IFC Q & A 5 - Electronics

Excel Review Center Intensive Final Coaching (IFC) Q & A 5 - Electronics
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rd
& 4
th
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How should a double lace be started?
With a telephone hitch *

How should laced cable groups that run
parallel to each other be bound together?
With telephone hitches *

What tool or technique should be used to
install self-clinching cable straps?
Military standard hand tool *

If a bundle of conductors passes through a
very high-temperature area, what restraint
should be used to tie the bundle?
High-temperature pressure-sensitive tape *

Why do cables and wires require
identification?
To assist the technician in troubleshooting
a circuit
To assist the technician in making repairs
To permit the tracing of a circuit

Of the following publications, which should be
used to determine the wire identification
system for a specific piece of equipment?
The technical manual for the equipment *

What is the purpose of the green conductor in
a power tool or electric appliance cable?
To prevent electrical shock to the operator
*
Which of the following diagrams is primarily
used to identify the components of a system?
Pictorial diagram *

used to locate the components of a system?
Isometric diagram *

What two diagrams are used in conjunction
with text materials to explain basic functions of
a circuit?
Single-line diagram, Block diagram

used to explain the overall operation of a
system?
Schematic diagram *

What diagram must be used in conjunction
with a schematic to troubleshoot a system?
Wiring diagram *

What diagram shows the most details of a
system?
Wiring diagram *

If you are required to wire a relay into a circuit,
what diagram would be most useful?
Terminal diagram *

When you solder or hot-wire strip fluoroplastic
insulated wire, which of the following safety
precautions should be observed?
Maintain good ventilation to carry off the
fumes *

If a circuit has power restored to it, what meter
may be used to test the circuit?
A voltmeter *

If excess solder adheres to the tip of a
soldering iron, how should you remove it?
Wipe it off on a clean cloth *

In generators, what principle is used to convert
mechanical motion to electrical energy?
Magnetic induction *

When you use the left-hand rule for
generators, what is indicated by the middle
finger?
Direction of current flow *

The output voltage of an elementary generator
is coupled from the armature to the brushes by
what devices?
Slip rings *

An elementary generator consists of a single
coil rotating in a magnetic field. Why is NO
voltage induced in the coil as it passes through
the neutral plane?
Flux lines are not being cut *

What components cause(s) a generator to
produce a dc voltage instead of an ac voltage
at its output?
The commutator *

When two adjacent segments of the
commutator on a single-loop dc generator
come in contact with the brush at the same
time, which of the following conditions will
occur?
The output voltage will be zero *

In an elementary, single-coil, dc generator with
one pair of poles, what is the maximum
number of pulsations produced in one
revolution?
Two *

If an elementary dc generator has a two coil
armature and four field poles, what is the total
number of segments required in the
commutator?
4 *

How can you vary the strength of the magnetic
field in a dc generator?
By varying the voltage applied to the
electromagnetic field coils *

Under which of the following conditions does
sparking occur between the brushes and the
commutator?
When there is improper commutation *

Distortion of the main field by interaction with
the armature field defines what term?
Armature reaction *

Distortion of the main field by interaction with
the armature field can be compensated for by
the use of
interpoles *

Motor reaction in a dc generator is a physical
force caused by the magnetic interaction
between the armature and the field. What
effect, if any, does this force have on the
operation of the generator?
It tends to oppose the rotation of the
armature *

In dc generators, copper losses are caused by
which of the following factors?
Resistance in the armature winding

Eddy currents in armature cores are kept low
by which of the following actions?
Laminating the iron in the core *

What makes the drum-type armature more
efficient than the Gramme-ring armature?
Gramme-ring armature coils are only
partially exposed to the magnetic field *

What type of dc generator application best
utilizes the features of the lapwound armature?
High-current *

Which of the following is NOT a major
classification of dc generators?
Lap-wound *

What characteristic of series-wound
generators makes them unsuitable for most
applications?
The output voltage varies as the load
current varies *

