The term ________ probability of A and B is used to denote the

probability of the intersection of A and B.

marginal

conditional

joint

subjective










Which of the following best expresses the addition rule of
probabilities?



P(A B) = P(A) + P(B)

P(A B) = P(A) + P(B) + P(A B)

P(A B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A B)

None of the above










Which of the following would fit the definition of statistical
independence of events A and B?



P(A B) = P(A) + A(B)

P(A B) = P(A B)/P(A)

P(A B) = P(A)

P(A and B) = P(A)










Which of the following demonstrates the multiplication rule?




P(A B) = P(A)P(B)

P(A B) = P(A)P(B)

P(A B) = P(A B)P(B)


P(A B) = P(A B)P(B)









A candy bowl contains 8 red M&Ms, 5 blue and 3 yellow. If 2 M&Ms are
selected randomly, what is the probability that one will be blue and
one will be yellow?



5 percent

20 percent

33.3 percent

12.5 percent










__________ probability is the proportion of times that an event will
occur, assuming that all outcomes in a sample space are equally likely
to occur.



Classical

Marginal

Joint

Subjective










If the outcome of event A is not affected by event B, then events A
and B are said to be



mutually exclusive.

statistically independent.

collectively exhaustive.

None of the above










The collection of all possible events is called





a probability.

a sample space.

a joint probability.

the empty set.









The probability that house sales will increase in the next 6 months is
estimated to be 0.25. The probability that the interest rates on
housing loans will go up is estimated to be 0.7. The probability that
house sales and interest rates will go up during the next 6 months is
estimated to be 0.20.

The probability that house sales or interest rates increase during the
next 6 months is _______.




0.75

0.85

0.705

0.90










The probability that house sales will increase in the next 6 months is
estimated to be 0.25. The probability that the interest rates on
housing loans will go up is estimated to be 0.7. The probability that
house sales and interest rates will go up during the next 6 months is
estimated to be 0.20.

The probability that house sales will go up given that the interest
rates will increase during the next 6 months is _______.




0.11

0.195

0.2858

0.40













The probability that house sales will increase in the next 6 months is
estimated to be 0.25. The probability that the interest rates on
housing loans will go up is estimated to be 0.7. The probability that
house sales and interest rates will go up during the next 6 months is
estimated to be 0.20.

The probability of an increase in house sales and not an increase in
interest rates is _______


.2

.05

.25

.5









The probability that house sales will increase in the next 6 months is
estimated to be 0.25. The probability that the interest rates on
housing loans will go up is estimated to be 0.7. The probability that
house sales and interest rates will go up during the next 6 months is
estimated to be 0.20.

The event of interest rates increasing and sales increasing are not
statistically independent because




joint probabilities do not equal the product of the marginals.

the addition rule does not work here.

the marginal probabilities are all greater than .25.

None of the above






In the context of bivariate probabilities, the intersection
probabilities, , are called marginal probabilities.



True
False








The relative frequency probability is the limit of the proportion of
times that event A occurs in a large number of trials, n.



True
False








The odds in favor of a particular event are given by the ratio of the
probability of the event divided by the probability of its complement.


True
False









If E
1
, E
2
, ..., E
K
are collectively exhaustive events, the probability of
their union is always smaller than 1.


True
False









For conditional probabilities: P(A B) will always equal P(B A).



True
False









When A and B are mutually exclusive, P(A or B) can be found by
adding P(A) and P(B).


True
False









If P(A) = 0.4 and P(B A) = 0.5, then there is a 20% chance that A and
B occur at the same time.


True

False








If P( A B ) = P( A ) P( B ), then A and B must be statistically
independent.


True
False









Suppose A and B are independent events where P(A) = 0.4 and P(B) =
0.5. Then P(A B) = 0.5.


True
False









Suppose A and B are events where P(A) = 0.4, P(B) = 0.5, and P(A
B) = 0.1. Then P(B A) = 0.5.


True
False









If events A and B are mutually exclusive then they must be
independent.


True
False










Which of the following best
describes the expected value
of a discrete random variable?




It is the geometric average of all possible outcomes.

It is the weighted average over all possible outcomes.

It is the simple average of all possible outcomes.

None of the above









Which of the following is not a true statement about the binomial
probability distribution?



Each outcome is independent of each other.

Each outcome can be classified as either success or failure.

The probability of success must be constant from trial to trial.

The random variable of interest is continuous.










A basketball player makes 80 percent of his free throws during the
season. What is the probability that he will make exactly 6 of his next
8 free throws?



0.1468

0.3355

0.1678

0.2936










If n = 10 and = 0.8, then the mean of the binomial distribution is
_______.



0.08

1.26

1.60


8.00









If n = 10 and = 0.8, then the standard deviation of the binomial
distribution is ________.



