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3. Female patient complains of blurring of
vision, was prescribed -0.5D spherical
AIIMS MD ENTRANCE lenses, retinoscopy done at 1m with a plane
PAPER nov 18 2001 mirror will cause the image to move in which
manner?
WITH SUGGESTED • IMAGE MOVES IN DIRECTION OF
ANSWERS. MIRROR
1 • IMAGE MOVES IN THE OPPOSITE
Read our disclaimer before continuing
DIRECTION
• NO MOVEMENT OF THE IMAGE
• SCISSORS REFLEX IS SEEN
DISCUSS CONTROVERSIAL QUESTIONS
ANS- (A)
AT MESSAGE BOARD
4. What is the most common eye
Last Updated 4 JAN 2002 (with some
manifestation of allergy to tubercular bacilli?
explanations & references )
• KOEPPES NODULES
• POSTERIOR SCLERITIS
• PHLYCTENULAR CONJUNCTIVITIS
1. Young patient developed painless sudden • OPTIC NEURITIS
loss if vision which spontaneously improved
over a period of 3 months .what is the most ANS - (C)
probable diagnosis ?
Harrison------"Tuberculosis may cause
• MACULAR HOLE chorioretinitis, uveitis, panophthalmitis, and
• CENTRAL SEROUS RETINOPATHY painful hypersensitivity-related
• ANGLE GLAUCOMA PHLYCTENULAR CONJUNCTIVITIS [aman
• RETINAL DETACHMENT jindal]
ANS B
5. What is the diagnosis for ropy discharge
from the eyes, along with itching, which
ref: page 194 rao opthalmology selflimiting occurs every summer?
and recurrent cause allergic, stress and
vasomotorinstability. [saurabh gupta] • VERNAL CATARRH
• BACTERIAL CONJUNCTIVITIS
2. Leucoria seen in all EXCEPT • TRACHOMA
• PHLYCTENULAR CONJUNCTIVITIS
• RETINOBLASTOMA
• CONGENITAL GLAUCOMA ANS (A)
• PERSISTANT HYPERPLASTIC
VITREOUS 6. Which wall is most often fractured in a
• FUNGAL ENDOPHTHALMITIS blow out fracture of the orbit due to fisticuff
injury?
ANS (B)
• SUPERIOR
• INFERIOR
1
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• MEDIAL when laser therapy is necessary based upon
• LATERAL the location of leaking areas. With this
knowledge, we can treat patients at the
ANS (B) appropriate time so as to prevent vision loss
and conversely, avoid unnecessary
7. Which of these is NOT useful in arriving at treatment for those for whom it is not
a diagnosis of moderate papilledema in a beneficial. [bhavna, jaipur]
patient of head injury?
9. What drug can be used that will provide
• IMPAIRED PUPILLARY REFLEX only mydriasis and no cycloplegia, for a
• HYPEREMIA fundus examination in a young adult patient?
• FILLING OF THE PHYSIOLOGICAL CUP
• BLURRING OF THE MARGINS • ATROPINE OINTMENT
• PHENYLEPRINE
ANS (A) • HOMATROPINE
• TROPICAMIDE
8. What is represented by ETDRS in a
diabetic vision chart? ANS (B)

• ELECTIVE TREATMENT FOR DIABETIC 10.Which of these is NOT caused by

RETINOPATHY SCALES amphotericin B?
• EXTENDED RX FOR DIABETES REVIEW
STUDY •AZOTEMIA
• EARLY TREATMENT DIABETIC •GLOMERULONEPHRITIS
RETINOPATHY STUDY •HYPOKALEMIA
• EYE TEST DRUM REVIEW STUDY •RENAL TUBULAR ACIDOSIS

ANS (C) [kunnal batra,jhansi ; Pinaki ANS (B)

sensarma,kolkata , Jinesh
Thomas,Ernakulam, Saurabh gupta, Dr. 11. Ingestion of what product by the mother
Vaibhav Jain,Raipur and others] may cause the infant to have cleft palate,
spina bifida and an (ASD doubtful)?
The Early Treatment Diabetic Retinopathy
Study (ETDRS) evaluated the effectiveness •ISOTRETINOIN
of laser treatment for the leaking phase of •VALPROATE
diabetic retinopathy. Patients with macular •PHENYTOIN
edema (leaking near or within the center part •CARBAMAZEPINE
of the retina, that part which is used for
reading, driving etc, see photo), were ANS (B)
randomly assigned to receive either laser
treatment to the leaking microaneurysms or 12. What is the most common cardiac defect
were simply observed without treatment. The caused due to lithium?
results showed that timely laser treatment
reduced the risk of moderately severe visual •EBSTEINS ANOMALY
loss by about three-fold at three years after •HOCM
treatment and significantly increased the •AORTIC ANEURYSM
likelihood of moderate visual gain. More •EISENMENGER SYNDROME
importantly, this study provides the treating
retinal specialist with a detailed guide as to ANS (A)

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13. A man is arrested for possession of
narcotics, the culprit is found to have black
tongue. What is likely to have been the
substance of abuse?
17. A 30 year old suffers from nephrotic
•HEROIN syndrome, has been on steroids for 14
•COCAINE years. Has bilateral difficulty in abduction
•CANNABIS and internal rotation of the hip. Attempt to
•ARSENIC flex results in abduction. What is the cause?

ANS (B) •AVASCULAR NECROSIS OF FEMUR

HEAD
14. A 25 yr old male experienced severe •SEPTIC ARTHRITIS
flushing, fall in blood pressure after intake of •RENAL OSTEODYSTROPHY
alcohol .The above described attack can be •HETEROTOPIC CALCIFICATION
precipitated by the simultaneous intake of all
the following drugs along with alcohol ANS (A)
EXCEPT which?
18. In which of these conditions in elevated
•CEFAMANDOLE HCG level NOT seen?
•METRONIDAZOLE
•DEXAMETHASONE •CHORIOCARCINOMA
•CHLORPROPAMIDE •POLYEMBRYOMA
•ENDODERMAL SINUS TUMOR
ANS (C) •EMBRYONAL CARCINOMA

15. A patient with H/O asthma develops ANS (C)

respiratory tract infection .He is on
theophylline, which of the following Harrison-- Endodermal sinus tumor is the
antibiotics may precipitate theophylline malignant counterpart of the fetal yolk sac
toxicity? and is associated with secretion of AFP.
Pure embryonal carcinoma may secrete
•ERYTHROMYCIN AFP, or hCG, or both; this pattern is
•SPARFLOXACIN biochemical evidence of differentiation.[Dr
•AMPICILLIN Jindal]
•COTRIMOXAZOLE
19. What could be the cause of tall QRS with
ANS (A) coarse features and hepatosplenomegaly?

16. In which condition is granulomatous •GLYCOGEN STORAGE DISEASE TYPE II

vasculitis NOT seen? •MARFANS SYNDROME
•ROMANO WARD SYNDROME
•MICROSCOPIC POLYANGIITIS •POMPES DISEASE
•WEGENERS GRANULOMATOSIS
•GIANT CELL ARTERITIS ANS (D)
•CHURG STRAUSS SYNDROME
ref. Harrison 15th pg 2288,Pompe`s disease
ANS (A) ( GSD 2 are of 4 types so pompe`s is
specific ans.) Har 14 th 2182

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20. What is the rx for torsades de pointes in 24. What drug should be avoided in the case
a patient who has had a prolonged QT of an HIV patient who is receiving
interval since birth? zalcitabine, indinavir and lamivudine?

