Ibps Po (MP)

www.eenadupratibha.
net
IBPS - POs EXAM MODEL PAPER

No. of Questions: 200
Marks: 200
Time: 2 Hrs.
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REASONING
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Directions (Q. 1 - 5): Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions. A word and number arrangement machine when given an
input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in
each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement (All the
numbers are two digit numbers).
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Input:
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tent 13 wheat 21 ask 63 steal 49 hand 54 vast 85
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Step I: 85 wheat tent 13 21 ask 63 steal 49 hand 54 vast

Step II: 63 vast 85 wheat tent 13 21 ask steal 49 hand 54
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Step III: 54 tent 63 vast 85 wheat 13 21 ask steal 49 hand
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Step IV: 49 steal 54 tent 63 vast 85 wheat 13 21 ask hand

Step V: 21 hand 49 steal 54 tent 63 vast 85 wheat 13 ask
Step VI: 13 ask 21 hand 49 steal 54 tent 63 vast 85 wheat
and Step VI is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is
obtained.
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As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the questions the
appropriate step for the given input.
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Input: store 95 clean 56 tape 15 break 28 feet 35 wait 69 ice 71

1.
Which step number is the following output?
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35 feet 56 ice 69 store 71 tape 95 wait clean 15 break 28
2.
1) Step V
2) Step III
4) Step IV
5) There is no such step
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Which word/ number would be at sixth position from the right in Step IV?
na
1) 15
2) wait
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4) 95
3.
3) Step VI
3) clean
5) 28
How many elements (words/ numbers) are there between 'feet' and '15' as they
appear in the second last step of the out put?
1) Six
2) Seven
4) Eight
5) Nine
R-6,7,8-10-14
3) Five
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4.
Which of the following represents the position of 'wait' in the third Step?
1) 9th from the left
2) 6th from the left
3) 8th from the right

5.
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Which word / number would be at seventh position from the left in the Step VI?
1) ice
2) store
4) 71
5) 69
3) tape
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Directions (Q. 6 - 10): Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions:
In a certain code language make your trip interesting is written as de la pa ni,
your trip be customized is written as ha ni ta de, customised trip always good is
written as ta fa ka ni and good make me happy is written as ka ro pa na.
6.
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Which of the following is the code for 'always'?
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1) ka
4) ta
7.
2) ni
3) fa
5) Either fa or ka
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1) make trip be your
2) make your trip good
3) your trip be good
4) trip always be good
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5) trip be customized good

8.
9.
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Which of the following can be coded as pa ni de ha?
Which of the following represents good trip always interesting?

1) de ka ni la
2) fa ni ka ro
4) ni fa la ka
5) ta la fa ni
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3) na fa de ha
Which of the following is code for 'make'?

1) la
2) pa
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4) ro
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3) ni
5) Either na or pa
10. What does 'ta' represent in this code?

1) trip
4) your
2) always
3) good
5) customized
Directions (Q. 11 - 15): Each of the questions below consists of a question and
two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether
the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read
both the statements and Give answer -
1) if the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
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2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
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3) if the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to

answer the question.
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4) if the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question.
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5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.
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11. What is the position of Yogesh from the left in the group of 21 students all of
them facing north?
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I. Praveen is exactly in the middle of the row. There are five persons between
Praveen and Yogesh. Yogesh is fifth from the right end.
II. There are two persons between Seema and Praveen and another two persons
between Seema and Yogesh.
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12. In which year did Ranjana complete her graduation?
I. According to Ranjana's father she graduated after March 1989 but before March
1993.
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II. The brother of Ranjana remembers correctly that she did her graduation after
March 1991 but before March 1994 and the year of her graduation was an
even number.
13. Are M, S and N in a straight line?
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I. N is 6 metres East of M. O is 4 metres North of N. T is 3 metres West of O and

S is 4 metres South of T.
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II. P is 6 metres North of M. Q is exactly in the middle of P and M. R is 3 metres

East of Q. S is 3 metres South of R. N is 3 metres East of S.
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14. Whether it was 4 O' clock two hours ago?

I. At present, both the hands of the clock face the opposite direction along
a straight line.
II. Two hours ago, both the hands of the clock together formed an angle of 120
degree.
15. Among I, A, G, K, J and V who is the tallest?
I. V is taller than J and G. K is taller than I and G. K is not the tallest.
II. V is taller than K and I. J is taller than G. V is not the tallest.
16. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ENCO,
using each letter only once in each word?
1) None
2) One
4) Three
5) More than three
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3) Two
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17. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word COAST (in both the
forward and backward directions), each of which has as many letters between
them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
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1) None
2) One
4) Three
5) More than three
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3) Two
18. In a certain code language CE stands for BD, NP stands for MO, then what does
JL stands for?
en
1) KI
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4) ML
2) IK
3) LM
5) HJ
19. In a certain code language FRAME is written as QEBDL and BLOCK is written
as KAPJB. How is PRIDE written in that code language?
1) SQHFE
2) QSHEF
4) QOJDC
5) None of these
3) OQJCD
20. What should come next in the following number series?