0.80

1.26

1.60

8.00










If the outcomes of a discrete random variable follow a Poisson
distribution, then their



mean equals the variance.

mean equals the standard deviation.

median equals the variance.

median equals the standard deviation.










The number of rainy days per month at a particular town follows a
Poisson distribution with a mean value of 6 days. What is the
probability that it will rain 4 days next month?



0.630

0.0273

0.1339

0.2125










When sampling without replacement from a finite population such
that the probability of a success, , is no longer constant from trial to
trial, the data follow a




binomial distribution.

uniform distribution.

Poisson distribution.

hypergeometric distribution.









The sum of the product of each value of a discrete random variable X
times its probability is referred to as its



expected value.

variance.

mean.

Both (a) and (c)










The covariance of two random variables




does not have an upper or lower bound.

does not provide an indication of the direction of the relationship between the
variables.

is greatly influenced by the scaling of the numbers.

both Answer #1 and Answer #3

All of the above.










The ______________ distribution can be used to approximate the
binomial distribution when the number of trials is large and the
probability of success is small (nP <= 7).



Poisson

hypergeometric

uniform

discrete



The cumulative probability function for a random variable X expresses

the probability that X exceeds the value of x
0
as a function of x
0
.



True
False







One characteristic of the binomial distribution is that the outcome of
one trial does not affect the outcome of any other trial.


True
False









The expected value of a discrete random variable can be shown to be
the weighted average over all possible outcomes.


True
False









If the number of possible outcomes of a random variable is infinite
but countable, the random variable is considered discrete.


True
False









Given a binomial variable with n = 40 and the probability of a success
on any given trial of 0.8, the mean of the probability distribution
would be 0.4.


True
False









For a binomial probability distribution, the probability of success must
always be greater than the probability of failure.



True
False








On the average, 1.8 customers per minute arrive at any one of the
checkout counters of a grocery store. A hypergeometric distribution
can be used to find out the probability that there will be no customers
arriving at a checkout counter?



True
False









A financial analysis is presented with information on the past records
of 60 start-up companies and told that in fact only three of them have
managed to become highly successful. He selected three companies
from this group as the candidates for success. To analyze his ability to
spot the companies that will eventually become highly successful, he
will use a binomial distribution.



True
False









The number of males selected in a sample of 5 students taken without
replacement from a class of 9 females and 18 males has a
hypergeometric distribution.


True
False









The sum of Poisson random variables is also a Poisson random
variable.


True
False











If the covariance of X and Y is 0, then X and Y are independent
random variables.

True
False








If the random variables X and Y are statistically independent, then
their joint probability distribution function equals the product of the
marginal probability distribution functions.


True
False






















If a researcher wishes to
determine whether there is
evidence that the mean family
income in the U.S. is greater
than $30,000, then




a one-sided test should be utilized.

a two-sided test should be utilized.

either a one-sided or two-sided test can be utilized.

Cannot be determined from the information.










What is the z-value for a two-sided hypothesis test on a population
mean when =.05?



1.645

2.33

1.96

2.58










The confidence interval and the two-sided hypothesis test are not
equivalent for which of the following testing cases.



Test for one mean of a normal population when the variance is known.

Test for one mean of a normal population when the variance is unknown.

Test for variance of a normal population

Test for a population proportion










If you were running a small sample (e.g., n=24) two-sided test at
level of significance .05, then the critical t-value would be _________.




1.711

2.069

1.714

1.96









A student claims that he can correctly identify whether a person is a
business major or an agriculture major by the way the person
dresses. Suppose in actuality that he can correctly identify a business
major 87% of the time, while 16% of the time he mistakenly
identifies an agriculture major as a business major. Presented with
one person and asked to identify the major of this person (who is
either a business or agriculture major), he considers this to be a
hypothesis test with the null hypothesis being that the person is a
business major and the alternative that the person is an agriculture
major. What would be a Type I error?




Saying that the person is an agriculture major when in fact the person is a
business major.

Saying that the person is a business major when in fact the person is a business
major.

Saying that the person is a business major when in fact the person is an
agriculture major.

Saying that the person is an agriculture major when in fact the person is an
agriculture major.









A student claims that he can correctly identify whether a person is a
business major or an agriculture major by the way the person
dresses. Suppose in actuality that he can correctly identify a business
major 87% of the time, while 16% of the time he mistakenly
identifies an agriculture major as a business major. Presented with
one person and asked to identify the major of this person (who is
either a business or agriculture major), he considers this to be a
hypothesis test with the null hypothesis being that the person is a
business major and the alternative that the person is an agriculture
major. What would be a Type II error?




Saying that the person is an agriculture major when in fact the person is a
business major.

Saying that the person is a business major when in fact the person is a business
major.

Saying that the person is a business major when in fact the person is an
agriculture major.


Saying that the person is an agriculture major when in fact the person is an
agriculture major.








