Escolar Documentos
Profissional Documentos
Cultura Documentos
Question Bank
of
Agricultural
Engineering
By
Human beings are the main source of power for operating small tools and
implements.
2.
3.
There is a steady decline in the number of landless laborers available for doing
The indications are that the decline in number of labor employed in agriculture
is likely to increase in future resulting a greater involvement in labor saving
devices and mechanical power.
6.
over
the
world
and
Among the cattle the bullocks and buffaloes happen to be the principal source
of animal power on Indian farms.
8.
The utilization of animals for draft purpose as well as the power developed by
them depends mainly as to how they are tamed, trained and harnessed.
9.
The third important source of farm power is mechanical power that is available
The oil engine is highly efficient device for converting fuel into mechanical
power.
11.
Now a days electricity has become a very important source of power on the
14. The use of electric power in dairy industry, cold storage, fruit processing and
cattle feed grinding has tremendously increased.
15.
Even today in India wind power has not been fully harnessed because of the
most
16.
and
power
tiller
is
the
best
source
of
power
for any traction job and with cage wheel it can be used for puddling also.
19. All kinds of stationary works can be performed by tractor and power tiller
whereas bullocks have limited use for such works.
20.
whereas bullocks are also used for short and medium distant transport work.
21. In case of tractor and power tiller the cost per horse power is low
but
over
in
the
27. Tractor and power tiller do not consume any fuel or lubricant while not in use
but bullock need care feed and fodder even during idle period.
28. Output of tractor and power tiller is very high and are suitable for timely
operations where as bullocks give low output.
29. It is quite true that the Indian farmers have the lowest earnings per capita
because of
the low yield per hectare they get from their holdings.
32. Mechanization can also be done by using large size tractors and machines on
the remaining holdings.
33. Many people are of the opinion that Indian agriculture can not be fully
mechanized.
34. It is felt that only improved animal drawn implements should be introduced for
agricultural operations.
35.
There are enough draft animals available in the country to do the farm work
efficiently.
36.
The size of farm holdings of the majority of Indian farmers is too small to
justify the
37.
The investing capacity of the farmers is too poor to buy a tractor and tractor
drawn implements
.
38.
In the absence of suitable farm roads system the tractor and the tractor drawn
machines cannot be effectively utilized under the present conditions.
39.
40.
related
country.
41.
As a result of higher rates daily wages in the nearby centers, the agriculture
labor seeks employment there.
42. There is gradual movement of village population to the cities and industrial
towns.
43.
Mechanization will not bring any unbalance in the present pattern of village life.
43. One of the major handicaps in mechanization of Indian agriculture is the low-I
investing capacity of farmers to buy machines.
44. The manufacturers can also encourage the farmers to buy machines on easy
installments basis.
45. The effective mechanizationcontributes to increase production in two major
ways, firstly the timeliness of operation and secondly the quality of work.
46. It is quite obvious that the number of operations required to raise a particular
crop is comparatively reduced when tractor drawn machines are employed.
47. By using mechanical power, man will be able to control large area and as such his
family members will get more free time.
48. According to Giles the inadequacy of mechanical power is the main problem that
Indian agriculture is facing today.
49. The first alternative for providing mechanical power on small farms for field
operations could he common for wheel tractors on cooperative basis.
50. The second alternative could be the organization of custom service of tractor
operation through agro-service centers set up by the agro industries and private
entrepreneurs.
51. Farmers particularly in rice growing areas are gradually accepting the power
5
tiller as a source of power on their farms since the machines are better suited for
rice growing puddling operations.
52. There
is a very great
scope
for
further
increase
in
availability
farm tractors and power tillers which will give high yield in return.
5 3 . Availability of proper agency for manufacturing of machine components like
plow shares, cultivating shovels and discs is no longer a difficulty for these
category equipments.
54.
In
the
rice
growing
areas,
tractor
and
animal
operated
puddler
have been developed and are being manufactured by few agencies in the
country.
55.
Power tiller attached with rotary tillers have been used quite satisfactorily
for puddling operations.
56.
Recently the work in the field of seeding and planting is being carried out to
develop multicrop machines to cut down the investment at the farmer's level.
57. After attaining self sufficiency in wheat production in the country emphasis is
now being placed on rice production as it is the staple food of a large number
of people in India.
58. Transplanting of paddy seedlings is very time consuming process which has
been a bottle neck in the implementation of multiple cropping
system in
paddy lands.
59. Irrigation is extremely important in wheat and summer paddy in India because
the monsoon rains fall entirely outside the region in which the crops are grown.
60. Irrigation makes it practical to grow a second crop each year in India during the
season of inadequate rainfall.
61. Harvesting of cereals like wheat and paddy has become critical operation
due to inadequate labor availability.
62. Combines for wheat and paddy crops have been introduced during last few years
in more mechanized states of India.
63. Due to lack of labor for harvesting and threshing crops within short time, the
mechanization of grain harvesting is gaining priority in India.
6
64.
significant
contribution
in
achieving higher rice out turn, pure bran and other by-products.
65. Most people believe that India is burdened with severe surplus land
and there are far too many draft animals for the cultivation of available farm
land.
66. There is a fear that farm mechanization will precipitate wide spread rural
unemployment as agriculture contributes over two thirds of all jobs.
67. India's increased food requirements must be met through increased productivity
of the land from higher yields and more multiple cropping which would require
additional labor for carrying different farm operations.
68. The tractorization does offer the opportunity to reduce number of farm workers
per
hectare.
69. Most of the Indian experts also agree that only careful selective mechanization
adjusted to the existing condition could be justified by the social and economic
conditions.
70. On the machine production utilization front, it may be stated that in long run the
agricultural
machines
and
tractors
market
in
India
would
so
that
82. Design of cylinder heads must provide openings for valve, stroke plugs or
injection nozzles and passage for cooling water.
83. Specific fuel consumption is the quantity of fuel consumed by an oil engine on
the basis of per horse power hour.
84. Thermal efficiency is the ratio of the horse power output of an engine to the fuel
horse power input.
85. Valve and valve operating mechanism admit air and fuel to
the
cylinder
and
91. In a four stroke engine, there is only one power stroke for every two revolutions
of
96. The top of the piston is called crown and lower section the skirt.
97. Two most common types of rings use on a piston are oil control and compression
control rings.
98. Rings are provided with grooves through which excess oil moves inside the
piston and
99. Oil control rings are designed to scrape excess oil from the cylinder walls on its
downward stroke.
100. A connecting rod is attached to the piston at one end and the crank shaft on the
other end.
101. The piston pin is generally hollow and is accurately ground and polished for
tight fit in
piston bosses.
102. Connecting rod transmits the gas pressure to the crank shaft
and makes it to
rotate.
103. The connecting rod of four stroke engine is subjected to both compression and
tension alternately where as in a two stroke engine, it is subjected to compression
only.
104. The small end bearing of the connecting rod is bronze bushing but the big end
bearing into two shells.
105. Engines with pressure lubrication system use drilled passages connecting rod
for forcing oil from the crank pin to the pin
106. Crank shaft is subjected to bending as well as twisting from the connecting rod
thrust.
9
107. In order to relieve loads on the main bearings especially in an engines counter
weights are added the crank shaft.
108. Most of the modern engines are equipped with one piece from the carbon steel or
cast from the chrome-nickel iron.
109. The main function of the crank shaft is to make the engine power available for
the useful work.
110. To ensure a good support, the crank shaft is placed between each pair of
cylinders.
111. The crank shaft is generally located at the upper crank case level and is driven
from the,crank shaft by means of positive drives or chain and sprockets.
112. A positive drive is essential to obtain a crank shaft exactly half the speed of the
crank
shaft in a four stroke engine.
113. The crank shaft is to operate inlet and exhaust valves, fuel pump, lubricating oil
pump
114. Flywheel absorbs the excess energy during power stroke supplies back part of the
energy during other stroke.
115. Flywheel provides extra energy over and above that developed by the engine
when the engine has to overcome heavy loads.
116. Most engines are provided one inlet and one exhaust valve for each cylinder.
117. The arrangement of the valves on the engine may be either overhead type or Lheadtype.
118. In the overhead arrangement the valve stem is surrounded by a removable
guide and spring holds the valve against its seat.
119. The rotor arm assembly which is operated by a cam shaft through a push rod,
forces the valve open at the desired time.
120. Due to constant use, both inlet and exhaust valves thin sheets are subjected to mechanical
wear.
121. To overcome mechanical wear a separate value seat of high wear resisting
material is inserted.
123. Clearance between rocker arm and valve stem is provided to enable the valves
10
to seat properly.
124. Clearance between rocker arm and valve stem is also known as tappet clearance
and
specifications.
125. Reduction in the pressure is mainly due to leaky valves and can be avoided by
reconditioning the valves properly.
126. Reconditioning of the valves includes valve refacing, valve seat cutting and
resetting of the valve on its seal
127. After the proper cutting and refacing the valve is rotated on its scat in the
presence o valve grinding paste until a continuous line of constant width is formed on
the valve.
128. In most cases it has ban observed that intake valves wear more than exhaust
valves
129. The troubles most often encountered with the exhaust valve are valve burning
and
130. Boon inlet and exhaust valves remain closed during compression stroke and most
of the time in power stroke.
131. The internal combustion engine is the most important part of a tractor and is
only source of power on the tractor.
132. To obtain maximum performance, tractor engine systems must be periodically
serviced and adjusted.
133. The development of efficient air cleaner has been of importance extending the
useful life of farm tractor improving their operation efficiency.
134. The dirtiest the air cleaner becomes lesser the airflow to the engine and thus the
performance of the engine is affected.
135. The air cleaner assembly, the piece connecting and the cleaner constitute the air
intake systems.
136. The oil soaked element type cleaner consists of a container filled with wire
screens saturated with lubricating oil used in the crank case.
137. Light fuel should never be used because they lack sufficient lubricating
11
qualities to keep, the finely finished surfaces of injection pump parts from the
scouring.
138. Diesel fuels are rated according to octane number is the indication of the
ignition quality of the fuel.
139. The cetane number is the percentage of cetane in a
144. Since the vaporizing, mixing and heating of mixture of the ignition
temperature
requires time, more and more fuel is added before the ignition starts.
145. In the powerine tractors the fuel tanks are located above the level of the
carburetor and the fuel flows to the car carburetor by gravity.
146. Between the tank and carburetor there are general three strainers and a fuel
sediments bowl to impurities like sediments and water.
147. The oil bath container is the most common type of air cleaner used on farm
tractors.
148. At least once a year the entire air cleaner system should be thoroughly worked.
149. Whilst refilling the oil cup, ca r e should be taken that the proper oil level is
maintained
in the cup.
150. Most of the precleaners function on the principles of centrifugal actions the
bigger one dust particles being separated out before air is passed on the oil cup.
151. Detonation or engine knocking refers to violent noises heard in an engine
during the process of combustion alter the piston has passed over the top dead center.
152. When a full charge knocks, power and economy are sacrificed and engine
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powerine tank.
155. Powerine being less volatile does not vaporize well and so can not be used for
starting tractor engine.
156. Overflowing of a carburetor is due to improper starting of the float needle value.
157. The light diesel fuel weighs heavier per liter and is the main source of fuel for
slow speed cold starting engine.
158. The carburetor is a mixing valve which measures the correct amount of liquid
fuel, atomizes it with air entering the cylinders.
159. Careless handling will result in breaking the gasket which will ultimately give
leaky
joints.
160. The air pressure in the throat is less than the pressure surrounding air because
of the
increased velocity.
161. A sample carburetor which does not employ compensating devices fails to meet
the variable speed and load requirements of the throat engine.
162. Compensating carburetors are used for automatically regulating amount of
fuel and air to provide correct mixture at varying loads and speeds.
163. As the friction on the main jet increases causing a mixture, the air bleed
compensates
164. Before adjusting a carburetor, newly serviced spark plugs are installed and
then the
165. First the idling jet screw is turned in completely and then slowly turned out till
the engine runs smoothly and does not stall.
167. Undraft carburetor are prepared because of the peculiar location of the
carburetor with respect to full tank and the engine.
168. In diesel system, the fuel is gravity fed from the fuel tank through strainers to
the fuel supply pump.
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169. In most tractors, diesel fuel system is also equipped with hand operated priming
pump
.
170. The position of the helix in relation to the inlet bypass ports in the pump barrel
determines the amount of the fuel discharge per stroke
171. When the plunger is at the bottom of the stroke, both inlet and bypass ports are
open, allowing fuel to f ill the space above the plunger.
172. Fuel from the pump is delivered to the nozzle on cylinder head which converts
the high
173. The opening and closing of the nozzle is done by the high pressure developed by
the fuel injection pump.
174. When the fuel spray has to cover a large area in a wide shallow chamber,
multiple hole nozzle are preferred.
175. The governor is a mechanical device used on a tractor or stationary engine for
maintaining constant engine speed under varying loads.
176. Governor weights may be either mounted on the engine crankshaft or on a shaft
positively driven by crank shaft.
177. As the engine speed increases, centrifugal weights fly apart and operate the
butter fly valve of the carburetor
.
178. The correct engine speed is set at the factory and the governor is sealed before
the
179. Before timing the ignition, it should be checked whether distributor points are
burnt, pitted or dirty.
14
180. The ignition coil is a pulse transformer that transforms or steps up the low
battery
generator voltage the high voltage, necessary to jump the gaps at spark
plugs.
181. The ignition coil is sealed to prevent entry of moisture which would cause
short
.
182. Generator is equipped with a voltage regulator, which automatically varies the
rate of generator charge.
cut
out,
which
disconnects the voltage from the battery whenever the engine is running too slow.
184. For efficient operation, the generator bearings should be lubricated and the
belt tension adjusted.
185. If the generator commutator becomes dirty or slightly grooved, it can be
cleaned and
186. Most of the diesel starting motors are equipped with an over running clutch
which is designed to provide positive meshing and demeshing
pinion and flywheel
of
the
drive
ring gear.
187. Positive plates are made of lead and antimony where as spongy lead is used
for negative plates
.
188. I f corrosion forms on the terminals, it should be cleaned off with a stiff brush
and by applying a solution of water and bicarbonate of soda.
189. Do not smoke near the batteries being charged not break line circuits at the
terminals of batteries.
190. In spite of the fact that the engine governor is used for maintaining a constant
speed there is some variation observed in the speed of the engine at no load
15
192. Pneumatic governor is a simple device used on both carburetor engines to control
thequantity of the fuel-air mixture or fuel depending upon the requirements of the diesel
engine at different loads.
193. When the accelerator pedal is fully depressed the venture valve gets fully opened
causing only a slight vacuum in the vacuum compartment.
194. In a diesel engine, the fuel ignites when it is sprayed into the cylinder when
contains highly compressed hot air.
195. Distributor is a rotating switch driven by the engine through gearing at half the
engine speed.
196. The distributor directs the high voltage surge through distributor rotor, cap and
high tension wiring to the spark plug which is ready to fire
.
198. Distributor opens and closes the low tension circuit
between
the
source
199. As the speed of the engine is increased the spark must be advanced to
allow the
200. The condenser in the distributor is connected across the contact breaker points
and is used to produce a quick collapse of the magnetic field in the coil to obtain
the extremely high voltage.
201. The heat range of spark plug is determined by the distance the heat must
travel from the
lower most tip of the central electrode to the engine block via the
of
202. Hot plugs are used for powerine engine or for engines operated on light loads
most of the time.
203. Each spark plug consists of a threaded outer shell with an outside electrode
insulators and a copper gasket.
204. Spark plugs are made in many thread sizes and the correct size
should be
205. The central electrode is never bent, otherwise the porceline insulator may break.
206. If the spark plugs are found to be oily or wet after being removed, it is usually
due to lubricating oil being pumped up above the piston top.
207. While replacing the plugs on the cylinder they should be sufficiently
tightened to press down the gasket between outer shell and the engine body.
208. The diesel engine is a CI engine, which requires no electrical ignition system.
209. To check the timing on a diesel engine turn it until it is on the compression
stroke for cylinder one.
211. The flywheels of air cooledengines are generally equipped with fan blades to
create the air blast.
212. Normally the air cooled engines run hotter than water cooled engines and
heavier lubricating oil recommended.
17
213. Only source of the old stationary engines are seen with a small water reservoir
placed just above the water jacket as their integral part.
214. The thermosyphon system works on the principle that heated water surrounding
the cylinder gets lighter in weight and rises.
215. A fan located between the radiator and engine, sucks the air through the radiator
tubes
216. The forced circulation cooling system consists of a radiator, fan, fan belt, water
jacket water pump, thermostat., temperature gauge at sufficient hose to complete the
cooling system.
218. To save the radiator tubes from collapsing the vacuum operated disc is pushed
down allowing air to get in.
219. Flexible bellows are fixed under vacuum with alcohol which has a narrow
boiling.
220. Prolonged cranking causes overheating of the electrical circuit and will cause
damage.
221. Electric motor starting system has been very satisfactory and does not involve
any
223. The engine valve mechanism is also lubricated by oil can at regular intervals
224. In forced feed system, the oil is supplied under pressure to ensure adequate oil
flow to all the moving parts.
18
225. In addition to the gear type pumps, vane type oil pumps are also used on some
tractors.
226. All tractor engines are equipped with an oil filter which keeps the oil free from
abrasive materialor any other foreign materials that normally collects in the
crank case.
227. Almost all engine oils available in the market contains detergent as an additive
to keep the fuel, moisture, varnish and other products in suspension.
228. Crank case oil must have minimum formation of hot and cold sludges arising
from fuel and oil decomposition.
