Common Board Questions (CBQ)

in Nurse Licensure Examination

(CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM)

CBQ no. 1 How do clients experiencing angina? Describe
that pain.
Answers: Described as squeezing, heavy, burning, radiates to
left arm or shoulder, transient or prolonged.
CBQ no. 2 Develop a teaching plan for the client taking
nitroglycerin.
Answers: Take at first sign of anginal pain. Take no more
than 3, five minutes apart. Call for emergency attention if no
relief in 10 minutes.

CBQ no. 3 List the parameters of blood pressure for
diagnosing hypertension.
Answers: >140/90
CBQ no. 4 Differentiate between essential and secondary
hypertension.
Answers: Essential has no known cause while secondary
hypertension develops in response to an identifiable
mechanism.
CBQ no. 5 Develop a teaching plan for the client taking
antihypertensive medications.
Answers: Explain how and when to take med, reason for med,
necessary of compliance, need for follow-up visits while on
med, need for certain lab tests, vital sign parameters while
initiating therapy.
CBQ no. 6 Describe intermittent claudication.
Answers: Pain related to peripheral vascular disease
occurring with exercise and disappearing with rest.
CBQ no. 7 Describe the nurses discharge instructions to a
client with venous peripheral vascular disease.
Answers: Keep extremities elevated when sitting, rest at first
sign of pain, keep extremities warm (but do NOT use heating
pad), change position often, avoid crossing legs, wear
unrestrictive clothing.
CBQ no. 8 What is often the underlying cause of
abdominal aortic aneurysm?
Answers: Atherosclerosis.
CBQ no. 9 What lab values should be monitored daily for
the client with thrombophlebitis who is undergoing
anticoagulant therapy?
Answers: PTT, PT, Hgb, and Hct, platelets.
CBQ no. 10 When do PVCs (premature ventricular
contractions) present a grave danger?
Answers: When they begin to occur more often than once in
10 beats, occur in 2s or 3s, land near the T wave, or take on
multiple configurations.
CBQ no. 11 Differentiate between the symptoms of left-
sided cardiac failure and right-sided cardiac failure.
Answers: Left-sided failure results in pulmonary congestion
due to back-up of circulation in the left ventricle. Right-sided
failure results in peripheral congestion due to back-up of
circulation in the right ventricle.
CBQ no. 12 List 3 symptoms of digitalis toxicity.
Answers: Dysrhythmias, headache, nausea and vomiting
CBQ no. 13 What condition increases the likelihood of
digitalis toxicity occurring?
Answers: When the client is hypokalemic (which is more
common when diuretics and digitalis preparations are given
together).
CBQ no. 14 what life style changes can the client who is at
risk for hypertension initiate to reduce the likelihood of
becoming hypertensive?
Answers: Cease cigarette smoking if applicable, control
weight, exercise regularly, and maintain a low-fat/low-
cholesterol diet.
CBQ no. 15 What immediate actions should the nurse
implement when a client is having a myocardial
infarction?
Answers: Place the client on immediate strict bedrest to lower
oxygen demands of heart, administer oxygen by nasal cannula
at 2-5 L/min., take measures to alleviate pain and anxiety
(administer prn pain medications and anti-anxiety
medications).
CBQ no. 16 What symptoms should the nurse expect to
find in the client with hypokalemia?
Answers: Dry mouth and thirst, drowsiness and lethargy,
muscle weakness and aches, and tachycardia.
CBQ no. 17 Bradycardia is defined as a heart rate below
___ BPM. Tachycardia is defined as a heart rate above
___ BPM.
Answers: bradycardia 60 bpm; tachycardia 100 bpm
CBQ no. 18 What precautions should clients with valve
disease take prior to invasive procedures or dental work?
Answers: Take prophylactic antibiotics.

