EE3 1. Thin-film integrated circuit refers to film thickness of approximately 1um. 2.

Classifications of ICs according to functions include linear, digital and microwave. Which of these classes greatly relies on hybrid technology? Microwave ICs 3. The term monolithic is derived from the Greek words monos and lithos which respectively mean single and stone (single stone) 4. Devices or components such as transistors and diodes are mostly fabricated in ICs by diffusion 5. In most planar ICs, what do you call the layer that protects the surface of the chip from external contaminants? Oxide layer 6. Which comes first in the planar process of fabricating ICs? Crystal growth 7. A technique used for obtaining a relatively large single crystal from a semiconductor material. the process consists essentially of dipping a tiny seed crystal into a crucible of molten mass of the same substance and then slowly withdrawing it while rotating. Czochralski method. 8. In IC fabrications, the substrate is usually produced by Czochralski process. 9. The process used to grow a layer of single-crystal semiconductor as an extension of the existing crystal wafer of the same material. epitaxial 10. In fabricating ICs using planar technology, what is the basic method of adding impurities? Diffusion 11. The introduction of impurities into a semiconductor inside a hot furnace during IC fabrication. Diffusion 12. A method of introducing impurities in IC fabrication wherein the appropriate ions are carried by an accelerating beam. Ion-implantation 13. Which method of doping that is used in producing narrow regions in an IC? Ion-implantation 14. Type of diffusion in which the impurity concentration at the semiconductor surface is maintained at a constant level throughout the diffusion cycle. Constant-source diffusion 15. An alternative method rather than diffusion in introducing impurities into a semiconductor wherein the impurities are made to penetrate into the wafer by an ion beam. Ion-implantation. 16. A method of producing integrated circuit by photographing a pattern of the circuit on a suitable light-sensitized surface of semicon-ductor and chemically etching away unwanted portions of the surface. Photolithographic process. 17. In IC fabrication, the photo-sensitive emulsion coated at the wafer surface to be masked is called photoresist 18. The removal of unmasked Silicon Dioxide (SiO2)at the wafer surface in IC fabrication etching 19. The removal of the remaining photoresist in the wafer after etching during IC fabrication. Stripping. 20. Covering or coating on a semiconductor surface to provide a masked area for selective etching or deposition masking 21. In most IC fabrications, how is the connection pattern between components defined? By masking 22. What do you call the process of interconnecting the components in an IC during fabrication? Metallization 23. The conducting material that is mostly used to interconnect components on chips during metallization process. Aluminum 24. Is the process of making the semiconductor chip or wafer insensitive to any contaminations that might cause drift of parameter or premature failure. Passivation 25. Passivation of semiconductor wafer by forming a layer of an insulating oxide on the surface oxide passivation 26. In monolithic ICs, electrical isolation between devices on the same substrate is achieved by fabricating them in an electrically isolated region known as isolation pockets or tubs. 27. Which of the isolation techniques in IC fabrication that is commonly used? Junction isolation 28. Isolation of devices in integrated circuit by forming a silicon oxide layer around each devices is known as oxide insulation, and this is a good example of dielectric isolation 29. An operational amplifier must have at least how many usable terminals? 14 terminals 30. What type of amplifier commonly used at the output stage of op-amps? Complementary amplifier 31. the transistor configuration used at the output complementary stage of most op-amps commoncollector 32. the stage followed by the output complementary in op-amps functional block diagram level shifter

