Ukcat Guide 2014

UKCAT Ofcial Guide 2014 1
www.ukcat.ac.uk
2014
UKCAT
Ofcial Guide Fairness
Wider participation
UK Clinical Aptitude Test
for Medicine and Dentistry
2 UKCAT Ofcial Guide 2014
Address details????????
UKCAT 2013
This is the ofcial guide to the UKCAT 201 4 which contains denitive
information regarding the test and its content. We have produced this guide
in response to candidate feedback that they would like a comprehensive
guide to the test that is portable and printable. We believe that this guide, in
conjunction with additional information on our website www.ukcat.ac.uk and
our free practice materials, is all you need to prepare successfully for the test.
Please remember that we do not endorse any commercially-available preparation
courses for the UKCAT and we would advise you to be sceptical about anyones claims
to be able to help you do well in the test by coaching. Of course you do need to
practice in order to become familiar with test items and most importantly the timing in
each subtest. We give more advice in this document regarding test preparation.
Our guide includes key information about the test, what it contains and how our
Universities use the test. In addition, it contains information about what to expect
on your test day. You will nd descriptions of each subtest together with over 100
practice items and answers to help you prepare. These same items can also be accessed
through our Practice App available from the iTunes App Store and Google Play.
We hope you nd this information useful. If you have any feedback and suggestions for
additional content please contact us.
Foreword
2014 UKCAT Consortium. All rights reserved
www.ukcat.ac.uk
Fairness
Wider participation
Foreword 2
What is the UKCAT? 4
Key DATES 2014 5
Who Should Take the Test 5
Who should take the test? 5
Exemptions from the test
Which Universities require the test? 6
Test Centre Locations 7
Registration and Booking 8
Registration 8
Booking 9
Bursaries 9
Rescheduling and Cancelling 10
Refund policy 10
Candidates with Disabilities 11
UKCATSEN 11
Special examination arrangements 12
Test Format 13
Overview 13
Verbal Reasoning 14
Quantitative Reasoning 15
Abstract Reasoning 16
Decision Analysis 17
Situational Judgement 18
Marking 19
Results 20
Preparation 21
How should I Prepare 22
Candidate Preparation Toolkit 23
Test Strategies 26
Test Day 29
Arrival and Identication 30
Personal belongings 30
Environment 30
Calculator 30
Noteboards and pens 30
Breaks 31
Problems 31
Unprofessional behaviour 31
Complaints and 32
Extenuating Circumstances
Practice questions 35
Step-by-step guide 82
Feedback 84
Contents
UKCAT
What is the UKCAT?
UKCAT is committed to achieving greater fairness in selection to medicine and
dentistry and to the widening participation in medical and dental training of
under-represented social groups.
The UKCAT Consortium is a charity and company limited by guarantee. The members
of the charity, who also nominate its board of directors, are the universities that have
agreed to adopt the UKCAT as part of their selection process for medicine and dentistry.
The test helps universities to make more informed choices from amongst the many
highly-qualied applicants to medical and dental programmes. It helps to ensure that
candidates selected have the most appropriate mental abilities, attitudes and professional
behaviour required for new doctors and dentists to be successful in their clinical careers.
The UKCAT does not contain any curriculum or science content; nor can it be revised
for. It focuses on exploring the cognitive powers of candidates and other attributes
considered to be valuable for health care professionals.
The test is run by the UKCAT Consortium in partnership with Pearson VUE, a global
leader in computer-based testing and part of Pearson plc. It is delivered on computer
worldwide through Pearson VUEs high street centres.
All test questions are written by assessment
experts and must pass detailed trials to ensure
their validity and reliability. All questions, test
duration, sequencing and style are reviewed
on an ongoing basis to ensure that the test
is culturally fair and bias is minimised. There
is a programme of new item development,
including the testing of new questions, as
non-scoring components of the test.
Key dates 2014
Who should take the test?
Candidates are required to sit the UKCAT
by 3 October 2014 if they are intending to
apply for entry in 2015 (or deferred entry
in 2016) to a relevant course in a UKCAT
University.
This applies to all UK, EU and the majority of
international applicants. There are test centres
in locations around the world, including all EU
countries.
If you fail to take the test in time and apply to
a programme for which the test is required,
your application will be rejected unless you
have been exempted from the test.
You may only take the test once in any test
cycle and any instances of multipletestingin
the same year may be treated as an example
of unprofessional behaviour. If your application
to medical school is not successful and you
re-apply the following year, you will be
required to re-sit the UKCAT.
Exemptions from the Test
In exceptional cases a candidate may be
exempt from the test on geographic grounds
if they live andare educatedin a country
where the test is not offered, unless it is
possible to test in a neighbouring country.
Further details may be found on our website
www.ukcat.ac.uk. Requests for exemption
must be submitted by19 September 2014.
If you believe you might be exempt from the
test on any other grounds (e.g. medical) please
contactUKCAT directly.
Registration opens 1 May
Bursary applications open 1 May
Exemption applications open 1 May
Testing begins 1 July
Registration deadline 19 September
Bursary applications close 19 September
Exemption applications close 19 September
Booking/rescheduling deadline 2 October
Last testing date 3 October
UCAS application deadline 15 October
2014 Test
WHAT IS THE UKCAT?
Which Universities require the test?
The information below may be subject to change. Candidates should always check
the entry requirements for each course before booking a test. Some universities may
have different requirements for overseas or graduate applicants.
University of Aberdeen A100, A201
Cardiff University A100, A101, A104, A200, A204
University of Central Lancashire 8J68
University of Dundee A100, A104, A200, A204
Durham University A100
University of East Anglia A100, A104
University of Edinburgh A100
University of Exeter A100
University of Glasgow A100, A200
Hull York Medical School A100
Keele University A100, A104
Kings College London A100, A101, A102, A202, A205, A206
University of Leicester A100, A101
University of Manchester A104, A106, A204, A206
University of Newcastle A100, A101, A206
University of Nottingham A100, A108
University of Plymouth A100, A206, B750
Queen Mary, University of London A100, A101, A200
Queens University Belfast A100, A200
University of Shefeld A100, A104, A200
University of Southampton A100, A101, A102
University of St Andrews A100, A990, B900
St Georges University of London A100, A900
University of Warwick A101
WHAT IS THE UKCAT
Where can I take the test?
Candidates from the following countries must take the UKCAT.
Australia
Austria
Bahamas
Bahrain
Bangladesh
Barbados
Belgium
Bermuda
Botswana
Brazil
Brunei
Bulgaria
Cameroon
Canada
Cayman Islands
China
Croatia
Cyprus
Czech Republic
Denmark
Egypt
Estonia
Ethiopia
Finland
France
Germany
Ghana
Gibraltar
Greece
Hong Kong
Hungary
Iceland
India
Indonesia
Iraq
Ireland
(Republic of)
Israel
Italy
Jamaica
Japan
Jordan
Kenya
Kuwait
Latvia
Lebanon
Libya
Lithuania
Luxembourg
Malawi
Malaysia
Malta
Mauritius
Mexico
Myanmar
Nepal
Netherlands
New Zealand
Nigeria
Norway
Oman
Pakistan
Philippines
Poland
Portugal
Puerto Rico
Qatar
Romania
Saudi Arabia
Singapore
Slovakia
Slovenia
South Africa
South Korea
Spain
Sri Lanka
Swaziland
Sweden
Switzerland
Taiwan
Tanzania
Thailand
Trinidad &
Tobago
Turkey
Uganda
United Arab
Emirates
United
Kingdom
United States
of America
Zambia
Zimbabwe
WHAT IS THE UKCAT?
Registration
and Booking
There is no single date for sitting the exam; the UKCAT can be taken between
1 July 2014 and 3 October 2014.
Registration
You are strongly recommended to register and sit the UKCAT at your earliest convenience
to ensure that places are available at your chosen test centre. Each year there are
candidates who book to take the test late and then encounter real problems when they
fall ill or experience other problems which prevent them from taking that testing slot. This
can be avoided by booking to take your test early. We advise that you read the section on
extenuating circumstances carefully.
You can register for the test between 1 May and 19 September 2014 by following the links
on our website www.ukcat.ac.uk.
You need to register for the test personally this cannot be done by your school or college.
REGISTRATION AND BOOKING
Booking
Once you have registered you will be able
to sign in again to book your test. We
recommend you book a test slot as soon as
possible to maximise the chance of attending
a convenient test centre. Booking closes at
midday on 2 October 2014.
Paying for your Test
The following test fees apply in 2014:
Tests taken in the EU between
1 July and 31 August 65
Tests taken in the EU between
1 September and 3 October 80
Tests taken outside the EU 100
There is no difference in content between
the UKCAT sat during the summer or autumn
period. The increased price reects demand on
resources at particular times of the year. We
recommend candidates sit the test during the
summer period and pay the lower test fee.
Registration and test fees depend on the test
centre location, not on your place of residence
or nationality.
The registration fee is payable online at the
time of booking by major credit card (Visa,
Mastercard or UK Visa debit card). The fee is
always charged in GBP (pounds sterling). If you
have a non-UK credit card, your credit card
company will bill you according to its own rules
for foreign transactions.
Bursaries
The following EU candidates are eligible for a
bursary to cover the full cost of the test fee:
Candidates in receipt of a 16 to 19 Bursary
or Educational Maintenance Allowance
(EMA)
Candidates in receipt of Discretionary
Learner Support (or the equivalent for
Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland)
Candidates in receipt of a Full
Maintenance Grant or Full Special
Support Grant (or the equivalent for
Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland)
Candidates personally in receipt of Income
Support, Jobseekers Allowance or
Employment and Support Allowance
Candidates living with a family member
in receipt of Child Tax Credit where the
candidate is named on the award and the
household income as stated on the award is
less than 35k
Candidates living with a parent/guardian in
receipt of Income Support, Income-based
Jobseekers Allowance, or Income-based
Employment and Support Allowance
Candidates personally in receipt of, or
living with a parent/guardian in receipt
ofUniversal Creditwill be eligible for a
bursary if the household income as stated
on the award is less than 35k.We will
assess these applications on a case by
case basis until further details are known
about how this benet is means tested and
evidenced
Candidates outside the UK but within the
EU who are in receipt of an equivalent
benet to one of the above.
Further information regarding applying for a
bursary can be found on our website
www.ukcat.ac.uk/registration/bursaries
Rescheduling and Cancelling
Candidates may either reschedule or cancel
their test by going through the Pearson VUE
site and managing their booking. Booking and
rescheduling closes at midday on 2 October
2014.
Refund policy
Candidates may cancel or reschedule their test,
without charge, up to one clear day before
their scheduled test date. A clear day does not
include the day of the reschedule or the day
of the test; for example for a test on a Friday,
the last day to make any changes would be
midnight on the preceding Wednesday. Where
a candidate cancels their test within these
deadlines they will receive a credit/debit card
refund.
If the candidate cancels or reschedules later
than this, the appointment will count as a
no-show. In this case a candidate wishing
to reschedule their test would be required to
pay a further fee for the rescheduled test. If
you miss your test for any reason and have
not rescheduled in time, you will have to book
another test at your own expense. This applies
in cases of illness, family emergency, accident,
arrest, transport problems and security alert
as well as forgetfulness and lateness. It also
applies to those who arrive at the test centre
with inadequate or invalid identication.

REGISTRATION AND BOOKING
CANDIDATES WITH DISABILITIES
Candidates
with Disabilities
This section covers special examination arrangements for candidates with disabilities.
Candidates may require additional time for the test (e.g. dyslexia) and in this case
will sit theUKCATSEN
Candidates may require a particular test-centre environment due to a medical
condition or disability and will need to arrange this in advance of their test.

UKCATSEN
(Special Educational Needs)
Candidates should book the UKCATSEN if
they are entitled to additional time for public
examinations based on a medical diagnosis or
report from a specialist teacher. This is likely to
relate to candidates with dyslexia, dyspraxia,
dysgraphia, dysorthographia, attention decit
disorder, or working memory decit. This
may also apply to a range of other medical
conditions.
If you book the UKCATSEN, you do not
need to supply UKCAT with evidence of your
medical condition. The UKCAT universities, to
which you apply, will ask you to send evidence
to them later in the admissions cycle. Your
UKCAT result may be declared void if you do
not present adequate supporting evidence
when it is asked for by one of the universities.
Your Universities will require the following
evidence:
If you are currently at school, college
or University, an ofcial letter stating
that on the basis of a diagnosis from a
qualied medical practitioner, educational
psychologist or specialist teacher you are
currently entitled to additional time in
public examinations (or have had additional
time in public examinations within the last
two years)or
If you are no longer at school, college
or University, a post-16years diagnosis
or report from a qualied medical
practitioner or educational psychologist
that recommends additional time in public
examinations.
If you are not sure if you are eligible to take
the UKCATSEN or if you would normally
expect to offer different evidence of your
condition, please contact UKCAT -
ukcat@nottingham.ac.uk before booking
your test.
The UKCATSEN is not intended for candidates
for whom English is an additional language. It
is for those with learning difculties or medical
conditions for which they require additional
time in examinations.
Special examination
arrangements
Candidates may require a particular test-centre
environment due to a medical condition or
disability. This may also apply if you need to
take medication during testing. Please see the
website for more details.
Special examination arrangements cannot be
handled by our online registration system. If
you have such requirements, please contact
Customer Services via the UKCAT website in
advance of your test date.
If you have already registered and booked a
test date you need to contact us immediately.
It is possible that subject to your needs your
test date, time or place may need to be
changed.
If we agree to special examination
arrangements, the test centre will be aware of
these when you arrive.
CANDIDATES WITH DISABILITIES
Test Format
Overview
The test assesses a range of mental abilities identied by university Medical and Dental Schools as
important. There is no curriculum content as the test examines innate skills. Each subtest is in a
multiple-choice format and is separately timed.
For candidates sitting the examination in summer 2014, the UKCAT will consist of:
Verbal reasoning- assesses ability to critically evaluate information that is presented in a
written form
Quantitative reasoning- assesses ability to critically evaluate information presented in a
numerical form
Abstract reasoning- assesses the use of convergent and divergent thinking to infer
relationships from information
Decision analysis- assesses the ability to make sound decisions and judgements using
complex information
Situational judgement- measures capacity to understand real world situations and to
identify critical factors and appropriate behaviour in dealing with them.
TEST FORMAT
UKCAT - Standard Test (120 minutes)
Section
Time (including
instructions)
Items
Verbal Reasoning 22 minutes 44 items
Quantitative
Reasoning
25 minutes 36 items
Abstract Reasoning 14 minutes 55 items
Decision Analysis 32 minutes 28 items
Situational
Judgement
27 minutes 67 items
UKCATSEN - Extended Test (150 minutes)
Section
Time (including
instructions)
Items
Verbal Reasoning 28 minutes 44 items
Quantitative
Reasoning
31.5 minutes 36 items
Abstract
Reasoning
17.5 minutes 55 items
Decision Analysis 39 minutes 28 items
Situational
Judgement
34 minutes 67 items