•MAGNESIUM SULPHATE •INH

•OVERDRIVE PACING •RIFAMPIN
•ISOPROTERENOL •PZA
•METAPROLOL •ETHAMBUTOL

ANS (D) ANS (B)

Har14 th 1273 25. What is NOT true about multiple

myeloma?
21. Which of these is NOT a congenital
myopathy? •MORE IN THOSE OVER 50 YEARS
•CLONES OF PLASMA CELLS
•CENTRAL CORE DISEASE •BENCE JONES PROTEINS ARE
•NEMALINE DYSTROPHY ABNORMAL WHOLE IG IN URINE
•CENTRAL NUCLEAR DYSTROPHY •THERE IS A PREDISPOSITION TO
•Z BAND MYOPATHY AMYLOIDOSIS

ANS (D) [sivasubramanian coimbatore , ANS (C)

param indore]

( Har14th 2477)

22. In which of these conditions may CPK be

raised? 26. What is the likely diagnosis in a patient
who has low back ache, L3 tenderness, and
•MUSCLE DISEASE the following data: proteins 8.9, a-g ratio
•LIVER CIRRHOSIS 2.9/5.9, serum creat 5.5, TLC 4500, DLC
•BILIARY COLIC neutrophil55, lymphocyte40, eosinophil2 :
•AMYOTROPHIC LATERAL SCLEROSIS Urea was 93 and serum creat was 1.2.ESR
was 90 mm
ANS (A)
•WALDENSTROMS
23. Which of these following does NOT MACROGLOBULINEMIA
require the drug dose to be reduced in a •MULTIPLE MYELOMA
patient having hypertension, serum urea 55, •AMYLOIDOSIS
serum creatinine 5.6 •BONE SECONDARIES

•INH ANS (B) [Dr Anuj ,Hubli]

•RIFAMPIN
•PYRAZINAMIDE
•ETHAMBUTOL
27. Patient has target cells, nucleated RBCs,
ANS (B) microcytic hypochromic anemia and a
positive family history; what is the
investigation of choice?

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ANS (C) AND (A)
•COOMBS TEST
•OSMOTIC FRAGILITY 31. What is the likely diagnosis in a 25 year
•Hb ELECTROPHORESIS old who develops hematuria after 3 days of
•SUCROSE LYSIS TEST URI?

ANS (C) •IgA NEPHROPATHY

•PSGN
•HSP
•HUS
DISCUSS CONTROVERSIAL QUESTIONS
AT MESSAGE BOARD ANS (A)

28. Which of these is NOT a clinical feature

of hypercarbia?
32. An individual who underwent renal
•MIOSIS transplantation one year ago is found
•COLD CLAMMY EXTREMITIES positive for HBsAg and HCV. Rx with which
•BRADYCARDIA of the following will give this patient
•HYPERTENSION maximum benefit?

ANS (B,C) •LAMIVUDINE AND IFN

•LAMIVUDINE ALONE
discuss problems/tips at AIPPG message •RIBAVARINE
board •IFN

click here(new window will ) ANS (B) [vikas,jipmer ;Dr. Binit

Shekhar,Jamshedpur,Jitendra
29. A 25 year old male has a mantoux of 14 Agrawal,Gwalior ]
x 17, weight loss, off and on fever, and
hemoptysis for 4 months; sputum is negative As lamivudine is beneficial for
for AFB, ESR is raised; what is the likely chr.hep.B(replecative phase)& here in this
diagnosis? question there is no serum marker of
replecative phase i.e. HBeAg & HBV DNA in
•PTB serum or intrahepatic
•VIRAL PNEUMONIA HBcAg.Secondly,Lamivudine has got no role
•FUNGAL PNEUMONIA in the t/t. of HCV.Whereas Interferon is
•BRONCHOGENIC CARCINOMA effective in t/t. of both HBV &
HCV.REFF.page-1698(Last
ANS ( A) para.)1699(1st.para)1700(2nd.para)1701(t/t.
of chr.hcv.) Harrison,14th edition-IInd VOL.2

Ref : Harrison 1745 15th edition

30. What is NOT true about prion disease?
33. In which condition should propranolol
•10% HAVE MYOCLONUS NOT be used?
•CAUSED BY AN INFECTIOUS PROTEIN
•DEMENTIA IS UNIVERSAL •ASTHMA
•BRAIN BIOPSY IS DIAGNOSTIC •PANIC ATTACK

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•PREMATURE VENTRICULAR 37. What is NOT true about fibrolamellar
CONTRACTIONS cancer of liver?
•HYPERTROPHIC CARDIOMYOPATHY
•NOT MORE IN MALES
ANS (A) •BETTER PROGNOSIS
•AFP IS RAISED OVER 1000
•SEEN IN YOUNGER AGE G ROUP

34. Which of these is NOT a CNS anomaly ANS (C)

seen in HIV?

•PERIVASCULAR INFILTRATION
•MICROGLIAL NODULES 38. Which of these is adult PCKD associated
•VASCULAR MYELOPATHY OF THE with ?
POSTERIOR COLUMN
•TEMPORAL LOBE INVOLVEMENT

ANS (D) •FUSIFORM ABDOMINAL ANEURYSM

•BERRY ANEURYSM
35. What is NOT true regarding •SACCULAR ANEURYSM OF ASCENDING
toxoplasmosis? AORTA
•ANEURYSM OF THE ARCH OF AORTA
•IgG INDICATES CONGENITAL
INFECTION ANS (B)
•MOST INFECTIONS ARE
ANTHROPONOTIC 39. 18 year old boy presents with massive
•ADULT INFECTIONS ARE MAINLY hematemesis, spleen is evidently enlarged
SYMPTOMATIC upto the umbilicus. He is then found to have
•TOXO ENCEPHALITIS OCCURS IN varices on esophagoscopy. What could be
IMMUNOCOMPETENT PERSONS the diagnosis?

ANS (C) (corrected question) •BUDD CHIARI

•VENO OCCLUSIVE DISEASE
•NON CIRRHOTIC PORTAL FIBROSIS
•CIRRHOSIS OF THE LIVER
36. What is NOT true regarding an adult
hemophiliac who visits a dentist? ANS (C)

•CRYOPRECIPITATE MAY BE NEEDED

•DOSE OF LIDOCAINE REQIIRED IS
INCREASED 40. what is NOT true with regard to the adult
•HIV SCREENING IS REQUIRED polycystic kidney?
•MONITORED GA CARE TO BE GIVEN
•HEMATURIA
ANS (B) •HYPERTENSION IS RARE
•AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT
aippg TRANSMISSION
•CYSTS ARE SEEN IN THE LIVER,
SPLEEN AND PANCREAS

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ANS (B) •KALLMAN SYNDROME
•FRAGILE X SYNDROME

ANS (C)
DISCUSS CONTROVERSIAL QUESTIONS
AT MESSAGE BOARD 44. What is the next line of management for
a 25 year old woman who develops acute
pulmonary embolism?

41. 18 yr old presents with massive •THROMBOLYSIS

hematemesis; history of fever for the past 14 •LMW HEPARIN
days; rx with drugs; moderate spleen •ORAL ANTICOAGULANTS
present; diagnosis? •IVC FILTER

•NSAID INDUCED DUODENAL ULCER ANS (A)

•DRUG INDUCED GASTRITIS
•ESOPHAGEAL VARICES 45. A 30 yr old male patient presented with
•PORTAL HYPERTENSION H/O dizziness, vertigo, diplopia, dysphagia ,
weakness on the right side of the body,
ANS (C) along with Horners syndrome on the same
side. Loss of pain and temperature
42. A 25 year old male with no previous sensations on the left side was noted.
cardiac complaints presents with Patient also has loss of memory. The artery
arrhythmias. He gives a recent history of most likely to be involved in the condition
binge drinking. What is the pathology likely in described above is?
this patient?
•ANTERIOR INFERIOR CEREBELLAR
•ATRIAL FIBRILLATION •POSTERIOR INFERIOR CEREBELLAR
•SUPRAVENTRICULAR TACHYCARDIA •MIDDLE CEREBRAL
•VENTRICULAR ECTOPICS •SUPERIOR CEREBELLAR
•ATRIAL FLUTTER
ANS (B) [bhavna, shimla]
ANS (A)
Harrison 14th This is Lateral medullary
syndrome d/t involnvement of any of the 5
vessels Viz: Vertebral,Posterior Inferior
discuss problems/tips at AIPPG message cerebellar,Sup/meddle or Inferir medullary
board arteries So the ans is B(PICA)

click here(new window will ) 46. In which of the following conditions is

plasmapheresis IS useful?