229. Containers used for transporting lubricants must be kept clean and stored
under
cover to prevent entry of dust and dirt.
230. The majority of tractor engines designs utilize the principle developed in the
automotive industry.
231. Specific fuel consumption versus load characteristics should be flat enough to
give
low fuel consumption at loads less than full loads.
232. An increase in load applied to a tractor by a hitched implement demands from
the
233. A diesel engine has less reserve of torque but the torque is constantly high at
lower
234. Proper combination of torque speed curve and gear spacing give desirable
drawbar hp versus drawbar characteristics.
235. The tractor is a self propelled machine, used either for pulling or pushing leads
for
236. Almost all the tractors used for earth moving and land clearing operations are of
the crawler type.
237. It is always possible to operate at the highest possible ground speed so that the
drawbar pull requirement is met without excessive fuel consumption.
238. The clutch is a device used to disconnect the tractor engine from its power
trains for changing gear ratios and is known as master clutch.
239. As for as possible the clutch should not he used means of controlling the speed
of the tractor while it is in motion.
240. Transmission systems of modern tractors are mostly of the selective sliding gear
type.
241. Final drive on tractors provides additional gear reduction between the engine
and rear axle
.
242. The p.t.o. shafts get its drive either directly from the engine or from the
transmission or from output shaft.
243. When the engine crank shaft is mounted across the tractor chassis, the pulley is
placed on the crankshaft itself.
244. Traction is achieved by friction and soil reaction between the wheel/or the
tracks and the ground over which tractor moves.
245. Nearly all traction wheel tires are marked with the arrow on the side walls
indicating the direction of travel.
20
246. Before pneumatic tires became popular for traction use tractors were provided
with steel wheels with spade lugs on them.
247. Development of tracks as a ground drive components for tractors was made to
overcome driving difficulties in swampy land.
248. Usually the pump and other parts of the steering system are placed in the rear
axle housing of the tractor.
249. The implement can be raised or lowered from the tract seat simply by operating
the
251. While working the tractor, watch the charging of battery and see that it neither
undercharged nor overcharged.
252. Depreciation is of course, the largest single item in the fixed cost and is referred
to as loss in value with the passing time.
253. The straight line method reduces the value of machine by an equal amount each
year during its useful life.
254. Tractor engine is used as prime mover for active tools a stationary farm
machinery through pto shaft or belt pulley.
255. For very hot zone and desert area air cooled engines
preferred
over
water
cooling engines.
256. The torque converter takes low torque at high speeds and connects it to high
21
torque at
low speed.
257. Differential unit is a special arrangement of gears to permit one of the rear
wheels of the tractor to rotate slower or faster than the other.
258. The device for final speed reduction, suitable for rear wheels is known as final
drive mechanism.
259. The system, governing the angular movement of front wheels of a tractor is
called
steering systems.
260. Drawbar is a device by which the pulling power of a tractor is transmitted to the
trailing implements.
261. Rear part of the tractor is heavier than the front part to get higher tractive
efficiency.
262. If the steering wheel vibrates excessively or it tends catch while the tractor is in
motion, check the toe-in of the front wheels.
263. The clutch is a device used to disconnect the tractor engine from its power trains
for changing gear ratios, and it is known as master clutch.
264. Due to constant use, the friction material of the clutch plate wears out and needs
replacements.
265. If the friction material of the plate is allowed to wear beyond the
allowablelimit,
266. The wet type clutch consists of a number of driving and driven plates alternately
arranged.
267. Generally six to eight forward and driven two reverse speeds
through a two speed epicyclic unit of three forward and one reverse.
22
are
achieved
268. Steel shafts on which the gears are mounted hardened to give lasting wear and
trouble free service.
269. The transmission is put into operation by the engagement of shifting coupling
which slide along the splines on the counter and output shafts.
270. As the tractor has to transmit transmission all the time, lubricants of high quality
free from dirt, sediment, acid, alkali and excessive moisture should be used.
271. It is always desirable to flush the transmission with suitable flushing oil with a
suitable before fresh oil is filled.
273. Wheel slip is the relative movement of the wheel or track in the direction of
travel for a given distance under load and at no load condition.
275. Tractors used in the production of row crop should have a large axle clearance
for tread
2 7 8 . I f a low ground pressure is required wheel type tractors will not he suitable.
279. Garden tractors with one or two one or two forward speeds and a reverse are
best suited for small fields.
23
280. Before deciding the tractor size, one must consider the major types of farm work
the tractor will be accepted to perform most of the time.
281. Though the initial cost of a diesel tractor is greater than that of the powerine one
for the same siz e, but if it is constantly used throughout the year, the diesel
tractor will be economical to operate in the long run.
282. The bevel gears are mounted at the end of the output shaft of the gear box
drives the crown gear.
along
with
the
housing as a unit.
283. While turning a short corner the inner wheel is slowed down and the outer one
is speeded up.
between
the
286. When the final drive is housed in the main transmission housing, it shares the
housing lubricating oil.
287. In some tractors, the final drive is placed in a separate housing in which the
correct level of the oil is maintained all the times for efficient operation.
288. The pto shaft gets its drive either directly from the engine or from the
24
transmission or
289. When a pto driven machine is connected to a tractor, a telescopic shaft with a
universal joint is placed in between as a complete to take care of the angularity
drive.
290. When the engine crank shaft is mounted across the tractor chassis, the pulley
is placed on the crankshaft itself.
291. Pulley drive is engaged or disengaged from the engine by means of a clutch
provided for this job.
292. After every 750 working hours the oil level in other places like fuel injection
pump housing and steering worm and sector housing should also be changed.
293. It has been observed that in a majority of cases tractors need major repairs due to
breakdowns which occur during operation.
294. The storage batteries will render reliable service if they are constantly charged,
the electrolyte has the prescribed specific gravity and its level is sufficient to prevent
exposure the plates to air.
295. Prolonged application of the starter also causes sulphation, warping of plates
and
296. The battery cells must be topped up only by the distilled water and not
electrolyte,
using ceramic or glass vessels.
297. During weekly maintenance of the batteries, the oxidized wire clamps and
terminals should be cleaned to a metallic luster and non-contacting surfaces should
be coated with petroleum jelly.
298. During seasonal maintenance bring the specific gravity electrolyte to the
25
301. Swinging drawbar reduces side draft and leaves only small area uncovered on
corners of the field.
302. Traction is achieved by friction and soil reaction between the wheels or tracks
and the ground over which the tractor moves.
303. The modern wheel type is provided with steel rims and pneumatic tires as the
ground drive component.
304. Crawler tractors while being transported along the public roads are equipped
with steel plates so that the grousers do not penetrate the road surface.
305. The clutch and brake type steering mechanism is most commonly used on
crawler tractors.
306. In order to take a short term with wheel type tractors, steering brake may be
employed
307. Usually the pump and other parts of the system are placed in
rear
wheel
308. The implement can be lowered and raised from the tractor seat simply by
operating the hand control lever.
309. Correctly carried out maintenance is probably the best guaranty of reliability, low
26
on
different
parts
of
tractor
with
pressurized air.
313. The operating cost of a tractor includes the fixed cost and variable cost.
314. The straight line method, reduces the value of the machine by an equal amount
each year during its useful life
315. If the tractor is expected to be kept by the owner for its entire life a constant
Percentage per year can be charged against this item.
2.
Installation of more motor driven pump sets would make it possible to grow
second crop each year in India during the season of
(a) adequate rainfall
(c) adequate winter
3.
4.
(h) 90-110%
(d) 100-130%
27
5.
6.
(b) 125-175%
(c) 150-200%
(d) 200-250%
7.
Power tillers attached with rototiller are better suited in rice growing regions
for
8.
keeping
with interest of the country in general
(a) tracroization
(c) industrialization
9.
(b) mechanization
(d) cultivation
Between 1961 census and the 1971 census the percent of all wor employed on
the farms increased from
(a) 49.9-60.7%
(b) 51.9-61.7%
(c) 55.9-62.7%
(d) 57.9-65.7%
10. Because of marked increase in cropping intensity and yield per hoe the
employment in the field increased by about
(a) 5%
(b) 6%
(c) 7%
(d) 8%
11. Recent studies have shown that as a result of tractorization, the use of bullock
power went
(a) up
(c) rising
(b) down
(d) galling
12. A little incentive in India may be given to substitute tractors for workers
because about 25 man Years of labour can be purchase the price of a typical,
28
(b)35
(c) 45
(d) 55
13. Agriculture contributes for all jobs in India over its population about
(a) Full
(c) 1/3 rds
(b) nds
(d) 2/3 rds
14. Significant contribution in achieving higher out turn, pure bran and other by
products was made in mid sixteen by introduction of
(a) under runner disc shellers
(c) hullers
15. There is danger of high moisture harvest and storing losses if job is delayed
due to non-availability of
(a) labour
(b) machines
( c ) power
(d) electricity
16. In India post harvest operations go the same way from human labour to
animal power to small tractors and large tractors and finally
(a) combine
(b) harvest-binder
(c) tractor driven harvesting machines
(d) self driven harvesting machines
17. The optimum horse power required per hectare of land has bet recommended
about
(a) 0.8 hp/ha
18. As a thumb rule horse power required for one hectare of land is
(a) 1.00 hp
(c) 0.8 hp
(b) 09 hp
(d) 0.7 hp
19. It has been found that only 4% farmers who own tractors in the size holding
groups of less than
(a) 8 ha
(c) 10 ha
(b)19 ha
(d) 12 ha
29
20. For obtaining good yields the optimum power input required is
(a) hp/ha
( c ) 10 hp/ha
23. One of the major handicaps in mechanization of Indian agricultural is the low
investing capacity of the farmers to buy
(a) fertilizer
(b) seeds
(b) mechanized
(c) capitalized
(d) economized
( d ) tractor power
26. It has been found that the demand for high capacity threshers is increasing which are
capable of threshing the wheat and paddy crop at moisture content about
(a) 10-20%
(b) 12-20%
(c) 15-20%
(d) 18-20%
27. I n growing a second crop each year and India's food production through increased
yields has been contributed by pump sets about
(a) 4 %
(b) 5 %
(c) 6 %
(d) 8 %
28. Use of seed cum fertilizer drill by permitting the side placement of fertilizers at
proper depth increased the maize yields by
(a) 0-20%
(b) 15-20%
30
(c) 18-211%
(d) 20-25%
29. From that of conventional planting use of a single row planter with a metering device
and side placement of fertilizers increased maize yields by
(a) 30%
(b) 35%
(c) 40%
(d) 45%
30. The power tillers attached with rotary tiller have been used quite satisfactory for
(a) tillage operations
(c) puddling operations
31. The gap of mechanization through power tillers will be narrowed down by importing
the tillers mostly from
(a) France
(b) China
(c) Japan
(d) Korea
32. Use of power tillers is gradually accepted by fanners of rice growing regions on their
farms as a source of
(a) employment
(b) power
(c) income
33. The best result of world hectare yields has been shown by those countries which have
a high level of tractor stock with more than
(a) 0.6 hp/ha
34. The most unfavorable result has been shown by those countries with the lowest level
of tractor stock less than
(a) 0.4 hp/ha
36. The tractor and the tractor drawn machines can not be effectively utilized under
the
present conditions in the absence of a suitable
(a) land holding
(c) crop sequence systems
37. Holding size of farmers in India covers the total area about
31
(a) 0.6%
(b) 0.7%
(c) 0.8%
(d) 0.9%
(b) 9.9%
(d) 11.9%
(b) 16.5%
(d) 18.5%
(b) 27.7%
(d) 29.7%
(b) 29.9%
(c) 30.9%
(d) 31.9%
42. In India total no. of large size of holding at present comes to about
(a) 1.9%
(c) 3.9%
(b) 2.9%
(d) 4.9%
(b) 10.2
( c ) 11.2
(d) 12.2
(b) 18.2
(d) 15.2
(b) 20%
(d) 18%
(b) 50.6%
(c) 48.69
(d) 56.6%
47. Marginal farmers are those whose holding size is less than
(a) 1.0ha
(b) 1.5 ha
32
(c) 2.0 ha
(d) 2.5 ha
(b) 1.0-1.5 ha
(c) 1.0-2.0 ha
(d) 2.0-25 ha
(b) 1.5-2.5 ha
(d) 2.0-4.0 ha
(b) 3 to 10 ha
(d) 5 to 10 ha
51. Tractor and power tiller are suitable for timely operations with the output as
(a) high
( c ) very high
(b) medium
(d)A less
( b ) low efficiency
( c ) normal efficiency
53. Cost of operation of tractor and power tiller per horse power hour is
(a) cheapest
(b) cheaper
(c) costlier
(d) lower
54. In case of tractor and power tiller the rate of depreciation per about
(a) 12%
(b) 10%
(c) 8%
(d) 6%
55. Tractor and power tiller are the best source of power for any.
(a) tractive work
(c) field work
64. Out of the total electrical power regenerated in India on an average consumed
for the farm work is about
(a) 1/2th
(b) 1/5th
(c) 1/8th
(d) 1/10th
(a) 45%
(b) 55%
(c) 65%
(d) 75%
66. A very important source of power on farms in various states o country now a
days is
(a) mechanical
(b) electrical
(c) wind
(d) bullock
(b) 52-58%
(c) 62-68%
(d) 32-38%
(b) 30-37%
( c ) 25-32%
(d) 24-30%
69. Now a days small pumping sets are in very much demand wind within the range
of
(a) 2.5 to 10 hp
(c)
5-10 hp
(b) 3-10 hp
(d) 10-15 hp
70. Oil engines of low to medium speed are successfully used for flour mills, oil
ghanis, cotton gins etc. which develop power about
(a) 10.20 hp
(b) 12-20 hp
( c ) 14-20 hp
(d) 15-25 hp
71. It has been estimated that out of total cattle population the work animals may be
about
(a) 30%
(b) 31%
(c) 32%
(d) 33%
72. Animals if raised by the farmer himself can be a very cheap source of
73.
Acceptability of the tractor and power tiller is not very common because of
high initial
(a) price
(b) c o v e rage
34
(c) investment
75.
