BOARD REVIEW QUESTIONS IN BIOCHEMISTRY

1. What is the ion product of water?

A.
It is the total number of negatively and positively charged ions in 1 liter of
aqueous solution.
B.
It is the product of the concentrations of hydrogen and hydroxyl ions in
an aqueous solution.
C.
It is the number of ionized molecules of water in 1 mole of pure water.
D.
It is the sum of all hydrogen and hydroxyl ions in an aqueous solution.
Ans. B
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. pp.18-19
MPL: 0.75
2. A very anxious student hyperventilates an hour before the biochemistry board
exam. What is the effect of hyperventilation on his Pco2 and blood pH?
A.
Pco2 decreases and pH increases.
B.
Pco2 decreases and pH decreases.
C.
Pco2 increases and pH decreases.
D.
Pco2 increases and pH increases.
Ans. A
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. Pp. 18-19
MPL: 0.25
3. A protein rich in which of the following amino acids will provide the greatest
buffering capacity at physiologic pH?
A.
Valine
B.
Aspartic acid
C.
Lysine
D.
Histidine
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p.26
MPL: 0.75
4. Which of the following laboratory results would best indicate metabolic alkalosis?
A.
Increased Pco2, increased pH, increased HCO3.
B.
Normal Pco2, increased pH, decreased HCO3.
C.
Increased Pco2, increased pH, normal HCO3.
D.
Decreased Pco2, increased pH, normal HCO3.
Ans. A
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p.304
MPL: 0.75
5. What is the property of water that will contribute the most to its ability to dissolve
compounds?
A.
Very few interactive forces in its structure.
B.
Hydrogen bond formation between water and long-chain fatty acids.
C.
Covalent bond formation between salt and water.
D.
Hydrogen bond formation between water and biochemical molecules.
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p.15-17
MPL: 0.75

6. A childs developmental progress is noted to stop at 2 years old. The following

year, skeletal deformities appear. The child regresses to a vegetative state at 10
years old. Urine examination tests positive for glucosaminoglycans that include
most likely which of the following?
A.
Collagen
B.
Glycogen
C.
GABA
D.
Heparan sulfate
Ans. D
Ref. Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 673
MPL: 0.25
7. A 3-year old child is diagnosed to have Hurlers syndrome. The diagnosis of
Hurlers syndrome is MOST efficiently made by analyzing the patients DNA for:
A.
A region of DNA that does not encode RNA.
B.
Alternative forms of the L-Iduronidase gene.
C.
The entire set of genes in one leukocyte.
D.
A nucleotide substitution in the L-Iduronidase gene.
Ans. B
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 678
MPL: 0.25
8. Which of the following statements regarding a double-helical molecule of DNA is
TRUE?
A.
All hydroxyl groups of pentoses are involved in linkages.
B.
Bases are perpendicular to the axis.
C.
Each strand is identical.
D.
Each strand replicates itself.
Ans. B
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p.386
MPL: 0.75
9. A human DNA sample is subjected to increasing temperature until its major
fraction exhibit optical density changes. A minor fraction of the sample DNA is
atypical because it required a higher temperature to denature. This atypical minor
fraction of sample DNA must have a higher content of:
A.
Adenine + Cytosine
B.
Cytosine + Guanine
C.
Adenine + Thymine
D.
Adenine + Guanine
Ans. B
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 387-388
MPL: 0.75
10. A newborn baby has a sibling with sickle cell anemia and is at risk for this
disease. The appropriate diagnostic test for sickle cell anemia in this baby would
include which of the following?
A.
DNA amplification
B.
Hemoglobin antibodies
C.
Red cell counting
D.
DNA fingerprinting
Ans. A
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 468
MPL: 0.25