•WEGENERS GRANULOMATOSIS
43. which condition may cause hypothalamic •HSP
hypogonadism? •GOOD PASTEURS SYNDROME
•GUILLAIN BARRE SYNDROME
•FROLICH SYNDROME
•FOSTER KENNEDY SYNDROME ANS (C) [nidhi,shimla]

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47. which of these does NOT feature eye •STREPTOCOCCUS PNEUMONIAE
manifestations in association with a sero •STREPTOCOCCUS SANGUIS
negative arthropathy? •STAPHYLOCOCCUS EPIDERMIDIS

•PSORIASIS ANS (C)

•RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS
•REITERS SYNDROME 51. In Rheumatic heart disease the
•ANKYLOSING SPONDYLITIS vegetations are seen along the line of
closure of the mitral valve. These
ANS (B) vegetations are likely to get lodged in any of
the following sites EXCEPT ?
a i p p g .com
•BRAIN
48. Why is the sickle cell carrier state usually •LUNG
asymptomatic? •SPLEEN
•KIDNEY
•THE HbS CARRIER STATE HAS HIGHER
OXYGEN AFFINITY ANS (B)
•LESS THAN 50% SATURATION DOES
NOT CAUSE SICKLING
•THERE IS ALLOSTERIC BINDING OF HbA
to the HbS CARRIER STATE 52. which of these is Hepatitis B infection
•THERE IS AMPLE HbF TO MAKE UP FOR most commonly associated with?
THE CARRIER STATE
•PAN
ANS (B) •CRYOGLOBULINEMIA
•SLE
49. An HIV patient is in treatment with •POLYMYOSITIS
Didinosine ,Stavudine , Indinavir . He is
dignosed to have pulmonary ANS (A)
tuberculosis,which one of the following ATT
drugs is to be avoided? 53. Which of these is NOT caused by
enteroviruses?
•INH
•RIFAMPIN •HERPANGINA
•PZA •HEMORRHAGIC FEVER
•ETHAMBUTOL •PLEURODYNIA
•ASPETIC MENINGITIS

ANS (B)
ANS (B)

50. A lady with congenital heart disease

underwent a dental extraction and developed 54. Which of these is a calicivirus?
endocarditis. Which is the organism most
likely to have been involved in the •HAV
pathogenesis? •HBV
•HCV
•STAPHYLOCOCCUS AUREUS •HEV

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ANS (D) •ELISA
•BIOPSY
55. From which area should a biopsy be •IHA
taken in the case of a viral esophageal •PCR
ulcer?
ANS (A)
•EDGES
•SURROUNDING MUCOSA 58.A 30 yr old patient who had laparotomy
•BASE recently, developed an intraperitoneal
•INDURATED AREA abscess (Peritonitis) caused by Gram -ve
cocci resistant to vancomycin,bacitracin,it is
ANS (A) [Sony, kerala; harsh] hydrolyzed by 6.5%NaCl, Optochin +ve.
Which is likely to be the causative organism?
[CMV ulcer biopsy is done fron center but
CMV is not the most common ulcer: most •ENTEROCOCCUS FECALIS
common biopsy in viral oesophagitis is edge: •STREPTOCOCCUS PNEUMONIA
HPIM 14th] •STAPHYLOCOCCUS AUREUS
•PEPTOSTREPTOCOCCUS
"Harrison 14th: VIRAL ESOPHAGITIS
Mucosal cells from a biopsy sample taken at ANS (A)
the edge of an ulcer or from a cytologic
smear show ballooning degeneration, enterococcus (except for them all are Gm
ground-glass changes in the nuclei with +ve)
eosinophilic intranuclear inclusionsMucosal
cells from a biopsy sample taken at the edge 59. Patient has a brain abscess, the
of an ulcer or from a cytologic smear show aspirated material from the same is foul
ballooning degeneration, ground-glass smelling, and reveals red fluorescence on
changes in the nuclei with eosinophilic UV light. What organism could be
intranuclear inclusions " implicated?

•STAPH AUREUS
•PEPTOSTREPTOCOCCUS
56. What is the investigation for an 8 yr old •BACTEROIDES
boy with a lesion on the back, featuring •ACANTHAMEBA
peripheral scaling and central scarring?
ANS (C)
•TZANCK TEST
•KOH MOUNT 60. Which of these does NOT feature
•SKIN BIOPSY preformed toxins?
•PATCH TEST
•STAPH AUREUS
ANS (C) •ETEC
•B CEREUS
This patient is suffering from lupus vulgaris, •CLOSTRIDIUM BOTULINUM
hence best diagnosed by skin biopsy.
ANS (B)
57. What is the investigation for invasive
amebiasis? Food poisoning in 1-6 hours is due to
PREFORMED TOXINS viz -Staph.aureus -

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Bacillus cerus Cl. botulinum grows in 65. Which of these may feature auto
anaerobic foods and produces toxin (24-96 infection?
hours) BUT.ETEC grows in GIT and
produces Toxin so the toxin is NOT •ANCYLOSTOMA
preformed But formed in BODY. •ENTEROBIUS
•ASCARIS
61. Which of these is a marker for recent •PARAGONIMUS
infection? (which is diagnostic of an acute
infection?) ANS (B)

•IgM HBsAg
•IgM HBcAg
•HBeAg 66. What medium is used for culture in a
•HBsAg suspected case of legionnaires disease?

ANS (B) •THAYER MARTIN

•BUFFERED CHARCOAL WITH YEAST
62. what may be seen in a case of acute EXTRACT
hepatitis B infection? •CHOCOLATE AGAR
•BORDET GENGOU
•DANE PARTICLE
•HBsAg ANS (B)
•IgM ANTI HBc
•ANTI HBe 67. Following a bee sting, the person
develops periorbital edema, laryngospasm
ANS (C) .breathing difficulty . These reactions are
mediated through which of the following?
63. If a PCR is functioning at 100%
efficiency, how many particles are produced •CYTOTOXIC T CELL
after 3 cycles? •IGE MEDIATED
•IGA MEDIATED
•DOUBLE THE INITIAL •IMMUNE COMPLEX REACTIONS
•THRICE THE INITIAL
•FOUR TIMES ANS (B)
•EIGHT TIMES
68. CLED is preferred to McConkeys
ANS (D) medium because?

