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Note:

For the benefit of the students, specially the aspiring ones, the question of JEE2014_MAINS are also given in this booklet.
Keeping the interest of students studying in class XI, the questions based on the topics from class XI have been marked with *,
which can be attempted as a test. For this test the time allocated in Physics, Mathematics and Chemistry are 27 minutes, 28 minutes
and 22 minutes respectively.

JEE 2014
MAINS
Time: 3 Hours

Maximum Marks: 360

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.

INSTRUCTIONS
(AS PER THE ORIGINAL JEE BOOKLET)
Important Instructions:

1.

Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point
Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

2.

The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test
Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.

3.

The test is of 3 hours duration.

4.

The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.

5.

There are three parts in question paper A, B, C consisting of Chemistry, Mathematics and
Physics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four)
marks for correct response.

6.

Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 5 for correct response of
each question. (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each
question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an
item in the answer sheet.

7.

There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in
any question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted
accordingly as per instruction 6 above.

8.

Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for written particulars / marking responses on Side1
and Side2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

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JEE MAINS2014 (Code: H)2

9.

No candidate is allowed to carry and textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager,
mobile phone, any electronic device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination
hall/room.

10.

Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
This space is given at the bottom of each page and in 3 pages at the end of the booklet.

11.

On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator
on duty in the Room / Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test
Booklet with them.

12.

The CODE for this Booklet is H. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side2 of the answer
sheet is the same as the on this booklet. In case discrepancy, the candidate should
immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and
the Answer Sheet.

13.

Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

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JEE MAINS2014 (Code: H)3

PART A: PHYSICS
*1.

The pressure that has to be applied to the ends of a steel wire of length 10 cm to keep its length
constant when its temperature is raised by 100C is
(For steel Youngs modulus is 2 x 1011 N m 2 and coefficient of thermal expansion is 1.1 105 K1).

1.
Sol.

(1) 2.2 107 Pa


3
Thermal strain = T

(2) 2.2 106 Pa

(3) 2.2 108 Pa

(4) 2.2 109 Pa

Thermal stress = Y T 2.2 108 Pa


2.

A conductor lies along the zaxis at 1.5 z 1.5 m and carries a fixed current of 10.0 A in a z

direction (see figure). For a field B 3.0 10 4 e 0.2 x a y T, find the power required to move the
conductor at constant speed to x = 2.0m, y = 0m in 5 10 3 s. Assume parallel motion along the x
axis.
z
1.5
I

B
2.0

2.
Sol.

1.5

(1) 14.85 W
(2) 29.7 W
4

Force, F i B 10 3 3 10 4.e 0.2 x

(3) 1.57 W

(4) 2.97 W

acting along xdirection

Work, w F dx 10 3 3 10 4 e 0.2 x dx
0

10 3 3 10

0.2

0.2 x

4
work 10 3 3 10
1 e 0.4
Power

time
0.2 5 10 3
= 2.97 W

*3.

A bob of mass m attached to an inextensible string of length l is suspended from a vertical support.
The bob rotates in a horizontal circle with an angular speed rad/s about the vertical. About the
point of suspension:
(1) angular momentum changes in direction but not in magnitude.
(2) angular momentum changes both in direction and magnitude.
(3) angular momentum is conserved.
(4) angular momentum changes in magnitude but not in direction.

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JEE MAINS2014 (Code: H)4

3.

Sol.

Angular momentum r p

r = Length of string, which is a constant and p is also a constant.


Hence magnitude of angular momentum remains constant but direction changes because directions
of r and p change as the particle moves around in circular path.
4.

The current voltage relation of diode is given by I e1000 V / T 1 mA , where the applied voltage V is in

4.

volts and the temperature T is in degree Kelvin. If a student makes an error measuring 0.01 V
while measuring the current of 5 mA at 300 K, what will be the error in the value of current in mA ?
(1) 0.5 mA
(2) 0.05 mA
(3) 0.2 mA
(4) 0.02 mA
3

Sol.

1000 V

I e T 1

Since T = 300 K
10 V

So,
I e 3 1
Taking differentials, we get
10 103 V
dI
e dV
3
10 V

I 5mA e 3 1 mA

Substituting in equation (1)


10
I
60.01 0.2mA
3
*5.

5.
Sol.

I
10

e3

10 103 V
e V
3

.......... 1

6 mA

An open glass tube is immersed in mercury in such a way that a length of 8 cm extends above the
mercury level. The open end of the tube is then closed and sealed and the tube is raised vertically up
by additional 46 cm. What will be length of the air column above mercury in the tube now?
(Atmospheric pressure =76 cm of Hg)
(1) 38 cm
(2) 6 cm
(3) 16 cm
(4) 22 cm
3
Initially 8 cm of air column is at atmosphere pressure, P0
Final pressure, P P0 g 0.54 x .

54cm

8cm

Assuming isothermal conditions


P1V1 P2 V2
P0 0.08 A P x A

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JEE MAINS2014 (Code: H)5

P0 0.08 P0 g 0.54 x x

76 cm 8cm 76 cm 54cm x x.

76cm 8 cm 22cm x x
Solving we get x 16 cm
6.

Match List - I (Electromagnetic wave type) with List - II (Its association/application) and select the
correct option from the choices given below the lists
List I

6.
7.

(1)
(3)
2

(1)

Infrared waves

(i)

To treat muscular strain

(2)

Radio waves

(ii)

For broadcasting

(3)

X rays

(iii)

To detect fracture of bones

(4)

Ultra violet rays

(iv)

Absorbed by the ozone layer of the atmosphere

(a)
(iii)
(iv)

(b)
(ii)
(iii)

(c)
(i)
(ii)

(d)
(iv)
(i)

(2)
(4)

(a)
(i)
(i)

(b)
(ii)
(ii)

(c)
(iii)
(iv)

(d)
(iv)
(iii)

Parallel plate capacitor is made of two circular plates separated by a distance of 5 mm and with a
4
dielectric of dielectric constant 2.2 between them. When the electric field in the dielectric is 3 x 10
V/n the charge density of the positive plate will be close to:
(1) 3 10 4 C / m2

7.
Sol.

List II

(2) 6 10 4 C / m2

(3) 6 10 7 C / m2

(4) 3 10 7 C / m2

3
Electric field between the plates of capacitor is

E
k 0
Putting E 3 10 4 v / m
k = 2.2
We get 6 10 7 c / m2

*8.

A student measured the length of a rod and wrote it as 3.50 cm. Which instrument did he use to
measure it?
(1) A screw gauge having 100 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as 1 mm.
(2) A screw gauge having 50 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as 1 mm.

8.
Sol.

*9.

(3) A meter scale.