11. Which of the following would BEST describe polymorphism?

A.
One phenotype, multiple genotypes
B.
Non-random allele association
C.
One locus, multiple abnormal alleles
D.
One locus, multiple normal alleles
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 476
MPL: 0.25
12. What is that process that occurs at the 5-position of Cytidine and is often
correlated with gene inactivation?
A.
Gene conversion
B.
Sister chromatid exchange
C.
Gene rearrangement
D.
DNA methylation
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p.466
MPL: 0.75
13. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP) analysis can only be used to
follow the inheritance of a genetic disease if:
A.
The disease-causing mutation is at or closely linked to an altered
restriction site.
B.
Proteins of mutated and normal genes migrate differently upon gel
electrophoresis.
C.
Mutations are outside restriction sites so that cleaving still occurs.
D.
mRNA probes are used in combination with antibodies.
Ans. A
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 478
MPL: 0.25
14. DNA polymerases synthesize DNA only in the 5 to 3 direction. However, at the
replication fork, both parentral strands of DNA are being replicated with the
synthesis of new DNA. How is it possible that while one strand is being
synthesized in the 5 to 3 direction, the other strand appears to be synthesized in
the 3 to 5 direction? This is best explained by:
A.
3 to 5 DNA repair enzymes
B.
3 to 5 DNA polymerase
C.
Okazaki fragments
D.
Lack of RNA primer on one of the strands.
Ans. C
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p407
MPL: 0.75
15. The chromosomes of mammalian cells are 20 times as large as those of
Escherichia coli. How can replication of mammalian chromosomes be carried out
in just a few minutes?
A.
The higher temperature of mammalian cells allows for an exponentially
higher replication rate.
B.
Hundreds of replication forks work simultaneously on each piece of
chromosomal DNA.
C.
Many RNA polymerases carry out replication simultaneously on
chromosomal DNA.
D.
The presence of histones speeds up the rate of chromosomal DNA
replication.
Ans. B
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 407
MPL: 0.75

16. Sickle cell anemia is the manifestation of homozygous genes for an abnormal
hemoglobin molecule. The mutation in the beta-chain is known to produce a
single amino acid change. The most likely mechanism for this mutation is:
A.
Two base insertion
B.
Three base deletion
C.
Nondysjunction
D.
Point mutation
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 734
MPL: 0.75
17. A culture of bacteria not resistant to Tetracycline develops an infection from a
virus that is derived from the lysis of tetracycline-resistant bacteria. Most of the
bacterial progeny of the original culture is found to have become resistant to
tetracycline. What phenomenon has occurred?
A.
Conjugation
B.
Recombination
C.
Transformation
D.
Transduction
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 471
MPL: 0.75
18. Following ultraviolet damage to DNA in the skin, which of the following is MOST
likely to occur?
A.
A specific nuclease detects damaged areas.
B.
Purine dimmers are formed.
C.
Both strands are cleaved.
D.
Endonuclease removes the damaged strand.
Ans. A
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 814
MPL: 0.75
19. Which of the following statements about the genetic code is the MOST accurate?
A.
Information is stored as sets of dinucleotide repeats called codons.
B.
The code is degenerate.
C.
There are 64 codons, all of which code for amino acids.
D.
Information is stored as sets of trinucleotide repeats called codons.
Ans. B
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 433-434
MPL: 0.75
20. Which of the following is provided by the Northern Blot Analysis?
A.
Detection of specific base pairs.
B.
Detection of DNA molecules.
C.
Detection of RNA molecules.
D.
Detection of proteins.
Ans. C
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 472-473
MPL: 1.0
21. In contrast to DNA polymerase, RNA polymerase:
A.
Fills in the gap between the Okazaki fragments.
B.
Works only in a 5 to 3 direction.
C.
Edits as it synthesizes.
D.
Synthesizes RNA primer to initiate DNA synthesis.

Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 418
MPL: 0.75
22. The removal of introns and subsequent self-splicing of adjacent exons occurs in
some portions of primary ribosomal RNA transcripts. The splicing of introns in
mRNA precursors is:
A.
RNA-catalyzed in the absence of protein.
B.
Carried out by spliceosomes.
C.
Controlled by RNA polymerase.
D.
Regulated by RNA helicase.
Ans. B
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p.426
MPL: 0.75
23. What is the function of a promoter site on DNA?
A.
Transcribes repressor
B.
Initiates transcription
C.
Codes for RNA polymerase
D.
Regulates termination
Ans. B
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 420
MPL: 1.0
24. The sigma factor found in many bacteria is best described as a:
A.
Subunit of RNA polymerase responsible for the specificity of the initiation
of transcription.
B.
Subunit of DNA polymerase that allows for the synthesis in both 5 to 3
and 3 to 5 directions.
C.
Subunit of the 50S ribosome that catalyzes peptide bond synthesis.
D.
Subunit of the 30S ribosome to which mRNA binds.
Ans. A
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 418
MPL: 0.75
25. A 23-year old man was rushed to the emergency room with nausea, vomiting,
and abdominal pain. Remnants of the death-cap wild mushroom Amanita
phalloides were noted upon laboratory examination of his vomitus. A liver biopsy
indicates massive hepatic necrosis. Care is supportive. A major toxin of the death
cap mushroom inhibits which of the following?
A.
DNA primase
B.
RNA nuclease
C.
DNA ligase
D.
RNA polymerase
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 420
MPL: 0.75
26. The consensus sequence 5-TATAAAA-3 found ineukaryotic genes is almost
similar to a consensus sequence observed in prokaryotes. The consensus
sequence is important as the:
A.
Only site of binding of RNA polymerase II.
B.
Promoter site for all RNA polymerases.
C.
Termination site for RNA polymerase II.
D.
First site of binding of a transcription factor for RNA polymerase II.
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. pp. 421-422
MPL: 0.75

27. The so-called caps of RNA molecules:

A.
Allow tRNA to be processed.
B.
Occur at the 3-end of tRNA.
C.
Are composed of poly A.
D.
Are unique to eukaryotic mRNA.
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 428
MPL: 1.0
28. In bacterial RNA synthesis, what is the function of the rho factor?
A.
It binds catabolite repressor to the promoter region.
B.
It increases the rate of RNA synthesis.
C.
It eliminates the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter.
D.
It participates in the proper termination of transcription.
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 419
MPL: 1.0
29. Which of the following statements correctly describes the nucleolus of a
mammalian cell?
A.
It differs from that found in bacterial cells in that histones are present.
B.
It may contain hundreds of copies of genes for different types of
ribosomal RNAs.
C.
It synthesizes 5S rRNA.
D.
It synthesizes all ribosomal RNA primary transcripts.
Ans. B
Ref; Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 428
MPL: 0.75
30. Which of the following statements correctly describes the synthesis of
mammalian mRNA?
A.
Each mRNA often encodes several different proteins.
B.
Several different genes may produce identical mRNA molecules.
C.
Mammalian mRNA undergoes minimal modification during its maturation.
D.
The RNA sequence transcribed from a gene is identical to the mRNA that
exits from nucleus to cytoplasm.
Ans. B
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 427
MPL: 0.75
31. Certain amino acids are not part of the primary structure of proteins but are
modified after translation. In scurvy, which amino acid that is normally part of
collagen is not synthesized?
A.
Hydroxytryptophan
B.
Hydroxytyrosine
C.
Hydroxyhistidine
D.
Hydroxyproline
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. pp. 668-669
MPL: 1,0
32. Immunoglobulin G (IgG) molecules can be characterized by which of the
following statements?
A.
They are maintained at a constant level in the serum.
B.
They contain nucleic acids.
C.
They contain mostly carbohydrates.
D.
They can be separated into subunits with a reducing agent and urea.

Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p.716
MPL: 1.0
33. Which of the following proteolytic enzymes is activated by acid hydrolysis of the
proenzyme form?
A.
Trypsin
B.
Elastase
C.
Pepsin
D.
Carboxypeptidase
Ans. C
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p.636
MPL: 1.0
34. Which of the following amino acids is ionizable in proteins?
A.
Leucine
B.
Histidine
C.
Valine
D.
Alanine
Ans. B
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 294
MPL: 0.75
35. The oxygen carrier of muscle is the globular protein myoglobin. Which of the
following amino acids is highly likely to be localized within the interior of the
molecule?
A.
Arginine
B.
Aspartic acid
C.
Glutamic acid
D.
Valine
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p.53
MPL: 0.75
36. Which of the following statements concerning immunoglobulins is most accurate?
A.
IgE is the principal antibody in the serum.
B.
The heavy chains are similar in each class of immunoglobulin.
C.
The constant regions of the heavy chains are the same in each class of
immunoglobulin.
D.
IgE is the major immunoglobulin found in external secretions.
Ans. C
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p.718
MPL: 1.0
37. Under normal conditions in the blood, which of the following amino acid residues
of albumin is neutral?
A.
Arginine
B.
Aspartate
C.
Glutamine
D.
Histidine
Ans. C
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 294
MPL: 0.75