As the load current of a dc generator varies
from no-load to full-load, the variation in output
voltage is expressed as a percent of the full-
load voltage. What term applies to this
expression?
Voltage regulation *

When two or more generators are used to
supply a common load, what term is applied to
this method of operation?
Parallel *

What special-purpose dc generator is used as
a high-gain power amplifier?
Amplidyne *

The gain of an amplifying device can be
determined by which of the following formulas?
GAIN = OUTPUT / INPUT *

The maximum gain possible from an
amplidyne is approximately
10,000 *

What determines the direction of rotation of a
dc motor?
The polarity of armature current and
direction of magnetic flux *

When you use the right-hand rule for motors,
what quantity is indicated by the extended
forefinger?
Direction of flux north to south *

In a dc motor, what causes counter emf?
Generator action *

In a dc motor, how, if at all, does counter emf
affect speed?
It causes the speed to increase *

What is the load on a dc motor?
The mechanical device the motor moves *

When a series dc motor is operated without a
load, which of the following conditions occurs?
The armature speeds out of control*

A dc series motor is best suited for which of
the following applications?
Variable load, high torque *

What is the main advantage of a shunt motor
over a series motor?
A shunt motor maintains a more constant
speed under varying load conditions than a
series motor *

How can the direction of rotation be changed
in a dc motor?
By reversing either the armature
connections or the field connections *

When the voltage applied to the armature of a
dc shunt motor is decreased, what happens to
the motor speed?
It decreases *

rd
& 4
th
In a dc motor, the neutral plane shifts in what
direction as the result of armature reaction?
Opposite the direction of rotation *

The current in the interpoles of a dc motor is
the same as the
armature current *

In a dc motor, what is the purpose of the
resistor placed in series with the armature?
To limit armature current *

Magnetic induction in an alternator is a result
of relative motion between what two elements?
The armature and the field *

Voltage is induced in what part of an
alternator?
The armature *

What are the two basic types of alternators?
Rotating field and rotating armature *

Which of the following alternator types is most
widely used?
Rotating-field *

The purpose of the exciter in an alternator is to
provide dc field excitation *

An alternator using a gas turbine as a prime
mover should have what type of rotor?
Turbine-driven *

In alternators with low-speed prime movers,
only what type of rotor may be used?
Salient-pole *

Alternators are rated using which of the
following terms?
Volt-amperes *

What does the term single-phase mean
relative to single-phase alternators?
All output voltages are in phase with each
other *

An IGBT is generally used in
high-voltage applications
Why are shaded-pole motors built only in small
sizes?
They have weak starting torque

In a single-phase alternator with multiple
armature windings, how must the windings be
connected?
Series *

What determines the phase relationship
between the individual output voltages in a
multiphase alternator?
The placement of the armature coils *

What is the phase relationship between the
output voltages of a three-phase alternator?
120 out of phase *

The ac power aboard ship is usually distributed
as what voltage?
450-volt, three-phase *

The output frequency of an alternator is
determined by what two factors?
The number of poles and the speed of
rotation *
A four-pole, single-phase alternator rotating at
1800 rpm will produce what output frequency?
60 Hz *

In most alternators, the output voltage is
controlled by adjusting the
field voltage *

When alternators are to be operated in
parallel, which of the following alternator
characteristics must be considered?
Voltage, Frequency, Phase relationship

Which of the following motors is/are types of
ac motor?
Series, Synchronous, Induction

Which of the following types of motors is
widely used to power small appliances?
Universal *

A universal motor is a special type of
series motor *

The number of pole pairs required to establish
a rotating magnetic field in a multiphase motor
stator is determined by which of the following
factors?
The number of phases *

In a two-phase motor stator, what is the
angular displacement between the field poles?
90 *

Adjacent phase windings of a 3-phase motor
stator are what total number of degrees apart?
120 *

Which of the following types of motors has a
constant speed from no load to full load?
Synchronous*

What type of ac motor is the simplest and least
expensive to manufacture?
Induction *

What term applies to the difference between
the speed of the rotating stator field and the
rotor speed?
Slip *