Common Board Questions (CBQ)
in Nurse Licensure Examination
(RENAL SYSTEM)
CBQ no. 1 Differentiate between acute renal failure and
chronic renal failure.
Answers: Acute renal failure: often reversible, abrupt
deterioration of kidney function. Chronic renal failure:
irreversible, slow deterioration of kidney function
characterized by increasing BUN and creatinine. Eventually
dialysis is required.
CBQ no. 2 During the oliguric phase of renal failure,
protein should be severely restricted. What is the
rationale for this restriction?
Answer: Toxic metabolites that accumulate in the blood (urea,
creatinine) are derived mainly from protein catabolism.
CBQ no. 3 Identify 2 nursing interventions for the client
on hemodialysis.
Answer: Do NOT take BP or perform venipunctures on the
arm with the A-V shunt, fistula, or graft. Assess access site for
thrill or bruit.
CBQ no. 4 What is the highest priority nursing diagnosis
for clients in any type of renal failure?
Answer: Alteration in fluid and electrolyte balance.
CBQ no. 5 A client in renal failure asks why he is being
given antacids. How should the nurse reply?
Answer: Calcium and aluminum antacids bind phosphates
and help to keep phosphates from being absorbed into blood
stream thereby preventing rising phosphate levels, and must
be taken with meals.
CBQ no. 6 List 4 essential elements of a teaching plan for
clients with frequent urinary tract infections.
Answer: Fluid intake 3 liters/day; good handwashing; void
every 2-3 hours during waking hours; take all prescribed
medications; wear cotton undergarments.
CBQ no. 7 What are the most important nursing
interventions for clients with possible renal calculi?
Answer: Strain all urine is the MOST IMPORTANT
intervention. Other interventions include accurate intake and
output documentation and administer analgesics as needed.
CBQ no. 8 What discharge instructions should be given to
a client who has had urinary calculi?
Answer: Maintain high fluid intake 3-4 liters per day.
Follow-up care (stones tend to recur). Follow prescribed diet
based in calculi content. Avoid supine position.

CBQ no. 9 Following transurethral resection of the
prostate gland (TURP), hematuria should subside by what
post-op day?
Answer: Fourth day
CBQ no. 10 After the urinary catheter is removed in the
TURP client, what are 3 priority nursing actions?
Answer: Continued strict I&O; continued observations for
hematuria; inform client burning and frequency may last for a
week.
CBQ no. 11 After kidney surgery, what are the primary
assessments the nurse should make?
Answer: Respiratory status (breathing is guarded because of
pain); circulatory status (the kidney is very vascular and
excess bleeding can occur); pain assessment; urinary
assessment most importantly, assessment of urinary output.

Common Board Questions (CBQ)
in Nurse Licensure Examination
(RESPIRATORY SYSTEM)
CBQ n0. 1 List 4 common symptoms of pneumonia the
nurse might note on a physical exam.
Answer: Tachypnea, fever with chills, productive cough,
bronchial breath sounds.
CBQ no. 2 State 4 nursing interventions for assisting the
client to cough productively.
Answer: Deep breathing, fluid intake increased to 3 liters/day,
use humidity to loosen secretions, suction airway to stimulate
coughing.
CBQ no. 3 What symptoms of pneumonia might the nurse
expect to see in an older client?
Answer: Confusion, lethargy, anorexia, rapid respiratory
rate.
CBQ no. 4 What should the O2 flow rate be for the client
with COPD?
Answer: 1-2 liters per nasal cannula, too much O2 may
eliminate the COPD clients stimulus to breathe, a COPD
client has hypoxic drive to breathe.
CBQ no. 4 How does the nurse prevent hypoxia during
suctioning?
Answer: Deliver 100% oxygen (hyperinflating) before and
after each endotracheal suctioning.
CBQ no. 5 During mechanical ventilation, what are three
major nursing intervention?
Answer: Monitor clients respiratory status and secure
connections, establish a communication mechanism with the
client, keep airway clear by coughing/suctioning.

CBQ no. 6 When examining a client with emphysema,
what physical findings is the nurse likely to see?
Answer: Barrel chest, dry or productive cough, decreased
breath sounds, dyspnea, crackles in lung fields.
CBQ no. 7 What is the most common risk factor associated
with lung cancer?
Answeer: Smoking
CBQ no. 8 Describe the pre-op nursing care for a client
undergoing a laryngectomy.
Answer: Involve family/client in manipulation of tracheostomy
equipment before surgery, plan acceptable communication
method, refer to speech pathologist, discuss rehabilitation
program.
CBQ no. 9 List 5 nursing interventions after chest tube
insertion.
Answer: Maintain a dry occlusive dressing to chest tube site
at all times. Check all connections every 4 hours. Make sure
bottle III or end of chamber is bubbling. Measure chest tube
drainage by marking level on outside of drainage unit.
Encourage use of incentive spirometry every 2 hours.
CBQ no. 10 What immediate action should the nurse take
when a chest tube becomes disconnected from a bottle or a
suction apparatus? What should the nurse do if a chest
tube is accidentally removed from the client?
Answer: Place end in container of sterile water. Apply an
occlusive dressing and notify physician STAT.
CBQ no. 11 What instructions should be given to a client
following radiation therapy?
Answer: Do NOT wash off lines; wear soft cotton garments,
avoid use of powders/creams on radiation site.
CBQ no. 12 What precautions are required for clients with
TB when placed on respiratory isolation?
Answer: Mask for anyone entering room; private room; client
must wear mask if leaving room.
CBQ no. 13 List 4 components of teaching for the client
with tuberculosis.
Answer: Cough into tissues and dispose immediately into
special bags. Long-term need for daily medication. Good
handwashing technique. Report symptoms of deterioration,
i.e., blood in secretions.