(a) 2.0 hp
(b) 1.5 hp
(c) 1.0 hp
(d) 0.5 hp
A wind mill having 3.6m diameter wheel mounted on 12.0 m tower is able to
produce
0.1 to 0.9 hp with a wind velocity varying from
(a) 2.4-27 kmph
( c ) 2.4-37 kmph
76. Cost of lifting 4550 liters of water using a man power for 15m head is about
(a) Rs. 1.25
(b) Rs 1.5
(d ) Rs. 2.5
77. For head equal to 15 m cost of lifting 4550 liters of water using bullock power
comes
to about
(a) Rs. 2.5
(c) Rs.1.50
78. Cost of using diesel power for lifting 4550 liters of water for a head of 15 m is
approximately
(a) Rs. 0.65
79. For lifting 4550 liters of water up to the head of 15 m cost of using electricity
comes
about
(a) Rs. 1.0
80. Cost of using wind power for lifting 4550 liters of water up to a head of 15 m is
approximately
(a) Rs. 0.52
81. Generally a medium size bullock can develop power in the range of
(a) 0.25.275 hp
(b) 0.35-0.75 hp
(d) 0.75 1.0 hp
(b) 0.5-0.75 hp
(b) USSR
(c) China
(d) India
83. The total Indian rural population now a days is more than
(a) 100 crores ( b ) 103 crores
(c) 104 crore s (d) 105 crores
84. Out of total rural population available for farm work is only about
(a) 40%
(b) 35%
(c) 12%
(d) 30%
85. On the average a man develops power nearly
(a) 0.5 hp
( b ) 0 . 4 hp
( c) 0.25 lip
(d) 0.1 hp
86. Intake valves wear more than exhaust valves is probably due tc performance by the
(a) air nozzles
88. On the power stroke before bottom dead center the exhaust valve to open between
(a) 10 and 15
( c ) 30 and 45
(b) 15 and 30
(d) 35 and 45
(b) 2150
(d) 230
90. During compression stroke and most of the time in power stroke both inlet and
exhaust valves remain
36
(a) opened
(b) closed
(c) semi-open
(d) semi-close
91. Due to constant use both inlet and exhaust valves and their seats subjected to
(a) stress wear
92. Most engines arc provided with one inlet and one exhaust valve for each
(a) piston
(c) combustion chamber
(b) cylinder
(d) compression cylinder
96. The piston rings amounts to 200 mm diameter of the piston about
(a) 0.5 mm
(b) 1.00 mm
(c) 1.5 mm
(d) 2.0 mm
(b) 2 and 6
(c) 3 and 7
(d) 4 and 8
99. Oil control rings arc designed to scrape excess oil from the cylinder walls on its
(a) upward stroke
101. In terms of crank angle both the valves remain closed for about
(a) 225
(b) 235
(c) 245
(d) 285
102. Total time through which the exhaust valve remains open about
(a) l / l 1 second
103. After the piston has reached the top dead center intake valve begins to
(a) close shortly
104. Inlet valve continues to open till the piston has passed over the bottom
dead caner about
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 43
106. Tractor engine compression pressure goes down considerably after constant
operation of
about
(a) 1000 hours
( c ) 2000 hours
107. Clearance between the rocker arm and valve stem is known as
(a) rocker clearance
108. The valve tappet clearance is adjusted when both the valves arc in
(a) open position
(a) 0 .28 mm
(b) 0.38 mm
(c) 0 .48 mm
(d) 0 58 mm
110. The valve face is generally made of heat resisting material like
(a) carbon steel
(d) alloys
111. The top of the piston is called the crown and the lower section the
(a) bottom cover
( c ) skirt
112. Piston and piston nags seal the cylinder and transmit the gas pressure
to the
(a) cam shaft
(c) crank case
113. Close contact between the dry liner and the cylinder is absolutely
necessary to reduce the resistance to
(a) wear
(c) oil flow
(b) tear
( d ) heat flow
( b ) low
(c) medium
(d) optimum
(b) high
(c) optimum
(d) medium
(b) smaller
(c) medium
(d) optimum
(b) large
medium
(d) optimum
(b) low
(d) maximum
(b) lower
(d) maximum
(b) high
(d) maximum
(b) high
(d) maximum
(b) low
(d) maximum
(a) low
(b) high
(c) maximum
(d) minimum
(b) low
(d) very high
(b) force
(d) torque
132. The top of the piston is called the crown and the lower section the
(a) bottom cover
(c) skirt
133. Piston and piston rings seal the cylinder and transmit the gas pressure to the
(a) cam shaft
(c) crank case
134. Close contact between the dry liner and the cylinder is absolutely necessary to
reduce
the resistance to
(a) wear
(b) tear
(b) low
(d) optimum
(b) high
(d) medium
(c) clockwise
(d) counterclockwise
(b) smaller
(d) optimum
(b) large
(d) optimum
(b) 3. 5 litres
(c) 4 .5 litres
( c ) 4.5 litres
144. Amount of specific fuel consumption of diesel engine per bhp per hour is about
(a) 0.1 kg
(c) 0.25 kg
(b) 0.2 kg
(d) 0.28 kg
145. Specific fuel consumption of carburetor engine per bhp per hour is about
(a) 0.25 kg
(b) 0.27 kg
(c) 0.28 kg
(d) 0.29 kg
temperature are
(a) quite high
(c) optimum
(d) maximum
152. The ratio of the horse power output of an engine to the fuel horse power is known
as
(a) Mechanical efficiency
(c) volumetric efficiency
153. The quantity of fuel consumed by an oil engine on the basis of 1 horse power
hour is
known as
(a) specific heat
(c) specific fuel consumption
154. The ratio of actual weight of air induced by the engine on the intake stroke to the
theoretical weight of air that should have been induced by filling the piston
displacement
volume with air at atmosphere temperature and pressure is known as
(a) thermal efficiency
(c) volumetric efficiency
155. The ratio of the brake horse power to the indicated horse power is called
(a) Brake thermal efficiency
(c) denial efficiency
157. The total horse power developed by all the cylinders and needed piston,
disregarding
friction and losses within the engine is said to
(a) horse power
158. The average net pressure in kg/m2 on the piston during the power stroke only is
called
(a) brake mean effective pressure
pressure
(c) engine pressure
159. There are a few European tractor manufacturers who have been employing
engines
on tractors running at
(a) high speed
( c ) medium speed
160. The four cylinder four stroke cycle engine provides power stroke after even
half
revolution of the crank shaft has the maximum application as
(a) truck engine
161. A few large tractors are also equipped with six cylinder engine which the
power
stroke occurs after every flywheel travel to
(a) 360
(b) 2800
(c) 240
(d) 120
163. Tractor engine compression pressure generally goes down considerably after
constant operation of about
(a) 1000 hours
165. Multiple cylinder, high speed, vertical engines are mostly used as automotive
engines
on
(a) farm truck
( c ) farm tractors
166. Some of the small size garden tractors are equipped with
(a) single cylinder engines
167. Diesel type engines in which liquid fuel alone is injected under high pressure of
(a) 85 kg/cm2
(b) 95 kg/cm2
(b) 110%
(d) 125%
170. It may be seen that at the speed corresponding to maximum power 1900 rpm, the
torque
is maximum required for about
(a) 66%
(b) 78%
( c ) 88%
(d) 92%
171. A tractor engine is required to be operated at full load of the operating time
approximately
45
(a) 20-25%
(c) 30-32%
( b ) 25-30%
(d) 32-35%
173. Pressure developed in the lubricating system using pump transferring oil in the
system is
about
(a) 1.0 kg/cm2
(b) 15 kg/cm2
175. The boiling temperature of the water in the radiator is raised to about
(a) 100C
(b) 104C
(c) 106C
(d) 110C
176. A pressure radiator requires a spring loaded, sealed radiator cap system by
which a
moderate pressure is created in the range of
(a) 0.14 to 0.34 kglcm2
( c ) 0 . 34 to 0.4 kg/cm2
(b) 72C
(c) 74C
(d) 76C
(b) 78C
(c) 80C
(d) 82C
46
Set B
1. For heavier fuels the cooling system of an internal combustion maintains
the engine temperature at
(a) 78 to 88C
(b) 80 to 90C
(c) 88 to 90C
(d) 90 to 92C
(b)12 secs.
(c) 15 secs
(d) 17 secs
3. I f the engine does not start on the first attempt, subsequent attempt should be
made at an interval of about
(a) one minute
(c) three minutes
(b) 0.35 to 05 mm
( c ) 0.5 to 0.85 mm
(d) 0 6 to 0 9 mm
8.The battery should be recharged when the specific gravity falls below
(a) 1.025
(b) 1.125
(c) 1.225
(d) 1.325
47
9.Whilst the battery is being stored specific gravity should be checked with hydrometer
for every
(a) two to three weeks
10.A complete discharged battery will have electrotype of specific gravity of equal to or
less than
(a) 1.125
(c) 1.175
(b) 1.150
(d) 1.225
11.When the battery is filly charged the electrotype consisting of sulphuric acid and
distilled water is with a specific gravity of
(a) 1.225
(b) 1.250
(c) 1.280
(d) 1.288
(b) 12 or 24 volts
(d) 48 volts
(b) 12 volts
(c) 24 volts
(d) 36 volts
14. The cleanest mixture which can fire inside the combustion chamber has the airfuel ratio about
(a) 15:1
(b) 18:1
(c) 20:1
(d) 24 :1
(b) 18:1
(c) 8:1
(d) 10:1
(b) 14 to 90 liters
(c) 15 to 95 liters
(c) 0 . 3 to 0.5 mm
19A variation is found between no load and full load conditions approximately
(a) 80 rpm
(b) 90 rpm
( c ) 100 rpm
20Between no load and full load conditions the engine speed of a tractor is
respectively
(a) 1000 and 1200 rpm
(b) 4 microns
(c) 5 microns
(d) microns
23The fuel supply pump forces fuel through the fuel filters to the injection pump
under low pressure approximately
(a) 1.5 kg/cm2
(d) 3 kg'cm2
24.Heating of mixture is not necessary in the plains, where the temperature seldom
falls even in winter below
(a) 20C
(b) 40C
(c) 50C
(d) 70C
(b) 8%
(c) 10%
(d) 12%
(a) 1:2
(b) 2:1
(c) 1.5:1
(d) 2.5:1
27. The cleanest mixture which can fire inside the combustion chamber has the airfuel ratio about
(a) 15:1
(b) 18:1
(c) 20:1
(d) 24:1
(b) 6 : 1
(d) 10:1
( c ) 13.5:1 t o 15:1
31.For a four cylinder high speed engine the idling speed can be taken between
(a) 250 to 500 rpm
(c) 400 to 500 rpm
32.The best results are obtained when the carburetor is so adjusted that for every
kilogram of fuel amount of air entering the cylinder is about
(a) 12 kg.
(b) 14 kg.
( c ) 1 5 kg.
(d) 16 kg.
33. Commercial diesel fuels are available with a cetane rating between
(a) 20 and 40
(c) 30 and 60
(b) 25 and 50
(d) 40 and 80
36.Using the pump for transporting oil in the system pressure develop in the
lubricating system is about
(a) 1.2 kg/sq.cm.
(d) 3 kg/sq.cm.
37. Normally the thermostat begins to open at about 74C and opens widely at about
(a) 75C
(b) 78C
(c) 80C
(d) 82C
38. The boiling temperature of the water in the radiator is raised to about
(a) 100C
(c) 110C
(b) 105C
(d) 115C
39. When a battery is fully charged the specific gravity is available about
(a) 1 . 2 5 0
(b) 1.280
(c) 1.290
(d) 1.299
(d) 1 . 1 8 5 or less
41.Where the intensity of dust is not severe generally precleaners a placed above the
tractor hood about
(a) 35 cm
(b) 40 cm
(c) 45 cm
(d) 50 cm
42.Due to constant use of work under normal dust condition oil must be replaced by
fresh oil after
(a) 8 hours
(b) 10 hours
(c) 12 hours
(d) 24 hours
43. Oil should only be changed whenever dirt has collected in the bottom of the cup
to a
depth of
(a) 1.5 t o 3 m m
(b) 2 to 4 mm
51
(c) 3 to 6 mm
(d) 4 to 8 mm
44. The most common type of air cleaner used on farm tractor is
(a) oil soaked clement typo
(b) petrol
(c) kerosene
(d) powerine
(b) 15 kg/sq.cm
(d) 3 kg/sq.cm
50. Normally the thermostat begins to open at about 74C and opens widely at about
(a) 75C
(b) 78C
(c) 800C
(d) 82C
(b) 105C
(c) 110C
(d) 115C
52
52.For heavier fuels the cooling system of an internal combustion engine, the
temperature is maintained at
(a) 78 to 80C
(c) 85 to 88C
(b) 80 to 8 4 C
(d) 88 to 90C
( b ) 5 0 0 amperes
55.When the engine is operated under average working conditions oil crank case us
changed after the operation of about
(a) 100 hours
(b) 12 mm
(c) 15 mm
(d) 17 mm
57. The solution of radiator should be drained out when the engine has run for
(a) 10 to 15 minutes
(c) 20 to 25 minutes
(b) 15 to 20 minutes
(d) 25 to 30 minutes
58. To make a solution for filling radiator one bag of washing soda and 0.5 kg of
kerosene oil should be added in water amounting
(a) 6 kg
(b) 8 kg
( c ) 1 0 kg
(d)12 kg
59. The radiator should he filled with the solution and allowed to remain there for
(a) 4 to 6 hours
(b) 6 to 6 hours
( c ) 8 t o 10 hours
(d) 10 to 12 hours
(c) 12 or 24 volts
(d) 12 or 36 volts
63.Generally the gap between the contact breaker points is kept between
(a) 0 .1 to 0.3 mm
(b ) 90 rpm.
65The economical diesel fuels have got octane rating varying from
(a) 30 to 50
(c) 20 to 30
(b) 30 to 60
(d) 25 to 30
(b) 90
(c) 100
(d) 110
(b) 22 percent
(c) 23 percent
(d) 24 percent
(b) 10 to 12 mm
(c) 12 to 14 mm
(d) 14 to 16 nun
(b) 1400C
(c) 1600C
(d) 1800C
71. Average yearly load on the tractor should not exceed its rated load up to
54
(a) 70%
(b) 72%
(c)75%
(d) 78%
72. The depreciation method which reduces the value of a machine by equal amount
each year during the useful life is known as
(a) Estimated method
(c) replaceable
(d) obsolete
(b) 40%
(c) 30%
(d) 25%
77. In summer season a battery must be turned over to a battery charging station if
discharged by
(a) 25%
(b) 30%
(c) 40%
(d) 50%
78. The battery covers should be wiped out with clean rags soaked with a solution of
ammonium hydroxide or solution of soda ash concentration about
(a)6%
(b) 7%
(c) 8%
(d) 10%
( b ) 8 to 10 mm
(c) 10 to 15 mm (d) 10 to 20 mm
55
(b) 12 sees
(c) 15 secs
(d) 1l sees
81.Before the next application of starter an interval should be made for about
(a) 20-25 secs
(b) 25-30 sees
(d) 40-50 sec
(c) 30-40 secs
82.The backbone of entire system of technical servicing is
(a) replacement
(b) overhauling
(c) repairs
(d) maintenance
(b) cleaned
(c) greased
(d) replaced
84.Grinding of crank shaft and cam shaft bearings is normally done after the engine
operation about
(a) 6000 hours
86.Engine oil should be changed and replaceable type filters should be changed
after even working hours about
(a) 420 hours
(d) 12 0 hours
87.Front and rear wheel axle bearings may be washed and replaced once in
(a) four years
8 8 . I f the spark plugs have become found it should be cleaned after working hours
of
(a) 25 hours
(c) 40 hours
(b) 30 hours
(d ) 50 hours
89Under dusty conditions, air cleaner oil is changed after every working hours of
56
(a) 6 hours
( b ) 8 hours
(c) 10 hours
(d) 12 hours.
(b) 130kg/cm2
(c) 140kg/cm2
(d)150kg/cm2
92. The tie rod connects the front wheel spindle arms and is actuated by the steering
shaft through
(a) chain link
93. Multiple disc type clutches and contracting band type breaks are employed on
the
two stroke cycle cosine tractors
four stroke cycle engine tractors
garden tractors
(d) crawler tractors
94Under normal operating conditions, the bearings are filled with the proper type of
lubricant after every hours of working about
(a) 6 hours
(c) 10 hours
(b) 8 hours
( d ) 1 2 hours
95.Depending upon the size of the tractor the width o f the tracks varies for
(a) 10-50 cm
(c) 2 0 - 2 5 cm
(b) 15.50 cm
( d ) 25-50 cm
( d ) 1.5 to 20 kg/cm2
(b) 1 5 mm
(c) 20 mm
(d) 25 mm
99. The pulley diameter should be such that it gives belt speed at full throttle about
(a) 650 m
(c) 850 m
(b) 750 m
(d) 950 m
100. While turning a short corner, the inner wheel is slowed down and the outer one is
(a) rested
(b) speeded up
101. As a result of spinning sometimes one of the drive wheels of a tractor happens to
meet a
(a) hard ground
(d ) wet ground.
102. The positive drive employed for education may be either spur gear trains or
chains and sprockets which provide reduction about
(a) 1 to 5:1
(b) 3 to 5:1
(c) 4 to 5:1
(d) 6 to 5:1
103. Depending upon the size of rear wheels used on the tractor generally the speed of
the tractor in the top gear vanes from
(a) 12 to 18 kmph
(c) 20 to 24 kmph
(b) 18 to 24 kmph
(d) 25 to 340 kmph
104. Working hours for draw bar work the useful life of the pneumatic tires under
normal operating conditions would be about
(a) 4000
(b) 5000
(d) 8000
(c) 6000
105. Depending upon the s i z e of the tractor the width of the track varies from
(a) 10 to 20 cm
(c) 20 to 50 cm
(c) 25 to 55 cm
(d) 30 to 60 cm
106. Greased track rollers need lubrication after hours of operations about
58
(a) 1000
(c) 1600
(b) 1200
(d) 2000
(b) 2000
(c) 3000
(d) 4000
(b) 16 to 25 kmph
(d) 20 to 24 kmph.
110.The forward speed of a crawler tract in the top gear is restricted to about
(a) 6 kmph
(b) 8 kmph
(c) 10 kmph
(d) 12 kmph.
(b) 2C
(c) 3C
(d) 4C
(c) 2 to 3 hp
(d) 2.5 to 4 hp
(b) 15 cm
(d) 25 cm
114.The general purpose garden tractors are provided with engines about
(a) 2 to 4 hp
(b) 3 to 4 hp
(c) 4 to 5 hp
(d) 5 to 7 hp
115.The large garden tractors are manufactured in the range of
(a) 2 to 12 hp
(b) 4 to 12 hp
(c) 5 to 12 hp
(d) 6 to 12 hp
116.For road transport work in a farm tractor, a desirable road speed is about
59
(a) 12 to 25 kmph
(c) 17 to 23 kmph
(b) 15 to 24 kmph
(d) 19 to 24 kmph
117.Reduction of the engine speed through the transmission gear box, at the highest and
lowest speeds ranges between
(a) 0 5 and 0.2
(c)15 ard02
118.If one wheel is locked, the speed of the other one is increased by
(a) 2 times
(c) 3 times
(b) 120
(c) 110
(d) 130
121.Cost of repairs and maintenance varies with the initial cost of per year
between
(a) 2 to 5%
(b) 5 to 10%
(c) 7 to 12%
(d) 8 to 15%
(b) 25 to 30%
(c) 30 to 35%
( d ) 35 to 40%
(b) gradient
(c) friction
(d) impact
(b) 1906
(d) 1920
(b) 1907
(d) 1911
60
(b) 1982
(d) 1984
2. Acceptability of the tractor and power tiller is not very common because of high
initial
(a) price
(b) coverage
(c) investment
(b) 1.5 hp
(c) 1.0 hp
(d) 0.5 hp
5. Intake valves wear more than exhaust valves is probably due to performance by the
61
7.
operation of about
(a) 1000 hours
( c ) 2000 hours
9. The valve tappet clearance is adjusted when both the valves arc in
(a) open position
(b) 0.38 mm
(c) 0 .48 mm
(d) 0 58 mm
11. The valve face is generally made of heat resisting material like
(a) carbon steel
12. The top of the piston is called the crown and the lower section the
(a) bottom cover
( c ) skirt
13. Piston and piston rings seal the cylinder and transmit the gas pressure
to the
(a) cam shaft
14. Close contact between the dry liner and the cylinder is absolutely
62
(b) tear
( d ) heat flow
( b ) low
(d) optimum
(b)
high
(c) optimum
(d) medium
(c) clockwise
(d) counterclockwise
(b) smaller
(c) medium
(d) optimum
(b) large
(c) medium
(d) optimum
(b) low
(c) minimum
(d) maximum
(b) lower
63
(c) minimum
(d) maximum
(c) low
(d) optimum
(b) high
(d) maximum
(b) high
(d) maximum
(b) high
(c) maximum
(d) minimum
(b) low
(d) very high
(b) force
(d) torque
30. The top of the piston is called the crown and the lower section the
(a) bottom cover
(c) skirt
31. Piston and piston rings seal the cylinder and transmit the gas pressure to the
(a) cam shaft
(c) crank case
32. The ratio of the horse power output of an engine to the fuel horse power is known
as
64
33. The quantity of fuel consumed by an oil engine on the basis of 1 horse power hour
is known as
(a) specific heat
34. The ratio of the brake horse power to the indicated horse power is called
(a) Brake thermal efficiency
36. The total horse power developed by all the cylinders and needed piston,
disregarding friction and losses within the engine is said to
(a) horse power
37. The average net pressure in kg/m2 on the piston during the power stroke only is
called
(a) brake mean effective pressure
39. Tractor engine compression pressure generally goes down considerably after
constant operation of about
(a) 1000 hours
41. Multiple cylinder, high speed, vertical engines are mostly used as automotive engines
on
(a) farm truck
( c ) farm tractors
42. Some of the small size garden tractors are equipped with
(a) single cylinder engines
(b) 78C
(d) 82C
44. The cooling system of an internal combustion petrol engine maintains the
engine temperature in the range of
(a) 61 to 70C
(b) 71 to 80C
(c) 74 to 78C
(d) 78 to 82C
45. For heavier fuels the cooling system of an internal combustion maintains
the engine temperature at
(a) 78 to 88C
(b) 8O to 90C
(c) 88 to 90C
(d) 90 to 92C
46. After release of press button diesel engine must start within
(a) 10 sees
(b)12 secs.
