124 Pdfsam PratiyogitaDarpan

PD/August/2014/126
General Knowledge
MADHYA PRADESH SUB-INSPECTOR EXAM., 2013
(Held on 9-3-2014)
Solved Paper
1. Mira is a
(A) Supercomputer
(B) Robot
(C) Classical dance of Rajasthan
(D) Spacecraft
2. The Indus valley people were not
familiar with
(A) Copper (B) Silver
(C) Tin (D) Iron
3. Who were the Mughals ?
(A) Afghans
(B) Arabs
(C) Mongols
(D) Chaghtai Turks
4. The Rama Krishna Mission was
founded by
(A) Dayananda Saraswati
(B) Vivekananda
(C) Keshab Chandra
(D) Hans Raj
5. What is the most significant
feature of the Indus Valley
Civilization ?
(A) Burnt Brick buildings
(B) First true arches
(C) Buildings of worship
(D) Art and architecture
6. Buddhas preachings were
mainly related to
(A) Belief in one God
(B) Practice of rituals
(C) Purity of thought and
conduct
(D) Ideal worship
7. Guru Nanak preached
(A) The Brotherhood of man
(B) About making sikhs a mili-
tant organization
(C) Sikhism as a religion
(D) The unity of sikhs
8. The remains of the Vijayanagar
empire can be found in
(A) Bijapur (B) Golconda
(C) Hampi (D) Baroda
9. The famous court poet of Akbar
was
(A) Birbal
(B) Tulsidas
(C) Bairam Khan
(D) Rahim
10. Raja Rammohan Roy was not
connected with
(A) The abolition of Sati
(B) Widow remarriage
(C) The Promotion of English
(D) Sanskrit education
11. Who was the President of the
Indian National Congress when
India became free ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) J. B. Kriplani
(D) Sardar Patel
12. The first Satyagraha campaign of
Gandhiji was started at
(A) Champaran
(B) Bardoli
(C) Dandi
(D) Baroda
13. Who gave Vallabhbhai Patel the
title of Sardar ?
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) M. K. Gandhi
(C) J. L. Nehru
(D) M. A. Jinnah
14. One Astronomical unit is the
average distance between
(A) Earth and the sun
(B) Earth and the moon
(C) Jupiter and the sun
(D) Mars and the sun
15. The velocity of winds is gover-
ned by
(A) Pressure gradient
(B) Farrels law
(C) Rotation of the earth
(D) Temperature
16. Which one of the following is a
great circle ?
(A) Tropic of cancer
(B) Tropic of capricon
(C) Equator
(D) Arctic circle
17. What is a cyclone ?
(A) A low pressure system with
clockwise winds in the Northern
hemisphere
(B) A high pressure system with
anticlockwise winds in the
Northern hemisphere
(C) A low pressure system with
anticlockwise winds in the
Northern hemisphere
(D) A high pressure system with
clockwise winds in the Northern
hemisphere
18. Snowfall occurs when
(A) Water droplets freeze as
they fall to the ground
(B) Rain drops are carried up by
updroughts in air
(C) Dew points of air is below
freezing point
(D) Air is highly moist and rises
due to convection
19. What is measured by the sling
Psychrometer ?
(A) Temperature
(B) Humidity
(C) Pressure
(D) Wind velocity
20. Hail consists of
(A) Granular ice
(B) Crystals of ice
(C) Water droplets
(D) Masses of ice with concentric
layers
21. Which region is most famous for
citrus fruits ?
(A) Deserts
(B) Monsoon regions
(C) Temperate grasslands
(D) Mediterranean regions
22. Which country is the leading
producer of Uranium ?
PD/August/2014/127
(A) Canada (B) Russia
(C) France (D) India
23. Which country is known as the
sugar bowl of the world ?
(A) India (B) Cuba
(C) Russia (D) USA
24. Trees shed their leaves in winter
season to
(A) Conserve heat
(B) Take rest after the summer
growth
(C) Conserve water
(D) Escape being eaten by
animals
25. Which one of the following is the
smallest state of India ?
(A) Nagaland (B) Tripura
(C) Sikkim (D) Meghalaya
26. Which is an area of Tropical ever
green forests ?
(A) The Western ghats
(B) The Eastern ghats
(C) The Western Himalayas
(D) Madhya Pradesh
27. Why are plants grown along
river banks ?
(A) To prevent floods
(B) To provide shade
(C) To reduce silting and erosion
(D) To control pollution
28. Where is the Bandipur National
Park ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Assam
(D) Karnataka
29. Kaziranga wildlife reserve is in
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Assam
(D) Kerala
30. Which crop requires water-
logging for its cultivation ?
(A) Tea (B) Coffee
(C) Rice (D) Mustard
31. On which river is the Nagarjun-
asagar project located ?
(A) Krishna (B) Godavari
(C) Cauvery (D) Tapi
32. Kothagudem thermal power
project is located in
(A) Bihar
(B) West Bengal
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
33. Where is Kalpakkam ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Gujarat
(D) Tamil Nadu
34. In which state is silent valley
located ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Kerala
(C) Assam
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
35. Who prepares to topographical
maps of India ?
(A) Geological survey of India
(B) Survey of India
(C) Defence Ministry
(D) Geographical survey of
India
36. The Satellite launching centre of
Indian Space Research Organiza-
tion is in
(A) Thiruvananthapuram
(B) Bengaluru
(C) Thumba
(D) Sriharikota
37. How many PIN zones has India
been divided into
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 8
38. Monoculture is a typical charac-
teristics of
(A) Shifting cultivation
(B) Subsitence farming
(C) Specialized horticulture
(D) Commercial grain farming
39. Who acted as the chairman of the
Drafting Committee of the
Constituent Assembly ?
(A) B. R. Ambedkar
(B) C. Rajagopalachari
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
40. The Election Commission is
responsible for the conduct of
Elections to
(A) The Parliament
(B) State legislatures
(C) The offices of President and
Vice-President
(D) All of the above
41. The International year of Bio-
diversity was
(A) 2006 (B) 2010
(C) 1996 (D) 1999
42. Which of the following affects
Biodiversity ?
(A) Environmental Pollution
(B) Ocean acidification
(C) Climate change
43. Carotene is found in
(A) Lemon (B) Carrot
(C) Radish (D) Turnip
44. The sweet taste of fruits is due
to
(A) Maltose (B) Ribose
(C) Lactose (D) Fructose
45. Gall bladder stones are deposits
of
(A) Calcium (B) Phosphorus
(C) Glucose (D) Cholesterol
46. ATP stands for
(A) Adenosine triphosphate
(B) Alanine triphosphate
(C) Adrenalin triphosphate
(D) Asparagine triphosphate
47. Forest fires are natural sources
of
(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Hydrocarbons
(C) Hydrogen sulphide
(D) Nitrogen dioxide
48. Which of the following contri-
butes the maximum to the green-
house effect ?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Water vapour
(C) Methane
(D) Nitrous oxide
49. The weight of a body is
1. Same everywhere on the
surface of the Earth
2. Maximum at the Poles
3. Maximum at the equator
4. Less on the hills than in the
plains
Which of the above statements
is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 3 and 4
(D) None of the above
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50. A person weighs more in a lift,
which is
(A) Moving up with a constant
velocity
(B) Moving down with a con-
stant velocity
(C) Accelerating upward
(D) Accelerating downward
51. One finds it more difficult to
walk on ice than on a concrete
road because
(A) Ice is soft and spongy where
as concrete is hard
(B) The friction between the ice
and the feet is less than that
between the concrete and the feet
(C) There is more friction on ice
than on concrete
52. A sheet of paper can be pulled
out quickly from under a glass of
water without spilling the water.
This phenomenon illustrates
(A) Lack of friction between
paper and glass
(B) Newtons third law of
motion
(C) Inertia
(D) Acceleration
53. Conservation of energy means
that
(A) Energy can be created as
well as destroyed
(B) Energy can be created, but
not destroyed
(C) Energy cannot be created,
but can be destroyed
(D) Energy can neither be
created nor destroyed
54. A person climbing a hill bends
forward in order to
(A) Avoid slipping
(B) Increase speed
(C) Reduce fatigue
(D) Increase stability
55. Atmospheric pressure is
measured with a
(A) Hydrometer
(B) Barometer
(C) Hygrometer
(D) Altimeter
56. Raindrops are spherical due to
(A) Viscosity of water
(B) Surface tension
(C) Continuous evaporation
(D) Air friction
57. A football bounces when it falls
on the ground, because
(A) It is made up of Rubber
(B) It is hollow
(C) It is very light and is able to
overcome the resistance of air
(D) Of its property of elasticity
58. A thermostat is a device for
(A) Switching off an electrical
appliance
(B) Measuring temperature
(C) Regulating temperature
(D) Producing Heat
59. The layer of the atmosphere
which reflects the radiowaves
back to the earth is called
(A) Stratosphere
(B) Tropopause
(C) Ionosphere
(D) Troposphere
60. A lunar eclipse occurs when
(A) The sun, the moon and the
earth are not in the same line
(B) The moon comes between
the sun and the earth
(C) The earth comes between
the sun and the moon
(D) The sun comes between the
earth and the moon
61. The sky appears blue, because
(A) It is actually blue
(B) The Atmosphere scatters
blue colours more than the
others
(C) All colours interfere to pro-
duce blue
(D) In white light the blue com-
ponent dominates
62. Bats can fly in the dark,
because
(A) They have better vision in
the dark
(B) The pupils of their eyes are
very big
(C) They are guided by ultra-
sonic waves produced by them
63. A device used for measuring the
depth of the sea is called
(A) Altimeter
(B) Fathometer
(C) Hydrometer
(D) Manometer
64. Which of the following devices
converts electrical energy into
mechanical energy ?
(A) Dynamo
(B) Transformer
(C) Electric motor
(D) Inductor
65. An electric bulb has a filament
made of
(A) Copper (B) Iron
(C) Lead (D) Tungsten
66. The nucleus of an atom con-
tains
(A) Protons and Neutrons
(B) Protons and Electrons
(C) Neutrons and Electrons
(D) Only Neutrons
67. Radioactivity has applications
in
(A) Medicine (B) Agriculture
(C) Industry (D) All of these
68. The age of the earth can be
estimated by
(A) Uranium dating
(B) Carbon dating
(C) Atomic clocks
(D) Biological clocks
69. Which of the following are
Einsteins discoveries ?
(A) Photoelectric affect and X-
rays
(B) Radioactivity and the theory
of relativity
(C) Photoelectric effect and the
theory of relativity
(D) Radioactivity and X-rays
70. A device used for converting a. c.
into d. c. is called
(A) Transformer
(B) Rectifier
(C) Induction coil
(D) Dynamo
71. Radioactivity is a property of
(A) Atomic nuclei
(B) Excited electrons
(C) X-rays
(D) Ultraviolet light
72. Cryogenic engines find applica-
tions in
(A) Sub-marine propulsion
(B) Frost free refrigerators
(C) Rocket technology
(D) Superconductivity
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73. Which of the following states is
the largest production of coffee
in India ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Kerala
(C) Odisha
(D) West Bengal
74. The International Rice Research
Institute is based in
(A) Australia
(B) Mexico
(C) Nigeria
(D) Philippines
75. A prokaryote is
(A) a single celled organism
(B) a hard and stony fruit
(C) an organism lacking mem-
brane bound nucleus in its cells
76. The Mammal that lays eggs is
(A) Kangaroo
(B) Duck-billed platypus
(C) Opossum
(D) Other
77. Bacteriophages
(A) A kind of soil bacteria
(B) Bacteria growing in phases
(C) Parasitic bacteria infecting
man
(D) Virus infecting bacteria
78. Lichen is a symbiotic association
between an alga and which one
of the following ?
(A) A bacterium
(B) Fungus
(C) Liverwort
(D) Fern
79. Which one of the following spices
is obtained from flower buds ?
(A) Clove (B) Cumin
(C) Nutmeg (D) Coriander
80. The term gene for the factors
controlling heredity was coined
by
(A) Gregor-Mendal
(B) Hugo de vries
(C) T. H. Morgan
(D) W. Johannsen
81. Chocolates can be bad for health
because of a high content of
(A) Cobalt (B) Nickel
(C) Zinc (D) Lead
82. The naturally occurring anti-
coagulant in the human blood
is
(A) Hirudin
(B) Heparin
(C) Fibrinogen
(D) Serotonin
83. Agronomy is a branch of Agri-
culture that deals with
(A) Breeding of crop plants
(B) Principles of field manage-
ment
(C) Principles and practice of
crop production
(D) Protection of crops from
Diseases and Pests
84. Foot and Mouth disease occurs
in
(A) Cattle
(B) Cattle and Sheep
(C) Cattle and Pigs
(D) Cattle, Sheep and Wine
85. Common salt is obtained from
seawater by the process of
(A) Sublimation
(B) Evaporation
(C) Crystallization
(D) Filtration
86. Washing soda is
(A) Sodium chloride
(B) Hydrated sodium carbonate
(C) Sodium bicarbonate
(D) Calcium carbonate
87. Lime water contains
(A) Sodium hydroxide
(B) Calcium hydroxide
(C) Sodium carbonate
(D) Calcium chloride
88. Cooking gas is a mixture of
(A) Carbonmonoxide and
carbondioxide
(B) Butane and Propane
(C) Methane and Ethylene
(D) Carbondioxide and Oxygen
89. The term pH denotes the
(A) Temperature of solution
(B) Vapour pressure of solution
(C) Acidity or Basicity of
solution
(D) Ionic strength of solution
90. DDT is the name of a chemical
that can be used as a/an
(A) Antiseptic (B) Insecticide
(C) Antibiotic (D) Fertilizer
91. Haemoglobin is
(A) The colouring matter of
leaves of plants
(B) The colouring matter of
Blood
(C) A compound present in
Milk
(D) A compound that transmits
signal to the Brain
92. The surface of a lake is frozen in
severe winter, but the water at its
bottom is still liquid. What is the
reason ?
(A) Ice is a bad conductor of
heat
(B) Since the surface of the lake
is at the same temperature as the
air, no heat is lost
(C) The density of water is
maximum at 4C
93. The Red Data Books published
by the International Union for
Conservation of nature and
Natural Resources (IUCN) con-
tains lists of
(A) Endemic plant and animal
species present in the biodiver-
sity hotspots
(B) Threatened plant and animal
species
(C) Protected sites for conserva-
tion of nature and natural
resources in various countries
94. Which one of the following
observations is not true about the
Quit India Movement of 1942 ?
(A) It was a non-violent move-
ment
(B) It was led by Mahatma
Gandhi
(C) It was a spontaneous move-
ment
(D) It did not attract the labour
class in general
95. Regular intake of fresh fruits and
vegetables is recommended in
the diet since they are a good
source of antioxidants. How do
antioxidants help a person
maintain health and promote
longevity ?
(A) They activate the enzymes
necessary for vitamin synthesis
in the body and help avoid
unnecessary wastage of energy
PD/August/2014/130
(B) They prevent excessive
oxidation of carbohydrates, fats
and proteins in the body and
help avoid unnecessary wastage
of energy
(C) They neutralise free radicals
produced in the body during
metabolism
(D) They activate certain genes
in the cells of the body and help
delay the ageing process
96. The function of heavy water in a
nuclear reactor is to
(A) Slow down the speed of
neutrons
(B) Increase the speed of
neutrons
(C) Cool down the reactor
(D) Stop the nuclear reaction
97. Under the Constitution of India
which one of the following is not
a fundamental duty ?
(A) to vote in public elections
(B) to develop the scientific
temper
(C) to safeguard public property
(D) to abide by the Constitution
and respect its ideals
98. Which one of the following is not
a site for in situ method of
conservation of flora ?
(A) Biosphere Reserve
(B) Botanical Garden
(C) National Park
(D) Wildlife Sanctuary
99. A genetically engineered form of
brinjal known as the Bt-brinjal
has been developed. The objec-
tive of this is
(A) To make it pest resistant
(B) To improve its taste and
nutritive qualities
(C) To make it drought resistant
(D) To make its shelf life longer
100. Which one of the following sets
of elements was primarily
responsible for the origin of life
on the earth ?
(A) Hydrogen, Oxygen,
Sodium
(B) Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitro-
gen
(C) Oxygen, Calcium, Phos-
phorus
(D) Carbon, Hydrogen, Potas-
sium
Answers with Hints
PD/August/2014/132
General Studies
UTTAR PRADESH LOWER SUB-ORDINATE (Pre.) EXAM., 2013
(Held on 6-4-2014)
Solved Paper
1. The Union Public Service Com-
mission submits its annual report
to
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) Home Minister
2. Which Constitutional Amend-
ment makes provision for the
reservation of seats to SCs and
STs in Lok Sabha and State
Assemblies ?
(A) 76th (B) 77th
(C) 78th (D) 79th
3. Which of the following are
covered by 73rd Amendment of
the Constitution ?
1. Zila Panchayat
2. Kshetra Panchayat
3. Gram Panchayat
4. Nagar Panchayat
Select the correct answer from
the code given below :
Codes :
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
4. Sikkim became a new State by
which one of the following
Constitutional Amendments ?
(A) 30th (B) 34th
(C) 35th (D) 36th
5. The Vice-President of India,
1. is the second highest digni-
tary of India.
2. has no formal function
attached to his office.
3. discharges the functions of
the President during his
absence.
4. acts as President, if the
President resigns or is
removed or dies.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
6. The Policy of Liberalisation,
Privatisation and Globalisation
was announced as New Eco-
nomic Policy by Prime Minister
(A) Rajeev Gandhi
(B) Vishwa Nath Pratap Singh
(C) Narsimha Rao
(D) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
7. Which part of our Constitution
envisages a three tier system of
Panchayats ?
(A) Part IX (B) Part X
(C) Part XI (D) Part XII
8. The Supreme Court of India has
propounded the doctrine of basic
structure of the Constitution in
which of the following cases ?