The speed of the rotor of an induction motor
depends upon which of the following factors?
The torque requirements of the load *

What type of ac motor is most widely used?
Single-phase induction *

What type of ac motor uses a combination of
inductance and capacitance to apply out-of-
phase currents to the start windings?
Split-phase induction *

Which of the following is NOT one of the four
sections of a basic power supply?
Oscillator *

The primary purpose of the transformer in an
electronic power supply is to isolate the power
supply from ground.
False *

What is the primary function of the rectifier
section?
To convert ac to pulsating dc *

What is/are the functions of the filter section?
To convert pulsating dc to steady dc *

The purpose of a center tap in a transformer is
to provide
two equal voltages from one transformer *

A diode is an ideal rectifier for which, if any, of
the following reasons?
Current flows through the diode in one
direction only *

When the anode of a diode is negative with
respect to the cathode, the diode is said to be
in what state?
Cutoff *

In a simple half-wave rectifier, the diode will
conduct for a maximum of how many degrees
of the 360-degree input signal?
180 *

What term is used to describe current pulses
that flow in the same direction?
Pulsating direct current *

What is the ripple frequency of a half-wave
rectifier with an input line frequency of 60 Hz?
60 Hz *

In a half-wave rectifier, what is the average
voltage output when the peak voltage is 300
volts?
95.4 volts *

What is the ripple frequency of a full-wave
rectifier with an input line frequency of 60 Hz?
120 Hz *

The full-wave rectifier has which of the
following advantages over the half-wave?
Higher average voltage and current*

What is the average voltage output of a full-
wave rectifier that has an output of 100 volts
peak?
63.7 volts *

The primary disadvantage of the conventional
full-wave rectifier is that the peak output
voltage is only one-half that of the half-wave
rectifier.
True *

In filter circuits, inductors are used as what
type of impedance(s)?
Series impedances to oppose changes in
current *

To retain its charge, the capacitor in a simple
capacitor filter must have a long charge time
constant and a short discharge time constant.
True
False *

If you increase the value of a capacitor, the XC
will increase.
False *

To obtain a steady dc output in a simple
capacitor circuit, the capacitor must charge
almost instantaneously to the value of the
applied voltage.
True *

Which of the following factors, if any,
determines the rate of discharge of the
capacitor in a filter circuit?
The value of the load resistance *

A half-wave rectifier has an output frequency
of 60 hertz, a filter capacitor value of 40
microfarads, and a load resistance of 10 k.
What is the value of XC?
66.3 ohms *


rd
& 4
th
A full-wave rectifier has an output frequency of
120 hertz, a filter capacitor value of 25
microfarads, and a load resistance of 10 k.
What is the value of XC?
53 ohms *

What type of filter is the most basic power
supply filter?
Capacitor *

In a circuit with a capacitor filter, how is the
capacitor connected?
In parallel with the load *

The LC choke-input filter is used primarily
where which of the following types of
regulation is/are important?
Voltage only *

In an LC choke-input filter circuit, the capacitor
charges only to the average value of the input
voltage. What component inhibits the capacitor
from reaching the peak value of the input
voltage?
The filter choke *

In an LC choke-input filter, the larger the value
of the filter capacitor, the better the filtering
action. Which of the following factors
represents the major limitation in obtaining the
maximum value of the capacitor used?
Physical size *

What is the most common range of values, in
henries, for a power supply choke?
1 to 20 *

If the impedance of the choke in an LC choke-
input filter is increased, the ripple will
decrease *

A full-wave rectifier has an output frequency of
120 Hertz, a filter choke with a value of 10
henries, and a load resistance of 10 k. What
is the value of XL?
7.5 k *

The filter capacitor in the LC choke-input filter
is NOT subject to extreme voltage surges
because of the protection provided by what
component?
Inductor *

Shorted turns in the choke of an LC choke-
input filter may reduce the value of inductance
below the critical value.
When this happens, which of the following
problems may occur?
Poor voltage regulation excessive ripple
amplitude abnormally high output voltage

