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Question Booklet Series :

'u iqfLrdk fljht %&

Time Allowed : 90 Minutes

vuqer le; % 90 feuV~l

491338

iqfLrdk dksM la[;k %&

Candidate must fill the above number


correctly, in the OMR Sheet

Code- 04MLCLS02 (PI)

Roll No. :

vuqekad %

Booklet Code No. :-

Total No. Questions: 120


'uksa dh dqy la[;k : 120

OMR Answer Sheet No.


_____________________

vks-,e-vkj- mkj if=dk la[;k : _____________________

Name of the Candidate (in capital letters) : ______________________________________________________

vH;Fk dk uke %

Candidate's Signature

vH;Fk ds gLrk{kj

Invigilator's Signature
_____________________

d{k fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj

_____________________

IMPORTANT: Read the following instructions carefully. Do not mark answers on the question booklet,

otherwise you may be debarred from the selection process.


1.

2.
3.
4.

5.
6.
7.
8.
9.

10.

Before commencing to answer, check that the Question Booklet has 120 questions. Each Question Booklet will
be in different series (combination of booklet code no. and series). You must write correct Booklet Code No.
and Question Booklet Series on your OMR Answer Sheet. Further check that there is no misprinting,
overprinting and/or any other shortcoming in it. If there is any shortcoming in the question booklet, intimate
the same to your room invigilator and take a fresh question booklet. No complaint in this regard shall be
entertained at any later stage.
IMPORTANT NOTE: The OMR Answer Sheet will be evaluated with a combination of question booklet
series and booklet code no. hence you must write correct question booklet series and booklet code no. Any
mistake in filling any of them will lead to invalidation of your OMR Answer Sheet. Also in case of non filling of
question booklet series and booklet code no. the OMR Answer Sheet will not be evaluated and its sole
responsibility lies on the candidate.
There shall be negative marking. 1/3 mark will be deducted for wrong answer. Each question carries
equal mark. Also refer OMR Sheet for detailed instruction.
Ask invigilator to sign on your admit card. If the same is not got signed by you, your candidature shall be
liable to be rejected.
This is an objective type test in which each objective question is followed by four responses serialled (1) to (4).
Your task is to choose the correct/best response and mark your response in the OMR Answer Sheet only as
per the instructions given and NOT in the Question Booklet.
Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for all your work on the OMR Answer Sheet. The ovals on the OMR Answer Sheet
are to be completely filled by Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. ANSWERS ONCE GIVEN CAN NOT BE CHANGED.
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material is NOT allowed inside the examination hall.
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No other paper will be allowed/provided for rough work.
Return the complete Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator on completion of the test. Do not
take this Question Booklet or any part thereof or OMR Answer Sheet outside the examination room. Doing so is
a punishable offence.
Take care that you mark only one answer for each question. If more than one answer is given by you for any
question, the same will not be evaluated. Cutting/overwriting the answers are not allowed. Further question
paper is bilingual (Hindi/English). In case of any variation in Hindi version, English version will be taken
as final for evaluation purposes.

fgUnh esa vuqnsk vfUre i`B Back cover ij fn;k x;k gSA

APTITUDE
DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 1 to 3) From among the five
doctors 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, four engineers G, H, K, L and six
teachers M, N, O, P, Q and R, some teams are to be
selected. Of these 1, 2, G, H, O, P, Q are females and the
rest are males. The formation of teams is subject to the
following conditions:
Wherever there is a male doctor, there will not be a female
teacher. Wherever there is a male engineer, there will not be
a female doctor. There shall not be more than two male
teachers in any team.
1.

(1) 3, 4, 5, K, L, M, N
(3) 3, 4, 5, K, L, P, R
4.

5.

6.

7.

(2) 1, 2, O, P, Q, G, H
(4) 4, 5, G, H, O, P, Q

;fn Vhe esa rhu MkWDVj] nks iq:"k bathfu;j ,oa nks f'k{kd gSa]
rks Vhe ds lnL; gksaxs%
(1) 3, 4, 5, K, L, M, N
(3) 3, 4, 5, K, L, P, R

(2) 1, 2, 3, K, L, M, R
(4) 1, 2, H, M, R, P, Q

vkWDlhtu dh [kkst fdlus dh%


(1) hLVys
(3) lhys

(2)
(4)

ck;y
dkfoUMl

Hkkjrh; lafo/kku dk dkSu&lk vuqPNsn laln dh dk;Zokfg;ksa esa


iwNrkN djus ds fy, frcaf/kr djrk gS%
(1) vuqPNsn 122
(2) vuqPNsn 120
(3) vuqPNsn 123
(4) vuqPNsn 119

6.

,slk O;f laln ds fdlh Hkh lnu dk lnL; cus jgus ds


v;ksX; gksxk ;fn mls nloha vuqlwph ds v/khu v;ksX; djkj
fn;k x;k gSA nloha vuqlwph ds v/khu O;f dks fuEu dkj.k ls
v;ksX; djkj fn;k tk,xk%
(1) ;fn og fdlh ykHkdkjh in dk /kkjd gS
(2) ;fn og veq fnokfy;k gS
(3) ;fn og fof{kIr gS
(4) ny&cny ds vk/kkj ij

7.

fuEu eas ls dkSu e`fRrdk [kfut gS\


(1) xkjusV
(2) vksyhokbu
(3) dsvksyhukbV
(4) gkuZCysUM

8.

FIFA foo di 2014 ds lekiu ds volj ij fdls xksYMu


cwV vokMZ fn;k x;k
(1) iksy iksXck
(2) eSuqvy U;wvj
(3) tsEl jkWMjhxst+
(4) fy;ksusy esLlh

[A1]

[APT-01]

(2) Article 120


(4) Article 119

Which of the following is a clay mineral?


(2) Olivine
(4) Hornblende

Who was given golden boot award at the


conclusion of FIFA World Cup 2014?
(1) Paul Pogba
(3) James Rodriguez

;fn Vhe esa nks MkWDVj] rhu efgyk f'k{kd ,oa nks bathfu;j gSa]
rks Vhe ds lnL; gksaxs%

5.

If he holds any office for profit


If is an un-discharged insolvent
If he is of unsound mind
On the Grounds of defection

(1) Garnet
(3) Kaolinite
8.

(2) Boyle
(4) Cavendish

A person shall be disqualified for being a member of


either house of parliament if he is so disqualified
under Tenth schedule. Under Tenth schedule the
person shall be disqualified for following reason:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

3.

4.

Which Article of the constitution of India restricts


courts not to inquire into proceedings of
Parliament:
(1) Article 122
(3) Article 123

1, 2, K, L, P, Q
1, 2, G, H, P, Q
1, 2, G, H, O, Q
O, P, G, H, 1, 2

(1) 3, 4, O, P, Q, G, H
(3) 3, 4, K, L, O, P, Q

(2) 1, 2, 3, K, L, M, R
(4) 1, 2, H, M, R, P, Q

Oxygen was discovered by:


(1) Priestly
(3) Scheele

2.

(2) 1, 2, O, P, Q, G, H
(4) 4, 5, G, H, O, P, Q

If the team consists of three doctors, two male


engineers and two teachers, then the members of
the team could be:

;fn Vhe esa nks MkWDVj] nks efgyk f'k{kd ,oa nks bathfu;j gSa] rks
fuEufyf[kr lHkh Vhe laHko gS flok;%
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

(2) 1, 2, G, H, P, Q
(4) O, P, G, H, 1, 2

If the team consists of two doctors, three female


teachers and two engineers, then the members of
the team are:
(1) 3, 4, O, P, Q, G, H
(3) 3, 4, K, L, O, P, Q

3.

1.

If the team consists of two doctors, two female


teachers and two engineers, then all the following
teams are possible except:
(1) 1, 2, K, L, P, Q
(3) 1, 2, G, H, O, Q

2.

funsZ'k% 'u la[;k 1 ls 3 fuEufyf[kr ikp MkWDVj 1, 2, 3, 4, ,oa


5, pkj bathfu;j G, H, K, L ,oa N% f'k{kd M, N, O, P, Q ,oa R
esa ls Vhe dk p;u fd;k tkuk gSA buesa ls 1, 2, G, H, O, P, Q
efgyk,a gSa ,oa ckdh iq:"kA Vhe dk fuekZ.k fuEufyf[kr 'krks ds v/khu
gksuk gSA
tc Hkh dksbZ iq:"k MkWDVj gks rks efgyk f'k{kd ugha gksxhA tc Hkh dksbZ
iq:"k bathfu;j gks rks dksbZ efgyk MkWDVj ugha gksxhA fdlh Hkh Vhe esa
nks ls T;knk iq:"k f'k{kd ugha gksaxsA

(2) Manuel Neuer


(4) Lionel Messi

9.