02462302464502466702?
1) 4
2) 2
4) 8
5) 5
3) 6
Directions (Q. 21 - 25): In each group of questions below are two/ three statements
followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
two/ three statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer (1): if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2): if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer (3): if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
Give answer (4): if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
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Give answer (5): if both conclusions I and II follow.

21. Statements: All pens are nibs.
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All nibs are inks.
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No ink is colour.
Conclusions: I. All inks are nibs.
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II. All pens are inks.

22. Statements: All pens are nibs.
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All nibs are inks.

No ink is colour.
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Conclusions: I. No colour is nib.
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II. No colour is pen.
23. Statements: No dream is project.
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All ventures are projects.
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Conclusions: I. No venture is dream.

II. All projects are ventures.
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24. Statements: No road is way.

All ways are paths.
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No path is bridge.
Conclusions: I. Some bridges are roads.
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II. All paths are roads.

(Q. 25 - 26):
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Statements: Some numbers are digits.

No digit is alphabet.
All alphabets are letters.
25. Conclusions: I. No letter is digit.

II. Some letters are digits.
26. Conclusions: I. Some letters are numbers.

II. All numbers can never be alphabets.
Directions (Q. 27 - 30): In these questions, relationship between different
elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two
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conclusions:
Give answer:
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1) if only conclusion I follows.
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2) if only conclusion II follows.

3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
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4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
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5) if both conclusions I and II follow.

27. Statements: O > P > Q > R < S < T
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Conclusions: I. O > S
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28. Statements:
A < B < C;
B = D > E > F;
II. T > P
Conclusions: I. D > A
II. A < E
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(29 - 30): Statements:

H I = J K;
L K;
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G<A
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I<M<N
29. Conclusions: I. H > M
II. N > H
30. Conclusions: I. M < I
II. H K
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31. Which of the following expressions will not be true if the expression
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U < V < W < X < Y = Z A = B > C is definitely true?
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1) Z > C
2) U < Y
4) Z < U
5) B < Y
3) Y > V
32. How many meaningful English words can be formed from the first, the fifth, the
eighth and the tenth letters of the word CREATIVITY, using each letter only once
in each word?
1) None
2) One
4) Three
5) More than three
3) Two
Directions (Q. 33 - 35): Following questions are based on the information given
below:
1) P Q means P is father of Q
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2) P Q means P is sister of Q
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3) P + Q means P is mother of Q
4) P Q means P is brother of Q
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33. In the expression B + D M N, how is M related to B?
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1) Granddaughter
2) Son
3) Grandson
4) Granddaughter or Grandson
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5) None of these
34. Which of the following represents J is son of F ?

1) J R T F
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3) J M N F
2) J + R T F
4) Can't be determined
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5) None of these
35. Which of the following represents R is niece of M?
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1) M K T R
2) M J + R N
3) R M T W
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5) None of these
Directions (Q. 36 - 40): Study the following information to answer the given
questions:
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Seven animated movies - Up, Finding Nemo, Ice Age, Aladdin, Shark Tale, Beauty
and the Beast, The Incredibles, were screened during a children's work shop not
necessarily in the same order. The workshop started on Monday and ended on Sunday.
Only one movie was screened on each day.
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Beauty and the Beast was screened on Wednesday. The Incredibles was
screened on the fourth day after Up was screened. Ice Age was screened before
Thursday but not on Monday. Shark Tale and Aladdin were not screened on
Saturday but Shark Tale was screened before Saturday.
36. Four of the following five are similar on the basis of their position in the above
arrangement and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong
to the group?
1) Up - Beauty and the Beast
2) The Incredibles - Aladdin
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3) Shark Tale - Finding Nemo

4) Beauty and the Beast - The Incredibles
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5) Finding Nemo - Aladdin
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37. On which day was Ice Age screened?

