A mother brings her son to your office for his1-year-old dental appointment.

You notice that there is a problem with the shape of his teeth. The problem probably occurred in what stage of development? A. Initiation B. Proliferation C. Differentiation D. Apposition E. Calcification

A 6-year-old child presents with a Class I fracture to a tooth with an immature apex. What is the treatment of choice for this patient? A. Restore tooth B. Place calcium hydroxide to exposed dentin, restore tooth C. Perform pulpotomy, then temporarily restore. D. Perform pulpectomy, place stainless steel crown E. Extract tooth, place space maintainer. The correct answer is A. Class I fracture involves only the enamel of the tooth. Smoothing out the rough edges of the enamel and restoring with a permanent restoration is the only treatment necessary for this tooth. In Class II fracture, this may be covered with calcium hydroxide or glass ionomer and restored as there will bemuch more substantial dentin exposure. No pulpotomy is necessary since there was no pulp exposure (as in a Class III fracture) and the pulp is still vital. As in answer choice C, the pulp is still healthy, so a pulpectomy is not necessary. An stainless steel crown (SSC) is also not necessary if only a minimal amount of enamel has been lost. In Class IV fracture, a pulpectomy and an SSC are both necessary as the entire crown has been lost. There is no indication for extraction of a tooth that has a healthy pulp, no fracture present, and may be restored with a permanent restorative material. Avulsed teeth, pimary-permanent should be treated as follows: A. Primary: reimplanted/Permanent: reimplanted. B. Primary: reimplanted and splinted/Permanent: reimplanted and splinted. C. Primary: no reimplantation/Permanent: reimplanted and splinted rigidly. D. Primary: no reimplantation/Permanent: reimplanted and splinted flexibly for 14 days maximum.

E. Primary: no reimplantation/Permanent: reimplanted and splinted flexibly The correct answer is D. Avulsed primary teeth should not be reimplanted as it can result in damaging the permanent tooth bud or follicle. Permanent teeth need to be reimplanted as soon as possible with best results if reimplanted within 30 minutes. Flexible splinting is preferred for 14 days or less; rigid splinting seems to notmimic the flexibility of the PDL and inhibits proper healing. A child presents to your office after a fall from atree, during which his primary maxillary centralincisor was avulsed. The mother has brought the tooth in a cup of milk and says the fall occurred 2 hours ago. What is the best treatment for this patient? A. Replant the tooth, stabilize the tooth for 1 to 2 weeks at which time a pulpotomy should be performed B. Replant the tooth, stabilize for 1 to 2 weeks, and then perform a pulpectomy. C. Replant tooth, stabilize for 1 to 2 weeks, and begin apexification if pulp necrosis is evident D. Take a radiograph, irrigate socket, do not replant tooth The correct answer is D. A primary tooth has a poor prognosis if replantation is attempted; therefore, primary teeth are very rarely replanted. A radiograph should be taken to visualize if any fragments of the tooth remain. If the tooth was a permanent tooth, the tooth may be replanted, splinted, and then root canal therapy\ (RCT) performed after 7 to 10 days. If the apices of the tooth are open, the tooth should be monitored and apexification procedures should begin if there is evidence of an infected pulp. As explained before, if the tooth was permanent with closed apices, the steps indicated in answer choiceBshould be followed. This answer choice is the best treatment if a permanent tooth was avulsed that had open apices and evidence of an infected pulp. 1. A20-month-old female presents with her mother to your office for her first check-up. Her motheris concerned because her daughter only has afew erupted teeth. Upon examining the patient,which teeth should you expect to find? A. Primary centrals and laterals only B. Primary centrals, laterals, canines

C. Primary centrals, laterals, first molars, second molars D. Primary centrals, laterals, first molars E. Primary centrals, laterals, first molars, canines The correct answer is E. By 19 months, a child should have mandibular and maxillary central and lateral incisors, all first molars, and all canines.According to answer choice A, primary central and laterals should be found by 7 months of age. Answer B is incorrect also in terms of sequenceif the canines were present, the first molars should also be present. By the time the second molars erupt, the canines should already be present in the mouth. Primary centrals, laterals, and first molars should erupt by 15 months of age. Fermentable carbohydrates which causes dental caries is. a.Sucrose b.Glucose c.Fructose d.Cooked starch. e.all. The correct answer is E Dental caries is transmissible bacterial infection. a.true. b.false. A The dental plaque biofilm: a.is a concept yet to be substantiated by research b.is the layer of proteins that partially protects the outer enamel surface c.is readily and completely removed by toothbrushing d.is the basis of the disease we call dental caries e.has no relevance to the caries process. Salivary dysfunction: a.enhances the remineralization process b.describes the numerous functions of saliva c.is only a problem for older people d.is one of the three main pathological factors in the caries balance The three key pathological factors in the caries balance are: a.acidogenic bacteria, orthodontic brackets, calcium deficiency in the diet

b.chlorhexidine, bacteria, xylitol c.acidic producing bacteria, fluoride and calcium d.acidogenic bacteria, carbohydrate frequency, sub-normal saliva flow. Correct answer is D Maximum interincisal opening of 5 mm immediately following 3 weeks of maxillomandibular fixation is best explained by? A. Bony ankylosis B. Fibrous ankylosis C. Muscle splinting D. Hypertrophy of muscles of mastication Correct answer is C Tooth Development from oral ectoderm and mesoderma: a. Outer Enamel Epithelium b. Dental Papilla c. Odontogenesis d. Stratum Intermedium C .. Tooth development from oral ectoderm & mesoderma is called Odontogenesis