10.

Which figure represents the relationship between


polygons, quadrilaterals and triangles?
(2)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(3)

(4)

To which ocean the Panama Canal joins the


Atlantic Ocean?

13.

14.

15.

16.

13.

^pkj ckal pkschl xt] vaxy vV o.k] rk ij lqYrku gS]


er pwdks pkSgku*& ;g dFku fdldk gS\
(1) i`Foh jkt pkSgku
(2) pUncjnkbZ
(3) chjcy
(4) rkulsu

14.

jkslsVk 67P/Churyumov-Gerasimenko uked dkesV


iqPNy rkjk rd igqpus okyk igyk varfj{k ;ku cukA ;g
feku fdldk gS%
(1) ISRO
(3) NASA

(1) 1/4
(3) 1/3

,oa

RKA

IBSA ,d ------ gS ,oa 7oha IBSA fk[kjokrkZ ----- esa


vk;ksftr gksxh%
(1) ,d&i{kh; igy] czkflfYy;k
(2) f}&i{kh; igy] kkus
(3) f=&i{kh; igy] ubZ fnYyh
(4) pkj jkVks dk la;q igy] dkcqy

16.

,d vk;rkdkj eSnku pkj v/kZo`rh; Qwy dh D;kfj;ksa ls f?kjk


gqvk gSA ;fn eSnku dh yEckbZ ,o pkSM+kbZ ek% 6 eh- ,o 4
eh- gks rks :- 8/- fr oxZ ehVj ls Qwy dh D;kfj;ksa ds mxkus
dh dher D;k gksxhA =3.14%
(1)
(3)

(2) Rs. 326.56


(4) None of these

When three coins are tossed together, the


probability that all coins have the same face is:

(2) ESA
(4) FKA

15.

Unilateral initiative, Brasillia


Bilateral initiative, Tshwane
Trilateral initiative, New Delhi
Joint initiative of 4 nations, Kabul

(1) Rs. 623.56


(3) Rs. 1306.24
17.

vk;r ds vkdkj dk ,d ykWu ftldh Hkqtk,a 2:3 esa gSaA ykWu


dk {ks=Qy 600 oxZehVj gSA ykWu dh yEckbZ Kkr dhft;s\
(1) 20 ehVj
(2) 30 ehVj
(3) 25 ehVj
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

(2) ESA
(4) FKA & RKA

A rectangular field is surrounded by four semi


circular flower beds. If the length and breadth of
the field are 6 m and 4 m respectively, find the
cost of raising the flower beds at the rate of Rs.
2
8/- per M . (=3.14):

(2) 600,168
(4) 830, 576

12.

(2) Chandbardai
(4) Tansen

th
IBSA is a ____ and 7 IBSA summit will be held in
____ :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

,d R;kkh dks dqy erksa dk 72% er feyrk gS vkSj og 264


erksa ds vUrj ls thrrk gSA dqy er rFkk p;fur R;kkh ds
fy, iM+s erksa dh la[;k ek% gS%

(2) 30 m
(4) None of these

Rossetta became the first ever spacecraft to


reach
a
comet
named
67P/ChuryumovGerasimenko. This is a mission by:
(1) ISRO
(3) NASA

11.

(1) 800, 432


(3) 600, 432

Char Baans Chobis Guz, aangal asht pravan, taa upar


sultan hai, mat chooko Chauhan. Who said this?
(1) Prithvi Raj Chauhan
(3) Birbal

fdl egklkxj esa iukek ugj vVykfUVd egklkxj ls feyrh


gS\
(1) kkUr egklkxj
(2) fgUn egklkxj
(3) vkdZfVd egklkxj
(4) dslfi;u egklkxj

(2) 600,168
(4) 830, 576

A lawn is in the form of a rectangle having its


sides in the ratio 2:3. The area of the lawn is 600
sq. metres. Find the length of the lawn?
(1) 20 m
(3) 25 m

10.

(2) Indian Ocean


(4) Caspian Sea

A candidate gets 72% votes out of total votes and


he wins by a margin of 264 votes. Total vote and
vote polled for elected candidate are respectively:
(1) 800, 432
(3) 600, 432

12.

fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk fp= cgqHkqt] prqHkqZt vkSj f=Hkqt ds


lEcU/k dks n'kkZrk gS%

(1)

(1) Pacific Ocean


(3) Arctic Ocean
11.

9.

17.

(2) 1/6
(4) None of these

:- 623.56

:- 1306.24

:- 326.56

buesa ls dksbZ ugha

tc rhu fls ,d lkFk mNkys tkrs gSa] rks lHkh flks ds ogh
eq[k vkus dh lEHkkfork D;k gksxh%
(1) 1/4
(3) 1/3

[A2]

(2)
(4)

(2) 1/6
(4) buesa

ls dksbZ ugha

[APT-01]

18.

According to the world investment report 2014,


released by UNCTAD in June, 2014, India latest
ranking of most favoured destination for
investment by transnational corporation is:
(1) Fourth
(3) Second

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

(2) 2.5%
(4) 5%

21.

3 cDlksa dk dqy Hkkj 60 fdyks


60 fdyks vf/kd Hkkjh gSA rhljk

gSA nwljk cDlk igys ls


cDlk nwljs cDls ls 2
fdyks vf/kd Hkkjh gSA igys cDls dk Hkkj gS%
(1) 36 fdyks
(2) 17 fdyks
(3) 18 fdyks
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

22.

12

do a work in 60 days. If one man works equal to 2


boys, then the number of boys required to help 21
men to do twice the work in 50 days working 9
hours a day will be:

iq:k ,oa 18 yM+ds frfnu 7 21 ?kaVs dk;Z djds fdlh dk;Z


dks 60 fnu esa iwjk djrs gSaA ;fn ,d O;f nks yM+dksa ds
cjkcj dk;Z djrk gS] rks nqxqus dk;Z dks 9 ?kaVs frfnu dk;Z
djds 50 fnu esa iwjk djus ds fy, 21 O;f;ksa dks fdrus
yM+dksa dh vko;drk iM+sxh\

(1) 42
(3) 46

(1) 42
(3) 46

1
2

hours a day can

(2) 44
(4) None of these

The diameter of the wheel of a car is 77 cm. How


many revolutions will it make to travel 121 km?

24.
(2) 400
(4) 484

562575+x=96. x
(1) 361
(3) 441

25.

(2) E
(4) D
26.

Fruit of a democratic republic of congo


Catholic nun in congo
River in democratic republic in congo
Animal in democratic republic of congo

[A3]

ls dksbZ ugha
121

fdeh- dh ;k=k

(2) 30000
(4) 42500

dk eku Kkr djsa%


(2) 400
(4) 484

A B ls NksVk ysfdu E ls T;knk yEck gS C


'D' 'A' ls FkksM+k NksVk gSA dkSu lcls NksVk gS%
(1) A
(3) C

Ebola Virus Disease (EVD) is a severe human disease


and has been declared as Global Health Emergency
by WHO. Ebola virus takes its name from a:

(2) 44
(4) buesa

,d dkj ds ifg;s dk O;kl 77 lseh- gSA


r; djus esa og fdrus pDdj yxk,xk\
(1) 24200
(3) 50000

A is shorter than B but much taller than E. C is the tallest


and D is little shorter than A. Who is the shortest?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

23.

(2) 30000
(4) 42500

562575+x=96. Find x.

(1) A
(3) C
26.

:- 8000/- 3 o"kZ esa fefJr C;kt :- 1261/- vftZr djrk


gS C;kt fro"kZ pc`f) nj ls yxk;k tk jgk gS rks fefJr
C;kt dh nj gS%

(2) 17 kg
(4) None of these

12 men and 18 boys working

(1) 361
(3) 441
25.

20.

(1) 20%
(3) 10%
nd

(1) 24200
(3) 50000
24.

MkW- lat; jktkjke dks foo&[kk| iqjLdkj 2014 ls lEekfur


muds fuEu ds lq/kkj esa mRV dk;ks ds fy;s fn;k tkuk gS%
(1) /kku dh Qly
(2) xsgw dh Qly
(3) lfCt;ksa dh fdLesa
(4) lks;kchu dh Qly

(2) 2.5%
(4) 5%

Total weight of 3 boxes is 60 Kg. 2 box weighs


st
rd
3 Kg more than 1 box. The 3 box weighs 2
nd
st
Kg more than 2 box. The weight of 1 box is:
(1) 36 kg
(3) 18 kg

19.