A student claims that he can correctly identify whether a person is a
business major or an agriculture major by the way the person
dresses. Suppose in actuality that he can correctly identify a business
major 87% of the time, while 16% of the time he mistakenly
identifies an agriculture major as a business major. Presented with
one person and asked to identify the major of this person (who is
either a business or agriculture major), he considers this to be a
hypothesis test with the null hypothesis being that the person is a
business major and the alternative that the person is an agriculture
major. What would be an example of power?




The probability of saying that the person is an agriculture major when in fact
the person is a business major.

The probability of saying that the person is a business major when in fact the
person is a business major.

The probability of saying that the person is a business major when in fact the
person is an agriculture major.

The probability of saying that the person is an agriculture major when in fact
the person is an agriculture major.









The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis that is true is known
as the



confidence level.

p-value.

power of the test.

significance level.










A small business college claims that their average class size is equal
to 35 students. This claim is being tested with alpha equal to 0.02
using the following sample of class sizes: 42, 28, 36, 47, 35, 41, 33,
30, 39, and 48. Assume class sizes are normally distributed. Which
distribution is most appropriate to perform this hypothesis test?




Student's t distribution


Normal distribution

F distribution

Chi-square distribution









A small business college claims that their average class size is equal
to 35 students. This claim is being tested with alpha equal to 0.05
using the following sample of class sizes: 42, 28, 36, 47, 35, 41, 33,
30, 39, and 48. Assume class sizes are normally distributed. What is
the test statistic and what conclusions will be drawn?




Since the test statistics equals 1.36, we reject the null hypothesis and conclude
that class size does not equal 35 students.

Since the test statistics equals 1.36, we fail to reject the null hypothesis and
conclude that class size does equal 35 students.

Since the test statistics equals 2.26, we reject the null hypothesis and conclude
that class size does not equal 35 students.

Since the test statistics equals 2.26, we fail to reject the null hypothesis and
conclude that class size does equal 35 students.









A hypothesis test is being established to test the claim that the
proportion of Republican voters in a particular city is less than 40
percent. A random sample of 175 voters was selected and found to
consist of 35 percent Republicans. What is test statistic for this
sample?




+2.70

-0.85

-1.35

-1.96










A hypothesis test is being established to test the claim that the
proportion of Republican voters in a particular city is less than 40
percent. A random sample of 175 voters was selected and found to
consist of 35 percent Republicans. What is the p-value for this sample
and what conclusions can be drawn using an alpha equal to 0.05?




Since the p-value equals 0.0312, we fail to reject the null hypothesis and
conclude that the proportion of Republicans is not less than 40 percent.


Since the p-value equals 0.0312, we reject the null hypothesis and conclude
that the proportion of Republicans is less than 40 percent.

Since the p-value equals 0.0885, we fail to reject the null hypothesis and
conclude that the proportion of Republicans is not less than 40 percent.

Since the p-value equals 0.0885, we reject the null hypothesis and conclude
that the proportion of Republicans is less than 40 percent.



If the hypothesis test fails to reject null hypothesis, we can conclude
the null hypothesis is true.



True
False








When we reject a true null hypothesis, we commit a Type I error.



True
False









The power of a test is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis
when it is true.


True
False









For a given level of significance, if the sample size is increased, the
power of the test will decrease.


True
False











If the level of significance of a test is increased, the power of the test
will increase.

True
False








The largest probability of a Type I error is the level of significance of
the test.


True
False









If a level of significance < p-value, we do not reject the null
hypothesis.


True
False









If we reject a null hypothesis at level of significance .01 we will reject
it at level of significance .05.


True
False









The critical region (or decision rule) of a test, tells us when to reject
the null hypothesis.


True
False









When testing the mean of a normal population the Z test is always
used.



True
False








When testing the proportion, a t test can be used provided the sample
size is large.


True
False









If the p-value of a two sided test for the mean of a population is .005,
then the null hypothesis will be rejected at level of significance .01.


True
False




The coefficient of determination represents the ratio of SSR to SST.



True
False








The regression sum of squares (SSR) can never be greater than the
total sum of squares (SST).


True
False









Regression analysis is used to measure the strength of the association
between two numerical variables, while correlation analysis is used
for prediction.


True
False









The t-test for the true slope
1
= 0 is identical to the t-test for the true
correlation =0.


True
False









The regression sum of squares represents the variability that is
explained by the intercept of the regression equation.


True
False











The hypothesis test for the population slope relies on the F
distribution.

True
False








In performing a regression analysis involving two numerical variables,
we are assuming the variation around the line of regression is linear
and depends on each x value.


True
False









The uniform variance assumption for the linear regression model
states that the error terms are random variables with a mean equal to
one and the same variance.