(A) Golaknath Vs Punjab State
(B) Sajjan Singh Vs Rajasthan
State
(C) Keshavanand Bharti Vs
Kerala State
(D) Shankari Prasad Vs Indian
Union
9. The Officers of the Parliament
include
1. Speaker, Lok Sabha
2. Dy. Speaker, Lok Sabha
3. Secretary General of Lok
Sabha
4. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Codes :
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
10. Under the Preventive Detention
Act, a person can be arrested
without trial for
(A) 1 month (B) 3 months
(C) 6 months (D) 9 months
11. Which one of the following state-
ments is not correct ?
(A) Supreme Court is the highest
court of appeal in India
(B) The number of languages
recognised as regional languages
in the Constitution of India are
18
(C) Article 35 read with Article
17 confers on the Parliament
power to make law prescribing
punishment for practising
untouchability.
(D) The Charter Act of 1813 is
termed as Magna Carta of
Indian liberties
12. Indian War of Independence
1857 was written by
(A) V.D. Savarkar
(B) R.C. Majumdar
(C) S. N. Sen
(D) S.B. Choudhari
13. Who called Bal Gangadhar Tilak
the Father of Indian Unrest ?
(A) Lord Curzon
(B) Vincent Smith
(C) Valentine Chirol
(D) Henry Cotton
14. After the formation of ministries
in the provinces in 1937, Cong-
ress rule lasted for
(A) 28 months (B) 29 months
(C) 30 months (D) 31 months
15. The system of proportional
representation as an electoral
mechanism ensures
(A) majority rule
(B) stability in Government
(C) common political thinking
(D) representation of minorities
16. Consider the following state-
ments :
1. The Gandhian Economy is
based on the principle of
trusteeship.
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2. The Uttar Pradesh Zamin-
dari Abolition and Land
Reforms Act, 1950 is
included in Ninth Schedule.
3. The 60th Constitutional
Amendment reduced the
voting age of citizens in India
from 21 years to 18 years.
4. In 1982, Shetkari Sangthan
was organised by Medha
Patekar.
Of these statements :
(A) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(B) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(C) Only 3 and 4 are correct
(D) All are correct
(A) The total number of Articles
in the Constitution of India is 395
(B) Finance Commission is con-
stituted under Article 280 of the
Constitution of India
(C) Madam Cama was the first
woman President of Indian
National Congress
(D) Politics in India is the
Pioneering Research Study of
Rajni Kothari
18. Who resigned from Viceroys
Executive Council as a protest
against Jallianwala Bagh
Massacre ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(C) Shankaran Nayar
(D) Jamnalal Bajaj
statements is not correct ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhis autobi-
ography was originally written
in Gujarati Language
(B) Saddler Commission is
associated with Education
(C) Hindu College Calcutta is
the first institution to help in
spreading English Education in
India
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai was never
elected as President of Indian
National Congress
ments :
1. The Arya Samaj was
founded in 1875.
2. Al Hilal was published by
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.
3. Lala Lajpat Rai was not
associated with the paper
The People.
4. The famous Presidency
College (former Hindu
College) of Calcutta was
established by Raja Ram
Mohan Roy.
(C) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(D) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
21. The year of Bengal Famine in
which millions of people died
is
(A) 1942 (B) 1943
(C) 1944 (D) 1945
22. On whose suggestions were the
Indians kept out of the Simon
Commission ?
(A) Lord Reading
(B) Lord Chelmsford
(C) Sir John Simon
(D) Lord Irwin
23. The propounder of Filtration
Theory in Indias education
policy was
(A) Charles Wood
(B) Macaulay
(C) J.S. Mill
(D) Cornwallis
24. Who among the following had
welcomed Vasco-da-Gama at
Calicut ?
(A) Gasper Correa
(B) Albuquerque
(C) Zamorin
(D) Don Almaida
25. Consider the following reports
connected with Muslim grievan-
ces in the Congress administered
provinces :
1. Pirpur Report 1938
2. Shareef Report 1939
3. Muslim sufferings under
Congress rule.
Select the correct chronological
order of the reports from the
code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 2, 1, 3
(C) 3, 1, 2 (D) 1, 3, 2
26. Which one of the following is
correctly matched ?
(A) Lajpat Rai
Poverty and Unbritish Rule
in India
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
Unhappy India
(C) Rafiq Zakaria
The Man Who Divided India
(D) Subhas Chandra Bose
Guilty Men of Indias Partition
27. Who among the following threw
a bomb in the Central Legislative
Assembly on April 8, 1929 to
make the deaf British Govern-
ment hear ?
1. Bhagat Singh
2. Sukhdev
3. Rajguru
4. Batukeshwar Datta
Select the answer from the code
given below :
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1 and 4
28. French East India Company was
formed during reign of
(A) Louis XIII (B) Louis XIV
(C) Louis XV (D) Louis XVI
29. The campaign for widow
remarriage in Maharashtra was
led by
(A) Vishnu Parashuram Pandit
(B) B.M. Malabari
(C) Gopal Hari Deshmukh
(D) Dadabhai Naoroji
30. Which one of the following pairs
is not correctly matched ?
(A) Lord Dalhousie
Annexation of Avadh
(B) Lord Dufferin
Establishment of Indian
National Congress
(C) Lord William Bentinck
Passing of the Charter Act, 1833
(D) Lord Lytton : Beginning of
first Anglo Afghan War
correctly matched ?
(A) The first Newspaper Publi-
shed from India
The Bengal Gazette
(B) Founder of All India Harijan
Sangh Mahatma Gandhi
PD/August/2014/134
(C) Active participants of Gadar
Movement
Hardayal, Baba Harnam
Singh and Tundilat
(D) Governor General of Bengal
at the time of passing of Pitts
India Act Lord Minto
ments
1. Asaf Ali looked after the
work of Railway Ministry in
the interim Government
(1946).
2. Ancient Monuments Preser-
vation Act was passed when
Lord Curzon was Governor
General.
3. The Haripura Session of the
Indian National Congress
was presided over by C.R.
Das.
4. Swami Shraddhanand sug-
gested no-tax campaign as a
protest against the Rowlatt
Act.
(C) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(D) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
33. D,E,F are respectively the mid
points of sides BC, CA and AB of
the triangle ABC. The ratio of the
area of DEF : ABC is
(A) 1 : 2
(B) 1 : 3
(C) 1 : 4
34. Ritu can row downstream 20 km
in 2 hours and upstream 4 km in
2 hours. The speed of the current
in km/hour is
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 8
35. There are three consecutive
positive integers such that the
sum of square of first and the
other two is 154. Then the largest
number is
(A) 8 (B) 9
(C) 10 (D) 11
36. The rain water from a roof 22 m
20 m drains into a cylindrical
vessel having base diameter 2 m
and height 35 m. If the vessel is
just full, the rainfall in cm is
( )
Given =
22
7
(A) 2.0 (B) 2.5
(C) 3.0 (D) 3.5
37. If LCM of 15, 25, 30, x is 300, the
minimum value of x is
(A) 20 (B) 12
(C) 4 (D) 1
38. The ages of 8 family members in
years are 2, 5 8, 11, 31, 35, 55, 59.
The median of the ages is
(A) 21 years (B) 31 years
(C) 11 years (D) 8 years
39. The population of a city 4 years
earlier was 83521. If the present
population of the city is 104976,
the percentage of annual growth
in the population is
(A) 3.66% (B) 4.72%
(C) 5.38% (D) 5.88%
40. In how many years 6,000 will
become 6,945.75 at the rate to
5% compound interest ?
(C) 3
1
2
years (D) 2
1
2
years
41. The purchase price of 20 horses
is equal to the sale price of 16
horses. The percentage of benefit
is
(A) 16% (B) 20%
(C) 25% (D) 30%
42. The diagonals of a quadrilateral
ABCD intersect each other at the
point O, such that
AO
OC
=
BO
OD
then the quadrilateral ABCD is
(A) a rectangle
(B) a square
(C) a parallelogram
(D) a trapezium
43. The age of a father is three times
that of his son. After 5 years the
double of fathers age will be five
times of the age of the son. The
present age of father and son is
(A) 30 years, 10 years
(B) 45 years, 15 years
(C) 36 years, 12 years
(D) 42 years, 14 years
44. 3 men or 5 women can do a work
in 12 days. How long will 6 men
and 5 women take to do the same
work ?
(A) 6 days (B) 5 days
(C) 4 days (D) 3 days
45. A fraction becomes 1/2 on
subtracting 1 from the numerator
and adding 2 to the denominator
and reduces to 1/3 on sub-
tracting 7 from the numerator
and 2 from the denominator. The
fraction is
(A) 5/6 (B) 11/14
(C) 13/20 (D) 15/26
46. The length of canvas 1.1 m wide
required to build a conical tent of
height 14 m and the floor area
346.5 sq.m is
( )
=
22
7
(A) 490 m (B) 525 m
(C) 665 m (D) 860 m
47. If (x + 1) and (x 2) are factors of
x
3
+ ax
2
bx 6, then the values
of a and b are
(A) 2 and 5 (B) 2 and 5
(C) 2 and 5 (D) 2 and 5
48. The sum of the squares of two
positive numbers is 208. If the
square of the bigger number is 18
times the smaller number, the
numbers are
(A) (10, 11)
(B) (12, 8)
(C) (108, 1)
49. If the perimeter of a certain
rectangle is 76 and its area is 360,
then what is the length of its
shortest side ?
(A) 36 (B) 20
(C) 18 (D) 12
50. According to a report published
recently by Stockholm Research
Peace International Institute, the
biggest arms importing country
in the world is
(A) China
(B) India
(C) Pakistan
(D) South Korea
51. The Chinese new year beginning
from February 10, 2013 is known
as the
(A) Year of Dragon
(B) Year of Horse
(C) Year of Ox
(D) Year of Snake
PD/August/2014/135
52. At which place India has been
placed in 2013 World Press
Freedom Index ?
(A) 125th (B) 130th
(C) 135th (D) 140th
53. Who was the winner of Wimble-
don 2013 (Mens Singles) title ?
(A) Andy Murray
(B) Juan Martin Del Potro
(C) Novak Djkovick
(D) Roger Federer
54. Who was the Captain of the
Indian Hockey Team which par-
ticipated in 22nd Sultan Azlan
Shah Hockey Tournament ?
(A) Danish Mujtaba
(B) Gurjinder Singh
(C) Kothajit Singh
(D) Rupinder Pal Singh
55. Solutions of the simultaneous
equations
5x + 7y = 21 and
3x 9y = 15
are
(A) x =
49
11
, y =
2
11
(B) x =
49
11
, y =
2
11
(C) x =
49
11
, y =
2
11
56. In Uttar Pradesh, Government
Medical Colleges are going to be
established in
(A) Bijnor and Sultanpur
(B) Buddaun and Jaunpur
(C) Bulandshahar and Hardoi
(D) Etah and Pratapgarh
57. In Uttar Pradesh I.T. City is
being established in
(A) Allahabad (B) Kanpur
(C) Lucknow (D) Varanasi
58. Who among the following was
conferred Padma Vibhushan in
2013 ?
(A) Adi B. Godrej
(B) Dr. Kanak Rele
(C) Dr. V.K. Saraswat
(D) Prof. R. Narsimha
59. At the 85th Academy Awards
function held in February 2013,
the Oscar for the best film was
won by
(A) Argo
(B) Les Miserables
(C) Life of Pi
(D) Lincoln
60. John Kerry, who has been
recently appointed the Secretary
of State of U.S.A., was just before
the appointment the
(A) Chairman of the Senate
Committee for Foreign Affairs
(B) Adviser to the President in
Defence matters
(C) U.S. Ambassador to UNO
61. The Tansaction Fee which has
been banned by a recent
Supreme Court order from being
realised from customers relates
to
(A) Sea journey
(B) Air journey
(C) Rail journey
(D) Road journey
62. Apart from the Satellite SARAL
ISRO launched six more satellite
on 25-2-2013 from Sriharikota
belonging to some other coun-
tries whose number was
(A) 6 (B) 5
(C) 4 (D) 3
63. 2015 Cricket World Cup will be
held in
(A) England
(B) Australia and New Zealand
(C) South Africa
(D) West Indies
64. Who was declared Man of the
Series in India Australia Test
Series held in FebruaryMarch
2013 ?
(A) Cheteshwar Pujara
(B) M.S. Dhoni
(C) Ravindra Jadeja
(D) R. Ashwin
65. In January 2013, Melos Zeman
has been elected President of
(A) Czech Republic
(B) Greece
(C) Serbia
(D) Slovakia
66. Which one of the following is the
Worlds newest nation ?
(A) Eritrea
(B) Ethiopia
(C) Congo
(D) South Sudan
67. Which of the following countries
is not a member of SAARC ?
(A) India (B) Pakistan
(C) Combodia (D) Nepal
68. Match the ListI with List-II and
select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists :
ListI
(a) Central Rice Research
Institute
(b) Directorate of Farming
System Research
(c) Indian Institute of Soil
Science
(d) National Centre for Agro-
Forestry Research
ListII
1. Jhansi 2. Bhopal
3. Cuttack 4. Meerut
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 2 1 3 4
covered under the Victim Com-
pensation Scheme of the Uttar
Pradesh Government notified in
February 2013 ?
1. Victims of murder
2. Victims of sexual assaults
3. War victims
4. Victims of acid attack
Codes :
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2, 3 and 4
(C) Only 1, 2 and 4
(D) All the four
70. India and France entered into a
defence deal on 14-2-2013 worth
30,000 crores to develop
jointly
(A) Surface to Air Missile
(B) Surface to Surface Missile
(C) Air to Air Missile
(D) Air to Surface Missile
missiles has been launched on
12-3-2013 from Chandipur in
Odisha ?
(A) Akash (B) Prithvi - 2
(C) Nirbhay (D) Naag
PD/August/2014/136
72. AGMARK is related with
(A) Processing
(B) Quality
(C) Packaging
73. The National Centre for Agricul-
tural Economics and Policy
Research is located at
(A) New Delhi
(B) Kolkata
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Bhopal
74. The minimum support price
fixed by Government for the
purchase of Wheat in 2013 is
(A) 1280/quintal
(B) 1300/quintal
(C) 1350/quintal
(D) 1380/quintal
75. Drawfing gene in Wheat is
(A) Norin - 10
(B) Dee-gee-woo-gen
(C) Opaque-2
76. Demand of agricultural products
is found to be
(A) Elastic
(B) Zero elastic
(C) Inelastic
(D) Infinite elastic
77. When the total product remains
constant, the marginal product
will be
(A) Zero (B) Negative
(C) Positive (D) Constant
ments is not true ?
(A) Kaushal is a variety of Rice
(B) First Agricutural University
in India was established in the
year 1960
(C) Kerala State is the highest
producer of Coconut.
(D) Highest production of pulses
is obtained from the State of
Rajasthan
79. The member of Agro-Climatic
Zones in U.P. is
(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 9 (D) 11
(A) Dr. B.P. Pal was the first
Director General of I.C.A.R.
(B) Indias rank in rice produc-
tion in the World is second
(C) Soyabean seed contains 20%
oil and 40% Protein
(D) Aman rice is sown in
March-April
ment is not correct ?
(A) The pulse crop which does
not fix nitrogen from atmosphere
is Rajma
(B) PBW-343 and DBW-17 are
varieties of wheat
(C) Khaira disease of rice can be
controlled by spraying zinc sul-
phate
(D) UP AS-120 is a variety of
gram
82. The Directorate of Plant Pro-
tection, Quarantine and Storage
is located at
(A) Ahmedabad
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Faridabad
(D) New Delhi
(A) The fibre length of cotton is
1-5 cm
(B) Boron is a micro nutrient
(C) Recommended dose of ferti-
lizer (kg/hac) for Pusa Basmati
Rice is N(120), P(60), K(60)
(D) Edible part of apple is
mesocarp
84. Which type of market is suitable
for vegetable crops ?
(A) Short term
(B) Very short term
(C) Long term
(D) Very long term
(A) Storage quality of apple is
reduced due to the deficiency of
Calcium
(B) West Bengal is the highest
vegetable producing State in
India
(C) Linseed oilseed crop can be
grown throughout the year
(D) Third generation pesticide
was first proposed by C.M.
Williams
ments :
1. Highest production of wheat
in India is obtained from the
State of U.P.
2. Cropping pattern occupying
highest area in U.P. is rice-
wheat.
3. An extension worker does
not need political compe-
tency.
4. The most critical stage of
irrigation in wheat is flower-
ing stage.
Which of these statements are
correct ?
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1, 2 and 4
(D) Only 1, 2 and 3
87. Yeast is an example of
(A) bacteria (B) fungus
(C) virus (D) algae
88. Chlorophyll contains
(A) Iron
(B) Copper
(C) Magnesium
(D) Manganese
89. The apparatus used for detecting
lie is known as
(A) Polygraph
(B) Pyrometer
(C) Gyroscope
(D) Kymograph
90. Food Poisoning (Botulism) is
caused by infection of a species
of
(A) Azotobacter
(B) Lacto bacillus
(C) Clostridium
(D) Rhizobium
91. Desert plants are generally
(A) Viviparous
(B) Succulent
(C) Herbaceous
(D) Heterophyllous
92. The virus responsible for AIDS is
an example of
(A) Adeno virus
(B) Mosaic virus
(C) T-even virus
(D) Retro virus
PD/August/2014/137
animals has three chambered
heart ?
(A) Monkey (B) Crocodile
(C) Fish (D) Frog
ments :
1. Weeping jelly is due to
excess of acid.
2. Biofertilizer most suited to
sugar cane is Rhizobium.
3. Plants grown in salt water
are called Thallophytes.
4. Dormancy breaking hor-
mone is Cytokinin.
correct ?
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 3 and 4
(D) Only 4 and 1
95. The hormone related to drought
tolerance is
(A) Abscisic acid
(B) Gibberellin
(C) Indole Acetic acid
(D) Cytokinin
96. Hekistotherms are plants grow-
ing in
(A) bright light
(B) high temperature
(C) very low temperature
(D) very low light
97. DNA Fingerprinting and Diag-
nostics Research Centre is situa-
ted at
(A) Pune
(B) New Delhi
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Kolkata
98. Which system or arrangement
connects micro computer with
telephone ?