(c) 15 secs
(d) 17 secs
47. I f the engine does not start on the first attempt, subsequent attempt should
be made at an interval of about
(a) one minute
49. Using the pump for transporting oil in the system pressure develop in the
lubricating system is about
(a) 1.2 kg/sq.cm.
(d) 3 kg/sq.cm.
50. Normally the thermostat begins to open at about 74C and opens widely at about
(a) 75C
(b) 78C
(c) 80C
(d) 82C
(d) 1 . 1 8 5 or less
52. Where the intensity of dust is not severe generally precleaners a placed above the
tractor hood about
(a) 35 cm
(b) 40 cm
(c) 45 cm
(d) 50 cm
56. The boiling temperature of the water in the radiator is raised to about
(a) 100C
(b) 105C
(c) 110C
(d) 115C
57. Due to constant use both inlet and exhaust valves and their seats subjected to
(a) stress wear
58. For heavier fuels the cooling system of an internal combustion engine, the
temperature is maintained at
(a) 78 to 80C
(b) 80 to 8 4 C
(c) 85 to 88C
(d) 88 to 90C
( b ) 5 0 0 amperes
61. When the engine is operated under average working conditions oil crank case us
changed after the operation of about
(a) 100 hours
(c) 115 hours
(b) 12 mm
(c) 15 mm
(d) 17 mm
63. The solution of radiator should be drained out when the engine has run for
(a) 10 to 15 minutes
(b) 15 to 20 minutes
(c) 20 to 25 minutes
(d) 25 to 30 minutes
64. To make a solution for filling radiator one bag of washing soda and 0.5 kg of
kerosene oil should be added in water amounting
(a) 6 kg
(b) 8 k8
( c ) 1 0 kg
(d)12 kg
65. The radiator should he filled with the solution and allowed to remain there for
(a) 4 to 6 hours
( c ) 8 t o 10 hours
(b) 6 to 6 hours
(a) 10 to 12 hours
67. Diesel tractors are equipped with a more rugged starting motor of
(a) 6 or 12 volts
(c) 12 or 24 volts
(c) 6 or 24 volts
(d) 12 or 36 volts
69. Generally the gap between the contact breaker points is kept between
(a) 0 .1 to 0.3 mm
(c) 0.3 and 0.5 mm
70. Variation between no load and full load conditions is found to approx. at
(a) 80 rpm
(b) 91 rpm.
71. The economical diesel fuels have got octane rating varying from
(a) 30 to 50
(b) 30 to 60
(c) 20 to 30
(d) 25 to 30
72. The temperature produced on the power stroke of an engine can be as high as
(a) 1200C
(b) 1400C
(c) 1600C
(d) 1800C
73. Average yearly load on the tractor should not exceed its rated load up to
(a) 70%
(b) 72%
(c)75%
(d) 78%
74. The depreciation method which reduces the value of a machine by equal amount
each year during the useful life is known as
(a) Estimated method
75. The useful life of a machine is also affected by the rate of which machine
becomes
69
(a) defunct
(c) re placeable
(d) obsolete
( b ) low efficiency
( c ) normal efficiency
(b) 40%
(c) 30%
(d) 25%
79. Transmission of oil should be changed after every working hours about
(a) 550 hours
(c) 70 hours
80. Engine oil should be changed and replaceable type filters should be changed
after even working hours about
(a) 420 hours
(d) 12 0 hours
81. Front and rear wheel axle bearings may be washed and replaced once in
(a) four years
8 2 . I f the spark plugs have become found it should be cleaned after working hours
of
(a) 25 hours
(c) 40 hours
(b) 30 hours
(d ) 50 hours
70
83. Under dusty conditions, air cleaner oil is changed after every working hours of
(a) 6 hours
( b ) 8 hours
(c) 10 hours
(d) 12 hours.
(b) 130kg/cm2
(c) 140kg/cm2
(d)150kg/cm2
86. The tie rod connects the front wheel spindle arms and is actuated by the steering
shaft through
(a) chain link
87. Under normal operating conditions, the bearings are filled with the proper type
of lubricant after every hours of working about
(a) 6 hours
(c) 10 hours
(b) 8 hours
( d ) 1 2 hours
88. Depending upon the size of the tractor the width o f the tracks varies for
(a) 10-50 cm
(c) 2 0 - 2 5 cm
(b) 15.50 cm
( d ) 25-50 cm
89. Inflation pressure in the rear wheels of the tractor varies between
(a) 0.5 to 1.2 kg/cm2 (b) 8 to 1.2 kg/cm2
(c) 2 to 1.5 kg/cm2
( d ) 1.5 to 20 kg/cm2
90. As a result of spinning sometimes one of the drive wheels of a tractor happens to
meet a
(a) hard ground
(b) 500C
(c) 600C
(d) 700C
(b) hardened
(c) enamelled
94. With high frequency electric current hardening is achieved and is called as
(a) case hardening
(b) 1.25 to 15 cm
(d) 2.5 to 15 cm
(b) moisture
(c) temperature
(d) corrosion
(a) 1.0 to 50 cm
(b) 1.5 to 50 cm
(c) 2 to 50 cm
(d) 2.5 to 50 cm
101.
The type of furrow opener recommended for use in hard or trashy ground and
also in wet, sticky soils is
A) single disc type
B) stub runner type
C) full or curved runner type
D) hoe type
102.
In axial flow power threshers, a spike tooth cylinder is preferred over a rasp
bar cylinder
because
it has more positive feeding action
it requires less power
it does not plug as easily
all of the above
.103
C) increase quadratically
D) decrease quadratically
106.
107.
kilogram per hectare seed rate. If the tractor speed is increased to 5 kilometer per
hour, the new seed rate will be
A) 64 kilogram per hectare
B) 70 kilogram per hectare
C) 80 kilogram per hectare
D) 100 kilogram per hectare
108.
109.
Power tillers are not generally employed for draft applications because of
A) low horse power
B) low speed
C) low coefficient of traction
D) non-availability of matching implements
110.
Answers
74
1. c 2.c 3.d 4.c 5.b 6.c 7.c 8.c 9.b 10.b 11.d 12.c 13.d 14.d 15.b 16.b
17.d 18.d 19.a 20.a 21.a 22.b 23.a 24.c 25.c 26.b 27.b 28.b 29.d 30.c
31.d 32.d 33.c 34.d 35.b 36.b 37.b 38.d 39.c 40.c 41.c 42.c 43.c 44.b
45.c 46.c 47.b 48.c 49.d 50.c 51.a 52.c 53.d 54.d 55.b 56.c 57.c 58.d
59.b 60.a 61.d 62.c 63.b 64.c 65.c 66.a 67.c 68.c 69.c 70.c 71.b 72.c
73.c 74.d 75.d 76.d 77.b 78.d 79.c 80.d 81.d 82.d 83.c 84.c 85.d 86.d
87.c 88.c 89.b 90.b 91.b 92.c 93.c 94.b 95.b 96.c 97.d 98.d 99.b 100.d
A. C o mp l e t e t h e S t a t e m e n t s
1. Both stationary and portable types of agricultural machines make us, of various
types of power transmitting devices for doing useful work
2. In some machines, the belt drive is used to transmit power between two parallel
shafts placed at a short distance apart.
3. Some of the devices are means to convert rotary motion into linear motion or
oscillating motion.
6.
Speed
cones
are
pulleys
h a v i ng
several
steps
of
varying
Worm and worm gears are mostly used where a very high velocity ratio is
required but space is limited.
20.
On modern equipment gears are enclosed in a gear case and run lubricating
oil.
21. Dog clutch usually has square jaws which are employed to drive a shaft in either
direction.
22.
A clutch is used to transmit motion or power between two shafts where the
23.
Splines are used for joining two shafts which are in line, but enable the joint
bearing.
27. The simplest type of journal bearing consists of a tube or a hallow shaft in
which another shaft rotates.
28. The bearing which resists radial loads is known as journal bearing.
8.
The function o f idler pulley is to increase theon the angle of contact on the
Velocity ratio of two pulleys of a belt drive may be defined as the revolutions
per minute of follower divided by the revolutions per minute of the driver.
10. With V belts, motion is obtained by friction between the sides of the belt and the
sides of the sheave grooves.
1 1 . Chains have the advantages of providing a positive drive which is not possible
with friction drives.
13. A pintle chain is made of malleable links held together by pins, and is largely
used for heavy duty slow speed work where the chain is exposed.
13. With all types of chains the tension should be sufficient to prevent jumping of
the chain over the sprocket.
14. Straight spur gears have the teeth cut parallel to the axis of the shaft and are used
to transmit motion shafts which are parallel.
15. Helical gears are special form of spur gears with the teeth inclined to the axis of
wheel.
16. Rack and pinions are special gears which are commonly used in the fuel
injection on the pump.
17. Bevel gears are commonly employed for two shaft with axes which are at right
angles and can intersect.
76
18. Ball and roller bearings are based on the principle that the rolling friction
is less than sliding friction.
19. Due to reduced friction ball and roller type of bearings are preferred to plain
bearings.
20. The heavy hexagonal bolts have a longer head, use a longer nut and are
commonly used on farm machinery.
21. The carriage bolt has a round head and square or neck which draws into the
wood to keep the belt from turning.
22. A flat washer is usually used under the nut next to the wood to keep the nut
from damaging the wood.
23. Castellated or slotted nuts used on machinery where there is a lot of vibration
or where it would he dangerous to allow the nut to loosen.
24. Wood screws and sheet metal screws are tapered and are used for fastening
wood or sheet metal.
25. Cap screws are like machine screws except that they usually have chamfered
points and or threaded only part of the way.
26. The term plastics refers to a variety of complex chemical compounds which can
be easily shaped according to requirements.
27. The largest single application of rubber in agricultural is in the form of
pneumatic wheels.
39. Agricultural machines are covered with a thin coating paint to form a hard
protective layer on the surface
40. Paint consists of mineral pigments suspended in a drying oil, the pigment giving a
thin water proof coat.
41. In the case hardening process, carbon is alloyed with iron to increase the hardness.
42. The nitriding process consists of heating the steel in NH3 gas so that hard particles
of iron inside are formed on the surface.
43. The chromium plastering process is used w engine cylinder liners to increase the
wear resistance of the material.
44. Heat treatment is an operation or combination of operations that involves the
heating and cooling of metals in a solid state to obtain desirable physical properties in
77
the materials.
45. Hardening process increases the strength and wearing resistance of the metal.
46. Tempering is done to reduce the brittleness but to increase the ductibility and
toughness.
47. Hard facing is the addition of a layer or coating of a special abrasion resistance
alloy on a portion of the surface of a steel plant.
48. Belt is a flexible material, placed around two pulleys having a certain amount of
tension to transmit the power from one pulley to another.
60. Worm gear is used when high velocity ratio is required in a limited space, such
as
61. The strength durability of implements and machines depend upon material
used in their fabrication.
62. When a force is applied on a body there will be relative displacement of
particles and due to the property of the elasticity the particles tend to regain their
original position.
63. Any elastic material is found to recover its original shape and dimensions when
the load is removed, provided the material is not stressed beyond that elastic limit.
64. The maximum stress up to which a body exhibits the property of elastic is called
elastic limit.
65.
The maximum force, which body can resist is called ultimate strength of the
material.
69. Hook's Law states that within elastic limit stress is proportional to strain.
70. When a body is subjected to simple tension or small compression it is called
coefficient of direct elasticity or Young's modulus.
71. The effect of shear stress in the beam may be neglected and plane section of the
beam which is perpendicular to the axis, remains plane.
72. The whole beam is not usually bent to circular arc but the centre line of the
neutral surface has a different radius of curvature of every point.
78
73. For agricultural implements, the hardness testing is usually done by Brinel
hardness testing machine.
74. The durability of farm implements depends upon the quality of the material
used for construction.
73. The success and failure of an implement is directly connected with the proper
choice of the material.
74. When cast iron with low silicon content is cooled rapidly, all the carbon
remains in combined form and cast iron is formed.
75. Ductile cast iron is formed when magnesium and ferrosilicon are added to the
molten cast iron such that it changes graphite flakes to a spheroid form.
76. Ductile cast iron has high ductility and can take up greater impact resistance
than grey cast iron.
79. Heat treatment is the combination of operations of heating and cooling of a
metal in a solid state for obtaining certain desirable properties of the metal.
77. Hardening increases the strength and wear resistance of the metal but reduces
its ductility.
81. Annealing refines the coarseness of the grins removes strains caused due to
uneven
82. Case hardening is a process of introducing additional carbon into the outer shell
of the steel pipes.
83. Cyaniding is a process where the steel is dipped into a molten bath of potassium
cyanide for a short time.
84. Flame hardening is a process in which an oxyacetylene flame is used to heat the
metal surface quickly to a temperature above the critical temperature after which it is
quenched in water which is cold enough to make it hardened.
84. Tapered roller bearing carries radial and side thrust as well as angular thrust.
85. Needle roller bearing consists of an outer shell containing a number of hardened
rollers with pointed ends.
79
(b) 500C
(c) 600C
(d) 700C
(b) hardened
(c) enamelled
(b) 1.25 to 15 cm
(c) 1.5 to 15 cm
(d) 2.5 to 15 cm
18. The horse power transmitted by the belt passing over a pulley of meter in diameter
and running at 500 rpm having tensions in the two sides of the belt as 50 kg and
25 kg respectively is given by
(a) 6.72 hp
(c) 8.72 hp
(b) 7 72 hp
(d) 9 72 hp
19. The horse power transmitted by a flat belt running at 1200 rpm having its width
equal to 20 cm has been found as
80
(a) 15 hp
(b) 20hp
(c) 25 hp
(d) 30 hp
20. For flat belts preferably, flat faced cylindrical pulleys the wear of the belt is
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) excessive
(d) major
21. A sprocket and chain drive is preferred when the two parallel shafts to be operated
are placed apart less than
(a) 1.0 m
(b) 1.5 m
(c) 2.0 m
(d) 2.5m.
(b) 2.5 to 50 c m
(d) 4.5 to 50 cm
5.
(b) 6 to 20 cm
(a) 4 to 20 cm
(d) 10 to 20 cm
(c) 8 to 20 cm
In the cyaniding process by immersing the metal for a short time in a bath of
molten sodium cyanide or potassium cyanide and then quenching it in oil or
water, a very hard surface is formed about
6.
(a) 600C
(b) 700C
(c) 800C
(d) 900C
7.
Brass is an alloy of copper and zinc where the quantity of copper and zinc
varies between
(a) 30 to 40% and 60 to 70% (b) 40 to 60% and 50 to 60%
(c) 50 to 70% and 40 to 60% (d) 60 to 70% and 30 to 40%
8.
(b) moisture
(c) temperature
(d) corrosion
81
9.
(d) sweap
(d) 3 to 4.5 %
(b) 30 to 40 tons/sq.inch.
