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Objectives
By the end of this exercise, you should be able to: Assess your knowledge of E-Series storage system configuration and monitoring objectives Identify topics for further investigation
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Instructions
In this assessment, you test your knowledge of the topics covered by the Configuring and Monitoring NetApp E-Series Storage Systems class. For the following multiple-choice questions, select the best answer.
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Which of the following components does NOT have a redundant partner in the DE6600 disk shelf? A. ESM B. Fan module C. Power module D. None of these
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When would you expect to see the SAA LED on? A. When the component is functionally normally. B. When power has been turned on to the component. C. When the component has failed. D. When it is safe to remove the component.
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When you power off a storage system, which component should be powered off first? A. The controller shelf B. All disk shelves C. The configuration database D. The SANtricity client
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Why is it a best practice to cable disk shelves to a controller shelf using the top-down-bottom-up method? A. It protects against drawer failure. B. It protects against power outages. C. It protects against shelf failure. D. It protects against disk failure.
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What is the preferred method of zoning from host ports to controller ports in a SAN? A. One-to-one B. One-to-many C. Two-to-two D. Many-to-two
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What is SMutil?
A. A host I/O performance modeling interface B. A host server process that enables storage system management with the storage data path C. Inter-process communication that supports computer program subroutines D. A GUI or CLI run on a host server used for storage system management E. An OS dependent collection of utilities for servers attached to SANtricity managed storage systems
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What uses the Access Volume? A. Legacy operating environments B. Redundancy check C. Persistent Monitor D. SMAgent E. XOR parity calculations
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Management connections between the SANtricity client and the controllers use which communication API by default? A. HIC B. HTTP C. HTTPS D. SYMbol E. ATM
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In-band communication occurs between which components? A. The LAN and the ESMs B. The ESMs and the disks C. The I/O host and the controller D. The controller and the disk shelf ESMs
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Which file contains information about the management domain? A. EMWdata_vxx.bin B. firmware-inventory.txt C. storage-array-config.cfg D. storage-array-profile.txt E. performance-statistics.csv
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What character must enclose commands written at the SMcli on a Windows host? A. \ B. / C. D.
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Which SANtricity client utility associates a LUN with a host OS storage system device? A. dsmutil B. SMdevices C. hot_add D. lun_mapper E. hot_show_all
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In the Array Management window, which tab provides access to Ethernet management port configuration and premium feature enablement? A. Setup B. Hardware C. Configuration D. Host Mappings E. Storage & Copy Services
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What function do hot spares provide? A. Efficiency for configuring volumes to maximize capacity usage B. Spare capacity for disk pools in event of disk failure C. Spare capacity for volume groups in event of disk failure D. Spare capacity for both volume groups and disk pools
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What term describes a cache mechanism periodically writing dirty data to disk? A. Filling B. Cleaning C. Flushing D. Fetching E. Scrubbing
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What function can the storage system use to preserve cache data in the event of a complete controller failure? A. Write caching B. Cache mirroring C. Read caching D. Pre-fetch caching E. SSD read cache
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With a system cache block size of 32K, how much cache space per I/O is lost if incoming I/Os are all 48K writes? A. None B. 4K C. 8K D. 16K E. 24K
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Where is a record of almost all non-I/O related activity on the storage system recorded? A. Event Log B. Configuration database C. NVSRAM D. Storage Array Profile E. Cache backup device
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What can be performed by the controllers to provide error detection on the disk media? A. Cache flush B. Disk Monitor C. Cache Mirroring D. Event Log E. Media Scan
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Which storage manager feature scans the system for issues, reports them, and suggests procedures that will correct the issue? A. Diagmon B. Recovery Guru C. Performance Monitor D. Storage System Diagnostics E. Event Log
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Where does the storage systems configuration database reside? A. On Controller A B. On the SANtricity client host C. On the first disk of all shelves D. On all disks in the storage system E. On the first disk of the controller shelf F. On the first disk of the first disk shelf
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Controller firmware package files start with which character(s)? A. N B. CFW C. DLP D. RC E. SMIA
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Which of the following describes a difference between controller cache and SSD Read Cache?
A. Controller cache is enabled by default when a volume is created; SSD Read Cache is not enabled except by user configuration. B. Controller cache uses DIMM RAM banks; SSD Read Cache uses SSD disks. C. Controller cache is used by all I/O coming to the storage system; SSD Read Cache is only used by hot data blocks determined by the controllers . D. All of these.
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Which description most accurately represents how the storage system handles I/Os to the non-preferred controller with ALUA support?
A. They are shipped over to the owning controller to be managed, then returned through the non-preferred path after completion. B. They are rejected with a specific SCSI check condition and noted in the Event Log. C. The non-owning controller takes ownership of the volume in order to handle them, then restores ownership to the original controller. D. The controller handles them normally, updating both controllers cache to maintain consistency, which is why ALUA requires cache mirroring to be enabled. E. The controller handles them normally, updating both controllers cache to maintain consistency, which is why ALUA requires cache mirroring to be enabled.
