ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING Paper III

Time: 150 Minutes

1. 2. 3.

Please check the Test Booklet and ensure that it contains all the questions. If you find any defect in the Test Booklet or Answer Sheet, please get it replaced immediately. The Test Booklet contains 150 questions. F;ach question carries one mark.

If your Test Booklet Series is A, please fill as shown below:

Sheet or marked in a way that it leads to discrepancy in determining the exact

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Each question is followed by 4 answer choices. Of these, you have to select one correct answer and

mark it on the Answer Sheet by darkening the appropriate circle for the question. If more than one circle is darkened, the answer will not be valued at all. Use BluelBlack Ball point pen to make

heavy black marks to fill the circle completely. Make no other stray marks.

e.g. : If the answer for Question No.1 is Answer choice (2), it should be marked as follows:

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Test Booklet Series, then, in all such cases, your Answer Sheet will be invalidated without any further notice. No correspondence will be entertained in the matter.

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If you have not marked the Test Booklet Series at Part C of side 1 of the Answer

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The Test Booklet is printed in four (4) Series, viz. ~ ffi][Q] [m. The Series, [A] or [ID or [a or IQ] is printed on the right-hand corner of the cover page of the Test Booklet. Mark your Test Booklet Series [A] or [ill or [Q] or rnJ in Part C on side 1 of the Answer Sheet by darkening the appropriate circle with BluelBlack Ball point pen. Example to fill up the Booklet Series

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INSTRUCTIONS

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Series

EEA/507

2012

in

[8J

Max. Marks: 150

JLC is the surge impedance

(4) (2) (3) (1)

( 3)

2.

Which distribution system is more reliable? (1) (2) un (4) Tree system Radial system Ring main system

All are equally reliable

ex a

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(4) (1) 10%
15% (2)

7.

og sp o
(1) decreases, remains unaltered. decreases, decreases (2) (3) increases, decreases increases, remains unaltered (3)
(4)

As the height of transmission increased, the line capacitance inductance respectively

If the span of a transmission is increased by 10%, the sag of line increases by about

21%

30%

Transposition of conductors is done when (1) (2) (3) (4) the conductors equilaterally are not spaced

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the conductors are spaced equilaterally a telephone line runs parallel to power line None of the above

3.

(1) (2) (3)

to safeguard against pilferage to reduce cost of generation

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Alternating current power is transmitted high voltage

at

8.

to make the system reliable

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to minimize transmission losses

(2)

T 2T --

2wL 2wL2 wL I the T travelling on switchgear over Any surge voltage relay step-down transformer voltage lightning arrester wL2

--

--

For transmission line span,of '2L', horizontal tension at tower supports is 'T' and weight of conductor per unit length is 'w'. The maximum sag equals
(1)

I (3)
(4)

2T,

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In a JLC transmission EEA/507 JL+C

line having

Is. negligible16.

tower is and line

EEA/507

(4 )

9.

terms of ABCD parameters : Surge impedance Zc may as be below expressed in

(1)

112.

cIrcmt consIstmg of ~ s~ort t~a~smission

c
(3) (2)
(4)

Zc JAC-BD Z = -~ JAB-CD = JBA inductance conductance L G C BC capacitance CD

13.

resistance and and series shunt R L practically enes inductance senes (1) open line Surge can circuit impedance be theoretically impedance of 400 loaded of loaded Q 400 means upto Q upto short circuit impedance of 400 Q (4) (2) (3) (4) (2) (3) 400 Q
(1)

10.

The following condition relates the line resistance 'R' and the line reactance 'X' for maximum steady state power transmission on a transmission line
(1)

X =
(2) (3) (4)

J2

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R=X X=.J3 R=.J3

.R .X

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14.

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11.

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Charging current due to capacitance 'c' when a single-phase line is transmitting power at voltage 'V' and angular frequency ro is

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(1)

--1

jroCV

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(2)

jroCV jroV C

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(3)

(4)

jroC

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Guy is attached to a transmission pole to (1) (2) (3) (4)
15.

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reduce the sag hold the telephone lines strengthen the pole None of the above The capacitance between the two conductors of a single-phase two wire line is 0'5 ~tF/km. The capacitance of each conductor to the neutral will be (1) (2) (3) (4) 05 ~F/km 025 ~F/km 10 ~F/km 20 ~F/km

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line has equivalent

EEA/507 16.