(A) VDU
(B) MODEM
(C) UNIX
(D) All the above
99. Which one of the following fuels
causes minimum environmental
pollution ?
(A) Diesel (B) Coal
(C) Hydrogen (D) Kerosene
100. Which one of the following can
be used to measure temperature
above 1500 C ?
(A) Clinical Thermometer
(B) Thermocouple Thermometer
(C) Platinum Resistance The-
rmometer
(D) Pyrometer
101. The radio isotope used in the
detection of tumour is
(A) Arsenic 74
(B) Cobalt 60
(C) Sodium 24
(D) Carbon 14
vitamins is helpful in keeping a
dream in memory for a longer
duration ?
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin D
(C) Vitamin B-6
(D) Vitamin C
103. Sky Dive is the name of Cloud
Computing Service of which one
of the following companies ?
(A) Vodafone
(B) BSNL
(C) Micro
104. The highest temperature attained
by a super conductor is
(A) 24 K (B) 133 K
(C) 150 K (D) 300 K
105. An air bubble in water will act
like a
(A) Convex mirror
(B) Concave lens
(C) Concave mirror
(D) Convex lens
106. Which one of the following SI
units is not correctly matched ?
(A) Work Joule
(B) Force Newton
(C) Mass Kg
(D) Pressure Dyne
107. In the end of September 2012,
India has successfully launched
its heaviest communication
Satellite named
(A) OCEAN SAT (IRS P4)
(B) LANDSAT - 10
(C) GSAT - 10
(D) SPOT
108. Wherefrom was the 100th space
mission of ISRO launched in
September 2012 ?
(A) Sriharikota (Andhra
Pradesh)
(B) Mahendragiri (Tamil Nadu)
(C) Thumba (Thiruvanantha-
puram, Kerala)
(D) Bangluru (Karnataka)
109. The modern Brahmos Supersonic
Missile like technology has been
developed by India in collabo-
ration with
(A) U.S.A. (B) Russia
(C) France (D) Japan
States of India has the highest
urban density of population ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Punjab
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal
111. Which one of the following coun-
tries has the lower density of
population ?
(A) Canada (B) Finland
(C) Norway (D) Russia
112. Under the Nuclear Power
Projects, Environmental Effects
that have to be studied and
resolved are
(A) Radioactive contamination
of air, soil and water
(B) Deforestation and loss of
flora and fauna
(C) Radioactive waste disposal
113. What name has been given by
NASA to the rock on Mars which
was drilled into for the first time
by Curiosity Rover in February
2013 ?
(A) John Grotzinger
(B) John Klein
(C) Martian Rock
(D) Patrick Scheurmann
114. The recently released film Kai
Po Che is based on the novel
(A) Lashkar
(B) The Loving Doll
(C) The Story of My Marriage
(D) The 3 Mistakes of My Life
included in the Household
PD/August/2014/138
Misery Index (HMI), which
measures the impact of popula-
tion explosion on quality of life ?
(A) Pucca House
(B) Safe drinking water
(C) Low age at marriage
(D) Fuel to cook food
116. Which among the following
committees recommendations
are used for estimating the
poverty line in India ?
(A) Dutt Committee
(B) Lakdawala Committee
(C) Chelliah Committee
(D) Chakravarty Committee
117. Poverty level in India is esta-
blished on the basis of
(A) Per capita income in diffe-
rent states
(B) Household average income
(C) Household consumer expen-
diture
(D) Slum population in the
country
118. When was Forest Conservation
Act passed in India ?
(A) 1978 (B) 1979
(C) 1980 (D) 1981
119. Market is an economic tendency,
which leads to which of the
following trends ?
(A) Individualism
(B) Consumerism
(C) Holism
(D) Capitalism
120. Which one of the following does
not contribute to the rural econ-
omy ?
(A) Pastoralism
(B) Cottage industry
(C) Practice of lending personal
money
(D) Accessibility of good tools
121. In South Asia, the country with
the largest percentage of aged
population is
(A) Bhutan (B) India
(C) Nepal (D) Sri Lanka
122. A letter of credit is produced
by
(A) an exporter
(B) an importer
(C) Custom authorities
(D) Shipping company
123. The most appropriate measure of
a countrys economic growth is
(A) Gross Domestic Product
(GDP)
(B) Net Domestic Product
(C) Net National Product
(D) Per Capita Product
(A) Golden Hand Shake
Scheme relates to voluntary
retirement
(B) The real ownership of a joint
stock company remains with the
shareholders
(C) According to Human Deve-
lopment Report-2010 in India,
the mean year of schooling and
expected year of schooling
respectively is : 4.4 and 10.3
(D) In the context of Indias
Population Projection, the con-
cept Age quake is related to
Child Age Population
125. The rate of interest at which
Reserve Bank of India lends short
term funds to the Commercial
Banks is known as
(A) Repo Rate
(B) Reverse Repo Rate
(C) Prime Lending Rate (PLR)
126. Indicate the wrong pair among
the following
(A) KanpurLeather
(B) VaranasiCement
(C) MeerutSugar
(D) SaharanpurPaper
127. The twentieth Nuclear Power
Station of India is
(A) Tarapur
(B) Rawat Bhata
(C) Kaiga (Karnataka)
(D) Narora (U.P.)
ments :
1. Uttar Pradesh is not known
as a State having longest
road length in India.
2. Reserve Bank of India sanc-
tions exchange for import of
goods.
3. Urbanisation is characteri-
zed by migration of people
from rural areas to urban
areas.
4. Indus Project was the joint
project of the Labour
Departments of India and
Canada.
correct ?
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1, 2 and 4
(D) Only 1, 2 and 3
129. Which one of the following cities
of California (USA) is not located
within the Silicon Valley ?
(A) Campbell
(B) Palo Alto
(C) Santa Rosa
(D) Santa Clara
130. Match ListI with ListII and
the code given below the lists :
ListI
(a) Cocoa (b) Coffee
(c) Tea (d) Sugar Cane
ListII
1. Ivory Coast
2. Kenya
3. South Africa
4. Ghana
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 1 4 3 2
(D) 2 3 4 1
131. The longest rock tunnel of the
world is located is
(A) Finland (B) Greenland
(C) Japan (D) Sweden
132. Which of the following regions is
the original habitat of Toda
Tribe ?
(A) Jaunsar Hills
(B) Garo Hills
(C) Niligiri Hills
(D) Jaintia Hills
(A) The country which does not
belong to group of BALKANS is
Bosnia
(B) North eastern part of
Australia is not affected by
Mediterranean climate
PD/August/2014/139
(C) The Nova Scotia Coal field
lies in Kazakhistan
(D) At present China is the
country in the world which is the
largest producer of cotton
temperate grass land ?
(A) Savanna (B) Pampas
(C) Veld (D) Downs
135. The largest proven oil reserve of
the world lies in
(A) Venezuela
(B) Saudi Arabia
(C) Iran
(D) Iraq
136. India has been divided into how
many Seismic Risk Zones ?
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 4 (D) 7
137. Which one of the following pairs
is not correctly matched ?
(A) Nangal Dam Sutlej river
(B) Sardar Sarovar
Narmada river
(C) Nagarjun Sagar
Godavari river
(D) Hirakud Dam Mahanadi
Aluminium Companies has been
given Navaratna Status by the
Government of India ?
(A) NALCO
(B) BALCO
(C) HINDALCO
(D) MALCO
ListI
(Tribe)
(a) Bhotia (b) Toda
(c) Sentenel (d) Birhor
ListII
(Region)
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Jharkhand
3. Sikkim
4. Andaman Nicobar Islands
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 2 1 3
correctly matched ?
(A) Lipulekh Uttarakhand
(B) Nathula
Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Rohtang
Himachal Pradesh
(D) Palaghat Kerala
141. Which of the following longitude
is known as Standard Meridian
in India ?
(A) 87 30 E (B) 85 30 E
(C) 84 30 E (D) 82 30 E
statements is not correct ?
(A) Bihar State is the highest
producer of lac in India
(B) Planning Commission has
divided India into Agro Climatic
Regions
(C) Kunchikal waterfall is
located in Karnataka State of
India
(D) Andhra Pradesh is the
largest producer of rice in India
ListI
(National Park)
(a) Kaziranga
(b) Kudremukh
(c) Silent Valley
(d) Pench Valley
ListII
(Location)
1. Chikmagalur
2. Palghat
3. Nagpur
4. Golaghat-Nawgaon
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 1 3 4 2
ListI
(Feature)
(a) Most urbanised State
(b) State having largest urban
population
(c) Most densely populated
State
(d) Least densely populated
State
ListII
(State)
1. Delhi
2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Tamil Nadu
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 4 3 1 2
145. Which one of the following eco
regions of India is not correctly
matched ?
(A) South Western Ghats
Moist forests
(B) Tarai Duar
Broad leaf forests
(C) Rann of Kutch Grasslands
(D) Eastern Deccan Plateau
Moist forests
a Directive Principle of State
Policy ?
(A) Prohibition of the consump-
tion of intoxicating drinks
(B) Prohibiting the slaughter of
cows and calves
(C) Protection and improvement
of environment
(D) Free education for the child-
ren up to age of 16 years
(A) K.M. Munshi was one of the
members of the drafting com-
mittee of the Constitution
(B) The Constitution of India
was adopted by the Constituent
Assembly
(C) The Panchayati Raj was
recommended by Balwant Rai
Mehta Committee Report 1957
(D) The President of India is the
guardian of Fundamental Rights
under the Constitution
PD/August/2014/140
ListI
(Centre)
(a) Kankinara
(b) Virudhnagar
(c) Channapatna
(d) Bhadohi
ListII
(Industry)
1. Carpet
2. Jute
3. Cotton Textile
4. Silk
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 3 2 1 4
149. The objective to Indian Consitu-
tion is reflected in which of the
following ?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Preamble of the Constitution
(C) Directive Principles of State
Policy
(D) Parliament
a Fundamental Right ?
(A) Right to Equality
(B) Right Against Exploitation
(C) Right to Property
(D) Right to Freedom of Religion
Answers with Hints
PD/August/2014/144
General Awareness
S.S.C. COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL (Second Shift) Re-EXAM., 2013
(Held on 27-4-2014)
Solved Paper
1. Which one of the following com-
mittees examined and suggested
financial sector reforms in India ?
(A) Bhagawati Committee
(B) Abid Hussain Committee
(C) Narsimham Committee
(D) Chelliah Committee
2. Liberalisation, Privatisation and
Globalisation are the aims of
(A) Economic Planning
(B) Socialistic pattern of society
(C) Land Reforms
(D) Economic Reforms
3. The face value of money is more
than the intrinsic value for
(A) Bank money
(B) Optional money
(C) Token money
(D) Subsidiary money
4. Price rigidity is the feature of
(A) Perfect competitive competi-
tion
(B) Monopoly
(C) Oligopoly
(D) Monopolistic competition
5. Fascism believes in
(A) Dignity of Individual
(B) Propaganda
(C) Socialism
(D) Force
6. The principle of Kinship is the
basis for one of the following
theories of origin of the state
(A) Social contract theory
(B) Evolutionary theory
(C) Force theory
(D) Divine origin theory
7. Equilibrium of the monopolistic
firm
(A) necessarily is profitable
(B) occurs where P = MC
(C) occurs where MR = MC
(D) occurs where P = MR
8. A person can move the
Supreme Court by appropriate
proceedings for the enforcement
of the Fundamental Rights if
violated. This is a provision
in
(A) Right to Equality
(B) Right to Constitutional Re-
medies
(C) Right against Exploitation
(D) Right to Religious Freedom
9. The Indian Constitution has been
divided into
(A) 16 Chapters
(B) 24 Chapters
(C) 25 Chapters
(D) 22 Chapters
10. The Supreme Court was esta-
blished in Calcutta in
(A) 1771
(B) 1774
(C) 1775
11. The earliest extant Buddhist
Stupa comes from
(A) Sandhi
(B) Sarnath
(C) Bodh Gaya
(D) Amaravathi
12. The Congress split into moder-
ates and extremist in
(A) 1906 (B) 1905
(C) 1907 (D) 1908
13. The ruins of Harappa were first
noticed by
(A) Charles Mason
(B) Dr. Sahni
(C) M. Wheeler
(D) M.S. Vats
14. Who among the following made
the statement that Swarajya is
my birth right ?
(A) Swami Vivekanand
(B) Raja Rammohan Roy
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Swami Dayanand
15. Monistic theory of sovereignty is
stated by
(A) Aristotle
(B) Bodin
(C) Austin
16. In spite of being located at lower
latitude than Amritsar, Shimla
colder because
(A) in Shimla it snows heavily
(B) in Shimla air pressure is
higher
(C) it is at a higher altitude
(D) Shimla receives heavy rain-
fall
17. Border roads are built solely with
the purpose of maintaining
(A) trade ties with neighbouring
countries
(B) tourism
(C) security of the country
(D) religious ties with other
countries
18. The recently commissioned
Nhava Shiva port is situated in
the state of
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Gujarat
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Tamil Nadu
19. The word CNG in the transport
network system stands for
(A) Chlorine Natural Gas
(B) Commercial Natural Gas
(C) Compressed Natural Gas
(D) Condensed Natural Gas
20. The author of Philosophic Zoo-
logique is
(A) Lamarck (B) Darwin
(C) Aristotle (D) Morgan
PD/August/2014/145
both a local anesthetic as well as
a stimulant ?
(A) Cocaine (B) Alcohol
(C) Heroin (D) Quinine
22. The other name for phloem is
(A) Wood (B) Sclereid
(C) Fibre (D) Bast
23. Triticum aestivum, the common
bread wheat is
(A) Tetraploid (B) Hexaploid
(C) Haploid (D) Diploid
24. Branch of Biology deals with
extinct organisms
(A) Palynology
(B) Phylogeny
(C) Palaeobotany
(D) Palaeontology
25. The first postage stamp was
issued in
(A) Varanasi
(B) Karachi
(C) Allahabad
(D) Mumbai
26. The least distance of distinct
vision is
(A) 35 cm (B) 25 cm
(C) 45 cm (D) 15 cm
27. In photoelectric emission, the
energy of emitted electron is
(A) same as that of incident
photon
(B) larger than that of incident
photon
(C) less than that of incident
photon
(D) proportional to the intensity
of incident light
28. Angular momentum is equal
to
(A) moment of inertia angular
velocity
(B) mass angular velocity
(C) linear velocity angular
velocity
(D) mass linear velocity
29. Superconductivity means
(A) very feeble current
(B) very large current
(C) current without facing any
resistance
(D) current due to positive
particles
30. Which of the following commu-
nication modes support two-
ways traffic, but in only one
direction at a time ?
(A) Simplex
(B) Half-duplex
(C) Full-duplex
(D) Three-quarter duplex
31. WINDOWS-98 is basically
(A) a high level language
(B) an operating system
(C) an input device
(D) a machine language
32. A compound used in medicine as
a pain killer is
(A) Urotropine
(B) Chloroform
(C) Aspirin
(D) Ethyl alcohol
33. What could be the function
attributed to the transfusion
tissue found in Cycas leaflets ?
(A) Mechanical
(B) Conduction
(C) Storage
(D) Photosynthesis
34. Essential oils contain
(A) Alkaloids (B) Terpenoids
(C) Porpoise (D) Steroids
35. The percentage of carbon in steel
is
(A) 3 to 5 (B) 01 to 025
(C) 05 to 15 (D) 6 to 8
36. CEPI stands for
(A) Comprehensive Environ-
mental Pollution Index
(B) Council of Environmental
Pollution of India
(C) Centre of Environmental
Pollution Indiana
(D) Centre of Environmental
Pollution and Industries
37. The snow leopard population in
India is not found in
(A) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Western Ghats
38. Which tree is referred to as
Subabul
(A) Prosopis juliflora
(B) Leucaena leucocephala
(C) Albizzia lebbeck
(D) Pithecolobium saman
39. Which is not a component of to
qualify the Green Embassy ?
(A) Rain water harvesting
system
(B) Installation of solar panels
on the roof
(C) Installation of air treatment
filter in the office ventilation
system
(D) Daily disposal of garbage
generated in the embassy
40. Which of the following is not a
national holiday ?
(A) 2nd October
(B) 15th August
(C) 26th January
(D) 25th December
41. Where do the sunrays leave
India ?
(A) Gujarat (B) Pondicherry
(C) Goa (D) Andaman
42. Which of the following react to
produce urea ?
(A) Ammonium Chloride + Cal-
cium sulphate
(B) Carbon dioxide + Ammonia
(C) Acetic acid+ Ammonia
(D) Methane + Carbon Mono-
xide
43. A woman who rents her womb
to produce a child for others is
known as
(A) Biological mother
(B) Step mother
(C) Surrogate mother
(D) Foster mother
44. The Silkworm Research and
Training Institution under the
Central Silk Broad in India are
administered by the Union
Ministry of
(A) Forest and Tribal Welfare
(B) Forest and Environment
(C) Agricultural and Rural
Development
(D) Commerce and Textile
45. Which Economist was awarded
Nobel Prize for economics in the
year 1998 for his studies on
poverty and famine ?
PD/August/2014/146
(A) Prof. Robert Mondell
(B) Gary S. Becker
(C) Amartya Sen
(D) Manmohan Singh
46. The credit of construction of first
nuclear reactor goes to
(A) Niels Bohr
(B) Fermi
(C) Einstein
(D) Oppenheimer
47. Which of the following is a
commercial crop ?
(A) Cotton (B) Bajra
(C) Jowar (D) Paddy
48. Name the story written by
Rabindranath Tagore ?
(A) Unto the Last
(B) Al-Balagh
(C) Akash
(D) Kabuliwallah
49. Which of the following is not
correct ?
(A) MSPMinimum Support
Price
(B) NGTNational Green
Tribunal
(C) BSFBorder Security Force
(D) PILPublic Introduced
Litigation
50. Bhangra is a popular folk dance
of
(A) Haryana (B) Chandigarh
(C) Punjab (D) Gujarat
Answers with Hints
PD/August/2014/148
General Studies
FORTHCOMING CIVIL SERVICES (Pre.) EXAM., 2014
Paper-II
Solved Model Paper
Directions(Q. 1 and 2) Read the
following passage and answer the
two items that follow. Your answers
to these items should be based on the
passage only.
