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Free Physics Solved Practice test For

AFMC pune Entrance test


Free Physics Solved Practice test For AFMC pune Entrance test
AFMC MBBS Entrance Exam MCQ Test Preparation Practice
AFMC Sample solved question paper physics
AFMC MBBS 2011 Entrance Examination Pratice test
1. A simple pendulum of length l has a maximum angular displacement . The maximum kinetic energy
of the bob is:
(a) mgl (1 -cos )
(b) 0.5 mgl
(c) mgl
(d) 2mgl
Ans. (a)
2. Radius of orbit of satellite of earth is R. Its kinetic energy is proportional to:
(a) 1/R
(b) 1/R
(c) R
(d) 1/R

3/2

Ans. (a)
3. The radius R of the soap bubble is doubled under isothermal condition. If T be the surface tension of
soap bubble, the work done in doing so is given by:
2

(a) 32R T
2

(b) 24R T
(c) 8R2

(d) 47R T
Ans. (a)
4. A body of specific heat 0.2 kcal/kgC is heated through 100C. The percentage increase in its mass is
(a) 9%
-11

(b) 9.310 %
(c) 10%
(d) None of these

Ans. (b)
5 Two similar coils are kept mutually perpendicular such that their centres coincide. At the centre, find the
ratio of the magnetic field due to one coil and the resultant magnetic field through both coils, if the same
current is flown:
(a) 1:2
(b) 1:2
(c) 1:2
(d)3:1
Ans. (a)
6. A prism of refractive index 2 have a refracting angle of 60. At what angle a ray must be incident on it
so that it suffers a minimum deviation?
(a) 45
(b) 60
(c) 90
(d) 180
Ans. (a)
7. A cone filled with water is revolved in a vertical circle of radius 4 m and the water does not fall down.
What must be the maximum period of revolution?
(a) 2 s
(b) 4s
(c) 1 s
(d) 6s
Ans. (b)
8. A conducting sphere of radius R = 20 cm is given a charge Q =16C. What is at its centre?
6

(a) 3.6 x l0 N/C


6

(b) 1.8 x 10 N/C


(c) Zero
6

(d) 0.9 x 10 N/C


Ans. (c)
9. Four identical rods are stretched by same force. Maximum extension is produced in:
(a) 1 = 10 cm, D =1mm
(b) l =l00cm, D=2mm
(c) l =200cm, D=3mm

(d)1 = 300 cm, D =4 mm


Ans. (b)
2

10. The maximum range of a gun on horizontal terrain is 16 km if g = 10 m/s . What must be the muzzle
velocity of the shell?
(a) 200 m/s
(b) 100 m/s
(c) 400 m/s
(d) 300 m/s
Ans. (c)
11. The length, breadth and thickness of a block are given by 1=12cm, b=6 cm and t =2.45cm. The
volume of the block according to the idea of significant figures should be:
2

(a) 110 cm
(b) 210 cm

(c) 1.76310 cm

(d) None of the above


Ans. (b)
12. Five particles of mass 2 kg are attached to the rim of a circular disc of radius 0.1 m and negligible
mass. Moment of inertia of the system about the axis passing through the centre of the disc and
perpendicular to its plane is:
(a) 1 kgm

(b) 0.l kgm


(c) 2 kgm

(d) 0.2 kgm

Ans. (b)
13. The radius of the convex surface of Plano convex lens is 20 cm and the refractive index of the
material of the lens is 1.5. The focal length is:
(a) 30 cm
(b) 50 cm
(c) 20 cm
(d) 40 cm
Ans. (d)
3

14. An ice-cube of density 900 kg/m is floating in water of density 1000 kg/m . The percentage of volume
of ice-cube outside the water is:
(a) 20%

(b) 35%
(c) 10%
(d) 25%
Ans. (c)
15. A spherical shell of diameter 0.2 m and mass 2kg is rolling on an inclined plane with velocity v = 0.5
m/s. The kinetic energy of the sphere is:
(a) 0.1J
(b) 0.3J
(c) 0.5J
(d) 0.4J
Ans. (d)
-2

16. An electron moves at right angle to .a magnetic field of 1.5 x 10 T with a speed of 6 x 10 m/s. If the
11
specific charge of the electron is 1.7 x 10 coul/kg, the radius of the circular path will be:
(a) 2.9cm
(b) 3.9cm
(c) 2.35cm
(d) 2cm
Ans. (c)
17. If work function of a metal is 4.2eV, the cut off wavelength is:
(a) 8000
(b) 7000
(c) 1472
(d) 2950
Ans. (d)
18. A particle is executing motion as follows x=a sin (t).
Then the maximum velocity of the particle is:
(a) a cos
(b) a
(c) a sin
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)

19. A particle is executing two different simple harmonic motions, mutually perpendicular of different
amplitudes and having phase difference of. The path of the particle will be:
(a) Circular
(b) Straight line
(c) Parabolic
(d) Elliptical
Ans. (d)
20. Equations of motion in the same direction are given by:
y1 = 2a sin (t kx)
y2 = 2a sin (t -kx -)
The amplitude of the medium particle will be:
(a) 2a cos
(b)2a cos ?
(c) 4acos /2
(d) 2acos/2
Ans. (c)
21. The work function of sodium is 2.3 eV. The threshold wavelength of sodium will be:
(a) 2900
(b) 2500
(c) 5380
(d) 1200
Ans. (c)
22. Two bulbs rated 200 W, 220 V and 100 W, 220 V are connected in series, Combination is connected
to 220 V supply. Power consumed by the circuit is?
(a) 80W
(b) 67W
(c) 7W
(d) 65W
Ans. (b)
23. In a full-wave rectifier, input AC current has a frequency v. The output frequency of current is:
(a) v/2
(b) v

(c) 2v
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
24. In heat engine sink is fitted at temperature 27C and heat of 100 kcal is taken from source at
temperature 677C. Work done in J is:
(a) 0.28
(b) 2.8
(c) 28
(d) 0.028
Ans. (a)
25. A closed organ pipe and an open organ pipe are tuned to the same fundamental frequency. What is
the ratio of their lengths?
(a) 1:2
(b) 2:1
(c) 2:3
(d) 4:3
Ans. (d)

Model paper Biology Zoology AIPMT - All India Pre-Medical /


Pre-Dental Entrance Examination
Model paper Zoology AIPMT All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance Examination
PMT Sample Paper :AIPMT Zoology biology
Free Solved AIPMT Question Paper
1. Secretion of gastric juice is stimulated by:
(a) Pepsin
(b) Gastrin
(c) Renin
(d) Secretin
Ans. (b)
2. Which one is not correct?
(a) HumansUreotelic
(b) BirdsUricotelic
(c) LizardsUricotelic
(d) WhaleAmmonotelic

Ans. (d)
3. Which one shows bio-luminescence?
(a) Noctiluca
(b) Polystomella
(c) Entamoeba
(d) Suctoria
Ans. (a)
4. Mantle, foot and shell are the characteristics of:
(a) Nautilus
(b) Echinus
(c) Limulus
(d) Euplectella
Ans. (a)
5. Protists are:
(i) Unicellular and prokaryote
(ii) Unicellular and eukaryote
(iii) Multicellular and eukaryote
(iv) Autotroph or heterotroph
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (iii), (iv)
(d) (ii),(iv)
Ans. (d)
6. Pepsin is inactivated at pH:
(a) Below 3
(b) Below 2
(c) Above 5
(d) Above 3
Ans. (c)
7. Which one is not produced by aquaculture?
(a) Oyster

(b) Silkworm
(c) Singhara
(d) Frog
Ans. (b)
8. Progesterone is secreted by:
(a) Corpus luteum
(b) Utreus
(c) Placenta
(d) graafian follicle
Ans. (a)
9. Which one affects liver, muscle and adipose tissue?
(a) Androgen
(b) Insulin
(c) Progesterone
(d) Glucagon
Ans. (b)
10. Inner lining of blood vessels is formed by:
(a) Ciliated epithelium
(b) Squamous epithelium
(c) Cuboidal epithelium
(d) Columnar epithelium
Ans. (b)
11. Nucleated RBC is present in:
(a) Man
(b) Rat
(c) Frog
(d) Rabbit
Ans. (c)
12. Pellagra is caused by deficiency of vitamin:
(a) B1
(b) B2

(c) B5
(d) B6
Ans. (c)
13. The main excretory organ of prawn is:
(a) Green gland
(b) Flame cell
(c) Malpighian tubule
(d) Nephridia
Ans. (a)
14. Moulting hormone is secreted by:
(a) Corpora card iacum
(b) Prothoracic gland
(c) Corpora allata
(d) Neurosecretory hormone
Ans. (b)
15. Deoxyribonucleic and ribonucleic are secreted by:
(a) Liver
(b) Stonth
(c) Pancreas
(d) Kidney
Ans. (c)
16. Haemodialysis helps in patient having:
(a) Uremia
(b) Anemia
(c) Diabetes
(d) Goiter
Ans. (a)
17. X-rays are used in:
(a) ECG
(b) EEG
(c) CT-scan

(d) Endoscopy
Ans. (c)
18. Disease caused by deficiency of protein in children is
(a) Obesity
(b) Marasmus
(c) Diabetes
(d) Kwashiorkor
Ans. (d)
19. The thin filaments of a muscle fiber are made up of:
(a) Actin, troponin, tropomyosin
(b) Actin, troponin
(c) Myosin, troponin
(d) Actin, tropomyosin
Ans. (a)
20. The species, which is going to become extinct due to lack of proper care would be called:
(a) Rare
(b) Endangered
(c) Vulnerable
(d) Extinct
Ans. (b)
21. In which part of mitochondria does ATP synthesis occur?
(a) F1
(b) F0
(c) Cristae
(d) Inner membrane of mitochondria
Ans. (a)
22. Abnormal growth of the tumour in cancer is due to:
(a) Abnormal mitotic division
(b) Accumulation of body fluid
(c) Abnormal meiotic division
(d) Metastasis

Ans. (a)
23. Fat, prior to its oxidation associate with:
(a) Cyclic AMP
(b) Co-A
(c) GMP
(d) ATP
Ans. (b)
24. Schwann cell is found around:
(a) Axon
(b) Cyton
(c) Dendrite
(d) Dendron
Ans. (a)
25. Which part of retina consists of only cones?
(a) Fovea centralis
(b) Optic nerve
(c) Blind spot
(d) Orasmata
Ans. (a)

AIPMT question bank


AIPMT question bank
Sample papers of AIPMT BOTANY
AIPMT Model Question Papers Biology botany
Botany AIPMT Question Paper With Solution
1. Double fertilization was discovered by:
(a) Nawaschin
(b) Strasburger
(c) Emerson
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
2. In photosynthesis action and absorption spectrum were related by:

(a) Von Helmont


(b) Engelmann
(c) Emerson
(d) Lavosier
Ans. (b)
3. Which one of the following doesnt help in molecule transport?
(a) Diffusion
(b) Osmosis
(c) Surface tension
(d) Active transport
Ans. (c)
4. Stomatal opening in plants occurs due to influx of:
(a) Na
(b) K
(c) ABA
(d) Auxin
Ans. (b)
5. Energy transfer in photosynthesis occurs as:
(a) phycoerythrin ? phycocyanin?carotenoid ?chlorophyll-a
(b) chlorophyll-b ?carotenoid? phycoetythrin? chlorophyll-a
(c) phycocyanin ? phycoerytn?carotenoid ?chlorophyll-a
(d) chlorophyll-b?carotenoid? phycocyanin?chlorophyll-a
Ans. (a)
6. Litmus is obtained from:
(a) Rocella montagnei
(b) Lasallia postulata
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Cladonicz crispata.
Ans. (c)
7. If a plant having yellow and round seeds was crossed with another plant having green and wrinkled
seeds then F1 progeny are in the ratio:

(a) 15: 1
(b) 1:15
(c) 1: 13
(d) All yellow and round seeds
Ans. (d)
8. Commercial cork is obtained from:
(a) Flax
(b) Juglans regia
(c) Hevea brassiliansis
(d) Quercus suber
Ans. (d)
9. Tea and coffee are affected by:
(a) Phytophthora
(b) Cephaleuros
(c) Herviella
(d) Albugo Candida
Ans. (b)
10. If decomposers are removed what will happen to the ecosystem?
(a) Energy cycle is stopped
(b) Mineral cycle is stopped
(c) Consumers cannot absorb solar energy
(d) Rate of decomposition of mineral increases
Ans. (b)
11. In photosynthesis what occurs in PS-Il?
-

(a) It takes longer wavelength of light and e from H2O


-

(b) It takes shorter wavelength of light and e from H2O


-

(c) It takes longer wavelength of light and e from NADP


-

(d) It takes shorter wavelength of light and e from NADP


Ans. (b)
12. Which are sensitive to SO2 pollution?
(a) Mosses

(b) Algae
(c) Lichen
(d) Ferns
Ans. (c)
13. Though Cycas has two cotyledons, this is not included in dicot because:
(a) Naked ovule
(b) They have megaspore
(c) Appears as palm tree
(d) Has compound leaves
Ans. (a)
14. In meiosis division is:
(a) 1st reductional and lInd equational
(b) 1st equational and lInd reductional
(c) Both reductional
(d) Both educational
Ans. (a)
15. Auxin in plant means for:
(a) Cell elongation
(b) Fruit ripening
(c) Cell division
(d) Inhibit the root growth
Ans. (a)
16. The thylakoid in chloroplast are arranged as:
(a) Interconnected disc
(b) Interconnected sacs
(c) Stacked discs
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
17. The polidy of the pollen grain in Cyperus is:
(a) 4n
(c) 2n

(b) 3n
(d) n
Ans. (d)
18. Which of the following is used as green manure?
(a) Azolla
(b) Azczdirachta indica
(c) Crotolaria juncea
(d) Hevea brassiliarzsis
Ans. (c)
19. The non-photosynthetic, non-symbiotic N2 fixing bacteria are:
(a) Rhodobacter
(b) Spirillum
(c) Azotobacter
(d) All of these
Ans. (c)
20. In monocot roots which types of vascular bundles are found?
(a) Collateral, conjoint and closed
(b) Radial with exarch xylem
(c) Bicollateral, conjoint and closed
(d) Radial with endarch xylem
Ans. (b)
21. The modified stem of Opuntia is:
(a) Phyllode
(b) Phylloclade
(c) Cladode
(d) Stamroinode
Ans. (b)
22. Among plants pheromones are secreted by the cells of the following plants for given function:
(a) All plants for growth an development
(b) Yeast for facilitating mating
(c) All fungi for sexual reproduction

(d) Rhizopus for formation of zygospore


Ans. (b)
23. The gases that produce green house effect are:
(a) CH4, CFCs, CO2
(b) CO2, N2O, H2
(c) CFCs, NO2, O2
(d) CO2, N2 water vapour
Ans. (a)
24. Whats the difference between RNA and DNA?
(a) Base
(b) Sugar
(c) Sugar and base
(d) Phosphate
Ans. (c)
25. Increase in toxic concentration from one trophic level to another trophic level is called:
(a) Ecological toxification
(b) bio-magnification
(c) bioindicator
(d) Cytological effect
Ans. (b)

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medical entrance exams India Practice test Biology
Medical Entrance Exam Preparation Botany Zoology
Medical Entrance Exam Question Bank Botany Zoology
Medical Entrance Exams preparation test several medical colleges and universities for selection of
students to the various degree programs in medicine.
1. Heparin is secreted by:
(a) Mast cell
(b) Alveolar cell
(c) Plasma cell
(d) Goblet cell

Ans. (a)
2. Antibody is produced by:
(a) B-lymphocyte
(b) Heparin
(c) T-lymphocyte
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (a)
3. Reflex action involves:
(a) spinal cord
(b) Cerbellum
(c) Medulla oblongata
(d) Optic lobe
Ans. (a)
4. Which one has no intermediate host?
(a) Taenia
(b) Ascaris
(c) Fasciola
(d) Plasmodiuin
Ans. (b)
5. In the wall of alimentary canal, what is the actual sequence from outer to inner?
(a) Serosa, longitudinal muscle, mucosa, sub mucosa
(b) Mucosa, serosa, long muscle
(c) Serosa, long muscle, circular, sub mucosa, mucosa
(d) Serosa, long muscle, sub mucosa, mucosa
Ans. (c)
6. Which one of the following can help in the diagnosis of a genetical disorder?
(a) ELISA
(b) ABO blood group
(c) PCR
(d) NMR
Ans. (c)

7. Bile helps in the digestion of fat through:


(a) Emulsification
(b) Alkalinity
(c) Forming micelles
(d) all of the above
Ans. (d)
8. In frog chromosome number is reduced to half:
(a) When 2nd polar body is separated
(b) When 2nd polar body is divided
(c) When 3rd polar body is separated
(d) When 1st polar body is separated
Ans. (d)
9. Ischihara chart is used to detect:
(a) T.B.
(b) Eyesight
(c) Colorblindness
(d) Diabetes
Ans. (b)
10. In diastole, heart is filled by;
(a) Mixed blood
(b) Venous blood
(c) Oxygenated blood
(d) Deoxygenated blood
Ans. (c)
11. Periyar sanctuary is located in:
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Assam
Ans. (b)
12. Which of the following is not an insect?

(a) Locust
(b) Lepisma
(c) Termites
(d) Spider
Ans. (d)
13. Which of the following represents the dental formula of man?
(a) 0033/3133
(b) 2033/1023
(c) 2123/2123
(d) 1003/1003
Ans. (c)
14. The children of haemophilic man and a normal woman are:
(a) All haemophilic
(b) Only daughters are haemophilic
(c) Only sons are haemophilic
(d) Neither sons nor daughters are hemophilic
Ans. (d)
15. Which cells are found only in sponges?
(a) Amoeboid cells
(b) Choanocytes
(c) Pigment cells
(d) Gland cells
Ans. (b)
16. In which of the following there is syncytial epidermis and longitudinal muscle cells are in four bands?
(a) Nematodes
(b) Platy helminthes
(c) Annelids
(d) Echinoderms
Ans. (a)
17. A person having 45 chromosomes and Y-chromosome absent is suffering from:
(a) Downs syndrome

(b) Klinefelters syndrome


(c) Turners syndrome
(d) Gynandromorph
Ans. (c)
18. Albinism is caused by deficiency of:
(a) Amylase
(b) Tyrosinase
(c) Phenyl alanine
(d) Xanthenes oxidize
Ans. (b)
19. Which brain structure in rabbit is directly related to vision?
(a) Corpus albicans
(b) Hippocampal lobe
(c) Corpus callosum
(d) Corpora quadrigemina
Ans. (d)
20. Which one is not found in testis of frog?
(a) Sertoli cell
(b) Seminiferous tubule
(c) Germinal cell
(d) Interstitial cell
Ans. (a)
21. Mammalian egg has:
(a) No yolk at all
(b) Small amount of yolk
(c) Large amount of yolk
(d) Yolk concentrated at one pole
Ans. (b)
22. Nails, hoofs and horns are examples of;
(a) Bone
(b) Cartilage

(c) Connective tissue


(d) Epidermal derivatives
Ans. (d)
23. In procoelous vertebrae:
(a) Anterior centrum is convex
(b) Anterior centrum is concave
(c) Anterior centrum is saddle shaped
(d) Posterior centrum is concave
Ans. (b)
24. The Coenozoic era is often designated as:
(a) Age of fish
(b) Age of reptiles
(c) Age of mammals
(d) Age of amphibians
Ans. (c)
25. Bidders canal is found in:
(a) Testes of frog
(b) Kidney of frog
(c) Kidney of mammal
(d) Ovary of mammal
Ans. (b)
26. Potometer is used to measure:
(a) Ascent of sap
(b) Root pressure
(c) Transpiration
(d) Photosynthesis
Ans. (c)
27. Which one is antioxidant vitamin?
(a) Vitamin-D
(b) Vitamin-E
(c) Vitamin-B

(d) Vitamin-K
Ans. (b)
28. The net gain ATP from complete oxidation of 1 molecule of glucose in eukaryote is:
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 24
(d) 36
Ans. (d)
29. Which of the following workers are related as ecologist, palaeobotanist and embryologist
respectively?
(a) B. Sahni, R. Mishra, P. Maheshwari
(b) R. Mishra, B. Sahni, P. Maheshwari
(c) B. Sahni, P. Maheshwari, R. Mishra
(d) P. Maheshwari, R. Mishra, B. Sahni
Ans. (b)
30. In bacteria respiration occurs in:
(a) Cytoplasmic membrane
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Nuclear membrane
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum
Ans. (a)
31. R.Q. is always less than one in:
(a) Wheat
(b) Millets
(c) Bean
(d) Castor
Ans. (d)
32. Pencils are prepared from the wood of:
(a) Pinus vinaster
(b) Juniperus virginiana
(c) Chamaecyparis piscifera

(d) Abies pindrow


Ans. (b)
33. Ageing is retarted by:
(a) ABA
(b) CKN
(c) GA
(d) C2H4
Ans. (b)
34. The form of pigment which inhibits germination is:
(a) P760
(c) P730
(b) P650
(d) All of these
Ans. (c)
35. In Hatch and Slack pathway:
(a) Chloroplast are of same type
(b) occurs Kranz anatomy where mesophyll has small chloroplast whereas bundle sheaths have granal
chloroplast
(c) occurs in Kranz anatomy when mesophyll has small chloroplast whereas bundle sheath has larger,
agranal chloroplast
(d) Kranz anatomy where mesophyll cell are diffused
Ans. (c)
36. The Triticale is an intergeneric hybrid between:
(a) Wheat and maize
(b) Maize and rye wheat and rye
(d) Bajra and wheat
Ans. (c)
37. The dormancy of seed is regulated by:
(a) ABA
(b) Ethylene
(c) GA-3
(d) Dihydrozeatin