Common Board Questions (CBQ)
in Nurse Licensure Examination
(ENDOCRINE SYSTEM)
CBQ. no 1. What diagnostic test is used to determine
thyroid activity?
Answers: T3 and T4
CBQ. no 2. What condition results from all treatments for
hyperthyroidism?
Answers: Hypothyroidism, requiring thyroid replacement
CBQ. no 3. State 3 symptoms of hyperthyroidism and 3
symptoms of hypothyroidism.
Answers: Hyperthyroidism: weight loss, heat intolerance,
diarrhea. Hypothyroidism: fatigue, cold intolerance, weight
gain.
CBQ. no 4. List 5 important teaching aspects for clients
who are beginning corticosteroid therapy.
Answers: Continue medication until weaning plan is begun by
physician, monitor serum potassium, glucose, and sodium
frequently; weigh daily, and report gain of >5lbs./wk;
monitor BP and pulse closely; teach symptoms of Cushings
syndrome
CBQ. no 5. Describe the physical appearance of clients
who are Cushinoid.
Answers: Moon face, obesity in trunk, buffalo hump in back,
muscle atrophy, and thin skin.
CBQ. no 6. Which type of diabetic always requires insulin
replacement?
Answers: Type I, Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM)
CBQ. no 7. What type of diabetic sometimes requires no
medication?
Answers: Type II, Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
(NIDDM)
CBQ. no 8. List 5 symptoms of hyperglycemia.
Answers:Polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, weakness, weight
loss
CBQ. no 9. List 5 symptoms of hypoglycemia.
Answers: Hunger, lethargy, confusion, tremors or shakes,
sweating
CBQ. no 10. Name the necessary elements to include in
teaching the new diabetic.
Answers: Teach the underlying pathophysiology of the
disease, its management/ treatment regime, meal planning,
exercise program, insulin administration, sick-day
management, symptoms of hyperglycemia (not enough insulin)
CBQ. no 11. In less than ten steps, describe the method for
drawing up a mixed dose of insulin (regular with NPH).
Answers: Identify the prescribed dose/type of insulin per
physician order; store unopened insulin in refrigerator. If
opened, may be kept at room temperature for up to 3 months.
Draw up regular insulin FIRST. Rotate injection sites. May
reuse syringe by recapping and storing in refrigerator.
CBQ. no 12. Identify the peak action time of the following
types of insulin: rapid-acting regular insulin, intermediate-
acting, long-acting.
Answers: Rapid-acting regular insulin: 2-4 hrs. Immediate-
acting: 6-12 hrs. Long-acting: 14-20 hrs.
CBQ. no 13. When preparing the diabetic for discharge,
the nurse teaches the client the relationship between stress,
exercise, bedtime snacking, and glucose balance. State the
relationship between each of these.
Answers: Stress and stress hormones usually increase glucose
production and increase insulin need; exercise can increase
the chance for an insulin reaction, therefore, the client should
always have a sugar snack available when exercising (to treat
hypoglycemia); bedtime snacking can prevent insulin
reactions while waiting for long-acting insulin to peak.
CBQ. no 14. When making rounds at night, the nurse
notes that an insulin-dependent client is complaining of a
headache, slight nausea, and minimal trembling. The
clients hand is cool and moist. What is the client most
likely experiencing?
Answers: Hypoglycemia/insulin reaction.
CBQ. no 1. Identify 5 foot-care interventions that should
be taught to the diabetic client.
Answers: Check feet daily & report any breaks, sores, or
blisters to health care provider, wear well-fitting shoes; never
go barefoot or wear sandals, never personally remove corns
or calluses, cut or file nails straight across; wash daily with
mild soap & warm water.