1) Friday
2) Tuesday
3) Thursday
4) Sunday
5) None of these
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38. Which movie was screened on Saturday?
up
1) Finding Nemo
2) Up
4) Aladdin
5) None of these
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3) The Incredibles
39. How many movies were screened before Shark Tale?
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1) 6
2) 4
3) 2
4) 3
5) None of these
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40. Which of the following combinations is false with respect to the given
information?
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1) Up was not screened on Friday
2) Shark Tale was screened immediately after Beauty and the Beast
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3) The Incredibles was screened on Sunday
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4) Finding Nemo was not screened on Friday

5) All are false
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Directions (Q. 41 - 45): Study the following information to answer the given
questions:
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Eight people - L, M, O, P, Q, R and S - are sitting around a circular table facing

the centre. Each of them likes different colours, viz., Red, Orange, Blue, Pink, Black,
Purple, Brown and Green, but not necessarily in the same order. S is sitting second to
the left of N. There are two persons between S and the person who likes Orange
colour. M is the second to the left of the person who likes Orange colour. L is the
immediate neighbour of S. R is the third to the right of P. O likes Purple colour. The
person who likes Pink colour is second to the right of P. The person who likes Brown
colour is the third to the left of the person who likes Blue colour. Neither S nor P likes
Brown colour. N likes neither Green nor Blue colour. L likes Red colour.
41. Who among the following is second to the right of the person who likes Orange
colour?
1) The person who likes Brown colour
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2) Q
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3) N
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4) The person who likes Blue colour

5) Cannot be determined
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42. Who among the following likes Green colour?

1) M
2) L
3) S
4) N
5) None
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43. Who among the following is sitting exactly in the middle of the person who likes
Red colour and Q?
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1) R
4) S
2) O
3) N
5) None of these
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44. Who among the following likes Pink colour?
1) R
2) S
4) Q
5) None
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3) N
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45. Which of the following pairs of persons are immediate neighbours of M?

1) N and S
2) L and S
4) R and S
5) None of these
3) N and P
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Directions (Q. 46 - 50): Study the following information and answer the
questions given below it.
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Seven members H, I, J, K, L, M and N are working in different cities

Ahmedabad, Bangalore, Chennai, Hyderabad, Kolkata, Delhi and Mumbai not
necessarily in the same order. Each one has a different mother tongue Tamil, Kannada,
Telugu, Hindi, Marathi, Punjabi and Bangla not necessarily in the same order.
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J works in Bangalore and his mother tongue is not Tamil or Marathi. K's
mother tongue is Punjabi and he works in Ahmedabad. L and M do not work in
Chennai and none of them has Marathi mother tongue. I works in Hyderabad and his
mother tongue is Telugu. The one who works in Delhi has Bangla mother tongue. N
works in Mumbai and his mother tongue is Hindi. L does not work in Kolkata.
46. What is J's mother tongue?
1) Telugu
2) Hindi
3) Bangla
4) Kannada
5) None of these
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47. Who works in Chennai?

1) H
2) L
3) M
4) L or M
5) None of these
48. Which of the following combination is correct?
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1) Marathi - I - Hyderabad
3) Marathi - I - Chennai
2) Tamil - M - Kolkata
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5) None of these
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49. Who works in Delhi?
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1) H
4) K
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2) M
4) Punjabi - K - Delhi
3) L
5) None of these
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50. What is M's mother tongue?
1) Bangla
2) Marathi
3) Telugu
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5) None of these
Directions (Q. 51 - 60): Read the following interview and answer the given
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questions based on that. Some words have been printed in bold to help you
locate them while answering some of the questions.
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A pioneering new book, Gender and Green Governance, explores a central

question: If women had adequate representation in forestry institutions, would it make
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a difference to them their communities and forests as a national resource? Interview

with the author.
Why has access to forests been such a conflict-ridden issue?

This is not surprising. Forests constitute not just community and national wealth,
but global wealth. But for millions, forests are also critical for livelihoods and their
daily lives.
Your first book, Cold Hearths and Barren Slopes (1986), was about forests.
Is there an evolution of argument here?
Yes indeed. In Cold Hearths and Barren Slopes, I had argued that social forestry,
with its top - down implementation and focus on commercial species was neither
'social' nor 'forestry', and would protect neither forests nor village livelihoods. The
answer, I argued, lay in allowing forest communities to manage local forests. Finally,
in 1990, India launched the joint forest management programme and Nepal also
started community forestry. So, I decided to see for myself how community forestry
was actually doing.
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Between 1995 and 1999, I travelled extensively across India and Nepal and
found a paradox. Forests were indeed becoming greener but women's problem of firewood shortages persisted and in many cases had become more acute. Also, despite
their high stakes in forests, women continued to be largely excluded from forest
management. I coined the term "participatory exclusions" to describe this. However,
the current book is less about women's exclusion. I ask: What if women were present
in forest governance? What difference would that make?
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But has this question not been raised before?
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Economists researching environmental collective action have paid little attention

