500 PCP

ITE 100 2007 Fall Final Prep 1
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. As computers become more a part of everyday life, many people believe that _____ is/are vital to success.
a. computer programming c. computer repair

b.
computer literacy d. all of the above

____ 2. All of the following are widely used input devices except the _____.
a. keyboard and mouse c. digital camera and PC video camera
b. microphone and scanner d. printer and monitor

____ 3. The _____ is a small handheld input device that controls the movement of a small symbol on the screen called
the pointer.
a. keyboard c. scanner
b. mouse d. microphone

____ 4. Each of the following is a commonly used output device except _____.
a. a printer c. a scanner
b. a monitor d. speakers

____ 5. The circuitry of the system unit usually is part of or is connected to a circuit board called the _____.
a. fatherboard c. brotherboard
b. motherboard d. sisterboard

____ 6. A _____ is a portable storage device that has much greater storage capabilities than a floppy disk, but is small
and lightweight enough to be transported on a keychain or in a pocket.
a. Zip

disk c. USB flash drive
b. hard disk d. DVD

____ 7. A hard disk provides much _____.
a. less storage capacity than a floppy disk, Zip disk, or USB
b. less storage capacity than a floppy disk but more than a USB flash drive
c. greater storage capacity than a floppy disk but less than a USB flash drive
d. greater storage capacity than a floppy disk, Zip disk, or USB flash drive

____ 8. A widely used communication device is a _____.
a. modem c. USB flash drive
b. CD drive d. Zip disk

____ 9. A computing phrase known as _____ points out that the accuracy of a computers output depends on
the accuracy of the input.
a. what you see is what you get c. nothing ventured, nothing gained
b. garbage in, garbage out d. better safe than sorry

____ 10. All of the following are advantages of using computers except _____.
a. speed c. communications
b. impact on labor force d. consistency

____ 11. On a network, the major difference between the server and client computers is that the server ordinarily has
_____.
a. less power, less storage space, and decreased communication capabilities
b. less power, less storage space, but expanded communication capabilities
c. more power, more storage space, but decreased communication capabilities
d. more power, more storage space, and expanded communication capabilities

____ 12. People around the world use the Internet to _____.
a. communicate with and meet other people c. access sources of information and leisure
b. shop for goods and services d. all of the above

____ 13. In _____, people can communicate with multiple users at the same time much like a group discussion.
a. e-mail c. a chat room
b. instant messaging d. file transfer

____ 14. A Web site is _____.
a. a collection of related Web pages
b. the location from which a Web page originates
c. the source of a Web page
d. an author of a Web page

____ 15. You interact with a program through its _____, which controls how you enter data and instructions and how
information is displayed on the screen.
a. Mouse c. user interface
b. storage d. icon

____ 16. Software today has a _____, like that shown in the accompanying figure.
a. command-line interface c. menu-driven interface
b. graphical user interface d. coded-row interface

____ 17. A(n) _____, such as those shown in the accompanying figure, is a miniature image that represents a program,
an instruction, or some other object.
a. menu c. icon
b. command d. window

____ 18. A widely used type of application software related to communications is _____, which allows users with an
Internet connection to access Web pages.
a. a Web browser c. database software
b. word processing software d. spreadsheet software

____ 19. A computers _____ determine(s) the category it best fits.
a. size and speed c. price
b. processing power d. all of the above

____ 20. Two types of _____ are desktop computers and notebook computers.
a. personal computers c. midrange servers
b. mobile computers d. mainframes

____ 21. In many models of personal computers, the system unit is the tall and narrow _____, which can sit on the
floor vertically if desktop space is limited.
a. land c. oasis
b. tower d. plane

____ 22. An expensive, powerful desktop computer is the _____, which is geared for work that requires intense
calculations and graphics capabilities.
a. Tablet PC c. mainframe
b. workstation d. PDA

____ 23. Each of the following is a popular type of mobile device except _____.
a. handheld computers c. smart phones
b. PDAs d. midrange servers

____ 24. Meter readers and parcel delivery people are likely to use a _____ in their jobs as they move from place to
place.
a. handheld computer c. chat room
b. midrange server d. desktop computer

____ 25. Convergence has led manufacturers to refer to PDAs and smart phones simply as _____.
a. desktops c. handhelds
b. smart watches d. mainframes

____ 26. Factors that influence a consumers purchasing decision for handhelds include _____.
a. size c. capabilities of available software
b. screen size d. all of the above

____ 27. Standard _____ use a handheld controller(s) as an input device; a television screen as an output device; and
hard disks, CDs, DVDs, and/or memory cards for storage.
a. game consoles c. smart phones
b. ultra personal computers d. servers

____ 28. Most major corporations use _____ for business activities.
a. embedded computers c. mainframes
b. supercomputers d. mobiles devices

____ 29. _____ are capable of processing more than 100 trillion instructions in a single second.
a. Desktop computers c. Midrange servers
b. Notebook computers d. Supercomputers

____ 30. _____ comprise an information system.
a. Hardware and software c. Procedures
b. Data and people d. All of the above

____ 31. _____ include local law practices, accounting firms, travel agencies, and florists.
a. Mobil users c. Large business users
b. Small offices d. Power users

____ 32. Many small office/home office users (SOHO) are entering the _____ arena and conduct business on the Web.
a. e-commerce c. e-transit
b. multimedia d. multidimensional

____ 33. Examples of _____ are sales reps, real estate agents, insurance agents, meter readers, package delivery
people, journalists, consultants, and students.
a. small office/home office users c. large business users
b. mobile users d. power users

____ 34. With _____ software, a mobile user can create and deliver a presentation to a large audience by connecting a
mobile computer or device to a video projector that displays the presentation on a full screen.
a. presentation graphics c. word processing
b. spreadsheet d. database

____ 35. Examples of _____ include engineers, scientists, architects, desktop publishers, and graphic artists.
a. home users c. large business users
b. mobile users d. power users

____ 36. _____ users use the computer network to process high volumes of transactions in a single day.
a. Power c. SOHO
b. Home d. Large business

____ 37. Through _____, health-care professionals in separate locations conduct live conferences on the computer.
a. teledoc c. telecare
b. telemedicine d. teleremedy

____ 38. A(n) _____ is a system that attempts to imitate the behavior of the human brain.
a. neural network c. camera pill
b. cochlear implant d. electrode implant

____ 39. _____ are two of the more widely accessed Internet services.
a. The World Wide Web and e-mail c. Mailing lists and chat rooms
b. FTP and message boards d. Instant messaging and newsgroups

____ 40. Fixed wireless Internet connections _____.
a. use an antenna to communicate with a tower
b. are high-speed
c. use radio signals
d. all of the above

____ 41. Although it is an easy and inexpensive way for users to connect to the Internet, _____ is slow-speed
technology.
a. a cable modem c. a dial-up connection
b. DSL d. ISDN

____ 42. Unlike higher-speed access, which is connected to the Internet the entire time the computer is running, with
_____ a connection must be established to the Internet.
a. DSL c. ISDN
b. dial-up access d. a cable modem

____ 43. A satellite modem _____.
a. uses regular copper telephone lines
b. is a high-speed Internet connection
c. accesses the Internet through the cable television network
d. uses radio signals to communicate with a tower

____ 44. In the accompanying figure showing common ways to access the Internet, a(n) _____ usually provides
Internet access to a specific geographic area.
a. wireless Internet service provider
(WISP)
c. regional ISP
b. online service provider (OSP) d. national ISP

____ 45. In the accompanying figure showing common ways to access the Internet, a(n) _____ is a larger
business, such as AT&T WorldNet and EarthLink, that provides Internet access in cities and towns
nationwide.
(WISP)
c. regional ISP

____ 46. In the accompanying figure showing common ways to access the Internet, a(n) _____ has many
members-only features, such as special content and services, in addition to providing Internet access.
(WISP)
c. regional ISP

____ 47. In the accompanying figure showing common ways to access the Internet, a(n) _____ is a company that
provides access to users with Internet-enabled mobile devices.
(WISP)
c. regional ISP

____ 48. The major carriers of network traffic on the Internet are known collectively as the _____.
a. NERVEnet c. Internet backbone
b. DARPA d. Internet artery

____ 49. In an IP address, the number in each group is between _____.
a. 0 and 255 c. 550 and 755
b. 250 and 555 d. 750 and 955

____ 50. When a user specifies a domain name, a _____ translates the domain name to its associated IP address so data
can route to the correct computer.
a. URL client c. URL server
b. DNS client d. DNS server

____ 51. Visitors to a _____ can customize some or all of the content, such as stock quotes, weather, or ticket
availability.
a. static Web page c. dynamic Web page
b. home page d. Web server

____ 52. In a Web address, the _____, is a set of rules that defines how pages transfer on the Internet.
a. html, which stands for Hypertext Markup Language
b. www, which stands for World Wide Web
c. http, which stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol
d. url, which stands for Uniform Resource Locator

____ 53. Search engines _____.
a. are particularly helpful in locating pages about certain topics
b. require that you enter search text
c. allow you to use operators to refine a search
d. all of the above

____ 54. A wireless portal is a portal specifically designed for _____.
a. desktop computers c. Internet-enabled mobile devices
b. mainframe computers d. supercomputers

____ 55. An educational Web site _____.
a. contains content that promotes or sells products or services
b. offers exciting, challenging avenues for formal and informal teaching and learning
c. contains content that describes a cause, opinion, or idea
d. is maintained by a private individual or family who normally is not associated with any
organization

____ 56. An advocacy Web site _____.
a. contains content that promotes or sells products or services
b. offers exciting, challenging avenues for formal and informal teaching and learning
c. contains content that describes a cause, opinion, or idea
d. is maintained by a private individual or family who normally is not associated with any
organization

____ 57. A wiki _____.
a. reflects the interests, opinions, and personalities of the authors
b. are usually open to modification by the general public
c. distributes, or feeds, the content to subscribers for free or a fee
d. is an informal site consisting of time-stamped articles, usually in a diary or journal format

____ 58. _____ is a specification sometimes used by content aggregators to distribute content.
a. MPEG c. DSL
b. Atom d. NSF

____ 59. Many Web pages use _____, which is the appearance of motion created by displaying a series of still images
in sequence.
a. thumbnails c. virtual reality
b. audio d. animation

____ 60. _____ enables users to listen to music as it downloads to their computers.
a. Streaming audio c. Streaming video
b. Flowing audio d. Flowing video

____ 61. The _____ defines a popular video compression standard.
a. Moving Pictures Experts Group (MPEG)
b. Advanced Research Projects Agency (ARPA)
c. National Science Foundation (NSF)
d. Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)

____ 62. _____ occurs when one consumer sells directly to another consumer, such as in an online auction.
a. Consumer-to-business (C2B) e-commerce
b. Business-to-consumer (B2C) e-commerce
c. Consumer-to-consumer (C2C) e-commerce
d. Business-to-business (B2B) e-commerce

____ 63. Most e-commerce actually takes place between businesses, which is called _____.
a. consumer-to-business (C2B) e-commerce
b. business-to-consumer (B2C) e-commerce
c. consumer-to-consumer (C2C) e-commerce
d. business-to-business (B2B) e-commerce