(5 )

(1) (2)

reducing the number of strings in the insulator ' increasing the number of strings in the insulator correct grading of insulators of various capacities

(1)
(2)

(3) (4)
22.

17.

For high voltage applications, insulators used I are of I I 1) suspension type I (2) (3) (4) pin type strain type None of the above

18.

(1) (2) (4) 19.

suspension type pin type strain type None of the above

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During rains, the direct suspension type insulator (1) (2) (3) (4) decreases mcreases

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On a transmission line, whenever the conductors are dead ended or there is change in the direction of transmission line, the insulators used are

capacitance

am

pa

of

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remains the same

None of the above

20.

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In a string of suspension insulators, maximum potential will appear across the unit nearest to the conductor
(2) (3) (4)

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(2)

nearest to the cross-arm at middle of the string

(3) (4)

None of the above

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(1) (2) un (4) None of the above
23.

(4)

None of the above

String efficiency being 100 percent means potential across each disc is zero

By using a guard ring, string efficiency of suspension insulators will be (1)

(2)

(3) (4)

24.

Porcelain insulators are glazed (1) (2) (3) to improve the appearance so that water should glide down easily to prevent absorption water vapours due to all the above of gases and

(4)
125.

If the voltage across the string of a string insulator assembly is 38 kV, number of insulation discs are 4 and voltage across the lowermost disc is 12 kV, the string efficiency
IS

(1:

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Strain type Shackle type Pin type Suspension type one of the insulator discs is shorted potential across each disc is same decreased increased constant independent of shunt capacitance
76,5% 70% 100% 50%

The string efficiency of an insulator can be 121. increased by

Which insulator can be used horizontal or vertical position ?

either

III

EEA/507

(6 )

26.

Impurities decreases (1) (2) (3) (4)

in

the

insulator

material

131.

In underground stress is (1) (2) (3)

dielectric strength porosity mechanical strength toughness of insulator

27.

Static shielding (1) (2) (3) (4) increases decreases does not affect minimizes

string efficiency.

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(4) same at the sheath
32.

28.

Petticoats insulators (1) (2) (3) (4)

are provided in the the

to improve insulator

appearance

to protect the pin of the insulators from the effect of sun and rain due to all of the above reasons

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to drip off the rain water

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pin type of the

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The insulation decreases with (1)

sp
resistance electric stress None of the above to provide distribution better the capacitances conductors all above parameters of

zero at the conductor as well as on the sheath

minimum at the conductor surface and minimum at the sheath maximum at the conductor surface and minimum at the sheath conductor surface and

(2)

the decrease in length of the insulation of the cable

(3)

the increase in length of the insulation of the cable

(4)

133.

The main utility of intersheaths is/are (1) (2) (3) (4) thermal

29.

Disc type insulators employed as suspension insulators have (1) (2) (3) (4) discs in vertical plane

to provide proper stress distribution upgrading inferior insulation to provide against voltage and current surges

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discs in horizontal plane

discs at 45 to the horizontal

34.

None of the above

30.

that 132 kV the Seven discs 66 33 11 kV usually suggest

In the cables, the location of fault is usually found out by comparing (1) (2) (3) (4) the resistance of the conductors the inductance of the conductors the insulated

(4) (2) (3) (1)

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cables, the of the

electrostatic

cable

in cables stress

EEA/507

(7 )

35.

In capacitance grading of cables, we use (1) (2) (3) (4) porous dielectric homogeneous dielectric hygroscopic permittivities dielectric
of

40.

Voltage gradient in a cable is highest at the (1) (2) centre of the conductor

surface of the conductor surface of the sheath

same

(3) (4)

dielectric of varying permittivities

36.

(1) (2) (3) (4) 37.

is easy maintenance is low cost can be used in high voltage circuits can be used in congested areas

(1) (2) (3) (4)

it is hygroscopic

(2)

38.

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The capacitance between any two conductors of a 3-core cable (with sheath earthed) is 4 j.lF. The capacitance per phase will be 43.