True
False









You give a pre-employment examination to your applicants. The test
is scored from 1 to 100. You have data on their sales at the end of one
year measured in dollars. You want to know if there is any linear
relationship between pre-employment examination score and sales.
An appropriate test to use is the t test on the population correlation
coefficient.



True
False









The width of the confidence interval estimate for the average value of
Y does not depend on the standard error of the estimate.


True
False





The interpretation of the slope is exactly the same in a multiple linear
regression model as compared to a simple linear regression model.



True
False








The coefficient of multiple determination for 2 explanatory variables
measures the proportion of variation in Y that is explained by X
1
and
X
2
.


True
False









Adding independent variables to the multiple regression model
increases the value of the coefficient of determination.


True
False









The adjusted R
2
will increase when variables are added to the model
which do not add explanatory power.


True
False









The standard multiple regression assumption that states the error
terms have the same variance is known as homoscedasticity.


True
False











You have just run a regression in which the value of coefficient of
multiple determination is 0.57. To determine if this indicates that the
independent variables explain a significant portion of the variation in
the dependent variable, you would perform an F-test.

True
False








From the coefficient of multiple determination, we cannot detect the
strength of the relationship between Y and any individual independent
variable.


True
False









The least squares procedure for multiple regression computes the
estimated coefficients so as to minimize the sum of the residuals.


True
False









The confidence intervals and the hypothesis tests for multiple
regression are not seriously affected by departures from normality in
the distribution of the error terms.


True
False









The F and t tests will always provide the same conclusions regarding
the hypothesis test for a single independent variable in a multiple
regression model.


True
False




Which of the following terms is not involved when time
series data are recorded annually?




Trend

Cyclical component

Irregular component

Seasonal component










The cyclical component of a time series




represents periodic fluctuations which recur within one year.

represents periodic fluctuations which usually occur in two to ten years.

is due to random variations of nature.

is obtained by adjusting for calendar variation.










We have quantity data for a set of items collected over a set of K
years. One period is selected as a base period. The
___________________ in any period is then the total cost of the
quantities traded in that period, based on the base period prices,
expressed as a percentage of the total cost of the base period
quantities.




Laspeyres quantity index

Laspeyres price index

weighted aggregate quantity index

weighted aggregate price index










A time series contains 22 observations. What is the probability that
the number of runs is less than 10?



0.0857


0.3255

0.1922

0.8078









Which of the following terms describe the up and down movements of
a time series that vary both in length and intensity?



Trend

Cyclical component

Irregular component

Seasonal component










The method of moving averages is used




to plot a series.

to exponentiate a series.

to smooth a series.

in regression analysis.










Exponential smoothing is most appropriate when the time series is




seasonal.

nonseasonal.

has no consistent upward or downward trend.

both (b) and (c)










The Holt-Winters Exponential Smoothing procedure allows for





only trend.

only seasonality.

Both a and b

None of the above









A second-order autoregressive model for average mortgage rate
is: If the average mortgage rate
in 1998 was 7.0, and in 1997 was 6.4, the forecast for 1999 is
__________.




7.4

7.8

8.2

Need more information










A second-order autoregressive model for average mortgage rate
is: If the average mortgage
rate in 1998 was 7.0, and in 1997 was 6.4, the forecast for 2000 is
__________.




7.4

7.82

8.2

Need more information









The planning/performance relationship seems to be influenced by the
planning time frame; that is, organizations seem to need at least
_____ years of systematic formal planning before seeing any impact
on performance.




two

three

four

five










_____ are an organization's objectives, and _____ are the
documented ways that organizations intend to meet those objectives.



Goals; plans

Stated goals; real goals

Standing plans; single-use plans

Specific plans; directional plans










Tasty Foods plans to increase its net profits by purchasing new
equipment that will allow it to produce its Tasty Frozen Dinners at a
lower cost. The purchase of new equipment constitutes a(n) _____.



standing plan

operational plan

directional plan

stated plan










Martha wants to improve her SAT score by 50 points. She plans to do
so by purchasing specific SAT-preparatory software and attending an
SAT-preparatory class to help her improve her score, particularly on
the math section of the test. Martha is making _____ to achieve her
goal




long-term plans

standing plans


specific plans

directional plans









The sexual harassment policy developed by the University of Arizona
that provided guidance to university administrators, faculty, and staff
as they do their jobs is an example of a _____.



standing plan

single-use plan

directional plan

short-term plan










The flexibility inherent in _____ must be weighted against the loss of
clarity provided by _____.



specific plans; directional plans

standing plans; single-use plans

directional plans; specific plans

single-use plans; standing plans










Which of the following is NOT one of the characteristics of well-
designed goals?



Goals should be written in terms of actions rather than outcomes.

Goals should be measurable and quantifiable.

Goals should be challenging but attainable.

Goals should be communicated to all organizational members who need to know
about them.