Ans. (a)
38. Colchicine prevents the mitosis of the cells at which of the following stage?
(a) Anaphase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Prophase
(d) Interphase
Ans. (b)
39. For the formation of tetrasporic embryosac, how many megaspore mother cells are required?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans. (a)
40. DNA replication generally proceeds in a:
(a) 5 ? 3 direction
(b) 3? 5 direction
(c) 3? 3 direction
(d) 5 ?5 direction
Ans. (a)
41. Pairing of homologous chromosome occurs at which stage?
(a) Zygotene
(b) Leptotene
(c) Metaphase
(d) Pachytene
Ans. (a)
42. Interfascicular cambium is found:
(a) Between pith and vascular bundle
(b) Between two vascular bundles
(c) In the vascular bundle
(d) Outside the bundle
Ans. (b)

43. The number of essential nutrients needed in plants is:


(a) 16
(c) 4
(b) 5
(d) 8
Ans. (a)
44. To form one molecule of glyceraldehydes phosphate in Calvin cycle:
(a) 9 ATP and 36 NADPH are required
(b) 6 ATP and 6 NADPH are required
(c) 3 ATP and 3 NADPH are required
(d) 9 ATP and 6 NADPH are required
Ans. (d)
45. Water available to plants is:
(a) Run off water
(b) Gravitational water
(c) Hygroscopic water
(d) Capillary water
Ans. (d)
46. Primary precursor of IAA is:
(a) Phenylalanine
(b) Tyrosine
(c) Tryptophan
(d) Lucine
Ans. (c)
47. Algae used in space programme is:
(a) Diatom
(b) Dinoflagellates
(c) Chiamydomonas
(d) Chlorella
Ans. (d)
48. Winged pollen grains are found in:

(a) Cycas
(b) Pinus
(c) Pteris
(d) Selaginella
Ans. (b)
49. Reindeer moss is:
(a) Ckidonia sp.
(b) Cetraria sp.
(c) Usnea sp.
(d) Parmelia sp.
Ans. (a)
50. The given formula belongs to:

(a) Solanaceae
(b) Malvaceae
(c) Graminae
(d) Compositae
Ans. (b)

Model Sample guess Questions AIPVT


- All India Pre Veterinary Test Medical
Entrance Exam
Model Sample guess Questions AIPVT All India Pre Veterinary Test Medical Entrance Exam
All India Pre Veterinary Test AIPVT Model Question Paper
Latest AIPVT Zoology Sample Questions Paper
(Download) Model Practice Paper For AIPVT
1. Which of the following is not vestigial in man?
(a) Tail vertebrae
(b) Nails

(c) Nictitating membrane


(d) Vermiform appendix
Ans. (b)
2. The chemical used in National Malaria Eradication Programme is
(a) 2, 4-D
(b) BHC
(c) DDT
(d) Parathyroid
Ans. (c)
3. A eukaryotic gene contains two kinds of base sequences. Which of these plays an important role in
protein synthesis?
(a) Introns
(b) Exons
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
4. The number of hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine in a DNA molecule is:
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Eight
Ans. (a)
5. The enzyme, which combines with non-protein part to form a functional enzyme known a:
(a) co-enzyme
(b) Holoenzyme
(c) Apoenzyme
(d) Prosthetic group
Ans. (b)
6. Which of the following enzyme digest protein in stomach?
(a) Trypsin
(b) Pepsin

(c) Crepsin
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
7. Passive food ingestion in Amoeba is known as:
(a) Import
(b) Invagination
(c) Circumfluence
(d) Circumvallation
Ans. (a)
8. The slime moulds are characterized by the presence of:
(a) Elaters
(b) Pseudoelaters
(c) Capillitium
(d) Capitulum
Ans. (c)
9. Ecdysone is secreted from:
(a) Insecta
(b) Trematoda
(c) Nematoda
(d) Polychaeta
Ans. (a)
10. In the life cycle of mosquito, comma-shaped stage is
(a) Larval stage
(b) Pupal stage
(c) Imago stage
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
11. Haemocoel is found in:
(a) Hydra and Aurelia
(b) Taenia and Ascaris
(c) Cockroach and Pita

(d) Balanoglossus and Herd mania


Ans. (c)
12. The group of anamniota includes:
(a) Reptiles and birds
(b) Birds and mammals
(c) Fishes and amphibians
(d) Reptiles and mammals
Ans. (c)
13. The excretory material of bony fish is:
(a) Urea
(b) Protein
(c) Ammonia
(d) Amino acid
Ans. (c)
14. Different colour of frog skin are controlled by:
(a) Hormones
(b) Melanocytes
(c) Nervous system
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Ans. (a)
15. Blastula of frog has:
(a) Blastopore
(b) Blastocoel
(c) Archenteron
(d) Gastropore
Ans. (b)
16. Carotene pigment is found in the cells of:
(a) Dermis
(b) Epidermis
(c) Adipose cell
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Ans. (d)
17. Deboves membrane is a layer of:
(a) Muscular tissue
(b) Epithelial tissue
(c) Connective tissue
(d) all of the above
Ans. (c)
18. Achilles tendon is associated with:
(a) Gluteus muscle
(b) Hamstring muscle
(c) Quadriceps muscle
(d) Gastrocnemius muscle
Ans. (d)
19. The leucocytes contain which of the following in large quantity?
(a) Basophils
(b) Neutrophils
(c) Eosinophils
(d) Monocytes
Ans. (b)
20. Which part of our body secreted the hormone secretin?
(a) Ileum
(b) Stomach
(c) Duodenum
(d) Oesophagus
Ans. (c)
21. During inspiration, the diaphragm:
(a) Expands
(b) Shows no change
(c) Contracts and flattens
(d) Relaxes to become dome shaped
Ans. (c)

22. The oxygen toxicity is related with:


(a) Blood poisoning
(b) Collapse of alveolar walls
(c) Failure of ventilation of lungs
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (c)
23. Cardiac output is determined by:
(a) Heart rate
(b) Stroke volume
(c) Blood flow
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
24. The important function of lymph is to:
(a) Transport oxygen to the brain
(b) Transport carbon dioxide to the lungs
(c) Return RBCs to the limuloids
(d) Return interstitial fluid to the blood
Ans. (d)
25. The lining of intestine and kidneys in humans is:
(a) Keratinized
(b) Brush border
(c) Ciliated
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)

free chemistry test online for AIPVT


All India Pre Veterinary Test Medical
Entrance Exam All India Pre
Veterinary Test AIPVT Model Question
Paper

free chemistry test online for AIPVT All India Pre Veterinary Test Medical Entrance Exam All India Pre
Veterinary Test AIPVT Model Question Paper
AIPVT Sample Question Papers, All India Pre Veterinary Test
Free Chemistry Online Practice Test
1. Graphite is soft while diamond is hard because:
(a) Graphite is in powder form
2

(b) Diamond has sp hybridization but graphite has sp hybridization


(c) Graphite is in planar form while diamond is in tetrahedral form
(d) Graphite is covalent and diamond is ionic
Ans. (c)
-10

2. The pH of a 10

M NaOH solution is:

(a) 10
(b) 7.01
(c) 6.99
(d) 4
Ans. (b)
3. Na2S2O3 + I2 ? Product is:
(a) Na2S
(b) Na2SO4
(c) Na2S4O6
(d) S2
Ans. (c)
54. Phenol and benzoic acid are distinguished by:
(a) NaOH
(b) NaHCO3
(c) Na
(d) H2SO4
Ans. (b)
5. H2Ois liquid while H2S is a gas due to:
(a) Covalent bonding
(b) Molecular attraction
(c) H-bonding
(d) Both H-bonding aid molecular attractions

Ans. (c)
6. Phenol reacts with chloroform in presence of:
(a) H2SO4
(b) KOH
(c) NaNO2 / HC1
(d) G.R.
Ans. (b)
7. Frenkel and Schottky defects are:
(a) Nucleus defects
(b) Non-crystal defects
(c) Crystal defects
(d) Nuclear defects
Ans. (c)
8. Which has minimum solubility?
(a) Bi2S3
(b) CoS
(c) PbS
(d) All have equal solubility
Ans. (b)
9. Ratio of molecular weights of A and B is 4/25 then ratio of rates of diffusion will be
(a) 5:1
(b) 5:2
(c) 25:3
(d) 25:4
Ans. (b)
10. H-bond is strongest in:
(a) C2H5OH
(b) HF
(c) H2O
(d) CH3COCH3
Ans. (b)

11. Strongest nucleophile is:


(a) RNH2
(b) ROH
(c)C6H5O
(d) CH3O

Ans. (d)
2

12. a/V given in van der Waals equation is for:


(a) Internal pressure
(b) Inter molecular attraction
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Temperature correction
Ans. (b)
13. The hardest substance is:
(a) Iron
(c) Diamond
(b) Steel
(d) Graphite
Ans. (c)
14. Which of the following is wrong statement?
(a) Ni (CO) 4 has oxidation number +4 for Ni
(b) Ni (CO) 4 has zero oxidation number for Ni
(c) Ni is metal
(d) CO is gas
Ans. (b)
2-

15. In [NiCl4] , the number of unpaired electrons is:


(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5
Ans. (b)
16. Which carbocation is most stable?

(a) CH3CH

(b) CH3

(c) C6H5CH2

(d) CH3CH2CH2
Ans. (c)

17. The internal energy of a substance:


(a) Decrease with increase in temperature
(b) Increase with increase in temperature
(c) Remains unaffected with change in temperature
(d) Calculated by E = mc

Ans. (b)
18. The rate constant of a reaction depends on:
(a) The temperature of a reaction
(b) The time of a reaction
(c) The extent of a reaction
(d) The initial concentration of the reactant
Ans. (a)
19. The half-life of a radioactive element is 40 days. Calculate the average life:
(a) 5.76 days
(b) 57.6 days
(c) 646 days
(d) 4.56 days
Ans. (b)
21. Number of orbital in L energy level:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans. (d)
22. How much chlorine will be liberated on passing one ampere current for 30 in through NaC1 solution?
(a) 0.66 mol

(b) 0.33 mol


(c) 0.66 g
(d) 0.33g
Ans. (c)
23. H2C2O4, + KMnO4 in acidic medium reacts to have change in oxidation number of Mn from:
(a) 7to5
(b) 2to7
(c) 5to7
(d) 7to2
Ans. (d)
24. When the temperature of an ideal .gas is increased from 27C to 927C, the kinetic energy will be:
(a) Same
(b) Eight times
(c) Four times
(d) Twice
Ans. (c)
25. Ratio of radii of second and first Bohr orbits of H atom is:
(a) 2:1
(b) 4:1
(d) 5: 1
(c) 3: 1
Ans. (b)

free chemistry test questions


free chemistry test questions
Chemistry Tests & Quiz
General Chemistry for Students
free chemistry multiple choice questions bank
1. Highly pure dilute solution of sodium in liquid ammonia:
(1) Shows blue color
(2) Exhibits electrical conductivity
(3) Produces sodium amide
(4) Produces hydrogen gas.

