SIKKIM MANIPAL UNIVERSITY - DDE

Bachelor of Business Administration BBA Semester 3

BBA 303 - Quality Management 4 Credits
(Book Id B1597)
Model Question Paper- Keys
Duration: 2 hours Total marks: 140
______________________________________________________________________________

Part A - 1 Mark questions (Questions 1 to 50) 50 * 1 mark = 50 marks
a.
1.

Which of the following are internal benefits of quality assurance?
a. Reduced unproductive time
b. Easier penetration into new markets
c. Meeting customer demand on time
d. Accepted international standard (ISO 9000 series)

2. Which of the following steps are part of quality assurance process?
a. Ensuring that a reject is not being produced
b. Choosing a unit of measure
c. Setting a goal for the control subject
d. Creating a sensor

3. Which of the following is a benefit of TQM?
a. Quantity is consistent
b. Quality level is static
c. Improved employee morale
d. Reduced financial liability

4. In which of the following phases are causes identified to account for variations in the original goals and objectives
and the actual result?
a. Plan
b. Do
c. Check
d. Act
5. Which of the following options come under Deming's 14-point methodology?
a. Cease dependence on inspection
b. Transfer the process to operations
c. Philosophy of offline quality control
d. Use of seven statistical tools for quality control

6. ________________ is a tool widely used by managers for root cause analysis.
a. Tally charts
b. Cause and Effect diagrams
c. Histograms
d. Scatter diagrams

7. Who defined strategy as "The direction planning for bringing the organisation from a given position to a desired
position in a future period of time?
a. Deming
b. Garvin
c. Glueck
d. Harold Koontz

8. On which of the following factors is a competitor's assumptions based?
a. Order fulfilment
b. Growth rate
c. Past experience with a product or service
d. Demand management

9. Who defined quality policy as "The overall intentions and direction of an organisation related to quality as formally
expressed by top management"?
a. ISO 9000:2000
b. ISO 9001:2008
c. BSl Standards
d. Glueck

10. Which of the following steps in handling customer complaints emphasis that the complaint should be assigned to
one individual for proper handling?
a. Resolve the issue
b. Acknowledge complaints
c. Identify a location to receive complaints
d. Record and process the complaints
11. Which of the following will happen, if the quality of the product and the service is reasonable?
a. Customer will stay with the organisation.
b. Customer will stay with the organisation only if there are no alternatives
c. Customer will immediately desert it.
d. Potential competitors will identify this opportunity

12. Which of the following needs, when observed by the marketer, will win over the customers?
a. Unstated needs
b. Perceived needs
c. Real needs
d. Stated needs

13. Preventive cost arises from ______.
a. Quality management
b. Quality planning
c. Quality council
d. Quality control

14. The ________ are extremely high in modern model of total quality cost compared to the traditional model.
a. Failure cost
b. Appraisal cost
c. Hidden cost
d. Prevention costs

15. Which of the following is the second part of the Juran trilogy?
a. Refinement
b. Improvement
c. Control
d. Planning
16. _______helps Six Sigma and lean Six Sigma process implementation in the organisation.
a. PDSA Cycle
b. Kaizen
c. Kick off the project
d. BPR

17. The success of ______ requires support from the top management, especially when resistance is detected.
a. Reengineering
b. Group-oriented Kaizen
c. PDSA cycle
d. Juran trilogy

18. Which of the following is the most useful measure to evaluate agricultural produce?
a. Land productivity
b. Space productivity
c. Labour productivity
d. Capital productivity

19. Which among the following stakeholders seek higher productivity for strengthening economic foundation of human
well-being?
a. Management
b. Workers
c. Customer
d. Government

20. ___________ refers to the extent of output produced by one unit of production input in a unit of time.
a. Physical productivity
b. Economic productivity
c. Total factor productivity
d. Multifactor Productivity

