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DMRC general awareness
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : ANUJ RANA Updated Date : Oct 11, 2012
DMRC Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers DMRC recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

DMRC Technical question paper

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Hi Everyone. Please find the attached question paper and keys of DMRC (Mech. Engg) held on 1-72012.Unfortunately i was not able to appear in the interview although i have cleared the exam in my very first attempt. Best of wishes to all readers and aspirants. DMRC GENERAL AWARENESS & LOGICAL ABILITY

DMRC Technical question paper

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1. Hajo, the meeting point of Buddhism, Hinduism and Islam, is in the state of: (1) Bihar (2) Jharkhand (3) Uttar Pradesh
(4) Assam-answer

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DMRC Model Questions

2. Which is the highest mountain peak in India?

(1) K2-answer

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(2) Mount Everest (3) Kanchen Junga (4) Nanda Devi 3. Who amongst the following introduced the Doctrine of Lapse whereby in absence of natural heir, the sovereignty of Indian States was to lapse to the British: (1) Lord Hardinge (2) Lord William Bentinck (3) Lord Dalhousie
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(4) Article 360-answer

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7. Malaria can be detected by testing the blood for the presence of: (1) Eggs of mosquito in red blood cells
(2) Plasmodium in red blood cells-answer

(3) Ruptured liver cells in blood

(3) Ruptured liver cells in blood (4) Larvae of mosquito in blood 8. How much would a 70 Kg man weigh on the moon? (1) 14 Kg
(2) 114.1 Newtons-answer

(3) 421.67 Kg (4) 98.4 Newtons 9. Smallest & Largest planet of solar system is respectively:
(1) Mercury & Uranus-answer

(2) Neptune & Jupiter (3) Mars & Saturn (4) Mercury & Jupiter 10. The MOTTO of the National Defence Academy is: (1) Sewa Parmo Dharma
(2) Veerta Aur Vivek-answer

(3) Kartavya Sarvopari (4) None of these 11. Buddhism has been divided into how many sects: (1) Four (2) Two
(3) Nine -answer

(4) Three 12. The term cox is associated with which game:
(1) Rowing -answer

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(2) Billiards (3) Golf (4) Boxing 13. The white band in Indias national flag was added by: (1) Pt. Motilal Nehru (2) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
(3) Mahatma Gandhi-answer

(4) Rabindra Nath Tagore 14. If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following schedules of constitution must be amended?
(1) First -answer

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(2) Second (3) Third (4) Fifth 15. An order of the Supreme Court or High Court commanding a person or a body to do that which is his duty to do is known as: (1) Mandamus
(2) Certiorari-answer

(3) Obiter Dictum (4) Quo Warranto 16. Food is supplied to the foetus by means of: (1) The mothers heart
(2) The uterus-answer

(3) The placenta (4) The amniotic sac 17. How many languages have been recognized by the Indian Constitution now: (1) 18
(2) 22-answer

(3) 23 (4) None of the above 18. In the epic Mahabharata, who was the archery teacher of both Pandavas and Kauravas: (1) Dronocharya (2) Kripacharya (3) Vishwamitra
(4) Vashihtha-answer

19. Anusuya, who gave sermons to Sita, the wife of Lord Rama, during their banishment to forest

19. Anusuya, who gave sermons to Sita, the wife of Lord Rama, during their banishment to forest (vanvasa), was the wife of sage: (1) Atri
(2) Angiras-answer

(3) Marichi (4) Kratu 20. Zero degree absolute is equivalent to: (1) 0C (2) 273C
(3) 273C-answer

(4) None of these 21. Identify the ATS Cheif among the followings who lost their life during terrorist strike at Mumbai on 2611-2008: (1) Vijay Salaskar (2) Ashok Kampte
(3) Hemant Karkare -answer

(4) M. C. Sharma 22. In case of reflection it is well known that when a mirror turned through an angle the reflected ray turns through: (1) Same angle (2) Twice the angle
(3) Thrice the angle -answer

(4) Half the angle 23. Transmission of light in fiber optics relies on the principle:
(1) Velocity of light is constant-answer

(2) Refraction of light when light moves from a rarer to denser medium (3) Total internal reflection (4) Light travels in straight lines 24. Ankaleshwar in India is known for the production of: (1) Bauxite
(2) Coal-answer

(3) Iron Ore (4) Petroleum 25. Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly? (1) Laughing Gas : Nitrous Oxide
(2) Candy Fluid : Sodium Bicarbonate-answer