Ans. (d)
2. Which is used as medicine?
(a) PVC
(b) Terylene
(c) Glyptal
(d) Urotropine
Ans. (d)
3. Butyne-1 and butyne-2 can be distinguished by:
(a) H2SO4
(b) AgNO3 + NH4OH
(c) K2Cr2O7
(d) NH4OH
Ans. (b)
4. The incorrect configuration is:
(a) K= [Ar] 4s

(b) Cr= [ArJ 3d , 4s


4

(c) Cr= [Ar] 3d , 4s


10

(d) Cu= [Ar] 3d , 4s

Ans. (c)
5. Which of the following compound gives iodoform test?
(a) CH3CN
(b) CH3OH
(c) CH3COCH3
(d) C6H5OH
Ans. (c)
6. Dual nature of particle was given by:
(a) Bohr theory
(b) Thomson model.
(c) Heisenberg principle
(d) de-Broglie equation
Ans. (d)

7. NaOH (aq), HC1 (aq), and NaCl (aq) concentration of each is 10 M. Their pH will
be respectively:
(a) 10, 6, 2
(b) 11, 3, 7
(c) 10, 3, 7
(d) 10, 4, 7
Ans. (b)
8. Most acidic is:
(a) CH3COOH
(b) C6H5COOH
(c) HCOOH
(d) CH3CH2COOH
Ans. (b)
9. Substance having ester linkage is:
(a) Bakelite
(b) Polythene
(c) PVC
(d) Terylene
Ans. (d)
10. Carborundum is:
(a) Al2O3
(b) AlCl3
(c) CuCO3
(d) SiC
Ans. (b)
11. Cryolite in aluminium extraction helps in:
(a) Lowering the melting point
(b) Increasing the melting point
(c) Decreasing the electrical conductivity
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

12. The values of standard oxidation potentials of following reactions are given below:
2+

(i) ZnZn +2e ; E= 0.762V


2+

2+

(ii) Fe Fe + 2e ; E = 0.440 V
(iii) Cu Cu +2e ; E= -0.345V
2+

(iv)AgAg +e ; E= -0.800V
Which of the following is most easily reduced?
(a) Fe
(b) Ag
(c) Zn
(d) Cu
Ans. (b)
13. A2 (g) +B2 (g)2AB (g); H= +ve, It:
(a) Increase by pressure
(b) It occurs at 1000 atm pressure
(c) It occurs at high temperature
(d) It occurs at high pressure and temperature
Ans. (c)
14. The metal present in vitamin B12 is:
(a) Cobalt
(b) Iron
(c) Manganese
(d) Magnesium
Ans. (a)
228

15. The number of and particles emitted in the nuclear reaction 90 Th


(a) 4 and 1
(b) 3 and 7
(c) 8 and 1
(d) 4 and 7
Ans. (a)
16. Isoelectronic species are:
3-

(a) N , O

2-

2+

(b) Na Ca
2-

(c) O , C

2-

212

? 83Bi

are:

(d) K , Na
Ans. (a)

17. Correct order of polarising power is:


+

2+

3+

(a) Cs < K <Mg <Al


+

2+

3+

(b) K <Cs <Mg <Al


+

3+

(c) Cs < K <A1


+

2+

<Mg

3+

2+

(d) K <Cs <Al <Mg


Ans. (a)

18. CH3COOH is formed by hydrolysis of:


(a) CH3NH2
(b) CH3CN
(c) CH3CH2CN
(d) CH3CH2NH2
Ans. (b)
19. In Perkin reaction what is formed?
(a) Picric acid
(b) Cinnamic acid
(c) Butanoic acid
(d) Benzoic acid
Ans. (b)
20. The change in the optical rotation of freshly prepared solution of sugar is known as:
(a) Inversion
(b) Specific rotation
(c) Rotatory motion
(d) Mutarotation
Ans. (d)
21. Lowering in vapour pressure is the highest for:
(a) 0.1 M glucose
(b) 0.1 M BaCl2
(c) 0.2 M urea
(d) 0.1 M MgSO4

Ans. (b)
22. Ethyl bromide and n-propyl bromide is allowed to react with sodium in ether, they produce:
(a) Single alkane
(b) Mixture of two alkane
(c) Mixture of three alkane
(d) Mixture of four alkane
Ans. (c)
23. The largest number of molecules is in:
(a) 28 g of CO2
(b) 54 g of N2O5
(c) 34 g of H2O
(d) 46 g of CH3OH
Ans. (c)
24. Hydrolysis of sucrose is known as:
(a) Inversion
(b) Saponification
(c) Hydration
(d) Esterification
Ans. (a)
25. Isopropyl alcohol on oxidation produce:
(a) Ether
(b) Acetaldehyde
(c) Acetone
(d) Ethylene
Ans. (c)

free chemistry test questions


free chemistry test questions
Chemistry Tests & Quiz
General Chemistry for Students
free chemistry multiple choice questions bank
1. Highly pure dilute solution of sodium in liquid ammonia:
(1) Shows blue color

(2) Exhibits electrical conductivity


(3) Produces sodium amide
(4) Produces hydrogen gas.
Ans. (d)
2. Which is used as medicine?
(a) PVC
(b) Terylene
(c) Glyptal
(d) Urotropine
Ans. (d)
3. Butyne-1 and butyne-2 can be distinguished by:
(a) H2SO4
(b) AgNO3 + NH4OH
(c) K2Cr2O7
(d) NH4OH
Ans. (b)
4. The incorrect configuration is:
(a) K= [Ar] 4s

(b) Cr= [ArJ 3d , 4s


4

(c) Cr= [Ar] 3d , 4s


10

(d) Cu= [Ar] 3d , 4s

Ans. (c)
5. Which of the following compound gives iodoform test?
(a) CH3CN
(b) CH3OH
(c) CH3COCH3
(d) C6H5OH
Ans. (c)
6. Dual nature of particle was given by:
(a) Bohr theory
(b) Thomson model.

(c) Heisenberg principle


(d) de-Broglie equation
Ans. (d)
7. NaOH (aq), HC1 (aq), and NaCl (aq) concentration of each is 10 M. Their pH will
be respectively:
(a) 10, 6, 2
(b) 11, 3, 7
(c) 10, 3, 7
(d) 10, 4, 7
Ans. (b)
8. Most acidic is:
(a) CH3COOH
(b) C6H5COOH
(c) HCOOH
(d) CH3CH2COOH
Ans. (b)
9. Substance having ester linkage is:
(a) Bakelite
(b) Polythene
(c) PVC
(d) Terylene
Ans. (d)
10. Carborundum is:
(a) Al2O3
(b) AlCl3
(c) CuCO3
(d) SiC
Ans. (b)
11. Cryolite in aluminium extraction helps in:
(a) Lowering the melting point
(b) Increasing the melting point

(c) Decreasing the electrical conductivity


(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
12. The values of standard oxidation potentials of following reactions are given below:
2+

(i) ZnZn +2e ; E= 0.762V


2+

2+

(ii) Fe Fe + 2e ; E = 0.440 V
(iii) Cu Cu +2e ; E= -0.345V
2+

(iv)AgAg +e ; E= -0.800V
Which of the following is most easily reduced?
(a) Fe
(b) Ag
(c) Zn
(d) Cu
Ans. (b)
13. A2 (g) +B2 (g)2AB (g); H= +ve, It:
(a) Increase by pressure
(b) It occurs at 1000 atm pressure
(c) It occurs at high temperature
(d) It occurs at high pressure and temperature
Ans. (c)
14. The metal present in vitamin B12 is:
(a) Cobalt
(b) Iron
(c) Manganese
(d) Magnesium
Ans. (a)
15. The number of and particles emitted in the nuclear reaction
(a) 4 and 1
(b) 3 and 7
(c) 8 and 1
(d) 4 and 7
Ans. (a)
16. Isoelectronic species are:

228
212
? 83Bi
90 Th

are:

3-

(a) N , O

2-

2+

(b) Na Ca
2-

2-

(c) O , C

(d) K , Na
Ans. (a)

17. Correct order of polarising power is:


+

2+

3+

(a) Cs < K <Mg <Al


+

2+

3+

(b) K <Cs <Mg <Al


+

3+

(c) Cs < K <A1


+

2+

<Mg

3+

2+

(d) K <Cs <Al <Mg


Ans. (a)

18. CH3COOH is formed by hydrolysis of:


(a) CH3NH2
(b) CH3CN
(c) CH3CH2CN
(d) CH3CH2NH2
Ans. (b)
19. In Perkin reaction what is formed?
(a) Picric acid
(b) Cinnamic acid
(c) Butanoic acid
(d) Benzoic acid
Ans. (b)
20. The change in the optical rotation of freshly prepared solution of sugar is known as:
(a) Inversion
(b) Specific rotation
(c) Rotatory motion
(d) Mutarotation
Ans. (d)
21. Lowering in vapour pressure is the highest for:
(a) 0.1 M glucose

(b) 0.1 M BaCl2


(c) 0.2 M urea
(d) 0.1 M MgSO4
Ans. (b)
22. Ethyl bromide and n-propyl bromide is allowed to react with sodium in ether, they produce:
(a) Single alkane
(b) Mixture of two alkane
(c) Mixture of three alkane
(d) Mixture of four alkane
Ans. (c)
23. The largest number of molecules is in:
(a) 28 g of CO2
(b) 54 g of N2O5
(c) 34 g of H2O
(d) 46 g of CH3OH
Ans. (c)
24. Hydrolysis of sucrose is known as:
(a) Inversion
(b) Saponification
(c) Hydration
(d) Esterification
Ans. (a)
25. Isopropyl alcohol on oxidation produce:
(a) Ether
(b) Acetaldehyde
(c) Acetone
(d) Ethylene
Ans. (c)