Verbal Reasoning
The Verbal Reasoning subtest assesses your
ability to read and think carefully about
information presented in passages and to
determine whether specic conclusions can be
drawn from information presented.
Time Items
22 minutes
(one minute for
instruction and 21
minutes for items)
44 items associated with
11 reading passages
Why Verbal Reasoning?
Doctors and dentists need excellent verbal
reasoning skills in many aspects of their work.
An ability to understand complex information
and communicate this clearly and simply
to patients is obviously essential. Medical
practitioners must also be able to interpret
ndings from published materials and apply
this to their own practice. It is also essential
they are able to critique such materials and
draw their own conclusion as to the validity of
any ndings.
Verbal Reasoning Items
You will be presented with eleven passages
of text, each associated with four items
(questions).
For some of these test items, your task is to
read each passage of text carefully and then
decide whether the statement provided follows
logically from the information in the passage.
In each case you can choose True, False or
Cant Say.
Other items assess critical reasoning skills,
requiring candidates to make inferences and
draw conclusions from information. Again,
you will need to read the passage of text
carefully. You will then be presented with items
which comprise a stem, which might be an
incomplete statement or a question, with four
response options. The candidate is required
to pick the best or most suitable response.
Candidates will only be able to select one
response.
TEST FORMAT
TEST FORMAT
Quantitative Reasoning
The Quantitative Reasoning subtest assesses
your ability to use numerical skills to solve
problems. It assumes familiarity with numbers
to the standard of a good pass at GCSE.
However, items are less to do with numerical
facility and more to do with problem solving
(i.e. knowing what information to use and how
to manipulate it using simple calculations and
ratios). The subtest measures reasoning using
numbers as a vehicle rather than measuring a
facility with numbers.
Time Items
25 minutes (one
minute for instruction
and 24 minutes for
items)
36 items associated
with tables, charts,
and/or graphs
Why Quantitative Reasoning?
Doctors and dentists are constantly required to
look at data, review it and apply it to their own
practice. On a practical level drug calculations
based on patient weight, age and other
factors have to be correct. At a more advanced
level, medical and dental research requires an
ability to interpret, critique and apply results
presented in the form of complex statistics.
Universities considering applicants need to
know they have the aptitude to cope in these
situations.
Quantitative Reasoning Items
You are required to solve problems by
extracting relevant information from tables
and other numerical presentations. Some of
the items may present additional supporting
information in the form of tables, charts and
graphs. For each, you may be presented with
four items that relate to that table, chart or
graph. For each item, there are ve answer
options to choose from. Your task is to choose
the best option.
A simple on-screen calculator is available for
use in this section. The calculator is integrated
into the practice tests to allow candidates to
familiarise themselves with using it.
TEST FORMAT
Abstract Reasoning
Abstract Reasoning assesses your ability to
identify patterns amongst abstract shapes
where irrelevant and distracting material may
lead to incorrect conclusions. The test therefore
measures your ability to change track, critically
evaluate and generate hypotheses and requires
you to query judgements as you go along.
Time Items
14 minutes (one
minute for instruction,
13 minutes for items)
55 items associated
with sets of shapes
Why Abstract Reasoning?
When considering possible diagnoses, medical
practitioners may be presented with a set of
symptoms and/or results. Some information
may be more reliable, more relevant and
clearer than other information. Doctors and
Dentists need to make judgements about such
information, identifying the information which
will help them reach conclusions. Carrying
out research involving data often involves
identifying patterns in results in order to
generate further hypotheses.
Abstract Reasoning Items
There are 4 different item types in the UKCAT
test. You may see one or two of these item
types:
For type 1, you will be presented with two sets
of shapes labelled Set A and Set B. You
will be given a test shape and asked to decide
whether the test shape belongs to Set A, Set B,
or Neither.
For type 2, you will be presented with a series
of shapes. You will be asked to select the next
shape in the series.
For type 3, you will be presented with a
statement, involving a group of shapes. You will
be asked to determine which shape completes
the statement.
For type 4, you will be presented with two sets
of shapes labelled Set A and Set B. You will
be asked to select which of the four response
options belongs to Set A or Set B.
TEST FORMAT
Decision Analysis
The Decision Analysis Test assesses the ability
to make decisions in situations of uncertainty.
It requires candidates to make informed
judgements with information that is incomplete,
complex and ambiguous. Using a deciphering
scenario, the test requires a move from logical
reasoning to decisions requiring increasing
degrees of judgement.
The associated condence rating for each item
asks you to rate how condent you feel about
the response you have provided. It measures
your awareness of your own decision making.
Time Items
32 minutes (one
and 31 minutes for
items)
28 items associated
with one scenario,
each with a related
Condence Rating
Unlike the other subtests, in Decision Analysis
each item must be answered in order. A
warning message will appear if you have not
selected both an answer and a condence
rating and you will be prevented from
proceeding to the next question.
Why Decision Analysis?
The purpose of this test is to see how well
you can make judgements when information
is presented in non-standard and perhaps
confusing formats. Medical Practitioners have
to make sense of medical histories which
will contain information in different formats
and often may be incomplete. Information
in journals may be presented in unfamiliar
formats and you will need to draw your own
conclusions from this.
Why Condence Rating?
UKCAT is trialling the use of Condence Ratings
in this subtest. Results will not contribute to
your score and will not be communicated to the
Universities to which you apply. The ability to
self-monitor yourself in the process of learning
and decision-making is considered as important
as how you reason and make decisions.
Proper medical practice often relies on a keen
awareness of the information, resources, and
your own ability. Condence ratings have been
added to this subtest in an attempt to measure
the awareness of candidate's capacity and self-
monitoring skills.
Decision Analysis Items
You will be presented with one scenario,
containing text, tables and other information
with 28 items related to that information. Each
item may have four or ve response options.
For some items, more than one option may
be correct. In this case, you will be asked to
identify all the correct options.
Condence Rating Items
Following each Decision Analysis item, you will
be asked to rate how condent you are that the
answer you gave was right on a 5-point scale
(low condence to high condence). A response
of 1 would mean that you are not very condent
that you answered the corresponding item
correctly and a response of 5 would indicate that
you are very condent that you answered the
corresponding item correctly.
Use your best and honest judgement to indicate
your condence level. The condence rating
is about how your self-reported condence
correlates to the Decision Analysis response.
Reporting high condence on all items does not
necessarily translate to good self-monitoring
ability.
Situational Judgement
The test measures your capacity to understand
real world situations and to identify critical
factors and appropriate behaviour in dealing
with them.
Time Items
27 minutes (one
and 26 minutes for
items)
67 items associated
with 20 scenarios
(consisting of between
3 and 6 items)
Why Situational Judgement?
The test assesses integrity, perspective taking
and team involvement. SJTs are used widely
in medical selection, including selection of
Foundation Doctors, GPs and other medical
specialities.
Situational Judgement Test Items
The test consists of a series of scenarios with
possible actions and considerations.
The questions do not require medical or
procedural knowledge to answer.
For the rst set you will be asked to rate the
appropriateness of a series of options in
response to the scenario. When considering
how to respond to the scenario, an option is:
A very appropriate thing to do if it will
address at least one aspect (not necessarily
all aspects) of the situation
Appropriate, but not ideal if it could be
done, but is not necessarily a very good
thing to do
Inappropriate, but not awful if it should
not really be done, but would not be
terrible
A very inappropriate thing to do if it
should denitely not be done and would
make the situation worse
A response should not be judged as if it is the
only thing that is done. For example, if the
wrong medication is provided to a patient,
there are a number of steps that should be
taken, including checking the patient is ok and
assessing the patient medically. The response
ask the patient if they are ok should still be
judged as appropriate. It should not be judged
as if this is the only action that will be taken.
For the second set you will be asked to rate the
importance of a series of options in response
to the scenario. When considering how to
respond to the scenario, an option is:
Very important if this is something that is
vital to take into account
Important if this is something that is
important but not vital to take into account
Of minor importance if this is something
that could be taken into account, but it
does not matter if it is considered or not
Not important at all if this is something
that should denitely not be taken into
account
TEST FORMAT
TEST FORMAT
Marking
The four cognitive sections (Verbal Reasoning,
Quantitative Reasoning, Abstract Reasoning,
Decision Analysis) are marked on the number
of correct answers a candidate gives. There
is no negative marking for incorrect answers.
How you perform on one item does not
inuence other items you will be presented
with. As the number of items varies between
the four cognitive sections it is not possible to
make a direct comparison of the raw scores.
Raw scores are therefore converted to scale
scores that share a common range from 300
to 900. A total scale score is generated by
summing individual scale scores of the four
cognitive sections. The total scale score ranges
from 1200 to 3600.
Results for Condence Ratings will not
contribute to the Decision Analysis score and
will not be communicated to the Universities to
which you apply.
Within the Situational Judgement Test, full
marks are awarded for an item if your response
matches the correct answer and partial marks
awarded if your response is close to the correct
answer. Raw scores are then expressed in one
of four bands, with band 1 being the highest.
Alongside their band, candidates will be given
an interpretation of this performance:
Band 1
Those in Band 1 demonstrated an
excellent level of performance, showing
similar judgement in most cases to the
panel of experts.
Band 2
Those in Band 2 demonstrated a good,
solid level of performance, showing
appropriate judgement frequently,
with many responses matching model
answers.
Band 3
Those in Band 3 demonstrated a
modest level of performance, with
appropriate judgement shown for some
questions and substantial differences
from ideal responses for others.
Band 4
The performance of those in Band 4
was low, with judgement tending to
differ substantially from ideal responses
in many cases.
As the SJT is a measure of non-cognitive
attributes, it will be considered by universities
in a different manner to the cognitive subtests.
Please refer to their websites for more details.
Test statistics from 2013 are available on our
website www.ukcat.ac.uk. Average scores
and decile ranges for 2014 will be made
available after testing ends.
Results
When you leave the test centre you will be
given a copy of your test result. This test result
is valid for the 2014 UCAS Admissions cycle
(for entry into medical or dental school in 2015
or deferred entry to 2016).
If you need any additional copies of your
UKCAT score report, these will be available
for a fee of 25 GBP. You can order additional
copies of your score report by contacting
Pearson VUEwww.ukcat.ac.uk/contact-us.
After the UCAS application deadline has
passed (15 October 2014), we liaise with
UCAS and obtain from them information
regarding the Consortium Universities you
have applied to. We then communicate your
test result directly to your chosen Universities
usually duringthe rst week of November.
You do not need to pass your test result to
your Universities yourself.
For clarity, we do not and cannot pass
your mark onto any Universities outside
the Consortium. If you choose to give the
universities your scores, please remember that
they would not know how to judge a UKCAT
result since they would not have the UKCAT
results of other candidates with which to
compare it.
You will have your test result before the UCAS
deadline so please ensure you usethis to
help inform your UCAS choices, otherwise
you might be wasting an application. Our
Universities provide information on their
websites regardinghow they use the testin
admissions.
For some the UKCAT score is a signicant
factor in their consideration of your
application. For others it may be a less
signicant factor or only used in marginal
situations.Most Universities consider the total
score (i.e.the score after each of the rst four
cognitivesubtest scores have been added
together). Some however do look at individual
subtest scores and may even have a cut-off
score for a particular subtest.
Some Universities have a threshold score that
candidates have to achieve in order to be
considered further in their admission processes.
This score is often determined each year
but Universities will usually indicate on their
website, threshold scores that have been used
in previous years.
Other Universities use the UKCAT alongside
factors such as academic achievement,
personal statement and interview performance.
The factor may be signicant or may contribute
a small amount to the nal outcome.
Some universities use the score (sometimes
in addition to the above uses) to discriminate
between candidates who have scored equally
at some point in the process. The UKCAT score
provides an additional way of ranking such
candidates in order to decide who can proceed
to the next stage.
Asmall number of Universities use the test
to provide opportunities to candidates who
perhaps would not have progressed to
interview (for example) using traditional section
methods. This may advantage candidates who
have not have achieved the highest academic
score but have performed particularly well in
the UKCAT.
TEST FORMAT
PREPARATION
The UKCAT is an important test. We know that candidates want to prepare
properly. Please remember however that the UKCAT is a test of aptitude
rather than academic achievement. It does not draw on any particular body of
knowledge that candidates can learn in advance.
Candidates can prepare for their test using the free resources available
in theCandidate Preparation Toolkit available from the website
www.ukcat.ac.uk/preparation/candidate-toolkit. This has been developed
by UKCAT to contain comprehensive information and practice materials to support your
preparation, including Practice Tests and Questions.
In 2012 we surveyed our candidates about how they prepared for the test and
compared this against the scores they achieved. Some of the advice overleaf draws on
the outcomes from this analysis.
PREPARATION
PREPARATION
How should I prepare?
Familiarise yourself with the requirements
and question styles in each subtest. Use the
Ofcial Guide, Practice App and Practice
Questions in theCandidate Preparation
Toolkitto help you
Use theTour Tutorialto familiarise yourself
with the onscreen test format, learn how to
move around the screen and through the
test and to usethe calculator provided
Use thePractice Question Tutorialto learn
strategies for approaching and answering
questions
Make full use of the UKCAT Practice Tests.
UKCAT provides you with two fully timed
tests which mimic closely the testing
experience. It is important to understand
thetimelimitations in each section and
to develop strategies to approach each
subtest with this in mind.Test items are
of an equivalent standard to those you will
encounter in the test and include any new
sections or item types. You may review your
responses against answer rationales. In our
survey, 88% of respondents agreed that
the practice tests increased their familiarity
with the types of questions and their ability
to manage the test. 74% agreed that it
increased their ability to manage the timing
of the test. Use of the UKCAT online practice
tests was associated with higher overall test
performance
Spend around 21-30 hours in preparation
for the UKCAT. This is the amount of
preparation done by the highest scoring
respondents to our survey
Use the UKCAT Ofcial Guide as 63% of
those who downloaded this agreed that
doing so increased their knowledge of how
to prepare for the test, and 74% agreed
that it increased their knowledge about the
content of the test
If you have not studied mathematics
beyond GCSE level (or recently), make
additional time to revisit and practice your
mathematical skills as this will impact on
performance in the Quantitative Reasoning
section in particular
Go to www.thestudentroom.co.uk
where there is advice available from current
and past candidates. This includes links to
free practice resources which can be found
on the internet
Ask for advice from your school/college and
previous test takers
Watch ourvideoofprevious test takers
sharing advice on their preparations and
overall test experience.
What about commercial
companies?
There are many commercial companies
publishing books and offering coaching in
the UKCAT. UKCAT does not work with any
of these companies and we are concerned
that taking advantage of these opportunities
can cost candidates a great deal of money.
UKCAT would advise you to be sceptical about
claims they can help you do well in the test by
coaching.
Please note that commercial organisations
will be using items that are not necessarily of
the standard you will encounter in the UKCAT
and this may distort your performance whilst
practicing. Screen views may be different
and commercial organisations are unlikely to
include the new item types which you may
encounter in your test.
The UKCAT survey suggested that use of books
relevant to the UKCAT was associated with
higher overall test performance. These books
may contain helpful strategies for candidates
taking the test and include additional practice
questions. However there is lots of advice
available for free on the web regarding
approaches to the test and many sources of
free practice questions. Unless the book has
been published very recently it is unlikely to
include the correct test content and timings
and new test items.
PREPARATION