64. For which of these is northern blotting •IT IS A DIFFERENTIAL MEDIUM

with hybridization useful? •PREVENTS SWARMING OF PROTEUS
•SUPPORTS THE GROWTH OF
•PROTEIN ANTIGEN PSEUDOMONAS
•RNA •SUPPORTS GROWTH OF CANDIDA AND
•DNA STAPHYLOCOCCUS
•HISTONE
ANS (D) [rajesh,pondicherry]
ANS (B)
CLED is preferred over MacConkey because
it supports growth of Staph.Strp and Candida

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(ref:Mackey Mackartney Texbook of •HANGING
Microbiology) •MORPHINE POISONING
•STRANGULATION
69. Two farmers were brought dead, autopsy
done revealed viscera that had the smell of ANS (A)
bitter almonds. The most likely poisoning is
due to that by? 73. Which of these ectopic pregnancies is
likely to progress for the maximum period ?
•ORGANOPHOPSPHORUS
•HYDROCYANIC ACID •ISTHMIC
•MORPHINE •AMPULLARY
•ATROPINE •INTERSTITIAL
•FIMBRIAL
ANS (B)
ANS (C)

70. A case of poisoning was brought to the

causalty ,a gastric lavage was done ,and the 74. What is the most likely cause for a 26
lavage turned black when it was heated after year old pregnant woman from bihar referred
being treated with silver nitrate. The to a tertiary centre with hepatic
poisoning is most likely to have been due to encephalopathy?
which of the following?
•HAV
•TIK-20 •HBV
•CELFOS •HCV
•MALATHION •HEV
•PARATHION
ANS (D)
ANS B (dr rajeev& ashish, udaipur and anuj
gupta,hubli) 75. At what time during gestation does
phosphatidyl glycerol appear?
71. Hemodialysis is mandatory in which
poisoning ? •20 WEEKS
•28 WEEKS
•COPPER SULPHATE POISONING •32 WEEKS
•ETHANOL POISONING •35 WEEKS
•AMPHETAMINE POISONING
•ORGANOPHOSPHORUS POISONING ANS (D)

ANS (B) ref HPIM 14 .Surfactant is formed in amniotic fluid at 28

weeks but phosphatidylglycerol takes longer.

76. 22 year old nullipara presents with 1 and

72. Fine leathery froth that emanates from
the nostrils on chest compression is
diagnostic of death due to?
•DROWNING
half months amenorrhea, abdominal pain.
USG reveals empty uterine cavity and free
fluid in the pouch of douglas. What is the
likely diagnosis?

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•TWISTED OVARIAN CYST •DIC
•THREATENED ABORTION •ANTIPHOSPHOLIPID SYNDROME
•ECTOPIC PREGNANCY
•MISSED ABORTION ANS (A)

ANS (C) discuss problems/tips at AIPPG message

board

click here(new window will )

77. 36 year old G3P3 patient had LCB 6
years ago, no medical evaluation since then. 80. which of these is NOT a clinical sign of
She now complains of has excessive vaginal scar rupture?
itching, skin pigmentation, lethargy, lack of
axillary and body hair, cold intolerance, •MATERNAL BRADYCARDIA
hoarseness of voice. On examination, her •FETAL BRADYCARDIA
vagina is found to be atrophic. Which of •HEMATURIA
these agents is NOT likely to improve her •BLEEDING PER VAGINUM
condition?
ANS (A)
•INSULIN
•THYROID EXTRACT
•PREDNISOLONE
•ESTROGEN 81. what is true about a diabetic pregnancy?

ANS (A) • CVS ANOMALIES IS MOST COMMONLY

SEEN
78. what is the stage of an ovarian cancer •DEXAMETHASONE CONTRAINDICATED
with bilateral involvement, capsular rupture, SINCE IT CAUSES HYPERGLYCEMIA
positive ascitic fluid for malignant cells? •SCREENING FOR DOWNS SYNDROME
NOT EFFECTIVE
•I •BETA AGONISTS ARE
•II CONTRAINDICATED IN PRE TERM LABOR
•III
•IV ANS (A)

ANS (A) 82. what is the approximate pH of amniotic

fluid?
This is a stage Ic ovarian cancer.
•6.7-6.9
•6.9-7.0
•7.1-7.2
79. following an FTND, a woman develops •7.4-7.5
post partum hemorrhage after 2 days. APTT
is raised, factor VIII is 10% of normal value, ANS (C)
PT and TT values are normal. What is the
likely diagnosis? Ref-COGDT,williams PH of amniotic fluid is :
7.2 So the closest choice C that is 7.1-7.2
•ACQUIRED FACTOR 8 DEFICIENCY
•HEREDITARY FACTOR 8 DEFICIENCY

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83. Which of the following is a normal finding MEMBRANE
in the third trimester of pregnancy? •PERIOSTEAL CHANGES
•ENCHONDRAL OSSIFICATION
•APEX BEAT SHIFTED TO THE 4TH IC
SPACE ANS (B?)
•CARDIOMEGALY
•DIAPHRAGM IS PUSHED UP 87. Which condition is NOT likely to feature
•SHORT MID DIASTOLIC MURMUR the painful arc syndrome?

ANS (A) •SUPRASPINATUS TENDINITIS

•SUBACROMIAL BURSITIS
84. What could be the cause for difficulty in •COMPLETE SUPRASPINATUS TEAR
abduction and internal rotation in a 11 yr old •FRACTURE OF GREATER TUBEROSITY
70 kg boy, having tenderness in scarpas HUMERUS
triangle, painful hip movements, and
tendency of the limb to go into abduction ANS (C)
upon flexion of the hip?
88. What is used to correct ilio tibial tract
•PERTHES DISEASE contracture in a neonate?
•SLIPPED CAPITAL FEMORAL EPIPHYSIS
•TUBERCULOSIS OF HIP •CHARNLEY'S Test
•OBTURATOR HIP •OSBON' Test
•OBER'S Test
ANS (A) •JONES Test

85. What is the likely cause of a
circumscribed osteosclerotic lesion in the
tibial diaphysis in an 10 year old?
•OSTEOID OSTEOMA
•EWINGS SARCOMA
•BONE SECONDARIES
•TUBERCULOSIS
ANS (A)
Ref- Maheshwari -ewing,s(10 - 20 yrs) and
osteoid osteoma(5- 25 yrs) both occur in
Diaphysis, -differentiating feature here is
RADIOLOGICAL app osteoid osteoma -
Zone of sclerosis Ewing,s - onion peel
appearnce [DR Harsh]
86. Which of the following features the best
bone appostion?
•CHONDROBLASTIC ACTIVITY IN
ENDOCHONDRIUM
•OSTEOBLASTIC ACTIVITY IN
ANS (C) confirmed [Dr Viraj, Jodhpur]
Obers test: Ask the subject to lie laterally on
his/her normal side.Raise and flex the side to
be tested with the support of (doctors) our
arm at the knee and ankle. On removing the
support if illiotibial tract contracture is to be
found the raised foot stays in raised position
due to contracture
aippg.com
89. what is the most common type of
malignant melanoma?
•SUPERFICIAL SPREADING
•ACRAL LENTIGINOUS
•NODULAR
•LENTIGO MALIGNA
ANS (A)
90. what is the most common site for a
lentiginous melanoma?

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•MYCOBACTERIUM LEPRAE
•SOLE OF FOOT •YERSINIA ENTEROCOLITICA
•FACE
•LEG ANS (A)
•TRUNK
95. What is NOT TRUE about apoptosis?
ANS (A)
•SURROUNDING INFLAMMATION
•MACROPHAGES TAKE UP DEAD TISSUE
•ACTIVATION OF CAPSASE OCCURS (??)
91. A melanoma at which site is most likely •ENDONUCLEASES MEDIATE
to undergo malignant transformation? CHROMATOLYSIS

•BLUE NEVUS ANS (A)

•JUNCTIONAL
•EPIDERMAL 96. Which of these is a feature of aging
•DEEP DERMAL cells?

ANS (B) •LIPOFUSCIN ACCUMULATION

•INCREASED OXIDATIVE
PHOSPHORYLATION
•INCREASED GLYCOGEN STORES
92. Which condition may feature fat laden •INCREASED NUCLEAR MATERIAL AND
histiocytes in the gastric mucosa? MITOCHONDRIA

•SIGNET RING CA ANS (A)

•EROSIVE GASTRITIS
•POST GASTRECTOMY STATUS 97. From where do dividing cancer cells
•LYMPHOMA derive energy?