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(1) 133 j.lF

(2) (3) 4 j.lF 8 j.lF

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When the diameter of the core and cable is doubled, the value of capacitance
(1) (2) (3) (4)

it gets electrostatically charged at high voltage

(4) 39.

None of the above

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Void formation in the dielectric material of the underground cable may be controlled by (1) using a high permittivity solid dielectric providing a strong outside the cable metallic sheath

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(2)

(3)

filling oil at high pressure as dielectric None of the above

(4)

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(3) (4) will be reduced to one-fourth will be reduced to half will be doubled will become four times 44. In a 3-core cable, the colour of the neutral is (1) (2) (3) (4) black red blue yellow

it has many pores it (1) is otherwise good conductor

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Paper used as insulating materials in cables 42. is generally impregnated with oily compounds, because

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(1) (2) be buried in trenches (3) (4)

The advantage of cables over transmission ,41. lines

When a cable is to cross a road, it should run as an overhead cable

If power cable and communication cable are to run parallel, the minimum distance between the two, to avoid interference, should be 1 cm 10 50 500 cm cm ylol-1)''0 \?-~<j1. ....

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be laid in pipes or conduits

in between (2) and (3)

be surrounded by saw-dust to absorb vibrations

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EEA/507

(8 )

45.

In cables, the charging current

50.

A balanced 3-phase system consists of (1) (3) (4) zero sequence currents only positive sequence currents only

(2; (4) (3) (2) (3)

line tothe line (1) Commonest of900 3-phase 3-phase single double line to to type ground ground leads voltage by 1200 1800 by any angle unsymmetrical between 152. 900 and fault is 1200
(1)
151.

47.

Which of the following statements is true?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

a4 = - a
a = 2

(1 + a)

a = 0,5 a = 0,5

j +j

0,866

0,866

l-e

48.

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Whioh ,equen"" oomponent i, alway' more 153. than the negative sequehce component in asymmetrical fault ?

(2) (3) (4)

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49.

all

In a double line to ground fault (iLLG) the positive, negative and zero sequence networks are (1) star connected Fig. (a) (1) (2) (3) (4) Fig. (b) Fig. (c) Fig. (d) Fig. (a) Fig. (b) Fig. (c) Fig. (d)

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(2)

(3) (4)

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(1)

Positive sequence Zero sequence

Both are correct

None of the above

delta connected series connected parallely connected

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(1) (2) (3) (4)

ers .
(4) diodes
In symmetrical component analysis,

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(2) (3) capacitors reactors
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To reduce short circuit fault currents _____ are used in substations. (1) resistors

Which of the following figures indicate the zero sequence network of alternator whose star point is grounded through an impedance

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zero, negative currents

negative and zero sequence currents and positive sequence

EEA/507

(9 )

54.

at F.

In the adjoining figure, find the fault level 157.

The fault MVA is given by BaseMVA

(1)

rv

50MVA

p.u.X (2)
(3)

llkV
X"-20% d-

BaseMVA (p.u.X
eq

F
(1) (2) (3) (4) 25 MVA 250 MVA 1000 MVA 1300 MVA

(4)

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159.

The zero 55. negative mutual positive oltage source. 2) 4) 3)

sequence network does not

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(3)
(4)

pa
(1) (2) From sequence

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58. dead short circuit line to line fault line to ground fault

where Xeq is the fault impedance at the point where fault has occurred.

Maximum short circuit current occurs due to

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)2

None of the above

line to line and ground fault component voltages ER, 1

ctr i

ER2 and ER 0 ' the phase voltages of the lines will be (Pick up false relation)
2 2

EB =

(1) = ER +ER + a ER + aER ER Ey + = a ER ER + 2 00 1 11 2 ER 0+ ER

(3) (2)

56.

While calculating the fault current, the reactances of the machines connected to the power system are taken to be (1) zero

all

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(4) 60.

ERy = aER 1 + a2ER 2 + 2ER 0

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A 11 kV, 10 MVA alternator has p.u. impedance of 01 when referred to its ratings as bases. The new value for base as 110 kV, 20 MVA will be (1)
(2)

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(2)

constant

01 p.u.
02 p.u.

