Po 82

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z zz zMUKHERJEE NAGAR z zz z MUNIRKAz zz zUTTAM NAGARz zz zDILSHAD GARDEN z zz zROHINIz zz z BADARPUR BORDER z zz zJAIPURz zz zGURGAONz zz zNOIDA
1. RGAE
(1) (2) (3)
(5)
2. STREAMLINE SCIENTIFIC
3. 'BEND' 'DIAL' 'LINE'
M, B K, M D
(1) (2) (3)
5.
(1) HK (2) LJ (3) BD
6.
(1) 83 (2) 53 (3) 37
7. MONETARY
(1) (2) (3)
8. now
(1
9.
(1) (2) (3)
10. 5972834
(1) (2) (3)
W
V S, W
11. R
(5)
(5)
13. Q
14.
(4) QV (5)
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1. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters RGAE using each letter
only once in each word?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two
(4) Three (5) More than three
2. In a certain code STREAMLINE is written as BFSUTDMHKL. How is SCIENTIFIC written in
that code?
(1) MDHBRBHEHS (2) OFJDTBHEHS (3) MDHBRDJGJU
(4) OFJDTDJGJU (5) None of these
3. In a certain code 'BEND' is written as 5134 and DIAL is written as 4926. How is 'LINE' written
in that code?
(1) 6394 (2) 6943 (3) 6934
(4) 6134 (5) None of these
4. B is brother of D. M is sister of B. K is mother of M.R is husband of K. How is D related to R?
(1) Son (2) Daughter (3) Son or Daughter
(4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to that group ?
(1) HK (2) LJ (3) BD
(4) RP (5) LN
6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to that group ?
(1) 83 (2) 53 (3) 37
(4) 39 (5) 29
7. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MONETARY each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
8. In a certain code language you may now leave is written as ho na ta ja, leave and go is
written as na pa da and 'now come back' is written as 'sa ho ga'. How is may written in that
code language?
(1) ho (2) ja (3) ta
(4) ja or ta (5) None of these
9. If black means yellow, yellow means blue, blue means green, green means white and
white means red, then which one of the following will represent the colour of milk ?
(1) white (2) green (3) red
(4) black (5) None of these
10. How many such digits are there in the number 5972834 each of which is as far away from the
beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in descending order within the
number?
Directions (11-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. R is third to the left of V
who is second to the left of T.W is second to the right of P who is not an immediate neighbour of V. S
is not an immediate neighbour of W.
11. Who is second to the right of R?
(1) T (2) W (3) Q
12. Who is third to the left of P ?
(1) S (2) W (3) Q
13. Who is third to the right of Q ?
(1) T (2) P (3) S
14. In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the immediate right of the second
person?
(1) PR (2) PT (3) RW
(4) QV (5) None of these
REASONING TEST
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15. R
III
16.
I.
II.
III.
(1) (2) I II
II III (4) I III (5)
17.
I.
II.
III.
(1) I (2) III (3) II
II III (5)
18.
I.
II.
III.
(1) I II (2) I III
II III (4) I, II III (5)
19.
I.
II.
III.
(1) I (2) II (3) III
I III (5)
20.
I.
II.
III.
(1) (2) I II
(3) II III (4) I III
III
21.
I.
II.
III.
(1) (2) I II
(4) I II (5) II III
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15. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbours of R?
(1) PT (2) P Q (3) WT
(4) P W (5) Data inadequate
Directions (16 - 20) : In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by
three conclusions numbered I, II & III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
16. Statements : All houses are window.
All roads are windows.
All toys are windows.
Conclusions : I. Some toys are houses.
II. Some roads are houses.
III. Some roads are toys.
(1) AII follow (2) Only I and II follow (3) Only II and III follow
(4) Only I and III follow (5) None of these
17. Statements : All chairs are fruits.
No fruit is nail.
Some nails are hammers.
Conclusions : I. Some hammers are fruits.
II. Some nails are fruits.
III. Some fruits are chairs.
(1) Only I follow (2) Only III follow (3) Only II follow
(4) Only II and III follow (5) None of these
18. Statements : All benches are rivers.
All rivers are ponds.
Some ponds are hills.
Conclusions : I. Some ponds are benches.
II. Some hills are benches.
III. Some rivers are benches.
(1) Only I and II follow (2) Only I and III follow (3) Only II and III follow
(4) All I, II, and III follow (5) None of these
19. Statements : Some rings are bangles.
Some bangles are beads.
Some beads are flowers
Conclusions : I. Some flowers are rings.
II. Some flowers are bangles.
III. No ring is flower.
(1) Only I follows (2) Only II follow (3) Only III follow
(4) Only either I or III follows (5) None of these
20. Statements : Some bats are dogs.
All dogs are tigers.
Some tigers are rats.
Conclusions : I. Some rats are bats.
II. Some tigers are bats.
III. Some rats are dogs.
(1) None follows (2) Only I and II follow (3) Only II and III follow
(4) Only I and III follow (5) All I, II and III follow
21. Statements : Some chairs are pens.
All pens are books.
Some books are walls.
Conclusions : I. Some walls are pens.
II. Some books are chairs.
III. Some walls are chairs.
(1) None follows (2) Only I follow (3) Only II follow
(4) Only I and II follow (5) Only II and III follow
5
(22 27)
22.
(1) (2) (3)
23.
(1) D % M (2) K 4 # (3) W Z 7
24.
(1) (2) (3)
25.
3 K 4, $ E 9, F B H ?
26.
27.
P, Q
P P, Q
P, Q
P, Q
P, Q
I, II
III
28. D K, K % N, N @ F
I. D N
II. F K
(1) II (2) I III II
I III (4) I II (5)
29. H # R, R @ M, M N
I. H M
II. N R
III. N R
(1) I (2) II III I
II III (4) III (5)
30. M @ R, R % T, T N
I. N R
II. T M
III. N # R
(1) I II (2) I III (3) II III
II (5)
31. B # R, R K, K % M
I. M R
II. K % B
(1) I (2) II (3) III
(4) (5) II III
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Directions (22 - 27) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given
below :
R 3 # K A 4 M $ D E % 9 2 F I B U H 5 1 7 @ W Z 6 8 N P Q
22. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which immediately
followed by a number but nat immediately preceded by a consonant ?
23. Four of the following five are like in a certain way based on their positions in the above
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(1) D % M (2) K 4 # (3) W Z 7
(4) 6 8 (5) 9 F E
24. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangements, each of which is immediately
prenceded by a number and not immediately followed by another consonant ?
25. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the above
arrangement?
3K4, $E9, FBH?