(2) Wheat crop


(4) Soyabean crop

A sum of Rs. 8000 generates Rs. 1261 as compound


interest in 3 years, interest being compounded
annually. The rate of compound interest is:
(1) 20%
(3) 10%

twu] 2014 esa UNCTAD }kjk tkjh dh xbZ foo fuosk


frosnu ds vuqlkj] leq ikj jkVksa ds fuxeksa }kjk fuosk ds
fy;s lokZf/kd yksdf; LFky dh jSafdax esa Hkkjr dk lokZf/kd
u;k jSad gS%
(1) pkSFkk
(2) rhljk
(3) nwljk
(4) igyk

(2) Third
(4) First

Dr. Sanjay Rajaram to be honoured with World


Food Prize, 2014 for his outstanding work in
improvement of:
(1) Paddy crop
(3) Vegetable varieties

18.

lcls yEck vkSj

(2) E
(4) D

bcksyk ok;jl jksx ,d Hka;dj ekuo jksx gS ,oa foo LokLF;


laxBu }kjk bls oSfod LokLF; vkikrdkyhu fLFkfr ?kksfkr
fd;k x;kA bcksyk ok;jl dk uke fdlls fy;k x;k%
(1) tkrkaf=d x.kra= dkxks dk ,d Qy
(2) dkxks esa ,d dSFkksfyd eBokfluh
(3) tkrkaf=d x.kra= dkxks dh ,d unh
(4) tkrkaf=d x.kra= dkxks dk ,d tkuoj
[APT-01]

27.

If Southeast becomes North. Northeast becomes


West, then what will west become?
(1) South east
(3) North east

28.

29.

Twelve solid spheres of the same size are made


by melting a solid metallic cylinder of base
diameter 2 cm and height 16 cm. The diameter of
each sphere is:

32.

(2) 5041
(4) 5049

,d vk;r dh yEckbZ vkSj pkSM+kbZ ds e/; vUrj 23 ehVj gSA


;fn bldh ifj/kh 206 ehVj gS] rks bldk {ks=Qy gS%
2

(1) 2520 m
2
(3) 2420 m
33.

(2) 2480 m
(4) buesa ls dksbZ

ugha

la[;kvksa dk vkSlr 14 gSA bu la[;kvksa esa 6 la[;kvksa dk


vkSlr 16 gSA ksk nks la[;kvksa dk vkSlr D;k gS\

(1) 12
(3) 8

(2) 6
(4) 10

(2) 6
(4) 10

34.

N% ifjokj A, B, C, D, E, ,oa F ,d drkj ls ?kj esa jg jgs


gSaA B dk iM+kslh D ,oa F gSaA E dk iM+kslh A ,oa C gSaA A
u rks F vkSj u gh D ds cxy esa jgrk gSA 'C' 'D' ds cxy
esa ugha jgrk gSA F ds Bhd cxy okys iM+kslh gSa%
(1) B ,oa E
(2) B ,oa D
(3) B ,oa C
(4) dsoy B

35.

;fn jkph dks fnYyh dgk tkrk gS] fnYyh dks eqEcbZ dgk tkrk
gS] eqEcbZ dks nsgjknwu dgk tkrk gS] nsgjknwu dks ukxiqj dgk
tkrk gS ,oa ukxiqj dks esjB dgk tkrk gS rks xsV os vkWQ
bafM;k dgk gS\
(1) esjB
(2) nsgjknwu
(3) ukxiqj
(4) eqEcbZ

(2) B and D
(4) Only B

If Ranchi is called Delhi, Delhi is called Mumbai,


Mumbai is called Dehradun, Dehradun is called
Nagpur and Nagpur is called Meerut then where is
the Gate way of India?
(1) Meerut
(3) Nagpur

,d bU/kuqk esa fdlh foksk vuqe esa lkr jax gSaA Kkr
vuqe ds vfrfj jaxksa ds iqu% vuqe djds fdrus laHkkfor
rjhdks ls bU/kuqk dk fuekZ.k gks ldrk gS%

(2) 2480 m
(4) None of these

Six families A, B, C, D, E, and F are living in


houses in a row. B has F and D as neighbours, E
has A and C as neighbours. A does not live next
to either F or D, C does not live next to D. Who are
F's next door neighbours?
(1) B and E
(3) B and C

35.

31.

The average of 8 numbers is 14. The average of 6


of these numbers is 16. What is the average of the
remaining 2 numbers?
(1) 12
(3) 8

34.

,d Bksl /kkfRod flys.Mj] ftldk vk/kkj O;kl 2 lseh- ,oa


pkbZ 16 lseh- gS] dks xykdj ,d gh vkdkj ds 12 Bksl
xksys cuk, tkrs gSaA R;sd xksys dk O;kl gksxk%
(1) 2 lseh(2) 3 lseh(3) 4 lseh(4) 6 lseh-

(1) 5040
(3) 5039

The difference between the length and breadth of a


rectangle is 23 m. If its perimeter is 206 m, then its
area is:
(1) 2520 m
2
(3) 2420 m

33.

30.

(2) 5041
(4) 5049

vkneh ,d [ksr dh dVkbZ 20 fnu esa dj ysrs gSaA 15 vkneh


dk;Z NksM+dj pys tkrs gSa] ;fn iwjs [ksr dh dVkbZ 37.5 fnu esa dh
tkuh gS rks fdrus fnu ckn os 15 vkneh dk;Z NksM+dj x;s Fks%
(1) 6 fnu
(2) 3 fnu
(3) 5 fnu
(4) 4 fnu

25

(2) 3 cm
(4) 6 cm

There are seven colours in a rainbow in a particular


sequence. Besides the known sequence in how
many other possible ways can rainbows be formed
by re-sequencing the colours:

(2) 480
(4) 360

29.

(2) 3 days
(4) 4 days

(1) 5040
(3) 5039
32.

fdrus fofHk rjhdksa ls 'kCn ^DIGITAL* ds v{kjksa dks


O;ofLFkr fd;k tk ldrk gS rkfd Loj lnSo ,d lkFk vk,\
(1) 720
(3) 144

25 men can reap a field in 20 days. When should


15 men leave the work, if the whole field is to be
reaped in 37.5 days after they leave the work?

(1) 2 cm
(3) 4 cm
31.

28.

(2) 480
(4) 360

(1) 6 days
(3) 5 days
30.

;fn nf{k.kiwoZ] ^mkj* gksrk gSA mkjiwoZ] ^ifpe* gksrk gS rks


ifpe D;k gksxk\
(1) nf{k.k&iwoZ
(2) mkj&ifpe
(3) mkj&iwoZ
(4) nf{k.k&ifpe

(2) North west


(4) South west

In how many different ways the letters of the word


'DIGITAL' can be arranged so that the vowels
always come together?
(1) 720
(3) 144

27.

(2) Dehradun
(4) Mumbai

[A4]

[APT-01]

36.

If MEDICAL is written as DEMILAC how is


SUBJECT written is that code?
(1) BUSJETC
(3) BUSJTCE

37.

(2) BUSTCTE
(4) BUJSCTE

39.

(1) 9
(3) 2
40.

41.

38.

vtqZu vjfoUn dk HkkbZ gSA vjfoUn dh ek Lokrh gSA dkk


Lokrh dk firk gSA dkk dh ek ekyrh gSA ekyrh dk vtqZu ls
D;k laca/k gS\
(1) ikS=
(2) iM+ikS=
(3) iq=
(4) fu/kkZfjr ugha fd;k tk ldrk

39.

,d fufpr dksM esa ^bad and good* dks ^325* fy[kk tkrk
gS] ^two and none* dks ^462* fy[kk tkrk gS vkSj ^that is
bad* dks ^159* fy[kk tkrk gSA rks ^good* dks mlh dksM esa
dSls fy[ksxsa\

(2) 3
(4) 2 or 3

(1) 9
(3) 2
40.

Pick the odd one out.


(1) E
(3) A

la?k ds ctV 201415 esa la?k ds fok&ea=h us O;; cU/ku


vk;ksx ds LFkkiuk dh ?kksk.kk dh gSA la?k ljdkj us vHkh gky
gh esa O;; cU/ku vk;ksx dk eqf[k;k ------- dks fu;q djus
dk fu.kZ; fy;k%
(1) foey tkyku
(2) fot; dsydj
(3) ds-ih- xhFkk.ku
(4) ikFkZlkjFkh kkse

(2) Great Grand Son


(4) Cannot be determined

In a certain code bad and good is written as


325, two and none is written as 462 and that is
bad is written as 159. How would good be
written in that code?

(2) I
(4) H

Find the wrong number in the series.

lEcU/kksa dks lUrqV djus okys lgh fodYi dks pqfu,A


mkj /kzoh; % nf{k.k ?kzqoh; % % ddZ&jkfk%
(1) jksx
(2) edj
(3) tula[;k
(4) Hkwe/; js[kk

42.

J`a[kyk esa xyr la[;k igpkusaA

12, 237, 406, 527, 604, 657


(1) 406
(2) 604
(3) 657
(4) None of these
43.