(3)

increasing with load

(3) (4) decreasing with load

(4)

002 p.u. 0002 p.u.

gs

Base MVA x p.u. Xeq

po t.in
eq

EEA/507

( 10 )

(1) (2) (3) (4)

initial cost is high and operating cost is low initial cost as well as operating cost are high initial cost is low and operating cost is high initial cost as well as operating cost are low

(1)
(" L./\

low, low

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(4)

(3)

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low, high high, low high, high power plants load plants. are used as base peak fluctuating electric traction boiler steam turbine and condenser alternator non-salient pole motor decreased increased made fluctuating short-circuited fission fusion both fission and fusion None of the above

67.

Nuclear

62. D20 Heavy water implies W20 H2O B20

(4) (3) (2) (1)

_____ (1)

(2) (3) (4)

68.

63.

The rotor used in alternator for hydroelectric station is (1) (2) (3) (4) salient pole rotor cylindrical rotor

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non-salient pole 'rotor

round rotor with ac excitation

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64.

Water hammer is developed in (1) (2) (3) penstock turbine

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surge tank alternator

(4)

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65.

Moderator is used to (1)

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absorb neutrons

(2)

reduce the speed of neutrons accelerate the speed of neutrons

(3)

(4)

stop the chain reaction

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In a thermal power plant, the overall efficiency is low due to low efficiency of (1) (2) (3) (4)

69.

A positive pressure develops in the penstock if the alternator load is suddenly (1) (2) (3) (4)

70.

Nuclear reactors generally employ (1) (2) (3) (4)

ot. in

61.

In hydropower plants

166.

used in reactors should melting point and boiling point.

Coolants

have

EEA/507

( 11 )

71.

Which enters the superheater of a boiler in a 176. steam power station ? (1) (2) (3) (4) Wet steam Superheated steam Cold water Hot water 77.

Which gas in atmosphere causes green-house effect? (1) (2) (3) (4) Nitrogen Hydrogen Carbon dioxide

72.

Economiser is used to heat (1) (2) (3) (4) flue gases turbine steam air intake feed water to boiler

73.

Which turbine can be used for low head and 178. high discharge hydel plant? (1) (2) (3) (4) Pelton wheel Jonval turbine Kaplan turbine Francis turbine

74.

"Spinning reserve" is basically

(1)

capacity of the part of the plant that remains under maintenance reserve generating capacity available for service but operation that not

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ctr

(2)

(3)

reserve generating capacity that is in 180. operation but not in service

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all

(4)

reserve generating capacity that IS connected to bus and ready to take the load

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75.

In pumped storage hydel plants

(1) (2)

water is recirculated through turbine

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water is stored by pumping to high pressures power is produced by means of pumps downstream water is pumped upstream during off load periods

(3) (4)

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(2) (4) (3) iron 79.
(1) (2) (3) (4) IS

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up of

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(2) 1000 RPM 1500 RPM (3) (4) 3000 RPM The reflectors of a nuclear reactor are made (1) steel boron beryllium Fast breeder reactors are best suited in India because of good efficiency of large uranium deposits of large thorium deposits of large plutonium deposits The draught produced in a chimney is called (1) (2) (3) (4) 81. natural draught induced draught forced draught balanced draught Burden of a protective relay is the power (1) (2) (3) (4) developed by the relay circuit absorbed by the circuit of relay factor of the relay circuit including tripping coil required to operate the circuit breaker

blo

Most of the generators plants run at (1) 750 RPM

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Hydrogen sulphide

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in thermal power

EEA/507

( 12 )

(1) (2) (3) (4) 83.

voltage wave current power polarity of voltage only

(1) (2) (3) (4)

horn gaps and temperature relays

earth fault and positive sequence relays

mho and ohm relays

A distance relay measures (1) (2) (3) (4) voltage difference current difference distance between two CT impedance 88.

84.

(1)
(4) (2) (3)

sensitive slow All of the above fast

85.

A differential relay measures difference between (1) (2) (3) (4) two powers

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two voltages two currents

two or more similar electrical quantities

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86.

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In a delta/star transformer employing Merz price percentage differential protection the CT's are connected in the primary and secondary windings as star-star delta-star star-delta delta-delta

(1)

(3) (2) (4)

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the vector

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Discrimination between main and backup (2) (4) protection is provided by the use of relays which are (3)

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Z

A protective relay is energized through 11 kV/110 V PT and 100/5 CT, then the ratio of secondary impedance to primary impedance 100 20 20 100 (1) 100
SEe

- --

89.