(3) Muriatic Acid : Hydrochloric Acid (4) Green Vitriol : Ferrous Sulphate 26. In a certain code EXERCISE is written as XEREICES. How is POSTPONE written in that code? (1) OPSTOPEN (2) PSOPTNOE (3) POTSOPEN
(4) OPTSOPEN-answer

27. Find the number that comes next in the sequence? (1)5sigma()&one pi() bonds (2)3sigma()&one pi() bonds (3)6sigma()&one pi() bonds
(4)9sigma()&one pi() bonds-Answer

28. Ram starts his journey from X point. There are seven cricketers who are standing in straight line in the North from X point. The gap between each cricketers is 3 km. The last player is M. S. Dhoni. The first player is Rahul Dravid who is standing at 3 km from X point. Now starting from X point Ram travels 10 km towards North and turns left and travels 4 km and then again turns right and covers another 5 km and then turns right and travels another 4 km. If Ram met M.S. Dhoni, how many km he covered? (1) 21 km. (2) 25 km. (3) 29 km.
(4) None of these-answer

29. If all the letters in the English alphabet are written in reverse order, which letter is exactly in the middle of 20th letter from right and 21st letter from left? (1) O (2) N

(2) N

(3) M -answer

(4) None of these DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 30 to 32) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. There are six children P, Q, R, S, T and U playing squash. P and T are brothers. U is the sister of T. R is only son of Ps uncle. Q and S are daughters of the only brother of Rs father. 30. How is R related to U? (1) Brother (2) Cousin
(3) Uncle-answer

(4) None of these 31. How many male players are there?
(1) Two-answer

(2) Three (3) One (4) Four 32. How many female players are there? (1) Three (2) Four
(3) Two-answer

(4) One
DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 33 to 35) Read the following information and answer the questions that follow. In Common Wealth Games, six weightlifters were selected through a rigourous selection test. Their names are Atul, Bimal, Chintoo, Debu, Eshan and Fakir. Out of them Bimal, Chintoo and Eshan were from Rural Backround and the remaining from urban background. Atul, Bimal and Debu had completed their education in English medium and all remaining in Hindi Medium. Debu and fakir had specialisation in yoga and others had specialisation in swimming.

33. If Atul and Chintoo were also yoga specialists, what would have been the number of swimming specialist from rural background: (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 -answer

(4) None of these 34. Which of the following description is correct in respect of Atul and Bimal both of them are:
(1) From urban background studied in English medium-answer

(2) From Rural Background studied in English medium (3) Having Swimming specialisation studied in English medium (4) English medium players but one of them is a yoga expert 35. Who among the following is a yoga specialist coming form urban background and studied in English medium: (1) Fakir (2) Atul-answer (3) Chintoo (4) Debu

GENERAL ENGLISH DIRECTIONS: (Que. no. 36 & 37) In questions given below, choose the word opposite in meaning to the underlined word. 36. MORBID (1) Healthy -answer

(2) Pleasant (3) Frugal (4) Chaste

37. MAGNANIMOUS

(1) Small

(2) Naive (3) Selfish -answer

(4) Generous
DIRECTIONS: (Que. no. 38 & 39) Choose the word which is similar in meaning as the

DIRECTIONS: (Que. no. 38 & 39) Choose the word which is similar in meaning as the word given in bold and mark that as your answer.

38. SAGACIOUS (1) Clever (2) Strong (4) Obstinate 39. INTREPID

(3) Ridiculous -answer

(1) Foolhardy -answer

(2) Obstinate (3) Fearless (4) Contaminated

DIRECTIONS: (Question nos. 40 & 41) Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

40. .......... financial and industrial relation problems the company has achieved good export orders:
(1) Through -answer

(2) Though (3) During (4) Despite 41. How would you ........ your action to your senior officers so that they can support you: (1) Justify (2) Define (3) Deplore
(4) Account-answer DIRECTIONS: (Question nos. 42 & 43) Choose the correct passive voice of the sentence given in the question.

42. Should we not obey our parents? (1) Should our parents not be obeyed by us? (3) Shall our parents not be obeyed by us? (4) Shall our parents be not obeyed by us?

(2) Should our parents be not obeyed by us?-answer

43. Women like men to flatter them: (1) Men are liked by those women who flatter them. (2) Women like to be flattered by men. (4) Flattering men are liked by women.