Common Board Questions (CBQ)
in Nurse Licensure Examination
(NEUROLOGICAL SYSTEM)
CBQ. no 1. What are the classifications of the commonly
prescribed eye drops for glaucoma?
Answers: Parasympathominetics for pupillary constriction.
Beta-adrenergic receptor-blocking agents to inhibit formation
of aqueous humor. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors to reduce
aqueous humor production, and prostaglandin agonists to
increase aqueous humor outflow.
CBQ. no 2. Identify 2 types of hearing loss.
Answers: Conductive (transmission of sound to inner ear is
blocked) and sensorineural (damage to 8th cranial nerve)
CBQ. no 3. Write 4 nursing interventions for the care of the
blind person and 4 nursing interventions for the care of the
deaf person.
Answers: Care of the blind: announce presence clearly, call by
name, orient carefully to surroundings, guide by walking in
front of client with his/her hand in your elbow. Care of deaf:
reduce distraction before beginning conversation, look and
listen to client, give client full attention if they are a lip reader,
face client directly.
CBQ. no 4. In your own words describe the Glasgow Coma
Scale.
Answers: An objective assessment of the level of
consciousness based on a score of 3 to 15, with scores of 7 or
less indicative of coma.
CBQ. no 5. List 4 nursing diagnoses for the comatose client in
order of priority.
Answers: Ineffective breathing pattern, ineffective airway
clearance, impaired gas exchange, and decreased cardiac
output.
CBQ. no 6. State 4 independent nursing interventions to
maintain adequate respirations, airway, and oxygenation in the
unconscious client.
Answers: Position for maximum ventilation (prone or semi-
prone and slightly to one side), insert airway if tongue
obstructing; suction airway efficiently, monitor arterial pO2
and pCO2 and hyperventilate with 100% oxygen before
suctioning.
CBQ. no 7. Who is at risk for cerebral vascular accidents?
Answers: Persons with history of hypertension, previous
TIAs, cardiac disease (atrial flutter/fibrillation), diabetes, oral
contraceptive use, and the elderly.
CBQ. no 8. Complications of immobility include the potential
for thrombus development. State 3 nursing interventions to
prevent thrombi.