21. Which of the following outsourcing type refers to the practice of hiring both the services of external vendors and
internal parties?
a. Off-shoring
b. Near-shoring
c. Multi-shoring
d. Cloud-shoring
22. Which among the following method is used in vendor development?
a. Recommending vendors to other organisation
b. Providing required tools and equipments
c. Offering favourable terms of payment
d. Sharing the best practices

23. Quality is fitness for use. Which of the following ways of quality definitions is this definition categorised?
a. Product-based
b. Value-based
c. Manufacturing-based
d. Customer-based

24. A ________makes it easy to identify causes that have the greatest impact on a given outcome.
a. Check list
b. Pareto chart
c. Cause and Effect diagram
d. Scatter diagram

25. ______________________ is a graphical tool used to depict the relationship between two or more variables.
a. Scatter diagram
b. Cause and Effect diagram
c. Pareto diagram
d. Check sheet diagram

26. Which of the following types of histograms is an indication that assignable (special) cause variations are present in
the process?
a. Plateau
b. Skewed
c. Normal or bell-shaped
d. Outliers

27. Which of the following sampling methods involve random selection of samples from a given population?
a. Cluster random sampling
b. Stratified random sampling
c. Simple random sampling
d. Probability based sampling
28. Which of the following is a control chart for variables?
a. Mean chart
b. p chart
c. np chart
d. c chart

29. Which of the following indices measures the processes ability to meet two-sided specification limits?
a. Cp
b. Cpk
c. Cpu
d. Cpl

30. A _______is aimed at evaluating if the QMS of the organisation meets the requirements.
a. Product audit
b. Process audit
c. System audit
d. Adequacy audit

31. The ISO standard stresses that organisations should adopt ________________ to management.
a. Process approach
b. Factual approach
c. Systems approach
d. Continuous improvement approach

32. _______________ provides guidelines that an organisation can use to establish a QMS focused on improving
performance.
a. ISO 9001:2008
b. ISO 9001
c. ISO 9004
d. ISO 9000

33. At which stage of benchmarking, a time table should be prepared for the activities that would be scheduled
properly which ensure smooth functioning of the process?
a. Stage 3
b. Stage 4
c. Stage 1
d. Stage 2
34. _______________ identifies the best practices in companies which perform similar functions, irrespective of the
type of industry.
a. Strategic benchmarking
b. Progress benchmarking
c. Performance benchmarking
d. Process benchmarking

35. The business philosophies emphasises on the concept of _____________ to become market leaders.
a. Excellence
b. Innovation
c. Leadership
d. Customer satisfaction

36. The study of employee involvement can be better understood by understanding the _____________ patterns of
human beings.
a. Emotional
b. Functional
c. Motivational
d. Behavioural

37. ___________ is one of the finest and best ways of enhancing employee involvement.
a. Improvement system
b. Evaluation system
c. Suggestion system
d. Measuring system

38. The Rajiv Gandhi National Quality Award was established in 1991 by the _______.
a. QCI
b. CII
c. BIS
d. ASQ

39. The _______ award is presented by the President of the United States every year.
a. MBNQA
b. Rajiv Gandhi National Quality Award
c. The Deming Prize
d. EFQM
40. Deming Prize criteria has three approaches known as _______ used in the examination process.
a. View points
b. Statistical methods
c. TQM techniques
d. Management practices

41
.
The purpose of having this team is to shift the problem solving responsibility to those employees on the shop
floor who are close to the problem. Which is it?
a. Empowerment
b. Self managed work teams
c. Focus teams
d.Quality circles


42 Many quality awards provide framework and guidelines to implement ________within an organisation.
a. Empowerment
b. Employee involvement
c. Productivity
d. Quality programs

43 _______ comprise of people from other disciplines within the organisation.
a. Process Improvement teams
b. Strategic planning teams
c. Focus teams
d. Cross functional teams

44. Which of the following is also known as performance benchmarking?
a. Functional benchmarking
b. Excellent benchmarking
c. Highly efficient benchmarking
d. Operational benchmarking

45
.
Developing a participative work environment requires __________________________.
a. recruiting and retaining the talent pool
b. creating a work culture focused on human resource development
c. creating a flat organisational structure
d. frequent training