33. what is the purpose of a level shifter in op-amps? To set and/or adjust the output voltage to zero when input signal is zero. 34. Primarily, op-amps are operated with bipolar power supply, however, we can also use single polarity power supply by generating a reference voltage to ground. 35. Calculate the CMRR of an op-amp having a common-mode gain of 10 and a differential-mode gain of 100,000. 80 36. The non-inverting and inverting inputs of an op-amp have an input voltage of 1.5mV and 1.0mV, respectively. If the op-amp has a common-mode voltage gain of 10 and a differential mode gain of 10000, what is its output voltage? 5.0125V 37. What is the maximum output voltage swing of an op-amp? +Vsat to Vsat 38. The uA741 op-amp has a CMRR of 90dB and a differential-mode gain voltage amplification of 200,000. What is the op-amps common-mode voltage gain? 6.324 39. The current needed at the input of an op-amp to operate it normally input bias current 40. Ideal op-amp requires no input current, but real op-amp needs a very small input current called input bias current. At both inputs, the bias currents have a slight difference. What do you call this difference? Input offset current 41. the change in input offset current due to temperature change input offset current drift 42. the reason why a slight difference between the input bias current occurs in op-amps is due to the unsymmetrical circuit component parameters. This unsymmetrical condition also produces a difference in input voltage called what? Input threshold voltage 43. ideally, the output voltage of an op-amp is zero when there is no input signal, however, in practical circuits, a small output voltage appears, this voltage is known as output offset voltage 44. calculate the output offset voltage of an inverting amplifier using op-amp with an input offset current of 10nA. the current is having an input resistance of 10k-ohm and a feedback resistance of 100k-ohm. 1.0mV 45. an op-amp inverting amplifier uses a feedback resistor of 100k-ohm and input resistor of 10kohm. If the op-amps input offset voltage is 2.0mV, approximate the amplifier output offset voltage due to this input offset voltage. 22mV 46. the output offset voltage of an op-amp is due to the input offset current and voltage. If 1mV is due to the input offset current and 22mV due to the input offset voltage, what is the total output offset voltage of the op-amp? 23mV 47. how will you minimize the output offset voltage due to the input offset current of an op-amp? By installing a bias-current-compensating resistor 48. the approximate value of the bias-current compensating resistor in op-amp circuits is: equal to the parallel combination of the input and feedback resistors 49. in op-amp analysis, the input offset voltage is represented by a battery 50. what is the effect of the input offset voltage to the output voltage if the op-amp has no feedback element? Causes the output to saturate either towards positive or negative. 51. How can we minimize the effect of the input offset current and input offset voltage at the output offset voltage? By making the feedback resistance small 52. An op-amp is wired as an inverting amplifier with an input and feedback resistances of 1k-ohm and 100k-ohm respectively. When the input signal is set to zero, the output was found to have an offset voltage of 101mV. Calculate the input offset voltage. 1.0mV 53. What is the most effective way of minimizing the output offset voltage of an op-amp? By properly using and adjusting the offset-null terminals 54. In large signal dc-amplifiers using op-amp, which parameter has the least effect on its performance? Drift 55. For ac-amplifiers using op-amps what parameters can affect its performance. Slew rate and frequency response 56. If an op-amp is used to amplify small ac-signals, what parameter should you greatly consider to ensure better performance? Frequency response 57. What do we mean by internally compensated op-amps? op-amps with internal frequency compensation capacitor to prevent oscillation 58. The frequency at which the open-loop gain of an op-amp is 0.707 times its value at very low frequency. Break frequency 59. The reduction of op-amps gain due to increasing operating frequency. Roll-off 60. Frequency at which the voltage gain of op-amp reduces to unity. Unity-gain bandwidth product 61. An op-amp has a specified transient response rise time of 0.3us, calculate its unity-gain bandwidth. 1.167MHz

62. What is the maximum signal frequency that can be used in an op-amp having a specified slew rate of 0.5v/usec? The maximum output voltage desired is 5V. 16kHz. 63. What must be the slew rate of an op-amp to be used in order to provide an undistorted output voltage of 10V at a frequency of 100,000 rad/sec. 1.0V/usec 64. An op-amp zero crossing detector without hysteresis. Has no feedback. 65. What is the noise gain of op-amps? 1+Rf/Ri 66. In most ac-amplifiers using op-amps, the feedback resistor is shunted with a very small capacitance, what is its purpose? To minimize high-frequency noise 67. Approximate the noise-gain of an inverting adder using op-amps if it has five inputs six(6) 68. What is true about the external frequency-compensation capacitor? The lower its value, the wider its bandwidth. 