Mandibular Canal , Contains Inferior Alveolar Nerve Which statement is true Apexogeneis is a.vital pulp therapy. b.non-vital pulp therapy A The cyst which is most apt 2 resolve by endodontic therapy without surgery is:

A. Apical cyst B. Infianunatory radicular cyst C. Perla ptcal cyst D. Bay cyst. D The best method for control of dental caries is: A. Pit and fissure sealants B. Dental floss C. Fluoride D. Tetracycline mouthwash. C Which of the statements describes dental best: A. Demineralisation of dentin and enamel. B. Continuous, dynamic, biologic process C. Effect of bacterial colonization D. Infection of enamel and dentin B On the first day in your solo private practice you have a pulp exposure. All of the following are favorable factors in avoiding root canal treatmentt EXCEPt one. Which one is the Exception .a. It is a mechanical exposure of 1 mm .b. The tooth had never been symptomatic .c. The pulp tissue appears pink .d. The hemorrhage is slight .e. It is a pinpoint carious exposure C Following successful periodontal surgical rehabilitation in which a mucoperiostial flap was reflected, the earliest advisable time to introduce a gingival retraction cord into the sulcus is: a.. two to three weeks. b.. four to five weeks. c.. six to eight weeks. d.. any time after eight weeks. Answer: C Following successful periodontal surgical rehabilitation in which a mucoperiostial flap is reflected, the dentist should allow six to eight weeks (for gingival tissue to mature) prior to placing retraction cord into the sulcus. Premature impressioning

procedures can cause the gingival attachment to tear and may result in gingival recession, compromising the esthetics of the final restoration. Which of the following statements is true regarding root resection procedures in teeth with Class II and Class III furcation lesions? a.. Dental restorations that approximate root surface concavities must mimic this contour to facilitate cleaning b.. Teeth with root resections do not need to be splinted if the perio-dontum surrounding the remaining roots is sound c.. When necessary, prefabricated posts and cores are preferable to cast posts and cores d.. Teeth with closely approximated roots are candidates for resection procedures but those with fused roots are not. Which of the following statements is true regarding root resection procedures in teeth with Class II and Class III furcation lesions? a.. Dental restorations that approximate root surface concavities must mimic this contour to facilitate cleaning b.. Teeth with root resections do not need to be splinted if the perio-dontum surrounding the remaining roots is sound c.. When necessary, prefabricated posts and cores are preferable to cast posts and cores d.. Teeth with closely approximated roots are candidates for resection procedures but those with fused roots are not. Answer: A The roots that remain after resection procedures often are very thin mesiodistally. When prefabricated posts and cores are utilized, it is difficult to obtain enough bulk in the core for adequate strength. The two components can separate under stress. Cast posts and cores are preferable in this situation because they resist fracture. Generally, research has shown that nonmobile maxillary teeth do not require splinting following resection; however, it is advisable to splint most mandibular teeth and any mobile maxillary teeth because the unsupported portion of the coronal stump acts as a cantilever and could result in tooth movement or fracture. To facilitate cleaning, dental restorations on teeth with root resections should be fabricated to mimic any existing surface contours, including concave ones. Convex restorative surfaces permit plaque to accumulate by inhibiting patient access. Closely approximated or fused roots are a major contraindication to root resection because of the lack of sound bone to support the remaining tooth structure postoperatively. Other contraindications include poor crown-to-root ratios and endodontically untreatable teeth. Which of the following restorative materials produce the greatest inflammatory response in the periodontium?

a.. Highly polished gold b.. Porcelain c.. Highly polished resin d.. All produce a similar inflammatory response. Answer: D Gingival tissues respond primarily to surface roughness rather than to the composition of restorative materials. Rougher surfaces result in greater plaque accumulation and consequently more inflamed tissue. Clinical research indicates that glazed porcelain and highly polished gold or resin all demonstrate similar plaque accumulation. Hypersensitivity reactions to these materials also can result in tissue inflammation but these reactions are rare. Most hypersensitivities of this type occur when nonprecious metals are utilized, especially those containing nickel. A 65 year old patient presents with an ulcerated lesion of 1cm diameter on the side of the tongue which has been present for two months. What is the most appropriate initial management? A. Perform cytologic examination. B. Excise a portion of the ulceration and adjacent normal tissue. C. Excise the entire lesion. D. Refer for implantation of radium needles. E. Refer for radiotherapy. C Which of the following statements is true? A. Masks should always be worn when seeing a patient. B. A face shield is an appropriate replacement for a surgical mask. C. Surgical masks protect against exposure of spatter which is larger than 1m. D. Masks should be changed when they become moist. D