Passage
The assault on the purity of the
environment is the price that we pay
for many of the benefits of modern
technology. For the advantages of
automotive transportation we pay a
price in smog-induced diseases; for
the powerful effects of new insecti-
cides, we pay a price in dwindling
wildlife and disturbances in the rela-
tion of living things and their surro-
undings; for nuclear power, we risk
the biological hazards of radiation. By
increasing agricultural production
with fertilizers, we increase water
pollution.
The highly developed nations of
the world are not only the immediate
beneficiaries of the good that techno-
logy can do, they are also the first
victims of the environmental diseases
that technology breeds. In the past,
the environmental effects which
accompanied technological progress
were restricted to a small place and
relatively a short time. The new
hazards are neither local nor brief.
Modern air pollution covers vast
areas of continents. Radioactive fall-
out from nuclear explosions is world-
wide. Radioactive pollutants now on
the Earths surface will be found
there for generations, and in the case
of Carbon-14, for thousands of years.
1. The passage emphasizes that
modern technology
(A) is totally avoidable
(B) has caused serious hazards
to life
(C) has greater effect on develo-
ped countries
(D) is the source of the miseries
of mankind
2. With reference to the passage,
the following assumptions have
been made
1. The widespread use of insec-
ticides has caused ecological
imbalance.
2. Conservation of natural flora
and fauna is impossible inthis
age of modern technology.
Which of the assumptions is/are
valid ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Cost of a laptop is equal to the
total cost of two mobile phones
and three hard disks. Cost of one
hard disk is equal to the cost of
three pen drives. Cost of one
mobile phone is twice the cost of
one hard disk. Cost of one pen
drive is 725. What is the cost of
the laptop ?
(A) 15,425 (B) 15,225
(C) 16,255 (D) 16,425
4. The average speed of a bus is 55
km/hr. How much distance will
a car cover in eight hours if the
average speed of the car is 26 per
cent more than the average speed
of the bus ?
(A) 5684 km (B) 5636 km
(C) 5486 km (D) 5544 km
5. The simple interest accrued on a
certain principal at a rate of 9%
p.c.p.a. in 5 years is 14,400.
What would be the compound
interest accrued on the same
principal in 2 years at the rate of
4 p.c.p.a.
(A) 2,61460 (B) 2,64160
(C) 2,61120 (D) 2,62420
6. A student scored a total of 1250
marks in three subjects together
which comprises 22 per cent of
Hindi, 44 per cent of Maths and
remaining marks of Science.
What is the difference between
the marks obtained in Hindi and
Science ?
(A) 140 (B) 150
(C) 180 (D) 190
7. A man crosses a stationary train
A of 720 metres in 8 minutes. A
woman crosses another statio-
nary trainB in 2 minutes and 30
seconds. If the respective ratio
between the speed of the man
and the woman is 15 : 16. What is
the length of trainB ?
(A) 260 metre (B) 360 metre
(C) 340 metre (D) 240 metre
8. Three-fourth the circumference
of a circle is equal to the length of
the rectangle. Also, breadth of the
rectangle is two-third the radius
of the circle. If the circumference
of the circle is 264 cm. What is
the area of the rectangle ?
(A) 4654 sq cm
(B) 4488 sq cm
(C) 5654 sq cm
(D) 5544 sq cm
9. Amit runs 625 metre every day
except on Sunday where he runs
830 metre. How many kilometre
of distance will he run in 4
weeks ?
(Assuming week begins from
Monday)
(A) 1824 km (B) 1645 km
(C) 1832 km (D) 1824 km
Directions(Q. 1016) Read the
following two passage and answer
the items that follow each passage.
Your answers to these items should
be based on the passage only.
Passage 1
Economists, ethicists and busi-
ness sages persuade us that honesty
is the best policy, but their evidence is
weak. We hoped to find data that
would support their theories and
PD/August/2014/149
thus, perhaps encourage higher stan-
dards of business behaviour. To our
surprise, our pet theories failed to
stand up. Treachery, we found, can
pay. There is no compelling economic
reason to tell the truth or keep ones
wordpunishment for the treache-
rous in the real world is neither swift
nor sure.
Honesty i s, in fact, primarily
moral choice. Besides people do tell
themselves that, in the long run, they
will do well by doing good. But there
is little factual or logical basis for this
conviction. Without values, without a
basic preference for right over wrong,
trust based on such self-delusion
would crumble in the face of tempta-
tion. Most of us choose virtue because
we want to believe in ourselves and
have others respect and belief in us.
10. What, according to the given
passage, do economists, ethicists
and business sages persuade us
to believe ?
(A) Honesty is the weakest
policy
(B) Honesty is the best policy
(C) Honesty is not the best
policy
(D) Honesty is the policy of
weak people
11. Honesty, according to the author,
is a
(A) misleading choice
(B) painful choice
(C) moral choice
(D) tricky choice
12. Which of the following word(s)
is nearer the meaning of per-
suade, as given in the passage ?
(A) Give assurance
(B) Try to convince
(C) Give opinion
(D) Deceive
13. Why should we be happy in the
present situation ?
(A) Because people are self-
respecting
(B) Because people are unsel-
fish
(C) Because people are fashion-
able
(D) Because people are honest
without compulsion
14. Which of the following is false,
according to the given passage ?
(A) Economists and ethicists
believe that all businessmen are
dishonest
(B) Dishonest men are not
caught
(C) Businessmans behaviour
earns respect from others
(D) People are honest to become
politicians
Passage 2
To what extent, though, are mod-
ern farming methods sustainable ?
There is abundant evidence that a
high price has to be paid to sustain
the high rates of food production
achieved by farmed monocultures.
For example, they offer ideal condi-
tions for the epidemic spread of
diseases such as mastitis, brucellosis
and swine fever among livestock and
coccidiosis among poultry. Farmed
animals are normally kept at densities
far higher than their species would
meet in nature with the result that
disease transmission rates are magni-
fied. In addition, high rates of trans-
mission between herds occur as
animals are sold from one farming
enterprise to another, and it is easy
for the farmers themselves, with mud
on their boots and their vehicles, to
act as vectors of pests and disease.
15. With reference to the passage,
consider the following state-
ments
1. The modern practices of
farming are undesirable for
developing countries.
2. Monoculture practices should
be given up to eliminate dise-
ase transmission in animals.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
16. What is the essence of this pass-
age ?
(A) Farming is a very costly
affair.
(B) Farmed animals are kept at
higher densities in monocultures.
(C) There is a widespread trans-
mission of animals diseases
nowadays.
(D) Human dependence on
monoculture is fragile.
17. Find the missing figure of the
series from the given responses :
Question figures :
?
Answer figures :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions(Q. 18 and 19) A
piece of paper is folded and cut as
shown below in the question figures.
From the given answer figures, indi-
cate how it will appear when opened ?
18. Question figures :
Answer figures :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
19. Question figures :
Answer figures :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
20. The area of the sector-segment
AOB of a circle whose radius is 6
cm and the angle at the centre is
35 is
O
A B
35
(A) 12 cm
2
(B) 10 cm
2
(C) 125 cm
2
(D) 11 cm
2
21. A word is represented by only
one set of numbers as given in
any one of the alternatives. The
sets of numbers given in the
alternatives are represented by
two classes of alphabets as in two
matrices given below. The colu-
mns and rows of Matrix I are
numbered from 0 to 4 and that of
Matrix II are numbered from 5 to
9. A letter from these matrices
can be represented first by its
PD/August/2014/150
row and next by its column, e.g.,
A can be represented by 00, 12,
24, etc., and L can be represen-
ted by 56, 69, 98, etc. Identify the
set for the word TIER.
Matrix I Matrix II
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 A E M N P 5 I L R S T
1 N P A E M 6 R S T I L
2 E M N P A 7 T I L R S
3 P A E M N 8 L R S T I
4 M N P A E 9 S T I L R
(A) 59, 68, 23, 78
(B) 67, 55, 10, 65
(C) 66, 76, 32, 75
(D) 96, 68, 20, 57
22. The following tables show the
expenditure (in percentage) of
two families A and B
Miscellaneous
Miscellaneous
Entertainment
Entertainment
Food
(Monthly income
20,000)
Food
20%
30%
50%
(Monthly income
1,00,000)
Family A Family B
20%
70%
10%
Which one among the following
statements is true ?
(A) Family A spends as much
on miscellaneous as family B
spends on entertainment
(B) The food expense of family
B is equal to the total expense of
family A
(C) Families A and B spend
equally on food
(D) Families A and B spend
equally on entertainment
23. Which one among the following
boxes is similar to the box formed
F
E A
B
(x)
C D
from the given sheet of paper
(X) ?
(A)
F
E B (B)
F
D E
(C)
E
C B (D)
D
A E
23. A group of alphabets are given
with each being assigned a num-
ber. These have to be unscramb-
led into a meaningful word and
correct order of letters may be
indicated from the given respon-
ses.
E R D I S P
1 2 3 4 5 6
(A) 6, 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
(B) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 1
(C) 5, 6, 4, 3, 1, 2
(D) 5, 4, 6, 1, 2, 3
Directions(Q. 25 and 26) The
following Pie Chart shows the export
of different foodgrains from India in
2010. Study the chart and answer the
questions :
A
B
C
D
E
F
Others
72
72
36
18
18
45
99
25. Of the total export of foodgrains,
the percentage of crop B expor-
ted is
(A) 15 (B) 20
(C) 18 (D) 10
26. The three crops which combine to
contribute to exactly 50% of the
total export of foodgrains are
(A) A, F and others
(B) B, C and F
(C) A, B and C
(D) C, F and others
Directions(Q. 2729) The fol-
lowing bar diagram analyses the sale
of a company from 2000 to 2005. Exa-
mine the diagram and answer the
questions :
2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005
450
440
430
420
410
400
390
380
370
360
350
340
330
320
310
300
S
a
l
e
s

i
n

t
h
o
u
s
a
n
d
s

o
f

R
u
p
e
e
s
Y
X
27. In which year did the sales show
the least decrease to that of the
preceding year ?
(A) 2004 (B) 2001
(C) 2003 (D) 2005
28. The sales in 2001 are how many
times those of 2002 ?
(A) 8 times (B) 08 times
(C) 25 times (D) 3 times
29. In which year did the sales show
the least per cent increase to that
of the preceding year ?
(A) 2000 (B) 2002
(C) 2003 (D) 2004
30. Fill in the correct option
0
4
1
8 2 0
4
16
8 2 ?
0
3
12
6 24
(A)
0
16
4
32 8
(B)
0
4
16
8 32
(C)
0
8
32
4 16
(D)
0
32
8
4 16
following four passages and answer
the items that follow each passage.
Your answers to these items should
be based on the passages only.
Passage 1
Violence has played a great part
in the worlds history. It is today
playing an equally important part
and probably it will continue to do so
for a considerable time. It is impossi-
ble to ignore the importance of viol-
ence in the past and present. To do so
is to ignore life. Yet violence is undou-
btedly bad and brings an unending
trail of evil consequences with it. And
worse even than violence are the
motives of hatred, cruelty, revenge
and punishment which very often
accompany violence. Indeed, violence
is bad, not intrinsically, but because
of these motives that go with it. There
can be violence without these motives,
there can be violence for a good
object as well as for an evil object. But
it is extremely difficult to separate
violence from these motives, and
therefore, it is desirable to avoid
violence as far as possible. In avoid-
ing it, however one cannot accept a
negative attitude of submitting to and
PD/August/2014/151
far greater evils. Submission to vio-
lence or the avoidence of an unjust
regime based on violence is the very
deceptive of the spirit of non-
violence. The non-violent method in
order justify itself, must be dynamic
and capable of changing such a
regime of social order.
31. Which of the following statements
is incorrect ?
(A) Only violence can be used
against violence
(B) Violence is not inherently
evil
(C) Violence is a historically
accepted fact
(D) Violence cannot be ignored
32. Indeed, violence is bad, not
intrinsically, but because of these
motives that go with it. This
suggests
(A) Violence is basically good
(B) Violence is bad only when it
is associated with certain motives
(C) Violence is bad because the
people who exercise it are bad
(D) Violence is basically bad
Passage 2
In our approach to life, be it
pragmatic or otherwise, a basic fact
that confronts us squarely and unmi-
stakably is the desire for peace, secu-
rity and happiness. Different forms of
life at different levels of existence
make up the teeming denizens of this
earth of ours. And, no matter whether
they belong to the higher groups such
as human beings or to the lower
groups such as animals, all beings
primarily seek peace, comfort and
security. Life is as dear to a mute
creature as it is to a man. Even the
lowliest insect strives for protection
against dangers that threaten its life.
Just as each one of us wants to live
and not to die, so do all other crea-
tures.
33. The authors main point is that
(A) different forms of life are
found on earth
(B) different levels of existence
are possible in nature
(C) peace and security are the
chief goals, of all living beings
(D) even the weakest creature
struggles to preserve its life
34. Which one of the following assu-
mptions or steps is essential in
developing the authors posi-
tion ?
(A) All forms of life have a
single overriding goal
(B) The will to survive of a crea-
ture is identified with a desire for
peace
(C) All beings are divided into
higher and lower groups
(D) A parallel is drawn between
happiness and life and pain and
death
Passage 3
The sky was already full of
rusting wings. But when Jean stepped
into the still lusterless water, he
seemed to be swimming in an inde-
terminate darkness until be saw the
streaks of red and gold over the hori-
zon. Then he suddenly swam back to
land and clambered up the winding
path to his house. After a great deal
of panting he reached a little gate,
pushed it open and climbed a
stairway. The house above the world
had its huge by-windows through
which one could see the horizon from
one edge to the other. Here, no one
complained of exhaustion. Every one
had his joy to conquer, every day.
35. Which of the following is/are
indicated by the description in
the passage ?
1. Time before sunrise
2. Time after sunset
3. Clouds
4. Birds
Select the correct answer using
the code given below
(A) 2 and 3 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1 and 4 only
36. What do the words great deal of
panting imply ?
1. Jean was too weak to walk.
2. Jeans house was on a hill.
3. Jean was too tired to walk
after swimming.
4. Jeans house was too far away
from the shore.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 4
Passage 4
A village must have some trade;
and this village has always been full
of virility and power. Obscure and
happy, its splendid energies had
found employment in wresting a
livelihood out of the earth, whence
had come a certain dignity, and kind-
liness, and love for other men. Civili-
zation did not relax these energies,
but it had diverted them; and all the
special qualities, which might have
helped to heal the world, had been
destroyed. The family affection, the
affection for the commune, the sane
pastoral virtues all had perished. No
villain had done this thing : it was the
work of ladies and gentlemen who
were rich and often clever.
37. Village life is praised by the
author because it
(A) helps villagers to achieve
material prosperity
(B) makes men complacent
(C) breeds humane virtues
(D) is free from the din and
hurry of city life
38. Civilization mainly destroys
(A) the ability to create employ-
ment
(B) family affection and pastoral
virtues
(C) medical facilities for the
rural people
(D) agricultural trade
39. The tone used by the author in
the last sentence of the passage
is
(A) Lamenting
(B) Sarcastic
(C) Complimentary
(D) Ironic
40. Four years ago the ratio between
the ages of Suresh and Deena
was 5 : 3 respectively. The ratio
between their present ages is
11 : 7 respectively. What will be
Deenas age 3 years hence ?
(C) 33 years (D) 31 years
Directions(Q. 4145) Study the
information given below and answer
these questions
(i) P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are
sitting along a circle facing
the center.
PD/August/2014/152
(ii) P is between V and S.
(iii) R, who is 2nd to the right of
S, is between Q and U.
(iv) Q is not the neighbour of T.
41. Which of the following is correct
statement ?
(A) V is between P and S
(B) S is 2nd to the left of V
(C) R is third to the left of P
(D) P is to the immediate left of S
(E) None of the above
42. What is the position of T ?
(A) Between R and V
(B) To the immediate left of V
(C) 2nd to the left of R
(D) 2nd to the right of P
43. Who is between R and U ?
(A) Cannot be determined
(B) S
(C) V
(D) Q
44. Which of the following is wrong
statement ?
(A) R is to the immediate right
of U.
(B) Q is to the immediate left of
R
(C) T is third to the right of Q
(D) U is 2nd to the left of T
(E) (A) and (D)
45. Which of the following pairs has
2nd member sitting to the imme-
diate right of the first member ?
(A) QS (B) PV
(C) RU (D) VT
(E) None of these
following information to answer these
questions
Five friends P, Q, R, S and T are
studying in a college. Q and T are
good at Geography and Economics. P
and Q are good at Economics and
Physics. P, S and R are good at
Physics and Chemistry. R and P are
good at Physics and Mathematics. S
and T are good at Chemistry and
Geography.
46. Who is good at Physics, Chemis-
try and Geography ?
(A) P (B) Q
(C) S (D) T
47. Who is good at Physics, Chemis-
try and Mathematics but not in
Economics ?
(A) P (B) Q
(C) R (D) S
48. Who is good at Chemistry, Phy-
sics, Mathematics and Econo-
mics ?
(A) Q (B) P
(C) R (D) S
following information to answer these
questions
P and Q are good at Volleyball
and Hockey. R and P are good at
Baseball and Hockey. S and Q are
good at Volleyball and Cricket. R, S
and T are good at Baseball and Foot-
ball.
49. Who among these five players is
good at four games ?
(A) Q (B) P
(C) S (D) R
50. Who is good at Hockey, Volley-
ball and Baseball ?
(A) S (B) P
(C) Q (D) R
51. Who is good at Cricket, Hockey
and Volleyball ?
