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Student Name
Instructor
Name
Date
Select the best available answer in the space provided. There is only one correct answer for each
question. Please read each question carefully. You have 1.5 hours to complete the exam. All classroom
posters and graphics may be used as a reference. NO AIRCRAFT MANUALS are allowed to complete the
exam!
1.
What component unrelated to the CVR must be selected ON for a successful CVR test?
a) RMP # 1
b) Cockpit speaker
c)
2.
Parking brake
If the CAPT and PURS/CAPT switch on the EVAC panel is set to CAPT, the complete
Evacuation Alert System is activated by selecting what pushbutton(s) to on?
a) Cockpit COMMAND pb
b) Cockpit COMMAND pb or cabin CMD pb
c)
3.
Cabin CMD pb
If RMP # 2 is set to tune a navaid (i.e., the NAV pb is selected on and the green light is
illuminated), which FMGC(s) lose auto tuning capability?
a) FMGC # 2
b) FMGC # 1
c)
4.
Both FMGCs
Which position of the INT/RAD switch must be used with care since it creates a hot
mike for interphone communications?
a) INT
b) Neutral
c)
5.
RAD
VHF 3
Page 1
6.
In the event of a failed ACP, how can the pilot continue to make ACP selections?
a) No pilot action is required. The failed ACP is automatically replaced with ACP 3
b) The failed ACP must be reset by selecting the ACP OFF then ON
c) The failed ACP can be replaced by ACP 3 using the AUDIO SWITCHING
selector
7.
An emergency call from the cabin results in the flashing of what ACP legend?
a) MECH
b) ATT
c)
8.
CALL
The ADIRS ALIGN lights flash to indicate an alignment fault. Which of the following is
an alignment fault that causes the ALIGN lights to flash?
a) Excessive movement during alignment
b) First officer enters present position
c)
9.
A fast alignment occurs by selecting the rotary MODE selector from NAV to OFF and
back to NAV within how many seconds?
a) Ten
b) Five
c)
10.
Three
11.
At the gate, if the ADIRUs are powered by the aircraft batteries, all of the following
occur except?
a) The ON BAT light on the ADIRS panel illuminates
b) ECAM ADIRS ON BAT fault message is generated
c)
12.
Assuming GPS is available, the ADIRUs calculate all of the following positions, except?
a) An IRS position
b) A GPS/IRS hybrid position
c) A MIX IRS position
13.
If selected ON, which exterior lights automatically extinguish with the landing gear
retracted?
a) Nose lights (taxi and takeoff)
b) Landing lights
c)
14.
Wing lights
Regardless of switch position, the SEAT BELT, NO SMOKING, and EXIT signs illuminate
automatically if the cabin altitude exceeds what altitude?
Page 2
When illuminated, the overhead emergency lights and EXIT signs are powered by
either the DC ESS SHED bus or what other power source?
a) AC BUS 1
b) Internal batteries
c)
16.
BAT BUS
When illuminated, the emergency escape path marking system (exit markers [A319] or
exit markers AND escape path lights [some A321s]) are powered ONLY by what power
source?
a) BAT BUS
b) DC ESS SHED bus
c) Internal Batteries
17.
The 12 minute internal batteries are charged by what power source, provided the
lights, signs and/or markers are NOT illuminated?
a) BAT BUS
b) DC ESS SHED BUS
c)
18.
AC BUS 1
19.
20.
Abort
In manual mode, who or what drives the outflow valve full open during landing?
a) The pilot using the MAN V/S CTL switch
b) The active Cabin Pressure Controller
c)
21.
If the LDG ELEV selector is in the AUTO position, the active Cabin Pressure Controller
receives destination field elevation from what source?
a) ADIRS
b) FMS
c)
22.
ACARS
What is a reason to move the LDG ELEV selector out of the AUTO position and
manually select destination field elevation?
a) Dual Cabin Pressure Controller failure
Page 3
24.
25.
Which of the following statements best describes the function of the safety valves?
a) They prevent excessive positive differential pressure only
b) They prevent excessive positive or negative differential pressure
c)
26.
The zone temperature selectors on the AIR COND panel perform what function?
a) Modulate the trim air valves
b) Signal temperature demands to the AC Controllers
c)
27.
The presence of FAULT lights on both PACK pbs during preflight without an ECAM fault
message most likely indicates what?
a) No bleed air available
b) Pack overheat
c)
28.