PREPARATION
Practice Tests and Questions
We offer a number of practice questions for all the 5 subtests which you can
use to familiarise yourself with the format and style of item types.
You can then progress to the two fully timed practice tests. These mimic closely
the testing experience and allow you to familiarise yourself with the onscreen
format, answer items from all sections that are of an equivalent standard to
those you will encounter in the actual test and review your responses against
answer rationales. Each practice test is available in the following formats:
UKCAT (Standard Timing - approx 120 mins)
UKCATSEN (Extended Timing - approx 150 mins)
Untimed version
The test is for use on both PC and Mac based computers and is compatible
with all modern browsers.
Please note that when you take the live test your correct and incorrect answers
will not be reported.
Candidate Preparation Toolkit
Tutorials
You can familiarise yourself with the format of the UKCAT by working through
this helpful Tour Tutorial. It will illustrate all of the functions that you may be
asked to use when taking a computer-based test including how to answer
questions, change answers, and review questions.
The Practice Question Tutorial will take you through example questions from
each subtest and offer strategies on how to approach and answer questions.
PREPARATION
Ofcial UKCAT Practice App
The Ofcial UKCAT Practice App is a free preparation resource which allows
you to familiarise yourself with the question styles in each subtest. It is a
complementary resource in addition to the online practice tests, to help you
prepare thoroughly. Download this from the iTunes App Store or Google
Play Store.
Candidate Interview
This short video shares advice from high-scoring former UKCAT candidates
on their preparations for the test and overall test experience.
Adviser
Toolkit
Schools and Colleges can access resources from our
website www.ukcat.ac.uk/preparation/adviser-toolkit for
advising prospective test takers about the UKCAT.
Adviser Toolkit
Test Strategies
Advice
Candidates who take our test early do
better!Getting it out of the way will allow
you to concentrate on other things (such as
your UCAS application!). If you book early
you will have your choice of test slots andif
you then feel unwell or unprepared you can
reschedule. This might not be easy in the
nal weeks of testing
If you are not well, reschedule your test to
a later date even ifyou lose yourtest fee.
In presenting yourself for testing, you are
declaring yourself t.We will not consider
health issues as extenuating circumstances
Make sure you are given a laminated
booklet and pen before the test starts
Ask for earplugs and/or headphones if
you think you may nd other candidates
arriving/leaving disturbing.
General test strategies
Good multiple-choice questionsinclude
answer options that are wrong but almost
right. Work hard to nd them and eliminate
them. Questions like these are not tricks.
Accept that one (and only one) of the
answers to each question is correct. All the
questions have been thoroughly checked
Many candidates do not complete all
sections in the test. Use the practice test to
ensure you know how to pace yourself. Try
to answer all the questions but dont worry
if you dont get to the end of each section
There is a point for each right answer, but
no points are deducted for wrong answers
we do not use negative marking. Try not
to leave blanks. If you really cant work
out the answer, it is better to eliminate the
answers that you know to be wrong and
then make your best guess from those that
are left
If you are struggling with a question we
would advise you to make your best guess
and move on. You can ag it for review if
you want to come back to it later
Finally, stay calm in the test. Prepare, pace
yourself and move on if youre struggling.
It is inevitable you will nd some questions
and sections easier than others.
Verbal Reasoning Strategies
You are unlikely to be familiar with the
content of the text shown to you. Do not
draw on existing knowledge as this will not
be relevant
Think about how you will plan your time in
this section. You need to allocate time to
read each passage thoroughly
This section requires real concentration it
is at the beginning of the test and you
should be ready for this. Focus from the
start.
PREPARATION
PREPARATION
Quantitative Reasoning Strategies
Timing is very important in this section
pace yourself during the test. Check how
you are doing halfway through and adjust
your speed accordingly
Read the questions carefully individual
words and units may be crucial in
answering the question correctly
In the rst place try to understand the
scenario presented this will help you focus
quickly on the questions
Use the laminated notebook and pen
provided to assist with your calculations
Review where there might be gaps in
your maths. You may need to work out
percentages, averages, ratios and fractions
remind yourself how to do some of
these calculations if they are causing you
problems
If you are nding a question difcult,
eliminate the more obvious incorrect
answers
Practice your mental arithmetic to speed up
your answering.
Calculator
A simple on-screen calculator is available
for use in the Quantitative Reasoning
subtest. The calculator has been included
within the timed practice tests available
on our website. Westrongly adviseyou to
use the calculator when taking the practice
tests in order to familiarise yourself with the
functionality. The calculator will look similar
to this:
TEXAS INSTRUMENTS
TI-108
MRC
MRC
+/
%
%
MRC
%
M M+
+/
%
+/ % 7
%
9 8
+/
%
+/ % 4
%
6 5
+/
%
+/ % 1
%
3 2
+/
%
+/ % ON/C
%
. 0
%
%
X
%
%
%
%
%
%
+
=
If you close the calculator, all current
calculations are lost. The calculator will also
close when you move to a new question.
You recall the calculator by clicking on the
icon. You can use the mouse or the number
pad on your keyboard to operate the
calculator. Make sure the Num Lock is on
for the number pad to work.
Abstract Reasoning Strategies
Timing is again important in this section
but remember to leave time to review set
A and set B at the beginning of each set of
questions. Once you have identied what
links each set you are half way there
Consider issues around size and shape of
objects; number of objects; sides of objects;
shading and colour; symmetry, number of
angles, position and direction... this sounds
complicated but as you look at these
shapes you will start to grasp what you
need to focus on
What links shapes in set A and those in
set B will often be linked in some way
remembering this may help you ignore
distracting information.
Decision Analysis Strategies
You are almost at the end of the test but
you still need to able to concentrate fully
during this section
Use your laminated notebook during this
section especially as the codes get more
complex later in the section
It may help you to translate the code
literally and then decide which answer gives
the best t. This should at least help you
narrow down your options even if you are
still unsure
Remember to answer each question in full
when it is presented or you will not be able
to proceed.
Situational Judgement Strategies

This is the last subtest but you still need to
able to concentrate fully during this section
Read each scenario and response thoroughly
before answering
Remember, there are two sets of questions
inthis subtest; read the instructions carefully
to make sure you understand what you have
to do
Within a scenario,each rating can be used
more than once or not at all.For example,
all response options can be given the same
rating ofvery appropriate
Responses shouldrelate to what an
individualshoulddo, rather than what they
may be likely to do
Response options should be treated
independently.You should make a judgement
as to the appropriateness or importance of a
response option independent from the other
options presented within the scenario
Response options provided are not intended
to represent all possible options. The response
you think would be the most appropriate/
most important may not be present
Some options may be appropriate/important
in theshort term(i.e. immediately addressing
a wrong doing) and some are appropriate/
important in thelong term(discussing the
implications of the wrong doing after the
event). Consider response options irrelevant
of the timeframe.A response option may still
be an appropriate thing to do even if it is not
something that can be done immediately.
PREPARATION
TEST DAY
Arrival and Identication
When you book your test you will be able to choose a convenient test centre location.
You may access online directions to your chosen centre through our Test Centre Locator.
Before you set off for our test, make a note of the Test Centres address and phone
number and nd it on a map.
You should bring to the Test Centre a printout of the email that you were sent
conrming your test registration.
Please arrive at the Test Centre at least 15 minutes before your scheduled test time so
that you can complete the check-in formalities.
If you arrive late admission is at the discretion of the Test Centre staff. If you are refused
admission you will be recorded as a no-show and will forfeit your appointment and
test fee. If you are a no show you will need to book another test and pay again.
Please refer to Rescheduling and Cancelling for further details. This applies in cases of
family illness, family emergency, accident, arrest, transport problems and security alert
as well as forgetfulness. It also applies to those who arrive with inadequate or invalid
identication.
University of Leicester
When you arrive at the Test Centre you will
be given a copy of theUKCAT Professional
Examination Rules. You will sign these to
state that you understand them.A copy is
available on our website so you can familiarise
yourself with these before your test.
Identication - please read this
section carefully
You must bring photographic identication
from our approved list. If you do not bring
acceptable photographic identication you will
not be allowed to sit the test and will forfeit
your test fee. Full details regarding acceptable
photographic identication can be found on
our website www.ukcat.ac.uk.
Personal belongings
You will be asked to store your personal
belongings in a locker at the test centre.
Personal belongings (including bags, coats,
papers, books, pens, watches, wallets, keys,
IDs, mobile phones, sweets and drinks) are
not allowed into the testing room. For clarity,
nothing is allowed into the testing room apart
from you and the indoor clothes you are
wearing, this includes drinks.
Environment
You will be allocated a desk space at which
you will nd your PC and space for your
noteboard. There will be other people taking
tests in the same room as you and as tests
start and nish at different times, there may be
some limited disturbance as other test takers
arrive and leave the room. The test centre will
endeavour for such disturbance to be kept
to a minimum. You can request ear plugs or
headphones if you think this will be disturbing.
Calculators
A simple on-screen calculator will be made
available to you to assist you in the quantitative
reasoning section. To access this you will need
to click on the icon in the top left hand side
of your screen. The calculator will look similar
to this:
TEXAS INSTRUMENTS
TI-108
MRC
MRC
+/
%
%
MRC
%
M M+
+/
%
+/ % 7
%
9 8
+/
%
+/ % 4
%
6 5
+/
%
+/ % 1
%
3 2
+/
%
+/ % ON/C
%
. 0
%
%
X
%
%
%
%
%
%
+
=
The calculator has been included within the
timed practice tests available on our website.
We strongly advise you to use the calculator
when taking the practice tests in order to
familiarise yourself with the functionality.
Booklet and Pen
You will be given a laminated booklet and a
permanent marker pen to make notes during
the test. If you need another booklet during
the test, please hold your booklet in the air
and the invigilator will bring a replacement.
TEST DAY
Please note that these booklets are not
erasable. Test centre staff will have checked
the pen is working before giving it to you.
However you may also wish to check this
before you start the test in order to avoid the
need to seek assistance during testing.
If you are not given a laminated booklet
and pen when you enter the test room, you
should request this by raising your hand. Not
requesting a laminated note board and pen
during your test will not be considered as an
extenuating circumstance.
Breaks
Please note that once started the test cannot
be paused whilst you take a break. If you
need to take a break during the test in order
to access medication or to use the centre
toilets then you may raise your hand and the
invigilator will assist you in leaving the test
room. However you need to note that the test
will continue running during this time and you
will lose time whilst out of the test room.
Problems
If you experience hardware/software problems,
noise disturbance, illness or other distractions
that affect your ability to take the exam, you
must notify the administrator immediately
by raising your hand. If you do not do this,
then such events will not usually be accepted
as mitigating circumstances after testing
especially where it is possible that had you
reported the incident, the issue could have
been resolved by the administrator.
Unprofessional behaviour
UKCAT expects candidates to meet minimum
standards of acceptable behaviour during
testing and during any interactions with
UKCAT and Pearson VUE staff. Where
candidates fall short of these minimum
standards, such incidents will be thoroughly
investigated. Where such allegations of
misconduct are upheld, UKCAT reserves the
right to take actions which may include:
withdrawal of test results;
disqualication from sitting the test for a
period in the future;
the sharing of the outcomes of the
investigation with legitimate third
parties (which may include Consortium
Universities).
Examples of misconduct include:
breach of security arrangements;
impersonation;
failure to follow invigilator or other staff
instructions;
creating a disturbance;
using prohibited aids (e.g. notes, note
paper, calculators, mobile phone, audio/
recording device etc.);
copying another candidates work;
using the test questions, their content or
information about them for purposes other
than sitting the UKCAT;
giving of false or misleading information
during the registration, booking and
payment processes;
giving of false or misleading information
relating to test results during admissions
processes.
TEST DAY
UKCAT Consortium Ltd. and its partner Pearson VUE aim to provide you with
a straightforward and convenient way of sitting the UKCAT in a businesslike
environment. However, occasionally things may go wrong and we have put
systems in place to deal with such circumstances.
Before the Test
In presenting yourself for the UKCAT, you are declaring yourself t to take the test. If you
are not t to take the test, due to illness or other personal circumstances prior to sitting
the test, then you must reschedule your test for a later date. We will not consider such
issues as extenuating circumstances.
If you have planned to take the test in the nal weeks of testing and encounter such
issues, this can be a real problem, since you may not be able to reschedule within the test
window. This is why we recommend you take the test early in the cycle. Remember, if you
failtotake the testin time and apply to a programme for which the test is required, your
application will be rejected unless you have beenexemptfrom the test.
EXTENUATING
CIRCUMSTANCES
AND COMPLAINTS
During the Test
If you experience hardware/software problems,
noise disturbance, illness or other distractions
that affect your ability to take the exam, you
must notify the administrator immediately
by raising your hand. If you do not do this,
then such events will not usually be accepted
as mitigating circumstances after testing,
especially where it is possible that had you
reported the incident, the issue could have
been resolved by the administrator.
In the event of you reporting an incident or if
a general incident affects your test, you will be
given an incident number by the test centre.
If you wish the incident to be followed up
you must contact UKCAT Customer Services
as soon as you are able following testing.
The issuing of an incident number does not
automatically result in detailed follow up unless
it is specically requested.
We will only consider incidents reported after
the day of testing in exceptional circumstances
as it is often difcult for us to investigate such
incidents fully.
Once an incident has been logged in this way
it will be investigated by Pearson VUE and the
outcome of this investigation reported back
to you. If you wish to obtain an update on
how the investigation into your incident is
progressing then please contact Pearson VUE
Customer Services. It will help if you have your
incident number to hand.
Complaints
If you are not happy with the outcome of the
investigation by Pearson VUE, UKCAT has put
in place a Complaints and Appeals Procedure.
A copy of this can be found on our website
www.ukcat.ac.uk.
Please note that Pearson VUE and the UKCAT
Consortium Ltd. do not deal with complaints
about admission decisions, which should
be addressed to the individual university
concerned.
EXTENUATING CIRCUMSTANCES AND COMPLAINTS
The following questions are reproduced from our free UKCAT Practice App
available from the iTunes App Store and Google Play.
Since the questions are formatted to t a mobile screen they may not completely reect
the appearance of questions you will experience in the real test.
Two fully timed practice tests and additional practice questions are available from the
website www.ukcat.ac.uk/preparation/candidate-toolkit.
PRACTICE
QUESTIONS
Verbal Reasoning
Practice Questions
Set 01 The Teleological
Argument
Since the Greeks, the teleological argument
has been commonly used to prove the
existence of a Creator or Supreme Being. It
was famously expressed by William Paley in
1802, who imagined nding a pocket watch
on a heath. If you had never seen a watch
before, you might marvel at its mechanism
and rightly assume that someone with great
skill had made it. He pointed to the intricate
structure of living things and argued that
they were so cleverly put together that some
unknown designer must have made them.
He went on from there to say that because
organs and organisms in nature seemed to
have a purpose bees pollinate owers,
the intricate structure of the eye enables us
to see that a hidden planner is at work.
The Universe operates to known rules
Newtons Laws of Motion for example
which is a further argument for a planned
and purposeful world.
This argument became seriously challenged
fty years later, when Charles Darwin
published his theory of natural selection
as an explanation for the variety and
complexity of living organisms. This did not
presuppose a hidden designer. More than a
hundred and fty years later, the evolutionist
Richard Dawkins published a book
explaining evolution by natural selection
entitled The Blind Watchmaker.
1. Dawkins title of his book, The Blind