(3) Men flatters women and liked by them-answer

DIRECTIONS: (Question nos. 44 & 45) Change the following sentences into reported speech.

44. He said to me, where are you going? (2) He asked me where I was going. (3) He told to me where he was going. (4) He asked him where was he going?

(1) He told me where I was going-answer

45. He said, Please give me another chance: (1) He requested him to give another chance.

(2) He requested them to give another chance.-answer

(3) He requested them to have been given another chance. (4) He requested that another chance should be given to him.
TECHNICAL AWARENESS (MECHANICAL)

46. When change in length takes place, the strain is known as: (1) Linear strain
(2) Lateral strain-answer

(3) Volumetric strain (4) Shear strain 47. The bending moment diagram of a simply supported beam with a point load at Centre is: (1) Rectangle
(2) An equilateral triangle-answer

(3) A right angled triangle (4) An isosceles triangle

(4) An isosceles triangle 48. When shear force at a point is zero, then bending moment is . at that point: (1) Zero
(2) Minimum-answer

(3) Maximum (4) Infinity 49. If section modulus of a beam is increased, the bending stress in the beam will:
(1) Not change-answer

(2) Increase (3) Decrease (4) Become zero 50. Rivets are generally specified by: (1) Overall length (2) Shank diameter (3) Diameter of head
(4) Plate thickness-answer

51. The compression test is carried on material: (1) Ductile (2) Brittle
(3) Malleable-answer

(4) Plastic 52. During a refrigeration cycle heat is rejected by the refrigerant in a: (1) Compressor (2) Condenser-answer (3) Evaporator (4) Expansion valve 53. A vapour absorption refrigeration uses . as a refrigerant: (1) Water (2) Ammonia
(3) Aqua ammonia-answer (4) Freon

54. A belt can transmit maximum power when the total tension of the drive is: (1) Equal to the centrifugal tension
(2) Twice the centrifugal tension-answer

(3) Three times the centrifugal tension (4) Four times the centrifugal tension 55. Rack and pinion arrangement is used for:
(1) Linear motion to rotary motion-answer

(2) Rotary motion to rotary motion (3) Linear to linear motion (4) Rotary to linear motion 56. The dynamic friction is the friction experienced by a body when the body:
(1) Is in motion-answer

(2) Is at rest (3) Slides over surface (4) None of above 57. The included angel of V- belt is usually: (1) 10 to 20 (2) 20 to 30 (3) 30 to 40
(4) 50 to 60-answer

58. Cotter joint is used to transmit: (1) Axial tensile load only

(2) Axial compressive load only-answer

(3) Combined axial and twisting load only (4) Axial tensile or compressive load 59. When a shaft is subjected to twisting moment every section of the shaft will be under: (1) Tensile stress (2) Shear stress

(2) Shear stress

(3) Compressive stress-answer

(4) Bending stress 60. In grey cast iron, carbon is present in the form of:
(1) Cementite -answer

(2) Pearlite (3) Flakes (4) Spheroids 61. Spinning operation is carried out on:
(1) Hydraulic press -answer

(2) Mechanical press (3) Lathe (4) Milling machine 62. An example of a water tube boiler is a: (1) Locomotive boiler (2) Lancashire boiler (3) Babcock-Wilcox boiler
(4) Cochran boiler-answer

63. Feeler gauges are used for measuring the: (1) Thickness of metal sheet (2) Clearances between matting parts-answer (3) Pitch of screw threads (4) Radius of curvature 64. An error of 5% occurred during the measurement of the dia of a cylindrical part. The likely error in the calculated weight of the part is approximately: (1) 10% (2) 5%
(3) 1% -answer

(4) 7.5 % 65. Gas turbine works on: (1) Brayton or Atkinson cycle (3) Rankine cycle (4) Erricsson cycle 66. The unit of power in S.I. units is: (1) Newton (2) Pascal
(3) Joule -answer

(2) Carnot cycle-answer

(4) Watt 67. The bank of tubes at the back of a domestic refrigerator are: (1) Condenser tubes (2) Evaporator tubes (4) Capillary tubes 68. The force of buoyancy is dependent on: (1) Mass of liquid displaced (2) Viscosity of fluid
(3) Surface tension of fluid-answer (3) Refrigerant cooling tube-answer

(4) Depth of immersion 69. A piece of wood having weight 5 kg floats in water with 60% of its volume under the liquid. Determine specific gravity of wood:
(1) 0.83 -answer