(4) A vernier calliper where the 10 divisions in vernier scale matches with 9 division in main scale
and main scale has 10 divisions in 1 cm.
4
Least count of the used instrument must be = 0.01 cm as per the measured value
The vernier calipers in the given question has a least count of 0.01 cm because
1 Main scale division = 0.1 cm
and 1 vernier scale division = 0.09 cm
and Least count = 1 main scale division 1 vernier scale division.
Four particles, each of mass M and equidistant from each other, move along a circle of radius R
under the action of their mutual gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle is
(1)

GM
(1 2 2)
R

(2)

1 GM
(1 2 2) (3)
2 R

GM
R

(4)

2 2

GM
R

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JEE MAINS2014 (Code: H)6

9.
Sol.

2
Net gravitational Force = F1 F2 F3
Side of square,
2R R 2
a
2
GM2
F1 F2
2
R 2

F3

GM2
4R2

M
A

F1

F3 O

F2
M

GM2
2
2R 2
Hence net gravitational.
Force on a particle
GM2 2 1
is F 2

R 2 4
Gravitational force provides centripetal acceleration for each particle
GM2 2 2 1 Mv 2
GM 2 2 1
1 GM
Hence
v2
1 2 2

v
2
R
R 4
2 R
R 4
F1 F2 F1

10.

10.
Sol.

*11.

11.
Sol.

In a large building, there are 15 bulbs of 40 W, 5 bulbs of 100 W, 5 fans of 80 W and 1 heater of 1
kW. The voltage of the electric mains is 220 V. The minimum capacity of the main fuse of the
building will be
(1) 12 A
(2) 14 A
(3) 8 A
(4) 10 A
1
Power = (voltage) (current)
40
Current drawn by 40 W bulb =
A
220
100
Current drawn by 100 W bulb =
A
220
80
Current drawn by 80 W bulb =
A
220
1000
Current drawn by heater =
A
220
They can be considered to be in parallel, total current drawn from mains
40
100
80 1000
15
5
5

11.3 A
220
220
220 220
Hence minimum capacity of fuse of mains should be 12 A.
A particle moves with simple harmonic motion in a straight line. In first s, after starting from rest it
travels a distance a, and in next s it travels 2a, in same direction, then
(1) amplitude of motion is 4a
(2) time period of oscillations is 6
(3) amplitude of motion is 3a
(4) time period of oscillations is 8
2
Let the particle starts at t = 0 from right extreme,

its position after time t is given by


x = A cos t
According to the question,
A a = A cos

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or

A(1 cos ) a
A 3a A cos 2
A(1 cos 2) 3a

and
or
dividing these two equations,

..(1)
(2)

1 cos 2
1
3 cos 1,
1 cos
2
As particle is moving in same direction,

cos 1 is not possible

cos

1
2

3
T
3
T 6

or
using equation (1), A = 2a

12.

The coercivity of a small magnet where the ferromagnet gets demagnetized is 3 x 103 Am 1. The
current required to be passed in a solenoid of length 10 cm and number of turns 100, so that the
magnet gets demagnetized when inside the solenoid, is
(1) 3 A
(2) 6 A
(3) 30 mA
(4) 60 mA
1

Sol.

12.

100
= 1000 per m
10 102

H = 3 x 10 3 Am 1 = ni
,
13.

3 103
= 3A
i
1000

The forward biased diode connection is


(1)

2V

4V

(2)

2 V

+2V

(3)

+2V

2V

(4)

3V

3V

13.
Sol.

3
A diode is forward biased if p side is at higher potential

14.

During the propagation of electromagnetic waves in a medium:


(1) Electric energy density is equal to the magnetic energy density.
(2) Both electric and magnetic energy densities are zero.
(3) Electric energy density is double of the magnetic energy density.
(4) Electric energy density is half of the magnetic energy density.
1
During the propagation of electromagnetic waves in a medium, electric energy density is equal to the
magnetic energy density

14.
Sol.

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JEE MAINS2014 (Code: H)8

15.

15.
Sol.

In the circuit shown here, the point C is kept connected to


point A till the current flowing through the circuit becomes
constant. Afterward, suddenly, point C is disconnected
from point A and connected to point B at time t =0. Ratio
of the voltage across resistance and the inductor at t = L/R
will be equal to:
1 e
e
(1) 1
(2)
(3)
e
1 e

L
B

(4) 1

1
Voltage across resistance and inductor at any time after C is connected to B will be same as they will
be in parallel.

VR VL 0

VR
1
VL
*16.

A mass m is supported by a massless string wound around a


uniform hollow cylinder of mass m and radius R. If the string does
not slip on the cylinder, with what acceleration will the mass fall on
release?
5g
(1)
(2) g
6
(3)

16.
Sol.

2g
3

(4)

g
2

From FBD of cylinder, TR I


a
and, TR mR 2 .(2)
R
(as, a R for no slipping condition)
Adding eq, (1) & (2)
mg 2ma

*17.

17.
Sol.

4
Let acceleration of the block is a
From FBD of block, mg T ma ........... 1

g
2

T
m

a
mg

One mole of diatomic ideal gas undergoes a cyclic process ABC as


shown in figure. The process BC is adiabatic. The temperatures at A, B
and C are 400 K, 800 K and 600 K respectively. Choose the correct
statement:
(1) The change in internal energy in the process AB is 350 R.
(2) The change in internal energy in the process BC is 500 R.
(3) The change in internal energy in whole cyclic process is 250 R.
(4) The change in internal energy in the process CA is 700 R.
2
5
UA B nCv T 1 R 800 400 1000R
2

B
800K

600K
A

C
400K
V

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JEE MAINS2014 (Code: H)9

5
UB C nCv T 1 R 600 800 500R
2
5
UC A nCv T 1 R 400 600 500R
2
The change in internal energy in whole cyclic process is zero.

*18.

From a tower of height H, a particle is thrown vertically upwards with a speed u. The time taken by
the particle, to hit the ground, is n times that taken by it to reach the highest point of its path.
The relation between H, u and n is:
(1) 2gH nu2 n 2

18.
Sol.

(2) gH u2 n 2

(3) 2gH n2 u2

(4) gH n 2 u2

1
Let the time taken by the particle to reach the highest point of its path be t0
,

t0

u
g

and the time taken by the particle to hit the ground is

H u ( n t0 )

n t0

nu
g

1
g ( nt0 )2
2

u 1 u
H u n g n
g 2 g
u 2 n 2u 2
H n
g
2g

2 gh 2nu 2 n 2u 2
2 gH nu 2 (n 2)
19.

A thin convex lens made from crown glass has focal length f. When it is measured in two
2

different liquids having refractive indices

4
5
and , it has the focal lengths f1 and f2 respectively. The
3
3

correct relation between the focal lengths is:

19.
Sol.

(1) f2 f and f1 becomes negative

(2) f1 and f2 both become negative

(3) f1 f2 f

(4) f1 f and f2 becomes negative

4
Using, Lens maker formula,

1 2 1
1
1
f 1 R1 R2
1 3 1
1
We get,
1
f 2 R1 R2
1 3 3 1
1
and

1
f1 2 4 R1 R2

(1)

(2)

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JEE MAINS2014 (Code: H)10

1 3 3 1
1

1
f 2 2 5 R1 R2
from (1) & (2), f1 4 f
and

from (1) & (3),


*20.