Back up protection protects against over current

(1) (2) (3) (4)

90.

If fault occurs near an impedance relay, the V .. - ratIO IS

(1) (2) (3) (4)

.bl
ZpRI

e~~r (~r

transient current both (1) and (2) short-circuit current

constant for all the locations of fault lower than the value if fault occurs away from the relay higher than the value if fault occurs away from the relay may be lower or higher than the value if fault occurs away from the relay

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Merz price protection

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percentage differential as shown by relay will be

82.

Directional relays are based on flow of

87.

Large internal faults are protected by

EEA/507

( 13 )
96.

91.

The following is not an instantaneous relay (1) (2) (3) (4) induction disc type hinged armature type balanced beam type polarized type

For which equipment, current specification is not necessary ? (1) Circuit breakers (2) (3) (4) Load break switch Isolators

Circuit breakers and load break switch

92.

(1) (2) (3)

(4)

current during abnormal condition voltage during abnormal condition both (1) and (2) simultaneously

93.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

away from the relay near the relay exactly at the transmission line

ca

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middle

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fault current is independent location of the fault

94.

Buchholz relay is operated by (1) (2) (3) (4) eddy currents gas pressure electrostatic induction

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electromagnetic induction

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95.

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The time interval between the instant occurrence of the fault and the instant closing of the relay contacts is known as breaker Air All Oil are CB blast CB CBabove None ofcorrect the (1) Vacuum relay time making time

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Fault current is maximum in an impedance relay if the fault has occurred

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constantly the electrical quantities 198. which differ during normal and abnormal conditions

point

of the

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(1) Reactance relay (2) Impedance relay (3) (4) MHO relay None of the above (2) (3) (4) of 199. (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) impedance relay directional relay non-directional relay None of the above
100.

Protective relays are devices which detect 197. abnormal conditions in electrical circuits by measuring

Which relay is used in protection of long transmission lines ?

Buchholz relay is (1) installed inside the breaker installed at the end of breather pipe located on the top of the conservator tank

Admittance relay is basically alan

A MHO relay is a voltage controlled over current relay voltage restrained directional relay directional restrained over voltage relay directional restrained over current relay

of 101. Which is the circuit breaker (CB) preferred of for the interruption of high voltages and low current?
(4) (3) (2) (1)

og

connected in the pipe connecting the main tank of transformer and conservator

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rating

EEA/507

( 14 )

102.

Arcing between CB contacts can be reduced 1107. Circuit breakers usually operate during (1)
(2)

inserting resistance in the line inserting a capacitor in parallel with the contacts inserting a capacitor in series with the contacts

sp ot.
(2) (3)

by

(1)

steady state of short circuit current

transient state of short circuit current sub-transient current state of short circuit

(3)

(4)

103.

The voltage across the circuit contacts after final current zero is (1) (2) (3) (4) restriking voltage recovery voltage supply voltage None of the above

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breaker
(1) (2) (3) (4)

inserting an inductance in parallel to 1108. Air blast circuit breaker is most suitable for contacts over intermittent short currents duty repeated dutyduty

1109. Which of the following circuit breakers

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(4)

after dc component has ceased

in

104.

Resistance switching is normally used in case

of

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preferred for 400 kV transmission protection ? (1) (2) (3) Bulk oil CB Minimum oil CB Air break CB
SF6 CB

is line

(1) (2) (3) (4)

105.

bulk oil circuit breakers

minimum oil circuit breakers air blast circuit breakers all types of circuit breakers

tri ca
x

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110.

In a circuit breaker, arc will restrike if (1) (2) (3) (4) RRRV is zero RRRV is more than the rate of building up of dielectric strength RRRV is less than the rate of building up of dielectric strength RRRV is same as rate of building up of dielectric strength

The symmetrical breaking capacity 3-phase circuit breaker is given by

(1)

of a

lle
(3)

(2)

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(4) None of the above

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normal voltage x rated current x factor of safety

x normal voltage symmetrical current

13

rated

3 x normal voltage x rated symmetrical current symmetrical

111.

Arc in a circuit behaves as (1) (2) (3) (4) an inductive reactance a capacitive reactance a resistance increasing with voltage rise across the arc a resistance decreasing rise across the arc with voltage

106.