(2) 0.6 (3) 0.4 (4) 1.67 70. Reynolds number is the ratio of intertial force to: (1) Gravitational force
(2) Surface tension-answer

(3) Elasticity (4) Viscous force

(4) Viscous force 71. In the tensile test, the phenomenon of slow extension of the material i.e. stress increasing with the time at a constant load is called: (1) Creeping (2) Yielding (3) Breaking
(4) Plastic flow-answer

72. A long column is most likely to fail by: (1) Crushing (2) Tension
(3) Shearing -answer

(4) Buckling 73. Fluxes are used in welding in order to protect the molten metal and the surfaces to be joined from:
(1) Oxidation-answer

(2) Carburising (3) Unequal temperature distribution (4) Distortion and warping 74. Stainless steel contains: (1) Chromium, Iron, Nickel

(2) Chromium and Nickel-answer

(3) Iron and Carbon (4) Chromium, Nickel, Iron and Carbon 75. PERT is the: (1) Time oriented technique (2) Event oriented technique

(3) Activity oriented technique-answer

(4) Target oriented technique 76. The Symbol ?? on a PERT / CPM chart represents: (1) An ordinary event (3) An event to be transferred to other network chart (4) Dangling event 77. One ton of refrigerator is equal to the refrigeration effect corresponding to melting of 1000 kg of ice: (1) In 1 hour
(2) In 1 minute-answer

(2) A significant event representing some mile-stone-answer

(3) In 24 hours (4) In 12 hours 78. Presence of moisture in a refrigerant affects the working of:
(1) Compressor -answer

(2) Condenser (3) Evaparator (4) Expansion valve 79. When a mixture of air and water vapour is cooled at constant pressure upto saturation temperature of water vapour, the temperature attained is known as: (1) Dry bulb temperature
(2) Wet bulb temperature-answer

(3) Dew point temperature (4) Critical temperature 80. Which of the following instruments is used to measure flow on the application of Bernoullis theorem:
(1) Venturimeter -answer

(2) Orifice plate (3) Pitot tube (4) All of these 81. Runaway speed of a hydraulic turbine is:
(1) Full load speed-answer

(2) The speed at which turbine runner will be damaged (3) The speed if the turbine runner is allowed to revolve freely without load and with the wicket gates wide open (4) The speed corresponding to maximum overload permissible

82. If a ball which is dropped from a height of 2.25 m on a smooth floor attains the height of bounce equal to 1.00 m, the coefficient of the restitution between the ball and the floor is equal to: (1) 0.25 (2) 0.50 (4) 0.33 83. Two cantilever beams are of equal length. One carries a uniformly distributed load and other carries same load but concentrated at the free end. The ratio of maximum deflections is: (1) 5/6 (2) 2/3
(3) -answer

(3) 0.67 -answer

(4) 1/3 84. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as compared to ultimate strength in tension is: (1) Same
(2) 1 / 2-answer

(3) 1 / 3 (4) 2 / 3 85. The maximum efficiency of a screw jack having square threads and friction angle of 30 will be: (1) 11%
(2) 20%-answer

(3) 30% (4) 33% 86. The percentage of carbon in pig iron varies from: (1) 0.1 to 1.2 %
(2) 1.5 to 2.5 %-answer

(3) 2.5 to 4% (4) 4 to 4.5 % 87. Blast furnace uses the following as fuel (1) Coal
(2) Coke-answer

(3) Diesel (4) Producer gas 88. Anodising is: (1) A zinc diffusion process (2) An oxidising process used for aluminum and magnesium articles (3) A process used for making thin phosphate coatings on steel to act as a base or primer for enamels and paints (4) Is the process of coating of zinc by hot dipping-answer 89. The usual value of helix angle of a drill is:
(1) 10-answer

(2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 60 90. A cantilever beam is deflected by d due to load P. If length of beam is doubled, the deflection compared to earlier case will be changed by a factor of: (1) 2
(2) 1/2-answer

(3) 1/8 (4) 8 91. Cast iron is characterised by minimum of following %age of carbon: (1) 0.2% (2) 0.8%
(3) 1.3%-answer

(4) 2% 92. A tool used in cutting an external thread is called a:

(1) Twist drill-answer

(2) Tap (3) Die (4) End mill

93. Work study is concerned with:

(1) Improving present method and finding standard time-answer

(2) Motivation of workers (3) Improving production capability (4) Improving production planning and control 94. The tendency of a diesel engine to knock increases, if:
(1) Engine speed is increased-answer

