Which of the following is not a linear data structure? A Array C tree B stack D queue
66
A line at the cinema hall represents A stack C linked list B queue D None of the above
67
Which of the following also called Reverse Polish notation? A Infix expression C Prefix expression B Postfix expression D All of the above
68
In a priority queue, two elements with same priority are processed in A Random manner B FCFS manner
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C Implementation dependent 69 Stack is used for which of the following? A Recursion C Evaluating postfix expression 70
D None of the above
B Parameter passing D All of the above
Which of the following search is faster for large data size? A Linear C Hash B Binary D All of the above
71
Which of the following traversal on binary search tree gives sorted data? A Inorder C postorder B Preorder D None of the above
72
What is drawback of doubly linked list compared to singly linked list? A Allows traversal in both directions B Deletion operation is faster D All of the above
C Needs more memory 73
Which of the following allows traversal in both the directions? A Singly linked list C Circular list B Doubly linked list D All of the above
74
If first is a pointer to singly linked list and if first->next = NULL, How many nodes does list contain? A 0 C 2 B 1 D 3
75
Conversion from infix to reverse polish expression uses .............. Data structure. A stack C list B queue D tree
76
Which of the following allows insertion and deletion to be performed at either end? A stack C dqueue B queue D None of the above
77
If dqueue allows insertion at only one end it is called A input restricted dqueue C output restricted dqueue B insertion restricted dqueue D None of the above
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78
If dqueue allows deletion at only one end it is called A input restricted dqueue C output restricted dqueue B deletion restricted dqueue D None of the above
79
Indegree of a node in a directed graph means A number of incoming edges C sum of incoming and outgoing edges B number of outgoing edges D None of the above
80
Outdegree of a node in a directed graph means A number of incoming edges C sum of incoming and outgoing edges B number of outgoing edges D None of the above
81
Which of the following denotes the application of the graphs? A circuit networks C maps B transport networks D All of the above
82
A tree is ............... and ................. graph. A directed, cyclic C directed, acyclic B undirected, cyclic D undirected, acyclic
83
An edge starting and ending in same node is called A loop C Both A and B B swing D None of the above
84
The nodes having same parents in tree are called A peers C brothers B siblings D All of the above
85
All the nodes in a left subtree of a binary search tree contains keys ......... A less than root C Random B greater than root D None of the above
86
All the nodes in a right subtree of a binary search tree contains keys ......... A less than root C Random B greater than root D None of the above
87
Which of the following node in a tree has no child? A Root node B Middle node
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C Leaf node 88
D All of the above
Which of the node in a tree has no parent node? A Root node C Leaf node B Middle node D All of the above
89
Which of the following does not store NULL in pointer field of any of its nodes? A Singly linked list C Circular linked list B Doubly linked list D All of the above
90
Linked list can be sorted by A swapping data only C Both A and B B swapping links only D None of the above
91
If following is preorder sequence of the tree, what is the value of root? 15 5 7 9 23 17 35 A 15 C 5 B 23 D 35
92
What is true for binary search tree? A All the keys in left subtree are less than root key B All the keys in right subtree are greater than root key
C Both A and B 93
D None of the above
Which of the tree operation visits node exactly once? A Search C Traversal B Deletion D All of the above
94
Which of the following property is used by binary search but ignored by linear search? A Maximum value of the list C Length of the list B Median of the list D Order of the list
95
Which is most suitable data structure to maintain the ready-queue in process management? A Array C Tree B Linked list D Graph
96
Which of the following is true for recursion?
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A Uses stack C Reduces the code size 97
result in infinite loop if not handled properly
D All of the above
Which of the following is not suitable for recursion? A Printing Fibonacci numbers C Tree traversals B Reversing a given string D All are suitable for recursion
98
If function calls itself, it is an example of ............... recursion. A direct C tail B indirect D None of the above
99
Inorder threaded binary tree uses A Empty left link to point to inorder predecessor B Empty right link to point to inorder successor
C Both A and B 100
D None of the above
To delete a node from a binary search tree having both the subtrees non-empty needs to A find inorder successor of the node to be deleted B find inorder predecessor of the node to be deleted
C Both A and B 101
D None of the above
Inorder threading of a binary tree makes ........... operation faster. A finding inorder successor C Both A and B B finding inorder predecessor D None of the above
102
A large matrix with most of the elements are 0 is called A near-zero matrix C zero matrix B sparse matrix D None of the above
103
The signed integers are usually stored by programming languages using A 1's complement C No-complement B 2's complement D 10's complement
104
Which of the following is not a graph traversal method? A Postorder C DFS B BFS D None of the above
105
The data with key k is stored at .............. Location using hashing. A k B k/2
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C h(k) 106
D log k
Which of the following data structure does not allow reuse of the space, until its get empty? A Stack C Circular queue B Linear queue D All of the above
107
If a binary tree has N levels than possible number of nodes in the tree are A < 2N - 1 C > 2N - 1 B = 2N - 1
D None of the above
108
13. How many values can be stored by an array A(-1..m,1..m)? A m C m(m+2) B m(m+1) D m2
109
For an array A(1..m), if base address is 2000 and a size of element is 4 bytes, What is the address of A(5)? A 2004 C 2016 B 2008 D 2020
110
For array A(-m..m) with element size 2, how much storage is required? A 2m bytes C 2(2m+1) bytes B 2m+1 bytes D 2m2 bytes
111
For array A(3..7), if base address = 4000 and size of element is 4 bytes, what is the address of third element? A 4004 C 4012 B 4008 D 4016
112
The address of ith element of C array is determined using ......... function. A a+i C a +i*4 B a+i*2 D a + i * sizeof(data type)
113
For an array A(1..3,1..4), give the base address of A(2,3) element if base address is 2000 and size of element is 2 bytes for column major representation. A 2010 C 2014 B 2012 D 2016
114
For an array A(1..3,1..4), give the base address of A(2,3) element if base address is 2000 and size of element is 2 bytes for row major representation.
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A 2010 C 2014 115
B 2012 D 2016
If a stack is implemented using array A[1..N], the stackful condition is A top = N C top = 0 B top = N - 1 D None of the above
116
If a stack is implemented using array A[0..N-1], the initial value of top of the stack pointer is A top = 0 C top = -1 B top = 1 D None of the above
117
If a linear queue is implemented using array A[1..N], the initial values of front and rear pointers are A front = rear = -1 C front = rear = 1 B front = rear = 0 D None of the above
118
If a linear queue is implemented using array A[1..N], which of the condition represents queue is full? A rear = N C front = N B front = rear = N D None of the above
119
If a linear queue is implemented using array A[1..N] and if front and rear pointers are pointing at same location within queue, how many elements queue can have? A 0 C 2 B 1 D 3
120
In a linear queue implemented with array A[1..N] and if rear pointer is pointing to N, which position the next element is inserted? A 1 C N+1 B N D results in overflow
121
In a circular queue implemented with array A[1..N] and if rear pointer is pointing to N, which position the next element is inserted? A 1 C N+1 B N D None of the above
122
What is the queue full condition for circular queue implemented using array A[1..N]? A rear = N and front = 1 C Both A and B together B rear + 1 = front D None of the above
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123
What is the height of the full binary tree if it has 15 nodes? A 2 C 4 B 3 D 5
124
No. of nodes at level = 3 in a full binary tree (level of root is 0) are A 1 C 4 B 2 D 8
125
Total number of nodes in a full binary tree with height 5 is A 15 C 63 B 31 D 127
126
In which of the following tree, all the levels are full? A Binary tree C Complete binary tree B Strict binary tree D All of the above B Strict binary tree D None of the above
127
In which of the following tree, every node has exactly two childs? A Binary tree C Both A and B
128
Preorder traversal is same as A depth first search C level order traversal B breadth first search D None of the above
129
If in a binary tree LPTR and RPTR denotes pointers to left and pointer to right subtrees respectively, which of the following condition for given node determines whether it is leaf node or not? A LPTR = NULL C LPTR = RPTR = NULL B RPTR = NULL D None of the above
130
Which of the following determines that the binary tree has only one node? A LPRT and RPTR of root node are NULL B Either of the LPRT and RPTR of root node is NULL
C Pointer to root node is NULL 131
D None of the above
Which of the following is suitable storage structure for binary trees? A Linked representation C Both A and B B Array representation D None of the above
132
Which of the following nodes a completer binary can contain?
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A 30 C 32 133
B 31 D Any of the above
If a complete binary tree is stored in array A[1..N], How do you find parent of ith node? A i/2 with truncation C 2i+1 B 2i D None of the above
134
If a complete binary tree is stored in array A[1..N], How do you find left child of ith node? A i/2 with truncation C 2i+1 B 2i D None of the above
135
If a complete binary tree is stored in array A[1..N], How do you find right child of ith node? A i/2 with truncation C 2i+1 B 2i D None of the above
136
What is maximum height of any AVL tree with 7 nodes if height of tree with single node is 0. A 1 C 3 B 2 D 4
137
If a binary tree is stored in array, the right child of node at position 5 is at A 6 C 11 B 10 D None of the above
138
Which of the following is valid sequence in an array representing 3-ary max-heap? A 135689 C 936851 B 963185 D 956831
139
A binary search tree is build by inserting numbers in following sequence. 10 1 3 5 15 12 16 What is the maximum height of a leaf from root node? A 2 C 4 B 3 D 5
140
A binary search tree is build by inserting numbers in following sequence. 7518360942 What would be the inorder traversal of resulting tree?
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A 0246813579 C 0123456789 141
Assume that array A[1..N] is used to implement double stack. Two stacks grow from opposite side and top1 and top2 are the top pointers for them. Which of the following is "stack full condition"? A top1+top2 = N C top1 = top2 -1 B top1 = N/2 and top2 = N D None of the above
142
What is the postfix expression for infix expression : a + b / c - d * e ? A bc/a+de*C ab+de*c/ B ab+cd-/e* D None of the above
143
Assume that the following are the sequence resulted using the inorder and preorder traversal of a binary tree. Inorder: 5 7 10 13 15 17 Preorder: 10 5 7 15 13 17 What is correct postorder sequence? A 7 5 13 17 15 10 C 5 7 13 17 15 10 B 7 5 13 10 15 17 D None of the above
144
The preorder traversal of a*(b+c)/d-g is A *+ab/c-dg C -*a/+bcdg B *a+bc/-dg D None of the above
145
Which of the following array represents a binary max-heap? A {25,12,16,13,10,8,14} C {25,14,16,13,10,8,12} B {25,14,13,16,10,8,12} D None of the above
146
Assume that first is a pointer to singly linked list having more than 2 2 nodes, what is the effect of following operation? first = first->next; A Inserts a node C No effect B deletes first node D None of the above