ANS (C) •GLYCOLYSIS

•MITOCHONDRIA
•OXIDATIVE PHOSPHORYLATION
•ANEROBIC METABOLISM
93. Where do call exner bodies occur?
ANS (A)
•GRANULOSA CELL TUMOR
•THECA CELL TUMOR 98. Which of these is clathrin involved in ?
•DYSGERMINOMA
•BRENNERS TUMOR •RECEPTOR MEDIATED ENDOCYTOSIS
•RECEPTOR INDEPENDENT
ANS (A) ENDOCYTOSIS
•RECEPTOR MEDIATED EXOCYTOSIS
94. Which condition does NOT feature •RECEPTOR INDEPENDENT
granulomas? EXOCYTOSIS

•MYCOPLASMA PNEUMONIAE ANS (A)

•MYCOBACTERIUM TUBERCULOSIS

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99. What parameter of the casts are used to •TELOMERASE
assess the severity in crescentic •TOPOISOMERASE
glomerulonephritis?
ANS (C) [Itnal]
•SIZE
•SHAPE ref; robbins 5th ed- page 32
•NUMBER
•PATTERN OF DISTRIBUTION 103. Which of these features a reversible
change in cell polarity?
ANS (C) If cresents are > 50% then it is
RPGN •DYSPLASIA
•METAPLASIA
100. What is NOT true with regard to FAP? •ANAPLASIA
•HYPERPLASIA
•C-MYC GENE EXPRESSION
DECREASED ANS (A)
•ANTIBODIES TO NORMAL MUCIN
•DUE TO DEFECT IN THE FAP GENE 104. What does diapedesis refer to?
•PROLIFERATION OF COLONIC
EPITHELIUM •ATTACHMENT OF NEUTROPHILS TO
BLOOD VESSEL
ANS (A) [Dr Vishal,Jabalpur; DR RAJEEV •ESCAPE OF NEUTROPHILS FROM
,ASHISH ,CHARAN JEET,Udaipur] CAPILLARIES FROM CAPILLARY
ENDOTHELIUM
c-myc being a protooncogene will increase •STIMULATION OF CYTOKINE
expression.ref robbins SECRETION BY INFLAMMATORY CELLS
•RESPONSE OF MEDIATOR CELLS TO
101. Which of the following is the true CYTOKINE SECRETION
statement regarding minimal change
disease? ANS (B)

•LOSS OF FOOT PROCESSES 105. what term is used to denote the

•ANTIGEN-ANTIBODY COMPLEXES replacement of alveolar epithelium by
•LOSS OF FOOT PROCESSES ALONG stratified squamous epithelium, seen on
WITH LOSS OF CHARGE ACROSS biopsy of a smokers lung?
MEMBRANE,HENCE LEADING TO
PROTEINURIA •ANAPLASIA
•DESTRUCTION OF THE GLOMERULUS, •METAPLASIA
WITH MINIMAL TISSUE ONLY REMAINING •DYSPLASIA
INTACT •HYPERPLASIA

ANS (C) ANS (B)

102. what is the enzyme by which cancer 106. Child under 6 years, with nephrotic
cells become immortalised? syndrome, responsive to steroids, biopsy
done, what will be seen under the light
•DNA POLYMERASE microscope?
•mRNA POLYMERASE
•NOTHING

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•LOSS OF FOOT PROCESSES •OSMOTIC FRAGILITY TEST
•TUBULE ATROPHY •CHROMOSOMAL ANALYSIS
•CRESCENTS
ANS (A)
ANS (A)
111. what is the likely diagnosis in a 10
107. Which of these does not regress? month old child with weakness, coarse
features and a normal ECG?
•SALMON PATCH
•STRAWBERRY ANGIOMA •HURLERS
•PORTWINE STAIN •HUNTERS
•LYMPHANGIOMATOSIS •GLYCOGEN STORAGE DISORDER
CIRCUMSCRIPTA •PHENYLKETONURIA

ANS (C) ANS (B)

108. What could be the cause of robbins 5th ed---the s/s are common to all
improvement in the condition of a child mucopolysaccharadoses----
having a perimembranous VSD and heart
failure? Coarse facial features, clouding of cornea,
joint stiffness, mental retardation
•REDUCTION IN SIZE OF THE VSD
•PULMONARY VASCULAR CHANGES he also states the diff b/n hurlers & hunters:
•INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS as--hunters has a milder clinical course
•AORTIC REGURGITATION where as hurlers child dies of cvs
complications at 6-10 yrs of age since the
ANS (B) question asks of a normal ecg the ans
should be hunters syndrome
109. Neonate has cyanosis, pulmonary
oligemia, normal cardiac shadow. What 112. A young boy has retarded physical and
could be the diagnosis? mental development. Xrays reveal
fragmentation of epiphyses and presence of
•TOF wormian bones. What is the diagnosis?
•PULMONARY ATRESIA
•TRANSPOSITION OF GT VESSELS •HYPOPITUITARISM
•EBSTEINS ANOMALY •HYPOTHYROIDISM
•HYPOGONADISM
ANS (C) •SCURVY

110. 5 yr old child with anaemia,increased ANS (B)

reticulocyte count,peripheral smear shows
target cells ,normoblasts. The patient’s
younger brother also suffers from the same
condition. What investigation should be 113. Injection of hypotonic saline into the
performed? carotid artery causes activation of the
hypothalamus via which of the following?
•Hb ELECTROPHORESIS
•BONE MARROW BIOPSY •MEDIAL NUCLEUS OF THE
HYPOTHALAMUS

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•SUPRAOPTIC NUCLEUS OF A. a d f
HYPOTHALAMUS
•PREOPTIC NUCLEUS OF THE B.b e f
HYPOTHALAMUS
•PARAVENTRICULAR NUCLEUS OF THE C.a c f
HYPOTHALAMUS
D.a c f
ANS (B)
ANS (C.) [madhu shankar,coimbatore]
114. Respiratory physiology of a newborn is Tripathi 477.
different from that of an adult by all EXCEPT
which of the following? 117. What is NOT true with regard to semen
analysis?
•INCREASED OXYGEN DEMAND OF THE •ABSTINENCE FOR 6 WEEKS PROVIDES
NEWBORN THE BEST SAMPLE
•DECREASED FRC IN THE NEWBORN •SPERM MOTILITY IS A GOOD
•ADULT HB HAS DECREASED AFFINITY INDICATOR OF SPERM QUALITY
FOR OXYGEN •COLLECTION SHOULD BE AT THE SITE
•TOTAL LUNG VOLUME IS OF ANALYSIS
SMALL/DECREASED IN THE NEWBORN •ABSENCE OF FRUCTOSE MAY INDICATE
A BLOCKED EJACULATORY DUCT OR
ANS ( ) LACK OF SEMINAL VESICLES

115. what is the mechanism by which ANS (A)

hyperventilation may cause muscle spasm?