(b) 7 to 15 tons/in2
(d) 10 to 20 tons/in2
(b) 6 to 20 tons/in2
(c) 8 to 20 tons/in2
(d) 10 to 20 tons/in2
82
19. In Brinel's hardness test on a hardened steel ball a static load is applied gradually
and maintained time usually as
(a) 10 secs
(b) 12 secs
(c) 15 secs
(d) 20 secs
(b) 1.5 to 50 cm
(c) 2 to 50 cm
(d) 2.5 to 50 cm
(b) 25
(d) 40
22. The groove angle is small and large pulleys are respectively between
(a) 229 and 35
(c) 31 and 39
( b ) 30 and 38
(d) 32 and 40
23. The type of gear used for transmitting power from one shaft to another shaft
when the shafts are parallel to each other is
(a) worn gear
( b ) bevel gear
24. If the tension on the right side of the belt is 60 kg and the tension the slack side is
25 kg. The dimensions and the speed of driving pulley is taken 0 . 9 5 meter and 250
revolutions/minute respectively. H.P. transmitted by a belt and pulley arrangement of
above is
(a) 3.8
(c) 5.8
(b) 4.8
(d) 6.8
(b) pulley
(c) belt
(d) crown
(b) reduction
(c) normal
(d) unusual
48. The pulleys having several steps of varying diameters on which a common belt is
used called as
(a) V-belt pulley
48. Wear of the belt is minimum in case of cylindrical pulleys which are
(a) round faced
49. In keeping a rubber belt shaft clean and preventing slipping essential to apply a
few drops of
(a) petrol
(b) diesel
(b) V-belt
(d) speed
(b) steel
(b) annealing
(c) quenching
(d) hardening
(h) cardboard
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 70%
(b) 28%
(c) 30%
(d) 35%
(b) 78%
(c) 88%
(d) 98%
1%
(b) 8%
(c)
9%
(d) 10 %
40 to 50 %
(b) 45 to 60 %
(c)
50 to 65 %
(d) 60 to 75 %
85
10 to 30 %
(b) 20 to 30 %
(c)
30 to 40 %
(d) 40 to 50 %
2)
3)
4)
c) Arbitrary BM
b) Horizontal
c) Smooth
5)
7)
c) Gourd surface
c) be perpendicular
Which there is relative movement between cross hairs and staff reading, is it
known as
a) Parallax b) Co lunation error c) Refraction
8)
b) BS reading
86
c) IS reading
9)
10)
b) Calculation
c)
Both
field
work
and
calculation
11)
known as
a) Simple leveling b) Fly leveling
12)
c) Differential leveling
13)
days
The operation of leveling from finishing point to the starting point at the end of
work is known as
a) Check leveling b) Reciprocal leveling
14)
15)
b) Reciprocal leveling
known as
c) Continues leveling
b) Near FS
FS
17)
c) Compound leveling
The operation of leveling from any B.M. to the starting point of at of any
project is
16)
c) In front of
object grass
19)
20)
c) Profile of bubble
2) b
3) a
4) b
5) a
6) b
7) a 8) b
9) b
10) b 11) c
22)
24)
25)
b) Level surface
d) None of the above
about
a) 40
26)
b) 80
c) 20
d) 2
27)
28)
On a turning point
a) Only back sight is taken
b) Only fore sight is taken
c) Both back sight and fore sight are taken
d) An intermediate sight is taken
29)
30)
The following type of leveling can not be done with dumpy level
a) Differential leveling
b) Reciprocal leveling
32)
b) Concave lens
c) Plano convex
d) Plano concave
b) Folding staff
on
90
successively along a
a) Straight line
35)
c) curved line
sights.
d) The staff reading is increased when it is fitted.
Ans.21) c 22
Set B
1)
2)
An imaginary line lying throughout the ground surface and having constant
inclination to horizontal is a
91
3)
a) Contour line
b) Ridge line
c) Contour gradient
b) An accurate method
5)
7)
8)
d) Both a ) and c)
b) Contour interval
c) Horizontal equivalent
rotated through
180 it becomes.
9)
a) 4e
b) 3e
c) 2e
d) e
10)
b) Contour line
c) Level line
The line formed along intersection of the ground surface and a level surface is
known as a
a) Contour line
12)
b) Watershed line
13)
b) Perpendicularly
b) Vertical cliff
b) Level ground
b) Pond
b) Flattish slope
21)
20)
c) Scale of map
19)
c) Depression
c) Slopping ground
c) Horizontal surface
17)
c) Made irregular
16)
b) Made variable
15)
c) Vertically
14)
c) Level line
b) Saddle
c) Overhanging cliff
b) Horizontal equivalent
c) Horizontal contours
22)
Ans.- 1) e
Steep slope
2) c
3)b
together it indicates a
b) Flatter slope
c) Vertical surface
4)b
7) b
5)b
6)c
8)c
9)b
10)c
21)b 22)a
Set C
1.) Choose the correct alternative.
i) Object of surveying is to prepare a
a ) Drawing b) Cross Section
c) map
b) Plane surveying
c) Hydrographic surveying
iii) Curvature of earth is taken into account when the extent of area is more than.
a) 50 km2
b) 100 km2
c) 250 km2
b) Topographical surveys
c) Engineering surveys
vi) The diagonal scale is used to read
a) One unit
b) Two units
b) 100 links
c) 200 links
b) 150 links
c) 300 links
b) 50 ft
c) 66 ft
b) At least there
c) At least four
xi) The difference between the arc length and chord length for a distance of 18.2 km is
only
94
a) 5 cm
b) 10 cm
c) 15 cm
b) L c) L2
xiii) If the angle of slope and L the sloping distance, slope correction is given by
a) L (L - sin )
b) L (L cos )
c) L (L sec )
xiv) If L be the sloping distance and h be the difference of level between two end
points slope
a) h
2L
correction is given by
b) h2
c) 2L
h2
chain length is
a) 30 (Cos -1 ) m
b) 30 (Sec -1 ) m
c) 30 (Tan -1)m
a) 80 cm
b) 90 cm
c) 100 cm
Answers
i) c
ii) b
iii) c iv) b v) b
xv) b
xvi) a
xvii) a
xviii) a
Set D
QUESTION BANK
1)
2)
3)
4)
b) Hard soil
c) Wet soil
5)
6)
Accelerated
erosion is caused by
a) Water
b) Wind
c) Both a & b
8)
b) Natural erosion
b) Terminal velocity
11)
12)
d) Both a & b
b) Rill erosion
c) Sheet erosion
b) Rill erosion
c) Sheet erosion
14)
15)
16)
b) Fine particles
c) Silt particles
b) Flat area
c) Ravine area
b) Clayey soils
18)
19)
20)
21)
b) Wind erosion
c) Glacial erosion
b) Wind erosion
c) Chemical erosion
d) Glacial erosion
b) Normal erosion
c) Chemical erosion
b) Glacial erosion
22)
23)
b) Uncultivated lands
c) Ravine lands
24)
As per land utilization capability classification (LUCC) the suitable land for
cultivation is
31)
a) Class I to IV
b) Class I to V
c) Class V to VII
32)
Grassed waterways are designed to carry the peak runoff rate for
98
34)
35)
36)
b) 1/n R S 2/3
37)
b) Divert runoff
d) None of the above
above
38)
39)
40)
41)
42)
b) Channel terrace
c) Tropical zones
d) None of the
c) Tropical zones
44)
b) Staircase farming
The width of bench terrace with level top is equal to the inverse of
a) Degree of slope land
b) Depth of cut
c) Runoff rate
46)
For same land slope the width of level bench terrace is always
a) Greater than bench width with forward lateral slope
b) Less than bench width with forward lateral slope
c) Equal to the bench width with forward lateral slope
d) None of the above
47)
The VI (Vertical Interval) of bench terrace with level top should be equal to
a) 1/2 of the depth of cut
50)
b) Less
c) Zero
b) U shaped gullies
c) Both a & b
51)
Drop structures are designed to handle peak ( runoff ) discharge rate for return
period of
52)
a) 25 to 50 years
b) 10 to 15 years
c) 50 years
d) 100 years
b)Steep slope
c) Both a & b
d) None of the
above
53)
55)
56)
b) Small watersheds
c) Medium watersheds
b) A in ha
c) L in cm/h
d) a & b
57)
58)
59)
USLE is
a) An empirical equation
b) A theoretical solution
c) Both a & b
b) More erodible
c) More cohesive
61)
particles increases as
a) 32 times
b) 16 times
c) 10 times
d) 4 times
101
62)
64)
65)
66)
b) 10 to 20 %
c) Less than 5 %
b) flat land
c) Vegetated surface
d) Both a & c
b) Deposit
c) Disintegrate
d) Both b & c
68)
Planimeter measures
a) Area
b) Density
70)
b) 10 cm direct runoff
d) None of the above
71)
72)
73)
74)
Time required for translated the flow from most remotest point of drainage
75)
b) Time of concentration
c) Rainfall duration
76)
77)
78)
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
79)
81)
b) Graded bund
c) Both a & b
82)
83)
84)
b) Sliding
c) Overturning
85)
Watershed is
a) Drainage basin contributing runoff to single outlet
b) Unit of area extent in which hydrologic cycle completes
c) Hydrological entity
d) All of the above
86)
87)
b) Saturation line
d) None of the above
b) VI = a +b
S
d) All of the above
b
89)
105
True or false
1. Soil amendments like Gypsum are necessary for reclaiming saline soils
False.
2. Drainage increases the depth of plant rooting zone True.
3. Herringbone system is economical than grid iron False.
4. Drainage removes only capillary water from the soil False.
5. Piezometers are used to measure the depth of water table True
6. Subsurface ground water is removed by an open ditch extending below water
table. False.
7. Subsurface drainage is always a closed drainage True.
8. Time of concentration of runoff depends only on length of drainage area
False.
9. Drainable porosity in the volume of soil water removed in a day False.
10. Outlet conditions decide the depth of field drains True.
11. Land requires drainage when annual rainfall exceeds annual evaporation in
that region False.
12. The plane method of computing the cuts and fills is accurate than profile
method True.
13. Byproducts of agricultural production are often used as envelops material
False.
14. Filter is provided to increase effective diameter of drain True.
15. Soil hydrologic groups are based on infiltration potential of soil True.
16. Peak rate of runoff can not be estimated by curve number method False.
17. Sodic soils can be reclaimed only by adding excess water False
18. Sandy soils are difficult to drain as compared to clayey soils False.
19. Economic and hydrologic conditions are not considered in drainage design
False.
20. Permeable soils often need artificial drainage. False.
21. Three days succeeding rainfall are considered for deciding antecedent
moisture condition False.
106
22. Groundwater flow remains laminar when Reynoldss number is more than
10 - True.
23. All farming operations must be done perpendicular to open ditches -False.
24. Hydraulic conductivity of soil decreases as ESP increases when electrolyte
concentration remains constant - True
25. Salt conditions are not considered in drainage design - False
26. Fluctuating water table is real field situation - True
27. AMC - III does not indicate more wetness of soil - False
28. Drainage coefficient helps in deciding drainage discharge - True
29. Reynoldss number is not considered for deciding flow condition - False
30. Groundwater flow remains laminar when Reynoldss number is more than
one - False
31. Unsaturated soil water is removed by subsurface drains - False
32. Contact angle of water for capillary glass tube is 5 - False
33. In dynamic equilibrium water table remains stationery - False
34. Flatter slopes are generally drained in shorter lengths - True
35. Drainage of land removes only the hygroscopic soil water - False
36. Highly permeable soils need artificial drainage - False
37. Excessive soil moisture is often the cause of soil compaction by animals and
machines - True
38. Subsurface ground water is removed by shallow ditches - False
39. It is pore size distribution rather then the total pore space that is important in
the water transmitting and water holding properties of the soil - True
40. The intrinsic permeability of soil is independent of density and viscosity of
soil water - True
41. Inverse auger hole method is used to measure the hydraulic conductivity insitu below water table - False
42. In herringbone layout lateral drains join main drain at an angle - True
43. For drainage area more than 80 ha rational formula is good for estimating
peak rate of runoff - False
44. Specific yield is the property of an unconfined aquifer - True
107
45. In saturated flow the sum of differences in hydrostatic head and differences
in soil. Moisture tension, is the pressure gradient - True
46. Bedding system of drainage hampers mechanized farming - True
47. Five days succeeding rainfall is considered for deciding AMC - True
48. Single auger hole method is used to measure the hydraulic conductivity insitu below water table i.e. when WT is near the ground surface - True
Convective
heat
transfer
coefficient
is
expressed
by
_____________number.
A) Prandtl
B) Grashof
C) Nusselt
B) Temperature attained
C) Design of equipment
B) M-1LT
C) MLT
B) MLT-3
C) M1L1T-1
B) Homogenizer
C) Pasteurizer
coefficient.
4.2 The fanning friction factor in the laminar range is given by 0.023/Re0.2.
4.3 For a centrifugal pump the pressure developed by the pump varies as the square
of the rotational speed.
4.4 Heat transferred by radiations is proportional to the difference of fourth power of
the temperature.
4.5 Raoults Law is applicable for vapour-liquid equilibrium.
4.6 An indigenous plough cuts a triangular furrow cross section.
4.7 A paddy transplanter uses other root washed type seedlings or tray seedlings.
4.9 A pitman transmits reciprocating motion to a knife head.
4.10 The thermal efficiency of a S.I. engine is less than that of a C.I. engine.
111
4.11 In a fully charged battery the electrolyte has a specific gravity of 1.278.
4.12 Farmstead should be location on the most productive part of the farm.
4.13 Tensionmeters are recommended for the range of 0 to 880.6 cm of water tension.
4.14 Triangular hydrograph was developed to speed up area calculation.
4.15 Topographic features such as canyons, stream and valleys are caused by geologic
erosion.
4.16 Drip irrigation is not practicable for cereal crop.
4. 17 While drilling by direct rotary method no casing is required because the drilling
fluid forms a clay lining on the wall of the well which prevents caving.
4.18 Jacobs method is used for estimation of S and T of the aquifer.
4.19 Soil materials finer than 0.074 mm are generally analyzed by the method of
sedimentation of soil particle by gravity.
4.20 Flooding of plant/roots causes reduction in oxygen absorption and other plant
nutrients.
Set B
Choose the correct answer
1.
2.
3.
4.
A) NTU/(NTU+1)
B) NTU/(NTU-1)
C) (NTU +1)/NTU
D) NTU/(1-NTU)
5.
A) Nusselt Number
B) Prandtl Number
C) Biot Number
D) Schmidt Number
6.
A) air velocity
B) thickness of bed
C) air humidity
D) air temperature
113
7.
A) (100/D) -2
B) (D/100) -2
C) 2 + (D/100)
D) (100/D) +2
8.
A) bound water
B) unbound water
C) free water
D) saturation water
9.
A) 0
B) 0.5
C) 1.0
D) 1.5
10.
The pressure drop through a media filer used in drip irrigation should not
exceed.
A) 70 kPa
B) 100 kPa
C) 130 kPa
D) 160 kPa
114
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
18.
19.
20.
An epicyclic gear train is one, in which the gears, in addition to the motion
about their respective exes have.
A) at least two axes fixed
B) one axis fixed about which other axes revolve
C) another axis rotating at slow speed
D) one gear train rotating at high speed
116
21.
22.
The predominant noise heard at the operators car in a tractor and other
off-highway equipment falls in the frequency range of.
A) 10 to 50 Hz
B) 125 to 500 Hz
C) 1000 to 5000 Hz
D) O to 10 Hz
23.
A) increase traction
B) remove soil from the wheels
C) to allow floatation
D) to increase depth of operation
24.
25.
A) 6 to 10 per cent
B) 12 to 16 per cent
C) 8 to 9 per cent
D) 1.5 to 3 per cent
26.
A) 68
B) 72
C) 78
D) 82
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
C) 1.8
kg mole/m2-s
D) 5.55
kg mole/m2-s
32.
33.
A) 5.85
B) 14.14
C) 66.67
D) 100.00
34.
45.
46.
The pressures of two nozzles of a sprinkler lateral are 290 and 262 kPa. If
the discharge from the first nozzle is 8 x 10-4 m3/s, the discharge from the
other nozzle will be
A) 5.6 x 10-4 m3/s
B) 6.6 x 10-4 m3/s
C) 7.6 x 10-4 m3/s
D) 8.6 x 10-4 m3/s
120
48.
The size of maximum non-erosive stream in liters per second for a furrow
of 0.3% slope will be.
A) 0.5
B) 1.0
C) 1.5
D) 2.0
49.
The minimum wind velocity at 15 m height requires moving the erodible soil
fraction is 20 km/h and the actual wind velocity is 60 km/h. A shelterbelt of
12 m height is provided for control of wind erosion and the wind direction
makes and angle of 600 with the perpendicular to the barrier. The spacing of
the shelterbelts for full protection will be.
A) 30 m
B) 34 m
C) 40 m
D) 44 m
50.
In an irrigated field the seepage from the canal is 15% of the water supplied
and the deep percolation from irrigation is 25 %. For an irrigation depth of 80
mm in every 8 days the drainage coefficient is.
121
A) 4 mm/day
B) 6 mm/day
C) 8 mm/day
D) 10 mm/day
51.
52.
A herd of 100 dairy cows is fed 1300 kg of silage daily. The thickness of
silage fed each day is 100 mm. if one m3 of silage weighs 650 kg, the
diameter of pit silo will be
A) 4.54 m
B) 5.04 m
C) 5.64 m
D) 6.04 m
53.
In an offset disc harrow, the amount of offset obtainable without the side
draft is a function only of the distance (d) between the gangs and the relative
magnitudes of the longitudinal (Lf , Lt) and lateral (S) soil reactions. If Lf =
4.2 kN and Lt = 3.75 kN, S = 4.9 kN an d = 2.15 m then the amount of offset
is.
A) 1.54 m
B) 2.46 m
C) 0.8 m
122
D) 2.80 m
54.
The power required accelerating forage at a feed rate of 24 kg/s, at the cutter
head of a combine at a peripheral velocity of 29.9 m/s is equal to.
A) 13.73 kW
B) 12.48 kW
C) 10 .73 kW
D) 11.55 kW
55.
A six cylinder engine has 130 mm stroke and 109.4 mm bore. The
displacement of the engine at a compression ration of 17:1 is equal to .
A) 8.27 liters
B) 7.32 liters
C) 6.96 liters
D) 5.40 liters
56.
The amount of heat carried away from an engine and transferred from the
water to the cooling air is 184520 J/s. If the frontal area of the radiator used is
56 m2 and the heat transfer coefficient of the radiator is 100 units then the
differential
A) 32.950 C
B) 36.950 C
C) 40.950 C
D) 44.950 C
57.
D) 4.66 cc
58.
The are 10 nozzles spaced 240 mm apart on a sprayer boom. The total
discharge in one hour at an application rate of 300 liter/ha and at a forward speed of
10 km/h is
A) 900 liters
B) 860 liters
C) 800 liters
D) 720 liters
59.