147
A binary tree is created by inserting following sequence. 6 10 25 12 4 7 15 8 33 Which traversal does following sequence shows? 6 4 10 7 25 8 12 33 15 A Inorder C postorder B preorder D level order
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148
The search ends in binary search tree, when A Node is found C Either of A or B B A leaf node is reached D None of the above
149
Assume that the following are the sequence resulted using the inorder and preorder traversal of a binary tree. Inorder: 5 7 10 13 15 17 Preorder: 10 5 7 15 13 17 How many nodes are there in left subtree? A 2 C 4 B 3 D None of the above
150
Assume that the following are the sequence resulted using the inorder and preorder traversal of a binary tree. Inorder: 5 7 10 13 15 17 Preorder: 10 5 7 15 13 17 How many nodes are there in right subtree? A 2 C 4 B 3 D None of the above
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Which of the following topologies follows the primary-secondary relationships between the devices? A Mesh C Star B Ring
D Bus
Frequency range of the coaxial cable is A 100 Hz to 5MHz C 100 KHz to 500MHz B 100 Hz to 500MHz
D None of these
When the angle of refraction is 90 degrees and the angle of incidence is 68 degrees, then the critical angle would be A 45 C 68 B 90
D 180
End-to-End connectivity is provided from host-to-host in A Network Layer C Transport Layer B Data link Layer
D Physical Layer
Port number is A Process Number C Equivalent to IP Address B Computer's Physical Address
D None of these
MTU Stands for A Minimum Transfer Unit C Minimum Transmission Unit B Maximum Transfer Unit
D Maximum Transmission Unit
Which is the devices belongs to the OSI physical layer? A Switch C Router B Repeater
D Bridge
Virtual Terminal (TELNET) A C Maps host name onto their network addresses Move news article around B Allow user to login one machine from distant machine
D Fetch pages from www
Segmentation is done at A Transport Layer C Physical layer B Network Layer
D Data link Layer
10 Congestion Control is done at
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A Physical layer C Transport Layer
Data link Layer
D Network Layer
11 Manchester Code is A Non-return to zero code C bipolar code B polar code
D both A and B
12 Which is the main difference between synchronous and asynchronous transmission? A The bandwidth requirement is different C Pusle height is different B D clocking is derived from data in synchronous transmission Clocking is mixed with data in asynchronous transmission
13 The purpose of preamble in the ethernet is A Error checking C clock synchronization B collision avoidance
D Broadcast
14 Which Protocol Data Unit (PDU) is employed at the transport layer A Bits C Frames B Segments
D Packets
15 Baud rate means A No of bits tramsmitted per unit time C No of pulse transmitted per unit time B No of signal units per second to represent the bits
D No of bits received per unit time
16 Which of the following is a example of bounded mediaum? A Coaxial Cable C Fiber optics cable B Waveguide
D All of these
17 Wavelength Division Multiplexing is used in A Coaxial Cable C Fiber optics channel B Twisted pair cable
D Microwave transmission
18 The transfer of data from CPU to peripheral devices of the computer system is achieved A Compuetr ports C Interfaces B Buffer memory
D Modems
19 If switches are used to replace the hubs on a network, which of the following statement is true? A The number of broadcast domains will increase
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B C
The number of collision domains will increase The number of collision domains will decrease
D The number of broadcast domains will decrease 20 Which error detection method uses ones compliment arithmetic? A checksum C simple parity ckeck B CRC
D two-dimetional parity check
21 In CRC, there is no error if remainder at the receiver is _____. A equal to reminder of the sender C zero B nonzero
D the quotient at the sender
22 Hamming code is used for A Error detection C Error generation B Error correction
D both A and B
23 HDLC does not support A Half Duplex C Full Duplex B Balanced Multipoint
D Multipoint Link
24 FDDI is a A Hybrid Network C Star Network B Ring Network
D Mesh Network
25 ALOHA A Is used for channel allocation problem C Is used for data transfer B Is used for Buffering
D None of these
26 Pure ALOHA A Does not requires global time synch C Does requires global time synch B both A and B
D None of these
27 Which of the following is a type of coax cabling transmission method? A Baseband C Broadband B CSMA/CD
D both A and C
28 The LLC (Logical Link Control) standard format is based on A BLAST C ZMODEM B SDLC
D HDLC
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29 what is a MAC? A It is Network layer address of the NIC that cannot be modified B C It is Network layer address of the NIC that can be modified It is Data-Link layer address of the NIC that cannot be modified
D It is Data-Link layer address of the NIC that can be modified 30 In the sliding window protocol, if the window size is 63, what is the range of sequence number? A 0 to 64 C 1 to 64 B 0 to 63
D 1 to 63
31 The Hamming distance between 001111 and 010011 is A 1 C 3 B 2
D 4
32 What addressing information is shipped with every network interface card? A IP Address C ARP Address B MAC Address
D All of these
33 IGRP Stands for A Interior Gateway Routing Protocol C Internet Gateway Routing Protocol B Internal Gateway Routing Protocol
D Interior Gigabit Routing Protocol
34 Which of these true? (I) Transmission is a physical movement of the Information (II) Communication means meaningful exchange of information between two communication entities. A I C I and II B II
D None of these
35 Which of the following statement is true about router and bridge? A C Bridges connect two networks at transport layer Bridges are type of inexpensive routers B Routers are improved Bridges
D Routers connect two networks at network layer
36 In the virtual circuit switching approach, a route is established _____________ are sent A After packets C Before packets B After Data
D Before Data
37 What is the difference between DTE and DCE devices?
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A C
DTE does not clocking while DCE goes according to clocking DTE are capable for routing while DCE are not
DCE does not clocking while DTE goes according to clocking
D DCE are capable for routing while DTE are not
38 Which is the most dominant LAN Technology? A Ethernet C Token Ring B Asynchronous Transfer Mode
D Token Bus
39 X.25 standard Specifies a A Techniques for Start/Stop data C Techniques for dial access B DTE/DCE Interface
D Data Bit rate
40 RIP is based on A Link State routing C Dijkstra's algorithm B Distance vector routing
D Path vector routing
41 A Routing table contains A the destination network ID C The Hop count B next hop router ID
D All of these
42 OSPF is based on A Link State routing C Dijkstra's algorithm B Distance vector routing
43 BGP is based on A Link State routing C Dijkstra's algorithm B Distance vector routing
44 Dijkstra's algorithm is used to A Create LSA's C Calculate the routing tables B Flood an internet with information
D create a link state databases
45 Transport Layer is responsible for A Hop-to-Hope delivery C End-to-End delivery B Network-to-Network delivery
D Station-to-Station delivery
46 The file transfer protocol FTP requires a realiable transport service, which protocol of the TCP/IP suite does it use? A Tansmission Control Protocol (TCP) B User Datagram Packet (UDP)
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Telnet
D All of these
47 If your routing table reaches to large size then how could you decrease the size of table? A Add more memory to router C switch to different routing protocol B Replace router with most powerful one
D Implement summarization
48 Which of the following is the most resistant to electrical and noise interference? A Fiber C Coaxial Cable B UDP
D STP
49 Which of the following is most expensive to install and terminate? A Coaxial Cable C Fiber cable B CAT4 UTP
D CAT5 UTP
50 Bit stuffing means A inserting 0 in flag stream to avoid ambiguity C Appending a nibble to flag sequence B inserting 0 in user data stream to differentiate it with a flag
D Appending a nibble to user data stream
51 For subnet addresses, (i) 128.252.4.0 (ii) 128.252.8.0 (iii) 128.252.12.0 and (iv) 128.252.16.0 which will be a subnet mask? A 255.255.255.0 C 255.255.192.0 B 255.255.240.0
D 255.255.252.0
52 Whci of the following network address classes id reserved for multicast addressed only? A class A C 53 class D B class C
D class B
Put the encapsulation steps in order: 1:User Input, 2:data, 3:Frame, 4:Segment, 5:Datagram, 6:bits A 1-2-3-4-5-6 C 1-3-4-5-6-2 B 1-2-4-5-3-6
D 1-2-5-4-3-6
54 Where router will store the active configuartion file? A In NVRAM C In ROM B In RAM
D On TFTP Server
55 Why origional SNMP causes greater network overhead? A Because it uses UDP Protocol B Beacause it allows remote configuration
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Because it can not automatically provide Information to management info base
D All of these
56 Which of following is not a function of Transport Layer A Provide a ability to send ACK packet C Can issue the NOT READY indicator B Segments can be placed back into their correct sequence at destination
D Providing routing services
57 Let in IPv4 datagram, total length is 461 bytes and length of data is 433 bytes, so determine the header size in bytes A 28 C 32 B 27
D 224
58 IP has A Flow control mechanism C Both A and B B Congection control mechanism
D None of these
59 How many IP addresses are available to company with class B addresses? A 8192 C 32768 B 65536
D 16384
60 TCP sending data at 1 meghabyte/s, if sequence number starts with 0, how long does it take before sequence goes 7002? A 5 msec C 1.056 sec B 7 msec
D None of these
61 Which of the following is the functinality of TCP timers? A Retransmission C Keep alive B Persistence
D All of these
62 As if IP datagram travels from its source to its destination A Source IP address is changed at each router to identify the sending router B C The router uses destination IP address to consult its routing table the router does not use the IP addresses in the datagram
D Destination IP address is changed at each router to reflect the next hop 63 The primary functions of the ARP that resides in Internet hosts and routers is A To provide LAN router functions C To translate IP addresses to LAN addresses To traslate LAN addresses to Physical interface addresses To calcuate shortest path between two nodes D on a LAN B
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64 Subnetting and Supernetting techniques are used to help avoid A Congestion at Routers C 65 Overflow of buffer at receiver B The running out of address space problem
D Duplication of Datagrams
Given the address 172.16.2.120 and the subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. How many hosts are available? A 254 C 510 B 126
D 16372
66 For system using TCP, the sender window size is determined by _______ window size. (1) Receiver (2) Sender (3) Congestion A 1 and 2 Only C 1 and 3 Only B 2 and 3 Only
D 1, 2 and 3
67 Encryption/Decryption provide the network with A Authentication C Non-repudiation B Integrity
D Privacy
68 Digital signature can provide the network with A Authentication C 69 Non-repudiation B Integrity
D All of these
Which of the following is one of the most important tasks to perform when hardening a DNS Server? A FTP Server C NNTP Server B DNS Server
D File and Print server
70 What is the primary purpose of the FTP server? A Simplify the storage of files C Report security violation of files B Allow for backup storage of files
D Facilitate the transfer of files
71 SNMP uses which Transport layer port number to communicate? A UDP port 21 C UDP port 69 B TCP port 21
D UDP port 161
72 which of the following is included in a packet header to ensure that data split over several packets is reassembled in the correct order? A Checksum C packet number B sequence number
D source address
73 What is the maximum size of the data that application layer can pass on to the TCP layer below?
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A Any Size C 2 byte size of the TCP header