____ 64. Today, _____ is a primary communications method for both personal and business use.
a. e-commerce c. chat room
b. FTP d. e-mail

____ 65. _____ is a communications technology used by some outgoing mail servers.
a. SMTP (simple mail transfer protocol) c. POP (post office protocol)
b. ARPA (advanced rural postal addresses) d. HTML (hypertext mail link)

____ 66. _____ is the process of transferring documents, graphics, and other objects from a computer to a server on the
Internet.
a. Uploading c. Downloading
b. Streaming d. Flowing

____ 67. Many FTP sites have _____, whereby anyone can transfer some, if not all, available files.
a. identified FTP c. named FTP
b. anonymous FTP d. signed FTP

____ 68. A computer that stores and distributes newsgroup messages is called a _____.
a. news client c. news server
b. newsreader d. newsmonger

____ 69. A newsreader enables users to access a newsgroup to read previously entered messages, called _____.
a. stories c. series
b. features d. articles

____ 70. Some mailing lists are called _____, named after a popular mailing list program.
a. LISTSERVs c. ARPANETs
b. MPEGs d. W3Cs

____ 71. _____ is an unsolicited e-mail message or newsgroup posting sent to many recipients or newsgroups at once.
a. An emoticon c. A flame
b. Spam d. FAQ

____ 72. _____ is mass-produced, copyrighted retail software that meets the needs of a variety of users, not just a
single user or company.
a. Packaged software c. Freeware
b. Custom software d. Public-domain software

____ 73. Open source software _____.
a. is provided for use, modification, and redistribution
b. has no restrictions from the copyright holder
c. usually can be downloaded from the Web at no cost
d. all of the above

____ 74. _____ is copyrighted software that is distributed at no cost for a trial period.
a. Shareware c. Packaged software
b. Custom software d. Public-domain software

____ 75. _____ is copyrighted software provided at no cost to a user by an individual or a company.
a. Custom software c. Public-domain software
b. Packaged software d. Freeware

____ 76. Each time a user starts a computer, the operating system is _____ (copied) from the computers hard disk into
memory.
a. printed c. loaded
b. scrolled d. saved

____ 77. The _____ is a small symbol displayed on the screen that moves as a user moves the mouse.
a. menu c. icon
b. button d. pointer

____ 78. A _____ is a special window that provides information, presents available options, or requests a response.
a. command box c. dialog box
b. shortcut menu d. submenu

____ 79. _____ includes programs such as word processing, spreadsheet, database, presentation graphics, personal
information manager software, PDA business software, software suites, accounting, and project management.
a. Business software
b. Graphics and multimedia software
c. Software for home, personal, and educational use
d. Communications software

____ 80. A macro is a _____.
a. document that contains the formatting necessary for a specific document type
b. sequence of keystrokes and instructions that a user records and saves
c. small image on the screen that represents a program or document
d. collection of drawings, diagrams, and photographs that can be inserted into a document

____ 81. _____ automatically appear on the screen when a certain action is performed.
a. Tracking changes c. File names
b. Mail merges d. Smart tags

____ 82. A template is a _____.
a. document that contains the formatting necessary for a specific document type
b. sequence of keystrokes and instructions that a user records and saves
c. small image on the screen that represents a program or document
d. collection of drawings, diagrams, and photographs that can be inserted into a document

____ 83. When computer users _____ a document, they enter text or numbers, insert graphical images, and perform
other tasks using an input device.
a. create c. print
b. format d. save

____ 84. To _____ a document means to make changes to its existing content.
a. format c. edit
b. save d. print

____ 85. To cut involves removing a portion of a document and storing it in a temporary storage location, sometimes
called a _____.
a. dialog box c. template
b. clipboard d. submenu

____ 86. A single point is about _____ of an inch in height.
a. 1/9 c. 1/36
b. 1/18 d. 1/72

____ 87. When computer users _____ a document, the computer transfers the document from memory to a storage
medium.
a. save c. format
b. edit d. print

____ 88. When using spreadsheet software, each worksheet typically has _____.
a. 56 columns and 536 rows c. 256 columns and 65,536 rows
b. 536 columns and 56 rows d. 65,536 columns and 256 rows

____ 89. Using the _____ =SUM(B10:B14) totals the contents of cells B10 through B14 in a worksheet.
a. label c. formula
b. value d. function

____ 90. A _____, such as that in the accompanying figure, shows a trend during a period of time, as indicated by a
rising or falling line.
a. column chart c. pie chart
b. line chart d. scatter chart

____ 91. A _____, such as that in the accompanying figure, displays bars of various lengths to show the relationship of
data.

____ 92. A _____, such as that in the accompanying figure, has a round shape cut into slices and shows the relationship
of parts to a whole.

____ 93. Users with an artistic ability can create their own graphic using paint/image editing software and then _____
(bring in) the graphics into a presentation graphics software slide.
a. transport c. deport
b. import d. export

____ 94. Most PDAs and many smart phones today include, among other features, _____ functionality.
a. DTP c. CAD
b. PIM d. WBT

____ 95. _____ is ideal for the production of high-quality color documents such as textbooks, corporate newsletters,
marketing literature, product catalogs, and annual reports.
a. Professional DTP software c. Professional CAD software
b. Word processing software d. Web page authoring software

____ 96. _____ provides standard contracts and documents associated with buying, selling, and renting property; estate
planning; marriage and divorce; and preparing a will or living trust.
a. Legal software c. Entertainment software
b. Reverence software d. Accounting software

____ 97. _____ typically consists of self-directed, self-paced instruction on a topic.
a. CBT c. DTP
b. CAD d. FAQ

____ 98. Popular _____ includes encyclopedias, dictionaries, health/medical guides, and travel directories.
a. legal software c. entertainment software
b. reference software d. accounting software

____ 99. A blog needs _____ to create/maintain a blog.
a. an anti-spam program c. a file manager
b. blogware d. a personal firewall

____ 100. A(n) _____ restricts access to specified Web sites.
a. antivirus program c. pop-up blocker
b. anti-spam program d. Web filter

____ 101. A(n) _____ protects a computer by identifying and removing any viruses found in memory, on media, or in
files.
a. antivirus program c. pop-up blocker
b. anti-spam program d. Web filter

____ 102. A vertical market ASP _____.
a. offers a variety of software applications to a specific geographic area
b. supplies prepackaged, standard entertainment applications
c. provides applications for a particular industry
d. customizes and delivers high-end business applications

____ 103. _____ is the delivery of education at one location while the learning takes place at other locations.
a. Extended training (ET) c. Remote teaching (RT)
b. Faraway schooling (FS) d. Distance learning (DL)

____ 104. On _____, the electronic components and most storage devices are part of the system unit and other devices,
such as the keyboard, mouse, and monitor, normally occupy space outside the system unit.
a. desktop personal computers c. mobile devices
b. notebook computers d. all of the above

____ 105. The cases of the system unit, sometimes called the _____, is made of metal or plastic and protects the internal
electronic components from damage.
a. form factor c. motherboard
b. chassis d. chip

____ 106. Some computer and chip manufacturers use the term _____ to refer to a personal computer processor chip.
a. microprocessor c. coprocessor
b. parallel processor d. perpendicular processor

____ 107. In the machine cycle steps illustrated in the accompanying figure, the term _____ refers to the process of
translating instructions into signals the computer can execute.
a. fetching c. executing
b. decoding d. storing

____ 108. In the machine cycle steps illustrated in the accompanying figure, _____ is the process of carrying out
commands.
a. fetching c. executing
b. decoding d. storing

____ 109. Each tick of the system clock equates to a _____.
a. clock shot c. clock rhythm
b. clock spring d. clock cycle

____ 110. The greater the number of transistors in a processor chip, the _____ the chip.
a. less complex and powerful c. more complex but less powerful
b. less complex but more powerful d. more complex and powerful

____ 111. Most high-performance PCs use some type of _____ processor(s).
a. Pentium c. Xeon and Itanium
b. Celeron d. Acceleron and Celerium

____ 112. The _____ processor(s) is/are ideal for workstations and low-end servers.
a. Pentium c. Xeon and Itanium
b. Celeron d. Acceleron and Celerium

____ 113. Intels _____ is designed to enhance digital entertainment through a home computer.
a. Turion 64 c. Itanium 2
b. Opteron d. Viiv technology

____ 114. Parallel processing _____.
a. is used by supercomputers for applications such as weather forecasting
b. divides a problem into portions
c. requires special software
d. all of the above

____ 115. _____ is used primarily on mainframe computers and high-end servers.
a. American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII)
b. Unicode
c. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code (EBCDIC)
d. Multicode

____ 116. _____ is a coding scheme capable of representing almost all of the worlds current written languages, as well
as classic and historical languages.
a. American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII)
b. Unicode
c. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code (EBCDIC)
d. Multicode

____ 117. Memory stores _____.
a. the operating system and other system software
b. application programs that carry out a specific task
c. the data being processed and the resulting information
d. all of the above

____ 118. A(n) _____ is the basic storage unit in memory.
a. byte c. kilobyte
b. address d. RAM

____ 119. A _____ is equal to approximately 1 million bytes.
a. kilobyte (KB or K) c. gigabyte (GB)
b. megabyte (MB) d. terabyte (TB)

____ 120. A _____ equals approximately 1 billion bytes.
a. kilobyte (KB or K) c. gigabyte (GB)
b. megabyte (MB) d. terabyte (TB)

____ 121. _____ is the most common type of volatile memory.
a. ROM c. CMOS
b. Flash memory d. RAM

____ 122. Synchronous DRAM (SDRAM) chips are faster than DRAM chips because they _____.
a. transfer data twice for each clock cycle c. do not have to be re-energized as often
b. are synchronized to the system clock d. use pipelining techniques

____ 123. Rambus DRAM (RDRAM) chips are another type of DRAM chips that are much faster than SDRAM chips
because they _____.
a. transfer data twice for each clock cycle c. do not have to be re-energized as often
b. are synchronized to the system clock d. use pipelining techniques

____ 124. A _____ houses RDRAM chips.
a. DIMM (dual inline memory module) c. RIMM (Rambus inline memory module)
b. SIMM (single inline memory module) d. CIMM (Cantus inline memory module)

____ 125. Generally, home users running Windows XP and using basic application software such as word processing
should have at least _____ MB of RAM.
a. 64 c. 256
b. 128 d. 512

____ 126. _____ is built directly into a processor chip and usually has a very small capacity.
a. L1 cache c. L3 cache
b. L2 cache d. L4 cache

____ 127. Current processors include advanced transfer cache, a type of _____ built directly on a processor chip.

____ 128. _____ is a cache separate from the processor chip on the motherboard.

____ 129. A sound card _____.
a. enhances the audio-generating capabilities of a personal computer by allowing sound to be
input through a microphone and output through external speakers or headphones
b. converts computer output into a signal that travels through a cable to the monitor, which
displays an image on the screen
c. connects computers through telephone or cable television lines
d. connects other computers and peripherals

____ 130. A video card, also called a graphics card, _____.

____ 131. A modem card _____.

____ 132. A network card _____.

____ 133. Instead of port, the term _____ sometimes is used to identify audio and video ports.
a. bus c. bay
b. hub d. jack