Watchmaker, is appropriate because:
A no watchmaker is blind.
B the structure of living things
cannot be explained.
C a Supreme Being must be blind.
D natural selection does not
depend on an intelligent
designer.
2. From the passage, teleology can be
dened as:
A arguing that all events have a
purpose.
B using Natural Selection to
explain a watchs mechanism.
C arguing that everything
happens by chance.
D using Newtons Laws to predict
the future of the Universe.
3. Which of these assertions is best
supported by information contained
in the passage?
A Natural selection depends on a
hidden designer.
B Natural selection depends on
chance events.
C The operation of the Universe
does not depend on hidden
rules.
D The Universe has been carefully
planned.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Verbal Reasoning
4. Using the information in the passage,
a belief in the existence of a Supreme
Being is:
A justied because humans have a
purpose.
B not justied because of
evolution.
C not possible to justify using
scientic theories.
D possible to contradict using
scientic theories.
5. William Paley used the construction
of a watch in an argument from:
A analogy
B deduction
C comparison
D authority
6. The structure of the human eye is
similar to a camera. From the passage
we can conclude that the human eye:
A must take pictures like a camera.
B may take pictures like a camera.
C was designed like a camera.
D did not evolve like a camera.
Set 02 The 1737 Licensing Act
Londons West End is famous for its theatres
but this was not always so. Between 1642
and 1660 all theatrical performances were
banned as immoral, corrupt and subversive.
In 1660 drama was legalised once more
but in all England only two London theatres
and acting companies were permitted.
Royal sponsorship resulted in strict control
of content and performance while critical
comment was forbidden. Theatre catered for
upper class audiences.
In the 1690s commercial interests replaced
royal patronage and government control
decreased. Owners, seeking increased prots
wanted more socially diverse audiences. Many
dramatists, leading up to the late 1730s
criticised the government and royal family.
As performances became increasingly critical
and outspoken the government established
tighter control and imposed censorship. The
1737 Licensing Act was passed following the
reading in parliament of a scurrilous play, The
Golden Rump, which offensively mocked King
Georges personal habits.
The Lord Chamberlains ofce, which
censored all plays two weeks before
performance, only licensed them if
everything objectionable was deleted. Heavy
nes and imprisonment were used to punish
authors and actors who broke this law. Many
authors resented this restriction on their
freedom to criticise politicians.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
After 1788 magistrates could authorise local
theatres. Many new provincial theatres were
built but London theatres were still restricted
to two. Country gentry could now enjoy
culture not available to many Londoners.
Censorship meant fewer plays were written
so critics of government found new satirical
mechanisms and London theatre managers
developed new entertainment forms to
attract audiences. Censorship nally ended
in 1968.
1. Which of these statements is best
supported by the passage?
A. The two London theatres
allowed by the Licensing Act
were both in the West End.
B. The king of England who
ascended the throne in 1660
was a supporter of theatre.
C. The Lord Chamberlain was
appointed because he was an
expert in the writing of plays.
D. The terms of the Licensing Act
remained in force unaltered
until the twentieth century.
2. Based on the passage, each of these
statements is true EXCEPT:
A. Plays were often used as a
way of criticising government
actions.
B. The reigning king in 1737 was
not popular with all of his
subjects.
C. The Licensing Act reduced the
number of theatres allowed in
London.
D. Legal censorship of plays in
England lasted for over two
hundred years.
3. It was easier for people in the North
of England to see plays in the 1790s
compared to the 1660s because:
A. better transport made it easier
for them to get to London
theatres.
B. censorship had been relaxed
so that more plays were being
written.
C. authors who criticised the
government were no longer
allowed to write plays.
D. it was legally possible to open
theatres outside London for the
rst time.
4. Using information contained in the
passage it can be inferred that:
A. criticism of the government in
the 1730s was considered to be
more of a problem than it was
in the 1660s.
B. the main reason the king
sponsored theatres after 1660
was because he wanted to
make a nancial prot.
C. the Lord Chamberlains ofce
was set up by theatre managers
who wished to control the work
of playwrights.
D. many authors enjoyed the
freedom the Licensing Act gave
them to write plays which were
critical of politics.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
5. Which of these statements best
supports the claim that as far as
drama was concerned country
gentry could now enjoy culture not
available to many Londoners?
A. Before 1788 theatres were only
legally allowed in London.
B. After 1788 new theatres were
opened in several provincial
towns.
C. Theatre managers in London
experimented with new types of
amusement.
D. In the 1690s royal sponsorship
of theatres was replaced by
commercial interests.
6. In the eighteenth century the main
target audience for theatre managers
was:
A. the upper classes.
B. country gentry.
C. members of the government.
D. the middle and working classes.
7. Using information contained in
the passage, it is most likely that
parliament would have objected to
the play The Golden Rump, because
it was:
A. satirical
B. anti-government
C. individually insulting
D. badly written
8. It is most likely that the author
believed one of the main targets
attacked by playwrights between
1690 and 1730 to be:
A. London magistrates.
B. members of the government.
C. the Lord Chamberlains ofce.
D. theatre managers and owners.
Set 03 Exchange Rates
A basket of chosen groceries may cost
50 in the UK, but to pay for those same
groceries in a supermarket in the USA you
would need to have exchanged your pounds
for US dollars.
People exchange some of their own currency
for that of another country in order to
buy goods from that country or to save
their money in that country - for example,
Australia. People choose to save their money
in other countries to get a better return
than they would in the UK. Such savings
would involve lending to a bank by the UK
individual and borrowing by the bank.
However, the prices at which currencies are
bought and sold uctuate more than the
groceries. A way to avoid all the uncertainty
of buying or selling goods from or to
other countries in different currencies is
for countries all to use the same currency,
as in the eurozone. Hence the euro was
introduced in 1999 and, by 2013, was
used by 17 countries which previously had
17 different currencies all with their own
exchange rates.
If someone in France buys goods from a rm
in Spain or goes on holiday to Italy, there
are no currency issues because they are all
using the euro. By contrast, if exchange
Verbal Reasoning
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
rates uctuate, my UK pounds may buy
fewer euros (pound devalues), so a holiday
in Portugal becomes more expensive or,
if my pounds buy more euros (pound
revalues), much cheaper. Problems arise for
the eurozone (as for an individual country)
if demand and supply for the euro fail to
balance excess demand causes exchange
rate rises, excess supply means the exchange
rate falls.
1. If the pound devalues against
another currency, exports from the
UK to that country will cost less in
the country buying them in currency
terms.
A. True
B. False
C. Cant Tell
2. A person using the euro in France
or Germany will be unaffected by
changes in exchange rates between
the euro and the UK , even if they
purchase goods imported from the
UK.
A. True
B. False
C. Cant Tell
3. If the interest rate on a savings
account in Australia gives a rate of
return three times higher than the
best rate in the UK, a saver would
always get at least twice as good
a return after tax and currency
uctuations have been taken into
account.
A. True
B. False
C. Cant Tell
4. If I convert 50 into the equivalent
number of US dollars, I will be able
to buy the same basket of groceries
in the USA as I originally purchased
in the UK.
A. True
B. False
C. Cant Tell
5. A country which imports many raw
materials including oil and chemicals
from overseas so it can manufacture
products is in danger of adversely
affecting its exchange rate as a
result.
A. True
B. False
C. Cant Tell
6. When a saver makes a deposit in
a bank, this technically means the
money is being lent by the bank.
A. True
B. False
C. Cant Tell
7. If by importing 100 million-worth
of raw materials, a country is then
able to export an extra 200 million-
worth of exports to other countries,
the overall supply of its currency will
rise.
A. True
B. False
C. Cant Tell
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Verbal Reasoning
Set 04 Rule of War
Humans have fought each other since the
dawn of civilisation. They have done so
over food, territory, resources and slaves.
Many developments in technology have
been spurred along by the competition
over weapons. While aggression may be
a part of human nature, there are many
ethical issues over war, and most would
regard it as a wholly undesirable activity.
Unspeakable things happen during wars, but
ghting has usually been subject to implicit
rules and codes of conduct. Although
warfare has changed dramatically since the
Geneva Conventions of 1949, they are still
considered the cornerstone of contemporary
International Humanitarian Law. They
protect combatants who nd themselves
hors de combat, and they protect civilians
caught up in the zone of war. These treaties
came into play for all recent international
armed conicts, including Afghanistan, the
invasion of Iraq, the invasion of Chechnya
and the war in Georgia. The Geneva
Conventions also protect those affected by
non-international armed conicts such as
the Syrian civil war.
While conventions lay down rules to which
the leaders of countries or armies must
adhere and answer to in international courts,
the notional separation of combatants and
civilians has become increasingly difcult
to make. The mass bombings undertaken
by both Britain and Germany in the Second
World War were as much about intimidating
the population as destroying weapons and
military personnel. The rise of terrorism as
a mode of warfare has further muddied
the water. The use of drones in difcult
warzones, presented as a safe and reliable
method of attacking soldiers or terrorists
who travel or live in civilian areas, has raised
ethical questions for their operators.
1. The Geneva Conventions are
designed to:
A establish the human rights of
military personnel in battle.
B protect civilians against all
actions of their government.
C protect civilians caught up in
battle areas.
D prevent civilians taking up arms
in wartime.
8. A holiday company organizing tours
across Asia by train guarantees
not to increase its prices once the
holiday has been booked. An initial
payment of 10% is required with
booking, and the other 90% is to
be paid in Russian roubles a week
before the holiday commences.
This means there is no possibility
that the holiday will cost the
traveller more than he or she
expects to pay.
A. True
B. False
C. Cant Tell
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
2. One conclusion that can be drawn
from the passage is that:
A humans will always ght one
another.
B there were no humanitarian
conventions before 1949.
C there is no justication for the
conict in Afghanistan.
D civilians in civil wars have no
legal rights.
3. According to the passage, the writer
most probably agrees that:
A the Geneva Conventions are
ineffective.
B the mass bombing of cities
in wartime is an international
crime.
C there will be fewer wars in the
future.
D developments in technology will
prevent wars.
4. The use of armed drone aircraft,
controlled by far distant operators,
could be unethical because:
A there is a risk of injury to
civilians.
B the operator may not be a
soldier.
C terrorists are protected by
international law.
D their operators can only view
through a remote camera.
5. From the information in the passage,
which of the following is correct?
A Everyone regards warfare as
unethical.
B Injury to civilians is an ethical
consequence of warfare.
C Acts of war are always
unethical.
D Drone attacks can have
unethical consequences.
Verbal Reasoning
Set 05 Greener Jet Engines
The recent decision by the European Parliament
to include air trafc in the EUs Emissions
Trading Scheme (ETS) has increased the
pressure on aircraft manufacturers to produce
greener aircraft. An estimated 3% of Europes
entire greenhouse gas emissions are currently
generated by airlines, and with it potentially
doubling by 2020 the introduction of this
controversial tariff has increased the pace of
innovation. There are two areas of potential
fuel saving in aircraft design the engines and
the airframe. The ratio of lightweight materials
and recycled components in wing and body
production is growing, but creating an engine
that reduces fuel consumption, noise and
nitrous oxide pollution is key.
In normal turbofan designs, an intake fan at
the front reduces the speed of air passing
around the engine, mixing it with the much
faster moving hot gases generated by burning
fuel and air to create greater thrust. This
calls for larger engine chambers which can
allow this slowed air to pass through but the
bigger the engine, the greater the weight,
fuel consumption and noise. An American
company, Pratt and Whitney, have developed
such an engine by introducing a geared
turbofan to their designs. This is based on
the principle that turbines are most effective
at high speeds and fans at much lower
revolutions.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
The gearbox acts to reduce the rotation of the
inlet fan to around a third of the turbine inside
the engine. This creates a 15% improvement
in fuel efciency and a smaller, lighter housing.
1. If airlines adopt aircraft with greener
credentials by 2020, they will be
considered for exemption from the
Emissions Trading Scheme by the
European Union.
A. True
B. False
C. Cant Tell
2. Airline manufacturers are concentrating
solely on the development of lighter,
more fuel-efcient engines to meet the
stringent emissions tariffs set by the
European Union.
A. True
B. False
C. Cant Tell
3. When comparing normal turbofan design
to geared turbofans, two of the greatest
differences are the size and weight
of the chambers housing the engine
components.
A. True
B. False
C. Cant Tell
4. According to the EU, by 2020 airlines will
contribute 3% of total greenhouse gas
emissions across Europe.
A. True
B. False
C. Cant Tell
Verbal Reasoning
Set 06 Arctic Foxes
Research into the variation in numbers
of the arctic fox has shown that, in areas
where there is a population of small
rodents, the number of foxes is associated
with the numbers of rodents. The fox
populations respond to increased food
availability by increasing reproduction.
However, in areas where there are no small
rodents eg Svalbard in Norway, the picture
is more complex.
Prior to 1973, the diaries of polar bear trappers
(who took the bear furs, but left the carcasses)
reported ourishing populations of arctic foxes.
After 1973, when the polar bear became a
protected species, both the trappers and the
reports of foxes declined.
Researchers estimated the fox numbers in
Svalbard by several methods including a
capture index (the number of live foxes
trapped in baited traps) and an observation
index (based on sightings by scientists and
local people). Estimated numbers of foxes
uctuated: they were low in 1990/1991, rose
from 1992 to 1995, and then dropped so
sharply in autumn 1995 that they seemed to
have disappeared from the area by 1996. Fox
tracks were not observed again until autumn
1996.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Two important sources of food for arctic
foxes in Svalbard are Barnacle geese and
reindeer carcasses. Numbers of Barnacle
geese rose until 1994, when predation on
nests by foxes left only 2 surviving goslings.
Numbers of goslings then rose to over 600
in 1996, when no foxes were observed.
There was a sharp rise in reindeer mortality
in the winter of 1993/4, which led to a high
number of carcasses, but lower numbers in
the winter of 1995/6.
Fox numbers may be inuenced by the
migration of foxes to other areas and/or by
disease, but no studies were carried out to
investigate this.
1. Which of the following is most likely to
be true?
A. There is no relationship between
the numbers of foxes captured,
and those observed by local
people.
B. The numbers of foxes captured
and those observed by scientists
will be the same.
C. Where there are rodents, as
numbers of rodents go up, so
will the number of foxes.
D. Where there are rodents, as
numbers of foxes go up, so will
the number of rodents.
2. Which of the following cannot be
inferred from the passage?
A. Foxes act so as to limit the
number of Barnacle geese.
B. Low reindeer numbers led to
the 1996 crash in the number
of foxes.
C. Methods for estimating fox
numbers are imprecise.
D. The variations in animal
population numbers are cyclic.
3. Which of the following statements about
the disappearance of foxes in 1996 could
be justied from the passage?
A. The foxes died from starvation.