16
2 byte
16
D 1500 byte
74 Which of the following statement is FALSE regarding to the Bridge A Bridge is Layer2 device C Bridge reduces collision domain B Bridge used to connect two or more LAN segment
D Bridge reduces broadcast domain
75 In a broad sense, Railway track is a example of A Simplex C Full Duplex B Half-Duplex
D All of these
76 TFTP uses which transport protocol? A SPX C ICMP B UDP
D TCP
77 What is the remainder obtained by dividing X7 + X5 +1 by the generator polynomial X3 + 1 A X3 + X +1 C X4 + X +1 B X2 + X +1
D None of these
78 Start and Stop bits are used in the serial communication for A Error detection C Synchronization B Error correction
D Slowing down the communication
79 Piggybacking is a method of A Backtracking C Method to combine a data frame and ACK B Forwarding
D None of these
80 A computer is using the following sequence numbers 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9,10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 0, 1, . Then what is the size of window using selective repeat protocol? A 16 C 4 B 8
D 3
81 Stop and wait protocol equal to A SR protocol with SWS = 1 C SR protocol with SWS = RWS B GBN protocol with RWS = 1
D GBN protocol with SWS = RWS
82 Which of the following will descriminate LAN or a WAN? A Distance and size B Distance and Time
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Size and shape
D Topology and Time
83 The Data-Link layer is devided into A MAC and LLC C LCAP and MAC B L2CAP and MAC
D None of these
84 In Ethernet, MAC sub-layer uses access method A ALOHA C Slotted ALOHA B CSMA/CD
D None of these
85 GIGABIT Ethernet uses A NRZ encoding C Both A and B B Manchester Encoding
D None of these
86 which of the following is true for infra-red transmission? A suitable for a WAN C Uses expensive cables B Blocked by solid objects
D Use copper shielding
87 In Stop and Wait ARQ if ACK1 is sent by receiver then the sender sends A Frame-1 C Frame-0 B Frame-2
D None of these
88 in which ARQ, if a NAK is received, only specific damaged or lost frame is retransmitted? A Stop and Wait C Selective repeat B Go-back-N
D Both A and B
89 What is TTL? A Time To Live C Time To Leave B Time To Learn
D Time To Link
90 A subnet mask is the portion of an IP address that identifies A a perticular network C A perticular person B A perticular computer
D The perticular location of a computer
91 Which of the following will create a Push Button? A Input C Radio B Reset
D CheckBox
92 Choose the correct HTML tag for left align the content inside a table cell A <td left align> B <td align="left">
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<td ralign="left">
D <tdleft>
93 In HTML, Which of the following attributes of text control allow to limit the maximum character? A Maxlength C Length B Size
D None of these
94 In HTML, Which of the following will be considered a container? A <BODY> C <VALUE> B <INPUT>
D <SELECT>
95 The correct HTML Tag for largest heading is A <h1> C <h6> B <heading>
D <head>
96 Which of the following is a not attribute of <FORM> tag A SUBMIT C ACTION B ON SUBMIT
D METHOD
97 The <INPUT> is A Unformatted tag C Format tag B Empty tag
D None of these
98 The main container of the <TR>, <TD> and <TH> is A <CAPTION> C <GROUP> B <DATA>
D <TABLE>
99 The attribute that defines the releationship between current document and HREF's URL is A REV C REL B URL
D None of these
100 The MIME text file is saved with A HTML Extension C TMH Extension B HMT Extension
D None of these
101 How many basic types of bullets supported by the HTML4. A One C Two B Three
D Four
102 Which of the following will display the line with more thickness? A cannot be determine B <HR size = 10 noshade>
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<Hr Size = 10>
D both B and C
103 POP stands for A Past Office Protocol C Previous Office Protocol B Post Office Protocol
D Present Office Protocol
104 Which one of the following is not a client-server application ? A Internet chat C E-mail B Web browsing
D Ping
105 One of the header fields in an IP datagram is the (TTL) field. Which of the following statements best explains the need for this field ? A It can be used to prioritize packets C It can be used to optimize throughput B It can be used to reduce delays
D It can be used to prevent packet looping
106 In the slow start phase of TCP congesting control algorithm, the size of the congestion window A Does not increase C Increases quadratically B Increases linearly
D Increases exponentially
107 Which of the following statements is not true about XML Schemas? A C They are used to define the content and structure of data They are themselves XML documents. B They define a set of symbols and the relationships of those symbols.
D They have their own syntax.
108 To eliminate definition duplication, XML Schemas define A an intersection table. C a normalized definition table. B global elements
D None of the above is correct.
109 XML Schemas consist of A properties and methods C B elements and attributes
D tables and relationships structure and data 110 What standard, protocol or language was generalized to become a standard protocol for sending messages of any type, using any protocol? A SOAP C SQL B SGML
D ADO
111 How long is an IPv6 address? A 32 bits C 64 bits B 128 bytes
D 128 bits
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112 What flavor of Network Address Translation can be used to have one IP address allow many users to connect to the global Internet? A NAT C 113 You have 10 users plugged into a hub running 10Mbps half-duplex. There is a server connected to the switch running 10Mbps half-duplex as well. How much bandwidth does each host have to the server? A 100 kbps C 2 Mbps B 1 Mbps Dynamic B Static
D PAT
D 10 Mbps
114 Which protocol is used to send a destination network unknown message back to originating hosts? A TCP C ICMP B ARP
D BootP
115 Which class of IP address has the most host addresses available by default? A A C C B B
D Both A and B
116 What is a stub network? A A network with more than one exit point C A network with only one entry and no exit point. A network with more than one exit and entry point A network that has only one entry and exit D point. B
117 What does a VLAN do? A Acts as the fastest port to all servers. C Breaks up broadcast domains in a layer 2 switch internetwork Provides multiple collision domains on one switch port Provides multiple broadcast domains within a D single collision domain. B
118 What is the main reason the OSI model was created? A C To create a layered model larger than the DoD model So different networks could communicate. B So application developers can change only one layer's protocols at a time.
D So Cisco could use the model.
119 Which protocol does Ping use? A TCP C ARP B ICMP
D BootP
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120 Which statement(s) about IPv6 addresses are true? (1) Leading zeros are required. (2) Two colons (::) are used to represent successive hexadecimal fields of zeros. (3) Two colons (::) are used to separate fields. (4) A single interface will have multiple IPv6 addresses of different types. A 1 and 3 C 1, 3 and 4 B 2 and 4
D All of the above
121 In the network with 50 computers, Mesh topology will requires how many numbers of cables? A 1225 C 50 B 1280
D 99
122 Maximum data rate of a channel of 3000 Hz bandwidth and S/N ratio of 30 dB is A 30000 bps C 75000 bps B 60000 bps
D 3000 bps
123 A terminal multiplexer has six 1200 bps termnals and n no of 300 bps terminals, For 9600 bps outgoing line what will be the value of n? A 4 C 8 B 12
D 16
124 For the fiber optics cable if the propagation speed is 2x108 m/s and distance of 2000m then the propogation time would be A 10 microsecond C 1 microsecond B 0.1 microsecond
D 0.001 micosecond
125 characters per second (7bit + 1 parity) which can be transmitted over a 2400 bps line if the transfer is synchronous (1 start + 1 stop bit) A 275 C 250 B 240
D 300
126 State True (T) and false (F) of the following (respectively). 1. Hub is multi-port repeater 2. Bridge has filtering capability 3. The bridge changes the MAC address A TTT C FFT B TTF
D FTT
127 No of cross points needed for 10 lines in a cross point switch which is full duplex in nature and there are no self connection is, A 45 B 43
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50
D 90
128 What layer of the OSI model would be connected with network applications such as Telnet and FTP? A The application Layer C The session layer B The Data Link Layer
D The presentation layer
129 Consider the signal is measured at two different points. The power P1 is one point and P2 is at second point. If dB is zero then, A P2 is zero C P2 is larger than P1 B P2 equals to P1
D P2 is smaller than P1
130 To correct the single bit error the number of redundancy bit required for 64 bit data A 6 C 131 8 B 7
D 9
What is the probability of exactly 5 collision followed by a success when ALOHA users generate 50 request/second, if time is slooted in units of 40 msec? A 0.12 C 0.3 B 0.06521
D None of these
132 In a Stop and Wait ARQ bandwidth 1Mbps and 1bit takes 20ms to make a round trip if system data frame are 1000 bit's in length then what is the % of utilization of the link A 2% C 10% B 3%
D 5%
133 Consider the sliding window algorithm where sender window size is 9 and receiver window size is 7 and no out of order arrivals. What is the smallest value for maximum sequence number? A 7 C 4 B 15
D 16
134 What will be result for the protocol G-Back-N with window size of 7? A 50sec C 12.5sec B 7.1sec
D None of these
135 if we run N simultaneous stop-n-wait ARQ processors parallelly over the transmission channel, then it is equal to A Go-back N protocol C Stop-n-wait protocol B SR Protocol
D None of these
136 if RTT is 40ms and transmission delay is 200ms then what is the throughput of the ethernet?
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A 55% C 50%
67%
D None of these
137 CSMA/CD LAN is designed over a 1km cable without repeater. The minimum frame size that DLL should consider if cable support signal speed of 200000 km/sec is A 1000 C 100000 B 5000
D 10000
138 An image is of 1024x768 pixels with 3 bytes/pixel. Assume image is uncompressed the how long will it takes to transmit it over 56 kbps modem channel? A 329.14 second C 330 second B 329.14 ms
D 330 ms
139 In the TCP/IP Protocol suite, which on of the following is a NOT part of the IP header? A Fradment offset C Destination IP address B Source IP address
D Destination port address
140 Which of the following command/s is/are supported by ICMP protocol? A ping C A Only B Tracert
D A and B Both
141 If you have a network 192.168.10.0/24. How many subnets and hosts are available? A 10 subnet-10 hosts C 142 1 subnet-1 hosts B 1 subnet-254 hosts
D 254 subnet-254 hosts
If you have a IP 156.233.42.56 with subnet mask of 7 bits. How many hosts and subnets are available? A 510 subnet-126 hosts C 126 subnet-510 hosts B 128 subnet-512 hosts
D None of these
143 Which of the following statement is FALSE? A HTTP runs over TCP C B HTTP describe the structure of web pages HTTP can be used to test the validity of the hyperlink
HTTP allows information to be stored in a URL D
144 In TCP, Unique sequence number is assigned to each A Byte C Segment B word
D Message
145 ARP request is ________________ while ARP reply will __________________ A Broadcast, Unicast B Unicast, broadcast
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Broadcast, broadcast
D Unicast, unicast
146 A datagram size consists of minimum _________ bytes and maximum _________ bytes A 22,64 C 28,56 B 20,60
D 30,60
147 Packets of the same session may be routed through different paths in A TCP but not UDP C UDP but not TCP B TCP and UDP
D Neither TCP, nor UDP
148 An organization has a class B network and wishes to form subnets for 64 departments. The subnet mask would be A 255.255.0.0 C 255.255.128.0 B 255.255.64.0
D 255.255.252.0
149 In a packet switching network, packets are routed from source to destination along a single path having two intermediate node. If the message size is 24 bytes and each packet contains a header of 3 bytes, then the optimum packet size is A 4 C 7 B 6
D 9
150 Suppose the round trip propagation delay for a 10 Mbps Ethernet having 48-bit jamming signal is 46.4 s . The minimum frame size is A 94 C 464 B 416
D 512
151 In Ehernet when manchester encoding is used, the bit rate is A Half the baud rate C Same as the baud rate B Twice the baud rate
D None of these