____ 134. A FireWire port, previously called an IEEE 1394 port, is _____.
a. similar to a USB port in that it can connect multiple types of devices that require faster
data transmission speeds
b. a special high-speed parallel port that allows users to attach peripherals such as disk drives
and printers
c. a special type of serial port that connects the system unit to a musical instrument
d. an alternative to IrDA that uses radio waves to transmit data between two devices

____ 135. A(n) _____, which can be a peripheral or a chip, creates sound from digital instructions.
a. external bus c. internal bus
b. synthesizer d. audiometer

____ 136. Bluetooth technology is _____.
a. similar to a USB port in that it can connect multiple types of devices that require faster
data transmission speeds
b. a special high-speed parallel port that allows users to attach peripherals such as disk drives
and printers
c. a special type of serial port that connects the system unit to a musical instrument
d. an alternative to IrDA that uses radio waves to transmit data between two devices

____ 137. The wider the bus, the _____ the transfer of data.
a. greater the number of transfer steps required and the slower
b. greater the number of transfer steps required and the faster
c. fewer the number of transfer steps required and the slower
d. fewer the number of transfer steps required and the faster

____ 138. The PCI bus is _____.
a. the most common and slowest expansion bus
b. a bus designed by Intel to improve the speed with which 3-D graphics and video transmit
c. a high-speed expansion bus that connects higher speed devices
d. a bus that eliminates the need to install cards into expansion slots

____ 139. The Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) is _____.
a. the most common and slowest expansion bus
b. a bus designed to improve the speed with which 3-D graphics and video transmit
c. a high-speed expansion bus that connects higher speed devices
d. a bus that eliminates the need to install cards into expansion slots

____ 140. The USB (universal serial bus) and FireWire bus are _____.
a. the most common and slowest expansion buses
b. buses designed to improve the speed with which 3-D graphics and video transmit
c. high-speed expansion buses that connect higher speed devices
d. buses that eliminate the need to install cards in expansion slots

____ 141. _____ are installed in internal bays.
a. CD drives c. Zip drives
b. Floppy disk drives d. Hard disk drives

____ 142. Notebook computers _____.
a. can run on batteries or standard power supply
b. are less expensive than a desktop computer with similar capabilities
c. have no video, serial, parallel, or FireWire ports
d. all of the above

____ 143. A program is _____.
a. a collection of unprocessed text, numbers, images, audio, and video
b. a series of instructions that tells a computer what to do and how to do it
c. an instruction issued by replying to a question that is displayed
d. an instruction that causes a single specific action to be performed

____ 144. A command is _____.
d. an instruction that causes a program to perform a specific action

____ 145. A user response is _____.
d. an instruction that causes a program to perform a specific action

____ 146. All computer keyboards, such as that in the accompanying figure, have _____ that includes letters of the
alphabet, numbers, punctuation marks, and other basic keys.
a. arrow keys c. Internet controls
b. a typing area d. a numeric keypad

____ 147. _____, such as those shown on the keyboard in the accompanying figure, are special keys programmed to
issue commands to a computer.
a. Function keys c. Arrow keys
b. Toggle keys d. Numeric keys

____ 148. Keyboards, such as that shown in the accompanying figure, contain keys that allow users to position the
insertion point, also known as a(n) _____ in some programs.
a. icon c. button
b. cursor d. menu

____ 149. Nearly all keyboards, such as that shown in the accompanying figure, have a(n) _____ that switches between
two states each time a user presses the key.
a. arrow key c. toggle key
b. function key d. numeric key

____ 150. To fit in notebook and many handheld computers, the keyboards usually are _____.
a. smaller and have fewer keys c. larger and have more keys
b. smaller but have more keys d. larger but have fewer keys

____ 151. In contrast to most desktop computers, a typical notebook computer usually has about _____ keys.
a. 55 c. 85
b. 70 d. 100

____ 152. A(n) _____ uses devices that emit and sense light to detect the mouses movement.
a. optical mouse c. audio mouse
b. mechanical mouse d. ergonomic mouse

____ 153. An optical mouse is _____.
a. less precise than a mechanical mouse and does not require cleaning, and it also is less
expensive
b. less precise than a mechanical mouse and does not require cleaning, and it also is more
expensive
c. more precise than a mechanical mouse and does not require cleaning, but it also is less
expensive
d. more precise than a mechanical mouse and does not require cleaning, but it also is more
expensive

____ 154. Generally, the mouse is used to move the pointer on the screen to an object such as a button, and then users
_____ to perform a certain action on that object.
a. move the mouse side to side c. press a mouse button
b. lift the mouse up and down d. touch the mouse pad

____ 155. A _____ is the most widely used pointing device today.
a. trackball c. pointing stick
b. mouse d. touch pad

____ 156. For users that have limited desk space, the trackball is a good alternative to a mouse because the device
_____.
a. does not pick up oils from fingers
b. is stationary
c. does not pick up dust from the environment
d. all of the above

____ 157. Touchpads are found most often on _____.
a. notebook computers c. mainframe computers
b. PDAs d. desktop computers

____ 158. Kiosks often have _____.
a. trackballs c. touch screens
b. touchpads d. light pens

____ 159. Large-scale applications sometimes refer to a graphics tablet as a _____.
a. scanner c. reader
b. pointer d. digitizer

____ 160. The best voice recognition programs are _____ percent accurate.
a. 50 to 55 c. 90 to 95
b. 70 to 75 d. 100

____ 161. The primary input device for a _____ is a pressure-sensitive digital pen, which allows users to write on the
devices screen.
a. Tablet PC c. digital camera
b. notebook computer d. desktop computer

____ 162. Often used by photojournalists, a _____ is a portable digital camera that has many lenses and other
attachments.
a. studio camera c. field camera
b. plug-and-play camera d. point-and-shoot camera

____ 163. A _____ is the smallest element in an electronic image.
a. byte c. character
b. pixel d. point

____ 164. Manufacturers often use _____ to represent a digital cameras resolution.
a. points per inch (ppi) c. points per screen (pps)
b. pixels per screen (pps) d. pixels per inch (ppi)

____ 165. A digital cameras actual photographed resolution is known as the _____.
a. optical resolution c. enhanced resolution
b. standard resolution d. visual resolution

____ 166. A _____ is a window on the screen that displays notes and drawings simultaneously on the screens of all
participants in a video conference.
a. blackboard c. chalkboard
b. whiteboard d. baseboard

____ 167. Some input devices eliminate manual data entry by capturing data from a _____, which is the original form of
data.
a. turnaround document c. reviewed document
b. source document d. summary document

____ 168. Devices that capture data directly from a source document include all of the following except _____.
a. optical scanners and optical readers
b. bar code readers
c. magnetic-ink character recognition readers
d. portable keyboards

____ 169. The quality of a scanner is measured by the number of bits it stores in a pixel and the number of pixels per
inch; the higher each number the _____ the scanner.
a. poorer the quality, and the less expensive c. poorer the quality, but the more expensive
b. better the quality, and the less expensive d. better the quality, but the more expensive

____ 170. Retail and grocery stores use the _____ bar code.
a. UPC (Universal Product Code)
b. Interleaved 2 of 5
c. Codabar
d. POSTNET (Postal Numeric Coding Technique)

____ 171. Many retailers see RFID as an alternative to bar codes because it _____.
a. requires direct contact
b. does not require line-of-sight transmission
c. requires each item to be checked out individually
d. all of the above

____ 172. _____ is used almost exclusively by the banking industry for check processing.
a. MICR c. MIDI
b. OCR d. OCM

____ 173. _____, such as POS terminals and automated teller machines, perform specific tasks and contain features
uniquely designed for use in a particular industry.
a. Dumb terminals c. Smart terminals
b. Special-purpose terminals d. General-purpose terminals

____ 174. In a grocery store, a(n) _____ is a combination of an electronic cash register, bar code reader, and printer.
a. automated teller machine (ATM) c. point of sale (POS) terminal
b. flatbed scanner d. smart display

____ 175. The most widely used biometric device today is a(n) _____.
a. fingerprint scanner c. iris recognition system
b. face recognition system d. hand geometry system

____ 176. External fingerprint scanners usually plug into a _____ port.
a. serial or SCSI c. serial or MIDI
b. parallel or IrDA d. parallel or USB

____ 177. A(n) _____ is a metal or plastic plate placed over the keyboard that allows users to rest their hands on the
keyboard without accidentally pressing any keys.
a. toggle key c. on-screen keyboard
b. keyguard d. portable keyboard

____ 178. A(n) _____ displays a graphic of a standard keyboard on the users screen.
a. toggle key c. on-screen keyboard
b. keyguard d. portable keyboard

____ 179. An option for people with limited hand movement is a _____ to control the pointer or insertion point.
a. portable keyboard c. head-mounted pointer
b. touchpad d. touch screen

____ 180. With _____, the computer will detect human motions.
a. voice recognition c. face recognition
b. signature recognition d. gesture recognition

____ 181. _____ is a category of output that includes memos, letters, announcements, press releases, and reports.
a. Text c. Audio
b. Graphics d. Video

____ 182. _____ is a category of output that includes music, narrations, and speeches.
a. Text c. Audio
b. Graphics d. Video

____ 183. Commonly used output devices include all of the following, except _____.
a. display devices c. printers
b. speakers, headphones, and earphones d. ports

____ 184. Two types of display devices are _____ displays.
a. ink-jet and laser c. impact and nonimpact
b. flat-panel and CRT d. label and postage

____ 185. A _____ is a unit of visible light intensity equal to one candela (formerly called candlepower) per square
meter.
a. nit c. cit
b. bit d. hit

____ 186. The best analog televisions have a resolution of only _____ pixels.
a. 520 x 400 c. 128 x 256
b. 1920 x 1080 d. 2048 x 1536

____ 187. A _____ is a large, sealed glass tube on the front of which is a screen coated with phosphor material.
a. cathode-ray tube (CRT) c. high-definition tube (HDT)
b. gas plasma tube (GPT) d. digital video tube (DVT)

____ 188. _____ is the number of times per second a CRT screen is redrawn.
a. Dot pitch c. Pixel pitch
b. Resolution d. Refresh rate

____ 189. Refresh rate is expressed in _____.
a. pixels per inch (ppi) c. resolution
b. dots per inch (dpi) d. hertz (Hz)

____ 190. Standard CRT monitors today usually display up to a maximum of _____ pixels.
a. 16 x 12 c. 1800 x 1440
b. 160 x 128 d. 18,000 x 14,000

____ 191. All of the following usually use portrait orientation except _____.
a. spreadsheets c. reports
b. letters d. books

____ 192. Until a few years ago, printing a document required connecting a computer to a printer with a cable via the
_____ port on the computer.
a. serial port or IrDA c. FireWire or MIDI
b. parallel port or USB d. SCSI or Bluetooth

____ 193. Bluetooth printing is more convenient than infrared printing because Bluetooth devices _____ an approximate
30-foot range.
a. do not have to be aligned and can be outside
b. have to be aligned but must be within
c. do not have to be aligned but must be within
d. have to be aligned and can be outside

____ 194. Commonly used nonimpact printers include all of the following except _____.
a. ink-jet printers and photo printers
b. laser printers and thermal printers
c. mobile printers and label and postage printers
d. shuttle-matrix printers and dot-matrix printers