(2) Engine H.P. is increased (3) Octane number of fuel is increased (4) Compression ratio is increased 95. To transmit power from one rotating shaft to another whose axes are neither parallel nor intersecting, use: (1) Spur gears (2) Spiral gears
(3) Bevel gears-answer

(4) Worm gears 96. The fatigue life of a part can be improved by:
(1) Electroplating-answer

(2) Polishing (3) Shot peening (4) Heat treating 97. The included angle in Acme threads is: 600
550
47 1/20

29 0-Answer

98. Factor of safety is the ratio of: (1) Yield stress / working stress (2) Tensile stress / working stress (4) Bearing stress / yield stress

(3) Bearing stress / working stress-answer

99. A suspended body is to be struck heavily without producing any reaction at the support. It should be done at:
(1) Centre of gravity-answer

(2) Centre of suspension (3) Centre of spin (4) Centre of percussion 100. Chromium in steel: (1) Improves wear resistance, cutting ability and toughness (2) Refines grain size and produces less tendency to carburisation, improves corrosion and heat resistant properties
(3) Improves cutting ability and reduces hardenability-answer

(4) Gives ductility, toughness, tensile strength and anticorrosion properties 101. Which of the following has least percentage of carbon: (1) Malleable iron
(2) Pig iron-answer

(3) Stainless steel (4) Wrought iron 102. Two stainless steel foils of 0.1 mm thickness are to be joined. Which of the following processes would be best suited: (1) Gas welding (2) TIG welding (3) MIG welding
(4) Plasma arc welding-answer

103. The temperature range for soldering process is: (1) 40C to 100C
(2) 180C to 250C-answer

(3) 300C to 500C (4) Around 1000C 104. Octane number of gasoline is a measure of its:

(1) Knocking tendency (2) Ignition delay (3) Ignition temperature

(4) Smoke point-answer

105. The material of the bed of lathe machine is: (1) Cast steel (2) Cast iron (3) Mild steel
(4) Tool steel-answer

106. In oxy-acetylene welding:

(1) Pressure is applied-answer

(2) Filler metal is applied (3) Both pressure and filler metal are applied (4) Neither pressure, nor filler metal is applied 107. The fixed point/points for celcius temperature scale is/are: (1) Ice point as 0C (2) Steam point as 100C (3) Both ice and steam points as 0 & 100C respectively (4) Triple point of water as 0.01C 107. A Fin Willbe Effective only when Blot Number is
(1) Loss than One-Answer

(2) Equal to one (3) Morethan one (4) Infinite 109. A ring gage is used to measure: (1) Outside diameter but not roundness

(2) Roundness but not outside diameter-answer

(3) Both outside diameter and roundness (4) Only external threads 110. Wood flour is added to core sand to improve:
(1) Collapsibility of core-answer

(2) Dry strength of core (3) Shear strength of core (4) Tolerance on casting 111. A good cutting fluid should have: (1) Low thermal conductivity
(2) High specific heat-answer

(3) High viscosity (4) High density 112. Plastic bottles are made using: (1) Blow moulding (2) Injection moulding
(3) Perform moulding -answer

(4) Slush moulding 113. The cupola is used to make: (1) Pig iron answer
(2) Cast iron-answer

(3) Wrought iron (4) Steel 114. Which of the following surface hardening processes needs no quenching? (1) Induction hardening (2) Flame hardening (3) Nitriding
(4) Case carburising-answer

115. The blade of a power hacksaw is made of: (1) Boron steel (2) High speed steel (3) Stainless steel
(4) Malleable cast iron-answer

116. Ceramic cutting tools are made of: (1) Mixture of oxides of aluminum
(2) Silicon oxide-answer

(3) Titanium carbide (4) Tungsten carbide 117. In sheet metal working, shear is provided on punches and dies so that:
(1) Press load is reduced-answer

(2) Good cut edge is obtained (3) Warping of sheet is minimised (4) Cut blanks are straight 118. In drop forging, forging is done by droping:
(1) The work piece at high velocity-answer

(2) The hammer at high velocity (3) The die with hammer at high velocity (4) A weight on hammer to hammer to produce the requisite impact 119. No cutting fluid is normally used while machining: (1) Aluminum (2) Alloy steels
(3) Cast iron -answer

(4) Low carbon steel 120. Gray cast irons are often used at the base of heavy machines because of its high: (1) Stiffness
(2) Strength-answer

(3) Toughness (4) Damping capacity

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