1.

One switch in a Layer 2 switched spanning-tree domain is converted to PVRST+

using the spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst global configuration mode command. The r
emaining switches are running PVST+. What is the effect on the spanning-tree ope
ration?
The PVSRT+ reverts to PVST+ to interoperate with the PVST+ switches.
2.

Refer to the exhibit. What implementation of spanning tree best describes the sp
anning-tree operational mode of the switch?
IEEE 802.1D
3.

Refer to the exhibit. What conclusion does the output support?
Standard IEEE 802.1D behavior is shown.
4.

Refer to the exhibit. After the sequence of commands is entered, how many VLANs
will be assigned to the default instance?
4061
5.

Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions does the output show to be true? (Cho
ose two.)
DLS1 is running IEEE 802.1s on instance 1.
DLS1 is the root bridge for instance 1.
6. Which three parameters should match all switches within an MST region? (Choos
e three.)
configuration name
revision number
VLAN-to-instance mappings
7. Users complain that they lost connectivity to all resources in the network. A
network administrator suspects the presence of a bridging loop as a root cause
of the problem. Which two actions will determine the existence of the bridging l
oop? (Choose two.)
Check the port utilization on devices and look for abnormal values.
Capture the traffic on the saturated link and verify if duplicate packets are se
en.
8.

Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW1 is receiving traffic from SW2. However, SW2 is
not receiving traffic from SW1. Which STP feature should be implemented to preve
nt inadvertent loops in the network?
UDLD
9. Which interfaces should loop guard be enabled on?
root port and alternate ports
10. What will happen when a BPDU is received on a loop guard port that is in a l
oop-inconsistent state?
The port will transition to the appropriate state as determined by the normal fu
nction of the spanning tree.
11.

Refer to the exhibit. STP is enabled on all switches in the network. The port on
switch A that connects to switch B is half duplex. The port on switch B that co
nnects to switch A is full duplex. What are three problems that this scenario co
uld create? (Choose three.)
Switch B may unblock its port to switch C, thereby creating a loop.
Switch A is performing carrier sense and collision detection, and switch B is no
t.
BPDUs may not successfully negotiate port states on the link between switch A an
d switch B.
12.