(1) 5 7 W (2) 7 W Z (3) 5 7
(4) I @ W (5) None of these
26. Which of the following will be the tenth from the right end if all the symbols are dropped from
the above arrangements ?
(1) 5 (2) M (3) 2
(4) Z (5) None of these
27. Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the Thirteenth from the left end of the above
arrangement ?
(1) U (2) 1 (3) W
(4) D (5) None of these
Directions (28 - 33) : In the following questions, the symbols @, , %, # and are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below :
P % Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q
P Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.
P @ Q means P is not greater than Q.
P # Q means P is not smaller than Q.
P Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller then Q
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which
of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer
accordingly.
28. Statements : D K, K % N, N @ F
Conclusions : I. D N
II. F N
III. D @ N
(1) Only II is true. (2) Only either I or III and II are true.
(3) Only either I or III is true. (4) Only I and II are true. (5) None of these
29. Statements : H # R, R @ M, M N
Conclusions : I. H M
II. N R
III. N R
(1) Only I is true (2) Only either II or III and I are true
(3) Only either II or III is true (4) Only III is true (5) None of these
30. Statements : M @ R, R % T, T N
Conclusions : I. N R
II. T M
III. N # R
(1) Only I, and II are true (2) Only I and III are true (3) Only II and III are true
(4) All I, II, and III are true (5) None of these
31. Statements : B # R, R K, K % M
Conclusions : I. M R
II. K % B
III. K @ B
(1) Only I is true (2) Only II is true (3) Only III is true
(4) None is true (5) Only II and III are true
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32. F % D, D K, K @ B
I. B D
II. F % K
III. B F
(1) I (2) II (3) III
(4) (5) II III
33. J V, V W, W @ T
I. T # J
II. T V
III. W % J
(1) I (2) I II (3) II III
(4) I III (5)
(34 - 39) :
: put over there 39 56 now 28 84
I : there put over 39 56 now 28 84
II : there 28 put over 39 56 now 84
III: there 28 put 39 over 56 now 84
III
34. : bag cover 43 32 tyre 51 ship 25
V
(3) tyre 25 ship 32 cover bag 43 51 (4) (5)
35. II party 23 81 68 53 call all invite
(3) 81 68 53 call all 23 invite party (4) (5) None of these
36. III mine 17 lamp 86 51 34 how day
(4) VI (5)
37. : height world 96 73 age old 51 65
(4) Four (5)
38. III
(4) VI (5)
39. II of an input is : victory 12 54 41 ultra set 32 line
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
(40 - 45) :
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32. Statements : F % D, D K, K @ B
Conclusions : I. B D
II. F % K
III. B F
(1) Only I is true (2) Only II is true (3) Only III is true
(4) None is true (5) Only II and III are true
33. Statements : J V, V W ,W @ T
Conclusions : I. T # J
II. T V
III. W % J
(1) Only I is true (2) Only I and II are true (3) Only II and III are true
(4) Only I and III are true (5) None of these
Directions (34 - 39) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input
and rearrangement.
Input : put over there 39 56 now 28 84
Step I : there put over 39 56 now 28 84
Step II : there 28 put over 39 56 now 84
Step III: there28put39over56 now 84
and Step III is the last step of the above input. As per the rules followed in the above steps,
find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
34. Input : bag cover 43 32 tyre 51 ship 25
Which of the following will be step V of the above input ?
(1) tyre 25 ship 32 bag cover 43 51 (2) tyre 25 ship 32 cover 43 bag 51
(3) tyre 25 ship 32 cover bag 43 51 (4) There will be no such step (5) None of these
35. Step II of an input is : party 23 81 68 53 call all invite
Which of the following is definitely the input?
(1) 81 23 party 68 53 call all invite (2) 81 68 53 call all invite 23 party
(3) 81 68 53 call all 23 invite party (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
36. Step III of an input is : mine 17 lamp 86 51 34 how day
Which of the following steps will be the last but one ?
(1) VII (2) VIII (3) IX
(4) VI (5) None of these
37. Input : height world 96 73 age old 51 65
How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Five (2) Six (3) Seven
(4) Four (5) None of these
38. Step III of an input is : year 15 time 52 39 64 sound byte
Which of the following will be the last but one step ?
(1) VII (2) VIII (3) V
(4) VI (5) None of these
39. Step II of an input is : victory 12 54 41 ultra set 32 line
How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement ?
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five
(4) Six (5) None of these
Directions (40 - 45): In each of the following questions a group of letters is followed by four
combinations of digits and symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). Letters are to be coded as per
scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out which of the four combinations correctly
represents the group of letters. Serial number of that combination is your answer. If none of the
combinations is correct, your answer is (5), i.e., None of these.
9
:-
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
40. ATMOYI
(1) 2387#@ (2) 387# (3) @387#2
(4) 2387#2 (5)
41. IPMHBE
(1) @18$6@ (2) 918$6@ (3) 18$69
(4) @18$@9 (5)
42. MOTEJP
(1) 873941 (2) 873981 (3) 173948
(4) 7394 (5)
43. EMIUJP
(1) 98@41 (2) 18@49 (3) 98@49
(4) 8@4 (5)
44. RJITEW
(4) %4@39% (5)
45. BAJHUE
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
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Conditions:
(i) If the first letter is a Consonant and the last letter is a Vowel then their codes will be
swapped.
(ii) If the first and the fifth letters are Consonants then both will be coded as the code for the
first letter.
(iii)If the first letter is a Vowel and the last letter is a Consonant then both will be coded as .
40. ATMOYI
(1) 2387#@ (2) 387# (3) @387#2
(4) 2387#2 (5) None of these
41. IPMHBE
(1) @18$6@ (2) 918$6@ (3) 18$69
(4) @18$@9 (5) None of these
42. MOTEJP
(1) 873941 (2) 873981 (3) 173948
43. EMIUJP
(1) 98@41 (2) 18@49 (3) 98@49
(4) 8@4 (5) None of these
44. RJITEW
(1) 54 39% (2) %4@395 (3) 45 39%
(4) %4@39% (5) None of these
45. BAJHUE
(1) 624$6 (2) 624$9 (3) 924$6
(4) 62$49 (5) None of these
Direction (46-50): In each of the question given below which one of the five answer figures on
the right should come after or in the place of question mark given in the porblem figures figures
on the left, if the sequence were continued?
46. Problem figures Answer figurers
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Directions (51 -65) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below
it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of
the questions.