(3)

f 2 5 f

Three rods of Copper, Brass and Steel are welded together to form a Y - shaped structure. Area of
2

20.
Sol.

21.

21.
Sol.

cross - section of each rod =4 cm . End of copper rod is maintained at 100C where as ends of brass
and steel are kept at 0C. Lengths of the copper, brass and steel rods are 46, 13 and 12 cms
respectively. The rods are thermally insulated from surroundings except at ends. Thermal
conductivities of copper, brass and steel are 0.92, 0.26 and 0.12 CGS units respectively. Rate of
heat flow through copper rod is:
(1) 4.8 cal / s
(2) 6.0 cal / s
(3) 1.2 cal / s
(4) 2.4 cal / s
1
Let the junction be at 0 C.
Thermal resistance of copper rod, Brass rod and steel rod in cgs units is,
25 25
,
and 25 respectively.
2 2
Brass
steel
L
(Thermal resistance is
)
0C
0C
kA
i2
i3
From diagram, i1 i2 i3
where i represent rate of heat flow
C
100 0 0

25 / 2
25 / 2
25
i1


As i

R thermal
copper

0
40 C
100C
100 100 40
i1

4.8cal/ s
25 / 2
25 / 2
A pipe of length 85 cm is closed from one end. Find the number of possible natural oscillations of air
column in the pipe whose frequencies lie below 1250 Hz. The velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s.
(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 12
(4) 8
1
2n 1
4

2n 1
Speed of sound v f
340
f

f 4

2n 1
340 2n 1

340 2n 1

4
4 0.85
n 0; f1 100 1 100 Hz

100 2n 1

n 1; f2 300 Hz
n 2; f3 500 Hz
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JEE MAINS2014 (Code: H)11

n 3; f4 700 Hz
n 4; f5 900 Hz
n 5; f6 1100 Hz
n 6; f7 1300 Hz 1250Hz
no. of frequencies = 6
*22.

There is a circular tube in a vertical plane. Two liquids which do not mix
and of densities d 1 and d 2 are filled in the tube. Each liquid subtends
90 angle at centre. Radius joining their interface makes an angle
d1
with vertical. Ratio
is:
d2

d2

d1

(1)

1 tan
1 tan

(2)

1 sin
1 cos

(3)

1 sin
1 sin

(4)

1 cos
1 cos

22.
1
Sol. d1 gR (1 sin ) d 2 gR[sin cos ] [1 cos ]d1 gR

1 tan
1 tan

d2

R sin

d2

R cos

d1
R(1sin )

23.

23.
Sol.

R(1cos )

A green light is incident from the water to the airwater interface at the critical angle (). Select the
correct statement
(1) the spectrum of visible light whose frequency is more than that of green light will come out to the
air medium
(2) the entire spectrum of visible light will come out of the water at various angles to the normal
(3) the entire spectrum of visible light will come out of the water at an angle of 90 to the normal
(4) the spectrum of visible light whose frequency is less than that of green light will come out to the
air medium
4

1
C sin 1

As is greater for light with greater frequency, C is less for light with greater frequency
when green light is falling at its critical angle, for all other higher frequency colours angle of
incidence is greater than their respective critical angle.

24.

Hydrogen (1H1), Deuterium(1H2), singly ionised Helium(2He4)+ and doubly ionised lithium (3Li6)++ all
have one electron around the nucleus. Consider an electron transition from n = 2 to n = 1. If the
wave lengths of emitted radiation are 1 , 2 , 3 and 4 respectively then approximately which one
of the following is correct?
(1) 1 2 4 3 9 4

24.

(3) 41 2 2 2 3 4
1

(2) 1 2 2 3 3 4 4
(4) 1 2 2 2 3 4

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JEE MAINS2014 (Code: H)12

Sol.

25.

1
1
1
Rz 2 2 2

n2 n1
1
2 here z is the no. of protons in the nucleus
z
1
1 K
here K is constant
(1)
1
2 K
1
1
3 K
4
1
4 K

1 2 43 9 4
9

25.

The radiation corresponding to 3 2 transition of hydrogen atom falls on a metal surface to produce
photoelectrons. These electrons are made to enter a magnetic field of 3 x 10 4 T. If the radius of the
largest circular path followed by these electrons is 10.0 mm, the work function of the metal is close to
(1) 0.8 eV
(2) 1.6 eV
(3) 1.8 eV
(4) 1.1 eV
4

Sol.

mv
qB

rmax qB
m
1 2
mvmax
2
2
q2 B2
1 rmax
m
in Joules
2
m2
r 2 qB 2
max
in eV
2m

vmax
k max

We know

kmax h
h kmax
2
2
13.6 13.6 rmax qB

in eV

9
2m
4

= 1.889 eV 0.8 eV
= 1.1 eV
*26.

A block of mass m is placed on a surface with a vertical cross section given by y

x3
. If the
6

coefficient of friction is 0.5, the maximum height above the ground at which the block can be placed
without slipping is
(1)
26.

1
m
3

(2)

1
m
2

(3)

1
m
6

(4)

2
m
3

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JEE MAINS2014 (Code: H)13

Sol.

Let p be a point on the surface.


f s mg sin for block to be stationary

fs

P(x,y)

mg sin f L
mg sin mg cos
tan
slope

mg sin

for max y
= slope

dy
dx
1 3x2

2
6

x=1
*27.

x3 1
m
6 6

When a rubber-band is stretched by a distance x, it exerts a restoring force of magnitude F = ax +


bx2 where a and b are constants. The work done in stretching the unstretched rubber-band by L is:
(1)

aL2 bL3

2
3

27.

Sol.

W F dx

(2)

1 aL2 bL3

2 2
3

(3) aL bL

(4)

1
aL2 bL2
2

L
2

( ax bx ) dx
0

*28.

x2
x3
a b
3 0
2

aL2 bL3

2
3

On heating water, bubbles being formed at the bottom of the vessel


detatch and rise. Take the bubbles to be spheres of radius R and
making a circular contact of radius r with the bottom of the vessel. If r
<< R, and the surface tension of water is T, value of r just before

bubbles detatch is: (density of water is w )


2r

(1) R2

w g
T

(2) R2

3 w g
T

(3) R2

w g
3T

(4) R2

w g
6T

28.

Bonus

29.

Two beams, A and B, of plane polarized light with mutually perpendicular planes of polarization are
seen through a polaroid. From the position when the beam A has maximum intensity (and beam 13
has zero intensity), a rotation of polaroid through 300 makes the two beams appear equally bright. If
the initial intensities of the two beams are IA and IB respectively, then
(1) 1

(2)

1
3

(3) 3

IA
equals:
IB

(4)

3
2

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JEE MAINS2014 (Code: H)14

29.
Sol.

2
At beginning
Axis of the
polaroid
IA
IB

When polaroid is rotated through 30,

I A ' I A cos 2 30
I B ' I B cos 2 60
as

IA ' IB '

I A cos 2 30 I B cos 2 60
I A cos 2 60 1

I B cos 2 30 3
30.