The use of the RC capacitor-input filter is
limited to which of the following situations?
When the load current is small *

In a voltage regulator, what percent of
regulation would be ideal?
0 % *

If a power supply produces 30 volts with no
load and 25 volts under full load, what is the
percent of regulation?
20 *

11 *

0 *

Basic voltage regulators are classified as
either series or shunt. Their classification is
determined by which of the following factors?
The position of the regulating device in
relation to the load (RL) *

The simple series voltage regulator was
designed to function as what type of
resistance?
Variable resistance in series with the load *

A series voltage regulator is designed so that
what total percentage of current flows through
the regulating device?
100 *

When a series voltage regulator is used to
control output voltages, any increase in input
voltage results in a/an
increase in the resistance of the regulating
device *

What type of ammeter reading indicates that
current regulator is functioning properly?
Constant *

A major disadvantage of having good current
regulation is that good voltage regulation is
lost.
False *

To maintain a constant current flow when there
is an increase in the load resistance (RL),
variable resistance (RV) must compensate for
this change by
increasing its resistance *

A decrease in the forward bias of a base-
emitter junction has which of the following
effects on the resistance of a transistor?
It increases

Voltage multipliers are used primarily to
develop what type of voltage?
High voltage where low current is required *

The classification of voltage multipliers
depends on which of the following ratios?
Output voltage to input voltage *

A half-wave voltage doubler consists of what
total number of half-wave rectifiers?
Two *

If a half-wave rectifier circuit is added to a
half-wave voltage doubler circuit, what will be
the resulting circuit?
A voltage tripler *

Which of the following methods is used by
manufacturers of electronic equipment to
reduce the cost of extensive wiring?
Grounding the return side of the power
transformer to the chassis *

When working on electronic equipment, the
technician should observe which of the
following safety precautions?
Make certain that the electronic equipment
is properly grounded; Make certain that the
test equipment is properly grounded; Make
certain that the rubber mats are in good
condition

Which of the following is/are the most widely
used check(s) for testing electronic
equipment?
Visual, Signal tracing

Any connection that is located close to the
chassis or to any other terminal should be
examined for the possibility of which of the
following problems?
A short *

Which of the following statements applies to a
transformer that is discolored or leaking?
It is cracked *

As a technician, you notice that a resistor is
discolored and charred. Which, if any, of the
following conditions most likely caused the
damage?
Overload *

Which, if any, of the following is the most rapid
and accurate method for testing electronic
circuits after completing visual inspection?
Signal tracing *

The electrons emitted by a heated conductor
come from what source?
An external battery; An external ac source

What is another name for thermionic
emission?
The Edison effect *

Electrons emitted by a hot filament are able to
cross the gap between the filament and the
plate. What force enables them to do this?
Electrostatic attraction *

In a self-biased JFET, the gate is at
0 V

The drain-to-source resistance in the ohmic
region depends on
VGS
the Q-point values
the slope of the curve at the Q-point

To be used as a variable resistor, a JFET must
be
biased in the ohmic region

When a JFET is biased at the origin, the ac
channel resistance is determined by
the transconductance
VGS

A MOSFET differs from a JFET mainly
because
the JFET has a pn junction

A D-MOSFET operates in
both the depletion and enhancement
modes

An n-channel D-MOSFET with a positive VGS is
operating in
the enhancement mode

A certain p-channel E-MOSFET has a VGS(th) =
- 2 V. If VGS = 0 V, the drain current is
0 A

In an E-MOSFET, there is no drain current
until VGS
reaches VGS(th)


rd
& 4
th
All MOS devices are subject to damage from
excessive heat
electrostatic discharge
excessive voltage

A certain D-MOSFET is biased at VGS = 0V. Its
datasheet specifies IDSS = 20 mA and VGS(off) =
-5V. The value of the drain current
is 20 mA

In a common-source amplifier, the output
voltage is
180 out of phase with the input
taken at the drain

In a certain common-source (CS) amplifier, Vds
= 3.2 V rms and Vgs = 280 mV rms. The
voltage gain is
11.4