46. Which of the following sampling methods are based on selection of samples according to specific quotas set by the
project team?
a. Cluster random sampling
b. Simple random sampling
c. Convenience based sampling method
d. Quota based sampling method

47
.
Which of the following are the leadership issues that the management must pursue in developing strategies
for managing quality?
a. Conduct frequent management reviews
b. Duties of specific departments to ensure quality.
c. Outlines what the organisation wants to be in the future.
d. Ceasing dependence on mass inspection

48 ________________ refers to procurement of parts and components from suppliers.
a. Outsourcing
b. Partnering
c. Sourcing
d. Pairing

49 _________ concentrates on the most important strategic issues and provides the momentum to keep up
the progress and morale.
a. Management-oriented Kaizen
b. Group-oriented Kaizen
c. Individual-oriented Kaizen
d. Documentation of standard operating procedures

50
.
A typical process model consists of input, output, process, and ______.
a. Production process
b. Feedback loop
c. Productivity
d. Quality circles

Part B - 2 marks question (Questions 51 to 75) 25 * 2 mark = 50 marks

51.
Which among the following are external benefits of quality assurance?
1. Value for money in terms of fair pricing
2. Enhanced Reputation
3. Reduced rectification
4. Reduced warranty costs

a. Options 1 & 2
b. Options 1 & 4
c. Options 1 & 3
d. Options 2 & 3

52.
Consider the below mentioned statements:
1. The Juran trilogy is a cross-functional approach to quality management.
2. Deming laid great emphasis on managerial and leadership training.

State True or False:
a. 1-False, 2-False
b. 1-True, 2-False
c. 1-True, 2-True
d. 1-False, 2-True

53.
Which among the following are the key concepts related to manufacturing and quality performances according to
Shingo?
1. Zero quality control: source inspection
2. Loss function
3. Poka-yoke system (mistake-proofing)
4. Quality circles

a. Options 1 & 4
b. Options 1 & 2
c. Options 1 & 3
d. Options 2 & 3
54.
Which of the following options are the purposes for competitor analysis?
1. To enhance the firm's own competitive advantage.
2. To understand with whom to compete.
3. To understand competitor's assumptions.
4. To identify competitor's capabilities.

a. Options 1 & 2
b. Options 1 & 4
c. Options 1 & 3
d. Options 2 & 3

55.
Consider the below mentioned statements:
1. Customer perceptions determine the perceived quality of products.
2. Quality is determined by the customers, and not by producers of goods or services.

State True or False:
a. 1-True, 2-True
b. 1-False, 2-True
c. 1-False, 2-False
d. 1-True, 2-False

56.
The total quality cost model for a traditional quality control approach was proposed by ___________ in
____________.
a. Taguchi, 1971
b. Deming, 1965
c. Juran, 1962
d. Kaizen, 1968

57.
Which of the following is included in total quality cost curve?
1. Zone of indifference
2. Cost of probable lost sales
3. Cost of software changes due to quality reasons
4. Zone of high appraisal cost

a. Options 1 & 3
b. Options 2 & 4
c. Options 1 & 4
d. Options 3 & 4
58.
PDSA is the abbreviation for Plan, _______, Study, and ________.
a. Design, Achieve
b. Define, Act
c. Do, Act
d. Do, Accomplish

59.
Consider the below mentioned statements.
1. Production is by and large a measure of the capacity to produce goods or services.
2. Measurement programme should emphasise equal weight to quality and productivity.