B. The foxes were subject to
predation by other animals.
C. The foxes died from disease.
D. The foxes had all been trapped.
4. After 1973, which of the following seems
the least feasible reason for the decline in
observed foxes?
A. There were fewer trappers.

B. Trappers did not report their
experiences in diaries after
1973.
C. Polar bears declined after 1973.
D. There were fewer carcasses.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Set 01 Buying Leaets

Number Ordered
1-9 10-49 50-199 200-599 600+
Single sided black/white 70p 60p 40p 30p 20p
Double sided black/white 1.30 1.00 70p 55p 40p
Single sided colour 1.60 1.10 80p 60p 50p
Double sided colour 2.90 2.00 1.40 1.00 90p
1. Gina buys 450 single sided colour
leaets. The total cost, to the nearest
, including VAT is:
A 206
B 216
C 270
D 324
E 432
2. Sophie buys 200 single sided black
and white and 200 single sided
colour leaets. The total cost,
including VAT is:
A 216
B 248
C 310
D 372
E 420
3. Karin buys 150 single sided black and
white and one and a half times as
many single sided colour leaets. The
total cost, including VAT is:
A 222
B 234
C 288
D 330
E 342

4. Stefan bought 300 double sided
black and white leaets and 100
single sided colour leaets. What
percentage, correct to 1 decimal
place, of the total cost including VAT,
did he spend on the colour leaets?
A 27.2%
B 27.6%
C 32.7%
D 56.1%
E 67.3%
5. Bo bought some double sided colour
leaets. The VAT on her bill was 12.
How many leaets did she buy?
A 30
B 36
C 60
D 72
E 75
6. Frank bought some leaets. The
cost including VAT was 174. All the
leaets Frank bought were the same.
How many leaets did he buy?
A 145
B 290
C 348
D 696
E 725
The table gives information about the cost of buying one leaet from a
printing company. VAT is charged at 20% of the total order.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Set 02 Taste
Women Men Girls Boys
Can taste PTC 35 72 18 27
Cannot taste PTC 20 60 10 20
1. Of the adults in the group, what
place can taste PTC?
A 40.0%
B 40.8%
C 57.2%
D 58.0%
E 59.1%
2. 3/5 of the women who can taste
PTC and 7/12 of the men who can
taste PTC do not drink coffee. What
place, of the adults who can taste
PTC do drink coffee?
A 33.7%
B 41.1%
C 43.9%
D 58.9%
E 66.3%
3. If 10% of the men who said they
cannot taste PTC could in fact taste
PTC at higher concentrations, what
would be the ratio of men who can
taste PTC to men who cannot taste
PTC, at higher concentrations?
A 39:25
B 39:27
C 39:30
D 41:25
E 41:30
4. A population of 100,000 people
is equally divided between men,
women, boys and girls. Use the data
in the table to estimate the number,
correct to 4 signicant gures, of
people in the population who can
taste PTC.
A 40,020
B 41,980
C 58,020
D 58,610
E 59,980
5. In a population, 8% can taste neither
PTC nor sodium benzoate, 74% can
taste PTC and 60% can taste sodium
benzoate. What percentage can taste
exactly one of these two chemicals?
A 18%
B 32%
C 42%
D 50%
E 58%
A group of people were asked to taste some paper soaked in a weak solution
of the chemical PTC. The table gives some information about the results.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Set 03 Balloon Flights
Helium balloons are used for weather research.
Here is some information about how the
temperature of the atmosphere changes with
height and how fast balloons ascend.
Dry Air Temperature decrease is 5.2
o
C per
500m.
Wet Air Temperature decrease is 2.8
o
C per
500m.
The rate of climb of a balloon is 4.8 metres
per second.
In addition, here is some information about
conversion factors.
5280 feet = 1 mile. 1 mile = 1.6 km.
You can convert
o
C to
o
F using the rule F =
1.8 C + 32.
1. When the ground temperature is
24
o
C, what is the temperature, correct
to 1 decimal place, in dry air at a
height of 1.8 km?
A 5.3
B 10.1
C 13.9
D 18.7
E 19.3
2. When the ground temperature is
24
o
C, at what height in dry air, correct
to 1 decimal place, is the temperature
-15
o
C?
A 3.2 km
B 3.8 km
C 7.0 km
D 7.5 km
E 15.0 km
3. A balloon rises in wet air from a
ground temperature of 24
o
C. How
many minutes, correct to the nearest
minute, will it take to reach a height
where the temperature is 0
o
C?
A 6
B 8
C 9
D 15
E 343
4. A balloon rises from the ground
through dry air. After 5 minutes the
temperature of the air round the
balloon is 12
o
C. What is the ground
temperature, correct to the nearest
o
C?
A 15
o
C
B 16
o
C
C 20
o
C
D 27
o
C
E 28
o
C
5. A balloon ew on Monday. A second
balloon ew on Tuesday. The rate
of climb of the second balloon was
25% more than the rst balloons.
Both balloons ew to the same
height. Which one of the following
statements is true?
A The second balloon took 25%
of the time that the rst
balloon did.
B The second balloon took 75%
balloon did.
C The second balloon took 80%
balloon did.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
D The second balloon took 120%
balloon did.
E The second balloon took 125%
balloon did.
6. What is the decrease of temperature,
correct to 2 decimal places, in wet air
when measured in
o
F per mile?
A 2.49
o
F per mile
B 4.98
o
F per mile
C 6.30
o
F per mile
D 16.13
o
F per mile
E 29.95
o
F per mile
Set 04 Concrete
The table gives information about the ratios,
by volume, of material used to make types
of concrete mix.
Type Cement Sand Gravel
General use 1 2 4
Foundation 1 3 6
High Strength 2 2 3
Watertight 2 3 6
Rough 1 4 8
For example, rough concrete mix requires a
ratio cement:sand:gravel of 1:4:8 by volume.
The mass of cement is 2,240 kg per m
3
.
The mass of sand is 1,600 kg per m
3
.
The mass of gravel is 1,680 kg per m
3
.
For all concrete mixes, water is added in the
proportion 7 litres water for every 25 kg of
cement to make concrete.
(The mass of 1 litre of water is 1 kg)
(1000 litres = 1m
3
).
1. Which type of concrete mix contains
the greatest proportion, by volume,
of sand?
A General use
B Foundation
C High Strength
D Watertight
E Rough
2. Jim is making general use concrete
mix for a garage oor. The oor is
rectangular, 9m by 4m and 15cm
deep. How much sand in m
3
, correct
to 2 decimal places, is required?
A 1.35m
3
B 1.54m
3
C 1.62m
3
D 1.66m
3
E 1.80m
3
3. What is the ratio, by mass, of
cement:gravel for general use
concrete mix?
A 1:3
B 1:4
C 2:9
D 8:3
E 10:21
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
4. How many litres of water, correct
to the nearest whole litre, are
needed to make 3.5 m
3
of watertight
concrete?
A 111
B 366
C 399
D 627
E 5089
5. When high strength concrete is
made, what percentage, correct to
the nearest whole number, of the
total mass will be water?
A 8%
B 9%
C 10%
D 22%
E 28%
6. What is the ratio by volume, correct
to 3 signicant gures, of water to
cement in any concrete mix?
A 1:0.0159
B 1:0.159
C 1:0.627
D 1:1.59
E 1:6.27
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Quantatative Reasoning
Set 05 Motorboats
The table shows the total cost of renting
different types of motorboats for a certain
number of hours. Total cost is calculated
using the deposit and the cost of renting
per hour. Some information is missing in
the table.
1. If the deposit for Type D motorboats is
increased by 5% on Sundays, what will
be the total cost of renting a Type D
motorboat for 6 hours on a Sunday?
A. 695.00
B. 699.75
C. 750.20
D. 754.25
E. 950.00
2. Marthas total cost of renting a Type C
motorboat was 325. For how many
hours did she rent the motorboat?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
3. The total cost of renting a Type E
motorboat is 240 per hour. Type C
and Type E motorboats have the same
deposit. What is the ratio of the cost per
hour of a Type C motorboat to that of a
Type E motorboat?
A. 1:3
B. 15:28
C. 14:23
D. 5:7
E. 23:27
4. Alan rented a Type A motorboat for
3 hours on Monday and a Type C
motorboat for 2 hours on Tuesday. What
was the percentage change in Alans
total cost from Monday to Tuesday?
A. 15.00%
B. 50.00%
C. 56.25%
D. 72.25%
E. 75.00%
Type Hours Deposit
Cost per
Hour
Total
cost
A 2 _ 25 135
B 4 _ 60 330
C 8 100 75 _
D 10 95 100 1,095
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Set A Set B
1.
Test shape:
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither
2.
Test shape:
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither
3.
Test shape:
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither
4.
Test shape:
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither
Set 01
Abstract Reasoning
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
5.
Test shape:
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither
6.
Test shape:
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither
9.
Test shape:
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither
10.
Test shape:
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither
7.
Test shape:
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither
8.
Test shape:
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Set A Set B
1.
Test shape:
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither
2.
Test shape:
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither
3.
Test shape:
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither
4.
Test shape:
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither
Set 02
Abstract Reasoning
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
5.
Test shape:
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither
6.
Test shape:
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither
7.
Test shape:
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither
8.
Test shape:
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Set A Set B
Set 03
1. Which of the following test shapes
belongs in Set A?
A. C.
B.

D.

Abstract Reasoning
belongs in Set A?
A. C.
B.

D.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
belongs in Set A?
A.

C.

B.

D.

belongs in Set B?
A.

C.

B.

D.

belongs in Set B?
A.

C.

B.

D.

belongs in Set B?
A.

C.

B.