•DECREASED CALCIUM
•DECREASED CARBON DIOXIDE 118. What is the median of these set of
•DECREASED POTASSIUM values 2, 5, 7, 10. 10, 15, 20.
•DECREASED SODIUM •2
•10
ANS (A) Harrison 1520> •15
•20.
116.true statement regarding presynaptic
inhibition ANS (B)

a.axoaxonal synapse mediated 119. What can be true regarding the

coefficient of correlation between IMR and
b.prolongs ipsp ecnonomic status?
•r=+1
c.prolonged by anaesthesia •r= -1
•r= +0.22
d.not affected by pharmacolgical agents •r = - 0.8

e.it affects motor endplate potential ANS (D)

f.decreased by stychnine

g.decreased by picrotoxin

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120. Which is best in order to make a 125. How much of the sample is included in
comparison between 2 populations? 1.95 SD?
•STANDARDISED MORTALITY RATE •99%
•DISEASE SPECIFIC DEATH RATE •95%
•PROPORTIONAL MORTALITY RATE •68%
•AGE SPECIFIC DEATH RATE •65%

ANS (A) ANS (B)

121. Which is the best index for burden of 126. If the correlation of height with age is
disease? given by the equation y=a + biopsy, what
•CASE FATALITY RATE would be the nature of the graph?
•DISABILITY ADJUSTED LIFE YEARS •STRAIGHT LINE
•DEPENDENCE RATE •PARABOLA
•MORBIDITY DATA •HYPERBOLA
•SIGMOID CURVE
ANS (B)
ANS (A)
122. How much ethinyl estradiol does the
new low dose oral contraceptive pill contain? 127. What is NOT true about a case control
(IN MICROGRAMS) study?
•20 •GIVES ATTRIBUTABLE RISK
•25 •IS LESS EXPENSIVE
•30 •INVOLVES LESS SUBJECT
•35 •PROVIDES QUICK RESULTS

ANS (A) [brand name = femilon in india, ANS (A)

CMDT 2000 pg 747]
128. In a town of 36,000 people, there are
123. Among a 100 women with average Hb 1200 live births, and 60 infant deaths. What
of 10 gm%, the standard deviation was 1, is the IMR?
what is the standard error? •50
•0.01 •25
•0.1 •10
•1 •5
•10
ANS (A)
ANS (B)
129. At what point in time is the population
124. In a particular trial, the association of assessed for calculation of the crude death
lung cancer with smoking is found to be 40% rate?
in one sample and 60% in another. What is •1ST JAN
the best test to compare the results? •1ST MAY
•CHI SQUARE TEST •1ST JULY
•FISCHER TEST •31ST DEC
•PAIRED T TEST
•ANOVA TEST ANS (C)

ANS (A) .

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130. Which of these is NOT useful in the ANS (D)
prevention of KFD?
•VACCINATION 135. Which of these is NOT a component of
•DEFORESTATION the PQLI?
•PREVENTION OF ROAMING CATTLE •IMR
•PERSONAL PROTECTION •LIFE EXPECTANCY AT ONE YEAR
•MMR
ANS (B) •LITERACY RATE

131. A study was undertaken to assess the ANS (C)

effect of a drug in lowering serum cholesterol
levels. 15 obese women and 10 non-obese 136. A study of BP is done on 100 healthy
women formed the 2 limbs of the study. individuals aged 25-27 years. The result is a
Which test would be useful to correlate the normal distribution with median BP of 120
results obtained? mm Hg. What percentage of the subjects will
•UNPAIRED T TEST have BP reading higher than 120?
•PAIRED T TEST •25
•CHI SQUARE TEST •50
•FISCHER TEST •75
•100
ANS (B)
ANS (B)
132. The incidence of carcinoma cervix in
women with multiple sexual partners is 5 137. In which of these conditions is post
times the incidence seen in those with a exposure prophylaxis NOT useful?
single partner. Based on this, what is the •MEASLES
attributable risk? •RABIES
•20% •PERTUSSIS
•40% •HEPATITIS B
•50%
•80% ANS (C)

ANS (D) 138. Hb of less than what value is the cut off
used by WHO guidelines to label an infant
133. What is the best determinant of the under 6 months of age as being anemic?
health status of a country? •100 g/L
•COUPLE PROTECTION RATE •105 g/L
•IMR •110 g/L
•MMR •115 g/L
•CRUDE BIRTH RATE
ANS (D) Cut off for 6 months to 6 yrs is 110
ANS (B) gms/L. considering that answer could be 115
gms/L.
134. Which of these is NOT a component of
the human development index? 139. What are the amounts of calories and
•LIFE EXPECTANCY AT AGE ONE proteins received by a pregnant woman from
•EDUCATIONAL LEVEL the anganwadi worker?
•PER CAPITA INCOME •300 CALS, 15 GM PROTEIN
•IMR •500 CALS, 15 GM PROTEIN

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•300 CALS, 25 GM PROTEIN •PANIC ATTACK
•500 CALS, 25 GM PROTEIN •AGORAPHOBIA
•GENERALISED ANXIETY DISORDER
ANS (D) pg 400 park
ANS (B)
140. The incidence of malaria in an area is
20,20, 50, 56,60,5000,678,898,345,456. 144. A person on treatment with lithium for
Which of these methods is the best to mood disorder presents with seizures,
calculate the average incidence? increased reflexes , epileptic fits. The patient
•ARITHMETIC MEAN also has a H/O severe gastroenteritis. On
•GEOMETRIC MEAN investigating the serum lithium was found to
•MEDIAN be 1.95mEq/L . This patient is most likely to
•MODE be suffering from ?

ANS (C) •SEVERE DEHYDRATION

141. 6 yr old child, has history of birth
asphyxia, does not communicate well , has
slow mental and physical growth, does not
mix with people, has limited interests, gets
wildly agitated if disturbed: diagnosis?
•AUTISTIC DISORDER
•HISTRIONIC PERSONALITY
•ADHD ATTENTION DEFICIT DISORDER
•SCHIZOPHRENIA
ANS (A)
•LITHIUM TOXICITY
•EPILEPSY
•MANIC EPISODE
ANS (B)
145. A 25 yr old female was brought to the
casualty after she allegedly attempted
suicide, her wrists are slashed. She has a
past H/O difficulty in maintaining
interpersonal relationships and also
recurrent mood fluctuation episodes. What is
the most likely diagnosis?

142. man feels that his nose is too long; •DEPRESSION

friends feel otherwise. He has consulted 3 •BORDERLINE PERSONALITY DISORDER
plastic surgeons but all have refused to treat •HISTRIONIC PERSONALITY
him. He suffers from what condition? •SCHIZOPHRENIA

•HYPOCHONDRIASIS ANS (B)

•SOMATISATION
•MUNCHAUSEN SYNDROME 146. A 70 yr old man presents with a H/O
•DELUSIONAL DISORDER prosopagnosia, loss of memory, 3rd person
hallucinations since 1 month. On
ANS (D) examination deep tendon reflexes are
increased, mini mental state examination
143. In a patient with no significant previous score is 20/30. what is the most likely
history, no history of any drug intake and a diagnosis?
normal ECG, what is the likely cause of
palpitations, sweating and feeling of •DISSOCIATED DEMENTIA
impending doom, each episode lasting about •SCHIZOPHRENIA
10 minutes? •MULTI INFARCT DEMENTIA
•ALZHEIMERS DISEASE
•HYSTERIA

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ANS (C) click here(new window will )

147. What is the investigation of choice for a 151. What is the diagnosis in a woman who
parameningeal rhabdomyosarcoma? has scarring alopecia, thinning of nails,
hyper-pigmented patches over the leg?
•CECT
•CSF CYTOLOGY •LICHEN PLANUS
•MRI •PSORIAISIS
•SPECT •SECONDARY SYPHILIS
•DERMATOPHYTOSIS
ANS (C) [corrected]
ANS (A)

152. Acne vulgaris involves which one of the

148. What is the investigation of choice for following?
neuroendocrine tumors?
•PILOSEBACEOUS GLANDS
•ENDOSCOPIC USG •ECCRINE GLANDS
•SPECT •APOCRINE GLANDS
•RADIONUCLIDE STUDY •SEBACEOUS GLANDS
•MRI
ANS (A)
ANS (C)
153. A patient diagnosed with psoriasis was
149. What is the investigation of choice for put on treatment with high dose
screening for renovascular hypertension with dexamethasone for 2 weeks. The patient
bilateral renal artery stenosis? stopped treatment after which he develops
high-grade fever and generalized pustular
•DUPLEX DOPPLER STUDY lesions all over his body. The most likely
•CAPTOPRIL ENHANCED RADIONUCLIDE diagnosis is that of?
SCAN
•USG •SEPTICAEMIA
•MR ANGIOGRAPHY •DRUG REACTION
•PUSTULAR PSORIASIS
ANS (A) •SECONDARY BACTERIAL INFECTION