Ideally, the equivalent circuit of a FET contains
a current source between drain and source
terminals

In a certain CS amplifier, RD = 1.0 k, RS =
560 , VDD = 10 V, and gm = 4500 S. If the
source resistor is completely bypassed, the
voltage gain is
4.5

The value of the current source in Question
177 is dependent on the
transconductance and gate-to-source
voltage

A certain common-source amplifier has a
voltage gain of 10. If the source bypass
capacitor is removed,
the voltage gain will decrease

A CS amplifier has a load resistance of 10 k
and RD = 820. If gm = 5 mS and Vin = 500
mV, the output signal voltage is
1.89 V

If the load resistance in Question 180 is
removed, the output voltage will
increase

A certain common-drain (CD) amplifier with RS
= 1.0 k has a transconductance of 6000 S.
The voltage gain is
0.86

The datasheet for the transistor used in a CD
amplifier specifies IGSS = 5 nA at VGS = 10 V. If
the resistor from gate to ground, RG, is 50 M,
the total input resistance is approximately
50 M

The common-gate (CG) amplifier differs from
both the CS and CD configurations in that it
has a
much lower input resistance

If you are looking for both good voltage gain
and high input resistance, you must use a
CS amplifier

A cascode amplifier consists of
a CS and a CG amplifier

The class D amplifier is not similar to
class C, class B, class A

The class D amplifier uses
pulse-width modulation

E-MOSFETs are generally used for switching
applications because of their
threshold characteristic

A sampling circuit must sample a signal at a
minimum of
twice the signal frequency

The value of resistance emulated by a
switched-capacitor circuit is a function of
frequency and capacitance

A basic CMOS circuit uses a combination of
an n-channel and a p-channel MOSFET

CMOS is commonly used in
digital circuits

If there is an internal open between the drain
and source in a CS amplifier, the drain voltage
is equal to
VDD

The low-frequency response of an amplifier is
determined in part by
the coupling capacitors

The high-frequency response of an amplifier is
determined in part by
the internal transistor capacitances

The Miller input capacitance of an amplifier is
dependent, in part, on
the voltage gain

The decibel is used to express
power gain, voltage gain, attenuation

When the voltage gain is 70.7% of its
midrange value, it is said to be
down 3 dB

In an amplifier, the gain that occurs between
the lower and upper critical frequencies is
called the
midrange gain

A certain amplifier has a voltage gain of 100 at
midrange. If the gain decreases by 6dB, it is
equal to
50
The gain of a certain amplifier decreases by 6
dB when the frequency is doubled. The roll-off
is
-12 dB/decade, -6 dB/octave

The lower critical frequency of a direct-coupled
amplifier with no bypass capacitor is
0 Hz

At the upper critical frequency, the peak output
voltage of a certain amplifier is 10 V. The peak
voltage in the midrange of the amplifier is
transistor capacitances

The Miller input and output capacitances for a
BJT inverting amplifier depend on
Cbc, Av

The bandwidth of an amplifier is determined by
the critical frequencies

An amplifier has the following critical
frequencies: 1.2 kHz, 950 Hz, 8 kHz, 8.5 kHz.
The bandwidth is
6800 Hz

Ideally, the midrange gain of an amplifier
remains constant with frequency

The frequency at which an amplifiers gain is 1
is called the
unity-gain frequency

When the voltage gain of an amplifier is
increased, the bandwidth
decreases

A thyristor has
three pn junctions

If the fT of the transistor used in a certain
amplifier is 75 MHz and the bandwidth is 10
MHz, the voltage gain must be
7.5

In the midrange of an amplifiers bandwidth,
the peak output voltage is 6 V. at the lower
critical frequency, the peak output voltage is
4.24 V

The dominant lower critical frequency of a
multistage amplifier is the
highest fcl

When a 60 Hz sinusoidal voltage is applied to
the input of a half-wave rectifier, the output
frequency is
60 Hz

The peak value of the input to a half-wave
rectifier is 10 V. the approximate peak value of
the output is
9.3 V