The forward cargo ventilation system includes two isolation valves that:
a) cannot be controlled from the cockpit
b) allow only cabin air to ventilate the cargo compartment if closed
c) close automatically if smoke is detected
29.
Which of the following statements best describe the use of engine bleed air
a) The Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs) open the HP valve when IP air is
insufficient to meet system demand. HP air replaces IP air as the source
of bleed air.
b) The BMCs use HP air to augment IP air when necessary. HP and IP bleed air are
used simultaneously during high demand.
c) The BMCs only open the HP valve during ground operations
30.
Page 4
31.
If engine 1 bleed valve fails in the closed position, engine anti-ice is:
a) Provided through electric heating
b) Unavailable to that engine
c) Unaffected since engine anti-ice is provided by hot bleed air supply that
is independent of the pneumatic system
32.
If the engines and APU are running with the APU bleed valve open, the BMCs:
a) Close the engine bleed valves giving priority to APU bleed air
b) Close the APU bleed valve and opens the engine bleed valves giving priority to
engine bleed air
c)
Open the engine bleed valves and allow the engine and APU bleed air to pressurize
the pneumatic system simultaneously
33.
34.
From highest to lowest, what is the priority order for normal electrical power?
a) GEN(engine), APU GEN, EXT PWR
b) EXT PWR, APU GEN, GEN (engine)
c) GEN (engine), EXT PWR, APU GEN
35.
36.
37.
During the Preliminary Cockpit Preparation, the BAT pbs are selected to OFF to conduct
a voltage check. What is the minimum voltage for a successful battery check?
a) Greater than or equal to 25.5 volts
b) Greater than 26.5 volts
c) Greater than 25.5 volts
Page 5
38.
The crew is dispatched with the APU inoperative. During cruise GEN 2 fails. What
aircraft electrical systems are unpowered?
a) AC BUS 1
b) All aircraft systems are powered
c) Galley is partially shed
39.
40.
The RAT must be manually extended using the RAT MAN ON pb if AC BUS 1 and AC
BUS 2 are unpowered in-flight
41.
42.
Each aircraft generator (engine and APU) can supply up to 90 KVA while the emergency
generator supplies how much power?
a) 45 KVA
b) 15 KVA
c) 5 KVA
43.
During refueling, the AUTO FEED FAULT message is displayed on the E/WD because a
significant amount of fuel is in the center tank and the wing tanks are not full. What
action is required by the crew?
a) No maintenance action is required since refueling is in process
b) Call maintenance to fix or defer the malfunction
c)
44.
Reset the system with the MODE SEL pb on the overhead FUEL panel
Which statement best describes the differences between wing tank pumps and center
tank pumps on the A-319?
a) The center tank pumps only operate during takeoff or when the slats are extended
b) The wing tank pumps are fitted with pressure reducing valves
establishing center tank pump priority
c)
The center tank pumps are fitted with pressure reducing valves establishing wing
tank pump priority
Page 6
45.
Which of the following is the approximate total weight of useable fuel the A-319 can
carry?
a) 41,200 lbs
b) 42, 500 lbs
c)
46.
42,100 lbs
Which of the following is the approximate total weight of useable fuel the A-321 can
carry with no Additional Center Tanks (ACTs)?
a) 51,000 lbs
b) 46,000 lbs
c) 41,000 lbs
47.
At approximately what total Fuel On Board (FOB) will the outer tank fuel transfer valves
open on the A319?
a) 1650 lbs
b) 6,300 lbs
c)
48.
At approximately what total Fuel On Board (FOB) will the outer tank fuel transfer valves
open on the A-321?
a) 1650 lbs
b) 6,300 lbs
c) No outer tanks are installed on the A321
49.
If the outer tank fuel transfer valves open in-flight, they are commanded closed:
a) By pushing the TRANSFER pb
b) Automatically during the refueling process
c)
50.
On the A-319s, the center tank pumps shut off automatically with the MODE SEL pb in
AUTO and the PUMP 1 and 2 pbs on (lights out) for all of the following criteria except:
a) Engine failure
b) Slats extended
c)
51.
On the A-319, without selecting the FUEL SD page, the crew can confirm center tank
feeding by observing:
a) The overhead FUEL panel and observe all fuel pump pbs are lights out
b) The E/WD displays CTR TK FEEDG message
c) The CRUISE page displays CTR TK FEEDG message
52.