We should recognize the indebtedness of the country to its farm families who toil to safeguard
national food security. Loan waiver is the price we have to pay for the neglect of rural India over the
past several decades. There has been a gradual decline in investment in key sectors related to
agriculture such as infrastructure, marketing, post harvest technology etc. The four crore farmers
whose debt is to be relieved will be eligible for institutional credit, for their cultivation expenses
during Kharif 2008. The challenge is to prevent them from getting into the debt trap again. For this
purpose the Central and various State governments should set up an Indebted Farmers Support
Consortium, comprising scientists, panchayat raj officials and others relevant to assisting farmers
to improve the profitability and productivity of their farms in an environmentally sustainable manner.
The smaller the farm the greater is the need for marketable surplus to reduce indebtedness.
The Indebted Farmer's Support Consortium should aim to get all the four crore farmers all
the benefits of the government schemes such as the Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana, Irrigation
Benefit Programme and others. If this is done every farm family released from the debt trap should
be able to produce at least an additional half tonne per hectare of food grains. This should help
increase food production by about 20 million tonnes by 2008-10. At a time when global and national
food stocks are dwindling and prices are rising, this will be a timely gain for our national food
security. We need to ensure that the outcome of the debt waiver is enhanced farmer's income and
production. The prevailing gap between potential and actual yields in the crops of rainfed areas
such as pulses and oilseeds is over 200 percent even with the necessary technologies on the shelf.
We are now importing without duty large quantities of pulses and oilseeds. If helped, farmers can
produce these at a lower cost. Opportunities for assured and remunerative marketing are essential
if loan waiver is not to become a recurring event leading to the destruction of the credit system.
This is why the Minimum Support Price is necessary for all not just for a few crops which is the
case at present.This is the single most effective step to make loan waivers history. There is another
urgent step which needs to be taken. The loan waiver does not cover those who borrow from
moneylenders. It will not be possible for the government to scrutinise the veracity of such private
deals but steps can be taken such as giving them Smart Cards which will entitle them to essential
inputs like seeds and fertilisers. The gram-sabha can be entrusted with the task of identifying
these farmers so that there is transparency in the process and elimination of the chances for
falsification and corruption. Fear of occasional misuse should not come in the way of enabling
millions of poor farmers who have borrowed from informal sources if we are to achieve the goal of
four percent growth in agriculture.
51. What is the likely impact of ensuring farmers benefit from government schemes ?
A They can use the credit from these schemes to repay moneylenders.
B The government can control the price rise.
C lncreased agricultural production.
(1) Both A & B (2) All A, B & C (3) Only C
(4) Both B & C (5) None of these
52. Why does the author feel that rural India has been overlooked in the past ?
A Institutional credit was only made available for Kharif crops.
B Drop in investment in central areas related to agriculture.
C Records of those eligible for loan waivers have not been maintained over time.
(1) Only B (2) Both A & B (3) Only C
(4) All A, B & C (5) None of these
53. How can small farmers avoid debt?
(1) They need to acquire additional land holdings.
(2) They need to take advantage of both government schemes as well credit from money
lenders.
(3) They have to ensure a sufficient amount of their farm produce is sold.
(4) The Government should provide periodic loan waivers.
(5) None of these
ENGLISH LANGUAGE & COMPREHENSION
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54. What is the objective of the Indebted Farmer's Support Consortium?
(1) It is a support group for the families of indebted farmers.
(2) It has to devise new government schemes for farmers.
(3) It has to track farmers eligible for government schemes.
(4) It has to evaluate government schemes and weed out the inefficient ones.
(5) None of these
55. What does the author mean by the phrase indebtedness of the country to its farm families?
(1) If farmers are in debt it impacts the entire country
(2) Citizens should be grateful to farmers and their families for the hardships borne by them
to cultivate crops and safeguard national food security
(3) Indias food production has fallen causing it to be in debt since it has to import food.
(4) The number of farmers descendants taking up agriculture has fallen.
(5) None of these
56. What is the authors opinion of recurring loan waivers ?
(1) They are beneficial to farmers.
(2) They are detriment to the system of lending.
(3) They will reduce the need for a Minimum Support Price for agricultural products.
(4) Farmers will no longer be in debt to moneylenders.
(5) None of these
57. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(1) The Minimum Support Price for agricultural products is yet to be implemented.
(2) Loan waiver is a permanent solution to indebtedness of farmers.
(3) Current agricultural growth is below four percent.
(4) Indias food production has increased in 2008.
(5) Moneylenders benefit from loan waivers.
58. Why does the loan waiver not cover credit taken from money lenders?
A. It is difficult to verify these contracts between farmers and moneylenders.
B. It will increase the deficit in the budget.
C. There is a risk that the funds may be misappropriated.
(1) Both A & C (2) All A, B & C (3) Only B
(4) Both A & B (5) None of these
59. Why is there a vast gap in actual and potential yields of crops in rainfed areas ?
(1) The government prefers to import these crops at a lower rate.
(2) No technological advances have been made to improve the growth of crops in these areas.
(3) There is no Minimum Support Price available for these crops.
(4) Farmers are forced to sell these crops at a low rate.
(5) None of these
60. How does the government intend to ensure transparency in the Smart card issuance process?
(1) Screening private players involved in the scheme.
(2) Granting access to those farmers who register with their local moneylenders.
(3) Providing cards which cannot be forged.
(4) Regularly rotating members of the gram sabha so there is no corruption.
(5) The gram sabha can be entrusted with the task of identifying farmers.
Directions (61-63): Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in
Bold as used in the passage.
61. assured
(1) insured (2) definite (3) doubted
(4) confident (5) reliance
62. relieved
(1) exempted (2) backed (3) supported
(4) calmed (5) substituted
63. gap
(1) hole (2) break (3) pause
(4) difference (5) interruption
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Directions (64-65): Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in
bold as used in the passage.
64. timely
(1) young (2) lately (3) overdue
(4) aged (5) slowly
65. elimination
(1) authority (2) forgiveness (3) attack
(4) prelection (5) provision
Directions (66-70): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase
given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and
correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer.
66. In order to control rising prices the government has restricted the export of certain
commodities.
(1) For control of raised (2) In control of raised (3) To control the rise
(4) By controlling rising (5) No correction required
67. Over two crores will be required to renovate the building being damaged during the cyclone.
(1) That was damage (2) Which was damaged (3) Has been damaged
(4) Been damaged (5) No correction required
68. Small investors often because of delays in getting its grievance redressed.
(1) their grievances redressed (2) the grievances redress
(3) to redress grievance (4) this grievances redressed
(5) No correction required
69. With the failure of the investment bank, the publics confidence in the banking sector has
been how badly shaken.
(1) so badly shaken (2) that much shaky (3) badly shaken
(4) too badly shaky (5) No correction required
70. A consultant is been appointed to advise us on the viability of the project.
(1) appointed (2) has been appointing (3) will be appointed
(4) to be appointed (5) No correction required
Directions (71-75): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
A. Expansion of retail banking especially has a lot of scope, since retail assets are just 22
percent of the total banking assets.