152 In a token ring network the transmission speed is 107 bps and the propagation speed is 200 metres/s. The 1-bit delay in this network is equivalent to A 500m of cable C 20m of cable B 200 m of cable
D 50m of cable
153 The maximum window size for data transmission using the selective reject protocol with n bit frame sequence number is A 2n C 2n-1 B 2n-1
D 2n-2
154 Which of the following is private IP address?
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A 12.0.0.1 C 155 172.15.14.36
168.172.19.39
D 192.168.24.43
Which of the following allows a router to respond to an ARP request that is intended for a remote host? A Gateway DP C 156 Proxy ARP B Reverse ARP (RARP)
D Inverse ARP (IARP)
The DoD model (also called the TCP/IP stack) has four layers. Which layer of the DoD model is equivalent to the Network layer of the OSI model? A Application C Internet B Host-to-Host
D Network Access
157 Pat Address Translation is also termed what? A NAT Fast C NAT Overload B NAT Static
D Overloading Static
158 which of the following system calls results in the sending of SYN packets? A socket C listen B bind
D connect
159 In RSA Algorithm, value of p is 5 and q is 11, find the value of decryption key if the value of encryption key is 27 A 40 C 3 B 27
D None of these
160 Frequency range of the microwaves is A 100 MHz to 10 GHz C 100 KHz to 100 MHz B 100 MHz to 1 GHz
D 1 GHz to 10 GHz
161 Spreading of light rays in all directions perpendicular to direction of travelling is known as a A spreading C traversal B dispersion
D None of these
162 Standard to implement the wireless LAN based on ethernet is A 802.11 C 802.3 B 802.16
D 802.5
163 The wireless communication between the devices take place without using access point is A infrastructure mode B Mix mode
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adhoc mode
D None of these
164 Fiber optics cable operates in the frequency range of A microwave range C A and B Both B visible light
D None of these
165 The connection establishment in TCP is called A One-way handshaking C Three-way handshaking B Two-way handshaking
D None of these
166 In sliding window protocol, what is the value of the receiver window for host A if the receiver host B has a buffer size of 5000 bytes and 1000 bytes of received and unprocessed data? A 5000 bytes C 1000 bytes B 4000 bytes
D 6000 bytes
167 Which timer is used to prevent a long idle connection between teo TCPs? A keepalive Timer C Stowatch timer B Time-wait Timer
D None of these
168 SCTP stands for A Super Control Transmission Protocol C Special Control Transmission Protocol B Stream Control Transmission Protocol
D Safety Control Transmission Protocol
169 UDP is A message-oriented protocol C byte-oriented protocol B bit-oriented protocol
D None of these
170 TCP is A message-oriented protocol C byte-oriented protocol B bit-oriented protocol
D None of these
171 SCTP is A message-oriented protocol C byte-oriented protocol B bit-oriented protocol
D None of these
172 Routing inside an autonomous system is reffered to as A intradomain routing C interdomain routing B autonomous routing
D None of these
173 Routing between an autonomous system is reffered to as
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A intradomain routing C interdomain routing
autonomous routing
D None of these
174 Which of the following is intradomain routing protocol A TCP C OSPF B RIP
D Both B and C
175 Which of the following is interdomain routing protocol A BGP C OSPF B RIP
D None of these
176 On the network, multicast routers are connected to each other logically by A C creating multicast backbone adding unicast routing B adding multicast routers
D None of these
177 DHCP is backward compitible with A TCP C IP B BOOTP
D None of these
178 Common Gateway Interface (CGI) is A techniques to handle dynamic documents C techniques to handle multimedia documents B techniques to handle static documents
D None of these
179 JPEG is a A image compression techniques C image handling techniques B image editing techniques
D None of these
180 The delay between two real time packet is called A Delay C gap B Jitter
D None of these
181 The TTL field of IPv4 is replaced by which filed of IPv6? A time limit C timer field B left field
D hop limit
182 IP within IP is called A encapsulation C tunning B tunneling
D mixing
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183 How many cross points are needed in a single stage switch with 40 inputs and 50 outputs? A 40 C 90 B 50
D 2000
184 for 64 kbps satellite channel, 512B data frames and RTT=64ms, what is max throughput for the window size of 1? A 1 kbps C 4 kbps B 4 kBps
D 7 kbps
185 for 64 kbps satellite channel, 512B data frames and RTT=64ms, what is max throughput for the window size of 8? A 8kbps C 32 kBps B 16 kBps
D 448 kbps
186 This command identifies the recipient of the mail. A HELO C RCPT TO B MAIL FROM
D None of these
187 What is the port number for Domain Name System service DNS? A 53 C 188 61 B 54
D 60
What is the port number for (Remote login service) Telnet? A 20 C 23 B 25
D 24
189 What is the port number for (File Transfer Protocol - Data) FTP? A 20 C 22 B 21
D 35
190 What is the port number for (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) SMTP? A 20 C 23 B 25
D 24
191 What is the port number for Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)? A 161 C 144 B 149
D 143
192 What is the port number for ECHO?
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A 10 C 9
D 8
193 In _________, resources are allocated on demand A datagram switching C frame switching B circuit switching
D none of the above
194 which address in the header of a packet in a datagram network normally remains the same during the entire journey of the packet? A source C local B destination
D none of these
195 Which of the following functions does UDP perform? A C process-to-process communication end-to-end reliable data delivery B host-to-host communication
D None of the choices are correct
196 Which of the following does UDP guarantee? A C flow control congestion control B connection-oriented delivery
197 The combination of an IP address and a port number is called a A transport address C socket address B network address
198 In FTP, ASCII, EBCDIC, and image define an attribute called A file type C 199 In FTP, which category of commands defines the port number for the data connection on the client site? A file transfer commands C port defining commands B access commands transmission mode B data structure
D none of the choices are correct
200 In TFTP, a connection is terminated with. A DATA C ERROR B ACK
201 In TFTP, if a duplicate DATA message is received A the sender sends an error message B the connection is terminated
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the receiver discards the duplicate
none of the choices are correct
202 In a URL, the _______ is the client-server program used to retrieve the document. A path C host B protocol
203 One way to create an active document is to use A CGI C Java applets. B D Java stand-alone programs None of the choices are correct
204 HTTP uses the services of _________ on well-known port 80. A UDP C TCP B IP
205 In a ___________connection, the server leaves the connection open for more requests after sending a response. A persistent C persistent and nonpersistent B nonpersistent
206 Which of the following is present in both an HTTP request line and a status line? A HTTP version number C status code B URL
207 The HTTP request line contains a _______ method to request a document from the server. A GET C COPY B POST
208 The HTTP request line contains a _______ method to get information about a document without retrieving the document itself. A HEAD C COPY B POST
209 An applet is _______ document application program. A a static C a passive B an active
D a dynamic
210 _______ is more powerful and complex than _______. A POP3; IMAP4 C SMTP; POP3 B IMAP4; POP3
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211 Suppose the BSNL telephone line has a bandwidth of 6100Hz the S/N ratio is 40 dB then capacity of the channel would be A 80176 bps C 32681 bps B 38821 bps
D 81056 bps
212 when the signal travels through the transmission medium, its power becomes 100 times Then gain/loss would be A Gain of 80 dB C 213 Gain of 20 dB B Loss of 80 dB
D Loss of 20 dB
If channel capacity is 250Kbps, find the white noise present in the channel if the signal strength is 15microW and bandwidth is 8000 Hz, SNR=20000. A 9.375 x 10 -12 watts/Hz C 9.388 x 10 11 watts/Hz B 9.370 x 10 -11 watts/Hz
D 9.368 x 10 12 watts/Hz
214 The wavelength of the red light whose frequency is 4x4 14 Hz in the air is A 0.75 micrometer C 400 m B 7500 pm
D Data insufficient
215 When the signal travels through the transmission medium, its power becomes one fifth Then power A Loss of 7 dB C Loss of 5 dB B Gain of 7 dB
D Gain of 5 dB
216 How many 8-bit characters can be transmitted per second over a 9600 baud serial communication link using asynchronous mode of transmission with one start bit, eight data bits, and one parity bit ? A 600 C 876 B 800
D 1200
217 A and B are the only two stations on an Ethernet. Each has a steady queue of frames to send. Both A and B attempt to transmit a frame, collide, and A wins the first backoff race, At the end of this successful transmission by A, both A and B attempt to transmit and collide. The probability that A wins the second backoff race is A 0.5 C 0.75 B 0.625
D 1
218 Two computers C1 and C2 are configured as follows. C1 has IP address 203. 197.2.53 and netmask 255.255. 128.0. C2 has IP address 203.197.75.201 and netmask 255.255.192.0. Which one of the following statements is true? C1 and C2 both assume they are on the same A network C2 assumes C1 is on same network, but C1 assumes C2 is on a different network
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C1 assumes C2 is on same network, but C2 assumes C1 is on a different network
C1 and C2 both assume they are on different networks
219 Suppose computers A and B have IP addresses 10.105.1.113 and 10.105.1.91 respectively and they both use the same netmask N. Which of the values of N given below should not be used if A and B should belong to the same network ? A 225.255.255.0 C 255.255.255.192 B 255.255.255.128
D 255.255.255.224
220 Which ATM layer has a 53-byte cell as an end product? A physical C Application adaptation B ATM
D None of these
221 The IP protocol uses the which sublayer. A AAL1 C 222 Which one out of following is suitable for businesses that require comparable upstream and downstream data rates. A VDSL C SDSL B ADSL AAL5 B AAL2
D None of these
D None of these
223 SONET is a standard for which kind of networks. A twisted-pair cable C fiber-optic cable B coaxial cable
D None of these
224 In which service, there is a relation between all packets belonging to a message. A connectionless C connection-oriented B virtual
D None of these
225 which control means including a mechanism for detecting corrupted, lost, or duplicate packets. A Flow C Congestion B Error
D None of these
226 which packet is a special packet that can be sent from a router to the sender when the router encounters a congestion. A ckoke C control B data
D None of these
227 The number of addresses assigned to an organization in classless addressing
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A can be any number C must be a power of 2
must be a multiple of 256
228 The first address assigned to an organization in classless addressing A must be a power of 4 C must belong to one of the A, B, or C classes B must be evenly divisible by the number of addresses
229 Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 32 classless addresses? A 2.4.6.5 C 2.4.6.64 B 2.4.6.16
230 What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.76/27? A 12.2.2.0 C 12.2.2.64 B 12.2.2.32
231 In fixed-length subnetting, the number of subnets must A be a power of 2 C be divisible by 128 B be a multiple of 128
232 What is the default mask for class A in CIDR notation? A /9 C /16 B D /8 None of the choices are correct
233 In which addressing, when an address is given, we can find the beginning address and the range of addresses. A classless C both classless and classful B D classless None of the choices are correct
234 In a block, the mask is 255.255.255.224; what is the prefix length? A C /20 /20 B /19