A major difference between the A-319 and A-321 fuel systems is:
a) The A321 only transfers fuel from the center tank to the wing tanks.
There is no center tank fuel feed to the engines
b) The wing tank pumps on the A-321 are only controlled manually with the pump pbs
c) The A-321 contains a fuel XFEED valve
Page 7
53.
When do the fuel used (F USED) indications on the FUEL page automatically reset to
zero?
a) After landing
b) Engine shutdown
c) Engine start
54.
If the BLUE electric pump malfunctions and the BLUE ELEC PUMP pb is selected OFF:
a) The PTU pressurizes the BLUE system
b) The RAT deploys automatically and powers the BLUE system
c) The Blue system shuts down (unpressurized)
55.
56.
The PTU transfers BLUE system fluid to operate the GREEN system
Which of the following best describes the YELLOW hydraulic system after pushing the
ENG 2 FIRE pb?
a) ENG 2 PUMP deactivated and ENG 2 FIRE valve closed. The PTU transfers GREEN
system fluid to operate the YELLOW system
b) ENG 2 PUMP deactivated and ENG 2 FIRE valve closed. The PTU operates
the YELLOW system
c)
ENG 2 PUMP deactivated and ENG 2 FIRE valve closed. The PTU does not operate
the YELLOW system
57.
Which of the following criteria is true for inhibiting the PTU between engine starts?
a) On the ground with staggered ENG MASTER switches and nosewheel steering
connected
b) On the ground with staggered ENG MASTER switches), parking brake off and
nosewheel steering connected
c) On the ground with staggered ENG MASTER switches, parking brake on or
noewheel steering disconnected
58.
In addition to inhibiting the PTU between engine starts; it is also inhibited during what?
a) Engine failure
b) Cargo door operation
c)
59.
Which hydraulic system provides pressure for braking under normal conditions?
a) YELLOW
b) BLUE
c) GREEN
60.
When is the BLUE hydraulic system pressurized with the BLUE ELEC PUMP in AUTO?
a) After selecting the BLUE ELECP PUMP to ON after engine start
b) Automatically, after the first engine start
c)
Page 8
61.
In the event of an engine fire, the respective ENG FIRE pb and ENG panel FIRE light
illuminate red until:
a) The respective ENG FIRE pb is pushed and released
b) The fire is out
c)
62.
If an engine fire detection loop fails (ECAM displays ENG 1 FIRE LOOP A FAULT):
a) Fire detection for that engine is unavailable
b) The other loop can provide fire detection
c) The pilot must select the other loop (loop B)
63.
64.
65.
The APU fire protection system is different from the engine fire protection system in
that:
a) The APU uses a carbon dioxide fire bottle
b) The APU is protected by only one fire bottle
c)
66.
During the exterior preflight, the pilot observes the illumination of the APU FIRE light
on the external power panel (near the nosewheel) and hears the external warning horn
followed by the APU emergency shutdown. Outside the cockpit, the pilot must do what
to discharge the APU fire bottle?
a) Push the FIRE light on the external power panel (near the nosewheel)
b) Push the APU SHUT OFF pb on the external power panel (near the nosewheel)
c) Nothing. On the ground only, the APU shuts down and automatically
discharges the APU fire bottle
67.
The red disk on the outside of the fuselage adjacent to the APU compartment
indicates:
a) The APU fire bottle has discharged due to over pressure
b) The APU fire bottle has not been discharged due to over pressure
c)
68.
Cargo compartment
Page 9
69.
With reference to the cargo compartment fire extinguishing, which statement is true?
a) There is one fire bottle that discharges into both cargo compartments
b)
c) There is one fire bottle that can be discharged into one compartment only
and both DISC lights illuminate when either FWD or AFT pb is pushed
70.
The crew should expect the red SMOKE light on the CARGO SMOKE panel:
a) To extinguish after discharging the fire bottle
b) To remain illuminated even if the source of the smoke is extinguished
after discharging the fire bottle
c) To flash indicating the source of the smoke is still present after discharging the fire
bottle
71.
Protects the engine from exceeding EGT limits during all automatic and manual
engine starts
72.
During an automatic start in-flight, FADEC provides all of the following except:
a) Abnormal start indications
b) Abort authority
c)
73.
74.