The rating of a circuit breaker is generally determined on the basis of (1) symmetrical fault current single-line to ground fault current double-line to ground fault current line to line fault current

htt
(2) (3) (4)

EEA/507

( 15 )

112.

The time to interval from instant of Which ? plant can never have 100 percent load separation time of arc extinction is contact called 1117. factor
(1)

None of the above Peak arcing Base load time plant opening Nuclear Hydroelectric time power plant plant closing time

(3) (2) (1) (4)

113.

must In which be equipped of the following, for remotea operation? circuit breaker 1118. generation In order to have lower cost of electrical
(1)

None the trip above Inverse time trip Time-delay Shunt of trip

(2) (4) (3)

114.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

115.

Oil circuit breakers Air blast circuit breakers Vacuum circuit breakers SF 6 circuit breakers

ca

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119.

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Air used in air blast circuit breaker (1) (2) (3) must have oil mist must be ionized

ec

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must have least CO2

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(4.) must be free from moisture

116.

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(1) (2) (3) (4)

Which of the following circuit breakers has hi.gh reliability and minimum maintenance?

mp
(3) (4)

ap ers .bl
(1) (2)
120.

Plant capacity factor and load factor become identical when average load is same as peak load peak load is equal to the capacity of the plant average load is half the capacity of the plant group diversity factor is equal to peak diversity factor factor, it

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The area under the load curve gives average demand

If a plant has low utilization indicates that (1) (2) (3) (4) plant is shut off

(1)

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(2)

average kWh energy during the period

consumption

(3)

maximum demand

(4)

None of the above

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the load factor and diversity factor should be low the load factor and diversity factor should be high the load factor should be high but the diversity factor low the load factor should be low but the diversity factor high plant is used for base load only plant is used for peak load only plant is used for standby purpose only

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EEA/507

( 16)

economic criteria is given by 121. The data is obtained The following station: Fixed cost
==

(3) (1) (4) (2) k=l

computing Inequation constraint gi + PD) PL + PD) PD) (P gi P L + P D) == +(P PL lj>

L
n

== == lj> lj>

from a power 1125.

<'
==

20 x 105
<'

Variable cost

30 x 105
==

Units generated (1) (2) (3) (4) 100

per annum

175 x 106 kWh

The cost of generation

<'

per unit will be

2857 paise 5 paise 285 paise

122. When transmission

1 dp ==A == A 1 dp .(1) Li dfc dp dfc dfc L. == A

(2)

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pa pe
where P gl. represents power. generation, and
lj>

losses are considered, the criteria of economic operation is given by

(3)

(4)

L.

==

123. transmISSIOn Optim~m. fuel is achieved, 1126. losses ec~nomy bemg considered, when
(1) (2) summation of incremental fuel cost and penalty factor is same for all plants penalty factor is neglected penalty factor is constant

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where

Li represents

penalty factor.

l-e

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(3)

ctr

(4)

product of incremental fuel cost times penalty factor is constant for all plants for a power station is

124.

A cost function represented as

Fc
== (J..

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13P. 1

y P,1

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Hence, the incremental by

(1)

fuel cost will be given

(3)
PA==PB==-

IFC IFC

==

(J..

13

y (4)

(2)

==

(J..

13P.1

+ y p,2 1

(3) (4)

IFC IFC

==

13

+ yPi + yPi

==

(J..

rs. blo gs po
PL the load the residual and P D the load demand The i.ncremental are gIVen as costs of two power stations If
13

A == 13B

(1)

(2)

PA==PB==

PA==PB==O

here PD represents

t.in
and
yA == YB'

k=l
n

for optimal operation,

PD
-

PD
2

the total load demand.

EEA/507

( 17)

I"~ . \.11

Pumped storage plant Steam turbine plant Nuclear power plant None of the above

(3) (4)
128.

(2)

(3) (4)

The choice of number and size of units in a station is governed by best compromise between (1) (2) (3) (4) plant load factor and plant use factor plant capacity factor and plant factor

None of the above

129.