150. What is the next investigation to be ANS (C)

done in a case with recurrent hemoptysis,
normal CXR, production of purulent sputum? 154. What is the rx of choice for
hyperparathyroidism ?
•SPIRAL CT
•HRCT •REMOVAL OF THE HYPERPLASTIC
•MRI GLAND
•BRONCHOSCOPY •REMOVAL OF ALL 4 GLANDS
•RADICAL PARATHROIDECTOMY
ANS (B) •3 AND ½ PARATHYROIDECTOMY

discuss problems/tips at AIPPG message ANS (B) Bailey 738

board

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155. which gastric surgery will result in the 159. Treatment of choice for pleomorphic
least degree of bilious vomiting, dumping adenoma?
and diarrhea?
•SUPERFICIAL PAROTIDECTOMY
•TRUNCAL VAGOTOMY AND •ENUCLEATION
PYLOROPLASTY •DEEP PAROTIDECTOMY
•TV AND ANTRECTOMY •RADICAL PAROTIDECTOMY
•HSV
•GASTROJEJUNOSTOMY ANS (A)

ANS (C) 160. What is the most effective rx for a

warthins tumor?
156. 20 year old male presents with massive
hematemesis. Gives history of taking some •SUPERFICIAL PAROTIDECTOMY
drugs for fever for the past 2 weeks. What is •DEEP PAROTIDECTOMY
the likely diagnosis? •ENUCLEATION
•RADIOTHERAPY
•ACUTE PEPTIC ULCERATION DUE TO
NSAIDS ANS (A)
•EROSIVE GASTRITIS
•ESOPHAGEAL EROSION 161. What is the Rx for a stage I testicular
•ESOPHAGEAL VARICES tumor?

ANS (d) •HIGH ORCHIDECTOMY

•HIGH ORCHIDECTOMY PLUS RT
157. what is NOT true in a case of urethral •SCROTAL ORCHIDECTOMY
injury? •BILATERAL ORCHIDECTOMY

•RARE IN WOMEN ANS (B)

•IMMEDIATE CATHETERISATION
INDICATED 162. Ameloblastoma of the mandible is most
•POSTERIOR URETHRAL INJURY likely to involve which of the following
OCCURS IN FRACTURE PELVIS locations?
•BLOOD AT URINARY MEATUS IS
DIAGNOSTIC •AT SYMPHYSIS MENTI
•MOLAR REGION OF MANDIBLE
ANS (B) •IN RELATION TO UPPER 2ND MOLAR
•IN RELATION TO INCISORS
158. what is the likely source of hematuria
that is persisting for the past 3 days, with red ANS (B) May involve third molar region
cell casts evident upon urinalysis? extending into coronoid process, body and
angle of mandible. Less frequently ant part
•BLADDER of mandible is involved. Presents mostly in
•URETHRA 4th or 5th decade, slow growing, painless
•KIDNEY unless infected, locally invasive within bone
•URETER and soft tissue and should be excised with a
1 cm margin. Does not metastasize to LN
ANS (C) but does so to lung esp. after incomplete
removal. They are not radiosensitive.

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163. What is the most common tumor ANS (A)
involving the mandible?
168. What is NOT true about torsion of the
•OSTEOSARCOMA testes?
•AMELOBLASTOMA
•LYMPHOMA •ABSENCE OF FLOW ON DOPPLER
•SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA CLINCHES DIAGNOSIS
•PRESENCE OF PYURIA ASSISTS THE
ANS (B) Bailey p.598 DIAGNOSIS
•THE OPPOSITE SIDE TESTES SHOULD
164. What is the rx for a cancer lateral BE FIXED
border of tongue with lower neck lymph node •RAISING THE TESTES WORSENS THE
secondaries? PAIN

•RADICAL NECK DISSECTION ANS (B)

•SUPRAOMOHYOID DISSECTION
•SUPRAHYOID NECK DISSECTION 169. What is NOT true about congenital PUJ
•TELETHERAPY obstruction?

ANS (A) •DUE TO COMPRESSION BY AN

165. What is the rx of choice for an old man
who has reflux of foul smelling food?
•CRICOPHARYNGEAL MYOTOMY
•SAC REMOVAL
•LASER EVAPORATION
•MYOTOMY WITH SAC EXCISION
ANS (D)
166. What is the rx for a 4 x 6 mm
dysgerminoma in a 12 year old girl?
•RIGHT CYSTECTOMY
•RIGHT OOPHORECTOMY
•TAH WITH BSO
•BILATERAL OOPHORECTOMY
ANS (A)
167. What is NOT true about a varicocele?
•MORE COMMON ON THE RT SIDE
•ASSOCIATED WITH INFERTILITY
•LEFT VARICOCELE CAN BE A LATE SIGN
OF A TUMOR IN AN ELDERLY MAN
•10% CASES ARE BILATERAL
ABERRANT VESSEL THAN DUE TO
INTRINSIC CAUSES
•RETROGRADE PYELOGRAPHY IS
USEFUL TO FIND SITE OF OBSTRUCTION
•WHITAKERS FORMULA IS USEFUL FOR
CLASSIFICATION AND RX ASSESSMENT
•ANTE NATAL DIAGNOSIS IS POSSIBLE
ANS (A)
In child hood congenital malformations
including marked narrowing of the
ureteropelvic junction, anomalous retrocaval
location of the Ureter and posterior urethral
valves predominate. So intrinsic cause is
more common than vascular aberrations.
Harrison 14 th 1574
170. What is best for the diagnosis of a firm
hard mobile nodule in the right breast of a
post menopausal woman?
•FNAC
•EXCISION BIOPSY
•MAMMOGRAPHY
•NEEDLE BIOPSY
ANS (B)

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FNAC alone can give false negetives, FNAC •NEONATAL JAUNDICE AND IHBA
+ mammography can inprove •NON CIRRHOTIC PORTAL FIBROSIS
sensitivity.FNAC is use to diagnose cystic
mass not hard mobile mass. ANS (B)

171. Which should NOT be done in a 175. What is the diagnosis in a case of 30
testicular tumor? year old male with jaundice, unconjugated
bilirubinemia, increased urine urobilinogen,
•HIGH INGUINAL ORCHIDECTOMY urine bilirubin is negative, normal direct
•HIGH INGUINAL ORCHIDECTOMY WITH bilirubin, normal alk phos?
CHEMOTHERAPY
•HIGH INGUINAL ORCHIDECTOMY AND •HEMOLYTIC JAUNDICE
RT •VIRAL HEPATITIS
•TRANSCROTAL BIOPSY FOR TISSUE •OBSTRUCTIVE JAUNDICE
DIAGNOSIS
ANS (A)
ANS (D)
176. What is the diagnosis in a 65 yr old with
172. what is NOT likely to be the cause of fever, flank pain, calculi with fat densities?
stridor occuring 2 hours after a
thyroidectomy ? •XANTHOMATOUS PYELONEPHRITIS
•RENAL ABSCESS
•HYPOCALCEMIA •CHRONIC PYELONEPHRITIS
•WOUND HEMATOMA •TUBERCULOUS KIDNEY
•TRACHEOMALACIA
•RLN INJURY BILATERALLY ANS (A)

ANS (A) 177. What is the likely diagnosis in a case

with renal calcification, irregular bladder wall
aippg.com outline, and hematuria?