D.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Abstract Reasoning
Set A Set B
1.
Test shape:
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither
2.
Test shape:
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither
Set 04
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Abstract Reasoning
3.
Test shape:
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither
4.
Test shape:
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither
5.
Test shape:
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Decision Analysis
Ancient Tomb
An ancient tomb contains strange
hieroglyphics which a team is working to
decipher. You can join the team once you
have demonstrated that you understand
the codes. The codes that the team have
managed to decode so far are presented on
these tabbed pages. You can demonstrate
your understanding by examining particular
codes or sentences and then choosing one
from ve possible interpretations. Sometimes
the information you have will be incomplete
or unusual but there is always some sense
to the message. You will therefore need to
make your best judgement based on the
codes rather than what you might expect
or what you think is reasonable. There is
always a best answer, which makes the
most sense based on all the information
presented but bear in mind that this test
is about making judgements rather than
simply applying rules and logic.
Table of Codes
Operators Specic Info
General Rules Basic Codes
A = positive
B = increase
C = opposite
D = cold
E = fast
F = up
G = combine
H = future
J = stop
K = heavy
1 = I
2 = people
3 = air
4 = re
5 = water
6 = earth
7 = sun
8 = moon
9 = eat
10 = move
11 = rock
12 = animal
13 = plant
14 = look
15 = think
16 = talk
17 = breathe
1. Select from the responses shown
the best interpretation of the
following code:
CK5, 3, BD
A The air is cold and dry
B Mist can be very chilly
C Snow oats in the air
D Very cold air feels dry
E Mist oats in the air
following code:
B12, CA15, 2
A People think like animals
B Animals dont think like we do
C Some people think animals are
intelligent
D Animals are less intelligent than
people
E Many animals are as clever as us
following code:
K(3,5), J4
A Put out the re with lots of
water
B Rain extinguished the re
C Its difcult to light a re in a
rain storm
D Rain stopped our res from
lighting
E The heavy rain puts out the re
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
following code:
B7, (1,2), 10, B(G11,6)
A The stars show us the way to
the mountains
B They found it too hot to move
the rocks
C At mid-day we dug the rocky
earth
D We saw the star move behind
the mountain
E The people moved the soil in
daylight
following code:
CF(6), (4,11)
A Beneath the earth there is
molten rock
B I made my re on a rock on the
ground
C Lava is found on the earths
surface
D Volcanoes destroy the Earth
E The ground is covered with hot
rocks
following code:
EF10, G(5,12), CH9, G(1,12)
A Move quickly to catch the sh
B My pet sh was eaten quickly
C The jumping sh ate my pet
D Leaping sh make me eat like an
animal
E I would like to have my own
ying sh
7. What would be the best way to
encode the following:
We slipped suddenly in the mud
A E(10,11), (1,2), 10
B (1,2), E(6,10)
C G(5,6), 2, E10
D E6, CH10, (1,2)
E (1,2), CHE10, G(5,6)
encode the following: Do not eat
water plants when it is raining
A C9, H5, B(13,5)
B B(5,13), C9, A5
C C9, B(5,13), (3,5)
D C9, B(5,13), J5
E B5, B(5,13), CB9
following code:
B(G7,8), F10, K11
A Days pass quickly by the ancient
rock
B It is taking many days to erect
the stone statue
C We are struggling to erect the
rock
D The sun and moon are eroding
the temple stone
E The power of the heavens lifts
our heavy mood
following code:
CH, B8
A Yesterday there was a full moon
B The moon is waxing
C The moon increased in
brightness at night
D The moon is not as big as
yesterday
E The moon was shrinking
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
following code:
17, G(4,3,12), E4, 6
A The great dragons breath
warms the earth quickly
B Fire breathing animals y over
the Earth
C Fiery beasts quickly burn our
land
D The phoenix breath scorches
the earth
E Hot dragon breath can easily
start res
12. Select from the responses shown the
best interpretation of the following
code:
(1,2), C10, 9, (J17,13)
A We have eaten so many plants
we can hardly move
B All stand still and do not eat that
lethal plant
C We are breathless after all the
walking and eating
D We cannot walk having eaten
the poisonous herb
E Stay away from my dangerous
plant and dont eat it
code:
CH(2,16), (1,16), G(3,16)
A Much of what I say is empty
headed
B People said that my speech was
vacuous
C People commented on my wit
and humour
D People like it when I give a lively
talk
E It is too noisy when everyone
talks at the same time
following code:
CB2, 15, G(8,2)
A Few people think about going to
the moon
B No-one considers there is life on
the moon
C We think there are few people
on the moon
D We believe the moon people are
very short
E Some folk believe there are
people on the moon
code:
BA1, G(1,A2)
A I am happy when I meet good
people
B I am very happy with my friends
C My friends make me happy
D Positive people make me more
optimistic
E I am happiest with friendly
people
code:
BD(10,3), (5,11), B5
A Cold air blows over the frozen
lake
B Rising water is covering the rock
as the cold wind blows
C Icy winds are freezing the lake
D Cold winds made the lake water
as hard as a rock
E The cold wind submerges the
rock
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
following code:
C1, C(J16), B13
A I dont talk about growing plants
B You have stopped talking about
growing crops
C We shouldnt talk about
increasing the crop yield
D I am against anyone discussing
the increase in plants
E You never stop talking about the
crops
The animals started running before
the earthquake began
A B12, E10, (6,10), CJ
B G(K6,10), G(12,10)
C G(K6,10), HCJ12
D B12, E10, CH(K6)
E B12, E10, CH(6,10), CJ
I give the shermen a long cold stare
A 1, 2, G(5,12), K(D14)
B G(2,5,12), (1,14), D14
C 1, G(2,5,12), B(D14)
D B(D14), 1, 14, G(2,5,12)
E 1, G(2,5), KD14
following code:
BCH(12,11), CH14, EB5
A Animals used to roam over these
rocks before the oods
B We used to search the rock
pools before the tide came in
C Animals climb onto the rock to
escape the ood
D An animal fossil was exposed by
the ood
E Animal fossils got laid down
during heavy oods
Please note that Condence Ratings, present in the real Decision Analysis test, have not
been included in these practice items.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Decision Analysis
Ancient Tomb Codes
An ancient tomb contains strange
hieroglyphics which a team is working to
decipher. You can join the team once you
have demonstrated that you understand
the codes. The codes that the team has
managed to decode so far are presented
in the table below:
General Rules Basic Codes
A = positive
B = increase
C = opposite
D = cold
E = fast
F = generalise
G = combine
H = future
J = stop
K = top
1 = personal
2 = people
3 = air
4 = re
5 = water
6 = earth
7 = sun
8 = moon
9 = dwelling
10 = move
11 = today
12 = light
13 = bag
14 = look
15 = paper
16 = communicate
17 = breathe
Sometimes the information you have will
be incomplete or unusual but there is
always some sense to the message. You
will therefore need to make your best
judgement based on the codes rather
than what you might expect or what you
think is reasonable.
There is always a 'best' answer, which
makes the most sense based on all the
information presented but bear in mind
that this test is about making judgements
rather than simply applying rules and
logic.
1. What is the best interpretation of the following
coded message: 2, 11, 16, C, H, 9, 4
A) Today we are chatting about the risk
of house res
B) People talk too much about house res
C) We had a nice chat around the re
D) People today talk too much on
domestic disasters
E) People are talking about yesterday's
house re
How condent are you that the answer you
gave was right?
1 2 3 4 5
coded message: K(C,B,2) C, A, 16
A) Our Chief is talking nonsense
B) Few people can remain silent
C) Most Chiefs can communicate well
D) More senior people should voice their
opinions
E) When the Chief talks I feel depressed
gave was right?
1 2 3 4 5
3. What would be the best way to encode the
following: Today it got very dark during the solar
eclipse
A) 11, C, 12, 78
B) 11, B C 12, 7G8
C) 11, C 12, 7G8
D) 11, B C 12, 78
E) H 11, C 12, 7G8
gave was right?
1 2 3 4 5
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Decision Analysis
New information comes in
(see Table A above)
coded message: 110, C, K, 5, 10, J, 17
A) The men at the bottom of the hill have
stopped using boats
B) The best men had to hold their breath
and swim
C) He held his breath and swam under
water
D) Tall men can swim without breathing
E) A short man fell in the river and
drowned
gave was right?
1 2 3 4 5
5. Which would be the most useful two additional
codes to convey this message: I left home and
slept in a cave by the river.
A) Home
B) Slept
C) Cave
D) River
E) Past
gave was right?
1 2 3 4 5
General Rules Basic Codes Additional Codes Emotions
A = positive
B = increase
C = opposite
D = cold
E = fast
F = generalise
G = combine
H = future
J = stop
K = top
1 = personal
2 = people
3 = air
4 = re
5 = water
6 = earth
7 = sun
8 = moon
9 = dwelling
10 = move
11 = today
12 = light
13 = bag
14 = look
15 = paper
16 = communicate
17 = breathe
101 = speed
102 = injury
103 = danger
104 = fun
105 = carry
106 = empty
107 = time
108 = forwards
109 = similar
110 = male
201 = hurt
202 = excited
203 = worried
204 = angry
205 = surprise
206 = sad
207 = kind
Table A
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Scenario 1
A medical student, Sehn, has been assigned
to work with a senior doctor, Margaret, on
a hospital ward for one week. The purpose
of this attachment is for Sehn to gain insight
into the work the Margaret undertakes and
assist in his development. At the start of the
week, Margaret assigns Sehn personal tasks,
which do not appear to be related to Sehns
clinical development. These tasks will take at
least two of the ve days to complete.
How appropriate are each of the following
responses by Sehn in this situation?
1. Complete the assigned personal tasks
for Margaret, without mentioning
that they do not seem to be related
to his development
A A very appropriate thing to do
B Appropriate, but not ideal
C Inappropriate, but not awful
D A very inappropriate thing to do
2. Suggest to Margaret examples of
more clinical tasks that he could get
involved with during the attachment
3. Seek advice from the academic
tutor responsible for the learning
attachment
Scenario 2
A medical student, Gemma, is observing
a patient consultation conducted by Dr
Mitchell. Dr Mitchell is updating the patients
medical records on the computer. He
asks the patient whether he is allergic to
penicillin, to which the patient replies Yes.
However, Gemma notices that Dr Mitchell
types No as the response to this question on
the computer record.
responses by Gemma in this situation?
1. Inform Dr Mitchell once the patient
has left the room that he appears
to have made an error with the
computer record
2. Change the computer record after
Dr Mitchell and the patient have left
the room, to avoid Dr Mitchell being
embarrassed
3. Ask the patient to repeat his answer
to the question
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
4. Inform the patient privately about
the error after the consultation has
nished
Scenario 3
A dental student, Rio, is leading a group
of fellow students in a project they have
been assigned to work on together. Jerome
approaches Rio with a complaint about one
of the other students in the group, Elizabeth.
Jerome insists that Elizabeth is not dedicating
enough time and effort to the group project.
Jerome explains that Elizabeth leaves
meetings early and her notes are not very
comprehensive when she is asked to research
topics. He asks if Rio can do something
about this as he is leader of the group.
responses by Rio in this situation?
1. Take no action unless further
complaints are received from other
members of the group
2. Suggest to Jerome that he raises his
concerns with Elizabeth directly
3. Report Elizabeths lack of dedication
to the academic tutor
4. Ask other members of the project
group whether they have similar
concerns about Elizabeths behaviour
5. Speak to Elizabeth directly to raise
concerns about the time and effort
she is dedicating to the group project
Scenario 4
A

medical student is due to attend an
appointment with her supervisor. One hour
prior to the meeting, an opportunity to
attend a clinical session becomes available at
short notice. The student knows this session
would be of value to her learning and
development, however it will clash with her
appointment with her supervisor.
How important to take into consideration
are the following factors for the student
when considering how to respond to the
situation?
1. The importance of the meeting with
the supervisor
A Very important
B Important
C Of minor importance
D Not important at all
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
2. Whether the supervisor is contactable
to be able to re-arrange the meeting
A Very important
B Important
3. That other clinical sessions may arise
in future that will be of value to her
development
A Very important
B Important
4. Her supervisors view on whether this
clinical session would be a valuable
learning opportunity
A Very important
B Important
Scenario 5
A medical student, Cameron, is told by
a patient, that a senior doctor frequently
swears loudly on the ward which makes him
feel so uncomfortable that he does not want
to stay in hospital. Cameron consults a nurse
on the ward and she tells him that she has
not ever witnessed this behaviour by the
senior doctor. The nurse reminds Cameron
that the patient might just dislike being in
hospital. Cameron is unsure what to do
because the senior doctor is marking one of
his assessments.
How important to take into account are the
following considerations for Cameron when
deciding how to respond to the situation?
1. The senior doctor is marking one of
his assessments
A Very important
B Important
2. A patient on the ward has told him
that he feels so uncomfortable that
he wants to leave
A Very important
B Important
3. Other patients may have overheard
the senior doctor swearing loudly on
the ward and also feel uncomfortable
A Very important
B Important
4. The nurse has not witnessed the
senior doctor swearing loudly on the
ward
A Very important
B Important
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Scenario 6
1. A consultation is taking place between
a senior doctor and a patient; a medical
student is observing. The senior doctor
tells the patient that he requires some
blood tests to rule out a terminal
disease. The senior doctor is called
away urgently, leaving the medical
student alone with the patient. The
patient tells the student that he is
worried he is going to die and asks the
student what the blood tests will show.
responses by the medical student in this
situation?
A Explain to the patient that he is unable to
comment on what the tests will show as
he is a medical student
A very appropriate thing to do
Appropriate, but not ideal
Inappropriate, but not awful
A very inappropriate thing to do
B Acknowledge the patients concerns and
ask whether he would like them to be
raised with the senior doctor
C Suggest to the patient that he poses these
questions to the senior doctor when he
returns
D Tell the patient that he should not worry
and that it is unlikely that he will die
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Verbal Reasoning
Set 01 The Teleological Argument
Rationale
1. Correct answer: D
Dawkins has used Paleys analogy to
suggest that the maker of his watch could
not be blind, otherwise the making of the
watch would be too difcult or impossible,
and also that natural selection is blind in
the sense that it does not operate towards
a nal goal.
2. Correct answer: A
This is supported by the passage in the rst
paragraph, the teleological argument has
been commonly used to prove the existence
of a Creator or Supreme Being.
3. Correct answer: B
This is supported by the passage in the
theory of Charles Darwin: ...theory of
natural selection as an explanation for the
variety and complexity of living organisms.
This did not presuppose a hidden designer.
Therefore events are not planned, they occur
by chance.
4. Correct answer: C
This is supported by the passage using
Paleys attempt to provide a scientic
explanation of a designed world using
Newtons Law of Motion but failing to justify
it fully when Darwin and Dawkins published
books on evolution and natural selection.
An analogy is a form of reasoning using
familiarity in which one thing is referred to
as another thing, on the basis that the other
thing is of similar structure. Paleys story of
the construction of a watch on the basis
that it is very similar to the way the universe
is constructed is a classic example of analogy.
This is supported by Paleys argument in the
rst paragraph: He pointed to the intricate
structure of living things and argued that
they were so cleverly put together that some
unknown designer must have made them.
Using this information, it can be inferred
that the similar structure means they have
a similar purpose, so that the eye may take
pictures like a camera.
Verbal Reasoning