Reasoning Model Online paper For


United India AAO EXAM

Reasoning Model Online paper For United India AAO EXAM


Insurance AAO AO Reasoning model paper
Verbal Reasoning Sample Questions For Assistant Administrative Officer Exam in Insurance Companies
Reasoning Ability United India Insurance A.A.O. Exam MODEL QUESTION PAPER
1. If BLACK is coded as eight, DROWN coded as impost, the code for CLERK would be
(A) Pulse
(B) Unmet
(C) Queens
(D) Fops
Ans. (D)
2. If CLAIM is coded as bdfgh and TREND coded as jkmps, the code for LAMENT would be
(A) dfhmpj
(B) djhbqf
(C) mdhkjp
(D) hspgcd
Ans. (A)
3. If RATION is coded a OPJUBS, the code answer would be
(A) SFXTOB
(B) BORXDS
(C) SGXUOD
(D) CJURNT
Ans. (A)
4. If THRICE is coded as UJUMHK; the code for EQUALS would be
(A) FRVBMT
(B) FPVZMU
(C) FSXEQY
(D) FRWDPX
Ans. (C)
5. If NUMBER is coded on OTNAFQ, the code for STUDENT would be
(A) TJWCDMV
(B) TVUEFOV
(C) RUVEFMS
(D) TSVCFMU
Ans. (D)
Directions(Q. 6 to 9 ) in the following questions four groups of words have been given out of which
three are alike certain way fourth one is different. Find the odd man out.
6. (A) QNPO
(B) YVXW
(C) LHKJ
(D) URTS
Ans. (C)
7. (A) CEAF
(B) HJFL
(C) RTPV
(D) LMJO
Ans. (A)
8. (A) YBCX
(B) OLMN
C) UTGT
(D) SJKR
Ans. (C)
9. (A) FDBA
(B) LJHG
(C) WUSR

(D) ZXVT
Ans. (D)
Directions(Q. 10 to 14) what will be the next item is the series given below?
10. bac babacc ab ccbabaccb bac
(A) abac
(B) cbba
(C) bbaa
(D) cbaa
Ans. (D)
11. baca b cabba abb acabb ca
(A) abcb
(B) baca
(C) bcca
(D) caca
Ans. (B)
12. ac bcac bc cbbc cbbcac
(A) abba
(B) bcac
(C) bbaa
(D) cbaa
Ans. (C)
13. cbaa bc -. acc aacbcaa cba
(A) babc
(B) cabc
(C) bacc
(D) abcb
Ans. (B)
14. a caabc bba caab abbab
(A) abca
(B) aabc
(C) babc
(D) bacc
Ans. (C)
Directions(Q. 15 to 19) In each of the following questions select right word from the given options that
watches the relationship of the two related words given.
15. Class room is related to Black-board in the same way as Cinema hail is related to
(A) Light
(B) Films
(C) Projector
(D) Screen
Ans. (D)
16. Building is related to Architect in the same way as Dress is related to
(A) Cloth
(B) Embroidery
(C) Designer
(D) Stitching
Ans. (C)
17. Skeleton is related to Body in the same way Grammar is related to which of the
Following?
(A) Sentence
(B) Science
(C) Language
(D) School
Ans. (A)

18. With which of the following is noise related to in the same way as darkness is related to light?
(A) Crowd
(B) Music
(C) Quiet
(D) Melody
Ans. (C)
19. Soldier is related is Army in the same way as Pupil is related to
(A) Education
(B) Teacher
(C) Student
(D) Class
Ans. (D)
Directions(Q. 20 to 245) Three of the following are alike is a certain way. And so form. Group which is
the one that does not belong to that group?
20. (A) Green
(B) Red
(C) Color
(D) Orange
Ans. (C)
21. (A) Stable
(B) Hole
(C) Canoe
(D) Sty
Ans. (C)
22. (A) Nose
(B) Eyes
(C) Skin
(D) Teeth
Ans. (D)
23. (A) Venus
(B) Moon
(C) Pluto
(D) Mars
Ans. (B)
24. (A) Happy
(B) Gloomy
(C) Lively
(D) Cheerful
Ans. (B)
Directions(Q. 25 to 26) Study the information and answer the question given below it At the end of
cricket series, when 5 player were arranged in the ascending order of runs scored by them, O was fourth
while N was first. when they were arranged in descending order for wickets taken by them K replaces
O replaces LMs position remain unchanged. K has scored more runs than M. L is having first rank
in one ranking and fifth in another.
25. Who has scored the highest runs in the series?
(A) K
(B) L
(C) M
(D) Cannot be determined
Ans. (B)
26. Who has taken the lowest number of wickets?
(A)A
(B) L
C) M

(D) None of these


Ans. (B)
Directions(Qs 27 and 28) Study the information and answer the questions given below
Seven executives P, Q, R, S, T, U and W reach office in a particular sequence. U reaches immediately
before P but does not immediately follows SR is the last one to reach office. T follows immediately
after P and is subsequently followed by W.
27. Among the executives, who reaches the office first?
(A) S
(B) Q
(C) U
(D) Cannot determined
Ans. (A)
28. Who ranks fourth in sequence of reaching office?
(A) U
(B) P
(C) W
(D) Cannot be determined
Ans. (B)
Directions(Q. 29 and 30) Study the following information and answer questions below it
I. Seven books are placed one above the other in a particular way.
II. History book is placed exactly above Civics book.
III. Geography book is fourth from the bottom and English book is fifth from the top.
IV. There is one book in between Civics and Economics books.
29. How many books are there between Civics and Science books?
To answer this question, which other extra information is required, if any from the following?
(A) There are two books between Mathematics and Geography books
(B) There are two books between Geography and Science books
(C) The Civics book is before two books above Economics book
(D) There is one book between English and Science
Ans. (A)
30. Out of the following which three books are kept above English book? To answer this question, which
of the other informations, if any, is required?
(A) There are two books between English and History
(B) The Economic book is between English and Science books
(C) The Science book is placed at the top.
(D) The Geography book is above English.
Ans. (A)
Directions(Q. 31 to 39) in each question below there are some statements followed by four conclusions
numbered. I, II, III and IV, You have to take
the given statements to be due even if they mean to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all
the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows the given
statements, disregarding commonly facts.
31. Statement:
All crooks are simple.
Some simple are intelligent.
All intelligent are fools.
Conclusion:
I. Some fools are crooks.
II No fool is a crook.
III Some simple are fools.
IV All intelligent is simple.
(A)None
(B)Either I or III only
(C)Ill and IV only
(D)Either I or, II and III only
Ans. (D)

32. Statement:
All apples are Brinjal.
All Brinjal are ladyfingers.
Some ladyfingers are oranges.
Conclusions:
I. Some oranges are Brinjal
II. All Brinjal is apples.
III. Some apples are oranges.
IV. All ladyfingers are apples.
(A) None
(B) Either I or III only
(C) All
(D) Only I and III
Ans. (A)
33. Statements:
Some newspapers are radios.
Some radios are televisions.
No television is a magazine
Conclusions:
I. No newspaper is a magazine.
II. No radio is a magazine.
III. Some radios are not magazines.
IV. Some newspapers are televisions.
(A)None
(B)Only III
(C)Either I or II only
(D)None of these
Ans. (A)
34. Statements:
Some birds are insects.
All birds are butterflies.
All insects are snakes.
Conclusions:
I. Some snakes are birds.
II. Some butterflies are insects.
III. Some snakes are butterflies.
IV. Some insects are birds.
(A) None
(C) Only IV
(B) All
(D) Either I or II only
Ans. (B)
35. Statements:
Some books are papers.
Some papers are plastic.
No plastic is black
Conclusions:
I. Some papers are not black.
II. All papers are not black.
III. Some papers are black.
IV. Some books are black.
(A) Only I
(B) Either II or III
(C) Only I and IV only
(D) I, III and IV
Ans. (B)
36. Statements:
Some doors are windows.

All windows are black.


Some black are brown.
Conclusions:
I. Some windows are brown.
II. All doors are black.
III. Some doors are black.
IV. No window is brown.
(A) Only III
(B) Either I or IV and III
(C) Only II
(D) IV
Ans. (A)
37. Statements:
All teachers are doctors.
All doctors are engineers.
All engineers are typists.
Conclusions:
I. Some typists are teachers.
II. All doctors are typists.
III. Some engineers are teachers.
IV. All doctors are teachers.
(A) Only I and II
(B) Only I and III
(C) Either II or IV
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)
38. Statements:
All papers are bags.
No bag is green.
Conclusions:
I. No paper is green.
II. Some papers are green.
III Some green are papers.
IV Some bags are papers.
(A)Either I or II
(B) Only I ad III
(C)Only I and IV
(D) Either I for III
Ans. (C)
39. Statements:
All Bananas are Apples. All Apples are Oranges.
Conclusions:
I. Some Oranges are Apples.
II. All Apples are Bananas.
III. Some Bananas are not Oranges.
IV. Some Oranges are Bananas.
(A) All
(B) Only I and IV
(C) Only I and III
(D) Only I
Ans. (B)
40. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said She has no sister or daughters but her mother is the
only daughter of my mother. How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajans mother?
(A) Sister-in-law
(B) Grand-daughter
(C) Daughter-in-law
(D) Cannot be determined
Ans. (B)

41. Pointing to a gentleman, Deepak said, His only brother is the father of my daughters father. How is
the gentleman related to Deepak?
(A) Father
(B) Grand-Father
(C) Uncle
(D) Brother-in-law
Ans. (C)
42. Varun said pointing towards Arun, He is my sisters only brothers son. How is Arun related to
Varun?
(A) Son
(B) Brother
(C) Nephew
(D) Uncle
Ans. (A)
43. Pointing to a man, a lady said, His brothers father is my; grand-fathers only son. How is the lady
related to the man?
(A) Mother
(B) Sister
(C) Daughter
(D) Aunt
Ans. (D)
44. If Amits father is Billoos fathers only son and Billoo has neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the
relationship between Amit and Billoo?
(A) Uncle-Nephew
(C) Father-Son
(B) Father-Daughter
(D) Cousins
Ans. (C)
45. A man said to a lady, Fagus mother is the only daughter of your father. How is the lady related to
Fagu?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Wife
(D) Mother
Ans. (D)
46. If M + N mean M is the brother of N M N means M is the sister of N, M x N means M is the
mother of N and M N means M is the father of N. Which of the following would mean E is the
paternal Aunt of F?
(A) E G F
(C) E x F G
(B) E + G x F
(D)F x G + E
Ans. (A)
47. If S T means 5 is the wife of T, S + T means S is the daughter of T and S T means S is the
son of T. What will M + J + K means?
(A) K is the father of M
(B) M is the grand-daughter of K
(C) J is wife of K
(D) K and M are brothers
Ans. (B)
48. S x T means S is brother of T and S + T means S is father of T, which of the following shows 0 is
the cousin of R?
(A)RxT+O
(B)R+TxO
(C) RxOxT