69. Typical value of the external frequency-compensating capacitor of op-amps. 3.0-30 uF 70. The magnitude of the op-amps input offset voltage before it can be classified as a low-input offset voltage op-amp. 0.2mV. 71. Op-amps whose internal transistor biasing can be controlled externally are categorized as programmable-op-amps 72. The most popular op-amp packages are the metal can, 8-pin DIP, and the SMT. Which of these corresponds to TO-99? Metal can 73. Dual-in-line or DIL package is designated as TO-116 74. For high-density ICs, involving many op-amps, what packaging is most suitable? SMT 75. A reactive device used in controlling electrical power by using two windings on a common iron core. The control winding is supplied with small dc-current which causes the reactance of a large ac-winding to change accordingly. Saturable reactor 76. a saturable reactor with regenerative feedback. Magnetic amplifier 77. an electronic switch that has the highest single-device current capacity and can withstand overloads better. ignitrons 78. which power control switching method that greatly generates RFI or EMI and is therefore limited to low-frequency applications? Phase-control 79. a converter that changes ac-voltage frequency from one to another. Cycloconverter 80. in electronic converters, what signal is mostly used to trigger the active device? Square wave 81. which of the trigger diodes has the highest-holding voltage? Bidirectional-trigger diac 82. general term of electronic devices used to control or trigger large-power switching devices. Break-over devices 83. a break-over device that is basically a diode. Trigger diode 84. the voltage decreased across the Anode (A) and cathode (K) of an SCR from non-conducting state to conducting state. Breakback voltage. 85. An SCR rated 10A is used in the controlling switch in a circuit powered by 50 Vdc. When the SCR fires ON, its Anode (A) to Cathode (K) voltage was observed to be 2V. Calculate the breakback voltage of the SCR. 86. Use of heat sinks, forced air, and water cooling are examples of external cooling in SCRs and other devices. Which of these is the only recommended to be used for the largest power dissipating device? Water cooling 87. In connecting two SCRs in series, during OFF state, the voltage source must be properly shared between them, but due to devices differences, there might be unequal voltages across each SCR. How do we equalize these voltages? By using a blocking-equalizing resistor 88. A circuit used for voltage equalization during ON-OFF switching action of SCRs in series. Snubber circuit 89. in controlling electrical power using phase control method with SCR/triac being the active device, what do we call the period of the cycle before the device switches to conduction? Firing delay angle 90. how many times per second does an SCR is turned ON and OFF when it is operated in a full-wave phase control at a line frequency of 60 Hz? 120 times (FW) 91. a three terminal device that behaves roughly like SCRs, except that it can conduct current in either direction when at ON. SBS 92. a thyristor that is very similar to an SCR except that it has a low voltage and current ratings. It is very temperature stable, and is therefore suitable to be used as a triggering device. SUS 93. silicon unilateral switches (SUS), generally have a breakover voltage of 8V, however, this value can be altered by normally connecting a zener diode. How is the diode installed? Diodes cathode to SUSs gate and diodes anode to SUSs cathode

94. a silicon unilateral switch (SUS) has a forward breakover voltage of 8V. a zener diode is connected between its gate and cathode terminals with the diodes cathode at SUSs gate. If the zener voltage is 3.9V, what is the new forward breakover voltage of the device? 4.50V 95. relate the magnitude of the dc-output voltage to the ac input rms voltage of a full-wave rectifier. Vdc=0.90Vrms 96. determine the dc-voltage of a full-wave bridge rectifier when the input ac-voltage is 24Vrms. 21.6V 97. ripple factor of a full-wave rectifier. 0.48 98. A 20V-dc power supply was found to have a ripple voltage of 2Vrms when supplying 1.5amps load. Calculate its percent ripple. 10.0% 99. Which power supply filter gives the smallest ripple voltage? Multi-section LC-filter 100. Which regulator is the most inefficient? Shunt 101. Sampling circuit used in most voltage regulators. Voltage-divider network 102. a 12Vdc power supply is regulated using 7805IC and is used in TTL circuits that require a 0.2 amps current. Determine the dropout voltage of the system. 7V 103. a load draws 1A current from a 10-V regulated power supply. Calculate the power dissipated by the regulator if it has an input voltage of 16V. 6 watts 104. what three-terminal IC regulator that has a variable negative voltage output? 