38. A child develops chronic diarrhea and liver inflammation in early infancy when the
mother begins using formula that includes corn syrup. Evaluation of the child
demonstrates sensitivity to fructose in the diet. Which of the following glycosides
contains fructose and therefore should be avoided when feeding or treating this
infant?
A.
Sucrose
B.
Oaubain
C.
Lactose
D.
Maltose
Ans. A
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p.135
MPL: 0.75
39. Which of the following carbohydrates would be most abundant in a diet of strict
vegetarians?
A.
Amylose
B.
Lactose
C.
Cellulose
D.
Glycogen
Ans. C
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 141
MPL: 1.0
40. The major metabolic product under normal circumstances by erythrocytes and by
muscle cells during intense exercise is recycled through the liver in the Cori
cycle. The metabolite is:
A.
Oxaloacetate
B.
Glycerol
C.
Alanine
D.
Lactate
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 200-201
MPL: 0.75
41. Chronic alcoholics require more ethanol than do nondrinkers to become
intoxicated because of a higher level of a specific enzyme levels, the availability
of what other substance is rate-limiting in the clearance of alcohol?
A.
NADH
B.
NAD+
C.
FADH
D.
FAD+
Ans. B
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. pp. 601-603
MPL: 0.25
42. Following a fad diet of skimmed milk and yogurt, an adult female patient
experiences abdominal distention, nausea, cramping, and pain followed by
watery diarrhea. This set of symptoms is observed each time the said meal is
consumed. A most likely diagnosis is:
A.
Steatorrhea
B.
Lactase deficiency
C.
Sialidase deficiency
D.
Lipoprotein deficiency
Ans. B
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 645
MPL: 0.1

43. A percentage of Filipino population may flush and feel discomfort after drinking
small amounts of ethanol in alcoholic beverages. This reaction is due to genetic
variation in an enzyme that metabolizes the liver metabolite of alcohol, which is:
A.
Methanol
B.
Acetone
C.
Acetaldehyde
D.
Glycerol
Ans. C
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 264
MPL: 0.75
44. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the high-energy phosphorylation of
substrates during glycolysis?
A.
Pyruvate kinase
B.
Phosphoglycerate kinase
C.
Triosephosphate isomerase
D.
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p.176
MPL: 1.0
45. Which of the following enzymes is common to both glycolysis and
gluconeogenesis?
A.
Pyruvate carboxylase
B.
Hexokinase
C.
Phosphoglycerate kinase
D.
Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase
Ans. C
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p.194
MPL: 0.75
46. During the first week of a diet of 1500 calories per day, the oxidation of glucose
via glycolysis in the liver of a normal 59-kg woman is inhibited by the lowering of
which of the following?
A.
Citrate
B.
ATP
C.
Ketone bodies
D.
Fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p.176
MPL: 0.75
47. Familial fructokinase deficiency causes no symptoms because:
A.
Hexokinase can phosphorylate fructose.
B.
Most tissues utilize fructose.
C.
Liver fructose-1-phosphate aldolase is still active.
D.
Excess fructose spills into the bowel and is eliminated in the feces.
Ans. A
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 214
MPL: 0.75
48. A newborn begins vomiting after feeding, becomes severely jaundiced, and has
liver disease. Treatment for possible sepsis is initiated, and the urine is found to
have reducing substances. A blood screen for galactosemia is positive, and
lactose-containing substances are removed from the diet. Lactose is toxic in this
case because:
A.
Excess glucose accumulated in the blood.

B.
C.
D.

Galactose is converted to the toxic substance galactitol.

Galactose itself is toxic in even small amounts.
Glucose metabolism is shut down by excess galactose.