____ 195. The speed of an ink-jet printer is measured by the number of _____ it can print.
a. characters per second (cps) c. pages per second (pps)
b. characters per minute (cpm) d. pages per minute (ppm)

____ 196. Most ink-jet printers can print from _____ dpi.
a. 326 c. 6004800
b. 100500 d. over 10,000

____ 197. Most ink-jet printers can print from _____ ppm.
a. 326 c. 6004800
b. 100500 d. over 10,000

____ 198. Many inexpensive photo printers use _____ technology.
a. ink-jet c. dot-matrix
b. laser d. thermal

____ 199. A printer, such as that diagrammed in the accompanying figure, creates images using a laser beam and
powdered ink, called _____.
a. woofer c. toner
b. spoiler d. cracker

____ 200. Professionals in the desktop publishing and graphic art fields commonly use _____ because it is designed for
complex documents with intense graphics and colors.
a. PCL c. UML
b. PageScript d. PostScript

____ 201. Basic thermal printers are _____ over time.
a. inexpensive, but the print quality is low and the images tend to fade
b. inexpensive, but the print quality is high and the images tend to last
c. expensive, but the print quality is high although the images tend to fade
d. expensive, but the print quality is low although the images tend to last

____ 202. Dye-sublimation printers for the home or small business user typically print images in _____ than their
professional counterparts.
a. a wide range of sizes and are much faster
b. a wide range of sizes but are much slower
c. only one or two sizes but are much faster
d. only one or two sizes and are much slower

____ 203. Mobile printers mainly use any of the following technologies except _____ technology.
a. ink-jet c. thermal
b. laser d. dye-sublimation

____ 204. _____ are used in specialized fields such as engineering and drafting and usually are very costly.
a. Plotters c. Postage printers
b. Photo printers d. Thermal printers

____ 205. Two commonly used types of impact printers are _____.
a. ink-jet printers and laser printers c. photo printers and large-format printers
b. dot-matrix printers and line printers d. mobile printers and thermal printers

____ 206. _____ printers are ideal for printing multipart forms because they easily print through many layers of paper.
a. Laser c. Ink-jet
b. Thermal d. Impact

____ 207. The print head mechanism on a dot-matrix printer contains _____ pins, depending on the manufacturer and
the printer model.
a. 3 to 8 c. 9 to 24
b. 6 to 16 d. 12 to 32

____ 208. The speed of a dot-matrix printer is measured by the number of _____ it can print.
a. characters per second (cps) c. pages per second (pps)
b. characters per minute (cpm) d. pages per minute (ppm)

____ 209. A(n) _____ prints fully formed characters when hammers strike a horizontal, rotating band that contains
shapes of numbers, letters of the alphabet, and other characters.
a. ink-jet printer c. laser printer
b. shuttle-matrix printer d. band printer

____ 210. A(n) _____ functions like a dot-matrix printer, except a series of print hammers moves back and forth
horizontally at incredibly high speeds.
a. ink-jet printer c. laser printer
b. shuttle-matrix printer d. band printer

____ 211. Most personal computers have a small internal _____ that usually outputs only low-quality sound.
a. monitor c. speaker
b. printer d. modem

____ 212. _____ software enables users to convert the image from a fax modem to text and then edit it.
a. Optical mark recognition (OMR)
b. Optical character recognition (OCR)
c. Magnetic ink character recognition (MICR)
d. All of the above

____ 213. The disadvantage of a multifunction peripheral is that _____.
a. it requires more space than having a separate printer, scanner, copy machine, and fax
machine
b. it is significantly more expensive than purchasing a printer, scanner, copy machine, and
fax machine separately
c. if the device breaks down, users lose all four functions
d. all of the above

____ 214. To make programs easier to use in Windows XP, the _____ command can be used to enlarge text and other
items in a window on the screen.
a. Accessibility Wizard c. Utility Manager
b. Narrator d. Magnifier

____ 215. To start up, a computer locates _____.
a. application software in storage and loads it into memory
b. application software in memory and loads it onto storage
c. an operating system in storage and loads it into memory
d. an operating system in memory and loads it onto storage

____ 216. The _____ is the user most likely to store faxes, presentations, travel records, homework assignments, and
quotations.
a. home user c. large business user
b. mobile user d. power user

____ 217. Examples of nonvolatile storage media include all of the following except _____.
a. memory c. microfiche
b. floppy disks d. PC Cards

____ 218. Storage devices access items in _____.
a. thousandths of a second (milliseconds) c. billionths of a second (nanoseconds)
b. millionths of a second (microseconds) d. trillionths of a second (picoseconds)

____ 219. Current personal computer hard disks have storage capacities from 80 to 500 _____ and more.
a. KB c. MB
b. GB d. PB

____ 220. A hard disk that is mounted inside the system unit sometimes is called a _____.
a. fixed disk c. portable hard disk
b. Zip disk d. removable hard disk

____ 221. All of the following are characteristics of hard disks, except _____.
a. write-protect notch c. sectors and tracks
b. read/write head d. capacity

____ 222. A _____ on a hard disk, such as that shown in the accompanying figure, is made of aluminum, glass, or
ceramic and is coated with an alloy material that allows items to be recorded magnetically on its surface.
a. cluster c. read/write head
b. platter d. cache

____ 223. While the computer is running, the platters in a hard disk (such as that shown in the accompanying figure)
usually rotate at _____, which allows nearly instant access to all tracks and sectors.
a. 54 to 150 revolutions per minute (rpm)
b. 5,400 to 15,000 revolutions per second (rps)
c. 54 to 150 revolutions per hour (rph)
d. 5,400 to 15,000 revolutions per minute (rpm)

____ 224. A _____ occurs when a read/write head touches the surface of a hard disk platter, such as that shown in the
accompanying figure, usually resulting in a loss of data and sometimes loss of the entire drive.
a. disk crash c. drive crash
b. head crash d. data crash

____ 225. Access time for todays hard disks range from _____.
a. 8 - 10 KBps c. 3 - 12 ms
b. 3 - 12 MBps d. 5,400 - 15,000 rpm

____ 226. Depending on the type of hard disk, transfer rates range from _____.
a. 12 -24 MBps c. 15 - 320 MBps
b. 125 - 200 KBps d. 4,500 - 15,000 rpm

____ 227. The primary advantage of the _____ interface is the cables are thinner, longer, more flexible, and less
susceptible to interference.
a. EIDE c. SCSI

b.
SATA d. FireWire

____ 228. Users subscribe to an online storage service to _____.
a. save time by storing large files instantaneously
b. allow others to access files
c. store offsite backups of data
d. all of the above

____ 229. A disk with a higher density has _____ storage capacity.
a. more bits in an area and thus a smaller c. fewer bits in an area and thus a smaller
b. more bits in an area and thus a larger d. fewer bits in an area and thus a larger

____ 230. The average time it takes a floppy disk drive to locate an item on a disk is _____.
a. 84 milliseconds c. 8 seconds
b. 8 milliseconds d. 1/10 of a second

____ 231. A floppy disk drive _____.
a. can read from a floppy disk only if the write-protect notch is open
b. can read from a floppy disk only if the write-protect notch is closed
c. can read from a floppy disk whether the write-protect notch is open or closed
d. cannot read from a floppy disk whether the write-protect notch is open or closed

____ 232. Zip disks are slightly _____ as thick as a 3.5-inch floppy disk.
a. smaller and about half c. larger and about half
b. smaller and about twice d. larger and about twice

____ 233. Optical discs usually are _____ than one-twentieth of an inch thick.
a. 3.5 inches in diameter and less c. 3.5 inches in diameter and more
b. 4.75 inches in diameter and less d. 4.75 inches in diameter and more

____ 234. The drive designation of an optical disc drive usually _____.
a. precedes alphabetically before that of all the hard disks and portable disks
b. comes alphabetically between that of the hard disks and portable disks
c. follows alphabetically after that of all the hard disks and portable disks
d. comes alphabetically between that of the portable disks and hard disks

____ 235. Optical discs commonly store items in _____.
a. random locations anywhere between the center of the disc and the edge of the disc
b. multiple pie-shaped sections that break a track into arcs
c. a single track that spirals from the center of the disc to the edge of the disc
d. multiple concentric tracks from the center of the disc to the edge of the disc

____ 236. A standard CD-ROM is called a _____ disc because manufacturers write all items on the disc at one time.
a. multisession c. unisession
b. single-session d. compound-session

____ 237. A typical CD-ROM holds from _____ of data, instructions, and information.
a. 450 MB - 650 MB c. 650 GB - 950 GB
b. 45 MB - 100 MB d. 650 MB - 1 GB

____ 238. Manufacturers measure the speed of all optical disc drives relative to the original CD-ROM drive, using an X
to denote the original transfer rate of 150 _____.
a. KBps (kilobytes per second) c. GBps (gigabytes per second)
b. MBps (megabytes per second) d. TBps (terabytes per second)

____ 239. Current CD-ROM drives have transfer rates ranging from _____.
a. 4X - 8X c. 48X - 75X
b. 24X - 48X d. 100X and faster

____ 240. Manufacturers state the speeds of CD-RW drives in this order: _____.
a. rewrite speed, write speed, and read speed
b. write speed, read speed, and rewrite speed
c. read speed, rewrite speed, and write speed
d. write speed, rewrite speed, and read speed

____ 241. A mini-DVD that has grown in popularity is the _____, which works specifically with the PlayStation
Portable handheld game console.
a. DVD+RAM c. Blu-ray
b. UMD d. HD-DVD

____ 242. A storage technique that a DVD-ROM can use to achieve a higher storage capacity than a CD-ROM is to
_____.
a. make the disc more dense by packing the pits closer together
b. use two layers of pits
c. be double-sided
d. all of the above

____ 243. Tape _____.
a. no longer is used as a primary method of storage but is used most often for long-term
storage and backup
b. is used as a primary method of storage and for long-term storage and backup
c. no longer is used for long-term storage and backup but is used most often as a primary
method of storage
d. no longer is used as a primary method of storage or for long-term storage and backup

____ 244. All of the following use direct access except _____.
a. CDs c. tape
b. DVDs d. hard disks and floppy disks

____ 245. The difference in size among Type I, Type II, and Type III PC Cards is their _____.
a. diameter c. thickness
b. circumference d. all of the above

____ 246. With a storage capacity of 64 MB to 1 GB, a(n) _____ card is used in digital cameras and photo printers.
a. CompactFlash (CF) c. xD Picture Card
b. Secure Digital (SD) d. Memory Stick

____ 247. Card readers/writers usually connect to any of the following ports on the system unit except the _____.
a. serial port c. parallel port
b. USB port d. FireWire port

____ 248. Current USB flash drives have transfer rates of _____.
a. 2 MBps c. 12 MBps
b. 4 MBps d. 20 MBps

____ 249. One popular use of _____ is to store a prepaid amount of money, as in a prepaid telephone calling card.
a. smart cards c. PC Cards
b. floppy disks d. hard disks

____ 250. The use of microfilm and microfiche provides all of the following advantages except _____.
a. they greatly reduce the amount of paper firms must handle
b. they are inexpensive
c. they have the longest life of any storage media
d. they can be read without a microfilm or microfiche reader

Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: P REF: 5
OBJ: 1

2. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: P REF: 7
OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

4. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: P REF: 8
OBJ: 3

5. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: S REF: 8
OBJ: 3

6. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: S REF: 8
OBJ: 3

7. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: S REF: 8
OBJ: 3

8. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: P REF: 9
OBJ: 3

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

14. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: S REF: 12
OBJ: 6

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 9

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 11

OBJ: 11

OBJ: 1

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 11

OBJ: 11

OBJ: 11

OBJ: 11

OBJ: 11

OBJ: 11

OBJ: 11

OBJ: 12

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 9

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 1

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 9

OBJ: 9

OBJ: 9

OBJ: 9

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 11

OBJ: 1

OBJ: 1

OBJ: 1

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 9

OBJ: 9

OBJ: 9

OBJ: 9

OBJ: 9

OBJ: 9

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 11

OBJ: 11

OBJ: 12

OBJ: 12

OBJ: 12

OBJ: 12

OBJ: 1

OBJ: 1

OBJ: 1

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 9

OBJ: 9

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 1

OBJ: 1

OBJ: 1

OBJ: 1

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 9


Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. A cross-platform program is one that runs _____.
a. only on one operating system c. the same on multiple operating systems
b. differently on every operating system d. differently on one operating system

____ 2. During a cold boot on a personal computer, the POST (power-on self test) results are compared with data in
a _____ chip.
a. CMOS c. BIOS
b. UNIX d. SCSI

____ 3. In Windows XP, the _____ consists of several files that contain the system configuration information.
a. buffer c. platform
b. driver d. registry

____ 4. In a _____, a user types commands or presses special keys on the keyboard (such as function keys or key
combinations) to enter data and instructions.
a. command-line interface c. performance-monitor interface
b. menu-driven interface d. graphical user interface (GUI)

____ 5. With a _____, users interact with menus and visual images such as icons, buttons, and other objects to issue
commands.
a. command-line interface c. performance-monitor interface
b. menu-driven interface d. graphical user interface (GUI)

____ 6. With virtual memory, which is illustrated in the accompanying figure, when an operating system spends
much of its time paging, instead of executing application software, it is said to be _____.
a. zipping c. restoring
b. compressing d. thrashing

____ 7. If a new device, such as a printer or scanner, is attached to a computer, its _____ must be installed before
the device can be used.
a. driver c. manager
b. platform d. kernel

____ 8. _____ is the process of encoding data and information into an unreadable form.
a. Encryption c. Transmission
b. Formatting d. Spooling

____ 9. Utility programs included with most operating systems provide all of the following functions except _____.
a. managing files and viewing images
b. uninstalling programs and diagnosing problems
c. removing viruses and compressing files
d. backing up files and defragmenting disks

____ 10. A _____ is an icon on the desktop that provides a user with immediate access to a program or file.
a. kernel c. buffer
b. spooler d. shortcut

____ 11. Windows XP includes an image viewer called _____.
a. Windows Picture and Fax Viewer c. DriveSpace
b. Windows Explorer d. Dr. Watson

____ 12. In Windows XP, the uninstaller is available through the _____ command in the Control Panel.
a. Add New Hardware c. Add/Remove Programs
b. Accessibility Options d. Power Management

____ 13. _____ a disk, or reorganizing it so the files are stored in contiguous sectors, speeds up disk access and thus
the performance of the entire computer.
a. Formatting c. Spooling
b. Defragmenting d. Compressing

____ 14. Windows XP includes the diagnostic utility, _____, which diagnoses problems as well as suggests courses of
action.
a. Windows Picture and Fax Viewer c. DriveSpace
b. Windows Explorer d. Dr. Watson

____ 15. Many backup programs _____, or shrink the size of, files during the backup process.
a. restore c. fragment
b. register d. compress

____ 16. Screen savers originally were developed to prevent a problem called _____, in which images could be
permanently etched on a monitors screen.
a. thrashing c. ghosting
b. paging d. hacking

____ 17. Examples of stand-alone operating systems include all of the following except _____.
a. DOS and Windows Vista c. Mac OS X
b. NetWare and Solaris d. UNIX and Linux

____ 18. _____ is available in five editions: Home Edition, Professional, Media Center Edition, Tablet PC Edition, and
Professional x64 Edition.
a. Windows XP c. UNIX
b. Linux d. DOS

____ 19. _____ is designed for power users with workstations that use 64-bit processors.
a. Windows XP Home Edition c. Windows XP Professional
b. Windows Vista d. Windows XP Professional x64 Edition

____ 20. A new feature of Windows Vista is _____, which helps users locate documents by showing thumbnails that
previews documents content.
a. Document Explorer c. Virtual Folders
b. Windows Explorer d. Business Folders

____ 21. _____ includes features from previous Apple computer operating systems, such as large photo-quality icons,
built-in networking support, and enhanced speech recognition.
a. DOS c. Linux
b. UNIX d. Mac OS X

____ 22. Bell Labs licensed _____ for a low fee to numerous colleges and universities, where the operating system
obtained a wide following.
a. Linux c. UNIX
b. DOX d. Windows XP

____ 23. The Windows Server 2003 family includes _____ for the typical small- to medium-sized business network.
a. Windows Server 2003, Standard Edition
b. Windows Server 2003, Enterprise Edition
c. Windows Server 2003, Datacenter Edition
d. Windows . Server 2003, Web Edition

____ 24. The Windows Server 2003 family includes _____ for medium- to large-sized businesses, including those with
e-commerce operations.
a. Windows Server 2003, Standard Edition
b. Windows Server 2003, Enterprise Edition
c. Windows Server 2003, Datacenter Edition
d. Windows Server 2003, Web Edition

____ 25. Like Linux, _____ is a multipurpose operating system because it is both a stand-alone and network operating
system.
a. NetWare c. Mac OS X
b. UNIX d. Windows XP

____ 26. Popular embedded operating systems include all of the following except _____.
a. Windows CE c. Windows Mobile
b. Palm OS and Symbian OS d. NetWare

____ 27. A _____ does not replicate itself to other computers.
a. virus c. Trojan horse
b. worm d. all of the above

____ 28. _____ is a program placed on a computer without the users knowledge or consent that secretly collects
information about the user, often related to Web browsing habits.
a. Spyware c. Spam
b. A pop-up ad d. A filter

____ 29. _____ is a program that removes or blocks certain items from being displayed.
a. Spyware c. Spam
b. A pop-up ad d. A filter

____ 30. Compressed files, sometimes called _____.
a. ripped files, usually have a .rip extension c. dipped files, usually have a .dip extension
b. tipped files, usually have a .tip extension d. zipped files, usually have a .zip extension

____ 31. _____ can serve as sending and receiving devices in a communications system.
a. Mainframe computers and servers
b. Desktop computers and notebook computers
c. Tablet PCs and PDAs
d. All of the above

____ 32. _____ is a conversation that takes place over the Internet using a telephone connected to a desktop
computer, mobile computer, or mobile device.
a. A chat room c. Internet telephony
b. A newsgroup d. An online meeting

____ 33. _____ is a real-time Internet communications service that allows wireless mobile devices to exchange
messages with one or more mobile devices or online users.
a. A chat room c. MMS
b. Wireless instant messaging d. Voice mail

____ 34. Most hot spots span from _____ feet.
a. 10-30 c. 100-300
b. 30-100 d. 300-1500

____ 35. A GPS receiver is a handheld, mountable, or embedded device that contains all of the following except a(n)
_____.
a. radio receiver c. floppy disk
b. antenna d. processor

____ 36. _____ allows users to share documents with others in real time.
a. An online meeting c. Voice mail
b. Internet telephony d. Internet printing

____ 37. Groupware is a component of a broad concept called _____, which includes network hardware and software
that enables group members to communicate, manage projects, schedule meetings, and make group
decisions.
a. public Internet access c. Web services
b. workgroup computing d. short message service

____ 38. Businesses are the primary users of _____ because this technology provides a means for departments to
communicate with each other, suppliers, vendors, and with clients.
a. groupware c. global positioning systems
b. Web services d. short message services

____ 39. Most businesses use a standard, such as _____, that defines how data transmits across telephone lines or
other means.
a. PCS (personal communications services) c. PDS (public data services)
b. EFT (electronic funds transfer) d. EDI (electronic data interchange)

____ 40. Each computer or device on a local area network, called a _____, often shares resources such as printers,
large hard disks, and programs.
a. hub c. token
b. server d. node

____ 41. A _____ is a high-speed network that connects networks in an area such as a city or town and handles the
bulk of communications activity across that region.
a. local area network (LAN) c. wide area network (WAN)
b. metropolitan area network (MAN) d. variable area network (VAN)

____ 42. A file server is a dedicated server that _____.
a. stores and manages files c. stores and provides access to a database
b. manages printers and print jobs d. manages network traffic (activity)

____ 43. A database server is a dedicated server that _____.

____ 44. A network server is a dedicated server that _____.

____ 45. On a _____, such as that illustrated in the accompanying figure, all of the computers and devices (nodes) on
the network connect to a central device.
a. bus network c. star network
b. ring network d. token ring network

____ 46. On a network such as the one illustrated in the accompanying figure, the central device that provides a
common connection point for nodes on the network is called the _____.
a. hub c. printer
b. personal computer d. file server

____ 47. Today, _____ is the most popular LAN technology because it is relatively inexpensive and easy to install and
maintain.
a. Ethernet c. TCP/IP
b. token ring d. 802.11

____ 48. When a computer sends data over the Internet, the data is divided into small pieces, or _____.
a. bundles c. slices
b. packets d. baskets

____ 49. One popular use of the _____ network standard is in hot spots that offer mobile users the ability to connect
to the Internet with their wireless computers and devices.
a. Ethernet c. TCP/IP
b. token ring d. Wi-Fi

____ 50. Although _____ are not a type of standard telephone line, they are very popular ways for the home user to
connect to the Internet.
a. ISDN lines c. T-carrier lines
b. DSL d. cable television (CATV) lines

____ 51. With ISDN, the same telephone line that could carry only one computer signal now can carry three or more
signals at once through the same line, using a technique called _____.
a. packet switching c. multiplexing
b. routing d. modulating

____ 52. The most popular T-carrier line is the _____.
a. T1 line c. T3 line
b. T2 line d. T4 line

____ 53. A T3 line is _____.
a. slower than a T1 line and quite expensive
b. slower than a T1 line but quite inexpensive
c. equal in speed to 28 T1 lines but quite expensive
d. equal in speed to 28 T1 lines and quite inexpensive

____ 54. Each networked computer in a house can _____.
a. share a single high-speed Internet connection
b. access files and programs on other computers in the house
c. share peripherals such as a printer, scanner, external hard disk, or DVD drive
d. all of the above

____ 55. A(n) _____ extends the basic home network to include features such as lighting control, thermostat
adjustment, and a security system.
a. peripheral home network c. wired home network
b. value-added home network d. intelligent home network

____ 56. Types of wired home networks include all of the following except _____.
a. Ethernet c. powerline cable
b. Wi-Fi d. phoneline

____ 57. For best performance of a communications channel, _____.
a. bandwidth and latency should be low c. bandwidth should be high and latency
low
b. bandwidth should be low and latency
high
d. bandwidth and latency should be high