The final step of the goal-setting process is to _____.





evaluate available resources

review the organization's mission

write down the goals and communicate them to all who need to know

review the results of whether goals are being met









All of the following are contingency factors that affect planning
EXCEPT _____.



the decision-maker's level in the organization

the extent of organizational resources

the degree of environmental uncertainty

the length of future commitments










The _____ means that plans should extend far enough to meet those
commitments made when the plans were developed.



management by objective concept

traditional goal setting concept

means-ends chain concept

commitment concept










Without planning, there would be no way to control.



True
False









Planning is often considered to be the primary management function
because it establishes the basis for all the other things that managers
do.



True
False








No single goal can be used to evaluate whether an organization is
successful.


True
False









Single-use plans include policies, rules, and procedures.



True
False









When the hierarchy of organizational goals is clearly defined, it forms
an integrated means-end chain.


True
False









Goals without a time frame make an organization more flexible.



True
False









Goals should reflect desired outcomes and should be congruent with
the organizational mission and goals in other organizational areas.


True

False








Well-designed goals will be challenging and impossible to achieve
given the organization's available resources.


True
False









During periods of environmental uncertainty, managers should stop
planning and focus on responding to environmental signals.


True
False









Effective planning in dynamic environments means flattening the
organizational hierarchy as the responsibility for establishing goals
and developing plans is shoved to lower organizational levels.


True
False




Strategic
managemen
t is _____.




the decisions and actions that determine the long-run performance of an
organization

the practice of developing an organization's strategies

a strategic design for how a company intends to profit from its work
processes

a determination of whether customers will value what a company is
providing









The first step of the strategic management process is _____.




identifying the organization's current mission, goals and strategies

doing an external analysis

doing an internal analysis

formulating strategies










Which of the following is identified during the external analysis?




Capabilities

Strengths

Opportunities

Resources










The final step of the strategic management process is _____.




doing an internal analysis

formulating strategies

implementing strategies


evaluating results









Master Sofa Makers recently bought an upholstery firm, Fabulous
Fabrics, in an effort to control its inputs by becoming its own supplier.
This is an example of _____.



Concentration

vertical integration

horizontal integration

diversification










Managers might choose a _____ strategy when the industry is in a
period of rapid upheaval with external forces drastically changing and
making the future uncertain.



growth

diversification

stability

renewal










A _____ strategy is focused on how an organization will compete in
each of its businesses.



corporate

functional

business

retrenchment










When an organization is in several different businesses, these single
businesses that are independent and formulate their own strategies
are often called _____.




strategic business units

monopolistic advantages

quality controllers

stars









Organizations using Porter's _____ strategy select a market segment
in an industry and attempt to exploit it rather than serve the broad
market.



cost leadership

differentiation

stuck in the middle

focus










The key for successful managers is the ability to recognize major
external environmental changes, to quickly commit resources, and to
recognize when a strategic decision isn't working, otherwise known
as _____.




strategic flexibility

the Rule of Three

competitive advantage

strategic planning










Organizations vary in how well they perform because of differences in
their strategies and competitive abilities.


True
False









Strategic management is detrimental to organizations trying to cope
with uncertain environments.



True
False








While doing an internal analysis, managers identify opportunities and
threats for the organization.


True
False









The negative side of a strong culture is that employees rarely have a
clear understanding of what the organization is about, which makes it
more difficult to change organizational strategies.


True
False









Growth, stability, and renewal are examples of functional strategies.



True
False









When using a renewal strategy, managers cut costs and restructure
organizational operations.


True
False









After conducting a BCG analysis, those business units classified as
cash cows should be sold off or liquidated.



True
False








According to Michael Porter, the best way for a firm to succeed is by
trying to be all things to all people.


True
False









In order to be successful, low-cost leaders must sell products that are
perceived to be comparable in quality to that offered by rivals or at
least be acceptable to buyers.


True
False









Innovation strategies are focused only on radical breakthrough
products.


True
False




When managers develop or change their organizational
structure, they're engaging in _____.




work specialization

organizational design

departmentalization

formalization










The essence of _____ is that an entire work activity is not done by
one individual, but instead is broken down into tasks with each task
completed by a different person.



departmentalization

organizational design

work specialization

decentralization










Without _____, conflicting demands and priorities from multiple
bosses can create problems.



unity of command

centralization

formalization

span of control










The traditional view of management suggests that managers should
maintain a rather narrow _____.



unity of command

work specialization

centralized command


span of control









Tasty Foods Inc. is a relatively _____ organization, where lower-level
employees provide substantial input and are able to make decisions.



formal

structured

decentralized

departmentalized










Where _____ is low, job behaviors are relatively unstructured and
employees have a great deal of freedom in how they do their work.



decentralization

span of control

departmentalization

formalization










Employees in _____ require minimal formal rules and little direct
supervision.



organic organizations

mechanistic organizations

formalized organizations

departmentalized organizations










Which of the following is NOT an example of a traditional
organizational design?