For the circuit in question 3, the diode must be
able to withstand a reverse voltage of
10 V

The average value of a full-wave rectified
voltage with a peak value of 75 V is
47.8 V

When a 60 Hz sinusoidal voltage is applied to
the input of a full-wave rectifier, output
frequency is
120 Hz

The total secondary voltage in a center-tapped
full-wave rectifier is 125 V rms. Neglecting the
diode drop, the rms output voltage is
62.5 V

When the peak output voltage is 100 V, the
PIV for each diode in a center-tapped full-wave
rectifier is (neglecting the diode drop)
200 V

When the rms output voltage of a bridge full-
wave rectifier is 20 V, the peak inverse voltage
across the diodes is (neglecting voltage drop)
28.3 V

The ideal dc output voltage of a capacitor-input
filter is equal to
The peak value of the rectified voltage


rd
& 4
th
A certain power-supply filter produces an
output with a ripple of 100 mV peak-to-peak
and a dc value of 20 V. The ripples factor is
0.005

A 60 V peak full-wave rectified voltage is
applied to a capacitor-input filter. If f=120 Hz,
RL=k, and C=10F, the ripple voltage is
5.0 V

If the load resistance of a capacitor-filtered full-
wave rectifier is reduced, the ripple voltage
Increases

Line regulation is determined by
Changes in output voltage and input
voltage

Load regulation is determined by
changes in load current and output voltage

The plate load resistor in an electron tube
circuit performs what function?
It converts variations in plate current to
variations in plate voltage

Most amplifier circuits are designed to operate
with the grid negative in relation to the
cathode. This is done to avoid which of the
following problems?
Excessive grid current *

Overdriving can be considered a form of
distortion for which of the following reasons?
The output is not a faithful reproduction of
the input *
Electronic equipment that uses fixed bias for
its tube circuit receives its grid bias voltage
from what source?
A power source external to the circuit *

The effect of both cathode and grid biasing is
to make the cathode (a) what polarity, relative
to (b) what other tube element?
(a) Positive (b) the grid *

Which of the following types of biasing is most
likely to use a battery supply?
Fixed *

In an electron tube circuit using cathode
biasing, the cathode is made positive in
relation to the grid. This is done by a voltage
dropped across what circuit element?
Rk *

The cathode bias voltage level applied to the
cathode is maintained at a constant level by
what circuit component?
Ck *

Which of the following undesirable
characteristics is associated with cathode
biasing?
Current must flow in the circuit
continuously *

Grid-leak biasing develops a biasing voltage
from (a) what portion of the input signal and (b)
by what type of action?
Ans: (a) Positive (b) capacitive *

During the charge cycle in grid-leak biasing,
Cc, draws current through what circuit
element?
rgk *

During the discharge cycle in grid-leak biasing,
Cc discharges across what circuit element?
Rg *

The effect of grid-leak biasing is to rectify the
input signal. Because of this, the amplitude of
the biasing voltage depends upon which of the
following factors?
Amplitude of the input
Frequency of the input
Size of Rg and Cc

During the charging cycle in grid-leak biasing,
the effective size of rgk is decreased. This is
caused by what electronic principle?
Electrostatic attraction between the
cathode and the grid *

The charge and discharge of capacitor Cc,
used in grid-leak circuits, will be equal when
what condition occurs?
When Rgk becomes the same value as Rg *

The amplification factor for an electron tube is
identified by what electronic symbol?
*

Transconductance is identified by what
electronic symbol?
gm *

In a triode, what interelectrode capacitance
has the greatest effect on tube operation?
Cpg *

Interelectrode capacitance (Cpg) affects the
gain of a triode stage because of what
electronic feature?
Feedback *

For normal operation, the screen grid of a
tetrode is operated at a positive voltage in
relation to (a) what tube element, and negative
in relation to (b) what other tube element?
(a) Grid (b) plate *

Which of the following undesirable
characteristics is/are associated with
tetrode operation?
The plate emits secondary emission
electrons
The output is noisy