Plant capacity factor is

(1)

(2)

(3)

lle

energy generated in ? given period (maximum demand is in hours of the given period)

lec

actual energy produced / (plant capacity, hours for which the plant has been in operation)

tri

ca

actual energy produced / maximum possible energy that could have been produced (based on installed capacity)

l-e
133.

xa
(1) (2) (3) (4)

130.

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(4)

None of the above

The product of diversity factor and maximum 1134. Most efficient plants are normally used as demand is I (1) peak load plants (4) either (1) or (2) sum None of of consumers' the above maximum demand (1) installed base load plants average demand capacity generated power (2) (3)
I

(2)

mp
(3; (4)

plant load factor and plant capacity factor

ap ers .bl
132.

To effectively reduce the cost of generation in a power station, increase its load factor

use

(1) (2)

Power plant having maximum demand more than the installed rated capacity will have utilization factor equal to unity less than unity more than unity None of the above

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penalty factor product of (1) and (2) rate of incremental fuel cost diversity factor both (1) and (2) power factor and load factor

(2)

(1)

incremental fuel cost

ot.

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127.

Which of the following plants is used as peak 113t. load plant?

In optimum generator scheduling of different power plants, the minimum fuel cost is obtained when for each plant same is its

EEA/507

( 18 )

of

(1)

peak demand is more than the installed capacity daily load fac;tor is unity diversity factor is zero plant is under repairs

(1) (2)

(2) (3) (4)

136.

The - Leonard method of speed control is input to the set under Hopkinson's test 1140. Ward basically alan (1) (2) (3) (4) losses in the generator alone losses in the motor alone output of the generator (1) field control method field diverter method armature resistance control method

pa pe rs.

blo g
(3) (4) (2) (3) (4)
141.

sp ot.
running-light test alone running-light both tests blocked-rotor test alone voltage control method being inadequately ground fault protected insulation being overstressed over voltages All of the above both (1) and (2)

running-light, blocked-rotor and stator resistance tests

in

135.

When a plant resorts to load shedding it can 1139. The complete circle diagram of a 3-phase be concluded that induction motor can be drawn with the help

and blocked-rotor

IS

losses in both the machines

137.

In Swinburne's method of testing dc machines, the shunt machine is run as a (1) (2) (3) (4) motor at full load

ca l-e xa m
(1)

Ungrounded neutral transmission system is not recommended because of system against due to

(2)

generator at full load motor at no load

tri
142.

(3) (4)

insulation overstress may lead to failure and subsequent phase to phase faults

lle

lec
generator at no load

138.

/a

The moment of inertia of rotating machine (dc motor) can be obtained by calculations from the following test (1) Swinburne's test Brake test

A system is said to be effectively grounded when for the portion under consideration, the ratio of (1) (2) (3) (4) zero sequence reactance to positive sequence reactance is more than three zero sequence resistance to positive sequence resistance is less than unity zero sequence reactance to positive sequence reactance is more than three

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(3) (4)

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(2) Hopkinson's test Retardation test

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( 19 )

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Single-phase motors dc motors Squirrel cage induction motors Slip-ring induction motors

(1) (2)
(3)

Oil expeller Flour mill

(4)

144.

In ~ paper mill where constant reqmred

(1)

speed

Planer Lathe individual group Printing drive machine drive is preferred is preferred synchronous ac Punching motors machine are motors preferred are preferred

145.

has relatively wide range of speed control. (1)

ica l-e

xa m
Which of the following is preferred automatic drives?

pa pe rs. bl
IS

\148.

Which of the following machines has heavy fluctuation of load?

(2) (3) (4) (1)

og
Centrifugal pump for

Lifts and hoists

149.

Synchronous motor Ward - Leonard controlled dc motors dc shunt motor Any Squirrel Synchronous cage above motors induction motor Slip-ring induction motor (4) of the

(2) (3)' (1)

146.

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Which of the following motors is preferred when quick speed reversal is the main 150. In overhead travelling cranes consideration ? (1\ (2) (4) (3) None of the above Wound rotor induction motor dc motor short time rated motors are preferred continuous duty motors are used Synchronous slow speed motors motor are preferred Squirrel cage induction motor (1) I

/a lle le

ctr

I . ,

(2)

sp o t.

143.

Which the following motors is best suited /147. for the of rolling mills?

For which the following applications, motor has to of start with high acceleration?

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