Set 02 The 1737 Licensing Act
Rationale
This is supported in paragraph 1: In 1660
drama was legalised once more. It also goes
on to say that the censorship of plays was a
result of Royal Sponsorship, suggesting the
King of 1660 was a supporter of Theatre.
This is supported by paragraph 1 which
refers to 2 theatres in London in 1660 but
no comment about number of London
theatres in 1737 (paragraphs 2-3).
This is supported by paragraph 4: After
1788 magistrates could authorise local
theatres. Many new provincial theatres
were built but London theatres were still
restricted to two.
In 1660 the king controlled criticism
by sponsorship of theatres (paragraph
1) but in the 1730s the government
found it necessary to take legislative and
punitive action to reduce/control criticism
(paragraph 2). No indication is given of why
the king sponsored theatres in paragraph 1
other than control.
Rationale and Answers to Practice Questions
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
This is supported by the last paragraph
which states that there was no longer a
limit of having theatres solely in London.
This is supported by the passage in
paragraph two, Owners, seeking increased
prots wanted more socially diverse
audiences i.e. not the upper class/a range
of people.
7. Correct answer: C.
paragraph two where it states that the play
offensively mocked King Georges personal
habits. None of the other response options
are is cited in this passage as a feature of
this play.
paragraph two, Many dramatists, leading
up to the late 1730s criticised the
government and royal family.
Verbal Reasoning
Set 03 Exchange Rates
Rationale
1. Correct answer: True
If the exchange rates change so the overseas
purchaser can buy more pounds for their
currency than previously, then it will be true that
exports from the UK will cost less in the country
buying them in currency terms.
2. Correct answer: False
Fluctuations do occur in the exchange rate
between the pound () and the euro, so (as
in the example in para 4) a person in France
or Germany will be affected by uctuation in
exchange rates between the two currencies.
3. Correct answer: Cant Tell
We have no idea whether interest rates in the
UK or Australia will remain unchanged or how
the exchange rates between the UK and
Australian $ have uctuated or will uctuate,
nor does the passage tell us anything about the
tax rates in the two countries so we cannot tell
whether the statement is true or false.
4. Correct answer: Cant Tell
Prices can differ greatly in different countries
and the passage says nothing about purchasing
power.
5. Correct answer: True
The more oil or chemicals the UK purchases
from overseas, the greater will be its demand
for foreign currency, so the supply of pounds
in the foreign exchange markets will rise unless
balanced by more demand from overseas for
UK pounds.
As para 2 makes clear, when a saver makes a
deposit in a bank, this technically means the
money is being borrowed not lent - by the
bank.
No, the importing country would have to sell
100 millionworth of pounds to buy other
currencies but the countries to which it is
exporting goods will need to buy 200 million-
worth of pounds to pay for the goods, so it is
the overall demand for pounds not supply
which will rise.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
The statement is incorrect because there is a
possibility that the holiday may cost the traveller
more than anticipated if the exchange rate
for the Russian rouble rises and therefore the
traveller needs to exchange more pounds to pay
for the holiday.
Verbal Reasoning
Set 04 Rule of War
Rationale
The rst paragraph states that they protect
civilians caught up in the zone of war.
First line states that Humans have fought each
other since the dawn of civilisation and 3
rd

line states aggression may be a part of human
nature so it is fair to assume that this will
always continue to be the case.
The bombing and intimidation (paragraph 2)
goes against the Geneva Conventions purpose
to protect civilians caught up in the zone of
war potentially making it an international
crime.
It is logical that far distant operators may not
be as accurate in their control of the armed
drone aircraft and cause injury to civilians.
The last sentence states The use of drones has
raised ethical questions for their operators.
Therefore, if questions have been raised for
their operators then there must have been
some consequences that spurred those
questions.
Verbal Reasoning
Set 05 Greener Jet Engines
True/ False/ Cant Tell
1. Answer: Cant Tell.
Rationale: There is no information in the
passage that suggests the EU will consider
exemption for airlines from the Emissions
Trading Scheme.
2. Answer: False.
Rationale: This is supported by the rst
paragraph statement: There are two
areas of potential fuel saving in aircraft
design the engines and the airframe. The
ratio of lightweight materials and recycled
components in wing and body production
is growing.
3. Answer: True.
Rationale: This is inferred by the majority
of the information in the third paragraph,
particularly in the nal sentence which
states that the geared turbofan creates a
15% improvement in fuel efciency and a
smaller, lighter housing.
4. Answer: False.
Rationale: This is inferred by the rst
paragraph statement An estimated 3% of
Europes entire greenhouse gas emissions
are currently generated by airlines, and
with it potentially doubling by 2020
suggesting it could rise to 6% of emissions.
Verbal Reasoning
Set 06 Arctic Foxes
Multiple Choice
1. Answer: C.
Rationale: This is supported by the
information presented in the whole
passage. Since rodents are a food source
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
for foxes, it is common sense that when
there are more rodents, there will be more
foxes as their reproduction is dependent on
food availability.
2. Answer: D.
Rationale: The passage does not indicate
that the animal population numbers in
general are cyclic. On the contrary, the
passage refers to the estimated numbers of
foxes as uctuated.
3. Answer: A.
Rationale: In the third and fourth
paragraph, the passage made a link
between the decline in the number of foxes
in 1996 and the low number of reindeer
carcasses in 1995/6. It can, thus, be inferred
that the low number of reindeer carcasses
in 1995/6, which are an important source of
food for foxes, led to the starvation of foxes
which consequently declined in number.
4. Answer: C.
Rationale: The passage does not state that
Polar bears have declined after 1973. On the
contrary, the Polar bears after 1973 became
protected species, therefore one would
expect that there will be fewer carcasses left
by trappers. Therefore, this option cannot
be one of the reasons for the decline in
observed foxes. As Polar bears became a
protected species then there will be fewer
trappers probably not reporting their
experiences.
Set 01 Buying Leaets
Rationales
1. The correct answer is D: 324.
Calculation required: 450 x 0.60 x 1.20

2. The correct answer is A: 216
Calculation required:
200 (0.30 + 0.60) 1.20
3. The correct answer is B: 234
(150 .40 + 225 0.60) 1.20
4. The correct answer is C: 32.7%.
(100 0.80) 1.20 / (300 0.55 + 100
0.80) 1.20) 100
5. The correct answer is A: 30.
12 0.2 = 60 60 2
6. The correct answer is E: 725.
174 1.2 = 145 145 0.2
Set 02 Taste
Rationales
1. The correct answer is C: 57.2%.
35 + 72 + 20 + 60 = 187
35 + 72 = 107 (107187) 100 = 57.2%
2. The correct answer is B: 41.1%
100 -
63
35+72
100
= 41.1%
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
3. The correct answer is B: 39:27
Calculation required: 78:54 = 39:27
60 10 = 6, 72 + 6 = 78, 60 - 6 = 54
4. The correct answer is E: 59,980.
35
55
25,000+
72
132
25,000+
18
28
25,000+
27
47
25,000
= 59,980
5. The correct answer is D: 50%.
Calculation required: 74 x + 60 x + 8 +
x = 100, x = 42, 32 + 1
Set 03 Balloon Flights
Rationales
1. The correct answer is A: 5.3.
Calculation required: 24 (1.8 5.2) / 0.5
= 24 18.72
2. The correct answer is B: 3.8 km.
Calculation required: 24 15 = 39, 39 5.2
= 7.5, 7.5 0.5
3. The correct answer is D: 15.
Calculation required: 24 2.8 = 8.57. 8.57
500 = 4285, 4285 4.8 = 892 seconds
4. The correct answer is D: 27
o
C.
Calculation required: Height reached = 5
60 4.8 = 1440m, Temp change = (1440
500) 5.2 = 14.976, 14.976 + 12
5. The correct answer is C:
The second balloon took 80% of
the time that the rst balloon did.
100
125
100 = 80
6. The correct answer is D:
16.13
o
F. Calculation Required: If 0C at 0
metres = (0 x 1.8) + 32 = 32F at 0 metres,
then -2.8C at 500 metres = -(2.8 x 1.8) +
32 = 26.96F at 500 metres.
The rate of decrease of temperature is
therefore: 32F - 26.96F = 5.04F per 500
metres.
Conversion to F per mile: 1600/500 = 3.2.
5.04 x 3.2 = 16.13F per mile.
Set 04 Concrete
Rationales
1. Correct answer is E: Rough.
4
13
100
= 30.8%.
2. Correct answer is B: 1.54m
3.
9 4 0.15 = 5.4, 5.4
2
7
3. Correct answer is A: 1:3.
2240:1680 4 = 2240:6720
4. Correct answer is C: 399.

2
11
3.5 = 0.636
, 0.636 2240 =
1425, 1425 25 7
5. Correct answer is B: 9%.
2 2240 + 2 1600 + 3 1680 = 12720,
4480 25 7 = 1254.4 litres
Total mass = 13974.4 kg
1254.4
13974.4
100
6. Correct answer is D: 1:1.59.
Calculation required: 25 2240 =
0.01116..m
3
7 litres = 0.007m
3
,
0.007:0.01116
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Set 5 Motorboats
1. Answer: B.
Rationale: Deposit for Type D motorboat
on Sundays = 95 + 5 95/100 = 95 + 4.75
= 99.75.
Total cost of renting a Type D motorboat for
6 hours on a Sunday = Deposit + Cost per
hour number of hours = 99.75 + 100
6 = 99.75 + 600 = 699.75.
2. Answer: C.
Rationale: Total cost of renting a Type C
motorboat for x hours = Deposit + Cost per
hour number of hours = 100 + 75x
Or, 325 = 100 + 75x
Or, 75x = 325 - 100 = 225
Or, x = 225/75 = 3.
3. Answer: B.
Rationale: Total cost of renting a Type E
motorboat for 1 hour = Deposit + Cost per
hour 1
Deposit = 100
240 = 100 + Cost per hour of Type E
motorboat
Or, Cost per hour of Type E motorboat =
240 100 = 140
Cost per hour of Type C motorboat = 75
Required ratio = 75: 140 = 15:28.
4. Answer: C.
Rationale: Total cost of renting a Type A
motorboat for 3 hours = Deposit + Cost per
hour number of hours
For a Type A motorboat, if the deposit is x,
then 135 = x + 2 25
Or, 135 = x + 50
Or, x = 135 50 = 85
Therefore, Total cost of renting a Type A
motorboat for 3 hours on Monday = 85 + 3
25 = 160
Total cost of renting a Type C motorboat for
2 hours on Tuesday = 100 + 75 2 = 250
Percentage increase in Alans total cost
from Monday to Tuesday = (250 - 160)
100/160 = 56.25%.
Abstract Reasoning Set 01
Rules
Set A
There are two circles each with two tangents.
Other shapes are irrelevant
Set B
There is one circle with two lines transecting it.
Other shapes are irrelevant.
Rationale:
1. Correct answer: Neither
Only one circle has two tangents so not A,
one circle only has one line transecting it so
not B. Therefore neither.