235 In which forwarding, the mask and destination addresses are both 0.0.0.0 in the routing table? A next-hop C 236 The idea of address aggregation was designed to alleviate the increase in routing table entries when using A classful addressing B classless addressin host-specific B network-specific
D default
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classful addressing and classless addressing
None of the choices are correct
237 By using of hierarchy in routing tables,the routing tables size will be A reduce C reduce and increase B D increase None of the choices are correct
238 The task of moving the packet from the input queue to the output queue in a router is done by A input and output ports C switching fabrics B routing processor
239 A best-effort delivery service such as IP includes A error checking C datagram acknowledgmen B error correction
D None of these
240 If the fragment offset has a value of 100, it means that A the datagram has not been fragmented C the first byte of the datagram is byte 800 B the datagram is 100 bytes in size
241 What is needed to determine the number of the last byte of a fragment? A offset number C both offset number and the total length B total length
242 The IP header size A is 20 to 60 bytes long C is 60 bytes long B is 20 bytes long
D is 80 bytes long
243 When we use IP over ATM, padding can be added only to the _____ or the _______. A first cell; last cell C last cell; last two cells B last two cells; last three cells
244 ATM network to be divided into several logical subnets with the help of A LAS C LIS B LAN
245 If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on the same network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is A C the destination IP address in the datagram header the source IP address B D the IP address of the router found in the routing table None of the choices are correct
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246 he target hardware address on an Ethernet in an ARP request is. A C 0x000000000000 variable B 0.0.0.0
D class dependent
247 If a host needs to synchronize its clock with another host, it sends a A timestamp-request message C router-advertisement message B source-quench message
248 Who can send ICMP error-reporting messages? A routers C routers or destination hosts B destination hosts
249 Multicast link state routing uses the which kind of tree approach. A source-based C destination-based B group-shared
250 MOSPF is a A data-driven protocol C 251 both data- and command-driven B command-driven protocol
In the stop-and-wait protocol, the send window size is ______ and the receive window size is _______ where n is related to the number of bits in the sequence. A 1, 1 C n, 1 B 1, n
D n, n
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In the go-back-N protocol, the send window size is ______ and the receive window size is _______, where n is related to the number of bits in the sequence. number. A 1, 1 C n, 1 B 1, n
D n, n
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In the selective-repeat protocol, the send window size is ______ and the receive window size is _______, where n is related to the number of bits in the sequence. A 1, 1 C n, 1 B 1, n
D n, n
254 The checksum in SCTP is A 16 bits C 64 bits B 32 bits
D 128 bits
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255 The association identifier in SCTP cannot be a combination of logical and port addresses because of A multistream services C multistream and multihoming services B multihoming service
256 Network programming needs information to be in __________ byte order. A host C client B network
257 SOCK_STREAM sockets are used by A UDP process C SCTP process B TCP Process
258 SOCK_DGRAM sockets are used by ______ processes. A UDP process C SCTP process B TCP Process
259 SOCK_RAW sockets are used by ______ processes. A UDP process C SCTP process B TCP Process
260 IPv6 allows _________ security provisions than IPv4. A more C 261 same B less
The web standerd allows programmers on many different computer platforms to dispersed format and display the information server These programs are called A Internet Explorer C Web Browser B HTML
D None of thse
262 Which of following tag will create a number/order list? A <UL> C <OL> B <OT>
D None of these
263 <DIR> tag can have only A 12 characters C 22 characters B 18 characters
D 24 characters
264 The optical amplifier will
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A C
Converts optical signal to electrical signal, reshape and convert back to Optical Both A and B
Re-amplifies the origional signal
D None of these
265 Optical Regenerator will A C Converts optical signal to electrical signal, reshape and convert back to Optical Both A and B B Re-amplifies the origional signal
D None of these
266 Interface type T1 can support data rate in Mbps A 1.544 C 2.048 B 44.736
D 155.52
267 Interface type T3 can support data rate in Mbps A 1.544 C 2.048 B 44.736
D 155.52
268 Which of the following command of SMTP responsible for terminate SMTP connection A HELO C QUIT B STOP
D NOOP
269 SAN stands for A Service Area Network C Standard Area Network B Storage Area Network
D Super Area Network
270 NAS stands for A Network Analysis Storage C 271 Nework attached service B Network Attached Storage
D None of these
Which of the following statements is/are true? S1: The transport layer is responsible for delivery messages between hosts that may or may not be on different networks S2: The network layer is responsible for delivery messages between processes A only S1 C Both S1 and S2 B Only S2
D None of these
272 Which of the following devices translates dissimilar network protocols? A Router C Switch B Repeater
D Gateway
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Which of the following statements is/are true? S1: MAC addresses are used to address individual devices on the same LAN S2: MAC addresses are assigned by the manufecturer and are globally unique A S1 true, S2 false C Both S1 and S2 are true B S1 false, S2 true
D Both are false
274 An advantages of a switch over a hub would be A Guarantees wire speed C 275 Segments by MAC addresses B Connects multiple segments
D Runs BGP transport protocol
Which of the following statements is/are true? S1: Network layer dividing the transmitted bit stream into frames S2: Network layer determining which route through the subnet to use A S1 true, S2 false C Both S1 and S2 are true B S1 false, S2 true
D Both are false
276 If the divisor is binary equivalent of X8 + X3 + X + 1 then CRC will be A 2 bit C 8 bit B 3 bit
D 9 bit
277 A virtual connection for the ATM network is defined by a pair of A VPI and VCI C 278 The channel capacity is 125 MBPS, maximum packet size is 1000 bytes, round trip time is 100microsecond, then transmission time is A 1 microsecond C 1 milisecond B 8 microsecond VCP and VPP B VCI and VPP
D None of these
D 8 milisecond
279 The channel capacity is 125 MBPS, maximum packet size is 1000 bytes, round trip time is 100microsecond, then ulilization of the sender is A 5% C 7.40% B 2.50%
D 8.70%
280 The distance between A and B is 4000km, propagation delay is 5microsecond/km for the both the links. The data rate between A to B is 100kbps and full duplex kind. Data frames are size of 1000 bits long and ACK frames are negligible.Window size is 4. If RTT between A and C is 50ms then what is the distance between B and C?
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A 1000 KM C 3000 KM
2000 KM
D 4000 KM
281 The distance between A and B is 4000km, propagation delay is 5microsecond/km for the both the links. The data rate between A to B is 100kbps and full duplex kind. Data frames are size of 1000 bits long and ACK frames are negligible.Window size is 4. What is the required transmission rate between B and C so the buffer of the node B are not flooded? A 100 kbps C 282 Consider 100baseT cable Ethernet with an efficiency of 50%. Assume frame length of 1kB and propagation 8 speed in the cable is 2x10 m/sec. Calculate the distance between a node and the hub A 4 km C 283 Consider a token ring consisting of 20 stations with 10 mt distance between each. If propagation speed is 2x108 m/sec. and per station 5 bit delay, then what will be ring latency if ring bandwidth is 10Mbps? A 7 microsecond C 284 11 microsecond B 10 microsecond 2.7 km B 3.2 km 200 kbps B 150 kbps
D 250 kbps
D 4.8 km
D None of these
A 4 Mbps token ring has token holding time value of 10msec. What is the longest frame (in bytes) that can be sent on this ring? A 40000 C 5000 B 400
D None of these
285
Let TCP operates over a 10Gbps link. If TCP uses the full bandwidth continuously, how long would it take the sequence numbers to wraparound completely? A 4 ms C 1 second B 0.4 second
D None of these
286
if TCP RTT is currently 20 ms and ACK comes in after 30 ms then what is the timeout period for the next transmission? Use alpha=0.9 and Beta=2. A 84 ms C 21 ms B 116 ms
D 29 ms
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Assume a TCP implementation over a 10Gbps link with one way delay of 80ms. If TCP receiver window is 2MB and TCP send 1kB packet then how many RTTS does it take until slow start opens the congestion window to 2MB? Assume no congestion and no packet lost. A 11 RTT C 8 RTT B 10 RTT
D 14 RTT
288 State true (T) and false (F) of the following Persistent connection is default in HTTP 1.1 HTTP supports proxy servers HTTP uses well known port 23 A TTF C 289 There are 15 users communicationg to each other. How many pairs of the keys are required to authenticate the communication is symmetric key is used? A 15 C 290 105 B 30 TTT B TFF
D FTF
D 225
In which way does a Firewall increase the security of a VPN? A C Configured to allow certain ports to access the VPN Restrict the use of specific application software on the network B D Physically protects the network from catching fire Limits the speed in which transmission of data is carried out
291 The initial 8 bits of the IP packets are 01000010, Then what will be the version of IP version A IP version 4 C Both B IP version 6
D None of these
292 An IP pcaket has arrived with the first few hexadecimal digits as below, then how many hops this packet can travels? 45000028000100000102 A Only 1 Hop C Only 3 Hop B Only 2 Hop
D None of these
293 Kerberos is a A Authentication protocol C Integrity protocol B Security protocol
D None of these
294 If transmitted bit sequence is 111000111000 the which of the following is a example of burst error
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A 111100111000 C 111010111000
111000111100
D 111111111000
295 Xpointer specification essentially extends you which specification A XHTML C Xpath B XL Link
D Xreference
296 DOM is a A Coding style C Document Object Model, a parser B Document model , a specification
D None of these
297 If we have to process huge XML document to read it and to insert the records in to the database, and there are limited memory resources, which parsing API would you use? A DOM C Either A or B B SAX
D None of these
298 XML Schema divides data types into two main categories they are A Simplex, Complex C Standard, custom B Machine dependent, machine Independent
D String, Number
299 Which is the documents that describes how the data will be exchanged, and acts as a kind of contract between the sender and the receiver? A Schema C XSLT stylesheet B DTD
D Both A and B
300 What is one of the better known early implementation of XML based communication protocol? A SOAP C XML-RPC B RemoteXML
D None of these
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Which one of the following is universal gate? A AND B NOR C NOT D XOR Advantage of synchronous sequential circuit over asynchronous ones is A faster operation B ease of avoiding problems due to hazards C lower hardware requirement D better noise immunity Which of the following is the first integrated logic family A RTL B DTL C TTL D MOS The functional capacity for VLSI devices is A 1 to 11 gates B 12 to 99 gates C 100 to 10000 gates D More than 10000 gates A shift register can be used for A Parallel to serial conversion B Serial to parallel conversion C Digital delay line D All of these. Parallel adders are A Combinational logic circuit. B Sequential logic circuit. C Both (a) & (b) D None of above. VLSI stands for A Very large scale integration B Very logical switch interface C Very large switch integration D None of these 2's complement of any binary number can be calculated by A adding 1's complement twice B adding 1 to 1's complement calculating 1's complement and inverting C D subtracting 1 from 1's complement. Most significant bit Which of the number is not a representative of hexadecimal system A 1234 B ABCD C 1001 D DEFH The values that exceed the specified range can not be correctly represented and are considered A Overflow B Carry Parity C D Sign value In ANSI/IEEE Standard 754 ' Mantissa ' is represented by _________ bits A 8-bits B 16-bits C 23-bits D 64-bits BCD to 7-Segment decoder has A 3 inputs and 7 outputs B 4 inputs and 7 outputs C 7 inputs and 3 outputs D 7 inputs and 4 outputs The decimal 8 is represented as _________ using Gray Code. A 11 B 1100 C 1000 D 1010 A NAND gate's output is LOW if A all inputs are LOW B all inputs are HIGH C any input is LOW D any input is HIGH NOR gate is formed by connecting _________ A OR Gate and then NOT Gate B NOT Gate and then OR Gate C AND Gate and then OR Gate D OR Gate and then AND Gate The AND Gate performs a logical __________function