44.

(1) 406
(3) 657

(2) 604
(4) buesa

ls dksbZ ugha

ml fodYi dks pqus tks nh gqbZ la[;k dk loZJsB izfrfuf/kRo


djrk gks%
1 7 2 5 5 5 2:
(1) N P N R R R S
(3) N N P Q Q R S

(2) A B C D E F F
(4) A B C D D D C

44.

fuEufyf[kr fdl nsk ls Hkwe/; js[kk ugha xqtjrh gS%


(1) dsU;k
(2) eSfDldks
(3) bUMksusfk;k
(4) czkt+hy

45.

fdrus ns'k lkdZ laxBu ds lnL; gSa\

(2) Mexico
(4) Brazil

How many countries are members of the SAARC


organization?
(1) 10
(3) 8

43.

(2) A B C D E F F
(4) A B C D D D C

The equator does not pass through which of the


following countries:
(1) Kenya
(3) Indonesia

45.

12, 237, 406, 527, 604, 657

Select the choice that represents the given


number the best.
1 7 2 5 5 5 2:
(1) N P N R R R S
(3) N N P Q Q R S

(2) I
(4) H

41.

Arctic : Antarctic : : Cancer:


(1) Disease
(2) Capricorn
(3) Population
(4) Equator
42.

(2) 3
(4) 2 ;k 3

fuEufyf[kr esa ls vlaxr dks pqfu,A


(1) E
(3) A

Select the suitable alternative to satisfy the relationship.

(2) BUSTCTE
(4) BUJSCTE

37.

(2) Vijay Kelkar


(4) Parthsarathi Shome

Arjun is Arvinds brother. Swati is Arvinds


mother. Prakash is Swatis father. Malti is
Prakashs mother. How Arjun is related to Malti?
(1) Grand Son
(3) Son

;fn ^MEDICAL* dks ^DEMILAC* fy[kk tkrk gS rks mlh


dksM esa ^SUBJECT* dks D;k fy[kk tk;sxk\
(1) BUSJETC
(3) BUSJTCE

Union finance minister announced to set up an


expenditure Management Commission in the
union budget 201415. Union Govt. recently
decided to appoint .......... head of the expenditure
Management Commission:
(1) Vimal Jalan
(3) K.P. Geethakrishnan

38.

36.

(2) 9
(4) None of these

[A5]

(1) 10
(3) 8

(2) 9
(4) buesa

ls dksbZ ugha

[APT-01]

TECHNICAL APTITUDE
46.

(1) Gas turbine


(3) Petrol engine
47.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
50.

(1) Zero
(3) Maximum
51.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
52.

A kinamatic chain having n number of links will


have:

54.

The included angle of V- belt varies from:

tc ,d fcUnq ij vi:i.k cy kwU; gksrk gS] rks ml fcUnq ij


cadu vk?kw.kZ gksrk gS%
(1) kwU;
(2) U;wure
(3) vf/kdre
(4) vuUr

51.

vuqLFk fQysV osYM vfHkdfYir fd;s tkrs gSa%


(1) ruu lkeF;Z ds fy;s
(2) lEihfM+r lkeF;Z ds fy;s
(3) vi:i.k lkeF;Z ds fy;s
(4) cadu lkeF;Z ds fy;s

52.

^n* la[;kvksa okyh dfM+;ksa ;q ,d dkbZukesfVd psu esa gksxk%


(1) n O;qRe
(2) (n-1) O;qRe
(3) (n-2) O;qRe
(4) (n-3) O;qRe

53.

,d csYV vf/kdre kf lapj.k dj ldrk gS tc dqy ruu


gS%
(1) vidsUh ruu ds cjkcj
(2) vidsUh ruu dk nqxquk
(3) vidsUh ruu dk frxquk
(4) vidsUh ruu dk pkjxquk

54.

V&csYV

(2) 20 to 30
(4) 50 to 60

(1)
(3)
55.

Manganese in steel increases its:


(1) Tensile strength
(3) Ductility

56.

50.

Equal to the centrifugal tension


Twice the centrifugal tension
Three times the centrifugal tension
Four times the centrifugal tension

(1) 10 to 20
(3) 30 to 40
55.

?kw.k; lEihfM+= mu nkkvksa esa ;q gksrk gS tgk%


(1) fuEu nkc ij mPp fuLlj.k nj dh vko;drk gksrh gS
(2) mPp nkc ij fuEu fuLlj.k nj dh vko;drk gksrh gS
(3) fuEu nkc ij fuEu fuLlj.k nj dh vko;drk gksrh gS
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

(2) (n-1) inversions


(4) (n-3) inversions

A belt can transmit maximum power when the


total tension is:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

49.

Tensile strength
Compressive strength
Shear strength
Bending strength

(1) n inversions
(3) (n-2) inversions
53.

Mht+y btu esa b/ku ,oa ok;q dk feJ.k ?kfVr gksrk gS%
(1) ;wy iEi esa
(2) btu flys.Mj esa
(3) butsDVj esa
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

(2) Minimum
(4) Infinity

Transverse fillet welds are designed for:

(2) Hardness
(4) Fluidity

The formula to find the drilling time to drill a plate


of thickness = T is __ where, F = feed, N = rpm, is:
(1) T / D N=time
(3) T / f N=time

LVhe VckZbu esa


Mht+y btu esa

48.

High discharge rate at low pressure is required


Low discharge rate at high pressure is required
Low discharge rate at low pressure is required
None of these

When shear force at a point is zero, then bending


moment at that point is:

(2)
(4)

fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ,d ckW;yj ekmfUVax gS\


(1) ;wthcy Iyx
(2) lqij ghVj
(3) bdksuksekbZtj
(4) fpeuh

(2) Engine cylinder


(4) None of these

Rotary compressor is used in those cases where:

twy p ;q gksrk gS%


(1) xSl VckZbu esa
(3) isVksy btu esa

47.

(2) Super heater


(4) Chimney

Mixing of fuel and air in case of diesel engine


occurs in:
(1) Fuel pump
(3) Injector

49.

(2) Steam turbine


(4) Diesel engine

Which one of the following is a boiler mounting?


(1) Fusible plug
(3) Economiser

48.

46.

Joule cycle is used in:

56.

(2) N / D t=time
(4) T f N=time

dk lfEefyr dks.k ifjofrZr gksrk gS%


10 ls 20
(2) 20 ls
(4) 50 ls
30 ls 40

LVhy esa eSXuht c<+krk gS bldh%


(1) ruu lkeF;Z
(3) rU;rk

dBksjrk
rjyrk

eksVkbZ okyh ,d IysV dks cs/kus esa yxus okyk cs/ku dky dks kIr
djus ds fy;s lw= = T gS & tgk F = Hkj.k] N = rpm] gS%
(1) T / D N=time
(3) T / f N=time

[A6]

(2)
(4)

30
60

(2) N / D t=time
(4) T f N=time
[4 9 1 3 3 8 ]

57.

A key that has curved bottom to match the shaft.


This key is known as ________:
(1) Sunk key
(3) Flat saddle key

58.

59.

58.

iqtsZ ds fdukjksa ds lekukUrj js[kkvksa dks [khapus ds fy;s


fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdldk ;ksx gksrk gS%
(1) ofuZ;j dSfyij
(2) fMokbZMj
(3) gekZksMkbZV dSfyij
(4) L;w xst

59.

khru p ds nkSjku khrd }kjk ek vLohr dh tkrh gS%


(1) lEihfM+= esa
(2) dUMslj esa
(3) okfi= esa
(4) lj.k okYo esa

60.

esVklsfUVd pkbZ fdlds e/; dh nwjh gksrh gS%


(1) rSjrs fi.M ds xq:Ro dk dsU vkSj mRIykodrk dk dsU
(2) esVklsUVj ,oa mRIykodrk dk dsU
(3) rSjrs fi.M ds xq:Ro dk dsU vkSj esVklsUVj
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

61.

ufydkvksa ds ,d gh O;kl ,oa eksVkbZ gsrq] ,d tyh; ufydk


ckW;yj dh rqyuk esa vfXu ufydk ckW;yj esa gksrk gS%
(1) vf/kd mfer i`B
(2) de mfer i`B
(3) cjkcj mfer i`B
(4) mfer i`B nwljs kpyksa ij fuHkZj djrk gS

62.

2m/s ds osx ls pyrk gqvk 1 fdxzk- O;eku okyh ,d xsan 2


fdxzk- O;eku okyh ,d fLFkj xsan ls R;{kr% Vdjkrh gS ,oa
vk?kkr ds ipkr~ foJke voLFkk esa vk tkrh gSA vk?kkr ds
ipkr~ nwljh xsan dk osx gS%
(1) kwU;
(2) 0.5 m/s

Vernier calipers
Divider
Hermaphrodite calipers
Screw gauge

During a refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by


the refrigerant in a:
(1) Compressor
(3) Evaporator

60.