If the inner and outer steering angles in a tractor are 90 and 9.80 respectively
then for correct steering condition the value of the ratio of pivot axis spacing
to
60.
rpm.If the fluctuation in speed is + 100 rpm, then per cent governor regulation is
equal to
A) 7.65
B) 10.25
C) 12.50
D) 6.67
61.
62.
B) 1- 3- 2- 4
C) 1- 3- 4 -2
D) 1- 4- 3- 2
The forces resulting form piston assembly movement are given by the formula
(symbols have their usual meaning).
A) F = Mr2 (cos2 + cos 2 + -------------)
B) F = r2 (M cos2 + r cos2 2 + r cos2 3 + -----------)
L
L
124
64.
6 5.
The speed regulation (SR) of a governor is related to the average speed ( N ) and
the change in speed at load (
A) SR =
N
N
N) by.
B) SR = N_
N
C) SR = 100N_
6 6. An animal drawn seed drill has K number of furrow openers 180 mm apart. If
the speed of operation is 2.0 kmph, the area covered (ha), in 8-h day is given by.
A) 185
B) 28.8 x10-2 K
1000KI
C) K
D) 1.762 K
6.56
67.
B) forged steel
C) C 45 steel
68.
In an epicyclic gear speed reduction unit, the ratio of the number of teeth of the
annular gear to the sun gear is.
A) 3 : 1
69.
B) 4 :1
C) 2.5 : 1
D) 4.5 :1
The towed force (TF) of a pneumatic tyre is given by (symbol have their usual
meanings)
A) TF = 1.21 + 0.046
B) TF = 1.2 + 0.04
Cn
Cn
C) TF = 1.2 + 0.04
W
70.
kinetic
D) TF = 1.25W + 0.04 Cn
Cn
For a wheeled tractor with mass M and velocity v the expression for total
energy resulting from the linear motion of the tractor is given by.
A) KE = 1 Mv2
B) KE = Mv2
2
C) KE = 11 Mv2
20
71.
72.
73.
74.
B) 7 to 10 mm
C) 18 to 25 mm
D) 2 mm
76.
B) threshold velocity
C) dynamic threshold
17.
18.
D) intrinsic velocity
B) S-0.385
C) L1.77 S0.385
D) S0.385
If W is the width of a bench terrace, S is the land slope, then for riser slope of
1:1, the vertical interval is given by.
A) 100-S
B) 2 WS
WS
200-S
C) 0.3 WS + 2
2
19.
20.
The ration of volume of water added or removed directly from the saturated
aquifer to the resulting change in volume of aquifer below the water table is
called.
21.
B) specific yield
C) storage coefficient
D) specific storage
23.
A) depth of water
C) slope of channel
24.
25.
The difference between a shallow tubewell and a deep tubewell is on the basis
of
26.
factors
C) type of aquifer
D) depth of aquifer
27.
B) 8 times
C) 16 times
D) 32 times
28.
29.
B0 1.0 bar
C) 10 bar
D) 15 bar
A) kgf / cm2
30.
31.
32.
33.
B) torr
C) mm of Hg
B) slit flow
D) laminar flow
B) Laplace law
B) Prandtl number
C) Schmidt number
D) Froude number
B) Nusselt number
C) Grashof number
34.
35.
being
dried.
A) thickness
C) cube of thickness
36.
37.
C) initial concentration
D) reaction rate
38.
B0 70
C) 80
D) 90
For a constant volume flow rate in a cream separator the square of the
separated
C) number of discs
D) coefficient of viscosity of skim milk
39.
The temperature range for ultra high temperature (UHT) sterilization of milk
is
40.
A) 90 to 1000 C
B) 100 to 1150 C
C) 135 to 1500 C
Losses of nutrients during heating of food products are guided by ----------order reaction.
A) Zero
B) First
C) second
2]
5]
6]
8]
11]
12]
13]
When Reynolds number between 2100 to 2300 then flow is termed as transit
flow region.
14)
15]
16]
18]
21]
22]
The heat transfer is constant when temperature remain constant with time.
23]
24]
25]
26]
27]
28]
Heat exchanger is a dvice for transferring heat from a hot stream of fluid to a
cold stream.
29)
30]
31]
32]
33]
34]
35]
36]
38]
39]
40]
41]
42]
43]
44]
b) Prandti number
c) Nusselt number
d) Fornde number
b) = 1, = 0, p = 0
c) = 1, = 1, p = 0
131
45]
47]
48]
51]
52]
53]
54]
55]
56]
57]
58]
59]
60]
61]
Heat exchanger is device for transferring heat from a hot stream of fluid to a
cold stream.
62]
63]
64]
65]
67]
70]
73]
74]
75]
76]
77]
78]
79]
The Sp. heat at constant volume is less than Sp. heat at constant pressure.
80]
81]
82]
83]
84]
85]
86]
The energy required to move the substance against it's pressure is known as
flow work.
87]
88]
89]
90]
91]
92]
93]
94]
95]
96]
97]
in a cycle produces no other effect to extract heat from a single reservoir and
do equivalent amount of work.
98]
99]
Porosity is determined by
PD
1 - BD
x 100
167] The end point of constant rate period shows 12% moisture content.
168] Roundness is a measure of sharpness of the corner of the solid.
174] LSU dryer was developed at Louisiana USA 1949.
175] The modern facilities for storing grains in bulk is called as grading.
176] Attrition mill reduces the size of materials by Shear & Crushing.
178] Grading of seeds on the basis of differences in length takes place in Disc
separator.
179] Fineness modulus indicates the uniformity.
180] Specific gravity separator separates the grain on the basis of density/ specific
gravity
181] Screw conveyors are used to handle finely divided powders, damp, sticky, and
granular.
188] Grading of seeds on the basis of differences in length takes place in Disc
separator.
189] Finencess modulus indicates the uniformity of grind in the resultant product.
191] Flour meal is a trade term used relative to the reduction of grain into meal or
flour.
192] Screw conveyors are used to handle finely divided powders, damp, sticky and
granular.
196] Roundness is the measure of the sharpness of the corners of fruits.
201] Weight basis moisture is important physical property for the design of storage
structure.
202] Pectin is important for fruit Jelly formation.
206] Rheology is a science devoted to the study of deformation and flow.
207] The ratio CO2 to O2 is termed as respiration quotient.
208] Respiration rate per unit weight is incren for the immature fruit or vegetable.
209] Weight basis moisture content is more commonly used in drying calculations.
212] Steam is vapourised water.
213] Frezing point of milk is always lower than water and veries with composition
of the milk.
214] Reynolds number for streamine flow <2100.
136
138
Set B
1.
2.
The method which depreciates the tractor of machine to zero at the end of its
expected life is known as
A) estimated value
B) sum-of the digits
C) declining balance
D) straight line
3.
4.
in
5.
The type of furrow opener recommended for use in hard or trashy ground and
also in wet, sticky soils is
A) single disc type
B) stub runner type
C) full or curved runner type
D) hoe type
6.
In axial flow power threshers, a spike tooth cylinder is preferred over a rasp bar
139
cylinder
because
A) it has more positive feeding action
B) it requires less power
C) it does not plug as easily
D) all of the above
7.
the
8.
poorest traction
The type of starting aid generally used in diesel power tiller is
A) glow plug
B) thermo start
C) decompression lever
D) intake manifold surrounded by exhaust manifold
9.
10.
The most common fertilizer metering device used in a seed cum fertilizer drill
is
A) revolving bottom plate
B) vertical rotor with grooves
C) adjustable opening with agitator disc
D) star wheel
140
11.
For tractor conditions the desired temperature drop in the water as it passes
form
the top of the radiator to the bottom should lie in the range of
A) 2.5 to 5.5 0C
B) 5.5 to 8.50C
C) 8.5 to 11.50C
D) 11.5 to 14.50C
12.
13.
The undamped natural frequency of wheel of tractors generally lies in the range
of
A) 5 to 10 Hz
B) 10 to 15 Hz
C) 15 to 20 Hz
D) 20 to 25 Hz
14.
15.
16.
18.
19.
20.
In a simply supported beam the bending moment at zero shear force will be
A) zero
B) maximum
C) minimum
D) any value between maximum and minimum
21.
22.
Hydrometry is the
A) practice of using hydrometer
B) science of hydrograph analysis
C) science of measurement of flow
142
24.
soils
B) heavy rainfall with permeable deep soils
C) low rainfall with permeable deep soils
D) very high rainfall with permeable shallow soils
25.
26.
In a stall barn, the floor space required for each cow is between
A) 3.5 to 5.5 m2
B) 5.6 to 7.5 m2
C) 7.6 to 9.5 m2
D) 9.6 to 11.6 m2
27.
28.
D) solidified nitrogen
29.
Most spoilage and pathogenic bacteria those contaminate food materials have
water activity in the range of
A) 0.91 to 0.99
B) 0.86 to 0.90
C) 0.81 to 0.85
D) 0.75 to 0.80
30.
Under the most ideal conditions a bacterium may reproduce itself as often as
A) every 20 to 30 seconds
B) every 20 to 30 minutes
C) every 20 to 30 hours
D) every 2 to 3 days
31.
32.
33.
34.
of
One tonne of refrigeration is equivalent to the heat required to melt one tonne
ice in
A) 6 h
B) 12 h
144
C) 18 h
D) 24 h
35.
36.
37.
38.
Energy required to break a drop of liquid into small droplets will depend
mainly
on
145
COMPUTER
What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 20.
A) 1010 B) 1111
C) 1110
D) 1000
B) 47
C) 56
D) 89
C) NetScape Navigator
D) Internet Explorer
B) Interl Param
B) MsDOS
B) Windows 95
D) StarOffice
B) ALU
C) Memory
D) IO Units.
B) Document Preparation
C) Presentation
D) Spread Sheet.
B) C++ Programming
B) Internet
D) Word Processor
If one has to simply see the contents page by page of a file xyz, What command
should be used.
A) More XYZ B) dir XYZ C) Show XYZ
D) type XYZ
To List out the names of files in current directory, with file size date of creation etc,
what would be the command?
146
A) Is
B) Is-Is
C) Is ( filename)
D) Filename) Is
To list of the files whose name begins with mau in the current directory the command
would be:
A) Is mau?
C) Is Is mau
B) Is mau*
D) dir mau
B) /
B)
D.
D) gcc-o mkv
mkv.c Im
B) joe Pract2
C joe
pract2.c
What command should I use to get help on the function srandom on my VDU?
A) man srandom
directory_______________.
A)
/home
C) /dev/1p0
B)
/home/a00p24
D) Management type, CD
B) Optical Scanners
C) Printers
D) Vedeo cameras
B) UPS
B) MODEM
D) HUB
2KB is equal to
147
A) 2000 Bytes
B) 2048 Bytes
B) 2048 bits
D) 200 Bytes
B) 5.25
C) 10
D) 8
B) 6
The loop
will execute__times
C) 3
D) 4
A) I=0 , 1, 2, 3, 4
B) i=0, 9
B) i=0, 5, 10
D) i=0, 5
A) Not defined
B) 7.1
B) 5.4
D) 4.8
B)hsamau@rediffmail.com
B) Hsamau.rediffmail@com
D)has@hotmail.com
A) Preprocessor instruction
C) Branching instruction
D) Compiler instruction
Ms Word is a part of
A) MAUSTAT
B) UNIX applications
B) MS Window applications
D) Star Office
MS Excel is a part of
A) Disk Operating System
B) Linux Applications
B) MS Windows applications
D) Email Software
B) World Processing
System which can process TEXT, SOUND and Color Graphic is called
148
A) Video Player
B) Multimedia
C) Graphic Software
D) Scanner
B) OUTPUT
c) I-O
B) LAN
B) WAN
D) HUB
B) SMS
B) Fax
What is the sequence of keys you use to log out of your terminal?
A) Alt + d
B) ctrl+d
B) Ctrl + alt+del
D) shift+d
What is the type of terminal you are using for text only processing?
A) Vt100
B)vt220
C) AT386
B) random ( )
and print f(
B) 3.4568945 e- 01 C) 34.56
D)34.5689450
B) 2
C)2.0
D)2.08
B) Spread Sheet
149
B) Image Processor
D) Operating System
The number -45 is a constant of date type int. What is the date type of the number
-7. 890?
A) Double
B) float
C) char
D) int.
B)2
C)3
D) None of these
B) MODEM
B) The C- Compiler
D) DOS
B) Hard Disk
B) Joe- Editor
D) Scanner
B) linear regression
B) Multiple regression
D) Digitization
B) Exactly 12 cells
D) Exactly 10 cells
Contents of D5, D6, E5, E6 are ,3 5, 7, 9. The cell E7 contains the formula =- SUM
(D5:E6)
A) 12
B) 10
C) 24
D)21
The contents of Cell D17 are 0.05 Then function = TINV (D17, 24) gives the
A) Value of t for df = 24
B) core Memory
150
B) Floppy disks
D) Hard disks
B) Application Software
B) Communication Software
B) Herman Hollerith
B) Bill Gates
D) Narayana Murthy
B. Transistor
C. valve
B. Plate current
c. Mutual conductance
B. Amplification factor
C. Plate resistance
B. Low
C. Comparable.
Q.6 For constant plate voltage, the negative grid voltage at which the plate current
becomes zero is called as
A. Zero bias voltage
B. Grid cutoff
C. Plate cutoff B .
B. 25 mmho
C 2.5 mmho
B. Change appreciably
151
C. Cannot say.
C.1
B. 5
C. 9
B. 5
C. 7
B. Positive
C. Neutral
B. Decreases
C. No effect
B. Decreases
C. No. effect
C. None
C. None
Q.19 Diode is a
A. Bidirectional device B. Unidirectional device C. Both
Q.20 The maximum efficiency of a HWR is
A. 40.6%
B. 81.2 %
C. More than 81 %
B. 81.2 %
C. More than 81 %
B. 1.21
C. More than 2
B. 1.21
C. More than 2
B. Less
C. Cannot say
B. Less
C. Cannot say
B. 2f
C. 0.5 f
B. Regulator
C. Filter
B. 2
C. 1
B. Holes
C. Both
B. Holes
c. Both
C. Not based
B. Reverse biased
C. Not biased
B. Heavily doped
transistor, collector is
A. Lightly doped
B. Heavily doped
B. Heavily doped
a transistor, base is
A. Lightly doped
B. E > C> B
C. E > B > C
Q.38. In a transistor, if IE, IB & IC are emitter current base current and collector
153
B. iB + Ic = lE
c. lE + Ic = IB
Q.39 Transistor is a
A. Current controlled device
B. Voltage controlled device
C. None of these
Q.40 The emitter current amplification factor (alpha) is always
A. More than 1
B. Less than 1
C. None of these
B. Alpha /(l-Alpha)
C.
Alpha
(l
Alpha)
Q.42 The i/p resistance of a transisor circuit in common collector type connection is
A. Very high
B. Very low
C. Cannot say
Q.43 In common emitter amplifier, phase difference between input & output is A. 90
B. 180
C. 0
B. Operating point
C. None
B. 6 V, 1 mA
C. 5 V, 1 mA
B. o/p resistance
G. Gain
D. All
Q.47 A change of 200 mv in B-E voltage of a transistor causes a change of 100 micro
amp in IB. The i/p resistance of the transistor is,
A. 200 ohms
B. 2000 ohms
C. 20 ohms
C. feedback
154
B. Avoid feedback
C. Both
Q. 51 In a CE self biased transistor amplifier, the purpose of emitter resistance RE is
to provide
A. Stabilization
B. Emitter bias
C. Feedback
B. out of phase
C. None
B. In phase
C. None
Q.54 In a transistor amplifier, when collector current flows for entire cycle of the
input voltage, it is classified as
A. Class A amplifier
B. Class B amplifier
C. Class C amplifier
Q.55 In a transistor amplifier, when collector current flows for half cycle of the input,
it is classified as
A. Class A amplifier
B. Class B amplifier
B. Sensitivity
C. Resolution
B. 200
C. 20
Q.58 Range of frequency over which the gain of the amplifier is more than 70.7 % of
the maximum gain, is called
A. High gain range
B. Bandwidth
C. 20 db
B. 10,000
C. 100
Q.61 Two single stage amplifiers having gain 60 each with Rc=500 ohms and input
resistance= 1 kilo ohm, are cascaded through Rc coupling. The overall gain would be
A. 3600
B. 2397
C. 60
155
Q.62 When Rc coupled and transformer coupled amplifiers are compared, the
frequency response of transformer coupled amplifier is
A. Similar
B. Poor
C. better
Q.63 When Rc coupled and transformer coupled amplifiers are compared, impedance
matching in Rc coupled amplifier is
A. Poor B. Excellent C. Similar
Q.64 With negative feedback, noise in amplifier
A. Do not change
B. Reduced
C. Increased
Q.65 The process of injecting a fraction of output to the input of an amplifier is known
as
A. Feedback
B. +ve feedback
C. -ve feedback
B. Decreases
C. Do not change
Q. 67 When negative feedback is employed, the gain of an amplifier falls from 140 to
17.5. The fraction feedback is
A. 8
B. 1/8
C. 1/20
Q.68 d.c. power can be converted in to sinusoidal a.c. of desired frequency using
A. Oscillator
B. Inverter
C. Both
B. Tank circuit
C. Oscillator circuit
Q.70 A tank circuit having inductance L and capacitance C produces oscillations of
frequency, (pi=: 3.142)
A. 2pi Sqrt (LC)
For an oscillator to work, the product of gain and feedback fraction should be
A. More than 1
B. 1
c. Less than 1
B. -ve feedback
C. No feedback A.
B. Frequency
C. None of these
called as
A. Demodulation
B. Modulation
C. HP transmission
B. Modulation
C. None of these
Q.76 The ratio of change in amplitude of carrier wave to its original amplitude is
called
A. Modulation ratio
B. 0
C. Infinity
B. 11.1%
C. 33.3%
B. Low
C. Cannot say
B. Very low
C. Moderate
B. Bistable
C. Monostable
B. 8 bits
C. 8 bytes
B. 16 bits
C. 8 bytes
B. Bus
C. Array
B. Input device
B. 8 bit words
157
C. 4 bit words
B. 0.01
C. 1/0.99
B.1101
C.1110
B. More than 1
C. Equal to 1
B. Triode
C. Diode
B. True
B. Reverse bias
C. None of these
B. Increase gain
B. Negative
C: Cannot say
Q.97 In a practical CE amplifier, number of batteries used for biasing the circuit are
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
B. 11
C.22
B. Precision
B. Precision
C. Sensitivity
158
c. Error
B. Error
C. None of these
B. Measured value
C. Both of these
Static error in an instrument includes
A. Mistakes
B. Instrumental errors
C. Random errors
D. All these
B. Dynamic Characteristics
c. None of these
In a thermometer with range 0 to 100 c & accuracy of + l. 0.5% of full scale value, the
error in reading of 55 c is
A. +/- 0.275 c
A pressure gauge of range 20 bar has error of +/- 0.25 bar, then % error on full scale
basis is
A. +/- 5% C
B. +/- 0.125%
C. +/- 1.25%
B. 1.1%
C.0.2%
A pressure gauge reads 48 kg/sq.cm for a pressure of 50 kg/sq.cm. The relative error
is
A. 2%
B. 4%
C.1%
The maximum error in an instrument with range of200 to 1200 deg. c and accuracy of
+1- 0.25 % is
A. 2.5 deg. celcius B. 3 deg. celcius
C. None of these
The instruments which give value of the measurand in terms of its deflection &
constants only are ..