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A Addition B Subtraction C Multiplication D Division The OR gate performs Boolean ___________. A multiplication B subtraction C division D addition The output of an AND gate is one when _______ A All of the inputs are one B Any of the input is one Any of the input is zero C D All the inputs are zero A NOR's gate output is HIGH if A all inputs are HIGH B any input is HIGH C any input is LOW D all inputs are LOW the boolean expression AB'CD' is A a sumterm B a product term C a literal term D always 1 the boolean expression A + B' + C is A a sum term B a literal term C a product term D a complemented term A (bar)B +A(bar)BC(bar)+AC is an example of ________ A Product of sum form B Sum of product form C Demorgans law D Associative law An example of SOP expression is A A + B(C + D) B A'B + AC' + AB'C C (A' + B + C)(A + B' + C) D both (a) nad (b) Half-Adder Logic circuit contains _____ XOR Gates A 1 B 2 4 C D 6 Using multiplexer as parallel to serial converter requires ___________ connected to the A A parallel to serial converter circuit B A counter circuit C A BCD to Decimal decoder D A 2-to-8 bit decoder A demultiplexer has A one input and several outputs B one input and one output C several inputs and several outputs D several inputs and one output The main use of the Multiplexer is to Select data from multiple sources and to Select data from Single source and to route A B route it to a single Destination it to a multiple Destinations Select data from Single source and to Select data from multiple sources and to C D route to single destination route to multiple destinations The PROM consists of a fixed non-programmable ____________ Gate array configured as a A AND B OR C NOT D XOR Tri-State Buffer is basically a/an _________ gate. A AND B OR C NOT D XOR GAL is an acronym for ________. A Giant Array Logic B General Array Logic C Generic Array Logic D Generic Analysis Logic ASCII code is a bit code.
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A 1 B 2 C 7 D 8 8421 codes is also called as. A Gray code B ASCII code C excess 3-code D BCD code ECL stands for A a) Emitter control logic B Emitter complementary logic Emitter coupled logic C D Emitter coded logic When an inverter is placed between both inputs of SR flip flop the resulting flip flop is A JK Flip flop B D Flip flop C T Flip flop D Master Slave JK Flip flop The boolean function AB+A(B+C) +B(B+C) is equivalent to A A+BC B B+A C AB+BC D B+AC 10s complement of 428 is A 571 B 572 C -571 D -572 when PUSH is executed , the stack pointer register is decremented by A 1 B 2 C 0 D Offset value Sum-of-Weights method is used to convert from one number system to A B other to encode data C to decode data D to convert from serial to parralel data which of the following rules states that if one input of an AND gate is always 1, the output is A A +1 =1 B A +A =A C A.A = A D A.1= A Which one of the following is NOT a valid rule of Boolean algebra? A A = A' B AA = A C A+1=1 D A+0=A The binary value ' 1010110 ' is equivalent to decimal A 86 B 87 C 88 D 89 2's complement of 5 is A 1101 B 1011 C 0101 D 1100 The Extended ASCII Code (American Standard Code for Information Interchange) is a _____ code A 2-bit B 7-bit C 8-bit D 16-bit One advantage TTL has over CMOS is that TTL is A less expensive B not sensitive to electrostatic discharge C faster D more widely available 8-bit parallel data can be converted into serial data by using ________ multiplexer A 4-to-2 B 4-to-4 C 8-to-1 D 8-to-4 The boolean expression X = AB + CD represents A two ORs ANDed together B a 4-input AND gate
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C two ANDs ORed together D an exclusive-Or The expression _________ is an example of Commutative Law for Multiplication. A AB+C = A+BC B A(B+C) = B(A+C) C AB=BA D A+B=B+A (A+B).(A+C) = ___________ A B+C B A+BC C AB+C D AC+B A.(B + C) = A.B + A.C is the expression of _________________ A Demorgan's Law B Commutative Law C Distributive Law D Associative Law A.(B.C) = (A.B).C is an expression of __________ A Demorgan's Law B Distributive Law Commutative Law C D Associative Law A non-standard POS is converted into a standard POS by using the rule _____ A A+A(bar) = 1 B AA(bar) =0 C 1+A=1 D A+B = B+A In a 4-variable K-map, a 2-variable product term is produced by A a 2-cell group of 1s B a 8-cell group of 1s C a 4-cell group of 1s D a 4-cell group of 0s The 3-variable Karnaugh Map (K-Map) has _______ cells for min or max terms A 4 B 8 C 12 D 16 The 4-variable Karnaugh Map (K-Map) has _______ cells for min or max terms A 4 B 8 C 12 D 16 On a Karnaugh map, grouping the 0s produces A a POS expression B a SOP expression C a "don't care" condition D AND-OR logic Which gate is best used as a basic comparator? A NOR B OR exclusive-OR C D AND A particular Full Adder has A 3 inputs and 2 output B 3 inputs and 3 output C 2 inputs and 3 output D 2 inputs and 2 output For a 3-to-8 decoder how many 2-to-4 decoders will be required? A 4 B 3 C 2 D 1 The range of Excess-8 code is from ______ to ______ A +7 to -8 B +8 to -7 C +9 to -8 D -9 to +8 GAL can be reprogrammed because instead of fuses _______ logic is used in it A E^2CMOS B TTL C CMOS+ D None of the given options A latch has _____ stable states A One B Two C Three D Four An S-R latch can be implemented by using _________ gates
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A AND, OR B NAND, NOR C NAND, XOR D NOT, XOR The Quad Multiplexer has _____ outputs A 4 B 8 C 16 D 12 Half adder consist of. &..Gates A EX-OR&AND B EX-OR&OR EX-OR&NOT C D None of this In half adder EX-OR gate O/P is A Carry B Remainder C Sum D None of this For getting an output from an XNOR gate, its both inputs must be A high B low C at the same logic level D at the opposite logic level Which of the following expressions is not equivalent to x'? A x NAND X B x NOR x C x NAND 1 D x NOR 1 The complement of a variable is always A 1 B 0 The inverse of the variables correct C D answer None The difference of 111 - 001 equals B 111 A 100 C 001 D 110 In the binary number ' 10011 ' the weight of the most significant digit is A 2^4(2 raise to power 4) B 2^3 (2 raise to power 3) C 2^0 (2 raise to power 0) D 2^1 (2 raise to power 1) 2's complement of hexadecimal number B70A is A B70B B B709 C 48F6 D 48F5 The 4-bit 2's complement representation of ' -7 ' is A 111 B 1111 C 1001 D 110 The output of the expression F=A+B+C will be Logic ________ when A=0, B=1, C=1. the symbol ' + A Undefined B One C Zero D 10 (binary) Fan-out is specified in terms of A voltage B current C watt D unit loads Generally, the Power dissipation of _______ devices remains constant throughout their operation A TTL B CMOS 3.5 series Power dissipation of all circuits increases C D CMOS 5 Series with time. A logic circuit with an output X = A(Bar)BC+AB(Bar) consists of ________. two AND gates, two OR gates, two three AND gates, two OR gates, one A B inverters inverter
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two AND gates, one OR gate, two D inverters two AND gates, one OR gate To implement the expression AB(bar)CD+ ABC(bar)D+ ABCD (bar), it takes one OR gate and A three AND gates and three inverters B three AND gates and four inverters C three AND gates D one AND gate Determine the values of A, B, C, and D that make the sum term A(bar) + B+C(bar)+D equal to zero. A A = 1, B = 0, C = 0, D = 0 B A = 1, B = 0, C = 1, D = 0 A = 0, B = 1, C = 0, D = 0 C D A = 1, B = 0, C = 1, D = 1 According to Demorgan's theorem: (A+B+C)bar = ______________ A A.B.C B A+(B.C )Bar C A(Bar).B(Bar).C(Bar) D A.B(Bar)+C A SOP expression is equal to 1 All the variables in domain of expression At least one variable in domain of A B are present expression is present. When one or more product terms in the When one or more product terms in the D C expression are equal to 0. expression are equal to 1. Adjacent 1s detector circuit will have active low output for the input A 1101 B 1010 C 0110 D 1011 If ' 1110 ' is applied at the input of BCD-to-Decimal decoder which output pin will be activated: A 2nd B 3rd C 4th D No output will be activated The _______ Encoder is used as a keypad encoder. A 2-to-8 encoder B 4-to-16 encoder C BCD-to-Decimal D Decimal-to-BCD Priority Subtract ( 1010)2 from ( 1101 )2 using 1s complement A (1100)2 B (0011)2 C (1001)2 D (0101)2 Conversion of hexadecimal number (69)16 to octal equivalent will give A 451 B 351 251 C D 151 The difference between two decimal numbers 87 and 63 in binary format will be A 10100 B 11000 C 10010 D None Which of the following functions implements the Karnaugh map shown below? A a) AB+CD B D(C+A) C AD+AB D (C+D)(C+D)+(A+B) The number of full and half-adders required to add 16-bit numbers is A 4 half-adders, 12 full-adders B 16 half-adders, 0 full-adders C 8 half-adders, 8 full-adders D 1 half-adder, 15 full-adders Which of the following logic families has the highest noise immunity? A RTL B DTL C TTL D HTL Which of the following Boolean algebra statements represents commutative law? A (A+B)+C=A(B+C) B A.(B+C)=(A.B)+(A.C) C A+B=B+A D A+A=A Let X and Y be the inputs and Z be the output of XOR gate. The value of Z is given by C
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A X+Y B X.Y C (X.Y) D XY+XY If we multiply ' 723 ' and ' 34 ' by representing them in floating point notation i.e. by first, A 24.582 B 2.4582 C 24582 D 0.24582 Which one is true: Power consumption of TTL is higher than Power consumption of CMOS is higher than B A of CMOS of TTL Power consumption of both CMOS and TTL C Both TTL and CMOS have same power D depends on no. of gates in the consumption circuit. 3.3 v CMOS series is characterized by __________ and _________as compared to the 5 v CMOS Low switching speeds, high power Fast switching speeds, high power A B dissipation dissipation Fast switching speeds, very low power Low switching speeds, very low power D C dissipation dissipation The minterm expansion for F(A,B,C) = (A + B + C)(A + B' + C')(A' + B + C')(A' + B' + C) is A F (A,B,C) = Pi M(0,3,5,6) B F(A,B,C) = Summation m(0,3,5,6) C F(A,B,C) = Summation m(0,3,5,6) D F(A,B,C) = Summation m(1,2,4,7) The binary numbers A = 1100 and B = 1001 are applied to the inputs of a comparator. What are A A > B = 1, A < B = 0, A < B = 1 B A > B = 0, A < B = 1, A = B = 0 C A > B = 1, A < B = 0, A = B = 0 D A > B = 0, A < B = 1, A = B = 1 Two 2-input, 4-bit multiplexers 74X157 can be connected to implement a ____multiplexer. A 4-input, 8-bit B 4-input, 16-bit C 2-input, 8-bit D 2-input, 4-bit What will be the decimal equivalent of 111011.10 A 48.625 B 59.487 C 48.487 D 59.625 What will be the hexadecimal equivalent of decimal number 54977 A D6C1 B DC61 D6C5 C D none The sum of octal numbers (25)8 + (52)8 +(33)8 is : A (90)10 B (132)8 C (5A)16 D All above