Assume that an electric field E 30 x 2 i exists in space. Then the potential difference VA VO ,

where VO is the potential at the origin and VA the potential at x = 2m is:


30.

(1) 80 J
1

(2) 80 J

Sol.


VA V0 E dr

(3) 120 J

(4) 120 J

0
2

x3
30x dx 30 x dx 30 = 80 V
3 0
0
0

PART B: MATHEMATICS
31.

31.
Sol.

x 1 y 3 z 4
in the plane 2x y + z + 3 = 0 is the line:

3
1
5
x3 y5 z2
x3 y5 z2
(1)
(2)

3
1
5
3
1
5
x3 y5 z2
x3 y5 z2
(3)
(4)

3
1
5
3
1
5
1
Line is parallel to 2x y + z + 3 = 0
(1, 3, 4)
Let (h, k, ) is Image of point (1, 3, 4) w.r.t plane
2x y + z + 3 = 0
h 1 k 3 4 2 2 3 4 3
= 2

2
1
1
4 1 1
h 1 = 4
h = 3
k=2+3
k=5
= 2 + 4
=2

The image of the line

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x3 y5 z2

3
1
5

Equation of image line is


32.

32.
Sol.

33.

33.
Sol.

34.
34.
Sol.

If a b b c c a a
(1) 2
(2) 3
4


a b b c c a a b



= a b b c a c c c


= a b c a b c a b

Sol.

2
b c , then is equal to
(3) 0

18

2
c


c a c

k=1

The variance of first 50 even natural numbers is


833
(1)
(2) 833
(3) 437
4
2
2 4 6 100
Mean = x
50
2 1 2 3 50
50 51
=
=x
51
50
50
Variance = 2

(4) 1

b c c a


ab a b b

35.

If a R and the equation 3 (x [x]) 2 + 2 (x [x]) + a2 = 0


(where [x] denotes the greatest integer x) has no integral solution, then all possible values of a lie
in the interval:
(1) (1, 0) (0, 1)
(2) (1, 2)
(3) (2, 1)
(4) (, 2) (2, )
1
a2 = 3 {x}2 2 {x}
3 {x}2 2 {x} > 0
{x} (3 {x} 2) > 0
{x} < 0 (or) {x} > 2/3
{x} < 0 is not possible {x} (2/3, 1)
4
2

2
a 3 2 ,3(1)2 2(1)
9
3

(0, 1)
a (1, 0) (0, 1)

35.

If the coefficients of x and x in the expansion of (1 + ax + bx ) (1 2x) in powers of x are both


zero, then (a, b) is equal to
251
251
272
272

(1) 16,
(2) 14,
(3) 14,
(4) 16,
3
3
3
3

4
3
18
18
18
Coefficient of x = 4a. C 2 2b. C1 8 . C3 = 0
4
18
18
Coefficient of x = 16. C 4 8a. C3 + 4b 18C2 = 0
51a 3b = 544
...... (1)
240 32a + 3b = 0 ...... (2)
272
a = 16; b =
3

(4)

437
4

xi2
x2
n

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JEE MAINS2014 (Code: H)16

4 12 22 3 2 50 2
22 42 6 2 1002
2
2
51
51
50
50
= 3434 2601 = 833

36.

A bird is sitting on the top of a vertical pole 20m high and its elevation from a point O on the ground
is 45. It flies off horizontally straight away from the point O. After one second, the elevation of the
bird from O is reduced to 30. Then the speed (in m/s) of the bird is
(1) 40

36.

Sol.

tan 30 =
d = 20

speed =

2 1

(2) 40

20
d 20

3 2

(3) 20 2

(4) 20

(3) 4 3 4

(4) 4 3 4

3 1

d + 20 = 20 3

3 1 mts

dis tance
20
time

3 1 mts

20
30

20

45

37.

The integral

x
x
4 sin dx equals
2
2

1 4 sin2

(1) 4
37.

Sol.

2
44 3
3

2 sin

x
1 0
2


for x 0,
3

2 sin

x
1 0
2


for x ,
3

/3

/3

= 2 2cos x
2

4cos x
2

/ 3


3
4 3
= 4
4

2 3
2
3

38.
Sol.

2 sin 2 1 dx 2sin 2 1 dx
0

38.

x
x

2sin 2 1 dx 2 sin 2 1 dx

/ 3

(2)

4 3

4
3

The statement ~(p ~q) is


(1) equivalent to p q (2) equivalent to ~p q (3) a tautology
1
p
q
~q
p ~q
~(p ~q)
pq
T
T
F
F
T
T
T
F
T
T
F
F
F
T
F
T
F
F
F
F
T
F
T
T

(4) a fallacy

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39.
39.
Sol.

If A is an 3 3 non singular matrix such that AA = AA and B = A A, then BB equals


(1) I + B
(2) I
(3) B1
(4) (B1)
2
|A| 0
Given AAT = ATA
B = A1 AT, BT = A(A1)T
T
1 T
T 1
1
T
T 1
1
T
T 1
BB = (A A ) A(A ) = A (A A) (A ) = A AA (A ) = I

40.

The integral

40.

(1) (x 1) e
2

1 x x e

1
x

+c

dx is equal to
x

1
x

(3) (x + 1) e

41.

Sol.

Min. of z

(4) xe

1
x

1
x

5
2

1
2

(2) lies in the interval (1, 2)


5
2

(4) is strictly greater than

3
5
but less than
2
2

1
1 3
2
2
2 2

(2, 0) 1
2 ,0

If g is the inverse of a function f and f(x) =


(1) 1 + x5

(2) 5x4

(2, 0)

1
, then g(x) is equal to
1 x5
1
(3)
5
1 g(x)

(4) 1 + {g(x)} 5

4
g(x) = f1(x)
fog (x) = x
f(g(x)).g(x) = 1
5
1
g(x) =
1 g x
f (g(x))
3

43.

+c

(3) is strictly greater than

42.
Sol.

1
x

If z is a complex number such that |z| 2, then the minimum value of z


(1) is equal to

42.

x
1 x

1 x x e x dx xe x c

Or put t = xe
41.

1
x

(2) xe

Sol.

1 f(1) 1 f(2)
2

If , 0, and f(n) = + and 1 f(1) 1 f(2) 1 f(3) = K (1 ) (1 ) ( ) , then K is


1 f(2) 1 f(3) 1 f(4)
equal to

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JEE MAINS2014 (Code: H)18

(1)
43.
Sol.