A. Secondary Instruments
B. Deflecting Instruments
C. Absolute instruments
The instruments precalibrated by comparison with absolute instruments are
159
A. Calibrated instruments
B. Secondary instruments
C. absolute instrument
In an indicating instrument, essential force is
A. Restoring torque
B. Deflecting torque
C. Damping torque
D. All these
B. Controlling torque
C. Deflecting torque
B. sin(angle)
C. cos(angle)
B. Positive
C. Zero
B. Peltier effect
C. Piezoelectric effect
B. Propogation
c. None of these
B. -40 degree
C. 40 degree
B. Vacuum
C. Atmospheric pressure
A pressure of 1 mm of Hg is equal to
A. 1 pascal
B. 1 torr
C. I N/sq.m
B. 1.58 ohm
C. 15.8 ohms
A milliameter with 3 ohm resistance & 150 mA max current is used to measure up to
160
B. 97 ohms C. 97 kilo-ohms
C. Both
B. sin(angle) C. cos(angle)
C. any of these
B. Unmodulated
C. None of these
B. Series opposition
C. Parallel
B. Unmodulated
C. None of these
B. Solar cell
C. None of these
The ratio of change in dimension brought about by load application to the initial
dimension is defined as
A. Stress
B. Strain
C. Young's modulus
161
B. Diameter C. Both
A. Gauge factor
B. Gauge factor
C. Poissons ratio
B. Wheatstones bridge
C. Either of these
B. Temperature
C. Thermal capacity
B. Semiconductor C. Insulator
B. Positive
C. Zero
B. Fast
C. Cannot say
B. Linear
C. Random
High temperatures are measured without physical contact with the body using
A. Bimetal thennometers
B. pyrometers
C.RRDs
B. 1 pascal
C. 1 torr
B. 76 mm of Hg
C. 760 pascal
B. 101.325 pascal
C. 1.013 pascal
B. bar.
C. pascal
A. More
B. Less
C. Cannot say
B. Relay
B. Proportional control
C. PID'control
B. Increase
C. No change
C. Quadratic
B. Thermopile
A moving coil meter of 150 turns on a square former of side 3 cm & flux density in air
gap is 0.05 wb/sq.met. The defl. torque with current of 15 mA is
A. 1012.5 N.m
B. 101.25 N.m
C. 10.125 N.m
B. poor precision
C. good accuracy
B. Faradays Law
C. Peltier's Theoram
B. Dynamic pressure
B. Hysterisis
C. Error
B. Faraday's Law
C. Peltier effect
B. Decrease
c. Not change
B. 49 deg
F C. 77 deg F
B. Photoconductive cell
c. Photovoltaic cell
When certain natural crystal is deformed, electric charge is generated on its opposite
163
B. piezoelectric effect
B. Displacement
C. pressure
B. Metal wire
C. Insulator
Hydraulic conductivity.
Rainfall rate
164
and
granular
characteristics.
19. The main problem fro sloping area is erosion.
20. Flatter slops are generally drained in Shorter lengths.
21. The grade in the direction of the drains must be continuous with a minimum of
0.10%.
22. Two dimensional flow is one in which velocity is a function of two coordinates only.
23. The relationship governing the laminar flow of water through capillary tube is
known as Poiseuilli law or capillary tube hypothesis.
24. Soil hydrologic groups are 1) A 2) B
3) C
4) D.
(Antecedent Masture
condition I.
26. Gypsum is added to reclaim alkali / Sodic soils.
27. Drain Spacing is directly proportional to square root of K & H.
28. The finer the texture, the smaller the size of pores and more/ greater the need
for artificial drainage.
29. Corrugated pipes have considerably more hydraulic resistance than smooth
pipe.
165
30. If there is distinct natural direction or ground water flow, the lateral can best
be laid perpendicular to the main flow.
31. In the soil profile, leaching efficiency usually decreases with depth.
32. After the dissolved oxygen in waterlogged soils has been consumed anaerobic
decomposition of organic matter takes place.
33. A water table within 1.5 m is usually not desirable.
34. Hydraulic gradient can be measured by installing several piezometers side by
side, but at different depths below the soil surface .
35. Clay tiles are usually made in lengths of about 30 cm.
36. Exchangeable sodium percentage (ESP) in saline alkali soil is >15%.
37. Hydraulic conductivity in all directions is different anisotropic soils.
38. Soil having Platy structure has poor drainage properties.
39. A Permeable soil seldom needs artificial drainage, except when the soil has a
high WT.
40. In arid and semi and zones part of the losses as beneficial in view of
maintaining an acceptable salt level in the soil.
41. The drainage requirements depend on both quality
and
quantity
of
irrigation water.
42. Subsurface drainage is always a closed drainage.
43. Soils having a platy structure or aggregates with horizontal axis more than
vertical have poor drainage properties.
44. The relationship governing the laminar flow of water through capillary tube is
know as Poiseuilli law or capillary tube hypothesis
45. Drainage removes only gravitational (free) water from the soil
46. Platy type of soil structure has poor drainage properties as they resist
downward movement of water.
47. h / q is the drainage criterion for steady state ground water conditions in
rainfed areas.
48. The saline soil can be reclaimed by adding excess water.
49. Filter is provided to increase effective diameter of drains.
166
Unit of
fluid
and
porus medium
properties.
52. The standard erosion control terrace is a ridge type graded terrace also called
Magnum terrace.
53. The PH of the saline soils are usually less than < 8.5.
54. The cross slops ditch system is a channel type graded terrace also called
Nichols terrace.
55. The saline soils are reclaimed by leaching
Set B
1. Isotropic soils are the soil in which the hydraulic conductivity of soil is same
in all direction.
2. Anistropic soils are the soil in which the hydraulic conductivity of soil is
different in all direction.
3. Critical depth is the depth to which the water table will fall in the absence of
seepage or natural drainage and at which capillary rise is reduced to almost
zero.
4. Envelope is the material placed around the pipe drains to serve one or a
combination of the following functions.
i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
167
18. Hydraulic conductivity is rate of flow of water in liter per day through
horizontal cross sectional area of one square meter of the aquifer under a
hydraulic gradient of one meter per meter at the providing temperature of
water.
19. The various characteristics of flowing fluid such as velocity pressure density,
temperature etc. are in general the function of space and time i.e. these may
very with the co-ordinates of any point x,y,z and time t such a flow is called as
three dimensional flow. If these characteristic do not vary with respect to time
the flow will be steady flow.
20. When the flow characteristics are the function of two of the three co
ordinate and time the flow is called as two dimensional flow.
Set C
1) Recommended safe limits of land slope for border in medium loam soil 0.20 %
to 0. 40%.
2) The forward movement of waterfront along the irrigation run is called as
than 2.
9) Booster pump is used with an existing pumping system installed in a well and
169
formula as V= c Rs.
11) Venturi is device used for fertigation in sprinkler irrigation system.
12) Pressure gauge is used to measure the pressure of nozzle in sprinkler system.
13) Drip irrigation is not practical for Paddy crop
14) In areas of intense rainfall the furrow grade should not exceed 0.5 % so as to
infiltration.
17) Check basin is the most suitable method of irrigation for fodder maize crop.
18) Size of stream is the controlling factor in border irrigation which can be
0.20%
24) The area covered by rotating head sprinkle may be estimated as suggested by
170
q = ca 2gh.
32) The hydraulic resistance is estimated on the basis of soil resistance &
0.2 to 0.40%.
34) In drip irrigation the design criteria is based on a lateral flow variation of 40%
method.
39) The furrow stream usually varies from 0.5 to 2.5 lps.
7. Take off valves are generally needed to control pressure in the sprinkler lateral
lines.
8. In long path emitters the pressure is dissipated during flow through long
narrow paths.
9. For all practicable purposes the value of reduction coefficient for multiple
outlet laterals in drip irrigation system is 0.37.
10. It is customary to clean the filter when the pressure head drop across the filter
is about 2 m (6.6 ft).
11. In the presowing irrigation the hydraulic resistance offered to the flow of
water is due to roughness of the ground surface.
12. The recommended lengths of borders for sand loam soils are less than the
recommended lengths of borders for clay loam and clay soils.
13. Carbonate deposits should be removed by acid treatment using solutions of
0.5 to 1.0 percent acid injected at manifolds or lateral inlets give a contact time
of 30 minutes in the emitters.
14. The inflow-outflow method for measuring the infiltration in furrow irrigation
is also known as volume balance method.
15. A automatic volume control system turns water on and off in response to
moisture sensing devices placed in the irrigated area.
16. The condition of drop size is good when Pd index for jet break up is greater
than 2.
17. The maximum non-erosive flow rate in furrow is estimated by equation qm =
0.60/s
qm = Maximum non- erosive stream lps,
s = slope of furrow %
18. The width of border usually varies from 3 to 15 m.
18. Ventury is a device used for fertigation i.e. application of fertilizer along
with irrigation water.
19. Time of ponding is also called as infiltration opportunity time.
20. Straight or graded borders laid along (down) the general slope of the field.
172
21. The length of border in sandy soil is generally less than the length of border
in clay soil.
22. Hygroscopic water is held tightly to the surface of soil particle by adsorption
forces.
23. One millimeter depth of water over an area of 100 m is 100 liter of water.
24. The maximum non-erosive flow rate in furrows (qm) in lps can be estimated by
empirical equation qm = 0.60/s.
25. The pressure head vs emitter discharge relationship is governed by the
equation q=kd.Hx or q=dHb,
Q = discharge of emitter lph or gallon per hour (gph)
Kd= constant of proportionality.
H = working pressure head at the emitter M ( ft)
X = emitter discharge exponent characterize by flow regime.
26. For fully pressure compensating emitters the discharge exponent (x) is zero.
27. The principal of pressure differential or vacuum creation is used in ventury
of drip irrigation system.
28. Hydrocyclone (sand separator or centrifugal) filter is the most efficient for
removal of very fine sand from the irrigation water.
29. In post emergence irrigations, the hydraulic resistance offered to a flow of
water is due to roughness of ground surface and retardance offered by the plant
stems and leaves.
30. The width of a border usually from 3 to 15 m.
31. When the plants are widely spaced ring method of check basin may be
adopted.
32. The recommended safe limits of land slope for border in clay soils is 0.05 to
0.20%.
33. The inflow-outflow method of measuring the infiltration in furrow irrigation is
also known as volume balance method.
34. Maximum coverage is attained when the jet emerged from the sprinkler at an
angle of 30 to 32 above the horizontal.
173
35. Water storage efficiency indicates how completely water needed prior to
irrigation has been stored in the root zone during irrigation.
36. The pressure variation and emitter flow variation are related by expression q =
kd.Hx.
37. The condition of drop size is good when jet break up index Pd is greater than
2.
38. The total pressure variation in laterals when should not be more than 20% of
higher pressure.
39. Infiltration opportunity time is also called as time of ponding.
40. A useful thumb rule in check basin design is that the water spread in the entire
basin should be covered in of the th time required to infiltrate the net depth of
irrigation water.
35. The relation between pressure head & emitter discharge is expressed by
Q = kd.Hx with usual notations.
36. When the value of x i.e. emitter discharge exponent is lower that means the less
discharge will be affected by pressure variations.
37. For fully turbulent flow value of x i.e. emitter discharge exponent is 0.5 & laminar
flow x is 1.0.
38. Non compensating emitters on nozzles are always fully turbulent & NPC is 0.5
and fully compensating emitters x is zero.
39. The value of x i.e. exponent of long path emitters may range any where between
0.5 to 1.0.
True / False
1.
Check basin irrigation method is most suitable for maize crop. - True
174
- False
3. In lighter type of soil frequency of irrigation is low than heavy soils. - True
4. A minimum furrow grade or 0.05 % is needed to ensure surface drainage.
- True
5. The hydraulic resistance in a vegetated border strips can be expressed as
Mannings n. - True
6. Contour furrow method is similar to the graded method, but the furrows carry
water across a sloping field rather than down the slopes. - True
7. The flow in a border strip is a care of spatially varied and unsteady open
infiltration. True
10. Two nozzle sprinklers are used for low water application rates. False
11. Level borders have gentle slope in the direction of irrigation. True
12. With higher pressure the water from the nozzle breaks up into very fine drops
- True
16. Recession in check basin may be taken as subsidence of water due to
infiltration. - True
17. The size or for stream usually varies for 0.5 to 2.5 lps - True
18. When land slope exceed safe limits, fields are undulating and leveling is not
pressure. True
22. Single nozzle sprinkler are used for high water application. False
23. Check basin method is suitable for irrigated crops which are sensitive to wet
of 40%.- False
32. Water application efficiencies below 100% are due to seepage losses from the
field distribution channel and deep percolation below crop root zone. True
33. The condition of drop size is the best when Pd index for the jet back up is zero.
False
34. DI method should be adopted to save the water and also for use of saline water,
True
36. Land leveling is prerequisite for adopting drip system or irrigation. False
37. Deep percolation loss is minimum by sprinkler irrigation as compared to the
open channel flow over a porous bed with free surface. False
40. The flow in a border strip is a case of spatially varied unsteady non- uniform
Set B
1. In trickle irrigation design the design criteria is generally based on an emitter
flow variation of 20% - False (less than 20%).
2. Recession in a check basin may be taken as the subsidence of water due to
infiltration True.
3. Two nozzle sprinklers are used for low water application rates - False (single
nozzle sprinklers).
4. Level borders have gentle slope in the direction of irrigation - True.
5. With high pressure the water from the nozzle breaks up into very fine drops
and fall very near the sprinkle True.
6. Sprinkler method of irrigation is usually suitable in very fine textured soils
(heavy clay soils) where infiltration rates are less than about 4 mm/hr - False (
not suitable in very fine textured soils)
7. The overlap of the area of influence of the sprinklers decreases with increase
in wind velocity True.
8. In a sloping area the connection between the manifold and sub main should be
placed in the middle of the manifold - False (in a sloping area, it should be
placed so the uphill portion of the manifold is shorter than the downhill
portion).
9. In a Flat area the connection between the manifold and sub main
should be placed in the middle of the manifold or lateral live to split the
flow evenly- True.
10. The emitter discharge exponent for the fully pressure can pen sating emitters in
one - False (zero).
177
11. Clay soils having low infiltration rates permit large size basins while sandy
and sandy loam soils with high infiltration rates allow small size basins
False.
12. In case of border irrigation method a large stream is used to apply shallower
irrigation depth and a smaller stream is used to apply greater irrigation depth
True.
13. Corrugations are deep furrows- False. (small furrow)
14. To obtain a reasonable degree of uniformity in the discharge of each sprinkler
the laterals should be located in the general direction of the steepest slope with
the mains at right angle to laterals False.
Mains located in the general
Direction of slope
Laterals right angles to mains i.e. across the slope
15. Water distribution efficiency indicates how efficiently the water is applied to
the field False (distributed)
16. Trickle irrigation can be adapted to uneven terrain more readily than surface
irrigation True.
17. Sprinkler irrigation is most suitable for jute False.
18. Level boards have gentle slope in the direction of irrigation.-True.
19. Saline water can be used for irrigation through drip irrigation method- True.
20. Recession in a check basin may be taken as the subsidence of water due to
infiltration - True.
21. In trickle irrigation design the design criteria is generally based on an emitter
flow variation of 20% - False (less than 20%)
22. In drip irrigation design, the design criterion is generally based on an emitter
flow variation of less than 20% - True (about 40% pressure variation for lateral
line)
23. Lateral flow variation of less than 5% (about 10% pressure variation)
for a submain. - True
24. Check basin method of irrigation is suitable to irrigate the crops which are
sensitive to wet soil conditions False.