337 105. in a three-terminal adjustable positive voltage regulator (317), what is the bandgap voltage between the output terminal and adjustment terminal? 1.25V 106. typical ripple rejection of most three-terminal voltage regulators. 0.1% 107. the three-terminal voltage regulators, such as the 78xx series has a typical current rating of 1.5 amperes. If a high current is required, say 30 amperes, how will you make modifications for this regulator in order to provide the required current? By the use of external pass transistor 108. active devices used in switching regulators may experience large over-currents during conduction (turn-on-state) and large over-voltages during turn-off. These excessive currents and voltages may cause distraction or damage of the active devices. How do we protect them? By installing a snubber circuit. 109. In switching SCRs to on-state, the current rises rapidly and some-times causes damage to the device. One way of preventing this to happen is by connecting an inductance in series with the load. If for example, an SCR with a di/dt rating of 100A/us and is used in 220 Vac, what should be the value of the inductance to be used? 2.48uH 110. When SCRs switches to off from on-state, a voltage across the anode and cathode rises rapidly, this voltage change creates a voltage gradient internally and may cause the SCR to trigger again. To prevent this unscheduled firing, a capacitor may be installed across the SCR. For an SCR with a maximum forward-blocking voltage of VFBM=500V and a maximum dv/dt of 25V/us,calculate the capacitance needed to prevent unscheduled firing if the SCR has a load of 10-ohm. 2uF 111. One of the major concerns in power electronics is to clean-up or shape-up the utilitysupply voltage (the wall outlet 220V/60Hz) from disturbances such as overvolt, undervolt, voltage spikes and harmonic distortions. What circuit is used for this? Power conditioners 112. Karnaugh map is the most commonly used method in simplifying Boolean expression or logical functions. In this method only 1s and 0s are entered into the table, while mapentered variable technique includes variable into the table. 113. A suitable method in simplifying Boolean expression when the system deals with more than six variables. Quine-mccluskey tabular method 114. If the fan out of a logic gate is not enough, a/an buffer should be used. 115. Is considered as a controller inverter. XOR 116. Known as universal gates NOR and NAND 117. The number of NAND-gates needed to form an OR-gate. 3 118. Flip-flop that changes state every time the input is triggered. Master slave flip-flop 119. Type of memory that is formed by a series of magnetic bubbles at the substrate bubble memory 120. Digital device similar to that of a ROM and whose internal connections of logic arrays can be programmed by passing high current through fusable links. PLA and PAL 121. A circuit used for selecting a single output from multiple inputs universal logic module (ULM) 122. What is formed when the complemented output of the last stage of a shift register is fed back to the input of the first stage? Twisted ring counter

123. Refers to the ability of a logic circuit to withstand noise superimposed on its input signal. Noise immunity 124. The number of logic gates of the same family that can be connected to the input of a particular gate without degrading the circuit performance. Fan-in 125. A logic circuit family with a supply voltage of 25V. and are generally used in industry where machinery causes electrical noise and large power line transients to occur.HLDTL 126. in a transistor-transistor-logic (TTL), if the base collector junction of a transistor is clamped with a Schottky-diode it becomes Schottky TTL. What is the significance of having this diode? It increases the switching speed 127. PMOS are generally supplied with a voltage up to 15 V 128. NMOS can be interlaced to CMOS by providing a pull-up resistor 129. a digital IC whose output transistor has no internal pull-up resistor. Open-collector configuration 130. in digital ICs, such as buffers and registers, what output configuration is used if they are intended for busing ? tri-state output 131. in TTL ICs, which input configurations gives a high-input impedance at both logic states (HIGH and LOW state)? Substrate pnp input 132. what is the purpose of internal clamping diodes at the input of a logic circuit? To minimize negative ringing effects 133. in TTL ICs with more than one gates available, sometimes not all gates are used. How will you handle these unused gates? Force the output to go HIGH 134. how will you handle unused inputs in a logic gate/logic IC? Pull them up or down, depending on circuit function