Answers: Frequent range of motion exercises, frequent (q2h)
position changes, and avoidance of positions which decrease
venous return.
CBQ. no 9. List 4 rationales for the appearance of restlessness
in the unconscious client.
Answers: Anoxia, distended bladder, covert bleeding, or a
return to consciousness
CBQ. no 10. What nursing interventions prevent corneal
drying in a comatose client?
Answers: Irrigation of eyes PRN with sterile prescribed
solution, application of opthalmic ointment q8h, close
assessment for corneal ulceration/drying.
CBQ. no 11. When a comatose client on IV hyperalimentation
begin to receive tube feedings instead?
Answers: When peristalsis resumes as evidenced by active
bowel sounds, passage of flatus or bowel movement.
CBQ. no 12. What is the most important principle in a bowel
management program for a neurologic client?
Answers: Establishment of REGULARITY
CBQ. no 13. Define cerebral vascular accident.
Answers: A disruption of blood supply to a part of the brain,
which results in sudden loss of brain function.
CBQ. no 14. A client with a diagnosis of CVA presents with
symptoms of aphasia, right hemiparesis, but no memory or
hearing deficit. In what hemisphere has the client suffered a
lesion?
Answer: Left
CBQ. no 15. What are the symptoms of spinal shock?
Answers: Hypotension, bladder and bowel distention, total
paralysis, lack of sensation below lesion.
CBQ. no 16. What are the symptoms of autonomic
dysreflexia?
Answers: Hypertension, bladder and bowel distention,
exaggerated autonomic responses, headache, sweating, goose
bumps, and bradycardia
CBQ. no 17. What is the most important indicator of
increased ICP?
Answers: A change in the level of responsiveness
CBQ. no 18. What vital sign changes are indicative of
increased ICP?
Answers: Increased BP, widening pulse pressure, increased or
decreased pulse, respiratory irregularities and temperature
increase.
CBQ. no 19. A neighbor calls the neighborhood nurse stating
that he was knocked hard to the floor by his very hyperactive
dog. He is wondering what symptoms would indicate the need
to visit an emergency room. What should the nurse tell him to
do?
Answers: Call his physician now and inform him/her of the
fall. Symptoms needing medical attention would include
vertigo, confusion or any subtle behavioral change, headache,
vomiting, ataxia (imbalance), or seizure.
CBQ. no 20. What activities and situations should be avoided
that increase ICP?
Answers: Change in bed position, extreme hip flexion,
endotracheal suctioning, compression of jugular veins,
coughing, vomiting, or straining of any kind.
CBQ. no 21. How do Hyperosmotic agents (osmotic diuretics)
used to treat intracranial pressure act?
Answers: Dehydrate the brain and reduce cerebral edema by
holding water in the renal tubules to prevent reabsorption, and
by drawing fluid from the extravascular spaces into the
plasma.
CBQ. no 22. Why should narcotics be avoided in clients with
neurologic impairment?
Answers: Narcotics mask the level of responsiveness as well
as pupillary response.
CBQ. no 23. Headache and vomiting are symptoms of many
disorders. What characteristics of these symptoms would alert
the nurse to refer a client to a neurologist?
Answers: Headache which is more severe upon awakening
and vomiting not associated with nausea are symptoms of a
brain tumor.
CBQ. no 24. How should the head of the bed be positioned
for post-craniotomy clients with infratentorial lesions?
Answers: Infratentorial FLAT; Supratentorial elevated
CBQ. no 25. Is multiple sclerosis thought to occur because of
an autoimmune process?
Answer: YES
CBQ. no 26. Is paralysis always a consequence of spinal cord
injury?
Answer: NO
CBQ. no 27. What types of drugs are used in the treatment of
myasthenia gravis?
Answers: Anticholinesterase drugs, which inhibit the action of
cholinesterase at the nerve endings to promote the
accumulation of acetylcholine at receptor sires, which should
improve neuronal transmission to muscles.
Common Board Questions (CBQ)
in Nurse Licensure Examination
(GASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEM)
CBQ n0. 1 List 4 nursing interventions for the client with a
hiatal hernia.
Answer: Sit up while eating and one hour after eating. Eat
small, frequent meals. Eliminate foods that are problematic.
CBQ n0. 2 List 3 categories of medications used in the
treatment of peptic ulcer disease.
Answer: Antacids, H2 receptor-blockers, mucosal healing
agents, proton pump inhibitors.
CBQ no. 3 List the symptoms of upper and lower
gastrointestinal bleeding.
Answer: Upper GI: melena, hematemesis, tarry stools. Lower
GI: bloddy stools, tarry stools. Similar: tarry stools.
CBQ n0. 4 What bowel sound disruptions occur with an
intestinal obstruction?
Answer: Early mechanical obstruction: high-pitched sounds;
late mechanical obstruction: diminished or absent bowel
sounds.
CBQ n0. 5 List 4 nursing interventions for post-op care of
the client with a colostomy.
Answer: Irrigate daily at same time; use warm water for
irrigations; wash around stoma with mild soap/water after
each colostomy bag change; pouch opening should extend at
least 1/8 inch around the stoma.
CBQ n0. 6 List the common clinical manifestations of
jaundice.
Answer: Sclera-icteric (yellow sclera), dark urine, chalky or
clay-colored stools
CBQ n0. 7 What are the common food intolerances for
clients with cholelithiasis?
Answer: Fried/spicy or fatty foods.
CBQ n0. 8 List 5 symptoms indicative of colon cancer.
Answer: Rectal bleeding, change in bowel habits, sense of
incomplete evacuation, abdominal pain with nausea, weight
loss.
CBQ n0. 9 In a client with cirrhosis, it is imperative to
prevent further bleeding and observe for bleeding
tendencies. List 6 relevant nursing interventions.
Answer: Avoid injectons, use small bore needles for IV
insertion, maintain pressure for 5 minutes on all venipuncture
sites, use electric razor, use soft-bristle toothbrush for mouth
care, check stools and emesis for occult blood.
CBQ n0. 10 What is the main side effect of lactulose, which
is used to reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis?
Answer: Diarrhea.
CBQ n0. 11 List 4 groups who have a high risk of
contracting hepatitis.
Answer: Homosexual males, IV drug users, recent ear
piercing or tattooing, and health care workers.