173. What is the likely cause of central •TUBERCULOSIS

cyanosis and oligemic lung fields in a •SCHISTOSOMIASIS
neonate with a normal sized heart? •AMYLOIDOSIS
•HUNNERS CYSTITIS
•PULMONARY ATRESIA
•TOF ANS (B)
•TGA
•VSD 178 .In INDIA sentinel surveillance is done
for following diseases./conditions ,EXCEPT
ANS (B)
(a)Hepatitis B
174. A child has fever, jaundice, clay colored
stools, biopsy suggests giant cell hepatitis; (b)Diarrhea
what is the clinical diagnosis?
(c)Acute Flaccid Paralysis
•VIRAL HEPATITIS
•NEONATAL JAUNDICE AND EHBA (d)HIV.

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ANS [B]
179. What is NOT true with regard to 'triple'
stones?
•STRUVITE STONES ARE COMPOSED OF
TRIPLE PHOSPHATE
•THEY ARE CALLED STAGHORN CALCULI
WHEN THEY ARE FORMED IN THE
RENAL PELVIS
•FORM IN ACIDIC URINE
•ASSOCIATED WITH UTI
ANS (C)
180. Tumor/mass lesion of the kidney with
extension into the IVC,Gerotas' fascia is
intact.all the folowing are true EXCEPT
•IVC INVASION IS A CONTRAINDICATION
FOR SURGERY
•CHEST X-RAY TO RULE OUT PULMOARY
METS
•PRE-OP RADIOTHERAPY ISNOT
INDICATED
•PRE-OP BIOPSY IS NOT INDICATED
ANS (A)
181. Which of these is a criterion for
conservative rx in a ureteric calculus?
•INFECTION AND HYDRONEPHROSIS
PRESENT
•SIZE UNDER 6 MM
•NO MOVEMENT FOR 2 WEEKS
•HIGHLY SYMPTOMATIC
ANS (B)
182. What is NOT true about a urinary
bladder calculus?
•PRIMARY STONES RARE IN INDIAN
CHILDREN
•TRANSURETHRAL REMOVAL IS
POSSIBLE
•MOST ARE RADIO OPAQUE
•KUB CLINCHES THE DIAGNOSIS
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ANS (A) [debashish, banglore ; harsh , pune,
imdad,sunil delhi]
183. What investigation should be done for a
prostatic nodule in a 60 year old man?
•EXPRESSED PROSTATIC SECRETION
ANALYSIS
•CT SCAN PELVIS
•TRANSRECTAL USG
•MRI
ANS (C)
184. What is NOT true about carcinoma
penis?
• CIRCUMCISION ANY TIME BEFORE
PUBERTY IS 100% PROTECTIVE
•ERYTHROPLASIA OF QUEYRAT IS
PREMALIGNANT
•OCCURS IN UNHYGIENIC CONDITIONS
•PRESENTS WITH INGUINAL NODE
ENLARGEMENT IN 50% OF THE CASES
ANS (A) Circumcision done at birth offers
100% protection but not afterwards.
185. Which type of malignancy occurs in
longstanding multinodular goitre?
•PAPILLARY
•FOLLICULAR
•ANAPLASTIC
•MEDULLARY
ANS (B)
186. Which condition may feature pulsatile
varicose veins?
•TRICUSPID REGURGITATION
•DEEP VEIN THROMBOSIS
•KLIPPEL TRENAUNAY SYNDROME
•RIGHT VENTRICULAR FAILURE
ANS (C)
187. What may cause local gigantism with
varicosities?
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•NOREPINEPHRINE
•AV FISTULAE •DOPAMINE
•DEEP VEIN THROMBOSIS •SEROTONIN
•ACROMEGALY
•OSTEOSARCOMA ANS (B)

ANS (A) 192. In a surgery ward WHAT the best

method of prevention of post op wound
188. All the following are used as sclerosing infection in the patients and hence
agents EXCEPT preventing their spread to other patients?

•ALCOHOL •HAND WASHING PRIOR TO AND IN

•ACETIC ACID BETWEEN PATIENT EXAMINATION AND
•CRYSOLATE DRESSINGS
•POLYDIOCONOL •FUMIGATION OF THE WARD
•CLEANING OF THE FLOOR WITH
ANS (B) CERAMIDE
•VANCOMYCIN PROPHYLAXIS
189. Pelviureteric obtruction on the left side
in a 33 year old male who presents with ANS (A)
fever and infection. All the following are
correct EXCEPT 193. What is the preferred rx for a solitary
thyroid nodule?
•DISMEMBERING PYLOPLASTY IS THE
TREATMENT OF CHOICE •HEMITHYROIDECTOMY
•ENDOSCOPIC PYLOPLASTY IS •TOTAL THYROIDECTOMY
CONTRAINDICATED •SUBTOTAL THYROIDECTOMY
•MOST COMMMON CAUSE IS AN •ENUCLEATION
ABBERANT VESSEL
•TUBERCULOSIS CAN BE A CAUSE ANS (A)

ANS (??) 194. All of the following pass behind ischial

spine except?
190. A 60 yr old hypertensive comes with
abdominal pain, fusiform dilatation of the •OBTURATOR NERVE
abdominal aorta. What could be the most •PUDENDAL NERVE
probable etiology •INTERNAL PUDENDAL VESSELS
•NERVE TO OBTURATOR INTERNUS
•MARFANS SYNDROME
•SYPHILIS ANS (A)
•ATHEROSCLEROSIS
•CYSTIC MEDIAL NECROSIS 195. Injury to which nerve during a
herniorrhaphy may cause paresthesia at the
ANS (C) root of scrotum and base of penis?

191. which of these is most often secreted •ILIOINGUINAL

by a pheochromocytoma? •PUDENDAL
•GENITOFEMORAL
•EPINEPHRINE •ILIOHYPOGASTRIC

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ANS (A) ANS

196. Which of these statements regarding
the kidney is NOT correct?
•RT. KIDNEY IS PREFERRED TO THE
LEFT FOR TRANSPLANTATION
•RT. KIDNEY IS AT A LOWER LEVEL
THAN THE LEFT
•RT KIDNEY IS RELATED TO THE
DUODENUM IN THE ANTEROMEDIAL
ASPECT
•RT RENAL VEIN IS SHORTER THAN THE
LEFT
ANS (A)
197. All of the following enzyme deficiencies
EXCEPT ONE may cause lens opacities and
mental retardation in a child?
200. Consider a chain reaction where the
sequence of events is: S1
======>S2=======>S3======>S4,
converts to P1, converts to P2. the
sequential enzymes at these 3 reactions are
EA, EB and EC respectively; also consider
the following information: enzyme EA has a
positive feedback; enzyme EB has a
negative feedback. If enzyme EC is
absent.,then which of the following is true ??
•S1 ACCUMULATES
•S2 ACCUMULATES
•P1 ACCUMULATES
•P2 ACCUMULATES
ANS (B)

•GALACTOKINASE
•GALACTOSE UDP 1 TRANSFERASE VISIT MESSAGE BOARD TO DISCUSS
•GALACTOSE 4 EPIMERASE QUESTIONS
•LACTASE
most authentic papers AIIMS only at
ANS (D) www.aippg.com

198. Dietary fibers are degraded by colonic Send papers or questions at

bacteria to form which of the following? contribute@aippg.com

•BUTYRATES Your name will be fully acknowledged.

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ANS (A)
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199. what is the possible cause for gout in a
patient who has a glucose-6-phosphatase
deficiency?

•INCREASED SYNTHESIS OF PENTOSES

•INCREASED ACCUMULATION OF
SORBITOL
•INCREASED SYNTHESIS OF GLYCEROL
•DECREASED FUNCTION OF KREBS
CYCLE

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