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Transfer between registers takes place when A There is an interrupt B There is a control signal There is an execution C D There is a fetch Which technique allows DMA controller to transfer one data word at a time. A Bus transfer B cycle stealing C Bus grant D bit stealing An associative memory is also called A Content addressable memory B Virtual memory C Main memory D Secondary memory Advantage of CMOS technology over a MOS is A lower power dissipation B greater speed C smaller chip size D fewer masks for fabrication Program counter contains A The address of the current instruction B Data which is to be processed The address of the next instruction to C D be executed Counter value that is used in the program CD-ROM is a A Semiconductor memory B Memory register C Magnetic memory D None of the above Actual execution of instructions in a computer takes place in A ALU B Storage unit C Control Unit D None of the above Which of the following is used as a primary storage device A Magnetic tape B PROM C Floppy disk D None of the above Information retrieval is faster from A Floppy disk B Magnetic tape C Hard disk D None of the above The communication line between the CPU, memory and peripherals is called a A Bus B line media C D none of these The main three component of a digital computer system are A memory, IO, DAM B ALU CPU Memory C Memory CPU IO D CU ALU Registers Which register is responsible for computation in any computer system ? A Special Register B C Register C B Register D Accumulator ALP stands for A All Language Programming B Assembly Language Programming C Accumulator Language Programming D All Low Programming RTL stands for A Resgister Transfer Language B Register Transistor Language C Register Translation Language D Register Transformation Language Which of the following statement is true ? PC points to the last instruction that was A B ROM is read / write memory executed C Stack works on the principle of LIFO D All instructions affect the flag
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Which of the following are registers ? A Accumulator B Stack Pointer Program Counter C D All of the above The main difference(s) between a ClSC and a RISC processor is/are that a RISC processor typically is easier to implement using hard-wired A B control logic has fewer instructions D has fewer addressing modes C has more registers The total size of address space in a virtual memory system is limited by A the length of MAR B the available secondary storage C the available main memory D all of above Which of the following requires value of data with the instruction A Direct B indirect base index C D Immediate The access method used for magnetic tape is_________ A Direct B Random C Sequential D None of the above Which is an important data transfer technique ? A CPU B DMA C CAD D None of these Which disk read the data by reflecting pulses of laser beams on the surface ? A Magnetic disk B Soft disk C Floppy disk D Optical disk UART stands for A
Universal asynchronization receiver/transmitter United asynchronous C receiver/transmitter
B D
Universal asynchronous receiver/transmitter Universal automatic receiver/transmitter
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______operations are the results of I/O operations that are written in the computer program A Programmed I/O B DMA C Handshaking D Strobe DMAC stands for A
Direct memory accumulator controller C Direct memory access content
Direct memory access controller D Direct main access controller
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Which may be classified as a processor with the direct memory access capability that communicates A DCP B IOP C Both a & b D None Which is used for this and known as high speed buffer exist with almost each process? A Primary B RAM C Cache D None of these ___ decrements SP (the stack pointer) by two and then transfers a word from the source operand to A Pop B CALL C MOV D PUSH Data bus is A Uni-directional B Bi-directional
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C Non-directional D None of the given Control bus________ A is Not Important. B is Important C is bidirectional D is unidirectional Which of the following is an invalid addressing mode ? A immediate B direct C register D micro Which is the invalid instruction type ? A 0-address B Binary C 1-address D 2-address MRI stands for A Memory register instruction B Memory regular instruction Memory reference instruction C D Most register instruction When an interrupt occurs, following will take place A Execution cycle B Register cycle C Fetch cycle D Interrupt cycle RISC stands for A Reduced Instruction Set Computer B Register Instruction Set Computer C Register Interrupt Set Computer D Reduced Interrupt Set Computer The language which is understandable by the computer system is known as A ALP B Machine language C OPCODE D Higher language Which of the following is not a valid expression notation ? A Prefix notation B Postfix notation C Outfix notation D Infix notation Expressions can be evaluated with the help of which data structure ? A Stack B Queue C Register D Accumulator Which is considered as the most basic operation in a computer system ? A Instruction B Microoperation Pseudoinstruction C D Minioperation Stack is nothing but a set of A reserved ROM address space B reserved RAM address space C reserved IO address space D none of the above If negative numbers are stored in 2's complement system, the range of numbers that can be stored A -128 to +128 B -128 to +127 C -127 to +128 D -127 to +127 To achieve parallelism one needs a minimum of A 2 processors B 3 processors C 4 processors D none of the above Any instruction should have at least A 2 operands B 1 operands C 3 operands D none of the above Which of the following is not typically found in the status register ? A Overflow B Zero result C Negative result D none of the above Which of the following architecture is not suitable for realizing SIMD ?
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A Vector Processor B Array processor C Von Neumann D All of the above Which of the following units can be used to measure the speed of a computer ? A SYPS B BIPS C BAUD D FLOPS Bubble memory is preffered over floppy disks because A of their higher transfer rate B the cost to store a bit is less consume less power C D the cost to store a bit is high All register reference instruction that use accumulator are A Implied mode instruction B Indirect mode instruction Based index addressing mode C D instruction Immediate mode instruction A certain processor supports only the immediate and the direct addressing modes. Which of the A Pointers B Arrays C Records D Recursive procedures with local variable when PUSH is executed , the stack pointer register is decremented by A 1 B 2 C 0 D Offset value The operating mode of I/O devices is_______ for different device A Same B Different C Optimum D Medium There are 2 ways in which addressing can be done in memory and I/O device A Isolated I/O B Memory-mapped I/O C Both a & b D None of these If CPU and I/O interface share a common bus than transfer of data b/w 2 units is said to be A Synchronous B Asynchronous C Clock dependent D Decoder independent ______processor has to check continuously till device becomes ready for transferring the data A Interrupt-initiated I/O B DMA C IOP D DCP When two devices in the system want to use the same IRQ line then what will happen? A An IRQ Conflict B An IRQ Crash C An IRQ Collision D An IRQ Blockage CX register mostly use a A Counter register B Flag register C Base register D Desination register When the operand of DIV instruction is of 16-bits then implied dividend will be stored in______ A AX register B The concatenation of DX and AX C The concatenation of ES and AX D The concatenation of DS and BX The source register in OUT is A AL or AX B BL or BX C CL or CX D DL or DX To transfer control back the RET instruction take A 1 argument B 2 argument C 3 arguments D No arguments In assembly the CX register is used normally as a ______________register
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A source B pointer C index D counter When a 16 bit number is divided by an 8 bit number, the dividend will be in A AX B BX C CX D DX A 32bit address register can access upto ............................of memory A 2 GB B 4 GB 6 GB C D 8 GB When the subprogram finishes, the ____________________ retrieves the return address from the A CALL instruction B POP instruction C Jump instruction D RET instruction In total: dw 0 Opcode total is a ___________ A Literal B Variable C Label D Starting point In mov ax, 5 is _____________ Addressing Mode A Immediate B Indirect C Direct D Register In mov [SI], AX is _____________ Addressing Mode A Base Register Indirect B Indirect C Indexed Register Indirect D Immediate In mov ax, [bx - Si] is ___________ Addressing Mode A Base Register Indirect B Indirect C Direct D Illegal A computer with 32 bit data bus uses 4 K X 8 static RAM memory chips. The smallest memory this A 32 K B 16 K 8 K C D 24 K PSW does not have following flag A Zero B Sign C Overflow D Positive Instructions which are not meant for execution are known as A Fakeinstructions B Extrainstruction C Noninstruction D Pseudoinstructions Increment operation is incorporated with which instruction ? A IZS B ISZ C ICR D CIR Following cannot be part of an instruction A Lable B Opcode C Comment D Data The fastest memory available on earth is A RAM B Cache C ROM D Register The instruction used to shift right the accumulator content by one bit through the carry flag bit is A RLC B RAL RRC C D RAR The only interrupt that is edge triggered is A INTR B TRAP C RST 7.5 D RST 5.5
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Which is the non-maskale interrupt ? A TRAP B RST 7.5 INTR C D RST 6.5 A typical application of MIMD is A railway reservation B weather forecasting C matrix multiplication D all of above SIMD can be used for A railway reservation B parallel processing C matrix multiplication D all of above The advantage of single bus over multibus is the A Low cost B Parallel operation C High operating speed D All of the above The addressing mode used in the instruction PUSH B is A Direct B Register C Register Indirect D Immediate The addressing mode used in the instruction ADD X, Y is A Absolute B Immediate C Indirect D Indexed When a very large number is divided by very small number so that the quotient is larger than the A Divide logical error B Divide overflow error C Divide syntax error D An illegal instruction There is a central register in every processor called the _______ and The word size of a processor is A accumulator,accumulator B data bus,accumulator C accumulator, Address Bus D accumulator,memory ___________does not hold data but holds the address of data A Pointer, Segment, or Base Register B Pointer, Index, or Base Register C General Registers D Instruction Pointer Memory references are processed in which pass of the assembler ? A 1 pass B 2 pass C 3 pass D 4 pass Address symbol table is built in which pass of the assembleer ? A 1 pass B 2 pass C 3 pass D 4 pass FetchDecode.Execute phases are overlapped to spped up the overall execution A Vector Processing B Parallel Execution C Pipelining D Parallel Processing Content of a register is shifted in circular manner for following instruction A CIL B ICL C ISZ D SIZ Which notation is considered to be the best for execution of an instruction ? A Prefix notation B Infix notation C Postfix notation D Outfix notation The speed imbalance between memory access and CPU operation can be reduced by A Memory Compaction B Memory interleaving C Reducing the size of memory D Inreasing the size of memory In a vector interrupt the
interrupting source supplies the branch A branch address is assigned to a fixed B information to the processor through interrrupt location in memory vector branch address is obtained from D C register in the processor none of the above 92 Which of the following instruction may be used to clear the content of accumulator ? B ORA A A CLR A SUB A C D MOV A, 00h 93 Which of the following is the typical characteristic of RISC machine ? A Instructions taking multiple cycles B Highly pipelined Instructions interpreted by C D microprogramme None of above 94 A microprogramed control unit facilitated easy implementation of new A B instructions is faster than a hard wired control unit is useful when very small programs to useally referes to the control unit of a C D be run microprocessor 95 Which of the following instruction may be used to save the accumulator value onto the stack ? B PUSH A A PUSH PSW C PUSH SP D POP PSW 96 Von Neumann architecture is A SISD B SIMD C MIMD D MISD 97 A computer uses 8 digit mantissaand 2 digit exponent. If a=0.052 and b=28E + 11 then b+a-b will A overflow error B underflow errror 0 C D 5.28E + 11 98 The most relevant addressing mode to write position independent code is A Direct mode B Indirect mode C Relative mode D Indexed mode 99 The seek time of a disk is 30 ms. It rotates at the rate of 30 rotations per second. Each track has a A 47 ms B 50 ms C 60 ms D 62 ms 100 The number of instructions needed to add 'n' numbers and store the result in memory using only A n B n-1 C n+1 D independent of 'n'