B. Where they do not find it viable to open branches they may open satellite offices in these
areas.
C. There is tremendous scope for the expansion of banking in India.
D. Banks can also diversify beyond cities to semi urban and rural areas.
E. In these ways a transition from class banking to mass banking can take place.
F. They can also collaborate with local stakeholders in order to extend microcredit services
to those living there.
71. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) B (2) C (3) D
(4) E (5) F
72. Which of the following should be the, FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) A (2) B (3) C
(4) D (5) E
73. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangernent ?
(1) B (2) C (3) D
(4) E (5) F
74. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) A (2) B (3) C
(4) D (5) E
75. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) A (2) B (3) C
(4) D (5) E
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Directions (76- 80) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or
idiomatic error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that
part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
76. The biggest (1)/ health burden that India (2)/ is set to face in the coming years (3)/ is tackle
cancer. (4)/ No error (5)
77. Legal sand mining in the peripheral areas (1)/ of the district continues to remain a big problem
for (2)/ forest range officers as yet another instance illegal (3)/ mining was reported yesterday.
(4)/ No error (5)
78. The policemen, who (1)/ was deployed heavily (2)/ in the area, did nothing to (3)/ dissuade the
protesters. (4)/ No error (5)
79. Festivals are prime occasions (1)/ for splurging on presents and owing to improved economic
situation, (2)/ the youths is gungho (3)/ about breaking all previous records. (4)/ No error (5)
80. It is important to recruit personnel at (1)/ different levels in the organization so that (2)/ the
ensuing human resource gap is bridged (3)/ at least for the critical operations. (4)/ No error (5)
Directions (81-90): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.
These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one
of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Decades ago, China (81) the concept of barefoot doctors.They were community healthcare
workers who successfully (82) the health of Chinas villages. Following this example, man African,
Asian and Latin American countries have started (83) programmes. The largest of such
community health efforts is Indias Nations Rural Health Mission. In (84) over three years, the
programme has mobilized over fifty thousand new community health workers, each (85) as Asha.
This is short for Accredited Social Health Activist and translated into Hindi is the word (86) hope.
Today technology companies and foundations are also joining the (87) to support community
health workers. Mobile phone companies are (88) these workers with phones anc support systems
to obtain up todate medical information, call ambulance etc. In the (89) years, community health
workers can thus help (90) the spread of many devastaing but curable diseases.
81. (1) gives (2) researches (3) introduced
(4) originates (5) enlightened
82. (1) improved (2) entrusted (3) fought
(4) cured (5) dealt
83. (1) thousands (2) alike (3) imitated
(4) similar (5) naming
84. (1) course (2) less (3) approximate
(4) period (5) just
85. (1) referred (2) known (3) perceived
(4) regarded (5) called
86. (1) denotes (2) describes (3) for
(4) explains (5) means
87. (1) business (2) membership (3) scope
(4) effort (5) purpose
88. (1) provided (2) buyrng (3) equipped
(4) supplied (5) empowering
89. (1) coming (2) next (3) past
(4) few (5) previous
90. (1) overlook (2) curb (3) protect
(4) enrich (5) neglect
15
91. 1 4 27 256 3125 46658
(4) 3125 (5)
92. 18000 3600 720 142.2 28.8 5.76
(4) 142.2 (5)
93. 12 237 406 527 604 657
(4) 657 (5)
94. 3 35 226 1160 4660 13998
(4) 1160 (5)
95. 18 119 708 3534 14136 42405
(4) 42405 (5)
96.
(4) 360 (5)
97. 240 40
(1) 6 (2) 28 (3) 18
(4) 16 (5)
98.
`
2500
`
1875
`
6875
(1)
`
4,556.5 (2)
`
5,025.25 (3)
`
4,895.25
(4)
`
5,245.5 (5)
99. 407044
(1) 22583.2 (2) 32378.5 (3) 41263.5
(4) 39483.4 (5)
100. 8 4 12 4 8
8 2
(4) 20 (5)
101. 25.5 ? 14.7 = 4798.08
(4) 12.8 (5)
102.
3
681472
(4) 76 (5)
103. 9822 24 5 = ?
(4) 72.85 (5)
104. 8
0.4
4
1.6
2
1.6
= ?
(4) 76 (5)
16
Directions (91 - 95): In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the
wrong number.
91. 1 4 27 256 3125 46658
(1) 46658 (2) 4 (3) 27
92. 18000 3600 720 142.2 28.8 5.76
(1) 28.8 (2) 3600 (3) 5.76
(4) 142.2 (5) None of these
93. 12 237 406 527 604 657
(1) 237 (2) 406 (3) 527
94. 3 35 226 1160 4660 13998
(1) 13998 (2) 4660 (3) 226
95. 18 119 708 3534 14136 42405
(1) 708 (2) 3534 (3) 14136
96. In how many different ways can the letters of the word CREATE be arranged ?
(1) 25 (2) 36 (3) 710
97. A 240m. long train crosses a platform twice its lenght in 40 seconds. What is the speed of the
train ?
(1) 6 m./sec. (2) 28 m./sec. (3) 18 m./sec.
(4) 16 m./sec. (5) None of these
98. The simple interest accrued on an amount of
`
2,500 at the end of six years is
`
1,875. What
would be the simple interest accrued on an amount of
`
6,875 at the same rate and same
period ?
(1)
`
4,556.5 (2)
`
5,025.25 (3)
`
4,895.25
(4)
`
5,245.5 (5) None of these
99. The circumference of a circle is equal to the side of a square whose area measures 407044 sq.
cms. What is the area of the circle?
(1) 22583.2 sq. cm. (2) 32378.5 sq. cm. (3) 41263.5 sq. cm.
(4) 39483.4 sq. cm. (5) Can not be determined
100. 8 men can complete a piece of work in 4 days. 12 women can complete the same piece of work
in 4 days whereas 8 children can complete the same piece of work in 8 days. 2 men, 8 children
and 3 women work together for 2 days. If only women were to finish the remaining work in 2
days, how many total women would be required?
(1) 12 (2) 18 (3) 24
Directions (101 - 105) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?
101. 25.5 ? 14.7 = 4798.08
(1) 19.2 (2) 11.6 (3) 10.5
102.
3
681472
(1) 88 (2) 96 (3) 98
103. 9822 24 5 = ?
104. 8
0.4
4
1.6
2
1.6
= ?
(1) 52 (2) 48 (3) 64
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
17
105.
3 2 1
1 2 2 ?