= 1
1 2

Sol.

fk(x) =

(4) 1

0 1 1 = ( ) (1 ) (1 ) .
2

1
k
k
(sin x + cos x)
k
1
1
=
sin4 x cos4 x sin6 x cos6 x
4
6
1
1
=
1 2sin2 x cos2 x 1 3 sin2 x cos2 x
4
6
1 1 2
1
1
32
1
= sin x cos2 x sin2 x cos2 x

4 2
6 2
12
12

45.
Sol.

(3) 1

1
(sin kx + coskx) where x R and k 1. Then f4(x) f6(x) equals
k
1
1
1
(2)
(3)
(4)
3
4
12

1
6

44.

Let fk (x) =
(1)

45.

3
f(1) = + ; f(2) = 2 + 2; f(3) = 3 + 3
3
1 1 2 2
= 1 1 2 2 1 3 3
1 2 2 1 3 3 1 4 4
1

44.

(2)

Let and be the roots of equation px2 + qx + r = 0, p 0. If p, q, r are in A.P and


the value of | | is
61
2 17
(1)
(2)
9
9
4
2
px + qx + r = 0
p0
2q = p + r (p, q, r are in A.P)
q
r
+ = , =
p
p

q
4

r
| | =

q2 4r

p2 p

34
9

(4)

2 13
9

q = 4r; p = 9r

q2 4pr
p2

16r 2 36r 2

81r 2

| | =

(3)

1 1
= 4, then

52r 2
81r 2

2 13
9

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JEE MAINS2014 (Code: H)19

46.

46.
Sol.

47.

47.
Sol.

48.

48.
Sol.

1
1
1
, P(A B) =
and P A , where A stands
6
4
4
for the complement of the event A. Then the events A and B are
(1) mutually exclusive and independent
(2) equally likely but not independent
(3) independent but not equally likely
(4) independent and equally likely
3
1 5
P(A B) = 1
6 6
1
1 3
P(A B) = , P(A) = 1
4
4 4
P(B) = P(A B) P(A) + P(A B)
5 3 1 5 1 53 2 1
P(B) =

6 4 4 6 2
6
6 3
3 1
P(A B) = = P(A) . P(B)
A, B are independent.
4 3
P(A) P(B)
A, B are not equally likely.

Let the population of rabbits surviving at a time t be governed by the differential equation
dp(t) 1
p(t) 200. If p(0) = 100, then p(t) equals
dt
2
(1) 400 300 et/2
(2) 300 200 et/2
(3) 600 500 et/2
(4) 400 300 et/2
1
dp t 1
p t 200
dt
2

49.

If f and g are differentiable functions in [0, 1] satisfying f(0) = 2 = g(1), g(0) = 0 and f(1) = 6, then for
some c ]0, 1[
(1) 2f(c) = g(c)
(2) 2f(c) = 3g(c)
(3) f(c) = g(c)
(4) f(c) = 2g(c)
4
f(0) = 2 = g(1), g(0) = 0, f(1) = 6
from LMVT
f 1 f 0
f(c) =
4
1 0
g 1 g 0 2 0
g(c) =

2
1 0
1 0
f(c) = 2 g(c)

dt

I.F = e 2 e 2
Solution is I.F. p(t) = (I.F)(200) dt
et/2 p(t) = e t/2 (200) dt
et/2 p(t) = 400 et/2 + c
Put t = 0
100 = 400 + c
t/2
t/2
e p(t) = 400 e 300
Multiply with e t/2
p(t) = 400 300 et/2
49.

Let A and B be two events such that P A B

c = 300

Let C be the circle with centre at (1, 1) and radius = 1. If T is the circle, centred at (0, y), passing
through origin and touching the circle C externally, then the radius of T is equal to
1
1
3
3
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
2
2
4
2
4

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JEE MAINS2014 (Code: H)20

Sol.

Centre for C is (1, 1)


Radius is r 1 = 1
Centre for T is (0, y)
Radius r2 = 02 y 2 y
Touch externally distance between centres = r1 + r2
1
1
2
1 y 1 1 y
y=
radius =
4
4

50.

The area of the region described by A = {(x, y): x2 + y2 1 and y2 1 x} is


4
4
2
2
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
2 3
2 3
2 3
2 3
1

Sol.

Area of shaded region = Area of semi circle + 2 1 x dx

50.

(0, 1)

1 x 3 / 2
12
4

=
2
2
2 3
3 / 2
0

(1, 0)

(0, 1)

Let a, b, c and d be nonzero numbers. If the point of intersection of the lines 4ax + 2ay + c = 0 and
5bx + 2by + d = 0 lies in the fourth quadrant and is equidistant from the two axes then
(1) 2bc 3ad = 0
(2) 2bc + 3ad = 0
(3) 3bc 2ad = 0
(4) 3bc + 2ad = 0
3
4ab x + 2ab x + bc = 0
20abx + 10aby + 5bc = 0
5ab x + 2ab y + ad = 0
20abx + 8aby + 4ad = 0

.
abx + bc ad = 0
2aby + 5bc 4ad = 0
bc ad
4ad 5bc
x=
2ab y = 4ad 5bc
y=
ab
2ab
bc ad 4ad 5bc
y = x

2ab
ab
2ad 2bc = 4ad 5bc. 2ad 3bc = 0

51.
51.
Sol.

52.
52.
Sol.

Let PS be the median of the triangle with vertices P(2, 2), Q(6, 1) and R(7, 3). The equation of the
line passing through (1, 1) and parallel to PS is
(1) 4x 7y 11 = 0
(2) 2x + 9y + 7 = 0
(3) 4x + 7y + 3 = 0
(4) 2x 9y 11 = 0
2
P (2, 2)
Equation of line parallel to PS and passing through
(1, 1) is
1 2
y+1=
(x 1)
13
2
2
9(y + 1) = 2 (x 1)
2x + 9y + 7 = 0
Q (6, 1)

53.

lim

x 0

sin cos2 x
x

13
S ,1
2

R (7, 3)

is equal to

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JEE MAINS2014 (Code: H)21

(1)
53.
Sol.

54.

54.
Sol.

55.

55.
Sol.

(2) 1

56.
Sol.

(4)

2
sin 1 sin2 x

lim sin sin x


lim
x 0
x 0
x2
x2
2
sin sin x sin2 x
= lim

=11 =
x 0
sin2 x
x2

If X = {4n 3n 1 : n N} and Y = {9(n 1) : n N}, where N is the set of natural numbers, then X
Y is equal to
(1) N
(2) Y X
(3) X
(4) Y
4
n
X = {(3 + 1) 3n 1}
n
n 0
n
1 n1
n
2
n
3
n
n
X = { C0 1 3 + C1 3 1
+ C2 3 + C 3 3 + ...... + Cn 3 }
n
n
n
n
n
X = 9 { C2 + C3 3 + C n 3 + ..... + 3 }
Y = {9 (n 1) : n N} X Y
XY=Y
The locus of the foot of perpendicular drawn from the centre of the ellipse x2 + 3y2 = 6 on any
tangent to it is
2
2 2
2
2
2
2 2
2
2
(1) (x y ) = 6x + 2y
(2) (x y ) = 6x 2y
2
2 2
2
2
2
2 2
2
2
(3) (x + y ) = 6x + 2y
(4) (x + y ) = 6x 2y
3
x2 y2
=1

6
2
x cos y sin
Tangent equation is

=1
a
b
x cos y sin

=1
...... (1)
6
2
Suppose (h, k) is foot
h
Tangent slope is
k
h
Equation is y k =
(x h)
k
Ky k 2 = hx + h2
hx + ky = h2 + k 2
...... (2)
(1) and (2) represents same
cos sin
1

2
2
6h
2k h k
cos2 + sin2 = 1

56.