Generally, tetrodes have a lower
transconductance than triodes. This is caused
by what feature of a tetrode?
The screen grid draws current from the
electron steam *

The suppressor grid of a pentode is operated
at what potential relative to (a) the cathode and
(b) the plate?
(a) The same potential (b) Negative*

Voltage is supplied to the suppressor grid in a
pentode from what source?
By a separate voltage source *

The suppressor grid is able to control the
effects of secondary emission by using which
of the following electronic actions?
By repelling electrons emitted from the
plate through electrostatic repulsion *

Which of the following types of tubes would be
used as a voltage amplifier in an electronic
circuit?
Triode *

Multielectrode tubes are normally classified
according to the number of
grids contained in the tube *

How many grids are there in a pentagrid tube?
Five *

What advantage(s) does the in-line grid
arrangement of the power pentode have over
the staggered grid arrangement of the
conventional pentode?
Higher efficiency, Higher power output

Which of the following is an advantage that a
power pentode has over a conventional
pentode?
Greater sensitivity to small signals*

What is the primary purpose of the beam-
forming plates in the beampower tube?
To concentrate the electrons into a beam *

Which of the following is a name given to the
variable-mu tube?
Remote-cutoff tube *

Which of the following is an advantage of the
variable-mu tube over conventional tubes?
It can amplify large input signals without
distortion *

What is the only difference between a remote-
cutoff tube and a sharp-cutoff tube?
The bias voltage used for conduction *

Which of the following is the BEST method for
reducing transit time in UHF tubes?
Placing the elements very close together *

Which of the following is a disadvantage of
UHF tubes?
They have reduced power-handling
capabilities *

What is the only physical difference between
the doorknob tube and the acorn tube?
Size *

How does the construction of a planar tube
differ from that of a concentric tube?
The electrodes of the planar tubes are
parallel to each other while those in
concentric tubes are not *

Why is the metallic ring of the planar tube
grounded?
To eliminate unwanted rf signals*

What is the name given to the gas-filled triode?
Thyratron *
The metallic shell capacitive ground of a planar
tube serves as what kind of capacitor in a
cathode-bias circuit?
Bypass *

What is the major difference between the
oilcan tube and the lighthouse tube?
The oilcan tube has cooling fins; the
lighthouse tube does not *

Which of the following is an advantage that an
oilcan tube has over a lighthouse tube?
The oilcan tube can handle more power *

The plate potential at which ionization occurs
is known as the ionization point. Which of the
following is also a name for this process?
Firing potential *


rd
& 4
th
What name is given to the value of plate
voltage at which ionization stops?
Extinction potential *

When a gas-filled triode ionizes, the grid loses
control and the tube then functions as what
type of tube?
Diode *

After the gas-filled triode ionizes and the grid
loses control, which of the following methods is
used to stop the conduction of the tube?
Removing the plate potential *

For what minimum amount of time must the
filaments of a mercury-vapor tube have voltage
applied before the plate voltage is applied to
the tube?
0.5 minute *

Which of the following conditions is/are
responsible for the soft, blue glow of the gas-
filled triode?
The tube is ionized *

Which of the following types of tubes is
normally used as a voltage regulator?
Cold cathode *

For a cold-cathode tube, how does the voltage
regulator maintain a constant voltage drop
across the tube?
By changing the resistance of the tube as
current flow varies *

The electron gun of the CRT serves which of
the following functions?
Concentrates electrons into a beam
Emits electrons

Which of the following is a description of the
grid in a CRT?
A metal cap with a hole in the center *

What element of a television CRT is adjusted
by the brightness control?
Control grid *

Which of the following elements of the CRT
helps prevent the beam of electrons from
diverging?
Focusing anode *

Which of the following elements of a CRT has
the highest positive potential?
The accelerating anode *

What is the name of the florescent material
that coats the inside face of a CRT?
Phosphor *

What is the purpose of the aquadag coating in
the CRT?
It is used as a plate *

In which of the following equipment would you
most likely find a cathode ray tube?
Oscilloscope, Television set