4 3 2

(1)
7
9
12
(2)
11
6
12
(3)
1
3
12
(4)
5
4
12
(5)
106. 2
(1)
2
5
(2)
3
35
(3)
1
3
(4)
3
91
(5)
107. 5
(1)
137
143
(2)
9
91
(3)
18
455
(4)
2
5
(5)
108. 2
(1)
1
5
(2)
8
91
(3)
2
15
(4)
7
27
(5)
109. 4 2 2
(1)
4
15
(2)
5
27
(3)
1
3
(4)
2
455
(5)
110. 3
(1)
3
455
(2)
1
5
(3)
44
91
(4)
4
5
(5)
111. 888888 88 8 = ?
(1) 80800 (2) 1047 (3) 1263
(4) 70600 (5) 1526
112. 193.999 + 228.008 + ? + 422.005 = 1168.01
(1) 226 (2) 484 (3) 168
(4) 196 (5) 324
113. 27.8 28.74 17.3 = ?
(1) 13822 (2) 12546 (3) 10228
(4) 15183 (5) 14995
114.
5 12 8
1 6 5 ?
7 13 9
u u
(1) 110 (2) 70 (3) 30
115. 222 16.8% 923 12.1% = ?
(1) 3325 (2) 5085 (3) 2925
(4) 4165 (5) 6245
18
105.
3 2 1
1 2 2 ?
4 3 2

(1)
7
9
12
(2)
11
6
12
(3)
1
3
12
(4)
5
4
12
(5) None of these
Directions (106 - 110) : Study the given information carefully to answer the questions that
follow.
A basket contains 6 blue, 2 red, 4 green and 3 yellow balls.
106. If 2 balls are picked at random, what is the probability that either both are green or both are
yellow?
(1)
2
5
(2)
3
35
(3)
1
3
(4)
3
91
(5) None of these
107. If 5 balls are picked at random, what is the probability that at least one is blue ?
(1)
137
143
(2)
9
91
(3)
18
455
(4)
2
5
(5) None of these
108. If 2 balls are picked at random, what is the probability that both are blue ?
(1)
1
5
(2)
8
91
(3)
2
15
(4)
7
27
(5) None of these
109. If 4 balls are picked at random, what is the probability that 2 are red and 2 are green?
(1)
4
15
(2)
5
27
(3)
1
3
(4)
2
455
(5) None of these
100. If 3 balls are picked at random, what is the probability that none is yellow?
(1)
3
455
(2)
1
5
(3)
44
91
(4)
4
5
(5) None of these
Directions (111 - 115): What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?)
in the following question ?
111. 888888 88 8 = ?
(1) 80800 (2) 1047 (3) 1263
(4) 70600 (5) 1526
112. 193.999 + 228.008 + ? + 422.005 = 1168.01
(1) 226 (2) 484 (3) 168
(4) 196 (5) 324
113. 27.8 28.74 17.3 = ?
(1) 13822 (2) 12546 (3) 10228
(4) 15183 (5) 14995
114.
5 12 8
1 6 5 ?
7 13 9
u u
(1) 110 (2) 70 (3) 30
115. 222 16.8% 923 12.1% = ?
(1) 3325 (2) 5085 (3) 2925
(4) 4165 (5) 6245
19
(M) (S)
116. D
(4) 291 : 263 (5)
117. B
(1) 25 (2) 38 (3) 12
(4) 42 (5) 6
118. 2006 2007 E
(4) 72 (5)
119.
(4) B (5)
120. 2003 C
(4) 20000 (5)
= 4800 =2000
121.
(4) 260 (5)
122.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
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20
Directions (116 - 120): Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow.
Number of items Manufactured (M) and Sold (S) (in millions) by six different companies over
the years.
116. What Is the respective ratio of total number of items sold by company A over all the years
together to those sold by Company D over all the years together ?
(1) 351 : 323 (2) 313 : 318 (3) 289 : 296
(4) 291 : 263 (5) None of these
117. Total number of items not sold by Company B over all the years together is approximately what
percent of total number of items manufactured by it over all the years together?
(1) 25 (2) 38 (3) 12
(4) 42 (5) 6
118. Number of items sold by Company E in the years 2006 and 2007 together is what percent of the
number of items manufactured by it in these years ? (rounded off to the nearest integer)
(1) 61 (2) 35 (3) 56
119. Which Company manufactured the highest number of items over all the years together ?
(1) C (2) E (3) F
(4) B (5) None of these
120. What is the number of items not sold by Company C in the year 2003 ?
(1) 2000 (2) 2000000 (3) 200000
Directions (121 - 125): Study the pie-charts carefully to answer the questions that follow.
Percentage distribution of candidates studying in various disciplines of a college and the
percentage of girls in each discipline. Percentage break up of student in each discipline
Total Number of students = 4800 Total Number of girls = 2000
121. What is the number of girls studying in Engineering discipline?
(1) 180 (2) 220 (3) 320
122. Which discipline has the highest number of boys studying in it ?
(1) Science (2) Commerce (3) Arts
(4) Management (5) None of these
21
123.
(1) 40 (2) 52 (3) 36
(4) 28 (5) 68
124.
(4) 67:18 (5)
125.
(4) 4.17 (5)
I II
I II
II I
I II
I II
I II
A, B, C, D E ` C
I. C B
II. A B `
`
I. `
II.
I. ` `
II.
I.
II.
I.
II.
`
(1) ` (2) `
1
48,333
3
(3) `
1
32,333
3
(4) ` (5)
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22
123. The Number of boys studying in Commerce discipline forms approximately what percent of the
total number of students studying in that discipline?
(1) 40 (2) 52 (3) 36
(4) 28 (5) 68
124. What is the respective ratio of number of boys studying in Management discipline, to the boys
studying in Science discipline?
(1) 71 : 20 (2) 18 : 67 (3) 20 : 71
(4) 67 : 18 (5) None of these
125. The number of girls studying in catering discipline forms what percent of the total number of
students in the college ? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)
(1) 3.28 (2) 5.61 (3) 3.95
Directions (126 - 130) : Each of the questions given below consists of a question and two
statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in
the statements sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer-
(1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) if the data in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
(4) if the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
126. What is the salary of C, in a group of A, B, C, D and E whose average salary is
`
48, 250 ?
I. Cs salary is 1.5 times Bs salary.
II. Average salary of A and B is
`
23, 500.
127. What is the per cent profit earned by selling a car for
`
6, 40, 000 ?
I. The amount of profit earned on selling the car was
`
3, 20, 000.
II. The selling price of the car was twice the cost price.
128. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.?
I. An amount of
`
14, 350 gives a simple interest of
`
11, 480 in four years.