Simple structure


Team structure

Functional structure

Divisional structure









The structure of a _____ allows the organization to concentrate on
what it does best by contracting out other activities to companies that
can do those activities best.



network organization

virtual organization

matrix organization

boundaryless organization










Which of the following is NOT a structural aspect of a learning
organization?



High levels of communication.

A boundaryless environment.

Low employee empowerment.

High levels of collaboration.










Chain of command, span of control, and centralization are all
necessary elements of departmentalization.


True
False









Of the common forms of departmentalization, process
departmentalization helps managers better monitor customers' needs
and respond to changes in those needs.


True

False








The obligation of employees to perform duties assigned to them by
managers is known as the chain of command.


True
False









Information technology has reduced the relevance of concepts such as
chain of command, authority, and so forth, because employees
throughout the organization can access information that used to be
available only to top managers.



True
False









The degree of formalization varies widely between organizations, but
is very consistent within organizations.


True
False









All organizations of comparable size have similar structures.



True
False









The more routine the technology, the more mechanistic the structure
can be.


True

False








The team structure is an organizational structure that assigns
specialists from different functional departments to work on one or
more projects being led by project managers.


True
False









In a project structure, the role of the manager is to eliminate or
minimize organizational obstacles and to ensure that the teams have
the resources they need to effectively and efficiently complete their
work.



True
False









The structures and strategies of organizations worldwide are similar.



True
False






Decisions regarding who will be hired or which employees
will be chosen for a training program may be made based
on which of the following factors?




Race

Age

Sex

none of the above










_____ is the process by which managers ensure that they have the
right number and kinds of capable people in the right places and at
the right times.



Human resource planning

Job analysis

Affirmative action

Diversifying










A _____ typically describes the job content, environment, and
conditions of employment, while a _____ states the minimum
qualifications that a person must possess to perform a given job
successfully.




job analysis; job description

job specification; job description

job description; job specification

job specification; job analysis










In _____, companies seek to predict which applicants will be
successful if hired.



recruitment


selection

decruitment

retention









A selection decision is correct when _____.




the applicant was predicted to be successful and proved to be successful on the
job

the applicant was predicted to be unsuccessful and would perform accordingly if
hired

both A and B

none of the above










_____ are essentially worthless as a selection tool because they tend
to be almost universally positive.



Reference checks

Verifications of application data

Assessment centers

Written essays










In _____ orientation, the employee is familiarized with the goals of
the work unit and how his or her job contributes to the unit's goals.



organizational

work sample

formal

work unit












_____ establish performance standards that are used to evaluate
employee performance.


Work unit orientation programs

Performance management systems

Compensation systems

Realistic job previews









_____, one of the most popular performance appraisal methods, lists
a set of performance factors and rates employees on each factor using
an incremental scale.



Behaviorally anchored rating scales

Multiperson comparisons

360 degree feedback

Graphic rating scales










_____ is the planned elimination of jobs in an organization.




Recruitment

Selection

Downsizing

Compensation










The quality of an organization, to a large degree, is dependent upon
the quality of the people it hires and keeps.


True
False











Future human resource needs are determined by the organization's
mission, goals, and strategies.

True
False








Employee referrals generally produce the best candidates.



True
False









Given today's HR laws and regulations, reject errors rarely cost more
than the additional screening needed to find acceptable candidates.


True
False









Work sampling is an appropriate selection device where work is
routine and standardized.


True
False









The interview is an almost universal selection device and has proved
to always be the most useful.


True
False









If, during the interview process, managers expose applicants only to
the positive characteristics of the job, they're likely to have a
workforce that is highly satisfied and loyal.



True
False








Successful orientation results in an outsider-insider transition that
makes the new member feel comfortable and fairly well adjusted,
lowers the likelihood of poor work performance, and reduces the
probability of a surprise resignation by the new employee only a week
or two into the job.



True
False









An organization's compensation system has no impact on its strategic
performance.


True
False









Studies find that downsizing is as stressful for the survivors as it is for
the victims.


True
False




Which of the following is NOT one
of the goals of organizational
behavior?




Explain why employees behave the way they do.

Influence how employees behave.

Gain insights into employees personal lives.

Predict how employees will behave.










Helping others on ones' team, volunteering for extended job activities,
and avoiding unnecessary conflicts are examples of which of the
following employee behaviors?