,d dqath ftlesa kkV dks esy djus ds fy;s oh; ry gSA bl


dqath dks tkuk tkrk gS%
(1) lad dqath
(2) Qhnj dqath
(3) ySV lSMy dqath
(4) gkWyks lSMy dqath

(2) Feather key


(4) Hollow saddle key

Which of the following can be used to scribe lines


parallel to the edges of a part?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

57.

(2) Condenser
(4) Expansion valve

The metacentric height is the distance between the:


(1) Centre of gravity of the floating body and the
centre of buoyancy
(2) Metacentre and the centre of buoyancy
(3) Centre of gravity of the floating body and the
metacentre
(4) None of these

61.

For the same diameter and thickness of tube, a


water tube boiler compared to a fire tube boiler
has:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

62.

More heating surface


Less heating surface
Equal heating surface
Heating surface depends on other parameters

A ball of mass 1kg moving with the velocity of


2m/s collide directly with another stationary ball
of mass 2kg and comes to rest after impact. The
velocity of second ball after impact is:
(1) Zero
(3) 1.0 m/s

63.

63.

(2) E/I
(4) EI

Which of the following pattern allowances is


known as negative allowance:

(4) 2.0 m/s

nfkZr fd;k tkrk gS%


(2) E/I
(4) EI

64.

eksgj o`k esa vf/kdre vi:i.k frcy gksrk gS


(1) eksgj o`k ds f=T;k ds cjkcj
(2) eksgj o`k ds f=T;k ls vf/kd
(3) eksgj o`k ds f=T;k ls de
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

65.

fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk iSVuZ ,ykoSUl _.kkRed ,ykoSUl


tkuk tkrk gS%
(1) ladqpu ,ykoSUl
(2) MkV ,ykoSUl
(3) jSfiax ,ykoSUl
(4) ekhu ,ykoSUl

Equal to radius of Mohrs circle


Greater than radius of Mohrs circle
Less than radius of Mohrs circle
None of these

(1) Shrinkage allowance


(3) Rapping allowance

[k.M ekikad
(1) I/y
(3) M/I

Maximum shear stress in a Mohrs circle is:


(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

65.

(3) 1.0 m/s

Section modulus Z is expressed as:


(1) I/y
(3) M/I

64.

(2) 0.5 m/s


(4) 2.0 m/s

(2) Draft allowance


(4) Machine allowance

[A7]

[4 9 1 3 3 8 ]

66.

Internal or external tapers on a turret lathe can be


turned by:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

67.

In uniform channel flow, if the hydraulic radius be


increased from 8m to 27 m, the flow will change by:

71.

69.

(1) Twist drill


(3) Die

times

dksbZ ugha

(2) 19.62 m/sec


(4) 4.905 m/sec

(2) 1/4 times


(4) 5/8 times

;fn /kju ij cadu rhu xquk c<+k;k tkrk gS] rks /kju ij ogh
frcy j[kus ds fy;s [k.Mh; ekikad & pkfg,%
(1) 3 xquk c<+uk
(2) 1.5 xquk c<+uk
(3) 3 xquk ?kVuk
(4) 6 xquk c<+uk

71.

[kjkn ysFk dh ,d bdkbZ] ftlesa xfr dk p;u djus ds fy,


[kjkn rdqZ rFkk fu;U=d yhoj yxs gksa] dks dgk tkrk gS%
(1) vxz Lda/k
(2) VsyLVkWd
(3) izHkj.k isVh
(4) dkBh dSfjt

72.

;fn fdlh dk;Z tkWc dh yEckbZ l, O;kl d, QhM f rFkk rdqZ


xfr n gks] rks tkWc ds [kjknus dk le; fuEukafdr esa ls fdlds
led{k gksxk%

(2) l/nf
(4) nf/ l

(1) l/dn
(3) d/nf
73.

(2) 11 m/mt
(4) None of these
74.

(2) Tap
(4) End mill

[A8]

(2) l/nf
(4) nf/l

,dy LFky drZu mPp xfr LVhy }kjk <yok yksgs ds


ekhuh&dj.k ds fy;s vkSlr drZu xfr gS%
(1) 6m/mt
(3) 22m/mt

A tool used in cutting an external thread is called


a:

27

70.

(2) Tail stock


(4) Carriage

Average cutting speed in machining cast iron by a


single point cutting high speed steel is:

eh- ls

nksuksa Nksjksa ij lefFkZr ,d /kju esa ;fn ogh Hkkj dsU ij


ladsfUr gksus ds ctk; ;fn iwjh yEckbZ ij leku :i ls
forfjr dh tkrh gS] rks dsU esa fo{ksi ?kV tk;sxk%
(1) 1/2 times
(3) 3/4 times

(2) 1/4 times


(4) 5/8 times

1/2

(2) (27/8)
(4) buesa ls

,d ikuh okys ikbZi esa fdlh fufpr fcUnq ij osx ekiu ds


fy;s fiVksV ufydk ;q gksrh gSA fiVksV Vsfiax ds vkj&ikj
n`fVxr foHksnh nkc 1.962 kg/cm2 gSA ikbZi esa ty dk osx
gksxk%
(1) 1.962 m/sec
(3) 9.81 m/sec

If l be the length of job, d is diameter, f the feed,


and n the spindle speed, then time for turning the
job is equal to:

(1) 6 m/mt
(3) 22 m/mt
74.

(2) 19.62 m/sec


(4) 4.905 m/sec

The unit of a lathe which houses the lathe spindle


and control levers for speed selection is called a:

(1) l/dn
(3) d/nf
73.

68.

Increased 3 times
Increased 1.5 times
Decreased 3 times
Increased 6 times

(1) Head stock


(3) Feed box
72.

(1) 27/8 times


(3) 1.5 times

If the moment on a beam is increased three times,


then to keep the stress in the beam same, the
sectional modulus should be:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

leku pSuy okg esa ;fn o pkfyr dh f=T;k


eh- c<+kbZ tk, rks okg fdruk ifjofrZr gksxk%

1/2

In the case of a beam supported at both ends, if the


same load instead of being concentrated at the
centre, is distributed uniformly throughout the
length, then deflection in the centre will be reduced:
(1) 1/2 times
(3) 3/4 times

70.

67.

(2) (27/8) times


(4) None of these

A pitot tube is used to measure the velocity at a


certain point in a water pipe. The differential
pressure noted across pitot tapping is 1.962
2
kg/cm . The velocity of water in pipe is:
(1) 1.962 m/sec
(3) 9.81 m/sec

69.

V~;wjsV ysFk ij vkUrfjd ;k ck; Vsij VuZ fd;k tkrk gS%


(1) Qsl Vfux vVspesUV }kjk
(2) Vsij Vfux vVspesUV }kjk
(3) LykbfMax vVspesUV }kjk
(4) ekslZ Vsij vVspesUV }kjk

Face turning attachment


Taper turning attachment
Sliding attachment
Morse Taper attachment

(1) 27/8 times


(3) 1.5 times
68.

66.

(2) 11m/mt
(4) buesa ls dksbZ

ugha

ckgjh pwM+h dkVus esa ftl vkStkj dk iz;ksx fd;k tkrk gS] mls
dgrs gSa%
(1) ,safBr cjek
(2) VSi
(3) MkbZ
(4) fljk HkzfedrZd

[4 9 1 3 3 8 ]

75.

The least count of a metric vernier calliper having


25 divisions on the vernier scale, matching with
24 divisions of main scale (1 main scale division =
0.5 mm) is:
(1) 0.05 mm
(3) 0.02 mm

76.

77.

78.

76.

(2) 55
(4) None of these

Exhaust gas recycling in the SI engine is used to


reduce:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

80.

78.

,d fn, x, lEihMu vuqikr ds fy, ,l- vkbZ- batu esa ?kkr


dh o`fk de djus ds fy,%
(1) LQqfyax le; dks eafnr fd;k tk ldrk gS
(2) LQqfyax Iyx dks fu"dkl okYo ls vf/kdre nwjh ij
LFkkfir fd;k tk ldrk gS
(3) fuEurj Tokyk lapj.k nj lfgr ,d 'kkar ngu psEcj dk
;ksx fd;k tkrk gS
(4) b/ku esa dkcZfud ukbVkbV dk ;ksx fd;k tkrk gS

79.

,l- vkbZ- batu esa iqu%pfr fu"dkl xSl dk ;ksx buesa ls


fdls de djus ds fy, fd;k tkrk gS%
(1) fu"dkl esa fcuk tys gkbMksdkcZu
(2) fu"dkl esa C.O.
(3) NOx dk fuekZ.k
(4) batu ls dkfy[k mRltZu

80.