(D)None of these
Ans. (D)
49. If P + Q means P is the husband of Q, P Q means P is the sister of Q, and P x Q means P is
son of Q, which of the following shows A is daughter of B ?
(A)ADxB
(B)DxB+CA
(C) BCxA
(D) CxBA
Ans. (A)
50. Sonia remembers that her fathers birthday was certainly after eighth but before thirteenth of
December. Her sister Sushmita remembers that their fathers birthday was definitely after ninth but before
fourteenth of December. On which date of December was their fathers birthday?
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) Data inadequate
Ans. (D)

zoology for medical entrance Exam


zoology for medical entrance Exam
Zoology For Medical Entrance Exams Online Practice Test
Solved Paper Zoology BHU Medical Entrance Exam
MCQ in Zoology for Medical entrance examination Zoology
1. The first heart sound is produced when:
(a) Systole begins
(b) Diastole begins
(c) Semilunar valve closed
(d) Bicuspid and tricuspid valve close quickly
Ans. (d)
2. The sequence of ear ossicles of vertebrates starting from tympanum is:
(a) Malleus, incus and stapes
(b) Stapes, incus and malleus
(c) Incus, stapes and malleus
(d) Incus, malleus and stapes
Ans. (a)
3. At high altitude, the RBCs in human blood:
(a) Increase in number
(b) Decrease in number
(c) Increase in size
(d) Decrease in size
Ans. (a)
4. Which of the following changes for man in the course of evolution, is probably useless?
(a) Development of opposable thumb
(b) Loss of tail
(c) Development of being erect
(d) Development of cranial capacity
Ans. (b)
5. The endothelium of blood vessel is composed of:
(a) Squamous epithelium
(b) Cuboids epithelium
(c) Columnar epithelium
(d) Ciliated epithelium
Ans. (a)

6. Bilirubin and bilivirdin are:


(a) Bile salts
(b) Bile pigments
(c) Bile juices
(d) Bile enzymes
Ans. (b)
7. Homoeothermic animals are
(a) Pigeon and toad
(b) Pigeon and rabbit
(c) Toad and rabbit
(d) Lizard and pigeon
Ans. (b)
8. In frog, mesorchium is a thin fold of membrane extending between
(a) Two testes
(c) Liver to testes
(b) Two kidneys
(d) Kidney to testes
Ans. (a)
9. Piercing and sticking mouth parts are found in:
(a) locust
(b) Butterfly
(c) Mosquito
(d) House fly
Ans. (c)
10. Monogamic ratite bird is
(a) Ostrich
(b) Pigeon
(c) Emu
(d) Kite
Ans. (c)
11. Primary consumer of a biotic community is:
(a) Plant
(b) Herbivore
(c) Carnivore
(d) Decomposer
Ans. (b)
12. Which of the following teeth are lophodont?
(a) Premolar and molar
(b) Premolar and incisor
(c) Incisor and canine
(d) Canine and premolar
Ans. (a)
13. Heparin is formed by
(a) Kidney cells
(c) Liver cells
(b) Blood cells
(d) Bone marrow
Ans. (c)
14. Characteristic feature of fishes is
(a) Tail and venous heart
(b) Venous heart and gills
(c) Epidermal scales and tail
(d) Epidermal scales and gills
Ans. (b)

15. The term protoplasm was given by:


(a) Fischer
(b) Purkinje
(c) Dujardin
(d) Brown
Ans. (b)
16. The oxidative breakdown of respiratory substrates with the help of oxygen is termed as:
(a) Fermentation
(b) Combustion
(c) Anaerobic respiration
(d) Aerobic respiration
Ans. (d)
17. Excretion in Amoeba occurs through:
(a) Rhizopodia
(b) Contractile vacuole
(c) Plasma membrane
(d) Mitochondria
Ans. (c)
18. Fats and oils are:
(a) Glycerol and trialcohols
(b) Glycerol and essential oils
(c) Esters and aromatic alcohol
(d) Triglycerides of long chain of fatty acid
Ans. (d)
19. Cytochrome is found in:
(a) Mitochondrial matrix
(b) Outer membrane of mitochondria.
(c) Cristae of mitochondria
(d) Per mitochondrial space
Ans. (c)
20. Formation of bivalent, during, meiosis, occurs in:
(a) Zygotene
(b) Diplotene
(c) Leptotene
(d) Pachytene
Ans. (a)
21. A non-parasitic animal is:
(a) Plasmodium
(b) Leech
(c) Tape worm
(d) Sea anemone
Ans. (d)
22. The nuclease enzyme begins its attack from free end of a polynucleotide is
(a) Kinase
(b) Exonuclease
(c) Polymerase
(d) Endonuclease
Ans. (b)
23. The opening of spermathecae in earthworm are found in:
(a) 6, 7, 8 and 9 segments ventrolaterally
(b) 5, 6, 7 and 8 segments ventrally
(c) 10, 11, 12 and 13 segments laterally
(d) 4, 5, 6 and 7 segments dorsally
Ans. (a)

24. Glaucoma disease occurs:


(a) Due to uneven curvature f cornea
(b) Opaque lenses
(c) Lens destroyed
(d) Schemas canal is blocked
Ans. (d)
25. Ichthyophis is a member of:
(a) Reptilian
(b) Amphibian
(c) Ayes
(d) Mammals
Ans. (b)
26. Hermit crab and sea anemone relationship is:
(a) Mutualism
(b) Parasitism
(c) Commensalisms
(d) Symbiotism
Ans. (c)
27 Mammalian kidneys is:
(a) Pronephros
(b) Epinephros
(c) Mesonephros
(d) Metanephros
Ans. (d)
28. The function of epiphysis is:
(a) Protect the bone
(b) Growth of bone
(c) Check the growth of bone
(d) all of the above
Ans. (b)
29. A child having blood group O does not have the parents with blood group:
(a) O, O
(b) B, A
(c) AB, O
(d) AB, AB
Ans. (d)
30. Cockroach and other insects have blood which
(a) Resembles human blood in colour
(b) Has RBCs
(c) Circulates through arteries and veins
(d) Circulates through an open system
Ans. (d)
31. Albinos have been reported in
(a) White race
(b) Black race
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
32. Cranial capacity of Australopithecus was
(a) 350450 cm3
(b) 650700 cm3
(c) 10501150 cm3
(d) 14001450 cm3
Ans. (a)

33. Exoskeleton/scales are absent in


(a) Fishes
(b) Retiles
(c) Ichthyophis
(d) Rana tigrina
Ans. (d)
34. Which law of evolution states that warm-blooded mammals of hot and humid areas have abundant
melanin pigment?
(a) Dollos law
(b) Glogers law
(c) Copes law
(d) Gauses law
Ans. (b)
35. Reason of death of a patient of cobra-bite is
(a) Destruction of RBC5
(b) Inactivation of nerves
(c) Permanent contraction of muscles
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
36. The most important component of contraceptive pills is
(a) Progesterone
(b) Growth hormone
(c) Thyroxine
(d) Luteinizing hormone
Ans. (a)
37. Yolk plug forms during
(a) morula-formation
(b) blastula-formation
(c) Gastrula
(d) Neurulation
Ans. (c)
38. In which of the following only cone cells are found?
(a) Fovea centralis
(b) Retina
(c) Fossa ovalis
(d) Blind spots
Ans. (a)
39. Hepatic portal system collects blood from
(a) Liver
(b) Lungs
(c) Kidney
(d) Alimentary canal
Ans. (d)
40. The first digit of the forearm is termed
(a) Pollex
(b) Hallux
(c) Pollux
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
41. Bidders canal is meant for passage of
(a) Ova
(b) Urine
(c) Sperms

(d) All of these


Ans. (c)
42. Striped muscle fibre has
(a) One nucleus
(b) Two nucleus
(c) Many nuclei
(d) No nuclei
Ans. (c)
43. Billroths cords are characteristic of
(a) spinal cord
(b) Notochord
(c) Nerve cord
(d) Spleen
Ans. (d)
44. Nuhns glands are present in
(a) Intestine
(b) Tongue
(c) Skin
(d) Stomach
Ans. (b)
45. Amylopsin acts upon
(a) Polysaccharide in any medium
(b) Polysaccharide in acidic medium
(c) Polysaccharide in alkaline medium
(d) Polypeptides
Ans. (c)
46. Hypoxia is the condition in which less oxygen becomes available to the tissues. This may be due to
(a) Lesser oxygen in the atmosphere
(b) More CO in air
(c) Less RBCs in blood
(d) all of the above
Ans. (d)
47. Carotid labyrinth contains
(a) Olfactoreceptors
(b) Baroreceptors
(c) Chemoreceptors
(d) Phonoreceptors
Ans. (b)
48. Juxtaglomerular cells of renal cortex synthesizes a hormone called
(a) ADH
(b) Oxytoxin
(c) Renin
(d) Urochrome
Ans. (c)
49. Corpora striata occur in
(a) cerebrum
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Medulla
(d) Diencephalons
Ans. (a)
50. A point mutation comprising the substitution of purine by pyramidine is called
(a) Deletion
(b) Transition

(c) Transversion
(d) Translocation
Ans. (c)

Solved reasoning Questions for


AFCAT Air Force Common Admission
Test
Solved reasoning Questions for AFCAT Air Force Common Admission Test
Air Force Common Admission Test (AFCAT) Will be of 2 hour duration
This is practice set of reasoning questions for AFSAT
Solved Reasoning test
1. After walking 6 km, I turned right and covered a distance of 2 km, then turned left and covered a
distance of 10 km. In the end, I was moving towards the north. From which direction did I start my
journey?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
Ans. (c)
2. In a certain code language EDITION is written as IDETNOI.
How will the word MEDICAL be written in that code language?
(a) DEMILAC
(b) LACJM
(c) DIEMCAL
(d) MCADILE
Ans. (a)
3. Find the odd one
(a) Shelley
(b) Keats
(c) Chaucer
(d) Churchill
Ans. (a)
4. In a row of boys Ganesh is 12th from the left and Rajan is 15th from the right. When they interchange
their positions Rajan becomes 20th from the right. How many boys are there in the row?
(a) 29
(b) 31
(c) 32
(d) 30
Ans. (b)
5. There are four roads. You are coming from South and want to go to the temp1e The road to your left
leads away from coffee house. The front straight road leads to the college only. In which direction is the
temple located?
() North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
Ans. (c)
Directions (Q. 67): In each of the following questions a related pair of words is given. Find the most
suitable pair of related words from among the four alternatives.
6. Satellite : Planetary path
(a) Missile : Projectile Path

(b) Arrow : Plunge


(c) Bullet : Pipe
(d) Elevator : Axle
Ans. (a)
7. Brittle: Break:
(a) Glass : Break
(b) Sharp : Scratch
(c) Tree : Wind
(d) Elastic : Bend
Ans. (d)
Directions (Q. 812): Below are given five Venn-diagrams A, B, C, D and B. Select the most suitable
diagram which represents best re1atonship among the given items in each of the following questions.