Ans. B
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 205
MPL: 0.25
49. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes phosphorylation with the use of
inorganic phosphate?
A.
Hexokinase
B.
Phosphofructokinase
C.
Phosphoglycerate kinase
D.
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 179
MPL: 0.75
50. After a well-rounded breakfast, which of the following would be expected to
occur?
A.
Increased activity of pyruvate carboxylase
B.
Decreased activity of acetyl CoA carboxylase
C.
Decreased rate of glycogenesis
D.
Decreased rate of protein synthesis
Ans.
Ref.
MPL:

C
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 179
0.75

51. The ability of hemoglobin to serve as an effective transporter of oxygen and

carbon dioxide between lungs and tissue is explained by which of the ff.
properties?
A.
The isolated heme group with ferrous iron binds oxygen much more
avidly than carbon dioxide
B.
The and globin chains of hemoglobin have very fifferent primary
structures than myoglobin
C.
Hemoglobin utilizes oxidized ferric iron to bind oxygen, in contrats to the
ferrous ion myoglobin.
D.
In contrast to myoglobin, hemoglobin exhibits greater changes in
secondary and tertiary structure after oxygen binding
Ans. D
Ref. Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 436
MPL 0.75
52. Contraction of skeletal muscle is initiated by the binding of calcium to:
A.
Tropomyosin
B.
Troponin
C.
Myosin
D.
Actomyosin
Ans
B
Ref. Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 687-688
MPL: 0.75

10

53.

Which of the following statements correctly describes transport of oxygen by

hemoglobin?
A.
Oxygen binds to hemoglobin more avidly than does carbon monoxide.
B.
The binding of oxygen to hemoglobin causes a valence change in the
iron of the heme moiety.
C.
Each of the four heme moieties binds oxygen independently
D.
The plot of percentage of oxygen bound versus oxygen pressure is
sigmoid in shape
Ans. D
Ref. Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 436
MPL: 0.75

54. Which of the following mutations would produce a severe form of thalassemia?
A.
Deletion of one -globin locus
B.
Deletion of one -globin locus
C.
Oxidation of heme groups to produce methemoglobin
D.
Altered RNA processing at both
Ans.
Ref.
MPL

D
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 734
0.75

55. The substitution of valine for glutamate at position 6 on the two chains in sickle
cell hemoglobin causes which of the following?
A.
Increased electrophoretic mobility at pH 7.0
B.
Increased solubility of deoxyhemoglobin
C.
Decreased polymerization of deoxyhemoglobin
D.
Unchanged primary structure
Ans.
Ref.
MPL

A
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 476
0.75

56. An increased affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen may result from which of the
following?
A.
Initial binding of oxygen to one of the four sites available in each
deoxyhemoglobin molecule
B.
High pH
C.
High carbon dioxide levels
D.
High 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate levels within erthrocytes
Ans.
Ref.
MPL

A
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 436
0.75

57. The functions of many enzymes, membrane transporters, and other proteins can
be quickly activated or deactivated by phosphorylation of specific amino acid
residues catalyzed by enzymes called:
A.
Cyclases
B.
Kinases
C.
Phosphatases
D.
Proteases
Ans
Ref.
MPL

B
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 64-65
0.75

11

58. The chemotherapeutic drug fluoracil undergoes a series of chemical changes in

vivo that results in a complex such that it is bound to both thymidylate synthase
and methylene-tetrahydrofolate. The inhibition of deoxythymidylate formation
and subsequent blockage of cell division is due to:
A.
Allosteric inhibition
B.
Competitive inhibition
C.
Irreversible inhibition
D.
Non-covalent inhibition
Ans
Ref.
MPL

C
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 86-88
0.75

59. The Vmax of the enzyme is the:

A.
Reciprocal of the absolute value of the intercept of the curve with the xaxis
B.
Reciprocal of the absolute value of the intercept of the curve with the yaxis
C.
Absolute value of the intercept of the curve with the x-axis
D.
Slope of the curve
Ans
Ref.
MPL

B
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 75-90
0.75

60. In the study of enzymes, the sigmoidal plot of substrate concentration versus
reaction velocity may indicate:
A.
Michaelis-Menten Kinetics
B.
Myoglobin binding oxygen
C.
Cooperative binding
D.
Competitive inhibition
Ans
Ref.
MPL

C
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 75, 90
1.0

61. A non competitive inhibitor of an enzyme:

A.
Increases Km with no or little change in Vmax
B.
Decreases Km and decreases Vmax
C.
Decreases Vmax
D.
Increases Vmax
Ans
Ref.
MPL