178
25. Check basin method of irrigation is not suitable for crops which are sensitive
to wet soil condition. - True
26. Furrow irrigation is most suitable to sandy soils which has a very high
infiltration rates - False (Not suitable to sandy soils)
27. Corrugation irrigation is most suitable in loamy soils in which the lateral
movement of water takes place readily True.
28. Single nozzle sprinklers are generally used for high water application rate
False.
29. In sprinkler irrigation, the larger drop size of water loses less velocity and
travel further True.
30. Water distribution efficiency indicates how completely water needed prior to
irrigation has been stored in the root zone during irrigation False. (Storage
efficiency = Water stored / Water needed).
31. The total pressure variation in the laterals when practicable should not
be
b) viscosity
c) Kinematic viscosity
9. The multiplying factor for converting the poise into MKS unit of dynamic
viscosity is
a) 9.81
b) 98.1
c) 981
d) 0.981
b) is equal to 0.50
12. Pascals law states that pressure at a point is equal in all directions
a) In a liquid at rest
b) in a fluid at rest
b) In a laminar flow
d) in a turbulent flow.
13. The hydrostatic law states that rate of increases of pressure in a vertical
direction is equal to
a) Density of the fluid
b) specific weight of the fluid
c) weight of the fluid
d) none of the above
14. Fluid static deals with
a) viscous and pressure forces
b) viscous and gravity forces
c) gravity and pressure forces
d) surface tension and gravity forces.
15. Gauge pressure at a point is equal to
181
b) 8.5 m
c) 9.81 m
d) 10.30 m
b) wAh sin
c) wAh
d) wAh sin
21. For a floating body, the buoyant force passes through the
a) centre of gravity of the body
b) centre of gravity of the submerged part, of the body
c) metacentre of the body
d) centroid of the liquid displaced by the body
b) flow
c) velocity at a point
d) discharge
b) momentum
c) energy
c) the net rotation of fluid particles about their mass centers is zero
d) None of the above
b) Momentum
c) Energy
36. The relation between tangential velocity (V) and radius r is given by
a) V x r = Constant for forced vortex
b) V / r = Constant for forced vortex
c) V x r = Constant for free vortex
d) V / r = Constant for free vortex
b) Venturei meter
c) Orifice meter
42. The range for con-efficient of discharge (c) for a venture meter is
a) 0.6 to 0.7
b) 0.7 to 0.8
c) 0.8 to 0.9
d) 0.95 to 0.99
b) Cd = Cv x Cc
c) Cd = Cc / Cv
45. An orifice is known as large orifice when the head of liquid from the centre
of orifice is
a) more than 10 times the depth of orifice
b) less than 10 times the depth of orifice
c) less than 5 times the depth of orifice
d) none of the
50. The loss of pressure head for the laminar flow through pipes varies
a) as the square of velocity
b) directly as the velocity
c) as the inverse of the velocity
d) none of the above
51. For the laminar flow through a pipe, the shear stress over the cross- section
a) varies inversely as the distance from the centre of the pipe
b) varies inversely as the distance from the surface of the pipe
c) varies inversely as the distance from the centre of the pipe
d) remains constant over the cross- section.
53. The value of the kinetic energy correction factor (a) for the viscous flow
through a circular pipe is
a) 1.33
b) 1.50
c) 2.0
d) 1.25
54. The value of the momentum correction factor (b) for the viscous flow
through a circular pipe is
a) 1.33
b) 1.50
187
c) 2.0
d) 1.5
57. The velocity distribution in laminar flow through a circular pipe follows the
a) parabolic law
b) liner law
c) logarithmic law
64. When the pipes are connected in series the total rate of flow
a) is equal to the sum of the rate of low in each pipe
b) is equal to the reciprocal of the sum of the rate of flow in each pipe.
c) is the same as flowing through each pipe
d) none of the above
67. The velocity of pressure wave in terms of bulk modulus (k) and density
188
(p) is given by
a) C= p/k
c)
C = K/p
b) C= Kp
d) none of the above
77. Boundary layer thickness is the distance from the surface of the
190
78. Drag is defined as the force exerted by a flowing fluid on a solid body
a) in the direction of flow.
b) perpendicular to the direction of flow
c) is the direction which is at an angle of 450 to the direction of flow
d) none of the above
79. Lift force is defined as the force exerted by a flowing fluid on a solid body
a) in the direction of flow.
b) perpendicular to the direction of flow
c) at an angle of 450 to the direction of flow
d) none of the above
94. A body is called stream lined when it is placed in a flow and the surface of
the body
a) coincides with the streamlines
b) does not coincide with the streamlines
c) is perpendicular to the streamlines
d) none of the above
97. The skin friction drag on a sphere (for Reynoldss number less than 0.2) is
equal to
a) one third of the total drag
b) half of the total drag
c) two thirds of the total drag
d) none of the above
98. The pressure drag on a sphere (for Reynolds number less than 0.2 is equal
to
a) one third of the total drag
b) half of the total drag
c) two thirds of the total drag
d) non of the above.
192
100. When a falling body has attained terminal velocity the weight of the body
is equal to
a) drag force minus buoyant force.
b) buoyant force minus drag force
c) drag force plus the buoyant force
d) none of the above
b) zero
c) unpredictable
124. The centre of pressure for a plane vertical surface lies at a depth of
a) half the height of the immersed surface
b) one- third the height of the immersed surface
c) two- third height of the immersed surface
d) none of the above
127. The point through which the buoyant force is acting is called
a) centre pressure
b) centre of gravity
c) centre of buoyancy
d) none of the above
194
129. The point about which floating body starts oscillating when the body is
tilted is called
a) Centre pressure
b) Centre of gravity
c) Centre of buoyancy
d) Metacentre
131. For a floating body if the metacentre is above the centre of gravity the
equilibrium is called
a) Stable
b) Unstable
c) Neutral
d) None of the above
132. For a floating body if the metacentre below the centre of gravity the
equilibrium is called
a) stable
b) unstable
c) neutral
d) none of the above
133. For a floating body, if the metacentre coincides with the centre of gravity
the equilibrium is called
a) stable
b) unstable
c) neutral
d) none of the above
134. For a floating body if centre of buoyancy is above the centre of gravity the
equilibrium is called
195
a) stable
b) unstable
c) neutral
d) none of the above
136. For a submerged body if the centre of buoyancy is above the centre of
gravity the equilibrium is called
a) stable
b) unstable
c) neutral
d) none of the above
137. For a submerged body, if the centre of buoyancy coincides with the center
of gravity the equilibrium is called
a) stable
b) unstable
c) neutral
d) none of the above
138. For a submerged body, if the metacentre is below the centre of gravity the
equilibrium is called
a) stable
b) unstable
c) neutral
d) none of the above
138. For a submerged body, if the centre of buoyancy is below the centre of
gravity the equilibrium, is called
a) stable
196
b) unstable
c) neutral
d) none of the above
141. If the velocity, pressure, density etc., do not change at a point with respect
to time the flow is called
a) uniform
b) incompressible
c) non- uniform
d) steady
142. If the velocity, pressure, density etc change at a point with respect to time,
the flow is called
a) unsteady flow
b) uniform flow
c) incompressible flow
d) rotational flow
143. If the velocity in a fluid flow does not change with respect to length of
direction of flow, it is called.
a) unsteady flow
b) uniform flow
c) incompressible flow
d) rotational flow
145. If the density of a fluid is constant from point to point in a flow region, it
is called
a) steady flow
b) incompressible flow
c) uniform flow
197
d) rotational flow
146. If the density of a fluid changes from point to point in a flow region it is
called
a) steady flow
b) unsteady flow
c) non- uniform flow
d) compressible flow
147. If the fluid particles move in straight lines and al the lines are parallel to
the surface the flow is called
a) steady
b) uniform
c) compressible
d) laminar
148. If the fluid particles move in a zig- zag way, the flow is called
a) unsteady
b) non- uniform
c) turbulent
d) incompressible
155. Study of fluid motion with the forces causing the flow is known as
198
156. Study of fluid motion without considering the forces, causing the flow, is
known as
a) kinematics of fluid flow
b) dynamics of fluid flow
c) statics of fluid flow
d) none of the above
167. For a submerged curved surface the horizontal component of force due to
state liquid is equal to
a) Weight of liquid suppurated by the used surface
b) Force on a projection of the curved surface on a vertical plane
c) Area of curved surface x pressure at the centroid of the submerged area
200
168. For a submerged curved surface the vertical component of force due to
static liquid is equal to
a) Weight of the liquid supported by curved surface
b) Force on a project of the curved surface on a vertical plane
c) Area of curved surface x pressure at the centroid of the submerged area.
d) None of the above.
169. An oil of specific gravity 0.7 and pressure 0.14 kgf/cm2 will have the
height of oil as
a) 70 cm of oil
b) 2 m of oil
c) 20cm of oil
d) 80cm of oil
170. The difference in pressure head, measured by a mercury water differential
manometer for a 20cm difference of mercury level will be
a) 2.72 m
b) 2.52 m
c) 2.0 m
d) 0.2 m
b) h
c) H3/2
d) H5/2
b) h
c) H3/2
d) H5/2
176. The ratio of actual velocity of a jet of water at vena- contracta to the
theoretical velocity is known as
a) Co- efficient of discharge
b) Co- efficient of velocity
c) Co- efficient of contractor
d) Co- efficient of viscosity
177. The ratio of actual discharge of a jet of water to its theoretical discharge is
202
known as
a) Co- efficient of discharge
b) Co- efficient of velocity
c) Co- efficient of contraction
d) Co- efficient of viscosity
178. The ratio of the area of the jet of water at vena- contracta to the area of
orifice is known as
a) Co- efficient of discharge
b) Co- efficient of velocity
c) Co- efficient of contraction
d) Co- efficient of viscosity
b) 66.67 %
c) 75 %
d) 100 %
203
185. The square root of the ratio of inertia force to gravity force is called
a) Reynolds number
b) Froude number
c) Match number
d) Euler number
186. The square root of the ration of inertia force to force due to
compressibility is
known as
a) Reynolds number
b) Froude number
c) Mach number
d) Euler number
187. The square root of the ratio of inertia force to pressure force is known is
a) Reynolds number
b) Froude number
c) Match number
d) Eulers number
b) Froude number
c) Match number
d) Euler number
204
190. Model analysis of aero planes and projective moving at supersonic speed
are based on
a) Reynolds number
b) Froude number
c) Mach number
d) Euler number
c) transition zone
d) none of the above
194. The thickness of laminar boundary layer at a distance x from the leading
edge over a flat plate varies as
a) x 4/5
b) x
c) x 1/5
d) x 3/5
195. The thickness of turbulent boundary layer at a distance x from the leading
edge over a flat plate varies as
a) X 4/5
b) x
c) x 1/5
d) x 3/5
197. The drag force exerted by a fluid on a body immersed in the fluid is due to
a) pressure and viscous force
b) pressure and gravity force
c) pressure and turbulence force
d) above of the above
201. If the Froude number in open channel flow is less than 1.0 the flow is
called
a) critical flow
b) super- critical
c) sub- critical
d) none of the above.
202. If the Froude number in open channel flow is equal 1.0 the flow is called
a) critical flow
b) streaming flow
c) shooting flow
d) none of the above.
203. If the Froude number in open channel flow is more than 1.0 the flow is
called
207
a) critical flow
b) streaming flow
c) shooting flow
d) none of the above.
206. The maximum velocity through a circular channel takes place when depth
of flow is equal to
a) 0.95 times the diameter
b) 0.5 times the diameter
c) 0.81 times the diameter
d) 0.3 times the diameter
207. The maximum discharge a circular channel takes place when depth of
flow is equal to
a) 0.95 times the diameter
208
209
1.12
1.13
1.14
1.15
1.16
Ginning is the process of separation of the seed from the lint. True
1.17
A swinging draw bar minimizes the effect of the side draft. True
1.18
A three point hitch consists of two compression links and one tension
link. - False
1.19
Two cylinder V engines use one crank for both the cylinders. True
1.21
The clutch and brake type steering mechanism is mostly used in crawler
tractors.
210
1.23
combustion. True
1.24
Wear out life of disc ploughs and mould board ploughs is normally take
1.26
1.27
The liquid limit of sandy soil is less than that of loam soil. False
1.29
Drainable porosity of clay soil is generally less than that of loam soil.
True
1.30. The porosity of the clay soil is generally lower than that of the loam soil.
True
1.31 Barbed wire fencing is preferred on dairy farms. True
1.32 The floor of a deep bin is designed to carry the full weight of the grain
contained- False
1.33 Contour bunding is suitable for deep black soils. - False
1.34 The width of a shelter bolt is between 50 and 100 m. - False
1.35 Spillway is the most important part of a dam. True
1.36 Spurs are classified as permeable and impermeable. True
1.37 Basic hydrograph is plotted over 100 arbitrary units of flow and 10
arbitrary units of time. True
1.38 For a given watershed the duration of flow varies inversely with the peak
flow. True
1.39 Runoff rate is of primary interest in the design of flood control reservoirs.
True
1.40 Land grading land leveling and land shaping are synonymous. True
211
1.
2.
3.
4.
A tractor drawn seed drill operated at 4 kilometer per hour gives 80 kilogram
per hectare seed rate. If the tractor speed is increased to 5 kilometer per hour,
the
5.
6.
Power tillers are not generally employed for draft applications because of
A) low horse power
B) low speed
212
8.
9.
Keeping other factor constant, doubling the diameter of a tube well will
increase
the discharge by
A) 10 per cent
B) 25 per cent
C) 50 per cent
D) 100 per cent
10.
11.
12.
B) oasis effet
C) clothesline effect
D) convection of heat
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
A) Wm-1 0C-1
B) m 0C W-1
C) 0C W-1
D) Wm 0C-1
19.
20.
21.
22.
Convective heat transfer coefficient h (Wm-2 0C-1 ) and mass flux M (kg m-2 s)
of a fluid flowing through a pipe under turbulent condition are related as
A) h M
B) h M0.5
C) h M-08
D) h M0.8
23.
24.
Following component (s), if present in a food material will reduce its water
activity
A) protein
B) sucrose
C) fat
D) all of the above
Set B
1.
A two bladed flywheel type forage cutter rotates at 60 rev/min. At a feed rate of
1.26 m/min, the theoretical length of cut of the forage will be
A) 5.3 mm
B) 10.5 mm
C) 21.0 mm
D) 42.0 mm
2.
A cultivator (11 x 30 cm ) is operated at a depth of 10 cm. The furrow crosssection is a triangle having 900 tip angle. If the unit draft of the soil is 20
3.
4.
A mechanical press can copress 20 bales of cotton per minute. As the bale is
compressed through a distance of 22 cm, the compressive force is increased
linearly from 0 to 60 kN. The power consumed by the press will be
A) 132 kW
B) 6.6 kW
C) 4.4 kW
D) 2. 2 kW
5.
Cooling system of a 6.8 kW diesel engine running at full load will remove heat
at a rate of
A) 1.63 kcal /min
B) 6.80 kcal /min
C) 97.6 kcal /min
D) 408 kcal /min
6.
Bore and stroke of a single cylinder engine are 8 cm and 9.6 cm respectively. If
the air (density =1.26 kg /m3 ) intake is 0.505g /cycle, the volumetric
efficiency
The rear wheel diameter of a tractor is 130 cm and its wheel base is 185 cm. If
horizontal pull of 6kN is applied at a distance of 25 cm below the rear axle. the
weight transfer will be
A) 0.811 kN
217
B) 1.30 kN
C) 3.75 kN
D) 4. 70 kN
8. Vertical reaction on the rear wheels of a tractor is 11.77 kN and each wheel has
a ground contact area of 0.165 M2. If the coefficient of friction between
the soil
and the material of the wheel is 0.35 and the value of unit cohesion
is 7 Kn / m2 ,
A) 2.96 kN
B) 4.12 kN
C) 5.27 kN
D) 6.43 kN
9.
The threshold salinity of a soil is 2.0 mmho/cm and the decrease in alfalfa crop
yield is 7.3 per cent per unit increases in the salinity. If the average soil salinity
is 5.4 ammho/cm, the relative crop yield will be
A) 70 per cent
B) 75 per cent
C) 80 per cent
D) 85 per cent
10.
11.
the
C) 9 per cent
D) 12 per cent
12.
of
A) 1.73 cm
B) 1.93 cm
C) 2.13 cm
D) 3.93 cm
13.
A trickle irrigation system has one emitter per plant. If the coefficient of
variation is 0.12 and application efficacy is 88.5 par cent, the
efficiency
system
will be
A) 70 per cent
B) 75 per cent
C) 80 per cent
D) 85 per cent
14.
Water flow through a 1.2 m long cylindrical soil column having 650 cm2 cross
sectional area is 800 liter per minute. If the hydraulic head is 1.5 m, the
hydraulic conductivity of the soil will be
A) 16 cm/s
B) 24 cm/s
C) 30 cm/s
D) 26 cm/s
15.
16.
meter)
B) 3000 Nm
C) 4000 Nm
D) 5000 Nm
17.
A centrifugal pump running at 1450 rev /min discharges 20 liter per second at
30 m total head. The specific speed of the pump will be
A) 12
B) 16
C) 20
D) 24
18.
19.
20.
21.
C) 0.50
D) 0.60
22.
23.
Saturation vapour pressure of water is 31.19 kpa at 700C and 38.58 kpa at
750C The approximate boiling temperature of water maintained under a
vacuum of 50 cm of mercury will be
A) 680C
B) 720C
C) 770C
D) 800C
24.
25.
221