8. Medium of TV, TV programme,


Advertisement
(a) A
(b) D
(c) C
(d) E
Ans. (c)
9. Doctors, Surgeons, Neurologists
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
Ans. (c)
10. Polygon, Rectangle, Triangle
(a) A
(c) C
(b) B
(d) D
Ans. (d)
11. Mississippi River, Bay of Mexico, Pacific Ocean
(a) B
(b) C
(c) B
(d) D
Ans. (d)

12. Salesman, College Graduates, High School Students


(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) E
Ans. (d)
13. Fill in the missing letter in the following series S,V,Y ,B,?
(a) C
(b) D
(c) E
(d) C
Ans. (c)
14. Fill in the missing letter in the following series
A, Z, C, X, E?
(a) C
(b) D
(c) W
(d) Y
Ans. (d)
Directions (Q. 1519): Read the following information and answer the questions. There are six flats on a
floor in two rows facing north and south allotted to six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U. The position of their
flats is as follows
(i) Qs flat faces the north and is not next to S.
(ii) S and U have occupied diagonally opposite flats.
(iii) R next to U occupied a flat facing the south and T gets a flat which faces the north.
15. Whose flat is between Q and S?
(a) P
(b) R
(c) T
(d) U
Ans. (c)
16. The flats of which pair other than of SU is diagonally opposite to each other?
(a) RT
(b) PT
(c) QP
(d) TU
Ans. (c)
17. If the flats of T and P are interchanged, whos flat will be next to that of U?
(a) S
(b) R
(c) Q
(d) Q or S
Ans. (b)
18. After interchanging the flats of T and P, who stays between T and U in the same block?
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) S
(d) R
Ans. (d)
19. If the fiats are not interchanged between T and P, who occupies the flat between Q and S?
(a) P
(b)T
(c) R

(d) U
Ans. (b)
20. In a map south-east has be shown as north, north-east has been shown as west and so on. In this
map what will west represent?
(a) South-west
(b) South-east
(c) South
(d) North-west
Ans. (b)
21. In an imaginary system 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, are represented by z, y, x, w, v, u, t, s, r, q
respectively. In such a system 23 *4 *5 will be written as (* indicates symbol of multiplication)
(a) xyr
(b) rvu
(c) ysr
(d) vtz
Ans. (d)
22. Anand is related to Vinod and Cinderella. Deepa is Cinderellas mother. Also Deepa is Vinods sister
and Ela is Vinods sister. How is Ela related to Cinderella?
(a) Niece
(b) Cousin
(c) Sister
(d) Aunt
Ans. (d)
23. The letters of English alphabet are numbered from 26 to 1. The assigned numbers are used to write
the letters of the original alphabet so that 26 stands for A, 25 stands for B and so on. Using this
sequence, answer the following question.
Which of the following sequence denotes a valid word?
V-O-I-D
(a) 612-1723
(b) 5111812
(c) 5121823
(d) 5 12 17 23
Ans. (c)
24. In certain code language the word NUMERICAL is written as LMUIREACN. How will the word
PUBLISHED be written in that language?
(a) DUBSILEHP
(b) DBULISEHP
(c) DUBLSEHP
(d) DBUSILEHP
Ans. (d)
25. If Dog is called Cat, Cat is called Lion, Lion is called Ox, Ox is called Cock, Cock is called Elephant,
and Elephant is called Donkey, then farmer ploughs with which animal?
(a) Dog
(b) Lion
(c) Donkey
(d) Cock
Ans. (d)

staff nurse model solved papers:


Zoology Biology
staff nurse model solved papers: Zoology Biology
SAMPLE SOLVED PAPER OF STAFF NURSE IN HEALTH SERVICES DEPT

SOLVED ESI STAFF NURSE SOLVED QUESTION PAPER


staff nurse modal test paper solved dsssb exam
1. Whenever a non-sense codon formed in a polypeptide chain then it leads to:
(a) Addition of some specific thymine and cytosine bases
(b) Addition of some specific guanine and cytosine bases
(c) Termination of polypeptide chain
(d) Addition of some specific guanine and adenine bases
Ans. (c)
2. Direction of replication in mitochondrial DNA will be:
(a) Bidirectional
(b) Unidirectional
(c) Replication absent
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (b)
3. Pepsin is activated by:
(a) Pepsin
(b) Chymotrypsin
(c) Hydrochloric acid
(d) Trypsin
Ans. (c)
4. The m-RNA is directly available translation without processing in:
(a) Green algae
(b) Bacteria
(c) Polysiphonia
(d) Chara
Ans. (b)
5. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Maximum DNA is present in cytoplasm than in nucleus
(b) Maximum RNA is present in nucleus than in cytoplasm
(C) Maximum DNA present in nucleus than in cytoplasm
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans. (c)
6. Which-of following is example of steroid hormone?
(a) Adrenaline
(b) Corticotrophin
(c) Insulin
(d) Testosterone
Ans. (d)
7. M and N blood groups are of importance in:
(a) blood transfusion
(b) Medico legal tests
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
8. The pace-setter in the heart is called:
(a) Purkinje fibres
(b) Sino arterial node
(c) Papillary muscle
(d) Artio-ventricular node (AVN)
Ans. (d)
9 What are the most diversed molecules m the cell?
(a) Lipids
(b) Proteins

(c) Minerals
(d) Carbohydrates
Ans. (b)
10. Kingdom Protista can be defined as:
(a) Microscopic multicultural organisms with one or many nuclel, they dont form embryo
(b) Microscopic, unicellular organisms with one or more nuclei, they do not form embryo
(c) Macroscopic, multi- unicellular organisms having only a large nucleus and no embryo formation in
them
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (b)
11. A gorilla like man has huge hands and legs this is due to abnormal secretion of:
(a) Pituitary FSH
(b) Pituitary LII
(c) Pituitary Gil
(d) Thyroid
Ans. (c)
12. Chloragogen cells serve for:
(a) Respiration
(b) Excretion
(c) Storage of glycogen and fat
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans. (d)
13. Myxotrophic nutrition is found in:
(a) Mango
(b) Euglena
(c) Cara
(d) All Protozoa
Ans. (b)
14. Formation of embryo sac from diploid cells of ovule is known as:
(a) Apogamy
(b) Apospory
(c) Amphimtxis
(d) Apimixis
Ans. (b)
15. Cytoplasm of Amoeba proteus not contain
(a) Ectoplasm and endoplasm
(b) Endoplasm and mitochondria
(c) ER and ribosomes
(d) Mesosomes
Ans. (d)
16. In the body blood clotting is prevented by:
(a) Heparin
(b) Prothrombin
(c) Carbonic acid
(d) Starch
Ans. (a)
17. Fermentation is general term for the:
(a) Anaerobic degeneration of glucose or other organic nutrients to obtain energy
(b) An -aerobic degeneration of protein
(c) Formation of formic- acid
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (a)

18. Function of SSE proteins during DNA replication is:


(a) Unwinding of DNA
(b) Denaturation of DNA
(c) Formation of RNA strands
(d) Stabilizing separated DNA strands
Ans. (d)
19. The net result of inversion is
(a) Gain of some inverted genes
(b) Neither a gain nor a loss in genes
(c) Loss of some genes
(d) Transfer of genes to non-homologous chromosome.
Ans. (b)
20. Amniotic egg is present:
(a) Hydra
(b) Reptiles
(c) Mammals
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans. (d)
21. Building block of DNA are:
(a) Nucleosomes
(b) Nuclesides
(c) Nucleic acid
(d) Nucleotides
Ans. (d)
22. The receptor for water soluble hormones are located on target cell surface then- for fat soluble
hormone receptors. are:
(a) SV also on cell surface
(b) In cytosol
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Does not have cell receptor
Ans. (b)
23. There is one difference between DNA replication of prokaryotes and eukaryotes:
(a) Eukaryotes contain DNA pol III while it is absent in prokaryotes
(b) The rate of replication fork movement in eukaryotes is lower then prokaryotes
(c) Many origin of replication present in eukaryotes while only one in prokaryotes
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans. (d)
24. In micturition
(a) Ureter contracts
(b) Ureter relaxes
(C) Urethra relaxes
(d) Urethra contracts
Ans. (c)
25. Maximum peptidoglycan is present in which of the following cell?
(a) Gram negative bacterial cell
(b) Gram positive bacterial cell
(c) PPLO
(d) PSTV
Ans. (b)
26. Blood platelets are the source of:
(a) Fibrogen
(b) Fibrinogen
(c) Thromboplastin

(d) Ca2+
Ans. (c)
27. In man the largest vertebra is:
(a) Caudal
(b) Sacral
(c) Lumber
(d) Cervical
Ans. (c)
28. Which of the following microtubule is mainly responsible for chromosome movement during mitotic
division?
(a) Astral microtubules
(b) Polar microtubules
(c) Kinetochore microtubule
(d) Kinetochore
Ans. (c)
29. Earthworm appear brown due to the presence of:
(a) Chloragogen cells
(b) Chloragosomes
(c) Porphyrin
(d) Porin
Ans. (c)
30. Some human babies show Cri-du-chat syndrome due to:
(a) Pseudo dominance
(b) Dominance
(c) Duplication
(d) Translocation
Ans. (a)
31. Bacteria do not contain enzyme:
(a) Hexokinase
(b) Fructose-1, 6 bisphosrhate
(c) Fructose 2, 6 bisphosrhate
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Ans. (c)
32. Thiamine Pyrophosphate plays important role in the cleavage of bonds:
(a) Carboxylic group
(b) Carbonyl group
(c) Aldehydes group
(d) Keto group
Ans. (b)
33. The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex vertebrates is strongly inhibited by:
(a) Ample of ATP, Co-A and NAD+
(b) Long chain fatty acids
(c) ATP and acetyl Co-A
(d) AMP, Co-A, NAD+
Ans. (d)
34. Nourishment in Trypnasoma is:
(a) Autotrophy
(b) Chemotrophy
(c) Osmotrophy
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (c)
35. Cross over products are the result of:
(a) Crossing over

(b) Duplication
(c) Replication
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans. (a)
36. Tay sachs disease is due to deficiency of enzyme:
(a) ?-N-acetyIhexosaminidase
(b) Tyrosinase
(c) Hexokinase
(d) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenate
Ans. (a)
37. Parkinson disease is due to deficiency of:
(a) Acetyl chlorine
(b) Serotonin
(c) Dopamine
(d) Tyrosine
Ans. (c)
38. Different proteins that catalyze the same reaction are called:
(a) Homoprotein
(b) Alloproteins
(c) Alloenzyme
(d) Isozymes
Ans. (d)
39. Chondriods are also Known as:
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Mesosornes
(c) Spherosomes
(d) Peroxisomes
Ans. (b)
40. Each okazaki fragment in bacteria contains nucleotides approximately:
(a) 1000 to 2000
(b) 12100 to 120,000
(c) 5-10
(d) 150-200
Ans. (a)
41. Which of the following statement is not correct?
(a) The plasma membrane of bacteria shows fluid mosaic pattern
(b) Trans membrane proteins act as carriers or permeate to carry on selective transportation of nutrients
transportation
(c) Bacterial plasma membrane provides a specific sit& at which the single circular chromosome is
attached
(d) All statement are correct
Ans. (d)
42. Exchange of chromosomal parts between two non-homologous chromosomes is known as:
(a) Crossing over
(b) Reciprocal translocation
(c) Exchange
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Ans. (b)
43. During binary fission Amoeba prophase stage shows following character:
(a) Amoeba becomes elongated and nuclear membrane does not disappear
(b) Amoeba becomes globular and chromosomes show pairing
(c) Amoeba becomes rounded and unclear membrane also disappear
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