Two circles but only with one tangent
each so not A, one circle only has one line
transecting it so not B. Therefore neither.
One circle with one tangent so not A, one
circle only has one line transecting it so not
B. Therefore neither.
Two circles with two tangents so A.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
One circle with two lines transecting it so B
Two circles with two tangents to A.
Rules
Set A
There are 2 pairs of shapes.
If the shapes are unshaded then the pairs are
in an . If one pair is shaded then the pairs are
in a +
Set B
There are 2 pairs of shapes.
If the shapes are all shaded then the pairs are
in a +. If one pair is shaded then the pairs are
in an
Rationale
2 pairs of shapes, all unshaded, in an
2. Correct answer: N
2 pairs of shapes, all unshaded, in a +
2 pairs of shapes, one pair shaded, in an
2 pairs of shapes, one pair shaded, in a +
2 pairs of shapes, both pairs shaded, in a +
2 pairs of shapes, both pairs shaded, in an
2 pairs of shapes, one pair shaded, in an
2 pairs of shapes - but one pair shaded on
non opposite arms of the
Rules
Set A
Total number of spots is an ODD number, and
larger number of spots is above.
Set B
Total number of spots is an EVEN number, and
larger number of spots is below.
A is correct. Total number of spots = 3.
Larger number of spots (2) is above.
C is correct. Total number of spots = 13.
B is correct. Total number of spots = 9.
A is correct. Total number of spots = 10.
Larger number of spots (7) is below.
5. Correct Answer: D
D is correct. Total number of spots = 12.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
C is correct. Total number of spots = 12.
Set A Rule
Regardless of the nature of the shapes
themselves there must be an equal number of
black and shaded shapes but the combined
total is always at least one more than the total
number of white shapes
Set B Rule
Regardless of the nature of the shapes
themselves there must be an equal number
of black and white shapes but the combined
total is always at least one fewer than the total
number of shaded shapes.
Rationale
1. Answer Neither
More black shapes than either white or
shaded so cannot be either.
2. Answer A
One black and one white but only one
shaded so cannot satisfy B. One shaded and
one black (= 2 shapes) which is one more
than the white shape so must be A.
3. Answer B
2 black and 2 white (= 4 shapes) and 5
shaded shapes so must be B.
4. Answer A
Equal number of black and shaded (=4) but
only 1 white so must be A.
5. Answer B
2 black and 2 white (= 4) and 5 shaded so
must be B.
Decision Analysis - Ancient
Tomb
1. Correct answer is B:
Mist can be very chilly
A is incorrect: No use of 'opposite heavy'
water; introduces dry
C is incorrect: Uses 'opposite heavy' twice
to make snow and oats
D is incorrect: Introduces 'feel'; no use of
'opposite heavy' water
E is incorrect: No use of 'increase cold'
2. Correct answer is D:
Animals are less intelligent than people
A is incorrect: No use of 'opposite positive'
B is incorrect: Introduces 'we' for 'people';
no use of 'positive'
C is incorrect: No use of opposite positive
E is incorrect: No use of 'opposite';
introduces 'us' for 'people'
3. Correct answer is E:
The heavy rain puts out the re
A is incorrect: No use of 'air'
B is incorrect: No use of 'heavy'; introduces
past tense
C is incorrect: Code implies 'stopping', not
'lighting'
D is incorrect: Introduces 'our'; makes re'
plural
4. Correct answer is A:
The stars show us the way to the
mountains
B is incorrect: No use of I or earth
C is incorrect: Introduces 'mid-day'; does
not use second 'increase'
D is incorrect: Introduces 'saw' and 'behind'
E in incorrect: No use of 'increase' with
'sun'; no use of 'I'
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Beneath the earth there is molten rock
B is incorrect: Introduces 'I', 'made', 'my';
'under' is a better use of opposite up than
'on the ground'
C is incorrect: Introduces 'found'; 'under' is
a better use of opposite up than 'surface'
D is incorrect: Introduces 'destroy'
E is incorrect: Introduces 'covered';
introduces 'rocks' as plural
6. Correct answer is C:
The jumping sh ate my pet
A is incorrect: No use of up or 'I animal';
introduces 'catch'
B is incorrect: No use of 'up move'; 'animal'
is used only once
D is incorrect: No use of 'opposite future'
E is incorrect: No use of eat
(1,2), CHE10, G(5,6)
A is incorrect: Rock not as good as 'earth';
no sense of moving fast applying to people;
no past tense
B is incorrect: Mud is better conveyed by
adding water; no past tense
C is incorrect: Does not convey we; no
past tense
D is incorrect: No sense of 'slip' or 'mud'
C9, B(5,13), (3,5)
A is incorrect: Introduces 'future', no use
of 'air'
B is incorrect: Positive water is not as good
as air water for rain
D is incorrect: Stop water suggests not
raining
E is incorrect: Suggests 'decrease' rather
than do not eat'
It is taking many days to erect the
stone statue
A is incorrect: 'Up move' not a good t
with 'quickly; 'heavy not a good t with
'ancient'
C in incorrect: Introduces 'we'; no use of
'combine sun moon'; no use of 'heavy'
D is incorrect: No use of 'increase'; 'up
move' not a good t with 'eroded'
E is incorrect Introduces 'power'; introduces
'mood'
Yesterday there was a full moon
B is incorrect: No use of 'opposite future'
C in incorrect: Introduces night'
D is incorrect: Introduces an unnecessary
comparison
E is incorrect: Wrong use of increase moon
The phoenix breath scorches the earth
A is incorrect: Introduces 'great'; 'warm'
not a good t with fast re
B is incorrect: No use of 'fast re'; makes
animal plural
C is incorrect: No use of 'breathe' or 'air'
E is incorrect: No use of 'earth'; introduces
easily
We cannot walk having eaten the
poisonous herb
A is incorrect: No use of 'stop, breathe,
plant'; introduces plural of 'plant'
B is incorrect: No use of I; requires an extra
'stop' applied to 'eat'
C is incorrect: No use of 'opposite move;
'breathe' should be applied to 'plant'
E is incorrect: No use of 'I with people';
needs a code applied to eat'
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
People said that my speech was
vacuous
A is incorrect: No use of opposite future;
no use of people
C is incorrect: air talk not a good t with
wit and humour'
D is incorrect: No use of opposite future
E is incorrect: No use of 'opposite future;
introduces same time'
Some folk believe there are people on
the moon
A is incorrect: Introduces 'going'; no use of
second 'people'
B is incorrect: 'Opposite increase people' is
better as fewer', rather than no people
C is incorrect: Introduces we with no
reference to opposite increase; opposite
increase is inappropriately applied to
moon people
D is incorrect: Introduces we with no
reference to opposite increase; applies
'opposite increase' to 'moon, people'
I am very happy with my friends
A is incorrect: Introduces 'meet'; second 'I'
not applied to positive people
C is incorrect: No use of 'increase'
D is incorrect: No use of second 'I'
E is incorrect: No use of second 'I'
Icy winds are freezing the lake
A is incorrect: Introduces 'blows'; no use of
'increase water' or increase cold
B is incorrect: Introduces 'blows'; introduces
'covering'
D is incorrect: Introduces past tense
E is incorrect: No use of rst 'increase'; no
use of water'
You never stop talking about the crops
A is incorrect: No use of 'opposite I'; no use
of 'opposite' applied to 'stop'
B is incorrect: No use of second 'opposite'
C is incorrect: opposite stop talk implies
more talk, not less
D is incorrect: No use of 'opposite I';
introduces anyone
B12, E10, CH(6,10), CJ
A is incorrect: No sense of 'before'
B is incorrect: No sense of when'
C is incorrect: Need opposite twice to
apply to both future and stop
D is incorrect: 'Heavy earth' not a good t
with earthquake
1, G(2,5,12), B(D14)
A is incorrect: No link between 'people'
and 'water animal'; 'heavy' not as good as
'increase' to convey long
B is incorrect: Overuse of 'look' / no code
for 'long'
D is incorrect: 'Look' coded twice
unnecessarily
E is incorrect: People, water is not
necessarily shermen; 'heavy' not as good
as 'increase'
An animal fossil was exposed by the
ood
A is incorrect: No use of 'increase'; no use
of 'look'; introduces roam
B is incorrect: No use of increase'; no use
of animal
C is incorrect: No use of opposite future;
introduces 'climb'
E is incorrect: laid down is not a good
representation of look
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Decision Analysis - Ancient Tomb
Codes
1. Coded message: 2, 11, 16, C, H, 9, 4
A) Today we are chatting about the risk of
house res (introduces risk and no use
of opposite future)
B) People talk too much about house res (no
use of the codes opposite and future)
C) We had a nice chat around the re (no
use of the codes today or dwelling)
D) People today talk too much on domestic
disasters (over generalises from res to
disasters)
E) People are talking about yesterdays
house re (correct)
2. Coded message: K(C,B,2) C, A, 16
A) Our Chief is talking nonsense (correct)
B) Few people can remain silent (no use of
the codes top or positive)
C) Most Chiefs can communicate well (no
use of the code opposite)
D) More senior people should voice their
opinions (voice opinions is neutral rather
than negative)
E) When the Chief talks I feel depressed
(introduces depressed unnecessarily)
3. What would be the best way to encode
the following: Today it got very dark
during the solar eclipse
A) 11, C, 12, 78 (there are not enough
codes to cover both very dark and
eclipse)
B) 11, B C 12, 7G8 (correct)
C) 11, C 12, 7G8 (misses very dark)
D) 11, B C 12, 78 (unspecic about what
the sun and moon do)
E) H 11, C 12, 7G8 (future code suggests
eclipse is yet to happen)
4. Coded message: 110, C, K, 5, 10, J, 17
A) The men at the bottom of the hill have
stopped using boats (introduces hill and
boat and does not use breathe)
B) The best men had to hold their breath
and swim (no use of opposite)
C) He held his breath and swam under
water (correct)
D) Tall men can swim without breathing
(no use of the code opposite)
E) A short man fell in the river and
drowned (uses the code move twice
for fell and for river)
5. Which would be the most useful
two additional codes to convey this
message: I left home and slept in a cave
by the river
A) Home (can use 1, 9, 10)
B) Slept (could use J 10 stop move but
this is a big stretch to infer slept)
C) Cave (could use CK opposite top to
mean underground which combined
with dwelling could mean cave but this
is a big stretch for the existing codes)
D) River (can use 5, 10)
E) Past (can use C, H)
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Scenario 1
This response isnt the most appropriate it
shows a lack of insight by Sehn about his
understanding of the placement, and offers no
solution to the problem. This course of action
does not have severe consequences.
Although this is an appropriate course of
action, it does not deal with the fact that Sehn
is still being asked to carry out personal tasks.
This is the most appropriate course of action,
given that Margaret was unlikely to have
assigned Sehn to the placement. The academic
tutor has overall responsibility for work-based
placements and, as the administrator, they
should be made aware of the problem.
Scenario 2
This is a sensitive issue, but one that must be
corrected at the rst opportunity. To correct
Dr Mitchell immediately in front of the patient
may serve to undermine their trust in his
professional skills. Waiting until the patient
has left (assuming no treatment is due to be
carried out, or drugs prescribed) is the best
course of action. Dr Mitchell will then need
to re-conrm with the patient at the next
available opportunity.
This is an inappropriate course of action that is
not consistent with open and honest practice.
Altering notes in this way is ground for gross
professional misconduct.
This is a reasonable course of action, and
may serve to clarify the patients response.
However, it may also affect the patient/doctor
relationship and so waiting to discuss it with Dr
Mitchell afterwards is preferable.
This is an inappropriate course of action.
Without seeking further clarication from Dr
Mitchell, Gemma is not making an informed
judgement, and this may be detrimental to the
doctor/patient relationship.
Scenario 3
This option is inappropriate it discredits
Jeromes observation. This course of action
does not have severe consequences.
This is an appropriate course of action,
although Rio, as the group leader, should be
managing the situation.
This option is inappropriate, as Rio should be
managing the situation and this matter does
not, at this stage, involve the academic tutor.
No attempt has been made at resolution.
This course of action does not have severe
consequences.
This would be entirely appropriate, in order to
gather a consensus opinion about Elizabeths
behaviour. Part of working as a team is the
ability to share concerns.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
This would also be entirely appropriate, as the
concern should be raised with all individuals
concerned. There should be opportunity
for those individuals to defend any such
allegations and to improve performance,
where necessary. These options will result in
local resolution before the matter needs to be
taken further.
Scenario 4
Assuming that the student is able to contact
her supervisor to re-arrange, the importance
of the meeting is very worthy of consideration.
This could be a meeting about compromised
patient care, for example.
In order to act professionally, the student
should ensure open and timely communication
with her supervisor. To not consider whether
or not she can contact the supervisor to
re-arrange would be considered poor practice.
It may be that there is no need to re-arrange
her pre-existing meeting if clinical availability
is likely to present itself again. This is about
forward planning, time-management and
maintaining existing commitments.
The student must accept responsibility for
developing her own professional development.
Given that she has already identied that this
session would be of value to her learning and
development, the opinion of the supervisor
becomes less (but still) important.
Scenario 5
Although there may be apparent consequences
for raising an issue with the senior doctor, the
overriding consideration should be that of
the patient. Assessments should be marked
professionally and objectively this is not an
important consideration.
The patients safety and wellbeing should be
the main concern at all times.
This may be true, and may be important
when deciding how to respond. However, it is
based on an assumption and so is not a very
important consideration.
This may be true and so it is important to take
it into account, however, as Cameron has
received a direct complaint from a patient, this
should be followed up regardless of who can
support or refute it.
Scenario 6
A. Appropriate, but not ideal
The General Medical Council requires
students to work within the limits of their
competence, training and status as medical
students. A medical student is not qualied
to discuss the possible outcomes of the
patients blood test nor what the future may
hold for the patient. However, it is correct for
a student to explain his role to the patient,
so that the patient understands the students
position. In this situation, where a patient
is concerned or worried about their health,
the medical student should acknowledge
the patients concerns and advise the patient
to address their concerns with a more
appropriate member of staff.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
B. A very appropriate thing to do
On any occasion that a patient is concerned
or worried about their health, this
should be acknowledged by any person
involved with their care. Although the
medical student is not yet qualied to
address the patients concerns directly, by
acknowledging them and giving the patient
the option to raise them with the senior
doctor, the student is assuring the patient
that he is being listened to and that his
concerns are being taken seriously.
C. Appropriate but not ideal
The senior doctor has overall responsibility
for the care of the patient and in this case
would be the most appropriate member
of staff to address the patients concerns
directly. However, ideally the student should
also indicate that they empathise with the
patient about their concerns.
D. A very inappropriate thing to do
The General Medical Council requires
students to work within the limits of
their competence, training and status as
medical students. A medical student
is not qualied to discuss the possible
outcomes of the patients blood test nor
what the future may hold for the patient.
By telling the patient not to worry, the
student is inappropriately (and perhaps
falsely) reassuring the patient. A student
should acknowledge the patients concern
and indicate that they empathise with the
patient about their concerns.
Step-by-step guide
You may nd this step-by-step guide helpful in planning for your test.
Check

Who needs to take the test, which
universities require the test and their
entry criteria

The location of test centres

What exemptions we consider

Whether you are eligible to take the
extended UKCATSEN test

Whether you are eligible for a bursary
and then apply between 1 May and
19 September 2014
Register

You should register for the test
between 1 May and 19 September
2014
Book

You need to book your test before
midday on 2 October 2014. We
recommend you book as early as
possible

Familiarise yourself with how to
reschedule or cancel your test and
read our refund policy
Prepare
Use the Candidate Preparation Toolkit
for denitive information and advice
about the test plus hundreds of
ofcial practice questions

Familiarise yourself with the onscreen
format so you know how to use the
mouse, answer questions and move
through the test. Practice using the
onscreen calculator and get used to
the timings of each section

Find out what to expect at a UK
Pearson Professional Test Centre

Read the statement on unprofessional
behaviour and the UKCAT
examination rules

Familiarise yourself with what to do if
something goes wrong either before
or during your test

Make sure you know what
identication to take along when you
go to test
Test
Take your test between 1 July and 3
October 2014 no exceptions!
Research

Check the information provided on
consortium member websites to
see how they use the test in their
admissions before you submit your
UCAS application

After testing has nished we will
publish a report on average scores
and decile ranges
Apply

Dont forget your UCAS application
should be submitted by 15 October
2014
Relax

We communicate your test result
directly to your chosen universities;
you do not need to do this
Fairness
Wider participation
Like us on Facebook
www.facebook.com/UKClinicalAptitudeTest
Follow us on Twitter
www.twitter.com/UKCATest
www.ukcat.ac.uk
FEEDBACK
Please let us have any feedback you might have on this publication
so we can improve on it for future years.
Visit: www.ukcat.ac.uk/contact-us

Ukcat Guide 2014

Enviado por

Dados do documento

Descrição original:

Direitos autorais

Formatos disponíveis

Compartilhar este documento

Compartilhar ou incorporar documento

Opções de compartilhamento

Você considera este documento útil?

Este conteúdo é inapropriado?

Direitos autorais:

Formatos disponíveis

Ukcat Guide 2014

Enviado por

Direitos autorais:

Formatos disponíveis

UKCAT Ofcial Guide 2014 1

Situational Judgement Strategies

1. Dawkins title of his book, The Blind

Você também pode gostar