____ 58. Physical transmission media used in communications include all of the following except _____.
a. twisted-pair cable c. broadcast radio cable
b. coaxial cable d. fiber-optic cable

____ 59. Broadcast radio is _____ susceptible to noise than physical transmission media but it provides flexibility and
portability.
a. slower and more c. faster and more
b. slower and less d. faster and less

____ 60. _____ is a category of cellular transmission that transmitted analog data.
a. 1G (first generation) c. 3G (third generation)
b. 2G (second generation) d. All of the above

____ 61. Microwave transmission, sometimes called _____, involves sending signals from one microwave station to
another.
a. line-of-sight transmission c. out-of-sight transmission
b. flexed-point wireless d. fixed wireless

____ 62. _____ is a computer phrase that points out the accuracy of a computers output depends on the accuracy of
its input.
a. Nothing ventured, nothing gained (NVNG)
b. Bad data, bad info (BDBI)
c. Garbage in, garbage out (GIGO)
d. What you see is what you get (WYSIWYG)

____ 63. Accurate information _____.
a. is error free
b. has meaning to the person who receives it
c. is available when a decision maker needs it
d. has an age suited to its use

____ 64. Timely information _____.
a. can be proven as correct or incorrect c. gives more value than it costs to produce
b. has an age suited to its use d. is error free

____ 65. Organized information _____.
a. is error free
b. is arranged to suit the needs and requirements of a decision maker
c. can be proven as correct or incorrect

____ 66. Accessible information _____.
a. gives more value than it costs to produce
b. has meaning to the person who receives it
c. is available when a decision maker needs it

____ 67. Useful information _____.
a. is available when a decision maker needs it
b. has an age suited to its use
c. can be proven as correct or incorrect
d. has meaning to the person who receives it

____ 68. A database contains files, a file contains _____.
a. characters, a character contains fields, and a field is made up of records
b. fields, a field contains characters, and a character is made up of records
c. records, a record contains characters, and a character is made up of fields
d. records, a record contains fields, and a field is made up of characters

____ 69. A _____ is the smallest unit of data a computer can process.
a. bit c. field
b. character d. record

____ 70. _____ is a common data type that consists of dollar and cent amounts or numbers containing decimal
values.
a. AutoNumber c. Currency
b. Text d. Object

____ 71. _____ is a common data type that consists of lengthy text entries.
a. Numeric c. Object
b. Memo d. Date

____ 72. Users add new records to a file _____.
a. when a record no longer is needed c. when they obtain new data
b. to correct inaccurate data d. to update old data with new data

____ 73. Generally, users change records in a file _____.
a. when they obtain new data and to correct inaccurate data
b. to correct inaccurate data and to update old data with new data
c. to update old data with new data and when a record no longer is needed
d. when a record no longer is needed and when they obtain new data

____ 74. _____, a user deletes it from a file.
a. To correct inaccurate data c. To update old data with new data
b. When new data is obtained d. When a record no longer is needed

____ 75. When a program flags a deleted record, the record _____ process it.
a. is deleted physically from the disk and is deleted logically because the program will not
b. is deleted physically from the disk but remains logically because the program will
c. remains physically on the disk but is deleted logically because the program will not
d. remains physically on the disk and remains logically because the program will

____ 76. Deleting unneeded files _____ storage space.
a. increases the size of files and frees up c. reduces the size of files but takes up
b. increases the size of files and takes up d. reduces the size of files and frees up

____ 77. A program determines the _____ by applying a formula to the numbers in the primary key value.
a. data type c. field size
b. check digit d. default value

____ 78. When compared with a file processing system, a database offers all of the following except _____.
a. reduced data redundancy
b. easier access and shared data
c. reduced development time
d. less required memory, storage, and processing power

____ 79. Commonly used methods to retrieve and maintain data include all of the following except _____.
a. report generators and forms c. validation rules
b. query languages d. query by example

____ 80. Although a query language can be used for other purposes, most users only _____ data with a query
language.
a. retrieve c. change
b. add d. delete

____ 81. A checkout clerk with _____ privileges to the e-mail addresses in a discount warehouse database could view
the addresses but not change them.
a. read-only c. full-update
b. write-only d. no access

____ 82. A manager would have _____ privileges to member data in a discount warehouse database.
a. read-only c. full-update
b. write-only d. no access

____ 83. Popular data models in use today include all of the following except _____.
a. relational c. object-oriented
b. hierarchical d. multidimensional

____ 84. In a relational database, each row _____.
a. and each column has a primary key
b. has a unique name and each column has a primary key
c. has a primary key and each column has a unique name
d. and each column has a unique name

____ 85. A user of a relational database, such as that pictured in the accompanying figure, refers to a file as a _____.
a. table c. row
b. column d. relationship

____ 86. A user of a relational database, such as that pictured in the accompanying figure, refers to a field as a _____.
a. table c. row
b. column d. relationship

____ 87. In a relational database, users can set up a relationship between tables at any time, but the tables must
have a common _____.
a. record c. column
b. row d. key

____ 88. Most _____ database products for servers and mainframes include SQL.
a. relational c. multidimensional
b. object-oriented d. all of the above

____ 89. Compared with relational databases, object-oriented databases _____.
a. can store more types of data c. allow programmers to reuse objects
b. access data faster d. all of the above

____ 90. A _____ stores images, audio clips, and/or video clips.
a. multimedia database c. computer-aided design (CAD) database
b. groupware database d. hypertext database

____ 91. A _____ stores data about engineering, architectural, and scientific designs.
a. multimedia database c. computer-aided design (CAD) database
b. groupware database d. hypertext database

____ 92. The advantage of a multidimensional database is that _____.
a. there is a common query language
b. the content of all dimensions is the same regardless of the subject
c. it can consolidate data much faster than a relational database
d. all of the above

____ 93. Many e-commerce sites use _____ to determine customer preferences.
a. data checking c. data sorting
b. data mining d. data serving

____ 94. A Web database usually resides on a(n) _____.
a. intranet c. database server
b. extranet d. object-oriented server

____ 95. To access data in a _____, users fill in a form on a Web page.
a. hypertext database c. Web database
b. multimedia database d. groupware database

____ 96. The DA does all of the following except _____.
a. decide on the proper placement of fields c. identify users access privileges
b. define the relationships among data d. create and maintain the data dictionary

____ 97. The DBA does all of the following except _____.
a. manage security of the database c. check backup and recovery procedures
b. monitor the performance of the database d. decide on the proper placement of fields

____ 98. The term _____ refers to online or Internet-based illegal acts.
a. malicious-logic program c. cybercrime
b. computer crime d. system failure

____ 99. A _____ is a program that copies itself repeatedly in memory or on a network, using up resources and
possibly shutting down the computer or network.
a. computer virus c. Trojan horse

____ 100. A _____ is a malicious-logic program that hides within or looks like a legitimate program and usually is
triggered by a certain condition or action.
a. computer virus c. Trojan horse

____ 101. The _____ is the destructive event or prank a malicious-logic program is intended to deliver.
a. zombie c. cracker
b. hash d. payload

____ 102. Computer viruses, worms, and Trojan horses deliver their payload on a computer when a user _____.
a. opens an infected file
b. runs an infected program
c. boots the computer with an infected disk in a disk drive
d. all of the above

____ 103. To _____ a program file, an antivirus program records information such as the file size and file creation date
in a separate file.
a. quarantine c. blackout
b. decrypt d. inoculate

____ 104. A _____ is a separate area of a hard disk that holds an infected file until the infection can be removed.
a. quarantine c. firewall
b. payload d. honeypot

____ 105. A honeypot is a program designed to _____.
a. negatively affect the way a computer works
b. entice an intruder to hack into a computer
c. identify and remove computer viruses found in memory
d. secretly collect information about a user

____ 106. To prevent unauthorized access and use, at a minimum a company should have a written _____ that
outlines the computer activities for which a computer or network may and may not be used.
a. acceptable use policy (AUP) c. performance guarantee policy (PGP)
b. universal procedures standard (UPS) d. maintenance security dictum (MSD)

____ 107. Examples of biometric devices and systems include all of the following except _____.
a. fingerprint scanners and hand geometry systems
b. face recognition systems and voice recognition systems
c. signature verification systems and iris recognition systems
d. personal identification numbers and password systems

____ 108. Some notebook computers use _____ as methods of security.
a. passwords c. biometrics
b. possessed objects d. all of the above

____ 109. When users purchase software, a single-user license agreement permits users to do any of the following
except _____.
a. install the software on only one computer
b. rent or lease the software
c. make one copy of the software as backup
d. give or sell the software to another individual if the software is removed from the users
computer first

____ 110. When users purchase software, a single-user license agreement does not permit users to do any of the
following except _____.
a. install the software on a network c. make one copy of the software as backup
b. give copies to friends and colleagues d. export the software

____ 111. In its simplest form, a(n) _____ is a programmed formula that the recipient of encrypted data uses to
decrypt the ciphertext.
a. encryption key c. digital certificate
b. virus signature d. session cookie

____ 112. A _____ is a mathematical formula that generates a code from the contents of an e-mail message.
a. spike c. password
b. macro d. hash

____ 113. When a mobile user connects to a main office using a standard Internet connection, a _____ provides the
mobile user with a secure connection to the company network server.
a. value added network (VAN) c. virtual private network (VPN)
b. local area network (LAN) d. wide area network (WAN)

____ 114. _____, which provides encryption of all data that passes between a client and an Internet server, requires
only that the client has a digital certificate.
a. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
b. Secure HTTP (S-HTTP)
c. Secure Electronics Transactions (SET) Specifications
d. Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)

____ 115. A _____ is the unit of energy a surge protection device can absorb before it can be damaged.
a. Joule c. hash
b. spike d. macro

____ 116. A UPS connects between a computer and a _____.
a. peripheral device c. communications device
b. disk drive d. power source

____ 117. With a(n) _____, users choose which folders and files to include in a backup.
a. full backup c. differential backup
b. incremental backup d. selective backup

____ 118. With a three-generation backup policy, the grandparent is the _____.
a. most recent copy of the file c. oldest copy of the file
b. second oldest copy of the file d. original file

____ 119. With a three-generation backup policy, the parent is the _____.
a. most recent copy of the file c. oldest copy of the file
b. second oldest copy of the file d. original file

____ 120. Some perpetrators use a technique called _____ in which they attempt to connect to wireless networks via
their notebook computers while driving a vehicle through areas they suspect have a wireless network.
a. cyberforensics c. war flying
b. war driving d. wire cruising

____ 121. A _____ is a small text file that a Web server stores on a users computer.
a. worm c. cookie
b. spike d. payload

____ 122. Web sites use a _____ to keep track of items in a users shopping cart.
a. session cookie c. adware
b. zombie d. shopping bot

____ 123. Internet advertising firms often use _____ to collect information about users Web browsing habits.
a. comware c. adware
b. postware d. billware

____ 124. _____ is/are not considered spyware because a user knows it/they exist(s).
a. Adware c. A Web bug
b. Cookies d. Spam

____ 125. To avoid items like that shown in the accompanying figure, users can sign up for _____, which is a service
from an Internet service provider that blocks e-mail messages from designated sources.
a. an anti-spam program c. an antivirus program
b. e-mail encryption d. e-mail filtering