(3)

6x 2 2y 2

2 2

(x2 + y2)2 = 6x2 + 2y2

Three positive numbers form an increasing G.P. If the middle term in this G.P. is doubled, the new
numbers are in A.P. Then the common ratio of the G.P is
(1) 2 3
(2) 3 2
(3) 2 3
(4) 2 3
4
a, ar, ar2 ..... G.P
a, 2ar, ar2
2
a + ar = 4ar
4 16 4
r2 4r + 1 = 0
r=
2

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JEE MAINS2014 (Code: H)22

42 3
2

r=
57.

57.
Sol.

58.

r = 2 3
1

If (10) + 2(11) (10) + 3(11) (10) + ...... + 10(11) = k(10) , then k is equal to
121
441
(1)
(2)
(3) 100
(4) 110
10
100
3
S = (10)9 + 2(11)1 (10)8 + 3 (11)2 (10)7 + ...... + 10 (11)9
11S
8
2
7
10
= 11 (10) + 2(11) (10) + ...... + (11)
10
11S
9
8
2
7
10
1 10 = ((10) + (11) (10) + (11) (10) + ......) 11

11 10

1
9 10

10
= 10
11
11

1
10

S
= 1010
S = 100 109
10
The angle between the lines whose directions cosines satisfy the equations + m + n = 0 and
2 = m 2 + n2 is
(1)

58.
Sol.

1
= (m + n)
(m + n)2 = m 2 + n2
mn = 0
Case 1:
m=0
= n

1 1

m n

1 0 1
Case 2:
n=0

= m

m n

1 1 0
1 0 0
cos =
2 2

59.

59.

(2)

(3)

(4)

m = 0.n
m n

0 1

n = 0.m
n m

0 1

cos =

1
2

The slope of the line touching both the parabolas y2 = 4x and x2 = 32y is
1
3
1
2
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
2
2
8
3
1

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JEE MAINS2014 (Code: H)23

a
1
y = mx +
sub in 2nd parabola
m
m
1

x2 = 32 mx
m

32
2
x + 32 [mx] +
=0 =0
m
32
2
2
(32) m 4(1)
=0
m
1
1
3
m =
m =
8
2

Sol.

y = mx +

60.

If x = 1 and x = 2 are extreme points of f(x) = log |x| + x2 + x, then


1
1
1
(1) = 6, =
(2) = 6, =
(3) = 2, =
2
2
2
3

f(x) = 2x 1
x
f(1) = 0 and
f(2) = 0

2 + 1 = 0
4 1 0
2
+ 2 1 = 0
+ 8 + 2 = 0
+ 8 + 2 = 0
1
6 3 = 0
=
2
1
+ 2 1 = 0
=2
2

60.
Sol.

(4) = 2, =

1
2

PART C: CHEMISTRY
*61.

61.
Sol.
*62.

62.
Sol.

Which one of the following properties is not shown by NO ?


(1) It combines with oxygen to form nitrogen dioxide
(2) Its bond order is 2.5
(3) it is diamagnetic in gaseous state
(4) It is a neutral oxide
3
NO exists as monomer in gaseous state
In monomeric state NO is paramagnetic
If Z is a compressibility factor, van der Waals equation at low pressure can be written as :
Pb
Pb
RT
a
(1) Z 1
(2) Z 1
(3) Z 1
(4) Z 1
RT
RT
Pb
VRT
4
At low pressure Z < 1
Vanderwaals equation

a
P 2 V b RT
V

at low pressure V is high then b can be neglected


then equation becomes

a
P 2 V RT
V

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JEE MAINS2014 (Code: H)24

a
RT
V
PV
a

1
RT VRT
a
Z 1
VRT

PV

63.
63.
Sol.

64.

64.
Sol.

The metal that cannot be obtained by electrolysis of an aqueous solution of its salts is :
(1) Cu
(2) Cr
(3) Ag
(4) Ca
4
More active metal like Ca which is above H in electrochemical series cant be obtained by the
electrolysis of aqueous solutions of its salt.
Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is 50 . The specific conductance of the solution is 1.4
1
S m . The resistance of 0.5 M solution of the same electrolyte is 280 . The molar conductivity of
0.5M solution of the electrolyte in S m 2 mol1 is:
(1) 5 x 103
(2) 5 x 102
(3) 5 x 104
(4) 5 x 103
3

1
KC =
a Ra
1
1.4
50 a

70
a
For 0.5 M solution
1
K=
70
280
1
= 0.25 sm

0.25 10

K 10 3 m2

M
4
= 5 x 10 .

65.

0.5

65.

CsCl crystallizes in body centred cubic lattice. If a is its edge length then which of the following
expressions is correct ?
3
(1) r r
(2) rCs rCl 3a
a
Cs
Cl
2
3a
(3) rCs rCl 3a
(4) r r
Cs
Cl
2
1

Sol.

For BCC

rCs rCl

66.

3 a 2 rCs rCl

3a
2

Consider separate solutions of 0.500 M C2H5OH aq , 0.100 M Mg 3(PO4)2(aq), 0.250 M KBr(aq) and
0.125 M Na3PO4(aq) at 25C. Which statement is true about these solutions, assuming all salts to be
strong electrolytes ?
(1) 0.125 M Na3PO4(aq) has the highest osmotic pressure
(2) 0.500 M C2H5OH(aq) has the highest osmotic pressure
(3) They all have the same osmotic pressure
(4) 0.100 M Mg3(PO4)2(aq) has the highest osmotic pressure.
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JEE MAINS2014 (Code: H)25

66.
Sol.

*67.

3
i CST
C2H5OH
i=1
= 1 x 0.5 ST
Mg3(PO4)2
i=5
= 5 x 0.1 ST
KBr
i=2
= 2 x 0.25 ST
Na3PO4
i=4
= 4 x 0.125 ST
All the electrolytes have same osmotic pressure

= 0.5 ST
= 0.5 ST
= 0.5 ST
= 0.5 ST

In which of the following reactions H2O2 acts as a reducing agent ?