/kkjk js[kk,a] iFk js[kk,a vkSj fud"k js[kk,a buesa ls fdlds fy,
le:i gSa%
(1) vifjor okg
(2) ,d leku okg
(3) ifjor okg
(4) vleku okg

81.

fuEukafdr esa ls fdl f;k ds dkj.k ifjlhek Lrj curk gS tSls


gh okfgr rjy Bksl i`"B ds lEidZ esa vkrk gS%
(1) i`"B ruko
(2) vklatu cy
(3) rjy ij dk;Z dj jgk xq:Ro cy
(4) rjy dh ';kurk

82.

,d vkosxh o pkfyr VckZbu%


(1) lnk gh pkfyr gksrh gS tc iwjh rjg ikuh esa fueXu dh
tkrh gS
(2) ,d MkV V;wc dk ;ksx djrh gS
(3) iwjs ia[k esa nkc 'kh"kZ dks osx 'kh"kZ esa :ikUrfjr djrh gS
(4) foHko tkZ ds xfrd tkZ esa kjfEHkd iw.kZ :ikUrj.k }kjk
pkfyr gksrh gS

The unburned hydrocarbons in the exhaust


The CO in the exhaust
The formation of NOx
The soot emission from the engine

Stream lines, path lines and streak lines are


identical for:
(1) Steady flow
(3) Unsteady flow

81.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
82.

(2) Uniform flow


(4) Non-uniform flow

The boundary layer is formed as the flowing fluid


comes in contact with the solid surface, because
of the action of:
Surface tension
Forces of adhesion
Force of gravity acting on the fluid
Viscosity of the fluid

An impulse hydraulic turbine:

ls dksbZ ugha

/kkrq dh la?kkr lkeF;Z mlds fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl xq.k dk


lwpd gS%
(1) pheM+iu
(2) ruu lkeF;Z
(3) dBksiu
(4) JkfUr lkeF;Z

(1) Spark timing may be retarded


(2) The spark plug may be located farthest from the
exhaust valve
(3) A quiescent combustion chamber with slower
flame propagation rate may be used
(4) Organic nitrites may be used in the fuel
79.

(2) 55
(4) buesa

77.

Toughness
Tensile strength
Hardness
Fatigue strength

For a given compression ratio, to reduce the


tendency to knock in an S I engine:

(2) 0.01 mm
(4) 0.001 mm

,deh pwfM+;ksa dk lfEefyr dks.k gksrk gS%


(1) 60
(3) 29

The impact strength of a material is an index of


its:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

eq[; iSekus 1 eq[; iSekuk [kaM = 0.5 fe0 eh ds 24 Hkkxksa


ls feyku djus okys ofuZ;j iSekus ij 25 Hkkxksa okys ehfVd
ofuZ;j dSfyij dh vYirekad gS%
(1) 0.05 mm
(3) 0.02 mm

(2) 0.01 mm
(4) 0.001 mm

The included angle in Acme threads is:


(1) 60
(3) 29

75.

(1) Always operates while submerged completely in


water
(2) Makes use of a draft tube
(3) Converts pressure head into velocity head
throughout the vane
(4) Operates by initial complete conversion of
potential energy to kinetic energy

[A9]

[4 9 1 3 3 8 ]

83.

The mass flow through a convergent divergent


nozzle is maximum when the pressure at:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

84.

Casting defect developing due to inadequate


venting is:

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

86.

,dy vuh [kjknu esa fof'k"V i`"B ifj"dkj kIr djus ds fy,
lcls egRoiw.kZ dkjd miknku ftls fu;af=r fd;k tk,xk] og
gS%
(1) drZu xgjkbZ
(2) drZu pky
(3) Hkj.k
(4) vkStkj jsd ufr dks.k

87.

Mk;ueksehVj 'kf ekfi= ;qf dks fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdls


ekius ds fy, ;ksx fd;k tkrk gS\
(1) fpi LFkwyrk vuqikr dks
(2) /kkrq drZu ds nkSjku cyksa dks
(3) drZu vkStkj ds fu?k"kZ.k dks
(4) drZu vkStkj ds fo{ksi dks

88.

e'khu e'khfuax }kjk dke djrs le; v/kksHkzfedrZu fefyax


Dykbe pquk tkrk gS D;ksafd%
(1) fpi dh eksVkbZ /khjs&/khjs c<+rh gS
(2) ;g dVj xM+kus ,oa dVkus esa lgk;rk djrk gS
(3) fof'k"V fctyh [kir ?kVkbZ tkrh gS
(4) csgkj i`"B ifj"dkj kIr fd;k tk ldrk gS

89.

CySadu vkijs'ku esa DyhvjsUl nku fd;k tkrk gS%


(1) 50% iap fN.k ij vkSj 50% MkbZ BIik ij
(2) MkbZ ij
(3) iap ij
(4) vfHkdYid dh ilan ij iap ij fuHkZj ;k MkbZ ij

90.

pwM+h csYyu esa ;q fjd CySad O;kl gksxk%


(1) pwM+h ds y?kq O;kl ds cjkcj
(2) pwM+h ds fip O;kl ds cjkcj
(3) pwM+h ds y?kq O;kl ls FkksM+k lk cM+k
(4) pwM+h ds fip O;kl ls FkksM+k lk cM+k

The chip thickness increases gradually


It enables the cutter to dig in and start the cut
The specific power consumption is reduced
Better surface finish can be obtained

In blanking operation the clearance provided is:


(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

f?klkbZ ifg;k ds fo"k; esa vkStkj vk;q dk vfHkk; fdl le;


ls gS\
(1) ifg, dh mkjkskj nks iquf?klkbZ ds chp ds le; ls
(2) ifg, dks larqfyr djus esa fy, x, le; ls
(3) nks mkjkskj ifg;k lk/kuksa esa fy, x, le; ls
(4) blds O;kl ij 1 fe-eh- ds fu?k"kZ.k f?klus esa fy, x,
le; ls

Chip thickness ratio


Forces during metal cutting
Wear of the cutting tool
Deflection of the cutting tool

Climb milling is chosen while machining because:


(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

85.

Depth of cut
Cutting speed
Feed
Tool rake angle

A Dynamometer is a device used for the


measurement of:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

vi;kZIr fudklu ds dkj.k fodflr <ykbZ nks"k dks D;k dgrs


gSa\
(1) vUrosZ'ku
(2) okr fN
(3) vrIr :)
(4) rkih; rjsM+

Between two successive regrinds of the wheel


Taken for the wheel to be balanced
Taken between two successive wheel dressings
Taken for a wear of 1 mm on its diameter

For achieving a specific surface finish in a single


point turning the most important factor to be
controlled is:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

84.

(2) Blow holes


(4) Hot cracks

Tool life in the case of a grinding wheel is the


time:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

vfHklkjh&vilkjh ukst+y ds ek/;e ls O;eku okg vf/kdre


gksrk gS tc%
(1) fuxZe ij nkc kfUrd nkc ds cjkcj gksrk gS
(2) fuxZe ij nkc ok;qeaMyh; nkc ls de gksrk gS
(3) daB ij nkc fuxZe rki ds cjkcj gksrk gS
(4) daB ij nkc kfUrd nkc ds cjkcj gksrk gS

Exit is equal to the critical pressure


Exit is less than atmospheric pressure
Throat is equal to the exit pressure
Throat is equal to the critical pressure

(1) Inclusions
(3) Cold shuts
85.

83.

50% on punch and 50% on die


On die
On punch
On die or punch depending on designers choice

The blank diameter used in thread rolling will be:


(1) Equal to minor diameter of the thread
(2) Equal to pitch diameter of the thread
(3) A little larger than the minor diameter of the
thread
(4) A little larger than the pitch diameter of the thread

[A10]

[4 9 1 3 3 8 ]

91.

In centreless grinding, the work piece centre will be:


(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

92.

Which one of the following operations is carried


out at the minimum cutting velocity if the
machines are equally rigid and the tool work
materials are the same?

97.

,dy fcUnq pwM+h drZu vkStkj esa vkn'kZr% fuEu esa ls D;k gksuk
pkfg,%
(1) 'kwU; jsd
(2) /kukRed jsd
(3) _.kkRed jsd
(4) lkekU; jsd

94.