Refer to the exhibit. STP is configured on all switches in the network. Recently
, the user on workstation A lost connectivity to the rest of the network. At the
same time, the administrator received the console message:
%SPANTREE-2-RX_PORTFAST:Received BPDU on PortFast enable port.Disabling 2/1
What is the cause of the problem?
The STP PortFast BPDU Guard feature has disabled port 2/1 on the switch.
13. What are three important steps in troubleshooting STP problems? (Choose thre
e.)
Check each side of a point-to-point link for duplex mismatch.
Administratively disable ports that should be blocking and check to see if conne
ctivity is restored.
Capture traffic on a saturated link and check whether identical frames are trave
rsing multiple links.
14. Which statement is true about UDLD?
It allows a switch to detect a unidirectional link and shut down the affected in
terface.
15. Which two statements are true about STP root guard? (Choose two.)
Root guard is enabled on a per-port basis.
Root guard re-enables a switch port once it stops receiving superior BPDUs.
16. What happens when a switch running IEEE 802.1D receives a topology change me
ssage from the root bridge?
The switch uses the forward delay timer to age out entries in the MAC address ta
ble.
17. Which STP timer defines the length of time spent in the listening and learni
ng states?
forward delay
18. Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)
An RSTP BPDU carries information about port roles and is sent to neighbor switch
es only.
RSTP elects a root bridge in exactly the same way as 802.1D.
RSTP is recognized as the IEEE 802.1w standard.
19. Which protocol extends the IEEE 802.1w Rapid Spanning Tree (RST) algorithm t
o multiple spanning trees?
MST
20. Which protocol should an administrator recommend to manage bridged links whe
n the customer requires a fully redundant network that can utilize load balancin
g technologies and reconverge on link failures in less than a second?
IEEE 802.1s (MST)
21. Refer to the exhibit. How far is a broadcast frame that is sent by computer
A propagated in the LAN domain?
computer D, computer G
22. The network administrator wants to separate hosts in Building A into two VLA
Ns numbered 20 and 30. Which two statements are true concerning VLAN configurati
on? (Choose two.)
The VLANs may be named.
The network administrator may create the VLANs in either global configuration mo
de or VLAN database mode.
23. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning interface Fa0/5?
Trunking can occur with non-Cisco switches.
24. Refer to the exhibit. Computer 1 sends a frame to computer 4. On which links
along the path between computer 1 and computer 4 will a VLAN ID tag be included
with the frame?
C, E
25. Refer to the exhibit. SW1 and SW2 are new switches being installed in the to
pology shown in the exhibit. Interface Fa0/1 on switch SW1 has been configured w
ith trunk mode on. Which statement is true about forming a trunk link between the
switches SW1 and SW2?
Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 will negotiate to become a trunk link if it suppor
ts DTP.
26. Which statement describes how hosts on VLANs communicate?
Hosts on different VLANs communicate through routers.
27. Which two statements describe the benefits of VLANs? (Choose two.)
VLANs improve network security by isolating users that have access to sensitive
data and applications.
VLANs divide a network into smaller logical networks, resulting in lower suscept
ibility to broadcast storms.
28. A network administrator is removing several VLANs from a switch. When the ad
ministrator enters the no vlan 1 command, an error is received. Why did this com
mand generate an error?
VLAN 1 can never be deleted.
29. What is the effect of the switchport mode dynamic desirable command?
A trunk link is formed if the remote connected device is configured with the swi
tchport mode dynamic auto or switchport mode trunk commands.
30. What is a valid consideration for planning VLAN traffic across multiple swit
ches?
A trunk connection is affected by broadcast storms on any particular VLAN that i
s carried by that trunk.
31. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited configurations do not allow the switches
to form a trunk. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
The trunk cannot be negotiated with both ends set to auto.
32. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn regarding the switc
h that produced the output shown? (Choose two.)
The command switchport access vlan 20 was entered in interface configuration mod
e for Fast Ethernet interface 0/1.
Devices attached to ports fa0/5 through fa0/8 cannot communicate with devices at
tached to ports fa0/9 through fa0/12 without the use of a Layer 3 device.
33. Switch port fa0/1 was manually configured as a trunk, but now it will be use
d to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfi
gure switch port Fa0/1?
Enter the switchport mode access command in interface configuration mode.
34. What are two characteristics of VLAN1 in a default switch configuration? (Ch
oose two.)
VLAN 1 is the management VLAN.
All switch ports are members of VLAN1.
35. What switch port modes will allow a switch to successfully form a trunking l
ink if the neighboring switch port is in dynamic desirable mode?
on, auto, or dynamic desirable mode
36. What statement about the 802.1q trunking protocol is true?
802.1q will not perform operations on frames that are forwarded out access ports
.
37. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Sw
itch1 and Switch2 and assigned hosts on the IP addresses of the VLAN in the 10.1
.50.0/24 subnet range. Computer A can communicate with computer B, but not with
computer C or computer D. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
VLAN 50 is not allowed to entering the trunk between Switch1 and Switch2.
38. What happens to the member ports of a VLAN when the VLAN is deleted?
The ports cannot communicate with other ports.
39. Refer to the exhibit. Computer B is unable to communicate with computer D. W
hat is the most likely cause of this problem?
Computer D does not have a proper address for the VLAN 3 address space.
40. Refer to the exhibit. Company HR is adding PC4, a specialized application wo
rkstation, to a new company office. The company will add a switch, S3, connected
via a trunk link to S2, another switch. For security reasons the new PC will re
side in the HR VLAN, VLAN 10. The new office will use the 172.17.11.0/24 subnet.
After installation, users on PC1 are unable to access shares on PC4. What is th
e likely cause?
PC4 must use the same subnet as PC1.
41. What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 fr
om VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?
Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.