C
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 86-88
0.75

62. Which of the following statements correctly describes allosteric enzymes?

A.
Effectors may enhance or inhibit substrate binding
B.
They are not usually controlled by feedback inhibition
C.
The regulatory site may be catalytic site
D.
Michaelis-Menten kinetics describe their activity
Ans
Ref.
MPL

A
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 104-105
0.75

12

63. Which of the following enzymes is regulated primarily through allosteric

interaction?
A.
Chymotrypsin
B.
Pyruvate dehydrogenase
C.
Glycogen phosphorylase
D.
Aspartate transcarbamoylase
Ans
Ref.
MPL

D
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 104-105
0.75

64. A comatose laboratory technician is rushed into the emergency room. She dies
while you are examining her. Her most dramatic symptom is that her body is
literally hot to your touch, indicating an extremely high fever. You learn that her
lab has been working on metabolic inhibitors and that there is a high likelihood
that she accidentally ingested one. Which one of the following is the MOST likely
culprit?
A.
Barbiturates
B.
Piericidin A
C.
Dimercaprol
D.
Dinitrophenol
Ans
Ref.
MPL

D
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 128
0.25

65. Which of the following statements about flavoproteins is TRUE?

A.
They are not oxidized by coenzymeQ
B.
They receive electrons from cytochrome P450 in liver mitochondria
C.
They do not participate in oxidation of NADH dehydrogenises
D.
They can be associated with sulfur and nonheme iron
Ans
Ref.
MPL

D
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 117-118
0.75

66. As electrons are received and passed down the transport chain, the various
carriers are first reduced with acceptance of the electron and then oxidized with
loss of the electron. A patient poisoned by which of the following compounds has
the MOST highly reduced state of the respiratory chain carriers?
A.
Antimycin A
B.
Rotenone
C.
Carbon Monoxide
D.
Puromycin
Ans
Ref.
MPL

C
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 128
0.25

67. Which of the following compounds is a member of the electron transport chain?
A.
Octanoyl carnitine
B.
Cytochrome c
C.
NADH
D.
Palmitoyl carnitine
Ans
Ref.
MPL

C
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 128
0.75

13

68. All known effects of cyclic AMP in eukaryotic cells result from:
A.
Activation of the catalytic unit of adenylate cyclase
B.
Activation of synthetases
C.
Activation of protein kinase
D.
Stimulation of calcium release from the endoplasmic reticulum
Ans
Ref.
MPL

C
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 165
0.75

69. The connection between oxidative phosphorylation and electron transport is

BEST described by:
A.
Existence of higher pH in the cisternae of the endoplasmic reticulum than
in the cytosol.
B.
Synthesis of ATP as protons into the mitochondrial matrix along a proton
gradient that exist across the inner mitochondrial membrane
C.
Dissociation of electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation
D.
Absence of ATPase in the inner mitochondrial membrane
Ans
Ref.
MPL

B
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 127
0.75

70. If all potential sources of ATP production are taken into account, the net number
of ATP molecules formed per molecule of glucose in aerobic glycolysis is:
A.
2
B.
6
C.
18
D.
36
Ans
Ref.
MPL

B
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 176-184
0.75

71. Which of the following reactions generates ATP/

A.
Glucose 6-phosphate to Fructose 6-phosphate
B.
Glucose to Glucose 6-Phosphate
C.
Fructose 6-phosphate to Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate
D.
Phosphoenolpyruvate
Ans
Ref.
MPL

D
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 176-184
0.75

72. which of the following products of triacylglycerol breakdown and subsequent oxidation may undergo gluconeogenesis?
A.
Propionyl CoA
B.
Acetyl CoA
C.
All ketone bodies
D.
Some amino acids
Ans
Ref.
MPL

A
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 284
0.75

73. Which of the following regulates lipolysis in adipocytes?

A.
Activation of fatty acid synthesis mediated by cAMP
B.
Activation of triglyceride lipase as a result of hormone-stimulated
increases in cAMP production by insulin
C.
Glyerol phosphorylation to prevent futile esterification of fatty acids
D.
Activation of cAMP production by insulin