II. The amount doubles itself in 5 years with simple interest.
129. What is the two digit number?
I. The difference between the two digits of the number is 9.
II. The product of the two digits of the number is 0.
130. What is the perimeter of the rectangle?
I. The area of the rectangle is 252 sq. mts.
II. The ratio of length to breadth of the rectangle is 9 : 7 respectively.
Directions (131- 135) : Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions.
Amounts invested (in % thousands) by three people in schemes over the years
131. What is the average amount invested in the year 2009 by all the three people together ?
(1)
`
28,350/- (2) `
1
48,333
3
(3) `
1
32,333
3
(4)
`
45,000/- (5) None of these
23
C
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
B C
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
A
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
(1) ` (2) ` (3) `
(4) ` (5)
O
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
N
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
M N
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
M
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
Centres at:
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24
132. What is the percent decrease in the amount invested by C in the year 2007 from the previous
year?
(1) 11.3 (2) 13.5 (3) 12.5
133. What is the respective ratio of total amount invested by B in the years 2008 and 2010 together
to the total amount invested by C in those two years together?
(1) 7 : 8 (2) 14 : 15 (3) 6 : 7
(4) 12 : 13 (5) None of these
134. The amount invested by A in the year 2006 is approximately what per cent of the total amount
invested by him over all the years together?
(1) 15 (2) 19 (3) 21
(4) 8 (5) 11
135. What was the total amount invested by all the three people together in the year 2005 ?
(1)
`
10,000 (2)
`
10,00,000 (3)
`
1,000
(4)
`
100 (6) None of these
Directions (136-140): Study the following pie-charts carefully to answer the questions that follow :
Percentage break-up of number of children in five different villages and breakup of children
attending school from those villages
Total Number of Children = 2040 Total Number of Children who goes to
School = 1450
136. What is the respective ratio of total number of children from village O to the number of children
attending school from the same village?
(1) 204 : 145 (2) 179 : 131 (3) 167 : 111
(4) 266 : 137 (5) None of these
137. What is the number of children attending school from village N?
(1) 145 (2) 159 (3) 170
138. What is the total number of children not attending school from villages M and N together?
(1) 69 (2) 56 (3) 76
139. What is the total number of children from villages P and M together?
(1) 1422 (2) 1142 (3) 1122
140. The number of children attending school from village L is approximately what per cent of the
total number of children from that village?
(1) 78 (2) 72 (3) 57
(4) 84 (5) 66
25
141.
(1) (2) (3)
142.
(1) (2) (3)
143.
(1) (2) (3)
144.
(1) (2) (3)
145.
(1) (2) (3)
146.
(1) (2) (3)
147.
(1) (2) (3)
148.
(1) (2) (3)
149.
(1) (2) (3)
150.
(1) (2) (3)
(5)
151.
A.
B. A
C.
(1) B C (3) C
A B
152.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) A A
(4) D (5) C D
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26
141. What is the rank of Indian tennis ace Sania Mirza in the latest WTA Team Rankings?
(1) 5
th
(2) 4
th
(3) 9
th
(4) 10
th
(5)6
th
142. Paddfer Bhavina Hasntnukhbhai Patel became the first Indian to win a___ medal at the 2013
ITTF PTT Asian Table Tennis regional championships at Beijing.
(1) Silver (2) Bronze (3) Gold
(4) Both l and 2 (5) None of the above
143. Kanwar Deep Singh has been elected as the President of the Indian Hockey Federation for a
term of how many years?
(1) Three (2) Two (3) One
(4) Four (5) Five
144. The Tax Administration Reform Commission has been setup by____to suggest measures to
prevent economic offences among otherthings.
(1) Home Ministry (2) Finance Ministry
(3) Corporate Affairs Ministry (4) Defence Ministry (5) None of the above
145. India has launched its ambitious pension scheme, Mahatma Gandhi Pravasi Suraksha Yojana,
for over 5 million overseas workers in which of the following countries?
(1) Germany (2) Mauritius (3) Japan
(4) Myanmar (5) Dubai
146. India has, recently, developed a new tactical surface-to-surface missile with a range
between 60-170 km.
(1) Pragati (2) Unnati (3) Progress
(4) Survival (5) Hope
147. Which of the following State Governments eSBTR project has won the Financial Inclusion
and Payment Systems FIPS 2013 Award, recently?
(1) Rajasthan (2) UP (3) Madhya Pradesh
(4) Maharashtra (5) Tamil Nadu
148. The GOI has renamed the PDS to prevent Opposition parties from taking credit for implementing
the National Food Security Act. Mention the new name.
(1) Indiramma Anna Program (2) Indiramma Anna Yojana
(3) Indiramma Food Program (4) Indiramma Anna System (5) None of the above
149. India has introduced Pravasi Suraksha Yojana named after which of the following politicians
to provide insurance cover and ensure the financial welfare of over five million overseas
Indian workers?
(1) Sonia Gandhi (2) Indira Gandhi (3) Mahatma Gandhi
(4) Rahul Gandhi (5) Jawaharlal Nehru
150. RBI has scaled down the growth forecast for current fiscal to from the earlier projection of 5.5
percent.
(1) 5.2 percent (2) 4.9 percent (3) 5 percent
(4) 5.1 percent (5) 4.7 percent
151. Consider the following statements:
A. Land Acquisition Act would come into force on March 1,2014.
B. The Act (mentioned in A) will replace a 119-year-old legislation.
C. The bill proposes a unified legislation for acquisition of land and adequate rehabilitation
mechanisms for all affected persons.
Which of the above is/are TRUE?
(1) Only A (2) Both B and C (3) Only C
(4) Both A and C (5) Only B
A India and Hungary has signed an MoU to give a major boost to exports of Indian traditional
medicines.
B. India is facing a lot of regulatory issues in the European Union markets.
C. India has also suggested setting up of AYUSH academic chairs in Hungarian
Universities.
D. It has been agreed to set up an Indo-Hungarian Strategic Research Fund with contribution
of 5 million euro every year.
Which of the above is/are FALSE?
(1) Both A and B (2) B , C and D (3) Only A
(4) Only D (5) Both C and D
GENERAL AWARENESS
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27
153.
A.
B.
C.
(1) A C (2) B (3) B C
(4) A (5) A, B C
154.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) C (2) B D (3) D
(4) C (5) A, B C
155.
A.
B.
C.
(1) A B (2) B (3) B C
(4) A (5) A, B C
156.
A.
B.
C.
(1) A B (2) A (3) B C
(4) B (5) A, B C
157.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) B (2) A C (3) C
(4) C (5) A
158.
A.
B.
C.