150

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

hardening

(2) 15 m/s
(4) buesa ls dksbZ

ugha

96.

lhesaVhr dkckZbM vkStkj lkekU;r% fdlds lkFk eqgS;k djk,


tkrs gSa\
(1) /kukRed i'p jsd dks.k
(2) _.kkRed i'p ufr dks.k
(3) 'kwU; ufr dks.k
(4) mi;qZ dksbZ ugha

97.

bLikr dk lkekU;hdj.k buesa ls fdlds }kjk fd;k tkrk gS%


(1) 6 eghus ls 2 o"kZ rd ds fy, [kqys eSnku esa NksM+dj
(2) kfUrd rkieku ds uhps f"er djds rFkk mlds i'pkr
ok;q 'khru djds
(3) kfUrd rkieku ds ij f"er djds rFkk mlds i'pkr
ok;q 'khru djds
(4) kfUrd rkieku ds ij f"er djds rFkk mlds i'pkr
Hkh 'khru djds

98.

fuEukafdr esa ls fdu i`"B dBksjhdj.k eksa dks eTt'khru dh


dksbZ vko';drk ugha gksrh gS%
(1) sj.k dBksjhdj.k
(2) Tokyk dBksjhdj.k
(3) ukbVkbMhdj.k
(4) i`"B dkcZu O;kiu

Positive back rake angle


Negative back rake angle
Zero rake angle
None of the above

Which of the following surface


processes needs no quenching?

ij ?kw.kZu dj

fdlh [kjknu laf;k esa] /kkrq viu; nj Removal rate


c<+kus ds fy, Hkj.k dks nqxquk fd;k tk ldrk gSA i`"B
ifj"dkj dk ogh Lrj cuk, j[kus ds fy, vkStkj dh uklk
f=T;k fdruh gksuh pkfg,\
(1) vk/kh
(2) vifjofrZr j[kh tk,
(3) nqxquh dh tk,
(4) pkSxquh dh tk,

(2) Kept unchanged


(4) Made four times

Normalizing of steel is done by:

3000 rpm

95.

(1) Leaving in the open yard for six months to two


years
(2) Heating below critical temperature followed by air
cooling
(3) Heating above critical temperature followed by air
cooling
(4) Heating above critical temperature followed by
furnace cooling
98.

feeh- O;kl dk f?klkbZ ifg;k


jgk gS rks f?klkbZ pky crkb,\
(1) 7.5 m/s
(3) 45 m/s

Cemented carbide tools are usually provided


with:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

93.

(2) 15 m/s
(4) None of these

In turning operation, the feed could be doubled to


increase the metal removal rate. To keep the same
level of surface finish, the nose radius of the tool
should be:
(1) Halved
(3) Doubled

96.

;fn e'khusa leku :i ls n`<+ gSa vkSj vkStkj dk;Z inkFkZ Hkh
leku gSa] rks fuEure drZu osx ij fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh
,d laf;k dh tkrh gS%
(1) [kjknu
(2) vi?k"kZ.k ihluk
(3) os/ku
(4) fefyax HkzfedrZu

(2) Positive rake


(4) Normal rake

A grinding wheel of 150 mm diameter is rotating


at 3000 rpm. The grinding speed is:
(1) 7.5 m/s
(3) 45 m/s

95.

92.

(2) Grinding
(4) Milling

Single point thread cutting tools should ideally


have:
(1) Zero rake
(3) Negative rake

94.

vdsU vki?k"kZ.k esa dk;Z [k.M dsU dgk ij gksxk\


(1) nks ifg;ksa ds dsUksa dks feykus okyh js[kk ds ij
(2) nks ifg;ksa ds dsUksa dks feykus okyh js[kk ds uhps
(3) nks ifg;ksa ds dsUksa dks feykus okyh js[kk ij
(4) dk;Z IysV Iysu ds lkFk ifg;k dsU feykus okyh js[kk ds
frPNsnu ij

Above the line joining the two wheel centres


Below the line joining the two wheel centres
On the line joining the two wheel centres
At the intersection of the line joining the wheel
centres with the work plate plane

(1) Turning
(3) Boring
93.

91.

Induction hardening
Flame hardening
Nitriding
Case carburising

[A11]

[4 9 1 3 3 8 ]

99.

The cupola is used to make:


(1) Pig iron
(3) Wrought iron

D;qiksyk dk ;ksx buesa ls fdls cukus ds fy, fd;k tkrk gS%


(1) dPpk yksgk
(2) <ykoka yksgk
(3) fiVoka yksgk
(4) bLikr

100.

ikr QkstuZ esa QkstuZ buesa ls fdls fxjk dj fd;k tkrk gS%
(1) mPp osx ij dk;Z ds VqdM+s dks
(2) mPp osx ij gFkkSM+s dks
(3) mPp osx ij BIis lfgr gFkkSM+s dks
(4) gFkkSM+s ls gFkkSM+s ij Hkkj okafPNr la?kkr mRi djrk gS

101.

vkdZ osYMyu ds fy, buesa ls fdls ,d ewy kpy ugha ekuk


tkrk gS%
(1) /kkjk djUV
(2) oksYVrk
(3) nkc
(4) osYMu xfr

102.

fuEukafdr esa ls D;k likV csYyu dk ,d fof'k"V nks"k ugha gS%


(1) fdukjs esa njkj
(2) dsU esa njkj
(3) e fdukjs
(4) mHkju

103.

buesa ls fdlds nkSjku fMEiYM foHkax i`"B curs gSa%


(1) R;LFk foHkax
(2) fonh.kZ foHkax
(3) JkfUr foHkax
(4) Hkaxqj foHkax

(2) Cast iron


(4) Steel

100. In drop forging, forging is done by droping:


(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

99.

The work piece at high velocity


The hammer at high velocity
The die with hammer at high velocity
A weight on hammer to hammer to produce the
requisite impact

101. Which of the following is not considered a basic


parameter for arc welding?
(1) Current
(3) Pressure

(2) Voltage
(4) Welding speed

102. Which of the following is not a typical defect of


flat rolling?
(1) Edge cracking
(3) Wavy edges

(2) Centre cracking


(4) Bulging

103. Dimpled fracture surface forms during:


(1) Ductile fracture
(3) Fatigue fracture

(2) Cleavage fracture


(4) Brittle fracture

104. Plain carbon steel containing 0.1 wt% carbon is


suitable for case hardening by:
(1) Flame hardening
(3) Pack carburizing

(2) Induction hardening


(4) Nitriding

105. The material used for coating the electrode is


called:
(1) Protective layer
(3) Deoxidiser

ijkJO; ekhuu Ik)fr fuEukafdr esa ls fdlds fy, lcls


vf/kd mi;qDr gS%
(1) eaxqj inkFkZ
(2) LVsuysl LVhy
(3) IykfLVDl
(4) ySM

107.

oksa dk fofkV xq:Ro lkekU;r% buesa ls fdlds }kjk ekik


tkrk gS%
(1) vkZrk ekih
(2) FkekZehVj
(3) nkcksPprkekih
(4) gkbMksehVj

108.

fuEufyf[kr esa fdlesa U;wure frkr dkcZu gS%


(1) vk?kkr c/kZuh; yksg
(2) dPpk yksgk
(3) LVsuysl LVhy
(4) fiVok yksgk

109.

Mkbax ij i`Bh; :{krk fdlds }kjk nfkZr fd;k tkrk gS%


(1) f=Hkqt
(2) o`k
(3) oxZ
(4) vk;r

(2) Pig iron


(4) Wrought iron

109. Surface roughness on a drawing is represented by:


(1) Triangles
(3) Squares

106.

(2) Thermometer
(4) Hydrometer

108. Which of the following has least percentage of


carbon:
(1) Malleable iron
(3) Stainless steel

bySDVksM ds foysiu ds fy, iz;ksx fd, tkus okys inkFkZ dks


dgrs gSa%
(1) j{kd ijr
(2) ;kstd
(3) fovkWDlhdkjd
(4) yDl

(2) Stainless steel


(4) Lead

107. The specific gravity of liquids is usually measured


by means of a:
(1) Hygrometer
(3) Piezometer

105.

(2) Binder
(4) Flux

106. Ultrasonic machining method is best suited for:


(1) Brittle materials
(3) Plastics

dkcZu j[kus okyk lknk dkcZu bLikr buesa ls fdlds


}kjk dsl dBksju ds mi;q gS%
(1) Tokyk dBksju
(2) sj.k dBksjhdj.k
(3) ladqy dkcZu O;kiu
(4) UkkbVhfMdj.k

104. 0.1 wt%

(2) Circles
(4) Rectangles

[A12]

[4 9 1 3 3 8 ]

110. Lathe centres are provided with standard taper


known as:
(1) Chapman taper
(3) Morse taper

mm. The

115.

117.