(A) S (B) P
(C) Q (D) R
Directions(Q. 52 and 53) Read
the following information to answer
these questions
Five courses 1, 2, 3, 4 and
5, each of one month duration, are to
be taught from June to October, one
after the other though not necessarily
in the same order/sequence by pro-
fessors L, M, N, O, R, L teaches
course 2, but not in the month of
September or October. M teaches
course 1 in the month of August. N
teaches in the month of June but does
not teach course 3 or course 4. R
teaches course 4 in the month of
September.
52. Which course is taught by O ?
(A) 2 (B) 5
(C) 3 (D) 1
53. Which course is taught in the
month of June ?
(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 4
following passage and answer the
four items that follow. Your answers
passage only.
Passage
Earth is the only planet so far
known with the suitable environment
for sustaining life. Land, water, air,
plants and animals are the major com-
ponents of the global environment.
Population, food and energy are the
three fundamental problems facing
mankind. Unemployment, inflation,
crowding, dwindling resources and
pollution are all due to the factors like
increasing population, high standard
of living, deforestation, etc.
Man has been tampering with
the Ecosphere for a very long time
and is forced t o recognize that envi-
ronmental resources are scarce. Envi-
ronmental problems are really social
problems. They begin with people as
cause and end with people as victims.
Unplanned use of resources has
resulted in the depletion of fossils,
fuels, pollution of air and water,
deforestation which has resulted in
ecological imbalance and draining
away of national wealth through
heavy expenditure on oil and power
generation.
54. We face the three fundamental
problems that are
(A) population, inflation and
food
(B) population, food and energy
(C) inflation, deforestation and
unemployment
(D) population, deforestation
and energy
55. Increasing population causes
(A) dwindling resources
(B) unemployment, inflation,
crowding, dwindling resources
and pollution
(C) unemployment and crowd-
ing
(D) inflation and pollution
56. National wealth is drained away
by spending heavily on
(A) water and power generation
(B) oil and power generation
(C) power generation
(D) fuels
PD/August/2014/153
57. The three major components of
the global environment are
(A) land, water and air
(B) plants, animals and mankind
(C) food, energy and population
(D) high standard of living,
crowding and inflation
58. There are six persons in a family
namely A, B, C, D, E, and
F. C is the sister of F. B is the
brother of Es husband. D is the
father of A and grandfather of
F. How is D related to C ?
(A) Father
(B) Uncle
(C) Grandfather
(D) Brother
59. Sakshi, Rajender and Surinder
are the children of Mr. and Mrs.
Agarwal. Renu, Rajan and Sunil
Bhasker. Sunil and Sakshi are
married and Anil and Sanjay are
their children. Geeta and Ramesh
Gupta. Geeta is married to
Surinder and Rajni, Sonu and
Raju are their children. Rahul
and Mahender are the children of
Mr. and Mrs. Saxena. Rahul is
married to Renu and Bindu and
Rani are their children. How is
Rajender related to Rajni ?
(A) Brother
(B) Brother-in-law
(C) Cousin
(D) Uncle
60. In a joint family, Amrit is the son
of Raman. Sarita, Ramans sister
has a son Sanchay and a daughter
Reena. Rajan is the maternal
uncle of Sanchay. How is Amrit
related to Sanchay ?
(A) Brother
(B) Brother-in-law
(C) Nephew
(D) Cousin
61. Rajesh walked 25 metre towards
South. Then he turned to his left
and walked 20 metre. He then
turned to his left and walked 25
metre. He again turned to his
right and walked 15 metre. At
what distance is he from the
starting point and in which
direction ?
(A) 35 metres East
(B) 60 metres East
(C) 35 metres North
(D) 40 metres East
Directions(Q. 62 and 63) Read
the following passage and answer the
two items that follow. Your answers
passage only.
Passage
Gandhiji identified himself with
the cause of the Muslims who were
agitating against the British treatment
of the Turkish Sultan. The Khilafat
Movement of 1920 marks a glorious
period in the annals of Indian history,
when Hindus and Muslims were
drawn as close to each other as they
were during the revolt of 1857. In the
Non-cooperation Movement which
followed, Hindus and Muslims vied
with each other in surrendering their
titles and honours and in boycotting
schools, colleges, law courts and
councils. It was at this time that
nationalist Muslims broke away from
the Muslim University, Aligarh, and
founded the Jamia Millia. Gandhi
was associated with the Jamia from
the very beginning. Mahatma Gandhi
also returned his Kaiser-e-Hind and
other medals. He denounced the
British Empire as a satanic system
and made it clear that non-coopera-
tion, though a strictly moral move-
ment, aimed at the overthrow of the
Government.
During this period, Mahatma
Gandhi also perceived the urgency of
revitalizing the rural economy and
proposed that every Indian should
take to spinning on the charkha, and
thus made the charkha a symbol of the
freedom movement.
In February 1922, he proposed to
launch a new Civil Disobedience
Movement. The Government arrested
him on March 13, 1922. At this trial,
Mahatma Gandhi declared : I am
here to invite and submit to the high-
est penalty that can be inflicted upon
me for what in law is a deliberate
crime and what appears to me to be
the highest duty. He was sentenced
to six years imprisonment, but was
released two years later after a sur-
gical operation for appendicitis.
62. Which set of events is arranged in
the correct ascending chronology
of occurrence ?
(A) Khilafat Movement, Revolt
of 1857, Non-cooperation Move-
ment, Establishment of Jamia
Millia
(B) Revolt of 1857, Khilafat
Movement, Establishment of
Jamia Millia, Non-cooperation
Movement
(C) Revolt of 1857, Khilafat
Movement, Non-cooperation
Movement, Establishment of
Jamia Millia
(D) Revolt of 1857, Non-coope-
ration Movement, Khilafat Move-
ment, Establishment of Jamia
Millia
63. What was Gandhijis proposal to
revitalize rural economy ?
(A) To make charkha a symbol
of freedom movement
(B) To declare the British Gov-
ernment as a Satanic System
(C) To take up spinning on
Charkha
(D) To perceive the urgency
64. Rekha purchased a scooter for
20,000 and sold it for 22,000.
The percentage of profit is
(A) 15% (B) 12%
(C) 10% (D) 20%
65. The base of right prism is an
equilateral triangle with a side of
7 m, and its height is 24 m. Find
its volume
(A) 509 m
3
(B) 1018 m
3
(C) 529 m
3
(D) 519 m
3
66. A can do a piece of work in 10
days and B can do the same piece
of work in 20 days. They start the
work together, but after 5 days A
leaves. B will do the remaining
piece of work in
(A) 5 days (B) 10 days
(C) 6 days (D) 8 days
Directions(Q. 6774) The fol-
lowing eight items are based on three
passage in English to test the com-
prehension of English language. Read
each passage and answer the items
that follows
Passage 1
The art of growing old is one
which the passage of time has forced
upon my attention. Psychologically
there are two dangers to be guarded
against in old age. One of these is
PD/August/2014/154
undue absorption in the past. It does
not do to live in memories, in regrets
for the good old days. Ones thoughts
must be directed to the future. This is
not always easy; ones past is a gra-
dually increasing weight. The other
thing to be avoided is clinging to
youth on the hope of sucking vigour
from its vitality.
67. By the art of growing old, the
author means
(A) some special skill by apply-
ing which one can grow old
(B) that growing old is like crea-
ting a work of art
(C) the acceptance of old age as
a fact of life
(D) the refusal on ones part to
grow old
68. The passage deals with the pro-
cess of growing old. What does it
describe ?
(A) the decay of the senses in
old age
(B) the psychological problems
of old men
(C) the desire in man to grow
old
(D) an old mans ability to reco-
llect his past
Passage 2
It was Galileo and Newton
notwithstanding that Newton himself
was a deeply religious manwho
destroyed the old comfortable picture
of a friendly universe governed by
spiritual values. And this was effec-
ted, not by Newtons discovery of the
law of gravitation nor by any of
Galileos brilliant investigations, but
by the general picture of the world
which these men and others of their
time made the basis of the science,
not only of their own day, but of all
succeeding generations down to the
present. That is why the century
immediately following Newton, the
eighteenth century, was notoriously
an age of religious skepticism. Skep-
ticism did not have to wait for the
discoveries of Darwin and the geolo-
gists in the nineteenth century. It
flooded the world immediately after
the age of the rise of science.
69. The old comfortable picture of a
friendly universe was
(A) a universe governed by reli-
gious beliefs
(B) a universe with men like
Newton who were deeply religi-
ous
(C) a universe investigated by
Galileo and Newton
(D) the century immediately fol-
lowing Newton
70. Religious skepticism arose
because
(A) Galileo and Newton were
not religious being scientists
(B) Newton discovered the law
of gravitation
(C) of the discoveries of Darwin
and the geologists of the nine-
teenth century
(D) of the picture of the world
that became the basis of science
after the seventeenth century
Passage 3
What were the early ideas of men
about the sky and the earth ? They
naturally believed that the earth was
motionless, and they also supposed
that it was flat. These two ideas do
not surprise us. Children nowadays
think the same until they are taught
differently. How were men to know
that the earth was a ball circling
round the sun ? They had no tele-
scope for accurate observation. They
had not travelled round the world. In
fact, many parts of the world in those
days were unexplored and unknown.
They thought they lived on a kind of
flat plate, and that the sky with the
sun and the moon and the stars, was
a kind of inverted bowl turning round
above them. The sun, the moon and
the stars were their lamps for day and
night.
71. Unless children are taught diffe-
rently they think that
(A) the earth is round and
moving
(B) the sun and the moon are
motionless
(C) the sun and the moon are
moving
(D) the sun and the moon are
moving round the earth
72. The early ideas of man were
wrong because
(A) man did not use the tele-
scope
(B) man did not like to travel
(C) man never had the scientific
knowledge
(D) man was foolish and lazy
73. What was true for the early man?
(A) The earth was round and
moving
(B) The telescope was accurate
(C) Travelling and exploring
were the methods to gain know-
ledge
(D) The sun was motionless
74. What was the main cause of the
early mans wrong ideas ?
(A) Lack of scientific knowle-
dge
(B) Seeing and believing
(C) Lack of desire to know
(D) Lack of desire to observe
and explore
Directions(Q. 7580) Given
below are six items. Each item des-
cribes a situation and is followed by
four possible responses. Indicate the
response you find most appropriate.
Choose only one response for each
item. The responses will be evaluated
based on the level of appropriateness
for given situation.
Please attempt all the items.
There is no penalty for wrong ans-
wers for these six items.
75. You are a Police Officer, posted
in a rural area. A person comes
to you and complains that he has
seen few people walking towards
the jungle with arms, and their
activities were suspicious. He
was frightened at the sight of
people carrying arms and is
worried as his hut is in the
periphery of the jungle. What
will you do ?
(A) Ask him to lodge a FIR in
the concerned police station
(B) Ask him to remain calm and
not over react to such situations,
as the people might be forest
officials
(C) Tell him that unless the peo-
ple do not trespass his property,
they are not violating the law,
and so you cannot do anything
in this case
(D) Tell him that you will inves-
tigate into the matter
76. You are heading a committee on
electoral reforms appointed by
PD/August/2014/155
the election committee. A consen-
sus has not been reached among
the members on certain issues
due to conflict amongst themsel-
ves. The report has to be submit-
ted within a month. What will
you do under such circumstan-
ces, considering the fact that one
of the member, is allegedly alig-
ned to the opposition party and
the opposition is targetting you
as an agent of the central govern-
ment ?
(A) Expell the member allegedly
aligned to opposition so a to
smoothen the working of the
committee
(B) Convene a meeting of all the
members, hear each perspective,
solicit suggestion and take deci-
sion
(C) Take a decision based on the
information collected from the
members and analysing it on
your own
(D) Complain the issue to the
ministry and wait till the situa-
tion gets normal
77. You are working as a subordi-
nate officer and your immediate
senior officer, under whose
supervision you are working,
does not allow you to do any
major work. He assigns only
menial tasks to you, and takes
credit of all the projects assigned
to you/your department. The
head of the organization/depart-
ment calls you for an explanation
of certain mistakes in a report,
prepared by your senior officer.
You would
(A) Tell the head, that the report
has been prepared by your senior
and that you are generally not
allowed to do any major work
(B) Take the onus on yourself as
you were supposed to prepare
the report
(C) Talk to your senior officer
and ask him to take the responsi-
bility on himself as the report
was prepared by him
(D) Put all the blame on the
senior officer and complain to
him (Head) as well that your
senior officer does not treat you
well and always abuses you
78. You are attending a meeting
regarding increasing crime rate
in the town. The meeting was
called by chamber of commerce
and the denizens of the city were
attending it. You were attending
the meeting in capacity as a
police department representa-
tive. The people present in the
meeting wanted to know the
steps the police department is
taking to curb the situation, what
will you tell them
(A) To curb crime, support of
the citizens is warranted/requi-
red, as people hardly report due
to fear of criminals
(B) The police department is
trying its best to tackle the situa-
tion, but the police also has cer-
tain limitations
(C) The police department is
short on man power, and the
government is taking steps to
recruit more police personnel
(D) The police department has
got efficient staff, and are work-
ing together with the adminis-
tration to cull crime
79. The government is concerned
over the large number of deaths
of devotees visiting a famous
shrine atop a mountain during
the winter season due to cold
and exposure. What should the
government do to address such a
situation ?
(A) Put limits to number of
devotees visiting the shrine dur-
ing winter season
(B) Arrange for warm clothes
for the devotees free of cost
(C) Discourage people specially
elderly ones from visiting the
shrine during winter until they
posses warm clothes
(D) In a secular country, the
government has nothing to do
with religion, so not much can be
done
80. The state government has deci-
ded to repair and renovate the
government primary and secon-
dary schools and has released
4165 lakh of fund for this. The
work will be taken under Sarwa
Shiksha Abhiyan. You are a
Block Education Officer. Which
of the following steps will you
take to ensure that the work is
completed in time, well managed
and corruption free
(A) Entrust the quality of the
work on Head Masters, Presi-
dents and members of the school
development and management
committees of the concerned
schools
(B) Entrust the Cluster Resource
Persons (CRP) to supervise the
repair and renovation
(C) Ask the Head Masters con-
cerned to submit a report on pro-
gress of work to the Block Co-
ordinators
Answers with Hints
PD/August/2014/158
General Intelligence and Reasoning
S.S.C. JUNIOR ENGINEER EXAM., 2013
(Held on 9-6-2013)
Solved Paper
Directions(Q. 1 to 9) Select the
related figure/letters/number from
the given alternatives.
1.

?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Question figures :
Answer figures :
2.

Question figures :
Answer figures :
?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2
1
1
2
3.

Question figures :
Answer figures :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
?
4. MLKJ : NOPQ : : IHGF : ?
(A) UTSR (B) RSTU
(C) SRUT (D) UTRS
5. ACEG : ZXVT : : BDFH : ?
(A) YWUS (B) YXWV
(C) YWVT (D) YXVW
6. BADC : XWZY : : FEHG : ?
(A) VXRT (B) TSVU
(C) YXCV (D) VSXW
7.
5
9
:
7
13
: :
10
19
: ?
(A)
14
26
(B)
14
27
(C)
14
23
(D)
14
25
8. 3 : 9 : : 6 : ?
(A) 14 (B) 18
(C) 17 (D) 16
9. 23 : 8 : : 32 : ?
(A) 6 (B) 9
(C) 17 (D) 27
Directions(Q. 10 to 18) Select
the one which is different from the
other three responses.
10. (A) Mars (B) Jupiter
(C) Earth (D) Comet
11. (A) Geeta
(B) Quran
(C) Bible
(D) Mahabharat
12. (A) Message
(B) Information
(C) Matter
(D) Material
13. (A) Guitar (B) Veena
(C) Flute (D) Sitar
14. (A) 7 145 (B) 6 108
(C) 5 75 (D) 4 48
15. (A) Tagore (B) Raman
(C) Bhaskara (D) Khurana
16. (A) 17 142 (B) 71 34
(C) 41 28 (D) 14 28
17. (A) 3, 5, 7, 9 (B) 5, 7, 9, 11
(C) 4, 6, 8, 10 (D) 2, 5, 9, 10
18. (A) 8662 (B) 5731
(C) 4628 (D) 2864
19. In the following words, the group
of letters should not contain more
than three vowels. Which of the
following words does not con-
form to the rule ?
(A) SCARCITY
(B) PROGNOSIS
(C) COMPLEXITY
(D) CONVULSION
20. Arrange the following words in a
meaningful order :
1. Grapes 2. Vineyard
3. Whisky 4. Brewing
5. Distillation
(A) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3 (B) 3, 5, 4, 2, 1
(C) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5 (D) 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
21. Which will appear fourth in the
dictionary ?
(A) Xylophilous
(B) Xylophagus
(C) Xylopyrography
(D) Xylophagan
22. Number of letters skipped in
between adjacent letters in the
series increases by one. Which of
the following series observes the
rule given below ?
(A) BEIN (B) CDJO
(C) GJLS (D) QUNZ
Directions(Q. 23 to 26) Choose
the correct alternative from the given
responses that will complete the
series.
23. EJOT, INSX, AFKP, ?
(A) CHMS (B) XTOJ
(C) BGLQ (D) EJOT
24. ? , PSV, EHK, TWZ, ILO
(A) BEH (B) IMP
(C) ACG (D) ADG
25. 78, 86, ? , 88, 82, 90
(A) 76 (B) 84
(C) 83 (D) 80
26. 3, 7, 13, ? 31, 43, 57
(A) 51 (B) 81
(C) 41 (D) 21
27. Find the wrong number in the
given series.
3, 7, 15, 31, 64, 127
(A) 127 (B) 64
(C) 31 (D) 3
28. A car covers the first half of the
distance between two places at
40 km/hr and the second half
of the distance at 60 km/hr. So
what is the average speed of the
car ?
(A) 45 km/hr (B) 48 km/hr
(C) 50 km/hr (D) 60 km/hr
29. My father has two brothers. The
youngest has two sons and one
daughter. The elder one has one
PD/August/2014/159
son and two daughters and the
remaining one has three sons. If
my father has four nephews,
how many cousins (brothers)
have I got ?
(A) 6 (B) 4
(C) 7 (D) 5
30. From the given alternatives,
select the word which cannot be
formed using the letters of the
given word.