(a) H2O2 2H 2e 2H2O

(b) H2O2 2e O2 2H

67.
Sol.

(c) H2O2 2e 2OH


(d) H2O2 2OH 2e O2 2H2O
(1) (a), (c)
(2) (b), (d)
(3) (a), (b)
(4) (c), (d)
2
H2O2 is acting as reducing agent means it is undergoing oxidation
i.e., losing electrons
+

H2O2 O2+ 2H + 2e

H2O2 + 2OH O2 + 2H2O + 2e

68.

In SN2 reactions, the correct order of reactivity for the following compounds : CH3Cl, CH3CH2Cl,

68.
Sol.

(CH3) 2CHCl and (CH 3)3CCl is :


(1) CH 3CH 2Cl > CH3Cl > (CH 3)2CHCl > (CH3)3CCl
(2) (CH3)2CHCl > CH3CH2Cl > CH3Cl > (CH3)3CCl
(3) CH 3Cl > (CH3)2CHCl > CH3CH2Cl > (CH3)3CCl
(4) CH 3Cl > CH3CH2Cl > (CH 3)2CHCl > (CH3)3CCl
4
In SN2 nucleophile attacks the reactant from bask side, and nucleophile can easily attack the
reactant when it is less sterically crowded. With increase in steric hindrance rate of SN2 reaction
decreases.
CH3Cl > CH3CH2Cl > (CH3)2CHCl > (CH3)3CCl

69.

69.
Sol.

3+

The octahedral complex of a metal ion M with four monodentate ligands L 1, L 2, L3 and L4 absorb
wavelengths in the region of red, green, yellow and blue, respectively. The increasing order of ligand
strength of the four ligands is :
(1) L3 < L2 < L4 < L 1
(2) L1 < L2 < L4 < L 3
(3) L4 <L 3 < L2 < L1
(4) L1 < L3 < L2 < L 4
4
VIBGYOR
Increasing order of decreasing order of energy
L1

Red

L2
L3
L4

Green Yellow Blue

High energy is Blue


Energy order is Blue > Green > Yellow > Red
L4 requires more energy so L4 becomes strong field ligand in the same way the order is
L4 > L2 > L 3 > L1
*70.

For the estimation of nitrogen, 1.4g of an organic compound was digested by Kjeldahl method and
M
the evolved ammonia was absorbed in 60 mL of
Sulphuric acid. The unreacted acid required 20
10
M
mL of
sodium hydroxide for complete neutralization. The percentage of nitrogen in the
10
compound is :

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JEE MAINS2014 (Code: H)26

70.
Sol.

(1) 3%
(2) 5%
(3) 6%
4
N = M Basicity
No. of milli equivalents of H2SO4 reacted
M
= 60
2 12 m. equivalents
10
Un reacted H2SO4
= m.eq. of NaOH
1
= 20
2m. equivalents
10
Then no. of m. equivalents of NH 3 evolved
= 10 m. equivalents
1000 m. equivalents

14gm of N

(4) 10%

14
0.14gm of N
100
1.4 gm of organic compound has 0.14 gm of N
0.14 100
Then 100gm of O.C has
=
1.4
14
=
10%
1.4
10% of N.

10 m. equivalents

71.

71.
Sol.

The equivalent conductance of NaCl at concentration C and at infinite dilution are C and ,
respectively. The correct relationship between C and is given as :
(where the constant B is positive)
(1) C B C
(2) C B C
(3) C B C
(4) C B C
1
As concentration decreases (with increase in dilution) the equivalent conductivity increases due to
increased mobility of ions. This can be explained by DebyeHuckelonsager equation
C B C

*72.

72.
Sol.

1
x

For the reaction SO2 g O2 g


SO3 g , if KP = KC(RT) where the symbols have usual
2
meaning then the value of x is : (assuming ideality)
1
1
(1)
(2) 1
(3) 1
(4)
2
2
4
n

Kp K c RT
n = ng.p ng.r
for SO2 g

O2 g
SO3 g
2

; n

1
2

x = 1/2

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JEE MAINS2014 (Code: H)27

PCl

LiAlH

Alc.KOH

73.

5
4
In the reaction, CH3COOH
A
B
C, the product C is :
(1) Ethylene
(2) Acetyl chloride
(3) Acetaldehyde
(4) Acetylene
1

Sol.

5
4
CH3COOH
H3 C CH2OH
CH3 CH2Cl H2C CH2

74.

Sodium phenoxide when heated with CO2 under pressure at 125C yields a product which on
acetylation produces C.

73.

PCl

LiAlH

ONa
CO2

125

AlC
KOH

5 Atm

Ac2O

The major product C would be :


OH
(1)

O COCH3

(2)

COOCH3

COOH

OH

O COCH3
(3)

COCH3

(4)

COOH

COCH3
74.
Sol.

O
O Na
ONa
CO2

O
COO Na

1250

5 Atm

CH3
COOH

AC 2O
B

Acetyl
Salicylic acid
(Aspirin)
C

75.
75.
Sol.

On heating an aliphatic primary amine with chloroform and ethanolic potassium hydroxide, the
organic compound formed is :
(1) an alkyl cyanide
(2) an alkyl isocyanide (3) an alkanol
(4) an alkanediol
2

RNH2 + CHCl3 + 3KOH

3KCl

3H2O

(alkyl isocyanide)
This is carbyl amine reaction and is used in identification of primary amines.

*76.

The correct statement for the molecule, CsI3, is :

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JEE MAINS2014 (Code: H)28

(1) It contains Cs3+ and I ions.

(2) It contains Cs+, I and lattice I2 molecule.


(4) It contains Cs+ and I3 ions.

76.

(3) It is a covalent molecule.


4

Sol.

CsI3 is an ionic compound and contains Cs+ and I3 ions.

77.

The equation which is balanced and represents the correct product(s) is :


(1) Mg H2O 6

EDTA

excess NaOH

Mg EDTA

6H2O

(2) CuSO 4 4KCN K 2 Cu CN4 K 2SO4


(3) Li2O 2KCl 2LiCl K 2O

77.
Sol.

(4) CoCl NH3 5H Co2 5NH4 Cl


5

4
In general CrII and Co II complexes are substitutionally labile whereas CrIII and CoIII are
substitutionally inert (II). In acidic medium pentammine chlorido cobalt(II) ion dissociates as follows.

Co NH3 Cl 5H CO 2 5 N H4 Cl
5

*78.

For which of the following molecule significant 0 ?


Cl

CN

(a)

(b)
CN

Cl
OH

SH

(c)

(d)

SH

OH

78.
Sol.

(1) Only (c)


2

(2) (c) and (d)

(3) Only (a)

N
Cl

For

H
O

H
S

and

Cl

N
net 0
net 0
as 'CN' is linear net bond
moments cancel

79.

(4) (a) and (b)

O
H
net 0

S
H
net 0

For the nonstoichiometric reaction 2A + B C + D, the following kinetic data were obtained in
three separate experiments, all at 298 K.
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JEE MAINS2014 (Code: H)29

Initial concentration
(A)

79.