Organizational citizenship behavior

Absenteeism

Turnover

Job satisfaction










The _____ refers to an intention to behave in a certain way toward
someone or something.



cognitive component of an attitude

behavioral component of an attitude

affective component of an attitude

none of the above










Employees with a high level of _____ strongly identify with and really
care about the kind of work they do.



absenteeism

job dissatisfaction

cognitive dissonance


job involvement









_____ leads to lower levels of absenteeism and turnover.




Job satisfaction

Organizational commitment

Job involvement

all of the above










A(n) _____ is a unique combination of emotional, thought, and
behavioral patterns that affect how a person reacts and interacts with
others.



cognate

personality

perspective

affect










Which of the following MBTI personality types is considered to be
aware of other people and their feelings, likes harmony, needs
occasional praise, and dislikes telling people unpleasant people?



Feeling

Sensing

Perceptive

Extrovert










An individual who is high in _____ is pragmatic, maintains emotional
distance, and believes that ends can justify means.




externality

internality

self-esteem

Machiavellianism









High self monitors tend to engage in _____, which is when individuals
attempt to control the impression others form of them.



Machiavellianism

self-esteem

impression management

locus of control










Which of the following is NOT one of the five dimensions of emotional
intelligence?



Self-awareness

Self-motivation

Self-management

Self-esteem










Individuals in a group setting behave differently from individuals
acting alone.


True
False









Job satisfaction is an attitude rather than a behavior and rarely plays
a part in organizational behavior.



True
False








Satisfied employees have lower levels of turnover.



True
False









Dissatisfied customers can increase an employee's job dissatisfaction.



True
False









Individuals seek stability with a minimum of dissonance.



True
False









In the Big Five Model of personality, openness to experience relates to
the degree to which someone is good-natured, cooperative, and
trusting.


True
False









Employees who rate high on externality are generally less satisfied
with their jobs, more alienated from the work setting, and less
involved in their jobs than are those who rate high on internality.


True

False








People with high self-esteem are more susceptible to external
influence than are those with low self-esteem. High SEs are
dependent on receiving positive evaluations from others.


True
False









People respond differently to identical emotion-provoking stimuli.



True
False









The more consistent the behavior, the more the observer is inclined to
attribute it to internal causes.


True
False




During the _____ phase of group development, the group defines
its purpose, structure, and leadership.




forming

storming

norming

performing










When an individual is confronted by different role expectations, he or
she experiences _____.



internal conflict

cognitive dissonance

role conflict

storming










Because individuals want to be accepted by groups to which they
belong, they're susceptible to _____ pressures.



role conflict

conformity

norming

status










One explanation for _____ is that, because the results of the group
can't be attributed to any one person, the relationship between an
individual's input and the group's output is unclear.



status

role conflict

cognitive dissonance


social loafing









The key moderating variable in _____ is the degree to which the
group's attitude aligns with its goals or with the goals of the
organization.



group cohesiveness

social loafing

conformity

problem-solving










Which of the following is true of group decision making?




Group decision making is always majority-dominated.

Decisions made by groups are perceived as being less legitimate than decisions
made unilaterally by one person.

Groups tend to generate more diverse alternatives.

Group members share responsibility, but ultimately the responsibility of any
single member is increased.









The _____ view of group conflict holds that conflict indicates a
problem within the group and must be avoided.



traditional

interactionist

dysfunctional

functional










_____ are teams from the same department or functional area who
are involved in efforts to improve work activities or to solve specific
problems.




Cross-functional teams

Self-managed work teams

Problem-solving teams

Virtual teams









Which of the following is NOT one of the characteristics of effective
teams?



Unified commitment.

Good communication.

Ambiguous goals.

Internal and external support.










Informal connections among individuals within groups make up the
_____.



social network structure

problem-solving structure

groupthink

norms










The behavior of a group is merely the sum total of the behaviors of all
individuals in the group.


True
False









All groups follow the five-step group development process in
sequence, fully completing one step before continuing on to the next.



True
False








A group's performance potential depends on the individual resources
its members bring to the group.


True
False









Small groups are good for getting diverse input, while larger groups
are faster at completing tasks.


True
False









Generally speaking, group decision making is more time consuming
than individual decision making.


True
False









Conflict is always detrimental to the achievement of a group's goals.



True
False









The more complex the task, the more the group will benefit from
discussion among group members about alternative work methods.


True

False








Because virtual teams lack the normal give-and-take of face-to-face
discussions, virtual teams tend to be more task-oriented.


True
False









Effective teams define group members' roles and responsibilities early
on and then don't change who does what.


True
False









The importance of status varies between cultures.



True
False




According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, _____ needs are
predominantly satisfied internally.




physiological

esteem

safety

all of the above










According to _____, those factors associated with job satisfaction are
intrinsic and include things such as achievement, recognition, and
responsibility.



Maslow's hierarchy of needs

Herzberg's two-factor theory

goal-setting theory

McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y










According to McClelland's three-needs theory, people with a high
_____ are striving for personal achievement rather than for the
trappings and rewards of success.



need for affiliation

need for power

need for sympathy

need for achievement










Which of the following is true of goal-setting theory?