ACCOMPANIED
(A) PANIC (B) COME
(C) COMB (D) PAIN
31. In a certain code language, TO-
GETHER is written as EGTO-
RETH. How is CONGRATU-
LATE written in that language ?
(A) GRTULTEANOC
(B) GNCOUTRAETLA
(C) GNOCUTARETAL
(D) GLNAOTCEURTA
32. In certain code language, RE-
QUEST is written as S2R52TU.
How is RETEST written in that
language ?
(A) S2V2RV (B) S2U2RU
(C) S2U2TU (D) S2V2TV
33. Some equations are solved on the
basis of a certain system. On the
same basis, find out the correct
answer for the unsolved equa-
tion.
If 4
2
= 7, 5
2
= 7, 6
2
= 9, then 7
2
= ?
(A) 14 (B) 13
(C) 10 (D) 8
34. Find out the number which does
not belong to the given group of
numbers from the alternatives.
246, 579, 135, 35, 68
(A) 55 (B) 468
(C) 123 (D) 31
35. If P stands for , Q stands for ,
R stands for +, then
18 Q 12 P 4 R 5 = ?
(A) 59 (B) 26
(C) 117 (D) 233
Directions(Q. 36 and 37) Find
the missing number from the given
responses.
36. 6 11 25
8 6 16
? 5 16
(A) 10 (B) 14
(C) 12 (D) 16
37. 156
15
12 323
21
17 525
?
25
(A) 43 (B) 17
(C) 23 (D) 37
38. The door of Priyas house faces
East. From the back side of the
house, she walks straight 50
metre, then turns to the right and
walks 50 metre again. Finally, she
turns towards the left and stops
after walking 25 metre. Now
Priya is facing which direction ?
(A) North (B) West
(C) East (D) South
39. Ram travelled 6 ft towards West,
he turned left and walked 8 ft,
then turned left and walked 4 ft,
then turned left and walked 8 ft
again. How far is he now from
the starting point ?
(A) 8 ft (B) 6 ft
(C) 4 ft (D) 2 ft
40. How many black-faced cubes are
there in the given structure ?
(A) 75 (B) 55
(C) 25 (D) 15
41. Identify the answer figure from
which the pieces given in the
question figure have been cut.
Question figure :
Answer figures :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
42. In the following diagram, rect-
angle represents males, circle
represents urban and square
represents educated. Which
region represents educated urban
males ?
4
7 3
5
2
6
1
(A) 5 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 7
43. In the following Venn diagram,
identify the letter which denotes
Film Actors who are Singers but
not Directors.
A
D
C E
G
B
F
Film
Actors
D
i
r
e
c
t
o
r
s
Singers
(A) D (B) C
(C) E (D) F
Directions(Q. 44 and 45) One
or two statements are given, followed
by two conclusions I and II. You have
to consider the statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance
from commonly known facts. You
have to decide which of the given
conclusions, if any, follows from the
given statements.
44. Statements :
All scientists are hard-working.
No hard-working man is poor.
Conclusions :
I. No scientist is poor.
II. No poor man is a scientist.
(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Both conclusions I and II
follow
(D) None of the conclusions I or
II follows
45. Statements :
A social movement is an inter-
action of people with a common
motivational base in frustration.
Conclusions :
I. In a social movement, people
who are satisfied interact
with frustrated people.
II. Frustrated people interact
with each other in a social
movement.
(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Neither conclusion I nor II
follows
(D) Both conclusions I and II
follow
PD/August/2014/160
46. Components of which of the
answer figures will exactly make
up the question figure given
below.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Question figure :
Answer figures :
47. Select the answer figure in which
the question figure is hidden/
embedded.
Question figure :
Answer figures :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
48. A piece of paper is folded and
punched as shown below in the
question figures. From the given
answer figures, indicate how it
will appear when opened ?
Question figures :
Answer figures :
?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
49. Which of the answer figures is
exactly the mirror image of the
given figure, when the mirror is
held on the line AB ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Question figure :
Answer figures :
A
B
50. A word is represented by only
one set of numbers as given in
any one of the alternatives. The
sets of numbers given in the
alternatives are represented by
two classes of alphabets as in the
two matrices given below. The
columns and rows of Matrix I are
numbered from 0 to 4 and that of
Matrix II are numbered from 5 to
9. A letter from these matrices
can be represented first by its
row and next by its column, e.g.,
A can be represented by 13, 76,
etc., and G can be represented
by 22, 65, etc. Similarly, you have
to identify the set for the word
PUBLIC.
Matix I Matrix II
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 A U O T B 5 P T A M E
1 T E P A W 6 G I O T M
2 R M G G I 7 E A L T M
3 U M M C L 8 R A B L T
4 P L N E C 9 N P E G P
(A) 12, 30, 87, 41, 66, 33
(B) 99, 30, 87, 77, 23, 44
(C) 55, 01, 87, 98, 34, 87
(D) 40, 30, 87, 89, 24, 43
Answers with Hints
P.Darpan
Continued from Page 106
3. The production of Alkali-Chemi-
cals in India during the year
2011-12 was achieved .......... (000
Metric TonneMT), with growth
rate of 22%.
(A) 6113 (B) 5000
(C) 4500 (D) 4000
4. The Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster
due to leakage of Lethal Gas
Methyl Iso-Cyanate (MIC) stored
by Union Carbide India Limited
(UCIL) pesticide unit at Bhopal
(M.P.), was occurred in the night
of
(A) December 2nd/3rd, 1984
(B) December 2nd/3rd, 1985
(C) December 2nd/3rd, 1986
(D) None of these
5. HIL (Hindustan Insecticides
Limited)working for manufac-
turing and supplying DDT for
National Malaria Eradication
Programme (NMEP), now
known as NVBDCP, scheme was
incorporated in March
(A) 1950 (B) 1954
(C) 1955 (D) 1956
6. A new Centre for Bio-Polymer
Science and Technology
(CBPST), to promote Bio-Poly-
mer Science and Technology,
Plastic and Allied Industries was
set-up/inaugurated on August
25th, 2012 at
(A) Kochi (Kerala)
(B) Pune
(C) Coimbatore
(D) None of these
Answers
P.Darpan
PD/August/2014/162
Quantitative Aptitude
FORTHCOMING BANK PROBATIONARY OFFICER COMMON WRITTEN EXAM.
Solved Model Paper
1. The sum of five numbers is 290.
The average of the first two
numbers is 485 and the average
of last two numbers is 535. What
is the third number ?
(A) 108 (B) 96
(C) 84 (D) 72
(E) None of these
2. In how many different ways can
the letters of the word DIRTY
be arranged ?
(A) 120 (B) 240
(C) 60 (D) 270
(E) None of these
3. The cost of five chairs and three
tables is 3110. Cost of one chair
is 210 less than cost of one
table. What is the cost of two
tables and two chairs ?
(A) 2600
(B) 1860
(C) 1660
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
4. The Simple Interest accrued on
an amount at the end of five
years @ 125 p.c.a. 1575. What is
the amount ?
(A) 2050 (B) 2250
(C) 2520 (D) 2550
(E) None of these
5. What is the area of a circle whose
circumference is 176 cm ?
(A) 2464 cm
2
(B) 2608 cm
2
(C) 2572 cm
2
(D) 2824 cm
2
(E) None of these
6. If the length and width of a
rectangular garden plot were
each increased by 20 per cent
then what would be the per cent
increase in the area of the plot ?
(A) 20% (B) 24%
(C) 36% (D) 40%
(E) None of these
7. A man sells an article at 5%
profit. If he had bought it at 5%
less and sold it 1 less, he would
have gained 10%. The cost price
of the article is
(A) 150 (B) 300
(C) 240 (D) 250
(E) None of these
8. In a family, the father took 1/4
of the cake and he had 3 times
as much as each of the other
members had. The total number
of family members is
(A) 3 (B) 7
(C) 10 (D) 12
(E) None of these
9. The sum of three numbers is 98.
If the ratio of the first to the
second is 2 : 3 and that of the
second to the third is 5 : 8 then
the second number is
(A) 38 (B) 52
(C) 40 (D) 30
(E) None of these
10. A vessel is fully filled with a
special liquid. Four litres of
liquid is drawn out of this vessel
and is replaced with water. If the
ratio of the special liquid to the
water becomes 1 : 2 then what is
the capacity of the vessel ?
(A) 10 litres (B) 6 litres
(C) 8 litres (D) 14 litres
(E) None of these
11. Two pipes can fill a tank in 10
hours and 12 hours respectively,
while the third can empty it in 20
hours then the tank will be filled
in
(A) 7
1
2
hours (B) 8 hours
(C) 9
1
10
hours (D) 11 hours
(E) None of these
12. A passenger train takes two
hours less for a journey of 300
km if its speed is increased by 5
km/h from its normal speed. The
normal speed is
(A) 40 km/h (B) 50 km/h
(C) 25 km/h (D) 30 km/h
(E) None of these
13. A can do a piece of work in 10
days while B alone can do it in 15
days. They work together for 5
days and rest of the work is done
by C in 2 days. If they get 450
for the whole work how should
they divide the money ?
(A) 250, 100, 100
(B) 175, 175, 100
(C) 200, 150, 100
(D) 225, 175, 50
(E) 225, 150, 75
14. The batting average of 40 innings
of cricket player is 50 runs. His
highest score exceeds his lowest
score by 172 runs. If these two
innings are extended the average
of the remaining 38 innings is 48.
What was his highest score ?
(A) 172 (B) 174
(C) 173 (D) 175
(E) None of these
15. The perimeter of rectangular
field is 52 m. If the length of the
field is 2 m more than thrice the
breadth, than what is the breadth
of the field ?
(A) 625 m (B) 6 m
(C) 12 m (D) 10 m
(E) None of these
Directions(Q. 16 to 20) In the
following number series only one
number is wrong. Find out the wrong
number .
16. 5, 348, 564, 689, 723, 780, 788
(A) 788 (B) 348
(C) 723 (D) 689
(E) 564
17. 8, 5, 65, 11, 26, 68, 2075
(A) 2075 (B) 11
(C) 26 (D) 68
(E) 8
18. 2, 3, 7, 26, 121, 721, 5041
(A) 26 (B) 121
(C) 3 (D) 7
(E) 5041
PD/August/2014/163
19. 2, 9, 28, 65, 126, 216, 344
(A) 9 (B) 28
(C) 344 (D) 216
(E) 2
20. 1, 1, 4, 8, 9, 10, 64
(A) 4 (B) 9
(C) 16 (D) 64
(E) 10
Directions(Q. 21 to 25) What
will come in place of question mark
(?) in the following questions.
21.

360 225 2 + 379 = ?
(A) 19 (B) 17
(C) 379 (D) 269
(E) None of these
22. 36% of 245 40% of 210 = 10 ?
(A) 42 (B) 79
(C) 38 (D) 65
(E) None of these
23. 7960 + 2956 8050 + 4028 = ?
(A) 6974 (B) 6894
(C) 6954 (D) 6884
(E) None of these
24. (88325 38445) 24 = ?
(A) 201 (B) 174
(C) 409 (D) 187
(E) None of these
25.
1
2
of 3842 + 15% of ? = 2449
(A) 3560 (B) 3520
(C) 3370 (D) 3240
(E) None of these
should come in place of the question
mark (?) in the following number
series.
26. 15, 25, 40, 65, ?, 195
(A) 90 (B) 125
(C) 120 (D) 105
(E) None of these
27. 9, 62, ?, 1854, 7415, 22244
(A) 309 (B) 406
(C) 371 (D) 433
(E) None of these
28. 7, 8, 18, ?, 232, 1165
(A) 57 (B) 36
(C) 42 (D) 84
(E) None of these
29. 5, 6, 16, 57, 244, ?
(A) 964 (B) 1225
(C) 992 (D) 1245
(E) None of these
30. 16, 8, 12, 30, ?, 4725
(A) 115 (B) 105
(C) 75 (D) 95
(E) None of these
Directions(Q. 31 to 35) Study
the following questions carefully to
answer the questions that follows.
Number of students (in thou-
sands) Passed out from Five Different
Colleges During Six Different Years.
Colleges
Years
A B C D E
2007 93 96 87 104 98
2008 72 104 62 126 137
2009 104 126 98 98 149
2010 114 169 113 154 163
2011 132 193 78 139 118
2012 127 187 137 167 157
31. What is the average number of
students passed out from all the
college together in the year
2009 ?
(A) 11500 (B) 115000
(C) 14500 (D) 57500
(E) None of these
32. In which college was the number
of students passed out in the
year 2010 second highest ?
(A) B (B) A
(C) E (D) C
(E) D
33. What was the respective ratio
between the number of students
passed out from the college-A in
the year 2010 and the number of
students passed out from college-
D in the year 2008 ?
(A) 24 : 31 (B) 38 : 43
(C) 21 : 17 (D) 19 : 21
(E) None of these
34. In which college the number of
the students passed out continu-
ously increased during the year
2007 to 2012 ?
(A) Only A (B) Only D & E
(C) Only B (D) Only B & E
(E) None of these
35. Number of students passed out
from college C in the year 2010
was approximately what per-
centage of the total number of
students passed out from college
E in the year 2008, 2009 and 2011
together ?
(A) 28 (B) 34
(C) 25 (D) 21
(E) 39
the following pie-chart carefully to
answer these questions.
Distribution of Employees in
Various Departments of an
Organisation.
Accounts
Adm.
Logistics
O
p
e
r
a
t
i
o
n
s
I.T.
8%
M
a
r
k
e
t
i
n
g
1
5
%
11%
D
e
s
p
a
t
c
h
1
1
%
9
%
18%
P
e
r
s
o
n
n
e
l
1
2
%
1
6
%
Male-Female Ratio
Department Male Female
Logistics 5 6
Administration 6 5
Despatch 5 4
I.T. 4 5
Personnel 7 9
Accounts 5 3
Operations 15 17
Marketing 7 5
36. Number of male employees in
Logistics in what per cent of the
total number of employees in the
organisation ?
(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 9 (D) 65
(E) None of these
37. Number of male employees in
Administration is equal to the
number of female employees in
which department ?
(A) I. T. (B) Logistics
(C) Personnel (D) Operations
(E) Despatch
38. What is the ratio between total
number of male employees in
Personnel and Marketing
together and the total number of
female employees in these two
departments respectively ?
(A) 14 : 15 (B) 15 : 14
(C) 14 : 13 (D) 13 : 14
(E) None of these
39. What is the ratio between number
of female employees in person-
nel department and number of
male employees in operations
respectively ?
PD/August/2014/164
(A) 8 : 9 (B) 9 : 8
(C) 10 : 9 (D) 9 : 10
(E) None of these
40. Total number of male employees
is what per cent of the total
number of employees in the
organisation ?
(A) 53% (B) 48%
(C) 56% (D) 545%
(E) 505%
the following pie-chart carefully to
answer these questions.
Percentage-wise Distribution of
players who play five different
sports.
Total players are 8400 out of
which female players are equal. to
4000.
Total Players 8400
Hockey
Rugby
Cricket
35%
Football
17%
10%
13%
Table
Tennis
25%
Percentage of Players who play
different sports.
Female Players = 4000
Hockey
Cricket
Football
Table
Tennis
R
u
g
b
y
22%
15%
40%
13%
1
0
%
Percentage of female players
who play different sports.
41. What is the total number of male
players who play Football, Crick-
et and Table Tennis together ?
(A) 3870 (B) 3468
(C) 3652 (D) 3924
(E) None of these
42. What is the respective ratio of the
number of female players who
play Cricket and number of male
players who play Hockey ?
(A) 20 : 9 (B) 6 : 21
(C) 20 : 3 (D) 3 : 20
(E) None of these
43. What is the average number of
players (both male and female)
who play Football and Rugby
together ?
(A) 1260 (B) 714
(C) 1160 (D) 470
(E) None of these
44. Number of male players who
play Rugby is approximately
what percentage of the total
number of players who play
Table Tennis ?
(A) 42 (B) 23
(C) 27 (D) 37
(E) 33
45. What is the difference between
the number of the female players
who play Table Tennis and the
number of the male players who
play Rugby ?
(A) 168 (B) 220
(C) 240 (D) 188
(E) None of these
approximate value should come in
place of the question mark (?) in the
following questions.
(You are not expected to
calculate the exact value)
46.
3
5

1125
1228
14 = ?
(A) 14 (B) 18
(C) 8 (D) 24
(E) 30
47. (
335 25) 30 = ?
(A) 13 (B) 24
(C) 3 (D) 15
(E) 22
48. (641 + 9703 215) 26 = ?
(A) 370 (B) 425
(C) 280 (D) 300
(E) 390
49. 7
7
12
6
8
21
9
1
3
= ?
(A) 8 (B) 5
(C) 14 (D) 2
(E) 11
50. 216% of 5165 4309 =
?
55
(A) 375 (B) 340
(C) 410 (D) 465
(E) 315
Answers with Hints
PD/August/2014/167
The Ukrainian Crisis and
The Role of Russia
Anuj Chaudhary
Ukranian became Independent
in 1991 and since then it has come a
long way 1917 to 1991, Russia and its
Anuj Chaudhary
neighbouring coun-
tries formed one
huge bloc known as
the Union of
Socialist Soviet
Republics (USSR)-
the Soviet Union.
The Soviet Union
was established in
1917, when Czar was overpowered
by the communists. The communist
rule too came to an end in 1991, when
regions around Russia rebelled and
broke away to form independent
nations. After the dissolution of the
Soviet Union, Ukraine came with
independent nation status. Crimea
regained the autonomy as the
Republic of Crimea. The Ukrainian
Parliament initially accepted its name
but condemned its claims to be a
state. According to the Ukrainian
Statute body Republic of Crimea is
an autonomous part of Ukraine and
independently decides on matters,
which are delegated to it by the
Constitution and laws of Ukraine.
But a year later this constitution,
along with presidency and regional
citizenship was declared Ultra Vires
by the Ukrainian Parliament.