0.1 M
0.1 M
0.1 M
0.2 M
0.2 M
0.1 M
The rate law for the formation of C is :
dc
2
(1)
k A B
dt
dc
(3)
k A B
dt
2

Sol.

Rate (r) = K A B

Initial rate of
formation of C
(mol LS )
1.2 x 103
3
1.2 x 10
2.4 x 103

Initial concentration
(B)

dc
k A
dt
dc
2
(4)
k A B
dt

(2)

r1 K 0.1 0.1
1.2 103

r2 K 0.1 x 0.2 y 1.2 103


from (1) and (2)


y

1
1
2

Y=0
x

K 0.1 0.1
r
1.2 10 3
from (1) and (3) 1
r3 K 0.2 x 0.1 y 2.4 10 3

y

1
1
2 2

Y=1

Rate equation is
80.

dc
K A
dt

Which series of reactions correctly represents chemical relations related to iron and its compound ?
Cl ,heat

heat, air

Zn

2
(1) Fe

FeCl3
FeCl2
Fe

CO,6000 C

O ,heat

CO,7000 C

2
(2) Fe

Fe3O4
FeO
Fe

dil H SO

H SO ,O

heat

2
4
2
4 2
(3) Fe
FeSO4
Fe2 SO4 3 Fe

O ,heat

dil H SO

80.

heat
2
2
4
(4) Fe
FeO
FeSO4 Fe
2

Sol.

3Fe 2O2 Fe3 O4

Fe3 O4 CO
0 3FeO CO2
600 C

FeO CO
0 Fe CO2
700 C

*81.
81.
Sol.

Considering the basic strength of amines in aqueous solution, which one has the smallest pKb value
?
(1) (CH3)3N
(2) C6H5NH2
(3) (CH3)2NH
(4) CH 3NH 2
3
In polar protic solvent the basic nature of methyl amines is in the order
CH3 2 NH CH3 NH2 CH3 3 N
and C6H 5NH2 is least basic as lone pair on nitrogen atom is delocalized.
So overall (CH 3)2NH is more basic.

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JEE MAINS2014 (Code: H)30

82.
82.
Sol.

Which one of the following bases is not present in DNA ?


(1) Cytosine
(2) Thymine
(3) Quinoline
3
In DNA the bases present are
Adenine (A)
Guanine (G)
NH2
N

(1)

C
C

(2)

HC
N

H
Cytosine(C)
NH2

(3)

CH3

HC

(4)

*84.
84.
Sol.

NH2

NH
C
N

The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electrons of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is :
1
1
1
1
(1) 5, 1, 1, +
(2) 5, 0, 1, +
(3) 5, 0, 0, +
(4) 5, 1, 0, +
2
2
2
2
3
The valency electron of rubidium is present in 5s so the set of four quantum numbers are
1
n = 5, l = 0, m = 0, s = +
2
The major organic compound formed by the reaction of 1, 1, 1 trichloroethane with silver powder is :
(1) 2Butyne
(2) 2 Butene
(3) Acetylene
(4) Ethene
1
Cl
CH3 C

Cl
Cl

6Ag

Cl

Cl

85.

C
N

83.
Sol.

*83.

NH

H
Thymine (T)
O

C
HC

O
C

N
H

(4) Adenine

CH3

Cl

CH3 C

CH3

6AgCl

2-Butyne

Given below are the half cell reactions :


Mn2 2e Mn ; E0 1.18V

2 Mn3 e Mn2 ; E0 1.51V


2

85.
Sol.

The E for 3Mn Mn 2Mn3 will be :


(1) 0.33 V ; the reaction will not occur
(2) 0.33 V; the reaction will occur
(3) 2.69 V ; the reaction will not occur
(4) 2.69 V; the reaction will occur
3
Given Mn2+ + 2e Mn
E = 1.18 V
(1)
3+

2+
Given 2Mn + 2e 2Mn
E = + 1.51 V (2)
So 2Mn2+ 2Mn3+ + 2e
E = 1.5 V
(3)
The required equation is the cell reaction occurring when (1) is taken as cathode and (2) as anode.
3Mn2 Mn 2Mn3
As E is ve, G is positive.

E = 2.69 V

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JEE MAINS2014 (Code: H)31

The reaction is non spontaneous.


*86.

86.
Sol.

87.
87.
Sol.

The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen in a particular gaseous mixture is 1 : 4. The ratio of
number of their molecule is :
(1) 1 : 8
(2) 3 : 16
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 7 : 32
4
The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen is 1 : 4
1 4
The ratio of no. of moles of oxygen and nitrogen is
:
32 28
= 7 : 32
Which one is classified as a condensation polymer ?
(1) Teflon
(2) Acrylonitrile
(3) Dacron
3
Dacron is a condensation polymer.

(4) Neoprene

O
n CH 2OH

CH2 OH

n HOOC

COOH

OCH 2 CH 2O C

O
CO

Ethylene glycol
Dacron

88.
88.
Sol.

89.

89.
Sol.

90.
90.
Sol.

Among the following oxoacids, the correct decreasing order of acid strength is :
(1) HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HOCl
(2) HClO2 > HClO4 > HClO3 > HOCl
(3) HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4
(4) HClO4 > HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3
1
Among oxy acids of chlorine as the oxidation state increases the acidic character increases.
So the acidic strength is in the order
HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HOCl
For complete combustion of ethanol, C2H5OH(l) + 3O2(g) 2CO2(g) + 3H 2O(l), the amount of heat
1
produced as measured in bomb calorimeter, is 1364.47 kJ mol at 25C. Assuming ideality the
Enthalpy of combustion, CH, for the reaction will be :
(R = 8.314 kJ mol1)
(1) 1460.50 kJ mol1
(2) 1350.50 kJ mol1
1
1
(3) 1366.95 kJ mol
(4) 1361.95 kJ mol
3
In bomb calorimeter the volume is constant so the heat produced is
E = 1364.47 kJ/mole.
H = ?
n for the given reaction is 1
H = E + n RT
= 1364.47 + (1) (8.314 x 103) (298)
= 1366.95 kJ/mole
The most suitable reagent for the conversion of R CH2 OH R CHO is :
(1) CrO3
(2) PCC (Pyridinium Chlorochromate)
(3) KMnO4
(4) K2Cr2O7
2
The conversion
RCH2OH RCHO is possible with PCC, as it is a mild oxidising agent
But the remaining reagents CrO3, KMnO4, K2Cr 2O7 will convert RCH2OH to RCOOH

***

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JEE MAINS2014 (Code: H)32

JEE (MAINS)2014 CODE H

KEY
PHYSICS
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

Bonus

29.

30.

MATHEMATICS
31.
1

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

CHEMISTRY

FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. 5-9-14/B, Saifabad, (Opp. Secretariat) Hyderabad. 500 063. Phone: 040-66777000 03 Fax: 040-66777004

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