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What technology is used by the Snapshot feature to ensure a point-in-time image is maintained of the base volume? A. Mirroring between the Snapshot images B. Copy-on-write to the repository C. Volume Copy of data to the repository D. Hot-spare-copy to repository blocks
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Synchronous mirroring requires what type of connection between storage systems? A. InfiniBand B. iSCSI C. SAS D. FC E. Either FC or iSCSI
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What should the interval for an asynchronous mirror group usually be equal to? A. The corresponding applications RTO B. The corresponding applications RPO C. The amount of time required to copy the mirror repository to the remote site D. Half the corresponding applications RPO
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Which file contains a description of all the hardware and logical components and properties of the storage system, including the component serial numbers? A. Performance-statistics.csv B. Firmware-inventory.txt C. Storage-array-config.cfg D. Storage-array-profile.txt E. EMWdata_vxx.bin
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Where can you access the Event Log? Choose two answers. A. In the hot_add utility B. In the messages utility C. On the Enterprise Management window Setup tab D. On the Array Management window Summary tab E. In the Support Data
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A foreign controller: A. Is the alternate controller in a failover scenario. B. Belongs to the first dynamic disk pool. C. Is new to the slot in which it is inserted. D. Has a controller serial number that is stored in the configuration database. E. Cannot determine the board identifier for the alternate controller in this storage system.
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What state is a controller in while it is activating a new version of firmware? A. Offline B. Service Mode C. Suspended D. Quiesced
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When replacing a failed component in a shelf, why should you wait for 30 to 60 seconds after the removal of the failed component before inserting the replacement component? A. To ensure that the controller configuration database has a record of the change. B. To ensure that the storage manager has completed the component repair sleep cycle. C. To ensure that the administrator has time to complete ESD and air blocking procedures. D. To ensure that the host OS has completed start-ofday processing and has started sending I/O to the storage system.
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What is used by the controllers to send and receive SCSI commands? A. The disk interface type B. Inherent tools naming C. The initiator-target (I_T) nexus D. Media multipath numbering
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The multipath driver resides on the A. ESM B. Disk shelf C. Controller D. Management host E. I/O host
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In a forced failover, the alternate controller A. Powers off the storage system to prevent data loss. B. Initiates the hot spare disk to replace a failed disk. C. Sends the Enterprise Management window a notification that the multipath driver failed. D. Takes forced ownership of all the LUNs owned by the failed controller.
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When a disk fails, which characteristic must the replacement disk have? A. Is equal to or greater in size than the failed disk B. Is a host port identifier for a host-mapped single host C. Is assigned by the SANtricity client to a disk pool D. Is assigned by the SANtricity client to a volume group
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If used incorrectly, which disk option might cause data corruption or data loss? A. Reconstruct B. Activate C. Conserve D. Revive
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In the SANtricity client, how do you specify which multipath driver to use? A. set-dsmparams B. Select Storage & Copy Services > Create Mapping C. Select Host Mappings > Set Multipath D. Change the host type specification E. Set storageArray multipath dsm
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If an unresponsive storage system appears in the Enterprise Management window, which method might resolve the issue? A. Delete the EMWdatavxxx.bin file. B. Save and clear the Event Log. C. Restart the SANtricity monitoring agent. D. Set one controller in Service Mode, and then return it to service.
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Unless otherwise specified, what component do you upgrade first when you upgrade controller firmware? A. The ESM firmware B. The disk firmware C. The SAS interposer D. The SANtricity client E. The multipath driver
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Start-of-day (SOD) refers to A. Starting or restarting the host-agent software B. A host interface fault-isolation diagnostic C. Normal controller startup processes D. A volume-group or disk pool initialization process E. Initiating the management of a storage system
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The path for the transfer of data between the controllers and the disks is named A. In-band communication B. Out-of-band communication C. The disk net route D. The drive channel E. The management pathway
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What is a typical cause of a SAS device miswire error? A. A cable is inserted into the wrong port of an ESM. B. An ESM or controller has failed. C. A cable from a host is in the wrong zone on the fabric switch. D. A wide SAS port has transitioned to narrow status.
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Why is it important to have unique shelf IDs on all the shelves in the storage system? A. In order to differentiate between disk shelves and controller shelves. B. In order to determine if a disk shelf is cabled correctly. C. In order to correctly identify a failed disk. D. In order to verify a 7-segment display LED.
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Where do disk pools rebuild data to when a disk fails in the pool? A. They use hot spare disks. B. They use preservation disks. C. They use preservation pools. D. They use preservation capacity.
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Which controller in the E-Series has 12 Gbps SAS 3.0 expansion ports? A. E5500 B. E5400 C. E2700 D. E2600 E. None of these
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What storage management package determines which path to use to send data from an I/O host to the controllers? A. SANtricity client B. SMutil C. SMagent D. Multipath driver
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Which of the following statements is true of thin provisioned volumes? Choose two. A. They are only available in volume groups. B. They are only available in disk pools. C. They report the virtual (total) capacity in Storage & Copy Services. D. They use repositories to track data written to the volume.
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You can re-take this assessment as many times as you would like, until you feel confident of your understanding and skill level.
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