Physics 201

Final Exam
Solutions
I.

i) The condition at equilibrium is

X

Qq 1
F =
mg = 0 = y0 =
40 y 2

Qq
.
40 mg

ii) To find the spring constant due to the electric force, we write y = y0 + (y y0 ) = y0 + y where y
is the displacement from equilibrium and note that if y is small compared to y0

2
1
1
1
1
1
1
2
1

=
=

y
= 2 3 y.
y2
(y0 + y)2
y02 (1 + y/y0 )2
y02
y0
y0
y0
The constant term cancels the mg from gravity by part (i), so the force on the charge is
F =

2mg
2Qq 40 mg
2Qq 1
y =
y =
y,
40 y0 y02
40 y0 Qq
y0

which means our spring constant k is 2mg/y0 . Then

r
r
k
2g
=
.
=
m
y0
II.

i) Since the electric field in the interior of a conductor is zero, a Gaussian surface drawn in between
the two surfaces must enclose zero charge. So the charge on the inner surface is q. Meanwhile, the
sphere was initially uncharged, so the total charge of the shell must be zero. To balance the charge
q on the inner surface, the charge on the outer surface must be q, because no charge resides in the
interior of the shell.
ii) Outside the sphere where r > b the whole thing looks like a point charge q, so the potential is simply
V =

q 1
,
40 r

r > b.

The whole conducting shell is at a constant potential, so

V =

q 1
,
40 b

a < r < b.

Finally, inside the inner surface of the sphere the potential from the two surfaces adds to the potential
due to the point charge to give

q
1
1
1
V =
+
,
0 < r < a.
40 r
b
a
III.

i) By Amp`eres law Ienc = 0 implies B = 0.

ii) Using a circular loop of radius r in Amp`eres law gives
2rB = 0

(b2

I
r 2 a2
0 I r 2 a2
(r2 a2 ) = 0 I 2
= B =
.
2
2
a )
b a
2r b2 a2

The direction of the magnetic field is always clockwise.

iii) We can use Amp`eres law again with Ienc = I, or just note that the magnetic field is continuous at
the boundary where b = r so that
0 I
.
B=
2r
The direction is again clockwise.

IV.

a) As the emf increases so does the current, and with increasing current the upward force on the loop
due to the magnetic field will increase until it counteracts the fall.
b) The change in flux is d = Bwv dt, so the induced current is
E
Bwv
=
.
R
R
Its clear that this current flows counterclockwise in the loop, which means the force due to the
magnetic field points upward (the sides do not contribute to this upward force.) The terminal speed
is reached when the total force is zero, i.e.,
I=

IwB =

B 2 w2 v
mgR
= mg = vterminal = 2 2 .
R
B w

c) The loop current flows counterclockwise to counteract the increasing flux, by Lenzs law.
V. We will treat the inductor like a solenoid, i.e., the magnetic field points straight upwards. Then if we draw
a rectangular Amperian loop through the length l of the inductor and assume that it has N turns,
Bl = 0 N I = B =
The total flux is then
=

0 N I
N
l

and we can read of the inductance as

0 d2 N 2

=
= N =
L=
I
4l
VI.

0 N I
.
l

2
d
0 d2 N 2
I,
=
2
4l

4lL
=
0 d2

4(0.15 m)(5.8 103 H)

= 1350.
(4 107 Wb/A m)(0.022 m)2

i) At resonance the total impedance of the circuit is Z = R, so the maximum current is simply I = V /R.
The capacitor then feels the voltage
VC =

V
V
I
1
=
Vmax = R
.
0 C
0 RC
0 C Vmax

But the resonance frequency is

0 =

1
,
LC

so that the value of the resistance must satisfy

r
r
32 V
L
1.5 H
V
=
= 6.2 .
R
Vmax C
400 V 250 106 F

ii) The total impedance at frequency = 20 = 2/ LC is

r
r

3 L
9L
1
=R+i
= |Z| = R2 +
,
Z = R + i L
C
2 C
4C
so that
I0 =
VII. We have

V
V
= q
|Z|
R2 +

so that
Solving for o gives
p
d d2 4f d
d
=
o=
2
2

9L
4C

32 V
= q
9(1.5 H)
(6.2 )2 + 4(25010
6

1
1
1
+ = ,
o
i
f

= 0.28 A.
F)

o + i = d,

1
1
1
+
=
= o2 do + f d = 0.
o
do
f
1

4f
d

70 cm
2

4(17 cm)
70 cm

= 41 cm, 29 cm.

VIII. This is the same idea behind diraction from a double slit. The distance from P to the two speakers is
s
s
"
2
2

2 #

d/2
x

d/2
(x d/2)2
d
1
x
,
D2 +
=D 1+
D 1+
=D+
2
D
2
D
2D
and the dierence is dx/D, which we want to equal to /2 for destructive interference (and hence, silence).
But = c/f where c is the speed of sound, so
(300 m/s)(10 m)
c
cD
dx
=
= x =
=
= 0.5 m.
D
2f
2f d
2(3000 Hz)(1 m)
IX.

i)
Z

1/2

N 2 sin2 x dx =

N2
2

1/2

(1 cos 2x) dx =

1/2

N2
N2
N2

sin 2x
= 1 = N = 2.
=
4
4
4
0

ii) Note that (x) is not a state of definite energy, and moreover that it is dicult to obtain the answer
by inspection.
Z 1/2
Z 1/2
Z 1/2
A2 =
2 sin 2x 2 sin x dx = 2
2 sin 2x sin x dx = 2
(cos x cos 3x) dx
0

1/2
1
2
4 2
sin x sin 3x
,
=
=

3
3
0

where we have used the identity

2 sin x sin y = cos(x y) cos(x + y).
Therefore
P (E2 ) = |A2 |2 =
iii)
(x) =

32
.
9 2

2 sin 2x.

The function sin2 2x is symmetric about x = 1/2, and each part in turn is symmetric about x = 1/4
and x = 3/4:
1

1/4

1/2

Therefore
P
by inspecting the wavefunction.

3
1
<x<
4
4

3/4

1
,
2

iv) To absorb light from the n = 2 state, it must make a transition to a higher state. The next state is
the n = 3 state, and the dierence in energy is
E = = E3 E2 =

4 2 2
5 2 2
5 2
9 2 2

=
= =
,
2m
2m
2m
2m

which implies

=
.
2
4m
To emit light, there is only one possible transition, to the ground state n = 1. Then
f=

E = = E2 E1 =

2 2
3 2 2
3 2
4 2 2

=
= =
,
2m
2m
2m
2m

or
f=
X.

3
.
4m

i) By now we are experts at reading such a wavefunction. The possible momenta are
p=

4
,
L

each with equal probability 1/2.

ii) Both states correspond to the energy
E=

p2
8 2 2
=
,
2m
mL2

and this energy occurs with certainty, i.e., probability 1.

iii) Since this is a state of definite energy, we find
(x, t) = 3 cos
with E as given above.

4x iEt/
e
,
L