But Ukraine mistakenly thought
that the USSR collapse heralded the
end of Moscows domination. So, it
agreed to give up its all nuclear war-
heads and send them to Russia for
destruction. In return, the US, Russia
and Britain signed the 1994 Budapest
Memorandum on Security Assurance,
pledging to safeguard Ukraines terri-
torial sovereignty. This was greeted
with Universal applause Neither the
US nor the UK, both Budapest Memo-
randum guarantors, is willing to stop
Russian Military. They are reluctant
to even impose stiff economic sanc-
tions, since the Russian President
Vladimir Putin could retaliate by
slashing gas supplies to Europe and
nationalizing Western investment in
oil and gas.
During the last two decades
Ukraine has been characterised by
financial and political crisis. Euro-
pean Union and NATO (The North
Atlantic Treaty Organisation) have
created many gateways to assist the
Ukrainian government but evidently
provoked by what it may have
regarded as attempts to bring Ukraine
into the EU and NATO, Russia has
reacted strongly in protecting what it
may regard as its irreducible strategic
interests in its close neighbourhood
(i.e., Near Abroad Policy). The fall of
Ukraines government, Russias sub-
sequent annexation of Ukraines
Crimea Peninsula and growing unrest
in the eastern Ukraine where armed
pro-Russian separatists have seized
government buildings all these crises
began when Kiev suddenly announ-
ced suspension talk with EU and
opted to revive economic ties with
Moscow, triggering months of mass
rallies in Kiev. Riot police tried to
break up the Kiev demonstration by
force. Protest turned against the
Ukrainian pro-Russian President
Viktor Yanukovych and his govern-
ment. Opposition formed a bloc
called Euro-Maidan.
The Ukrainian crisis has shown
that one power is prepared to take
unilateral advantage at the expense of
the other, which goes against the
geist of dtente that the fall of Soviet
Union promised. Ukraines pro-
Russian President Yanukovych and
Putin met, the Russian President
Vladimir Putin agreed to buy $ 15
billion of Ukrainian debt and to slash
by a third the price of Russian gas
supplies to Ukraine. Anti-govern-
ment Euro-Maidan protest turned
into bloodshed. At least 98 people
were killed in clashes between
demonstrators and police. Then
Ukraines Parliament vote to oust the
pro-Russian President Yankovych,
the result came against him and he
fled to Russia. Arch-rival Yulia
Tymoshenko was released from jail
and Ukraines Parliament appointed
interim government. This move was
regarded as a Coup detat by the
Kremlin.
The Kremlin unanimously
approved Vladmir Putins decision to
escalate more amphibious troops in
the Black Sea. This Near Abroad
policy of Putin was condemned by
the western powers. Russia was
threatened by the west with econo-
mic sanctions and asked to de-
escalate the military troops from the
Ukrainian fence. Later the US invited
Russia to find out its solution through
diplomatic way. The diplomatic meet-
ing was held in Geneva between the
US Secretary of State John Kerry with
his counterpart the Russian Foreign
Minister Sergei Lavrov. But this
diplomatic talk did not prove as a
panacea of the Ukrainian crisis. The
US designed to punish Russia with
tough economic sanctions and
NATOs response to Kievs interim
governments desperate call to orga-
nise a meeting of member states, even
though Ukraine is not part of the
alliance, are reminiscent of cold war
pressure tactics against the Soviet
Union.
It all began in the month of
March 16, 2014 in Ukraine in the
Capital, Kiev. The Crimean referen-
dum to secede from Ukraine was
conducted under supervision of the
Russian troops and its allied Self-
Defence Units evoking howls of
outrage from the United States and
EU. The German Chancellor Angela
Merkel condemned resort to military
means to enforce Moscow will as
out-dated geopolitics and old
fashioned tactics that have no exis-
tence in the era of mutual cooperation
and globalisation. While the
Ukrainian Parliament called it as
Unconstitutional and violation of
international law as Crimea voted to
secede from Ukraine. In Crimea the
majority of nostalgia for mother-
torgue (i.e. Russian) voted in favour
of secession whereas 15% of popu-
lation (i.e. Muslim) boycotted it.
Continued on Page 170
PD/August/2014/168
Women should not be Allowed
Entry in the Armed Forces
In Favour
Anshit Kumar
The issue of the entry of women
in the armed forces is being debated
every now and them. The aspects of
the empowerment of women and
equality of sexes has led to the
conclusion that the women should be
Anshit Kumar
Chauhan
allowed entry in the
armed forces as
well which is con-
sidered exclusively
as an all male
sphere. The debate
has taken a form of
a battle where the
victory lies in con-
quering the last
male bastion. This is an issue that
affects the fighting potential of the
armed forces but it is reduced to
male chauvinism and the freedom of
women.
Recently, a retired senior Army
officer recommended the Constitu-
tion of all women battalions in the
Indian Army. This proposition was
confirmed by taking the evidence of
the Naxalites and the LTTE that have
women fighters. There is also evid-
ence of American women fighting in
Iraq and Afghanistan. However, the
issue needs to be investigated. It is a
misconception that the armed forces
are male chanvinist. The daughters of
the service officers (those serving in
the armed forces) have excelled in all
spheres. So, it cannot be said that the
armed forces function on any kind of
gender bias.
Earlier, the women were a part of
the armed forces through the Army
Medical Corps, the Army Dental
Corps and the Military Nursing
Services. In the 90s, a Service Officer
visited America and saw women
participating in the Guards of
Honour. Thus, the first batch of
women SSC (Short Service Com-
mission) officers joined in 1992. This
plan was not logic-based or well
thought. It was merely imitated from
America. The other two services
followed suit. The long-term implica-
tions of such a proposal were not
thought of.
The Indian Army consists of
244% women, the Indian Navy 3%
and the Indian Air Force 67% of the
total force. The term of women SSC
officers has been increased to 14 years.
The Government has also approved
grant of Permanent Commission to
SSC (women) officers prospectively
in Judge Advocate General (JAG)
Department and Army Education
Corps (AEC) of Army and their
corresponding Cadre in Navy and
Air Force, Accounts Branch of the Air
Force and Corps of Naval Cons-
tructors of the Navy.
The Armed Forces are not meant
to provide employment to all seg-
ments of the society in equal pro-
portion. They are meant for national
defence. The fighting potential must
not be affected by the inclusion of
women in the armed forces.
Moreover, women wish to join
the armed forces only as officers and
not as soldiers. Applications for
peace-postings and other special
dispensations proliferate. After get-
ting commissioned, the women again
become the weaker sex needing
special privileges.
Standards of physical fitness can
never be same for the women and the
men. It is a biological fact and is
applicable in all fields including
sports. In the case of women officers,
the standards of physical fitness are
lowered to a large extent.
Even then many women fail to
qualify during their pre-commission
training. Men are given 28 minutes to
complete a 5 km run, women are
given 40 minutes. Men have to cover a
9-feet wide ditch with full equipment
and weapons, women have to cross a
5-feet wide ditch. All male officers
and soldiers have to undergo annual
Battle Efficiency Tests till the age
of 45 years. Women do not have to
undergo such tests to avoid any
embarrassment in front of the troops.
Moreover, women are found to be
more susceptible to back problems,
pelvic injuries and stress fractures. A
recent review conducted by the
British Army concluded that women
have neither the upper-body strength
nor the physical resilience to with-
stand intensive combat.
The quantum of physical effort is
inversely proportional to technolo-
gical advancement. In a high-tech
army like the US, a woman sitting in
the US mainland can effectively guide
drone attacks in Afghanistan. India is
not so technically advanced. There-
fore, India is dependent on effective
manpower.
Countries like Canada and
Australia face no external or internal
threat and their armies are in peace-
time mode generally with routine
duties. In India, majority of troops are
in active combat.
Although a large number of
women are in Afghanistan and Iraq,
their function is supporting. Till the
end of 2009, the US and allies
suffered a total of 4689 casualties but
no woman as casualty. The casualties
due to hostile action should not be
confused with combat casualties.
Women generally perform medical,
intelligence, logistic and traffic con-
trol duties in the US army. Even in
Israel army, women are not allowed
for active battle field duties.
The Border Security Force has an
all women battalion but is led by
male officers and subordinate func-
tionaries. The battalion has not been
commissioned on the LOC. It has
been deployed near Ferozepur on the
International Border which is totally
peaceful. Even on 1B, no independent
sector has been entrusted to women.
It has been superimposed on an exist-
ing male battalion. Women perform
no night guard duties. The purpose of
raising a womens battalion was to
frisk village women who went across
to cultivate their fields.
The physical fitness standards
for women are much lower than the
PD/August/2014/169
men and hence there are more women
volunteers than men. With the
standard two-child norm and peace-
ful posting on grounds of marriage, a
woman remains physically inactive
for almost six years. She is rarely in
a position to participate in field
exercises. The services gain little from
women. LTTE and Naxalites allowed
entry of women only after it fell short
of male volunteers. Moreover, women
held no high appointments and were
used in indoctrinated suicide squads.
LTTE has recruited boys of 15 years
to act as human bombs.
Male officers have to be given
additional burden since women
cannot perform night-duties. The
soldiers first instinct may to be
protect women in their ranks first and
to fight the enemy later.
To put women only in the ranks
of officers would give an impression
that the job of an officer is softer than
that of a soldier. But the reality is
otherwise. An officer is physically
and mentally more active than the
soldiers. To date, most countries do
not allow women tank crews. There is
an issue of cramped living conditions
on board submarines and dangers
posed by fumes inside the sub-
marines in case a woman is pregnant.
There are also issues of sexual
harassment of women. Command
rape has been accepted as common
in military whereby a superior official
compels a woman soldier to accept
his demands.
The inclusion of women in the
armed forces is dictated by the level
of technology, prevailing security
environment and the nature of likely
deployment. The Government has
rightly approved grant of permanent
commission to women in legal and
education departments of the three
services, accounts branch of the Air
Force and constructors of the Navy.
Instead of replicating a model, India
must chart its own policy. Decisions
taken as a matter of political and
populist expediency can prove dis-
astrous for the nation in the long run.
Defence matters cannot be treated as
publicity gimmick to flaunt sexual
equality.
The people who voice womens
liberation or the equality of sexes
as the factors to prove that women
should be allowed to join the armed
forces cannot directly dispute the
scientific facts and hence they are
merely trying to muddle the waters
by taking examples of a super female
specimen as a way to side step the
issues. Womens training in the
academy is modified to suit the
specific physical needs of women but
on the battlefield there are no modi-
fications. A recent study of 318 female
marines showed they performed on
an average 163 pull ups while the
male counterparts will consistently
perform 10 pull-up son an average. It
is not at all logical to admit women in
the armed forces, reduce the fighting
potential of the armed forces and
hence jeopardise the security of the
nation.
Against
Karan Arora
Equality of Rights under the
law shall not be denied or abridged
by the United States or any other
state on account of sex. These words,
taken directly from the nineteenth
constitutional amendment, apply
almost directly to the women in
combat policy debate, and describe
Karan Arora
how a lawsuit
should completely
vote in the favour
of womens ability
to serve in combat.
However, some
have protested in
fear of a decline in
military effective-
ness. Having women relations that
are served or are currently served in
our nations military, this topic is
important to me, women should,
without a doubt, be allowed in com-
bat, regardless of gender differences,
especially if women meet the physical
standards.
Many people would disagree
with my statement. They fear that if
the policy is changed, military effec-
tiveness will decline due to require-
ment changes made to suit both
genders. What these people overlook
is that women and men are com-
pletely different from each other.
Men are generally larger and smaller;
women are small (they can fit into
tighter spaces) and lighter on their
feet. Even if these points are over-
looked, the average times for the
military two-mile run test for both
men and women are separated by
only about two minutes. They also
fear that women are more likely to be
caught and raped by an opponent,
but military courses are taught on
self-defence and problem solving. If
a woman makes it into a combat
position, shouldnt they already know
how to protect themselves, fight back
and avoid this problem ?
These people had the same fears
when African-Americans and homo-
sexuals were allowed into combat.
However, nothing drastic happened
and the military is still just as
effective, so its safe to say that the
same will happen if women are
allowed into combat, nothing drastic.
There are also women in prominent
community roles such as police
officers, fire fighters, DNR officers,
Lawyers, medical scientists etc. These
women risk their lives often to save
the lives of the citizens of our nation.
With them saving lives and enforcing
the law, putting them into combat
shouldnt be done with hesitation.
Especially now that women can get
into any career that they qualify for,
the policy can be dropped.
I remember when I was younger,
my grandfather telling me how his
friend, my aunt in Vietnam saved
many lives in World War II and
Vietnam as a military nurse. I am
sure that many people can say the
same about their families. It is very
important that women become recog-
nized in the military, to honour of our
women relatives whove served under
the hands of men. Another problem is
that many women officers cannot
move up in status due to restrictions
in the combat policy. War and combat
are still terrible things that should be
avoided, but if a woman wants to
voluntarily join in and fight for her
country, she should be able to,
because in America, we have equa-
lity. If these equality laws are ignored,
it can be considered unconstitutional
and, in my eyes, unlawful. Women
should be allowed in combat, regard-
less of policies and gender differen-
ces.
Why shouldnt women have
equal rights ? Why cant we fight for
pride and justice ? Why shouldnt
women be able to serve their country
with pride ? Men may say that
women are weak and feeble, but we
really arent. Whereas we women, are
PD/August/2014/170
able to look outside the box and come
up with other plans in case one of our
previous ones doesnt take place
properly. We live in a world where
financial independence, equal pay
and employment opportunities for
women are all backed up by the law.
With rights come responsibilities.
Women that sign up to serve their
countrys dont expect it to be all
flowers and rainbows out in the field.
When we sign up we know that every
back street, every market place, every
playground is a war ground. We do
not expect people to make exceptions
just because we are women, we realize
that there are dangers in war. Women
can endure double the amount of
pain a man can, we go through child
birth, we put up with our periods
every month. Like any job, employees
are picked because of their qualities
and skills. Its the same in the forces,
soldiers are picked because of their
qualities and skills. Women can have
many different skills. Why shouldnt
women be allowed to fight in combat
along side men ? The question isnt in
what the women can do, its what the
men will think of it. Women deserve
to be treated equally to men. We
dont join the forces and expect
everyone to bow down to us. We want
the same respect a soldier would give
another soldier. I hate the fact that
women are stereotyped as weak,
feeble, emotional humans. In 2013,
women havent fought for all these
freaking years, it is time for a change.
And a good change too.
We are all the same. Women are
strong, they pull their weight. Just
like men, I have seen women do the
same thing men do and better.
Theyre smarter, it is a fact ! Men are
the ones saying no to them fighting,
because women could do it better,
much better. P.Darpan
The Russian President Vladimir
Putin welcomed the Crimean referen-
dum, accepted it after voting in the
Kremlin where all votes in favour
except one member against. The Kiev
government, along with its western
allies, accused Moscow of orches-
trating the uprising. The US and EU
imposed toughest sanctions on US
and UK based Russian B-men in
response to Russias annexation of
Crimea and intervention in eastern
Ukraine. Redrawing of borders of a
sovereign state through military
assistance from an outside power does
go against status quo of international
order. Yet in Crimea, the Russian
President Putin did not make the first
move to illegally dismember Ukraine.
Rather, he reacted after an illegal
overthrow of a friendly regime in
Kiev by mobs receiving moral, dip-
lomatic and financial support from
the west.
The US moved to United Nations
(UN) with a resolution against Russia.
UN resolution made it clear the
world would not accept threats as
Russias absorption of Crimea. Back-
ing Ukraines territorial integrity UN
General Assembly declared Crimean
referendum invalid. Russia vetoed
the UN resolution, Russias ally
China abstained itself from voting.
As we consider India, there is no
national interest of India in Ukraine
so it also abstained itself from vote in
UN Russias Near Abroad policy
and Ukraines inclination toward EU
and NATO has evolved high tension
situation in the black sea. Contem-
porary circumstances of Ukraine,
other Russian dominated cities and
regions have made a bid for separa-
tion from Ukraine and adherence to
Russia, leaving Moscow with a
problem it may not want but can
hardly turn away from. Meanwhile,
intransigent elements within Ukraine,
the most active of whom seem to be
of fascist orientation demand action
and are in position to enforce their
demands through military means.
Whereas the Ukrainian interim
President Oleksander Turchinov has
signed a decree reinstating compul-
sory military service for men aged
between 18 and 25 as pro-Russian
separatists have seized government
buildings in Donetsk. Let us see in
the multi-lateral international relation
era how far Russia will go alone ?
Will Ukraine join EU and NATO ? Of
late, Russia has increasingly begun to
view itself as a check on US hege-
mony, projecting itself as an alter-
native power, which indicates there is
continuity in the cold war narrative
over the Ukrainian crisis. P.Darpan
P.Darpan
Payment banks are also aimed at
catering to migrant workers in
metros or Tier-I cities who need
to send money to their families at
their native places. These banks
will also offer services like utility
bill payments.
Prepaid instrument providers
are seen forming these payment
banks. These entities have relaxed
know-your-customer norms,
while the value of transactions is
capped.
The norms on payment banks
will also pave the way for the
countrys postal department,
India Post, to enter the niche
banking segment. Sources indi-
cate the norms will allow India
Post to apply for a payment bank
licence.
India Post had applied for a
universal bank licence when RBI
invited applications in 2013.
While the telecom ministry had
backed India Posts ambition to
become a full-fledged bank, the
Finance Ministry was not keen,
given the governments financial
burden.