14

Ans
Ref.
MPL

D
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 267
0.75

74. Inhibition of ATP synthesis during oxidative phosphorylation by oligomycin is

thought to be due to:
A.
Blocking of the proton gradient between NADH-Q reductase & QH2
B.
Blocking of the proton gradient between cytochrome C1 and cytochrome
C
C.
Dissociation of cytochrome c from mitochondrial membranes
D.
Inhibition of mitochondrial ATPase
Ans
Ref.
MPL

D
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 701
0.75

75. The reactions of the urea cycle occur:

A.
In the cytosol
B.
In the mitochondrial matrix
C.
In the mitochondrial matrix & the cytosol
D.
Only in lysosomes
Ans
Ref.
MPL

C
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 301-380
0.75

76. A newborn becomes progressively lethargic after feeding and increases his
respiratory rate. He becomes virtually comatose, responding only to painful
stimuli, and exhibits mild respiratory alkalosis. Suspicion of urea cycle disorder is
aroused and evaluation of serum amino acids levels is initiated. In the presence
of hyperammonemia, production of which of the following amino acids is always
increased?
A.
Glycine
B.
Arginine
C.
Proline
D.
Glutamine
Ans
Ref.
MPL

D
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 267
0.75

77. The thyroid hormone thyroxine (T4) is derived from:

A.
Threonine
B.
Tyrosine
C.
Thiamine
D.
Tryptophan
Ans
Ref.
MPL

B
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 534-536
0.75

78. Which of the metabolites below is a precursor of tyrosine?

A.
L-dihydroxyphenylalanine (DOPA)
B.
Dopamine
C.
Norepinephrine
D.
Phenylalanine
Ans
Ref.
MPL

D
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 296-297
0.75

15

79. Which clinical laboratory observation is suggestive of Hartnups disease?

A.
High fecal levels of tryptophan and indole derivatives
B.
Elevated plasma tyrosine and methionine levels
C.
Elevation of glutamine in blood and urine
D.
Extremely high levels of citrulline in urine
Ans
Ref.
MPL

A
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 322-325
0.75

80. The important receive group of glutathione in its role as antioxidant is:
A.
Serine
B.
Sulfhydryl
C.
Tyrosine
D.
Acetyl CoA
Ans
Ref.
MPL

B
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 753
0.75

81. A newborn develops jaundice that requires laboratory evaluation. Which of the
following porphyrin derivatives is conjugated, reacts directly, and is a major
component of bile?
A.
Stercobilin
B.
Biliverdin
C.
Bilirubin
D.
Bilirubin diglucuronide
Ans
Ref.
MPL

D
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 356
0.75

82. Which of the following poryphrins give stools their characteristic brown color?
A.
Biliverdin
B.
Urobilinogen
C.
Heme
D.
Stercobilin
Ans
Ref.
MPL

D
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 354
0.75

83. Chylomicrons, IDL, LDL, and VLDL are all serum lipoproteins. What is the
correct ordering of these particles from the lowest to the highest density?
A.
LDL, IDL, VLDL, Chylomicrons
B.
Chylomicrons, VLDL, IDL, LDL
C.
VLDL, IDL, LDL, Chylomicrons
D.
Chylomicrons, IDL, VLDL, LDL
Ans
Ref.
MPL

B
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 708
0.75

84. Ceramide is a precursor to which of the following compounds?

A.
Phosphatidyl serine
B.
Sphingomyelin
C.
Phosphatidyl glycerol
D.
Phosphatidyl choline
Ans
Ref.
MPL

B
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 250-252
0.75

16

85.