Specific and challenging goals are superior motivating forces.

When managers expect resistance to accepting difficult challenges, assigning
goals is always preferable to participation.

Difficult goals lead to higher performance regardless of acceptance.


People will do better if left alone, rather than being intruded upon with
feedback.








_____ involves increasing _____.




Job enrichment; job variety

Job enlargement; job depth

Job enlargement; job scope

Job enrichment; job feedback










Which of the following is NOT one of the five core dimensions used in
JCM to define a job?



Interest alignment

Skill variety

Autonomy

Feedback










Perceived fairness in the amount and allocation of rewards among
individuals is known as _____.



distributive justice

procedural justice

interpersonal justice

referent justice










The key to _____ is understanding an individual's goal and the linkage
between effort and performance, between performance and rewards,
and between rewards and individual goal satisfaction.




three-need theory

equity theory

expectancy theory

goal-setting theory









_____ seems important to almost all workers, regardless of their
national culture.



Financial reward

The desire for interesting work

Prestige

Social interaction at work










A _____ is a schedule where employees work longer hours per day
but fewer days per week.



flextime arrangement

telecommuting capability

job sharing scheme

compressed workweek










Motivation is a trait that some people have and others don't.



True
False









Theory X assumes that lower-order needs dominate individuals, and
Theory Y assumes that higher-order needs dominate.



True
False








High achievers typically make good managers because they focus on
helping others accomplish their goals rather than their own
accomplishments.


True
False









Self-generated feedback has been shown to be a more powerful
motivator than externally generated feedback.


True
False









The tasks in an enriched job allow workers to do a complete activity
with increased freedom, independence and responsibility.


True
False









Employee motivation is influenced significantly by relative rewards as
well as by absolute rewards.


True
False









In expectancy theory, instrumentality refers to the importance that
the individual places on the potential outcome or reward that can be
achieved on the job.


True

False








Managers can typically assume that motivational programs that work
in one geographic location are going to work in others.


True
False









For the most part, temporary employees are temporary by choice and,
as a result, are almost impossible to motivate.


True
False









Rewarding a behavior with recognition immediately following that
behavior is likely to encourage its repetition.


True
False








Management

Development

Leadership

Control










Based on the University of Iowa studies, group member satisfaction
was highest under a(n) _____ leadership style.



democratic

autocratic

laissez-faire

none of the above










Based on the University of Michigan studies, _____ leaders tend to
emphasize the technical or task aspect of the job and are concerned
mainly with accomplishing their group's task.



production-oriented

employee-oriented

task-oriented

relationship-oriented










Based on situational leadership theory, the _____ leadership style is
characterized by high task and high relationship dimensions.



telling

selling

participating

delegating










Based on path-goal theory, a(n) _____ leader consults with group
members and uses their suggestions before making decisions.



achievement-oriented

directive

supportive

participative










_____ leaders guide or motivate followers to work toward established
work goals by exchanging rewards for their productivity.



Transformational

Production-oriented

Transactional

Directive










Which of the following characteristics differentiates charismatic and
noncharismatic leaders?



Charismatic leaders have difficulty articulating their visions.

Charismatic leaders have a vision.

Charismatic leaders are risk-averse.

Charismatic leaders are insensitive to followers' needs.










_____ is the power to give positive benefits or rewards.




Expert power

Reward power


Legitimate power

Coercive power









_____ involves increasing the decision-making discretion of workers.




Trust

Leadership

Empowerment

Management










Which of the following is true of gender differences in leadership?




Women tend to adopt a more autocratic leadership style.

The tendency for female leaders to be more democratic than males declines
when women are in male-dominated jobs.

Women tend to use transactional leadership.

Women are more likely to discourage participation and horde power and
information.









Researchers have found that it is possible to identify one set of traits
that will always differentiate leaders from nonleaders.


True
False









Based on the Ohio State studies, a leader who rated high in both
initiating structure and consideration always yielded positive results.


True
False









Based on the Fiedler model, the three contingency dimensions that
define the key situational factors for determining leader effectiveness
are: leader-member relations, task structure, and position power.


True
False









Effective leaders can and do change their styles to meet the needs of a
particular situation.


True
False









Situational leadership theory suggests that if followers are able and
unwilling, the leader needs to use a telling style.


True
False









Path-goal theory says that employee performance and satisfaction are
likely to be positively influenced when the leader compensates for
shortcomings in either the employee or the work setting.


True
False









The role of team leader is more or less the same as the traditional
leadership role.


True
False









Trust is defined as the belief in the integrity, character, and ability of
a leader.


True
False









As organizations downsize their workforces and managers are often
left with larger spans of control, managers have to empower their
people in order to cope with increased work demands.


True
False









Follower characteristics such as experience, training, professional
orientation, or need for independence can neutralize the effect of
leadership.


True
False