P.Darpan
Topic : The Ukranian Crisis and the
Role of Russia
First Prize Winner
Anuj Chaudhry
C/o Raj Kumar Chaudhry
Mansoorpur, P.O. Rataul
Khera, Baghpat
Haryana250 101
PD/August/2014/171
Topic : Women should not be Allowed
Entry into the Armed Forces
For the Topic
Anshit Kumar Chauhan
S/o V. P. Singh
E-1/9, Budh Vihar
New Delhi110 086
Against the Topic
Karan Arora
353, Scheme-3
Basant Vihar
Alwar
Rajasthan
CONCENTRIC QUIZ
(Modern History of India Special)
First Prize Winner
Aparna Singh
Lakhimpur Kheri
Uttar Pradesh262 701
Second Prize Winner
Navneet Kumar
S/o Hare Ram Malakar
Mali Tola, Back of ICICI
Bank, Begusarai
Bihar851 101
Third Prize Winner
Swapnil
Dharamsheela Sadan
Rosevilla Compound
Bompas Town, B. Deoghar
Jharkhand814 112
Answers
Third Prize Winner
Mansi Jain
D/o Vipin Kumar Jain
Dehradun
Uttarakhand248 198
Second Prize Winner
Anushka Charles
Nagpur
Maharashtra440 010
PD/August/2014/172
MISCELLANEOUS
SPECIAL
1. Which syllable exists in the word
EXCELLENCE ?
(A) Mono (B) Di
(C) Tri (D) Penta
2. Who said, ?
Beneath the rule of men entirely
great,
The pen is mighter than the
sword.
(A) William Blake
(B) John Milton
(C) Bulwer-Lytton
(D) Charles Dickens
3. What is the chemical name of the
organic compound with the
following structural formula ?
CH
2
CH
2
O
(A) Enol
(B) Epoxyethane
(C) Polyamide
(D) Erythromycin
4. What is half-life of Berkelium ?
(A) 87 years
(B) 00019 second
(C) 31 minutes
(D) 1400 years
5. Metric tensor is used in
(A) LASER Surgery
(B) Neurology
(C) Relativity
(D) Lythotripsy
6. To which of the following types
does the natural vegetation of the
Western Ghats belong ?
(A) Alpine
(B) Deciduous
(C) Evergreen
(D) Mangrove
7. Arakan Yoma is the extension
of the Himalayas located in
(A) Myanmar
(B) Baluchistan
(C) Nepal
(D) Kashmir
8. The Indian wild ass, largely
confined to the Rann of Kutch, is
fast becoming an endangered
species because of
(A) Insufficient vegetation
(B) Large scale domestication
(C) Excessive depredation
(D) Poaching
9. Memorizing the new terms used
in C
++
is
(A) Critically important
(B) Something you can return to
later
(C) Completely irrelevant
10. A normal C
++
operator that acts
in special ways on newly defined
data types is said to be
(A) Glorified
(B) Encapsulated
(C) Classified
(D) Overloaded
11. When a language has the capa-
bility to produce new data types,
it is said to be
(A) Reprehensible
(B) Encapsulated
(C) Overloaded
(D) Extensible
12. Who among the following
authors said, Chandragupta
Maurya trampled the entire
India with six lacs soldiers in his
Army ?
(A) Herodotus
(B) Plutarch
(C) Pliny
(D) Ptolemy
13. Who wrote, Periplus of Erithean
Sea ?
(A) Pliny
(B) Ptolemy
(C) Periplus
14. Of which metal were the early
Punch marked coins made ?
(A) Gold (B) Silver
(C) Copper (D) Alloy
15. Sensitive Sector as defined by
RBI includes
(A) Capital market
(B) Real Estate
(C) Commodities
16. SJSRY belongs to
(A) Urban areas
(B) Rural areas
(C) Semi-urban areas
17. The aim of Differentiated Interest
Scheme was to provide conces-
sional loans to
(A) Weaker section of society
(B) Public sector industries
(C) Public limited companies
(D) Big exporters
18. Rajya Sabha has powers equal to
the Lok Sabha
(A) In the matter of creating
new All India Servcies
(B) In amending the Constitu-
tion
(C) In the removal of govern-
ment
(D) In making cut motions
19. Which of the following items
comes under the Concurrent List
of the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Inter-State rivers
(B) Trade Unions
(C) Citizenship
(D) Local Government
20. Which one of the following com-
mittees is not a Standing Com-
mittee of Parliament ?
(A) Public Accounts Committee
(B) Estimates Committee
(C) Committee on Public Under-
taking
(D) Consultative Committee to
the Ministry of Finance
P.Darpan
ANSWERS FORM
Q. No. A B C D Q. No. A B C D
1. 11.
2. 12.
3. 13.
4. 14.
5. 15.
6. 16.
7. 17.
8. 18.
9. 19.
10. 20.
Pratiyogita Darpan
Last date for sending August 15, 2014
PD/August/2014/173
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for the answer they think is correct. Giving more than one answer to a question will disqualify it.
Contestants should essentially write the number of questions they have solved.
Marks will be deducted for wrong answers.
The candidate sending the maximum number of correct answers will be given ` 800 as first prize. Next two
candidates after that will get ` 600 and ` 400 as second and third prize respectively. If there are more than one
candidate eligible for a prize, the amount will be equally distributed among them.
The decision of the editor will be final and binding in all cases, and will not be a matter for consideration of any
court and no correspondence will be entertained in this concern.
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PD/August/2014/175
ments about Buddhism
I. Followers of Buddhism
adored doctrine of non-
violence and sanctity of
animal life.
II. It laid foundation of image
worship.
III. It enriched Pali language.
IV. Buddhism led to the esta-
blishment of residential
Universities.
(A) I and II are correct
(B) II and III are correct
(C) I, II and III are correct
(D) I, II, III and IV are correct
2. Which of the following facts is
true about II Battle of Tarain ?
(A) Mohammad Ghori defeated
Prithiviraj Chauhan
(B) Moolraj II defeated
Mohammad Ghori
(C) Akbar the Great fought
against Hemu
(D) Babar defeated Shersha
3. Which of the following revolts
was not a revolt by tribals ?
(A) Santhal Revolt
(B) Munda Rebellion
(C) Kukis Movement
(D) Mopla Revolt
4. Who organised Khudai Khid-
matgars ?
(A) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
(B) Sir Sayyed Ahmad Khan
(C) Maulana Hasrat Mohani
(D) Abdul Kalam Azad
5. Which of the following move-
ments brought the urban
Muslims into the fold of the
National movement ?
(A) Non-cooperation Movement
(B) Civil Disobedience Move-
ment
(C) Khilafat Movement
(D) Quit India Movement
6. Who was the leader of Gadar
Party ?
(A) Sardar Bhagat Singh
(B) Lala Hardayal
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) V. D. Savarkar
7. Who was the President of Consti-
tuent Assembly ?
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Dr. S. Radha Krishnan
(C) C. Rajgopalachari
(D) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
8. Basically the Right to property
was a fundamental right. It was
withdrawn by the amend-
ment of Indian Constitution.
(A) 42nd (B) 43rd
(C) 44th (D) 45th
9. Prior recommendation of
President is required for intro-
duction of bill into the Parlia-
ment on
(A) Bill for formation of new
states or alteration of boundaries
of existing states
(B) Money Bill
(C) State Bills restricting Free-
dom of Trade
10. President of India enjoys
(A) Absolute Veto
(B) Suspensive Veto
(C) Pocket Veto
(D) All of the above Veto powers
11. Consider the following facts
about Zero hour in the proceed-
ings of legislature
I. It starts immediately after
the question hour.
II. Any matter can be discussed
during the Zero hour.
(A) Only I is correct
(B) I and II are correct
(C) Only II is correct
(D) Neither I nor II is correct
12. Speaker of the Lok Sabha is
(A) Elected by the members of
the house by a simple majority
vote
(B) Appointed by the President
of India on the advice of the
Union Council of Ministers
(C) Nominated by the Union
Cabinet
(D) Selected by a panel
13. As per CSOs latest estimates
GDP growth rate for 2013-14 is
most likely to be
(A) 44% (B) 45%
(C) 46% (D) 47%
14. As per the third advanced esti-
mates of Ministry of Agriculture
the food grains production
during 2013-14 is estimated to
be
(A) 25536 million tonnes
(B) 26092 million tonnes
(C) 26438 million tonnes
(D) 27028 million tonnes
15. As per the Provisional data of
national income, the per capita
income at constant 2004-05
prices in 2013-14 is estimated to
be
(A) 38,856 (B) 39,961
(C) 39,904 (D) 40,506
16. As per the latest report of the
World Bank, Indian Economy is
the economy of the world in
PPP terms.
(A) IInd (B) IIIrd
(C) IVth (D) Vth
17. Who administers the Oath of
office to the Protem Speaker of
Lok Sabha ?
(A) President of India
(B) Chief Justice of Supreme
Court
(C) Vice-President of India
(D) Prime Minister of India
18. Which of the following pairs is
mismatched ?
(A) FLORIDA Oranges
(B) IDAHO Potatoes
(C) VIDALA Onions
(D) VODKA Ginger
PD/August/2014/176
19. Which of the following pairs is
mismatched ?
(A) FirozabadGlass Bangles
(B) MoradabadBrassware
(C) BanarasSilk Saree
(D) KangraShawls
20. What is the full form of ULIP ?
(A) Universal Life and Invest-
ment Plan
(B) Unit Loan and Insurance
Plan
(C) Uniformity Loaded Invest-
ment Plan
(D) Unit Linked Insurance Plan
21. What is the full form of MAT ?
(A) Maximum Alternative Tax
(B) Minimum Alternative Tax
(C) Minimum Affordable Tax
22. Which of the following terms is
associated with Share Market ?
(A) Bulls
(B) Bears
(C) Pigs
23. Soil erosion due to running water
can be checked by
I. Afforestation
II. Mulching
III. Control on grazing
IV. Terraced cultivation
(A) I, II and III
(B) II, III and IV
(C) I, III and IV
24. Tropical moist deciduous forest
are found in
I. North Eastern region of
Deccan Plateau.
II. Lower slopes of Himalaya.
III. Part of Karnataka and
Kerala.
(A) I and II (B) II and III
(C) I and III (D) I, II and III
25. Which of the following ports is
also called Nhava Sheva ?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru Port
(B) Kamrajar Port
(C) New Mangalore Port
(D) Paradip Port
26. In tidal energy India has poten-
tial of 8000-9000 MW. The high
potential area of tidal energy
is/are
(A) The Gulf of Khambat
(B) The Gulf of the Kachchh
(C) Sunderbans
27. World famous Dilwara Temples
are at
(A) Mount Abu (Rajasthan)
(B) Chitrakut (MP)
(C) Konark (Odisha)
(D) Rajkot (Gujarat)
28. Bile secretion is stored in
(A) Pancrease
(B) Gall bladder
(C) Liver
(D) Small intestine
29. Marasmus is caused by the
deficiency of
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin D
(C) Protein
(D) Vitamin B
30. Which of the following produce
carbon dioxide on heating ?
I. Calcium Carbonate
II. Sodium Carbonate
III. Zinc Carbonate
IV. Potassium Carbonate
(A) II and III (B) I and IV
(C) I and II (D) II and IV
31. What is fat ?
(A) Acid (B) Alcohol
(C) Esters (D) Cellulose
32. Which of the following is the
hardest substance in the human
body ?
(A) Bone
(B) Enamel
(C) Dentine
(D) Nail
33. Which of the following insect(s)
is/are economically important ?
I. Apis (Honey bee)
II. Bombyx (Silk worm)
III. Laccifer (Lac insect)
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) I and III
(D) I, II and III
34. Which of the following is mis-
matched ?
(A) Common Cold
Rhinoviruses
(B) Fellow Fever
An arbovirus
(C) Small Pox Variola Virus
(D) Cholera Rubella Virus
35. Vikram Novjot and Shakti are
the hybrid varieties of ?
(A) Wheat (B) Maize
(C) Chick pea (D) Mustard
36. We often hear about Green House
effect. It is caused by Green
House gases. Namely
I. Carbon Dioxide
II. Methane
III. Nitrous Oxide
IV. Ozone
(A) I, II and III
(B) II, III and IV
(C) I, II and IV
(D) I, II, III and IV
37. Which of the following state-
ments is/are true ?
(A) Lamps and Kettles can work
with AC or DC current
(B) Radios and Televisions
work only with DC current
(C) Christmas tree bulbs are
usually wired in series
38. Match the List-I and List-II and
chose the correct code given
below
List-I
(Fuel)
(a) Dung Cakes
(b) Wood
(c) Hydrogen gas
(d) Kerosene oil
List-II
(Fuel Values in KJ/gm)
1. 17 2. 48
3. 150 4. 8
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 4 2 1 3
(D) 1 2 3 4
39. The main constituent of petro-
leum gas is
(A) Methane (B) Ethane
(C) Butane (D) Propane
[For Answer See Page 147]
PD/August/2014/177
Parliaments of the Various Countries of the World : European Union
S.
No.
Country Parliament Name of the House
No.of
Seats
Voting System Remarks
1. Austria Federal Assembly
(Budersversammlung)
National Council(National rat) 183 Proportional
Representation
European
Union
Federal Council(Bundesrat) 62 Appointed by state
diets
European
Union
2. Belgium Federal Parliament(Fedraal
Parlement)
Chamber of Representatives(la
Chambre des Reprsentants)
150 Open list Proportional
Representation within
eleven constituencies,
with 5% constituency
electoral thresholds
European
Union
Senate(Senaat) 60 Party list Proportional
Representation
DHondt method
( y l b m e s s A l a n o i t a N a i r a g l u B . 3 Narodno
sabranie)
260 Proportional
representation with
multi seat constitue-
ncies
European
Union
a P n a i t a o r C a i t a o r C . 4 rliament (Hrvatski
sabor) or the Sabor
151 Drect, universal and
equal suffrage by
secret ballot
European
Union
- r o p o r P t s i L n e p O 6 5 s e v i t a t n e s e r p e R f o e s u o H s u r p y C . 5
tional Representation
European
Union
6. Czech
Republic
Parliament (Parlament) Chamber of Deputies (Poslaneck
snemovna Parlamentu (esk
republiky)
200 Party List Proportional
Representation
D'Hondt method
European
Union
Senate of the Parliament of the
Czech Republic (Sent Parlamentu
(esk republiky)
81 Two round System
7. Denmark National Parliament Folketing ( Folketinget) 179 Open list proportional
system with 2% elec-
tion threshold
European
Union
( u g o k i g i i R a i n o t s E . 8 kogu, assembly) 101 Party List Proportional
Representation modi-
fied D'Hondt method
European
Union
( a t n u k s u d E d n a l n i F . 9 eduskunta or Suomen
eduskunta)
200 Electoral district Pro-
portional representa-
tion
European
Union
10. France French Parliament (Parlement
franais)
National Assembly (Assemble
nationale)
577 Two round system European
Union
l a r e d e F ( g a t s e d n u B y n a m r e G . 1 1 Diet) 631 Mixed member Propor-
European
Union
Bundesrat (Federal Council) 69 Direct Election
H e c e e r G . 2 1 ellenic Parliament ( Parliament
of the Hellenes; Vouli ton Ellinon)
300 Reinforced Propor-
European
Union
13. Hungary National
Assembly or Diet ( Orszggyls)
199 Mixed member majo-
ritarian (Parallel
voting)
European
Union
14. Ireland Oireachtas ( Oireachtas
ireann)
e l b a r e f s n a r T e l g n i S 6 6 1 n n a e r i l i D
vote system
European
Union
Seanad ireann (Senate of Ireland) 60 Mixture of various
methods
European
Union
Edited, Printed and Published by Mahendra Jain for M/s Pratiyogita Darpan, 2/11A, Swadeshi Bima Nagar, Agra-2
and Printed by him at Pratiyogita Darpan Printing Unit, 5 & 6 Bye Pass Road, Agra.
15. Italy Italian Parliament (Parlamento
Italiano)
Chamber of Deputies (Camera dei
Deputati)
630 Semi-Proportional
representation with
majority bonus
European
Union
Senate of the Republic (Senato
della Repubblica)
320 elected by an elec-
torate composed of
Italian citizens aged 25
or over
l a n o i t r o p o r p t s i l n e p O 0 0 1 a m i e a S a i v t a L . 6 1
system with 5%
election threshold
European
Union
c i l b u p e R n a i n a u h t i L e h t f o s a m i e S a i n a u h t i L . 7 1
(Lietuvos Respublikos Seimas)
141 Parallel voting with
5% election threshold
for proportional seats
7% for coalation)
European
Union
( s e i t u p e D f o r e b m a h C g r u o b m e x u L . 8 1 D'Chamber) 60 Open list proportional
representation alloca-
ted be DHondt
method
European
Union
19. Malta Parliament House of Representatives 69 Single Transferable
system
European
Union
20. The Nether-
lands
States General of the Nether-
lands (Staten-Generaal der
Nederlanden)
House of Representatives
(Tweede Kamer der Staten-Generaa)
150 Party list Proportional
Representation
European
Union
Senate ( Eerste Kamer der Staten-
Generaal
75 Direct Election
21. Poland National Assembly
(Zgromadzenie Narodowe)
Sejm of the Republic of Poland
(Sejm Rzeczypospolitej Polskiej)
460 Open list proportional
representation in 41
constituencies 5%
national threshold
European
Union
Senate (Senat) 100 First Past the post
system
22. Portugal Assembly of the Republic
(Assembleia da Repblica)
Representation
DHondt method
European
Union
23. Romania Parliament of Romania
(Parlamentul Romniei)
Chamber of Deputies (Camera
Deputatilor)
412 Nominal Vote mixed
member Proportional
representation
European
Union
Senate (Senat) 176 Mixed member Pro-
portional representa-
tion
( l i c n u o C l a n o i t a N a i k a v o l S . 4 2 Nrodn rada) 150 Open list proportional
constituencies 5%
election threshold
European
Union
25. Slovenia Slovenian Parliament
(Slovenski parlament)
National Assembly (Dravni zbor) 90 Open list proportional
constituencies 4%
election threshold
European
Union
National Council (Drzavni svet) 40 Mixed method European
Union
26. Spain Cortes Generales Congress of Deputies ( Congreso
de los Diputados)
Representation
DHondt method
European
Union
Senate of Spain (Senado de Espaa) 266 Elected/Appointed
( g a d s k i R n e d e w S . 7 2 riksdagen or Sveriges
riksdag)
Representation Sainte
Lague method
European
Union
28. United
Kingdom
Parliament of the United
Kingdom of Great Britain
and Northern Ireland
House of Commons 650 First-Past the-post
System
European
Union
House of Lords 779 Appointed
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