44. Haversian canals are formed by the active division of:


(a) germinal-epithelium
(b) peritoneum
(c) ciliated columnar epithelium
(d) corpora cavernosa
Ans. (a)
45. Lathyrism, a disease caused by consumption of khesridal is characterized by:
(a) Retardation of body growth precious puberty and real dysfunctions.
(b) Reproductive failure, susceptibility to diabetes
(c) Mental retardation, failure of reproduction.
(d) Thinning of collagen fibres and fibrils and gross skeletal deformation
Ans. (d)
46. Which of the following is not a granulocyte?
(a) Lymphocyte
(b) Eosinophils
(c) Basophil
(d) Neutrophil
Ans. (a)
47. Lactoflavin (sensitizer) found in:
(a) Eye spot
(b) Paraflagellar body
(c) Golgi bodies
(d) Mitochondria
Ans. (b)
48. Which amino acid have the capability to absorb light at 280 nm?
(a) Glycine
(b) Cysteine
(c) Leucine
(d) Tryptophan
Ans. (d)
49. The cyanobacteria secrete peptides that cause the formation of hepatic tumour:
(a) Microcystins and nodularins
(b) Pyroglutamyl
(c) Glutathione
(d) Ghenyl isothiocyanate
Ans. (a)
50. Pellagra is caused by the deficiency of:
(a) Ascorbic acid
(b) folic acid
(c) Niacin
(d) Riboflavin
Ans. (c)

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Science & Technology Questionnaires for Various Competitive Examinations
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1 By keeping the barometer tube slanting the barometer reading will
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease

(C) First increase then decree


(D) Remains the same
Ans. (A)
2. If a stone tied to a starting is whirled in a vertical circle at constant speed, the tension in the string
(A) is minimum when the stone is at the lowest point
(B) is maximum when the stone is at the lowest point
(C) is same throughout
(D) is indeterminate
Ans. (B)
3. The moment of a force is a moment of
(A) The capacity to turn the body
(B) The stability of a body
(C) The impulse of the force
(D) The change of momentum of a body
Ans. (A)
4. S.I. unit of Gas constant is
(A) Joule/mole
(B) Cal/degree Celsius
(C) Joule/K-mole
(D) Joule/kg
Ans. (C)
5. A cup of hot tea on a metal table in a room loses heat by
(A) Conduction and convection.
(B) Conduction, convection, radiation and evaporation
(C) Conduction and evaporation
(D) Conduction and radiation
Ans. (B)
6. Dimension of Plancks constant is same as
(A) Angular momentum
(B) Energy
(C) Momentum
(D) Frequency
Ans. (A)
7. The quantity of heat energy taken up by a body depends on
(A) Density, mass and temperature of the body
(B) Mass specific heat and the change in temperature
(C) Density, volume and temperature change
(D) Surface area, volume and temperature of the body
Ans. (B)
8. Relation between specific heat and atomic weight at. Wt. x sp. heat = 64 is given by
(A) Charles
(B) Gelussac
(C) Dulong and Petit
(D) Only Dulong
Ans. (C)
9. For an adiabatic process, which of the following relations is correct?
(A)I\E=0

(B)PzXV=0
(C) Q=0
(D) Q=+w
Ans. (C)
10. under which of the following conditions is the relation AH = zE + PV valid for closed system?
(A) Constant pressure
(B) Constant temperature
(C) Constant temperature and pressure
(D) Constant temperature pressure and composition
Ans. (A)
11. Electric current in a photoelectric cell
(A) Decreases by increasing the intensity of incident photon
(B) Increases by increasing the intensity of incident photons
(C) Increases by increasing the frequency of incident photon
(D) Decreases by increasing the frequency of incident photon.
Ans. (B)
12. The temperature at which the e.m.f. of a thermo-electric couple is maximum is called
(A) Neutral temperature
(B) Maximum temperature
(C) Absolute temperature
(D) Reversible temperature
Ans. (A)
13. Henry is the unit of
(A) Inductance
(B) Magnetic flux
(C) Magnetic field
(D) Capacitance
Ans. (A)
14. Out of the following which event does not take place in sound waves?
(A) Polarization
(B) Diffraction
(C) Reflection
(D) Interference
Ans. (A)
15. In Youngs double slit experiment the distance between the slits i made three times than fringe-width
will be
(A) 9 times
(B) Times
(C) Times
(D) 3 times
Ans. (C)
16. If a, b, c are in G.P., then a + b, 2b, b + c are in
(A) A.P.
(B) G.P.
(C) H.P.
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)

17. In a polygon, the number of diagonals is


The number of sides of thdolygon is
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 9
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
18. The perimeter of a right-angled triangle is 60 cm and its diagonal is 26 cm. The area of the triangle
will be
(A) 120 cm2
(C) 115cm2
(B) 125 cm2
(D) 10cm2
Ans. (A)
19. The sides of a rectangle inscribed in a circle are 8 cm. and 6 cm. Leaving the area of the rectangle,
area of the remainder part of the circle will be
(A) 306 cm2
(B) 39cm2
(C) 424 cm2
(D) 653cm2
Ans. (A)
20. 1061069494=?
(A) 2400
(B) 2000
(C) 1904
(D) 1906
Ans. (A)
21. Two number x and y are the ratio of 3: 4. If 10 is added to each number, the ratio becomes 5: 6. Then
the number x and y are
(A) 12andl6
(B) l5and20
(C) 3and4
(D) 30and40
Ans. (B)
22. Generally roasting is apply in the following
(A) Oxide ore
(B) Silicate ore
(C) Sulphide ore
(D) Carbonate ore
Ans. (C)
23. In orthoboric acid, type of hybridization in Boron is
(A) sp
(B) Sp2
(C) Sp3
(D) Sp3d1
Ans. (B)
24. in the analysis of group III which of the following can be used in place of.NH4CI?
(A) NH4NO3

(B) (NH4)2S04
(C) (NH4)2C03
(D) NaCl
Ans. (D)
25. Max no. of isomers in C4F18 in alke1e is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Ans. (A)

Free Reasoning Model test For Coast


Guard GD Exam
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Reasoning verbal Exam For Coast guard exam
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Directionsin one of the series of letters given below adjacent letters are skipped in a decreasing order.
Which one of the following series observes the rule given above?
1. (A) B_H_K_I_S
(B) A_G_K_N_P
(C) N_P_H_J_C
(D) C_J_G_T_U
Ans. (B)
2. In the following question number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series is
increased by one, which of the following series observe the rule?
(A) BFILQ
(B) EINTA
(C) DHKPV
(D)ADHKM
Ans. (B)
3. Let J=1, K=2.L=5.M=7.N=ll. O=13, P = 17. Find the letter to be inserted in the box in the equation given
[(PL1) L1K=O
(A) N
(B) O
(C) M
(D) J
Ans. (C)
4. If x means Minus, means Plus, + means Multiplication, then find out the value of the equation given
below (16 x 5) 5 + 3 =..?.
(A) 62
(B) 10
(C) 2
(D) 26
Ans. (D)
5. In the series of digits 8 4 6 7 3 4 3 7 8 3 4 4 5 6 3 4 6 4 3 4 8, the digit with the least frequency is
(A) 8
(B) 7
(C) 5

(D) 4
Ans. (C)
6. How many 7s in the following sequence of numbers are immediately preceded by 6 but not
immediately followed by 8? 3 4 8 7 6 1 5 6 7 8 4 9 6 7 5
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 0
Ans. (A)
7. If B beckoners D and C becomes I, then what will D become in English alphabet?
(A) N
(B) K
(C) P
(D) O
Ans. (C)
8. If EARTH can be coded as IUSBF how can
GLOBE is coded?
(A) HMPCF
(B) FMPCH
(C) FPMCH
(D) FCPMH
Ans. (D)
9. In a certain language REFORM is coded as 426349 and FORMULA is coded as 6349871, how is
MULE coded in that language.
(A) 8792
(B) 7982
(C) 9872
(D) 2978
Ans. (C)
10. V, W, X, Y and Z are five friends, V, X and Z are fond of Mango. W, X a4Wl Y like Apple. V, W and Z
like Guava. W, X and Z like Banana. V and Y are fond of Orange. W, Y and Z like Chickoo.
Fruits liked by X are
(A) Mango, Apple, Banana
(B) Guava, Orange, Banana
(C) Banana, Chickoo, Apple
(D) Mango, Chickoo, Guava
Ans. (A)
11. A and B are sisters. A is the mother of D. B has a daughter C who is married to F. G is the husband of
A. How is C related to D?
(A) Cousin
(B) Niece
(C) Aunt
(D) Sister-in-law
Ans. (A)
12. Gopal is elder to Mohan, but younger to Ram.
Mohan is elder to Sohan, but younger to Ram.
Who is the eldest?
(A) Gopal
(B) Mohan
(C) Ram
(D) Sohan
Ans. (C)
13. A child has a glass with 65 beads; He took 23 from it and put 17 back to the glass. Then took 27 from
it and put 19 into the glass then took 14 from the glass. Now how many beads are there in the glass and

outside the glass?


(A) Inside 37, Outside 28
(B) Inside 1, Outside 64
(C) Inside 27, Outside 38
(D) Inside 35, Outside 30
Ans. (A)
14. The average weight of 8 persons of a family is increased by 1 kg when one of the members whose
weight is 60 kg is replaced by a new person. The weight of the new person (in kg) is
(A) 61
(B) 68
(C) 62
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
15. A single discount equivalent to a discount series of 30%, 20% and 10% is
(A) 49.6%
(B) 50.4%
(C) 53.0%
(D) 47.0%
Ans. (A)
16. If the sum of one half and one fifth of a number exceeds one-third of the number by
4, the number is
(A) 15
(B) 18
(C) 20
(D) 30
Ans. (C)
17. The ratio of two numbers is 3: 5 and their LCM is 300. Then one of the numbers will be
(A) 30
(B) 50
(C) 60
(D) 75
Ans. (C)
18. The length of a rectangle is 1 cm more than its width. Its perimeter is 14 cm. The area of the rectangle
is
(A) 16 cm2
(B) 14 cm2
(C) 12 cm2
(D) 10cm2
Ans. (C)
19. If the day before yesterday was Thursday, when will Sunday be?
(A) Day after tomorrow
(B) Today
(C) Tomorrow
(D) Two days after today
Ans. (C)
20. Father is aged three times more than his son Ramu. After 8 years, he would be times of Ramus age.
After further 8 years, how many times, would he be of Ramus age?
(A) 2 times
(B)5/2 times
(C) 11/4 times
(D) 3 times
Ans. (B)