75.
76.
The engine will begin to motor immediately with fuel and ignition inhibited
During an automatic start of engine 1, the crew notices only igniter B is powered. Is
this normal?
a) No. Contact maintenance and advise igniter A is inoperative
b) Yes. FADEC alternates igniters for automatic engine starts
Page 10
c)
77.
78.
On the ground with an engine shut down, can the pilot deploy that engines thrust
reverser blocker doors and translating sleeve from the cockpit?
a) Yes, as long as the YELLOW hydraulic system is pressurized
b) Yes, as long as GREEN hydraulic system is pressurized
c) No, the blocker doors and translating sleeve cannot be deployed on an
inoperative engine from the cockpit
79.
80.
Each IDG has its own oil supply which is cooled by ambient air
81.
APU bleed air may be used for all of the following except:
a) Engine starting
b) Pack operation
c) Wing ant-ice
82.
Prior to engine start, the EXT PWR pb indicates AVAIL and the APU START pb indicates
AVAIL, what source is powering the aircraft?
a) The APU
b) External power
c)
83.
Which of the following emergency lights are controlled by the EMER LT switch on the
overhead SIGNS panel?
a) Escape slide lights
b) Photo-luminescent floor path markings
c) Cabin emergency lights
84.
What are the power sources for the emergency lighting systems
a) AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2
b) DC ESS SHED BUS and AC ESS SHED BUS
c) DC ESS SHED BUS and Internal batteries
Page 11
85.
The emergency lights can be activated from the flight attendant station:
a) Only if the EMER LT switch on the overhead SIGNS panel is in the ARM position
b) Only if the EMER LT switch on the overhead SIGNS panel is in the OFF position
c) Regardless of which position the EMER LT switch on the overhead SIGNS
panel
86.
The cabin oxygen masks automatically deploy (drop)when the cabin altitude
exceeds:
a) 10,000 feet
b) 12,500 feet
c) 14,000 feet
87.
In normal law, if one sidestick is rapidly pulled back, can the aircraft exceed the
maximum G Load?
a) No. The load factor limitation overrides sidestick commands to avoid
excessive G loads
b) No. The sidestick commands are deactivated for five seconds above 2.0Gs
c)
88.
In normal law, what is the maximum bank angle obtainable with the sidestick fully
deflected?
a) 33 degrees
b) 67 degrees
c)
89.
The pilot is hand flying the aircraft in normal law and initiates a 30 degree bank.
Which of the following is true?
a) Beyond 25 degrees of bank, sidestick pressure must be continuously applied to
maintain the desired bank angle
b) If the sidestick is released at 30 degrees of bank, the aircraft will
maintain 30 degrees of bank indefinitely
c)
90.
The Spoiler Elevator Computers (SECs) provide spoiler and backup elevator control
except:
a) SEC 1. SEC 1 does not provide spoiler control
b) SEC 2. SEC 2 does not provide backup elevator control
c) SEC 3. SEC 3 does not provide backup elevator control
91.
Page 12
92.
High Speed
b) Angle of Attack
c) Maneuver Protection
93.
In alternate law:
a) Pitch trim is automatic
b) Turn coordination is automatic
c)
94.
The flaps will extend and the speedbrakes remain extended. There will be an
ECAM warning message
95.
The Alpha Lock feature of the Slat and Flap Control Computers (SFCCs) prevents:
a) The extension of flaps at a speed greater than the maximum flap extension speed
b) The retraction of the flaps during a high angle of attack/ low speed situation
c) The retraction of the slats during a high angle of attack/low speed
situation
96.
97.
If electrical power supply to the engine anti-ice valve fails, the engine anti-ice valve:
a) Closes
b) Opens
c)
98.
99.
200 knots
Page 13
100.
If electrical power supply to the wing anti-ice valve fails, the wing anti-ice valve:
a) Closes
b) Opens
c)
101.
102.
Anti-icing capability for all leading edge and trailing edge devices of each wing
Which hydraulic system does the Landing Gear Control and Interface Unit (LGCIU) use
to extend and retract the landing gear?
a) GREEN
b) YELLOW
c)
103.
BLUE
104.
105.
BLUE
The crew performs a landing with autobrakes selected to MED. What triggers the
application of the autobrakes?
a) The application of the brake pedals by the pilot
b) The signal to extend the spoilers
c)
Page 14