(2) 29.00 mm
(4) All of these

4 mm

dksbZ ugha

gSA pwM+h dh vxzrk gS%

(2) 2 mm
(4) buesa ls

dksbZ ugha

[kjkn ds vxz.k isap esa ---------- pwfM+;ka gksrh gS%


(1) ,dgjh pwM+h
(2) f}d~ pwM+h
(3) cgqy pwM+h
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ,d
fuEu ds cjkcj gS%

kSV ds vkeki dh lhek,a gSa


gS%

118. BSW

(2) 60
(4) 29

ds dks.k ij f;koku gS]

(2) 35N
(4) buesa ls

(1) 29.03 mm
(3) 28.97 mm

(2) 212F
(4) buesa ls
0.03

29

mm.

dksbZ ugha

xks xst dk vkeki

(2) 29.00 mm
(4) ;s lHkh

pwM+h dk fMxzh esa pwM+h dks.k gS%

(1) 55
(3) 47.5

(2) 60
(4) 29

119.

fjosV fuEu dh cuh gksrh gS%


(1) HkqjHkqjh lkexzh
(2) rU; lkexzh
(3) dBksj lkexzh
(4) pqacdh; lkexzh

120.

kqd cYc rFkk vkZ cYc ds rkieku esa vUrj c<rk gS] tc
ok;q%
(1) vf/kd vkZ gksrh gS
(2) vf/kd kqd gksrh gS
(3) ok;qeaMyh; rkieku c<+rk gS
(4) ok;qaeMyh; rkieku ?kVrk gS

Brittle material
Ductile material
Hard material
Magnetic material

120. The difference between dry bulb and wet bulb


temperature increases as air:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

90

(1) 100F
(3) 180F

119. The rivet is made of


(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

ds nks cy

(1) 8 mm
(3) 4 mm

(2) 212F
(4) None of these
0.03

,d f}d pwM+h dk varjky

116. 100C

118. Thread angle of BSW thread in degree is


(1) 55
(3) 47.5

114.

(2) Double start


(4) Any one of these

117. The limits of size of a shaft are 29


size of go gauge is
(1) 29.03 mm
(3) 28.97 mm

rFkk 40
ifj.kkeh cy gS%

113. 30 N

(2) 2 mm
(4) None of these

116. 100C is equivalent to


(1) 100F
(3) 180F

ekbksehVj esa ;fn fFkEcy dk vakkadu ^o* kwU; funsZk js[kk


ls ij gS tcfd vxzHkkx laidZ esa gSa rks =qfV gS%
(1) kwU;
(2) _.kkRed
(3) /kukRed
(4) ifjHkkfkr ugha dh tk ldrh

(1) 70 N
(3) 20 N

115. The lead screw of a lathe has __________ threads.


(1) Single start
(3) Multi-start

112.

(2) 35N
(4) None of these

114. A double start thread has a pitch of 4 mm. The


lead of the thread is
(1) 8 mm
(3) 4 mm

fx;j nUr dk ksQkbZy fdlds }kjk ijh{k.k fd;k tkrk gS%


(1) lkbZu ckj
(2) vkWIVhdy ikbZjksehVj
(3) vkWIVhdy kstsDVj
(4) fLyi xstst

(2) Negative
(4) Not defined

113. Two forces of 30 N and 40 N are acting at 90o to


each other, the resultant force is
(1) 70 N
(3) 20 N

111.

(2) Optical pyrometer


(4) Slip gauges

112. In a micrometer if o (zero) graduation of the


thimble is above the datum line, when the faces
are in contact, the error is
(1) Zero
(3) Positive

ekud Vsij ds lkFk ysFk dsU nku fd;s tkrs gSa] mls tkuk
tkrk gS%
(1) psieSu Vsij
(2) lsylZ Vsij
(3) ekslZ Vsij
(4) tuksZ Vsij

(2) Seller's taper


(4) Jarno taper

111. Profile of a gear tooth can be checked by:


(1) Sine bar
(3) Optical projector

110.

Becomes wetter
Becomes drier
Atmospheric temperature rises
Atmospheric temperature decreases

[A13]

[4 9 1 3 3 8 ]

egRoiw.kZ% fuEufyf[kr funsZ'k /;kuiwoZd i<+saA vius uksa ds mkj u&iqfLrdk esa u yxk,a vU;Fkk p;u f;k ls vkidh ik=rk oafpr dj nh tk;sxhA
1.

2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

viuk mkj fy[kuk kjEHk djus ls igys viuh 'u iqfLrdk dh Hkyh&Hkkfr tkp dj ysa] ns[k ysa fd blesa 120 'u gSaA R;sd 'u iqfLrdk dh
fljht fHk gksxh u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k ,oa u&iqfLrdk fljht dk la;kstuA vkidks OMR mkj if=dk ij lgh 'u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa
u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k fy[kuk gSA iqu% ;g Hkh ij[k ysa fd blesa fafVax lac/a kh vFkok vU; fdLe dh dksbZ deh ugha gSA ;fn fdlh dkj dh dksbZ
deh gks rks i;Zos{kd dks lwfpr djsa vkSj u&iqfLrdk cnydj ,d u;h iqfLrdk ysaA bl lanHkZ esa fdlh Hkh dkj dh dksbZ f'kdk;r ij ckn esa dksbZ
fopkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA
egRoiw.kZ uksV% vks-,e-vkj- mkj if=dk vH;Fk ds u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k ds la;kstu ls ewY;kafdr dh tk;sxhA vr% vkidks
vks-,e-vkj- mkj if=dk ij lgh u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k fy[kuk pkfg,A buesa ls fdlh ,d esa Hkh xyrh gksus ij vkidh
vks-,e-vkj- mkj if=dk fujLr gks ldrh gSA vks-,e-vkj- mkj if=dk esa u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k ,oa u&iqfLrdk fljht ugha Hkjus ij vH;Fk ds
mkj if=dk dk ewY;kadu ugha fd;k tk;sxk ftldh ftEesnkjh Lor% vH;Fk dh gksxhA
xyr mkj ds fy, 1/3 _.kkRed vadu gksxkA R;sd u ds vad leku gSaA foLr`r tkudkjh ds fy, mkj i=d dk voyksdu djsaA
d{k&fujh{kd ls vius osk&i= ij gLrk{kj vo; djok,aA ;fn vkius gLrk{kj ugha djok;k rks vkidh ik=rk j dj nh tk,xhA
;g ,d oLrqijd fdLe dh ijh{kk gS ftlesa R;sd 'u ds uhps ekad (1) ls (4) rd pkj Lrkfor mkj fn;s gSAa vkids fopkj esa tks Hkh mkj
lgh@loZJ"s B gS mldks vks-,e-vkj- mkj i= esa fn;s funs'Z k ds vuqlkj fpfUgr dhft,A vius mkj 'u iqfLrdk esa u yxk,A
vks-,e-vkj- mkj if=dk ij lHkh dk;ks ds fy, uhys@dkys ckWy IokbV isu ls fy[ksaA vks-,e-vkj mkj if=dk ij vksoy dks iw.kZ :i ls dsoy
uhys@dkys ckWy IokbV isu ls HkjsaA ,d ckj fn, x, mkj dks cnyk ugha tk ldrkA
mkj&i= ij u rks jQ+ dk;Z djsa u gh vkSj fdlh dkj dk fu'kku vkfn yxk,a ;k bls eksaM+sA
dsYdqysVj] LykbM:y] eksckbZy] dsYdqysVj ?kfM+;k ;k bl dkj dh dksbZ Hkh ;qf ,oa fdlh Hkh v/;;u@lanHkZ lkexzh vkfn dk ;ksx ijh{kk d{k esa oftZr gSA
jQ+ dk;Z iqfLrdk esa fdlh Hkh [kkyh LFkku esa fd;k tkuk pkfg,] vks-,e-vkj- mkj if=dk ij dksbZ Hkh jQ+ dk;Z u djsaA fdlh vU; dkx+t ij bls
djus dh vuqefr ugha gSA
ijh{kk dh lekfIr ds i'pkr~ viuh iwjh 'u&iqfLrdk rFkk mkj&if=dk i;Zos{kd dks okil dj nsaA 'u iqfLrdk ;k blds fdlh Hkkx vFkok OMR
mkj if=dk dks ijh{kk d{k ls ckgj ys tkuk oftZr gS ,slk djuk nUMuh; vijk/k gSA
gj ,d 'u ds fy, dsoy ,d gh mkj bafxr djsaA ,d ls vf/kd mkj nsus ij 'u dk dksbZ vad ugha fn;k tk,xkA mkj esa dksbZ Hkh dfVax ;k
vksojjkbZfVax ekU; ugha gksxhA iqu% 'u i= f}Hkk"kh; fgUnh ,oa vaxzsth esa gSA fgUnh laLdj.k esa fdlh Hkh fHkrk gksus ij ewY;kadu ds fy, vaxzsth
laLdj.k dks vfUre ekuk tk;sxkA

dPps dk;Z ds fy,

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