(1) A (2) A C (3) A B
(4) C (5) A, B C
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28
A. Liverpool has announced the launch of a residential football academy in India.
B. The academy will be established in partnership with city based DSK Shivajians.
C. The programme offered by the academy will support aspiring young footballers up to the
age of 18 years.
(1) Both A and C (2) Only B (3) Both B and C
(4) Only A (5) A , B and C
A. The Union Cabinet of India approved the setting up of six additional benches of the Customs,
Excise and Service Tax Appellate Tribunal.
B. Customs, Excise Duty and Service Tax Appellate Tribunal comes under the Finance
Ministry.
C. CESTAT was setup in 1985.
D. CESTAT was set up to provide an independent and impartial forum to hear the appeal
against orders and decisions passed by the Commissioners of Customs and Excise.
(1) Only C (2) Both B and D (3) Only D
(4) All except C (5) A , B and C
155. Consider thi following statement:
A. Prime Minister of Hungary called on the President of India, Shri Pranab Mukherjee.
B. Dr. Viktor Orban is the Prime Minister of Hungary.
C. Indian investments in Hungary are in the range of US$ 1.5 billion employing over 8000
Hungarians.
(1) Both A and B (2) Only B (3) Both B and C
(4) Only A (5) A ,B and C
A. Union Bank of India has signed an MoU with NCDEX Spot Exchange.
B. The objective of the MoU is to cater to the needs of the farmers, agri processors and market
participants.
C. NSPOT is a wholly owned subsidy of NCDEX a leading commodities exchange in agri
commodities, ferrous metals and steel in India.
(1) Both A and B (2) Only A (3) Both B and C
(4) Only B (5) A, B and C
A. Dr. Raghuram Rajan launched the new RTGS system of the Reserve Bank of India, recently.
B. The RTGS System Regulations 2013 would replace the RTGS Business Operating
Guidelines, 2004 and RTGS Regulations, 2004.
C. The RTGS system is a large-value funds transfer system which banks use to settle interbank
transfers for their own account only.
D. Dr. Raghuram Rajan is the Governor of RBI.
(1) Only B (2) Both A and C (3) Only C
(4) All except C (5) Only A
158. Whieh of the following statement is/are TRUE?
A. Mahindra Aerospace will start producing the first eight-seater aircraft in India in the next
two years.
B. The company presently manufactures eight-seater GAS utility aircraft which it acquired
in 2010 to get into the aviation sector.
C. Mahindra is also producing 10-seater GA10, which is under certification process and
is likely to available for commercial operations by 2016.
(1) Only A (2) Both A and C (3) Both A and B
(4) Only C (5) A , B and C
29
159.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(1) B (2) B C (3) A
(4) A B (5) A, B C
160.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
161.
A.
B.
C.
(1) B C (2) C (3) A B
(4) A (5) A, B C
162.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) A D (2) B, C D (3) B
(4) C D (5) A
163.
A.
B.
C.
(1) B (2) B C (3) A B
(4) A (5) A, B C
164.
A.
B.
C.
(1) A B (2) A (3) B C
(4) B (5) A, B C
165.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) A, B C (2) A D (3) B
(4) B D (5) C
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30
A. India and Russia vowed to enhance cooperation in the key areas of rocket, missile and
naval technologies.
B. India is the only country to which Russia has agreed to give access to Glonass military-
grade signals.
C. India has also sought Russian support for concluding a Free Trade Agreement with the
customs union of Russia, Kazakhstan and Belarus.
(1) Only B (2) Both B and C (3) Only A
(4) Both A and B (5) A, B and C
160. __________ chief Lalu Prasad and JD(U) member Jagdish Sharma have been disqualified
from the Lok Sabha following their conviction in the fodder scam case.
(1) RJD (2) TOP (3) JMM
(4) AAP (5) SP
161. Consider tne following statmenets:
A. US President has nominated Jeh Johnson to head the Department of Homeland Security.
B. Homeland Security coordinates the work of 22 agencies with a 240,000-strong workforce.
C. It has been set up after the September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks.
Whkh of the above is/are TRUE?
(1) Both B and C (2) Only C (3) Both A and B
162. ConsidertBcfollowingstatements:
A. 5 nations elected to seats as non-permanent members by the UN Security Council in the
15-member Council.
B. These members have been elected for two-year term which would start from March 2014.
C. India had served as a non-permanent member at the council in 2011 -2012.
D. Non-permanent members Argentina, Australia, Luxembourg, the Republic ofKorea and
Rwanda will remain on the Council until the end of 2014.
Which of the above Mare FALSE?
(1) Both A and B (2) B, C and D (3) Only B
(4) Both C and D (5) Only A
A. India and China inked a comprehensive pact which commits them not to use military
capability to attack each other.
B. Under a Border Defence CooperationAgreement signed, India and China agreed not to tail
each others patrol along the Line of Actual Control.
C. The BDCA facilitates the establishment of a hotline between the military headquarters of
the two countries and meeting sites for border personnel in all sectors of the 4000-km
LOC.
(1) Only B (2) Both B and C (3) Both A and B
A. The India-France Technology Summit witnessed 11 MoUs between India and France in
the field of Science and Technology and Education.
B. The Summit was organized by Department of Science and Technology, Confederation of
Indian Industry and French Embassy.
C. The MOUs were signed in the presence of Mr Sushil Kumar Shinde, Minister of Science
and Technology and Earth Sciences.
(1) Both A and B (2) Only A (3) Both B and C
(4) Only B (5) A , B and C
A. The 2nd Meeting of the Philippines-India Joint Commission on Bilateral Cooperation was
held in Manila.
B. The meeting was co-chaired by Albert F. Del Rosario, Secretary of Foreign Affairs of the
Philippines and Salman Khurshid, Minister of External Affairs of the Republic oflndia.
C. The Ministers agreed that the next meetings of the Policy Consultations and Strategic
Dialogue will be held in India, in 2014.
D. India and Philippines held comprehensive discussions on political, defense, security,
economic and cultural cooperation.
(1) A , B and C (2) Both A and D (3) Only B
(4) Both B and D (5) Only C
31
(1) (2) (3)
(1) (2) (3)
(1) (2) (3)
(1) (2) (3)
(1) (2) (3)
(1) (2) (3)
'nearmoney'
(1) (2) (3)
(1) (2) (3)
(1) (2) (3)
A.
B.
C.