Which of the following steps in cholesterol biosynthesis is thought to be ratelimiting and the locus of metabolic regulation?
A.
Geranyl pyrophosphate to Farnesyl pyrophosphate
B.
Squalene to Lanosterol
C.
Lanosterol to Cholesterol
D.
3-hydroxy-3-metylglutaryl CoA to Mevalonic acid
Ans
Ref.
MPL

B
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 274
0.75

86. Humans MOST easily tolerate a lack of which of the following nutrients?
A.
Protein
B.
Iodine
C.
Carbohydrate
D.
Lipid
Ans
Ref.
MPL

C
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 285-286
0.75

87. A deficiency in Vitamin B12 causes:

A.
Cheilosis
B.
Beriberi
C.
Pernicious anemia
D.
Scurvy
Ans
Ref.
MPL

D
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 612-613
0.75

88. Which of the following vitaminswould MOST likely become deficient in a person
who develops a completely carnivorous lifestyle?
A.
Thiamine
B.
Niacin
C.
Cobalamin
D.
Vitamin C
Ans
Ref.
MPL

D
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 612-613
0.75

89. Fully activated pyruvate carboxylase depends upon the presence of:
A.
Malate and Niacin
B.
Acetyl CoA and Biotin
C.
Acetyl CoA and Thiamine pyrophosphate
D.
Oxaloacetate
Ans
Ref.
MPL

B
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 194
0.75

90. Biotin is involved in which of the following types of reactions?

A.
Hydroxlations
B.
Carboxylations
C.
Decarboxylations
D.
Dehydrations
Ans
Ref.
MPL

B
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 606-607
0.75

17

91. Which of the following conditions would primarily produce a functional deficiency
of Vitamin K?
A.
Coumadin Therapy
B.
Broad Spectrum antibiotic
C.
Premature birth
D.
Lack of red meat in the diet
Ans
Ref.
MPL

A
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 727
0.75

92. A 3 month old boy presents with poor feeding & growth, hypotonia, lactic
acidemia, and mild acidosis. The pyruvate to lactate ratio is high, and there is
decreased conversion of pyruvate to Acetyl CoA. Which of the following may be
considered for therapy?
A.
Thiamine
B.
FFA
C.
Biotin
D.
Vitamin C
Ans
Ref.
MPL

A
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 183
0.25

93. A 2-year old child presents with cough and bronchitis, growth failure, & chronic
diarrhea with light-colored foul smelling stools. A deficiency of which vitamin
should be considered?
A.
Vit B6
B.
Vit C
C.
Vit A
D.
Vit B1
Ans
Ref.
MPL

C
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 614-617
0.25

94. an infant presents with prominent forehead, bowing of the limbs, broad & tender
wrists, swelling at the costochondral junction of the ribs, and irritability. Which of
the following treatments is the most appropriate for this patient?
A.
Removal of eggs from diet
B.
Milk & Sunlight exposure
C.
Diet of baby food containing liver & ground beef
D.
Diet of baby food containing leafy vegetables
Ans
Ref.
MPL

C
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 613
0.25

95. Allopurinol effectively treats gout but has NO effect on the severe neurological
symptoms of Lesch-Nyhan patients because it does not:
A.
Decrease de Novo purine synthesis
B.
Decrease de Novo Pyrimidine syntheis
C.
Inhibit xanthine oxidase
D.
Increase PRPP levels
Ans
Ref.
MPL

A
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 378
0.75

18

96. Which of the following would rule out hyperuricemia in a ptient?

A.
Lesch-Nyhan synthesis
B.
Gout
C.
Carbonage phosphate deficiency
D.
Xanthine oxidase hyperactivity
Ans
Ref.
MPL

C
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 381
0.75

97. Which of the following contributes nitrogen atom to both purine & pyrimidine
rings?
A.
Aspartate
B.
Carbonage PO4
C.
CO2
98. What is the end product of fatty acid synthase activity in human?
A.
Palmitic acid
B.
Palmetoleic acid
C.
Linoleic
D.
Arachidonic acid
Ans
Ref.
MPL

A
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 216-223
0.75

99. For every 2 moles of free glycerol released by lipolysis of triglycerides in adipose
tissue?
A.
1 mole of glucose can be synthesized via gluconeogenesis
B.
2 moles of triacrylglyceride is released
C.
2 moles of FFA is released
D.
3 moles of Acyl CoA is produced
Ans
Ref.
MPL

A
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 267
0.75

100.
A 45 year old man ha s a mild heart attack and is placed on diet and
Mevastatin therapy. Which of the following will result in this therapy?
A.
Low blood glucose level
B.
Low blood LDLs
C.
High blood cholesterol
D.
Low oxidation of Fa
Ans
Ref.
MPL

B
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 281
0.75

19

20