State True or False:
a. 1-True, 2-True
b. 1-False, 2-True
c. 1-False, 2-False
d. 1-True, 2-False

60.
Labour-employee productivity includes ___________ and _________ components.
a. Product quality, employee job performance
b. Method study, work measurement
c. Product quality, method study
d. Work measurement, employee job performance

61.
Identify which among the following are the benefits of certification.
1. Cost efficiency
2. Marketability
3. Supplier capability assurance
4. Quality

a. Option 1 & 4
b. Option 1 & 3
c. Option 2 & 3
d. Option 2 & 4

62.
The _________ and ________ are the two commonly used control charts.
a. Mean chart, range chart
b. Mean chart, pareto chart
c. Bar chart, Gantt chart
d. Range chart, pie chart
63.
_________and ________are the statistics calculated for the pareto chart.
a. Standard deviation, mean
b. Maximum value, minimum value
c. Sum, standard deviation
d. Mean, sum

64.
Consider the below mentioned statements:
1. A given process is considered as under control if the variations lie between established control limits.
2. Natural cause variations fall outside the established control limits.

State True or False:
a. 1-False, 2-False
b. 1-True, 2-False
c. 1-True, 2-True
d. 1-False, 2-True

65.
Which among the following charts indicates the number of defects per unit?
1. p chart
2. np chart
3. c chart
4. u chart

a. Options 2 & 4
b. Options 1 & 2
c. Options 3 & 4
d. Options 1 & 3

66.
________________ are aimed at assessing to what extent the documented system is implemented and confirmed
to by the organisation. Such audit involves making _________________ of the actual implementation process and
operations, examining various documents.
a. Compliance audits, certification
b. Compliance audits, observations
c. Adequacy audits , observations
d. Adequacy audits, certification

67.
Consider the below mentioned statements:
1. The first type of audit performed in an audit process for certification purpose is the Compliance audit.
2. The audits aimed at assessing to the extent at which the documented system is implemented and confirmed to
by the organisation is Adequacy audit.

State True or False:
a. 1-True, 2- False
b. 1-False, 2-True
c. 1-False, 2-False
d. 1-True, 2-True

68.
Benchmarking encourages regular monitoring of ________ and implementing a programme of _____.
a. Feedback, continuous improvement
b. Feedback, execution
c. Progress, continuous improvement
d. Progress, execution

69.
Rewards and recognitions should be designed in such a manner that they create __________ and ____.
a. Positive motivation, results
b. Positive motivation, deliverables
c. Constant motivation, deliverables
d. Constant motivation, results

70.
Consider the following statements:
1. Applicants applying for the Baldrige Performance Excellence Program award are judged by an independent
autonomous board.
2. The board uses seven criteria in evaluating the applicants and they are commonly known as the Baldrige
Criteria for Performance Excellence.

State True or False:
a. 1-False, 2-False
b. 1-True, 2-True
c. 1-True, 2-False
d. 1-False, 2-True

71.
Consider the below mentioned statements:
1. Quality management involves activities needed to maintain a desired level of excellence.
2. Customer service refers to the ease and convenience in resolving customer complaints.

State True or False:
a. 1-True, 2-False
b. 1-False, 2-True
c. 1-False, 2-False
d. 1-True, 2-True

72.
The type of productivity used by stores and retails shops in expensive localities is _______________.
a. Land productivity
b. Space productivity
c. Labour productivity
d. Overhead productivity

73.
Productivity of a ______ system is comparable to the efficiency of a _______.
a. Management, machine
b. Management, worker
c. Production, worker
d. Production, machine

74.
Organisations which demonstrate interest in personal well-being of their employees get more ________________
and ________________ from the employees.
a. Contributions, high involvement
b. Contributions, effort
c. Solution, effort
d. Solution, high involvement

75.
Which of the following are the prime key approaches?
1. Significant investment in the relationship
2. Constant market monitoring
3. Investment in relationship with focus on short to mid-term development.
4. High investment in time, cost and resources are required to develop the relationship.

a. Option 2 & 4
b. Option 3 & 4
c. Option 1 & 4
d. Option 1 & 2



Part C 4 * 10 marks = 40 marks

Answer all the following questions

76. How is the McKinsey 7S model used for carrying out strategic planning and implementation?
Refer unit 3
77. Explain the different categories of costs of quality.
Refer unit 5
78. Write a note on control charts.
Refer unit 9
79. Discuss the Quality Management Principles.
Refer unit 11