(1) (3) C
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(1) (2) (3)
(1) (2) (3)
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
ESOP
(1) Empl oyee stock option play (2) Employee shair object plan
(3) Employee stock option plan ( 4) Enter shair obj ect plan (5)
Centres at:
==================================================================================
32
166. Growth with Stability was the aim of which of the following Five Year Plans ?
(1) Second Plan (2) Third Plan (3) Fourth Plan
(4) Fifth Plan (5) None of these
167. Which of the following is not a part of Indias Money Market?
(1) Money Lenders (2) Indian Gold Council (3) Bull Markets
(4) Banks (5) None of these
168. When more than one banks are allowing credit facilities to one party in coordination with
each other under a formal arrangement, the arrangement is called _
(1) Securitization (2) Participation (3) Consortium
(4) Consolidation (5) None of these
169. In India, coins and subsidiary coins are issued by_____.
(1) RBI (2) Finance Ministry (3) SBI
(4) SEBI (5) None of these
170. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development is related to_____.
(1) World Bank (2) ADB (3) IMF
(4) Federal Bank (5) None of these
171. A banking system in which a big bank has a number of branches in different parts of the
country is known as __
(1) Unit Banking (2) Branch Banking (3) Mixed Banking
(4) Chain Banking (5) None of these
172. Which of the following is an example of near money ?
(1) Fiat money (2) Bank Draft (3) Treasury Bills
(4) 50 paise coins (5) None of these
173. Raising or lowering of the central bank discount rate is known as____.
(1) Bank rate policy (2) Open market operation (3) Cash reserve ratio
(4) 2 and 3 (5) None of these
174. Which of the following is the cause of demand pull inflation ?
(1) Reduction in bank credit (2) Reduction in wages
(3) Increase in Interest rates (4) Increased consumption expenditure
(5) None of these
175. Assume that bank does not have enough reserves and the Central Bank is not willing to lend
reserves to the bank under the circumstances which of the following procedures will the bank
adopt?
A. It can borrow cash from another Bank, with excess reserves and this cash can be added to
its reserves.
B. It can sell government bonds in its possession in the open market and obtain cash to add
its reserves.
C. It can reduce its loans, this will bring in cash and increase its reserves.
(1) Only B (2) All are true (3) Only C
(4) Only A (5) None of these
176. Gold Trancherefers to _
(1) a credit system granted by IMF to its members.
(2) A loan system of the World Bank
(3) A credit system granted by WTO to its members.
(4) One of the operations of a Central Bank
(5) None of these
177. National Food Security Mission was launched in the year___.
(1) 2005 - 06 (2) 2006 -07 (3) 2007-08
(4) 2008 - 09 (5) None of these
178. Which is a legal tender in a modern economy amongst the following ?
(1) Currency notes (2) Cheques (3) Bank Draft
(4) Promissory notes (5) None of these
179. Which of the following doesnt relates with banking or finance ?
(1) Devaluation (2) Hundis (3) Flare
(4) Gearing (5) None of these
180. ESOP means -
(1) Employee stock option play (2) Employee shair object plan
(3) Employee stock option plan (4) Enter shair object plan
(5) All of these
33
(CD-ROM)
(1) (CD-ROM)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
(CPU)
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(1) (ISP)
(2) (PDA) (ISP)
(3) (PDA)
(4) (ISP)
(5)
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
(1) (CD-R) (2) (CD-RW) (3)
(4) (5)
Centres at:
==================================================================================
34
Computer Knowledge
181. Which of the following are ad-vantages of CD-ROM as a storage media?
(1) CD-ROM is an inexpensive way to store large amount of data and information
(2) CD-ROM disks retrieve data and information more quickly than magnetic disks do
(3) CD-ROMs make less errors than magnetic media
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
182. A _____ is the term used when a search engine returns a Web page that matches the search
criteria.
(l) blog (2) hit (3) link
(4) view (5) success
183. The_____ is the term used to describe the window that is cur-rently being used.
(1) Web Window (2) display area (3) Word Pad Window
(4) active window (5) monitor
184. CPU is an abbreviation for .
(1) central programming unit (2) central processing unit
(3) computer processing unit (4) computer protocol unit
(5) central protocol unit
185. A microprocessor is the brain of the computer and is also called a(n)
(1) microchip (2) microchip (3) micro processor
(4) calculator (5) software
186. Storage and memory differ with respect to which of the following characteristics?
(1) Price (2) Reliability (3) Speed
(4) All of these (5) None of these
187. What are two examples of free-ware?
(1) WinZip and Linux
(2) Shareware and file sharing
(3) Microsoft Word and the Google toolbar
(4) Instant messaging and the Google toolbar
(5) Microsoft Power Point and Microsoft Excel
188. If a disk drive fails but the computer application running and using it can continue processing,
this application is said to have been designed with this feature
(1) 100 percent uptime (2) fault tolerance (3) high reliability
189. What is e-commerce?
(1) Buying and selling International goods
(2) Buying and selling products and services over the Internet
(3) Buying and selling products and services not found in stores
(4) Buying and selling products having to do with computers
(5) Buying and selling of electronic goods
190. What are the four things needed to connect to the Internet?
(1) telephone line, modem, computer, and an ISP
(2) modem, computer, PDA, and ISP
(3) telephone line, PDA, modem, and computer
(4) computer, ISP, modem, and communication software
(5) monitor, keyboard, mouse, modem
191. Which of the following functions are not performed by servers?
(1) E-mail processing (2) Database sharing (3) Processing Web sites
(4) Storage (5) Word processing
192. Which media have the ability to have data/information stored (written) on them by users
more than once ?
(1) CDR disks (2) CD-RW disks (3) Zip disks
(4) Optical Disk (5) Both CD-RW disks and Zip disks
35
(1) (2) (3) (FTP)
(4) (JPEG) (5)
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (Crtl) (5)
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5) (ESC)
URL
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
Centres at:
==================================================================================
36
193. The process of transferring files from a computer on the Internet to your computer is called
(1) downloading (2) uploading (3) FTP
(4) JPEG (5) downsizing
194. The______ controls a client computers resources.
(1) application program (2) instruction set (3) operating system
(4) server application (5) compiler
195. To reload a Web page, press the ____ button.
(l) Redo (2) Reload (3) Restore
(4) Ctrl (5) Refresh
196. Which of the following could be digital input devices for comput-ers?
(1) Digital camcorder (2) Microphone (3) Scanner
(4) All of the above (5) None of these
197. The_____ enables you to simul-taneously keep multiple Web pages open in one browser win-dow.
(1) tab box (2) pop-up helper (3) tab row
(4) address bar (5) Esc key
198. You can use the____ bar to type a URL and display a Web page, or type a keyword to display a list
of related Web pages.
(1) Menu (2) Title (3) Search
(4) Web (5) Address
199. Storage media such as a CD read and write information using
(1) a laser beam of red light (2) magnetic dots (3) magnetic strips
200. Vendor-created program modifi-cations are called
(1) patches (2) ant viruses (3) holes
(4) fixes (5) overlaps

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