If deflection were not used in the CRT, what
would be viewed on the screen of the tube?
A solid black screen *

Which of the following types of deflection is
used by much of the test equipment in the
Navy?
Electrostatic *

Which of the following element cause(s) the
electron beam to move from left to right on a
CRT?
Horizontal deflection plates *

If a signal is to be viewed on a CRT, the signal
should be applied to which of the following
elements of the CRT?
Vertical plates *

Which of the following actions must you take
first before disposing of a cathode-ray tube?
Render the CRT harmless *

What is the purpose of adding radioactive
material to electron tubes?
The material reduces secondary emissions
The material aids ionization in the tube *

An inductor presents which of the following
types of electrical opposition to ac current
flow?
Reactance *

What type of disk drive interface is often used
in the hard disk drives installed in older IBM-
compatible desktop computers that have a
maximum capacity of 125MB?
ST-506/412 interface *

What type of disk drive interface uses a high-
level interface which requires only a logical
sector number to locate the desired data on a
disk?
Small computer systems interface *

What type of disk drive interface includes all of
the controller card electronics in the hard disk
drive and offers a transfer rate of up to 1 MB?
Integrated drive electronics *

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of the
SCSI disk drive interface over previous
interfaces?
Can transfer data up to 24 Mbits/sec*

Indicates number of physical sectors that are
between logical sectors on a hard disk
Interleave factor *

Total time it takes a disk drive to retrieve a
sector of data
Access time *

Time it takes for a magnetic head to position
itself over a specific track
Seek time *

Time it takes a specific sector of a specific
track to position itself under the magnetic head
Latency period *

The speed at which a disk drive and a disk
drive controller working together can transfer
data to the host computer is what disk
recording specification?
Transfer rate *

Most equipment technical manuals contain
voltage charts. For which of the following
purposes are they used?
To provide handy reference guides for
calculating voltage drops across fixed
impedances *

Which, if any, of the following statements
correctly describes the effect input impedance
of test equipment can have on readings taken?
A piece of test equipment with an infinite
input impedance will absorb no energy and
readings will be more accurate *
A piece of test equipment with a low input
impedance can cause readings taken to be
inaccurate. To eliminate this problem, the input
impedance of your test equipment should
exceed the impedance of the circuit under test
by what minimum ratio?
10 to 1 *

On an analog multimeter, where on the scale
are the most accurate readings taken?
Midscale *

What can you do to reduce the problem of
meter-reading errors caused by parallax?
Use a meter that has a mirror built into the
scale *

For what primary reason are oscilloscopes
used in circuit testing?
They provide a visual presentation of the
signal under test *

Digital multimeters effectively eliminate which
of the following disadvantages of analog
meters?
Parallax, Low impedance, Poor accuracy

If you exceed the frequency limitations of your
voltmeter, which of the following results is
likely?
The measurement will be inaccurate*

When performing measurements with an
oscilloscope, you should ensure that the trace
extends across what minimum portion of the
vertical viewing area?
60% *

Damping is necessary for which of the
following synchro devices?
Receiver *

The primary purpose of damping is to reduce
which of the following conditions in a synchro
device?
Oscillating *

What is the minimum number of synchro
devices needed for a simple synchro
transmission system?
Two *

If a synchro receiver is required to rotate in a
direction opposite to the rotation of the
transmitter rotor, what leads should be
reversed?
R1 and R2 *

If a synchro receiver and transmitter are
always 180 degrees out of phase with each
other, what leads are reversed?
R1 and R2 *

What are the two types of synchro devices that
will accept two inputs?
TDR and TDX *

What types of synchro devices have (a) one
electrical and one mechanical input and an
electrical output; and (b) two electrical inputs
and a mechanical output?
(a) TDX (b) TDR *

What determines whether a differential
synchro device adds or subtracts its inputs?
The way it is connected in the system *

Which of the following types of synchros is
used in a system requiring large amounts of
power and high accuracy?
Control *

IFC Q & A 5 - Electronics

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