____ 126. _____ is a scam in which a perpetrator sends an official looking e-mail that attempts to obtain a users
personal and financial information.
a. Spam c. Phishing
b. Spit d. Spyware

____ 127. Many businesses use _____ to limit employees Web access.
a. content filtering c. honeypots
b. Web bugs d. spyware

____ 128. One approach to content filtering is through a rating system of _____, which is similar to those used for
movies and videos.
a. ICRA c. MSN
b. AOL d. BSA

____ 129. Computer forensics is used by _____.
a. military intelligence c. law enforcement
b. insurance agencies d. all of the above

____ 130. _____ is an applied science devoted to incorporating comfort, efficiency, and safety into the design of items
in the workplace.
a. Ergonomics c. Epidemics
b. Eurhythmics d. Econometrics

____ 131. Symptoms of a user with computer addiction include all of the following except _____.
a. craves computer time c. neglects family and friends
b. unable to stop computer activity d. irritable when at the computer

____ 132. Personal computers, display devices, and printers should comply with guidelines of the _____ program.
a. ENERGY STAR c. ACCEPTABLE USE
b. SECURE ELECTRONICS d. GREEN COMPUTING

____ 133. In sequence, most system development cycles contain five phases: _____.
a. planning, analysis, design, implementation, support
b. analysis, implementation, support, design, planning
c. support, design, planning, analysis, implementation
d. implementation, analysis, support, planning, design

____ 134. System development should follow all of these general guidelines except _____.
a. group tasks into phases c. involve the users
b. repeat tasks intermittently d. develop standards

____ 135. During the system development cycle, the systems analysts are the liaison between the _____.
a. project team and the project leader c. users and the IT professionals
b. project leader and the users d. project team and the steering committee

____ 136. _____ measures whether the established deadlines for a project are reasonable.
a. Operational feasibility c. Schedule feasibility
b. Technical feasibility d. Economic feasibility

____ 137. _____ measures whether a company has or can obtain the hardware, software, and people needed to
deliver and then support a proposed information system.

____ 138. _____ measures whether the lifetime benefits of a proposed system will be greater than its lifetime costs.

____ 139. The _____ is the most important data and information gathering technique for the system developer.
a. interview c. JAD session
b. questionnaire d. research trip

____ 140. The _____ for a project begins when the steering committee receives a project request.
a. support phase c. implementation phase
b. design phase d. planning phase

____ 141. On a data flow diagram, an arrow indicates a _____.
a. data flow c. data store
b. source d. process

____ 142. On a data flow diagram, a rectangle with no sides is a _____.
a. data flow c. data store
b. source d. process

____ 143. The squares on a data flow diagram are _____.
a. data flows c. data stores
b. sources d. processes

____ 144. A top level DFD (data flow diagram) identifies _____.
a. none of the processes c. only the minor process
b. all of the processes d. only the major process

____ 145. A(n) _____ is an item that can contain both data and the procedures that read or manipulate that data.
a. object c. entity
b. source d. actor

____ 146.
In a diagram such as the one shown in an accompanying figure, each class can have one or more lower levels
called _____.
a. subclasses c. metaclasses
b. underclasses d. superclasses

____ 147. The advantage of custom software is that it _____.
a. matches a companys requirements exactly
b. is less expensive and takes less time to design and implement than packaged software
c. is mass produced, copyrighted, prewritten, and available for purchase
d. all of the above

____ 148. A _____ identifies the product(s) a systems analyst wants from a vendor.
a. request for quotation (RFQ) c. request for information (RFI)
b. request for system services (RFSS) d. request for proposal (RFP)

____ 149. With a _____, the vendor selects the product(s) that meets specified requirements and then quotes the
prices.
a. request for quotation (RFQ) c. request for information (RFI)
b. request for system services (RFSS) d. request for proposal (RFP)

____ 150. A _____ is a less formal method that uses a standard form to request information about a product or
service.
a. request for quotation (RFQ) c. request for proposal (RFP)
b. request for system services (RFSS) d. request for information (RFI)

____ 151. The purpose of the _____ is to construct, or build, the new or modified system and then deliver it to the
users.
a. planning phase c. implementation phase
b. analysis phase d. support phase

____ 152. The _____ follows these six steps: (1) analyze the requirements, (2) design the solution, (3) validate the
design, (4) implement the design, (5) test the solution, and (6) document the solution.
a. program development cycle c. system development cycle
b. post-implementation system review d. preliminary investigation

____ 153. A unit test _____.
a. verifies that each individual program works by itself
b. verifies that all programs in an application work together properly
c. verifies that an application works with other applications
d. is performed by end-users and verifies that the new system works with actual data

____ 154. An integration test _____.
a. verifies that each individual program works by itself
b. verifies that all programs in an application work together properly
c. verifies that an application works with other applications
d. is performed by end-users and verifies that the new system works with actual data

____ 155. With _____, a user stops using the old system and begins using the new system on a certain date.
a. phased conversion c. parallel conversion
b. direct conversion d. pilot conversion

____ 156. _____ consists of running the old system alongside the new system for a specified time.
a. Phased conversion c. Parallel conversion
b. Direct conversion d. Pilot conversion

____ 157. With a _____, each location converts to a new system at a separate time.

____ 158. With a _____, only one location in the company uses a new system so it can be tested.

____ 159. Converting existing manual and computer files so the new system can use them is known as _____.
a. object conversion c. process conversion
b. data conversion d. source conversion

____ 160. The purpose of the _____ is to provide ongoing assistance for an information system and its users after the
system is implemented.
a. analysis phase c. operation, support, and security phase
b. planning phase d. design phase

____ 161. Programmers use a variety of programming languages to write, or _____, a program.
a. compile c. interpret
b. code d. execute

____ 162. _____ language instructions use a series of binary digits (1s and 0s) or a combination of numbers and letters
that represent binary digits.
a. Machine c. Procedural
b. Assembly d. Nonprocedural

____ 163. _____ are meaningful abbreviations and codes used in an assembly language.
a. Event addresses c. Event instruction codes
b. Symbolic instruction codes d. Symbolic addresses

____ 164. In some cases, an assembly language uses a type of _____ to generate the many machine language
instructions for a single assembly language instruction.
a. bug c. macro
b. script d. tag

____ 165. With a procedural language, often called a _____, a programmer uses a series of English-like words to write
instructions.
a. first-generation language (1GL) c. third-generation language (3GL)
b. second-generation language (2GL) d. fourth-generation language (4GL)

____ 166. The machine language version that results from compiling a 3GL is called the _____.
a. dead code or dead program c. live code or live program
b. source code or source program d. object code or object program

____ 167. Naval officer _____, a pioneer in computer programming, was a prime developer of COBOL.
a. Grace Hopper c. Dennis Ritchie
b. John Kemeny d. Bjarne Sroustrup

____ 168. Widely used object-oriented languages that the industry recognizes as standards include all of the following
except _____.
a. Java c. C++
b. COBOL d. C#

____ 169. A(n) _____ is an action to which an OOP language program responds.
a. macro c. object
b. event d. tag

____ 170. The latest version of Visual Studio 2005 includes _____.
a. RAD tools c. code snippets
b. just-in-time compilers and debuggers d. all of the above

____ 171. The purpose of _____ is to take the complexity out of C++ 2005 and still provide an object-oriented
programming language.
a. Visual C* 2005 c. Visual C+ 2005
b. Visual C# 2005 d. Visual C? 2005

____ 172. In an application generator, a _____ enables a developer to create lists of commands for the application
options.
a. counter c. form
b. report writer d. menu generator

____ 173. Many programs use _____ or a similar language as their macro programming language.
a. Report Program Generator (RPG) c. Wireless Markup Language (WML)
b. Programming Language One (PL/I) d. Visual Basic for Applications (VBA)

____ 174. Examples of HTML _____ are <B> to bold text, <P> to indicate a new paragraph, and <HR> to display a
horizontal rule across the page.
a. controls c. events
b. bugs d. tags

____ 175. A(n) _____ is an interpreted program that runs on the client.
a. script c. applet
b. servlet d. image map

____ 176. A(n) _____ is a compiled program that runs on the client.
a. script c. applet
b. servlet d. image map

____ 177. _____ contain the formats for how a particular object should display in a Web browser.
a. Cascading style sheets (CSS) c. Document object models (DOM)
b. Report program generators (RPG) d. Common gateway interfaces (CGI)

____ 178. One application of XML is the _____, often used by news Web sites to publish headlines and stories.
a. RSS specification c. DMX
b. DHTML d. CSS

____ 179. When programmers correct errors or add enhancements to an existing program they are said to be _____
the program.
a. executing c. coding
b. maintaining d. validating

____ 180. A(n) _____, also called program logic, is a graphical or written description of the step-by-step procedures to
solve the problem.
a. object model c. solution algorithm
b. style sheet d. source code

____ 181. In object-oriented (OO) design, the concept of packaging data and procedures into a single object is called
_____.
a. validation c. verification
b. encapsulation d. consolidation

____ 182. A _____, which is illustrated in the accompanying figure, tells the program which action to take, based on a
certain condition.
a. sequence control structure c. repetition control structure
b. selection control structure d. compliance control structure

____ 183. When a program evaluates a condition in a(n) _____, which is illustrated in the accompanying figure, it
yields one of two possibilities: true or false.
a. if-then-else control structure c. do-while control structure
b. case control structure d. do-until control structure

____ 184. The _____ enables a program to perform one or more actions repeatedly as a loop as long as a certain
condition is met.
a. sequence control structure c. repetition control structure
b. selection control structure d. compliance control structure

____ 185. The _____ tests a condition at the end of the loop and continues looping until the condition is true and
then stops.
a. if-then-else control structure c. do-while control structure
b. case control structure d. do-until control structure

____ 186. Once programmers develop the solution algorithm using a program flowchart or pseudocode, they should
_____, or check, the program design for accuracy.
a. authenticate c. validate
b. encapsulate d. consolidate

____ 187. Syntax errors will be caused by all of the following except _____.
a. misspelling a command c. typing command words out of order
b. leaving out required punctuation d. using the wrong control structure

____ 188. Dead code is _____.
a. the program instructions that will be converted to machine language
b. any program instructions that a program executes
c. the program instructions that have been converted to machine language
d. any program instructions that a program never executes

____ 189. _____, which include(s) the highest positions in a company, focus(es) on the long-range direction of the
company.
a. Nonmanagement employees c. Operational management
b. Middle management d. Executive management

____ 190. _____ is/are responsible for implementing the strategic decisions of higher management.

____ 191. _____ include(s) production, clerical, and other personnel.

____ 192. Planning is an activity performed by managers that involves _____.
a. instructing and authorizing others to perform the necessary work
b. identifying and combining resources so that a company can reach its goals and objectives
c. establishing goals and objectives
d. measuring performance and, if necessary, taking corrective action

____ 193. Organizing is an activity performed by managers that includes _____.

____ 194. Leading, sometimes referred to as directing, is an activity performed by managers that involves _____.

____ 195. Controlling is an activity performed by managers that involves _____.

____ 196. _____ allows an engineer to modify a design more easily than before, as well as dynamically change the size
of some or all of the product and view the design from different angles.
a. SFA c. MRP
b. CAD d. CIM