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1

Phase defination is covered in A CMM 1 C CMM 0 B CMM 2 D All of Above

Equivalence partitioning is:

Use Case is used for A Capture test cases B Capture requirements

D all of the above.

B State Transition Testing D none of the above.

B ability of system to support users D all of the above.

W - model is updation of A SpiralModel C V- Model B Waterfall model D all of the above.

Test Planning includes

B Test methods D all of the above.

B Silktest D all of the above.

B BugZilla D all of the above.

COTS example is A Autocad C Mcafee B Flash D all of the above.

D all of the above.

COTS is for A Reliablility C Portability B Reusablility D all of the above.

D Boundry Value Analysis

B WalkThrough D all of the above.

B WalkThrough D all of the above.

Nonfunctional requirement is A Reliability C maintainability B usability D All of above

Important aspect of coding is

B efficiency D all of the above.

B data design D All of above

B Information Hiding D 90-120 days

The process is at least documented in CMM A Level 1 C Level 3 B Level 2 D Level 4

A P and R C P and S 77 An index is clustered, if

Number of final users of the software

A Stamp coupling C Control coupling 80

B Content coupling D Data coupling

Cohesion is closely bound to A Inheritance C coupling B abstraction D None of above

C Software requirement specification D 85

B Unit testing D Mutation testing

Reliability of software is directly dependent on A user requirement B number of errors present

C quality of the design 94

D software engineers experience

Reliability of software is directly dependent on A user requirement B number of errors present

C quality of the design 104

D software engineers experience

C Project's planning 112 Risk management is associated with A ISO 9000

C ISO 31000 113 Composite Risk Index value =

A Riskevent/Probability of occurance B C Constant (3.0) 114

Risk event x Probability of Occurrence

A perfective C corrective 120

B adaptive D none of above

Random testing will always find the bug

C Ea = Eb 131 Informational cohesion is a realization of A Data abstraction C concurrency 132

D both (A) and (C)

B modularity D data hiding

133 The largest %cost of software life cycle is in

Which is not a component of Object Oriented s/w Engineering?

Cyclomatic complexity metric provide information regarding number of

A error in the program

B cycle in the program

C independent logical path 136

D statement in the program

Which of the following is not the characteristic of software ?

A Software does not wear out C Software is not manufactured 138

B Software is flexible D Software is always correct

Which of the following is not a product matrix ? A C Reliability B Productivity D Size

Efforts is measured in terms of ? A Rupee C Person - Months B Person D Month

Match the following

A 1-A , 2-C , 3-D, 4-B C 1-C , 2-A , 3-B, 4-D 142

B 1-B , 2-C , 3-D, 4-A D 1-C , 2-A , 3-D, 4-B

D code generator,code optimization

Which is the substring of string gujarat? A gjrt C gja B jar D rag

What will be the precedence relation id + id

A id1:=id2+id360 C temp1:=id360 id1:=id2+temp1 66