____ 197. Using _____, engineers can test the design of a car or bridge before it is built.
a. CAE c. SFA
b. KMS d. MRP

____ 198. MRP _____.
a. facilitates communication between human resources personnel and employees
b. includes information about the files and data, called metadata
c. focuses on issues related to inventory of parts and forecasting future demand
d. assists support personnel in providing the best solutions for customers

____ 199. CIM software _____.
a. facilitates communication between human resources personnel and employees
b. includes information about the files and data, called metadata
c. focuses on issues related to inventory of parts and forecasting future demand
d. assists support personnel in providing the best solutions for customers

____ 200. The _____ department makes technology decisions for an enterprise.
a. information technology c. manufacturing
b. customer service d. human resources

____ 201. Many companies elevate the importance of information technology by including a _____ executive position
that reports to the CEO.
a. chief operations officer (COO) c. chief financial officer (CFO)
b. chief security officer (CSO) d. chief information officer (CIO)

____ 202. When customers make a purchase with a credit card, they are interacting with a(n) _____.
a. OIS c. DSS
b. TPS d. MIS

____ 203. Management information systems evolved from _____.
a. office information systems c. transaction processing systems
b. decision support systems d. executive information systems

____ 204. A(n) _____ usually lists just transactions.
a. external report c. exception report
b. detailed report d. summary report

____ 205. A(n) _____ consolidates data usually with tools, tables, or graphs, so managers can review it quickly and
easily.
a. external report c. exception report
b. detailed report d. summary report

____ 206. _____, such as accountants, engineers, and other professionals, include individuals whose jobs center on the
collection, processing, and application of information.
a. Clerical workers c. Knowledge workers
b. Manual workers d. Production workers

____ 207. _____ software tracks leads and inquiries from customers, stores a history of all correspondence and sales
to a customer, and allows for tracking of outstanding issues with customers.
a. CIM c. CRM
b. CAD d. CAE

____ 208. An advantage of ERP (enterprise resource planning) is _____.
a. better project management
b. complete integration of information systems across departments
c. better customer service
d. all of the above

____ 209. Publishing entities, such as news services, use _____ to keep Web sites up to date.
a. VPN tunnels c. CMS
b. RAID d. DDS

____ 210. _____ is the process of collecting data from the Internet as a source for a data warehouse.
a. Web mirroring c. Web striping
b. Web empowering d. Web farming

____ 211. Recently, _____ have replaced or supplemented existing electronic data interchange systems.
a. servers c. data warehouses
b. RAID d. extranets

____ 212. A _____ is a program that assists in the management and tracking of all the activities in a business from start
to finish.
a. workflow application c. process application
b. shopping application d. server application

____ 213. A _____ contains a central library, or repository, from which users are allowed to check out documents.
a. CRM c. DMS
b. CIM d. VPN

____ 214. The simplest RAID design is level 1, called _____, which writes data on two disks at the same time to
duplicate the data.
a. farming c. empowering
b. mirroring d. striping

____ 215. Some RAID levels use a technique called _____, which splits data, instructions, and information across
multiple disks in the array.
a. farming c. empowering
b. mirroring d. striping

____ 216. An enterprise storage system may use _____.
a. RAID and a tape library c. Internet backup and NAS devices
b. CD-ROM and DVD-ROM jukeboxes d. all of the above

____ 217. Uptime is a measure of _____.
a. scalability c. availability
b. interoperability d. probability

____ 218. _____ is a measure of how well computer hardware, software, or an information system can grow to meet
increasing performance demands.
a. Availability c. Interoperability
b. Scalability d. Probability

____ 219. An information system must share information, or have _____, with other information systems within an
enterprise.
a. availability c. interoperability
b. scalability d. probability

____ 220. Grid computing _____.
a. often is used in research environments
b. involves charging for the use of a grid based on processing time
c. combines many servers and/or personal computers on a network
d. all of the above

____ 221. In the accompanying calendar in the accompanying figure, showing a backup method strategy for a month,
a(n) _____ copies only the files that have changed since the full backup.
a. full backup c. selective backup
b. differential backup d. incremental backup

____ 222. A(n) _____ copies the files that have changed since the last full backup or last incremental backup.

____ 223. A(n) _____, sometimes called a partial backup, allows the user to choose specific files to backup, regardless
of whether or not the files have changed since the last incremental backup.

____ 224. In a disaster recovery plan, the backup plan specifies _____.
a. information for simulating various levels of disasters and recording an organizations
ability to recover
b. the steps to be taken immediately after a disaster strikes
c. the actions to be taken to restore full information processing operations
d. how a company uses backup files and equipment to resume information processing

____ 225. Job opportunities in the computer field generally fall into these areas: _____.
a. general business and government organizations and the computer service and repair
field
b. the computer equipment field, the computer software field, and computer sales
c. the computer education and training field and the IT consulting field
d. all of the above

____ 226. _____, which is a main area of an IT department, analyzes, designs, develops, and implements new
information technology and improves existing systems.
a. Technical services c. Training
b. System development and programming d. Management

____ 227. Job titles in the system development and programming area of an IT department include all of the following
except _____.
a. e-commerce administrator c. systems analyst
b. application programmer d. Web page author

____ 228. A _____ oversees Web site performance and maintains links between a companys Web server and Internet
access provider.
a. Web programmer c. Web graphic designer
b. Web administrator d. Webmaster

____ 229. _____ is a job title in the operations area of an IT department.
a. Project leader c. Project manager
b. Database analyst d. Data communications analyst

____ 230. Job titles for careers related to the _____ include project leader, programmer, developer, software
engineer, and computer scientist.
a. computer equipment field c. computer service and repair field
b. computer software field d. computer education and training field

____ 231. The largest software company, _____, has over 57,000 employees and annual sales of more than $36 billion.
a. Microsoft c. BMC Software
b. Adobe Systems d. Intuit

____ 232. Typical jobs for workers in the _____ include service technician, computer repairperson, repair technician,
and computer technician.
a. computer equipment field c. computer service and repair field
b. computer software field d. computer education and training field

____ 233. A _____ installs, maintains, repairs, and troubleshoots hardware and installs, upgrades, and configures
software.
a. project leader c. database administrator
b. Web graphic designer d. computer technician

____ 234. Computer manufacturers, software vendors, and retailers usually pay salespeople, such as that shown in the
accompanying figure, based on _____.
a. an hourly wage c. the number of customers contacted
b. a yearly salary d. the amount of product they sell

____ 235. An advantage of attending a trade school is _____ than college or university programs.
a. time; students often complete trade school programs in a shorter time
b. attainment; students often attain a higher degree in trade school programs
c. proximity; students always attend trade schools at a closer location
d. all of the above

____ 236. Entry-level jobs for graduating _____ students include software engineer, network security specialist,
computer hardware designer, new hardware tester, and IT consultant.
a. computer engineering (CE) c. computer technology (CT)
b. computer science (CS) d. computer information systems (CIS)

____ 237. Entry-level jobs for graduating _____ students include software engineer, systems programmer, computer
forensics specialist, and IT consultant.
a. computer information systems (CIS) c. computer engineering (CE)
b. computer technology (CT) d. computer science (CS)

____ 238. A primary way to keep up-do-date on industry trends and technologies and to develop new skills in the
computer industry is through _____.
a. professional organizations and certifications
b. computer publications and Web sites
c. continuing education activities
d. all of the above

____ 239. Both ACM (Association for Computing Machinery) and AITP (Association of Information Technology
Professionals) offer _____.
a. chapters for both professionals and students
b. workshops, seminars, and conventions
c. programs to help with continuing education
d. all of the above

____ 240. Computing professionals typically obtain a certification by _____.
a. passing an examination c. signing a form
b. completing a project d. writing a paper

____ 241. IT certification can do all of the following except _____.
a. enhance employees careers
b. provide employees with added credibility among peers and employers
c. increase employee salaries
d. guarantee job security

____ 242. When choosing a certification, computer users should do all of the following except _____.
a. consider their career path over the long term
b. rely on the advice of people in unrelated fields
c. assess their background and experience
d. research certifications to find those that best match their needs

____ 243. _____ is available in a variety of forms, including seminars, boot camps, and academic-style classes.
a. Self-study c. Instructor-led training
b. Online training d. Web resource

____ 244. People who may be interested in _____ include IT consultants, hardware technicians, help desk specialists,
network security specialists, and system administrators.
a. database system certification c. operating system certification
b. programming certification d. Internet certification

____ 245. _____ is an operating systems certification that tests basic knowledge of setting up and managing a Linux
operating system.
a. Red Hat Certified Technician (RHCT)
b. Microsoft Certified Professional (MCP)
c. Macromedia Certified Professional
d. IBM Certified Professional for Lotus Software

____ 246. People who may be interested in _____ include Java programmers, Oracle database managers,
programming consultants, SQL programmers, Web graphic designers, and XML programmers.
a. Internet certification c. application software certification
b. networking certification d. programming certification

____ 247. People who may be interested in _____ include hardware service technicians, network consultants, network
managers, network engineers, and system administrators.
a. computer forensics certification c. networking certification
b. application software certification d. operating system certification

____ 248. _____ is a certification that tests advanced knowledge of installing, configuring, and operating LANs and
WANs.
a. Certified Internet Webmaster (CIW)
b. IBM eServer Certified Specialist
c. Certified Web Professional (CWP)
d. Cisco Certified Network Professional (CCNP)

____ 249. People who may be interested in _____ include information security officers, law enforcement officials,
military intelligence officers, network administrators, network specialists, and security administrators.
a. computer forensics certification c. networking certification
b. application software certification d. hardware certification

____ 250. People who may be interested in _____ include Internet and intranet managers, Internet service provider
staff, network administrators, Webmasters, Web graphic designers, and Web programmers.
a. computer forensics certification c. Internet certification
b. application software certification d. operating systems certification

Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

OBJ: 1

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 9

OBJ: 9

OBJ: 9

OBJ: 9

OBJ: 1

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 11

OBJ: 11

OBJ: 11

OBJ: 11

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 9

OBJ: 9

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 1

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 9

OBJ: 11

OBJ: 11

OBJ: 11

OBJ: 11

OBJ: 11

OBJ: 11

OBJ: 11

OBJ: 11

OBJ: 11

OBJ: 12

OBJ: 12

OBJ: 12

OBJ: 1

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 11

OBJ: 1

OBJ: 1

OBJ: 1

OBJ: 1

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 9

OBJ: 9

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 10

OBJ: 1

OBJ: 1

OBJ: 1

OBJ: 1

OBJ: 1

OBJ: 1

OBJ: 1

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 4

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 2

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 3

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 5

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 6

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 7

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 9

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 9

OBJ: 8

OBJ: 8

500 PCP

Enviado por

Dados do documento

Título original

Direitos autorais

Formatos disponíveis

Compartilhar este documento

Compartilhar ou incorporar documento

Opções de compartilhamento

Você considera este documento útil?

Este conteúdo é inapropriado?

Direitos autorais:

Formatos disponíveis

500 PCP

Enviado por

Direitos autorais:

Formatos disponíveis

ITE 100 2007 Fall Final Prep 1

Você também pode gostar