to gender. Scholars from other disciplines focusing on gender and governance have
been concerned mainly with women's near absence from governance institutions. The
presumption is that once women are present all good things will follow. But can we
assume this? No rural women's relationship with forests is complex.
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On the one hand, their everyday dependence on forests for firewood, fodder, etc,
creates a strong stake in conservation. On the other, the same dependence can compel
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them to extract heavily from forests. As one landless woman told me: 'Of course, it
hurts me to cut a green branch but what do I do if my children are hungry'? Taking an
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agnostic position, I decided to test varied propositions, controlling for other factors.
What did you find?
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First women's greater presence enhances their effective voice in decision making. And there is a critical mass effect. If forest management groups have 25 - 33
percent female members in their executive committees it significantly increases the
likelihood of women attending meeting, speaking up and holding office. However, the
inclusion of landless women makes a particular difference. When present in suficient
numbers they are more likely to attend meetings and voice their concerns than landed
women. So what matters is not just including more women, but more poor women.
Second, and unexpectedly, groups with more women typically make sticker
forest use rules. Why is this the case? Mainly because they receive poorer forests from
the forest department. To regenerate these, they have to sacrifice their immediate
needs. Women from households with some land have some fallback. But remarkably
even in groups with more landless women, although extraction is higher, they still
balance self - interest with conservation goals, when placed in decision - making
positions.
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Third, groups with more women outperform other groups in improving forest
conditions, despite getting poorer forests. Involving women substantially improves
protection and conflict resolution, helps the use of their knowledge of local
biodiversity and raises children's awareness about conservation.
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51. What was author's view on "Social Forestry Scheme"?

1) A great success
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2) Beneficial for villagers
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3) Neither good nor bad
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4) Neither have been implemented as 'top - down'

5) None of the above
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52. Which of the following is one of the reasons of forests being a conflict - ridden
issue?
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1) Some countries have larger forest cover
2) There is less awareness about global warming
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3) High dependence of many on forests

4) Less representation of women
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5) Less representation of local women

53. The author is advocating inclusion of
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1) more landless women

2) more landed women
3) more women irrespective of their financial status
4) local people
5) younger women in the age group of 25 - 33 years
54. Which of the following best describes "participatory exclusion" as used in the
interview?
1) Outside support
2) Overdependence
3) Benefitting without self - interest
4) Contributing with profits
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55. Author's current book is more about
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1) barren to greener slopes

2) local groups with more women
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3) a fine balance between conservation and commercial forestry

4) top - down approach to community forestry
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5) women's presence in forest governance
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56. What percent of female members in the Executive Committee for Forest
Management is being recommended by the author?
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1) Less than 25%

4) About 75%
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2) More than 50% 3) 100%
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 57 - 60): Choose the word/ group of words which is most nearly
the same in meaning of the words printed in bold.
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57. Controlling
1) Holding in check
2) Increasing
3) Decreasing
4) Passing
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5) Ignoring
58. Paradox
1) Similarity
2) Position
4) Difference
5) Excuse
1) Accurate
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60. Green
1) Colour
4) Live
2) Serve
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4) Focused
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59. Acute
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3) Anomaly
3) Dull
5) Refined
2) Dried
3) Old
5) Big
Directions (Q. 61 - 70): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which
has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against
each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find
out the appropriate word in each case.
With the announcement that he would donate Rs.8846 crore of his equity in the
company to the philanthropic trust he controls, the founder and chairman of infotech
giant Wipro Ltd, Azim Premji has set the ..(61).. very high for other mega rich
businessmen of the country. The 28th richest man in the world, and Indian richest
could not have made a better and more sound ..(62).. choice than this. His Azim Premji
Foundation is already working in the rural areas of the country to improve the
quality of education and is now in the process of setting up a university for the poor.
This ..(63).. will be a welcome addition to the kitty of a sector that has the capability
to transform India but is badly handicapped due to the lack of adequate funding. Other
IT majors Infosys, MindTree, TCS and HCL also support programmes that support
social equity.
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At a time when India's economic footprint on the global stage is rising, the
..(64).. between the different strata of society has also been increasing. This is not a
positive development and the underprivileged sections need to be equipped with life
skills so that they too can be a part of the growth story. A very basic requirement of
this life skills development is to educate them and make them employable. The fact
that most of the heads of these IT majors are ..(65).. first-generation entrepreneurs
..(66).. that education, more than anything else, is a great leveller. At the same time,
the improved economic conditions will also push up people into the middle - class
bracket and make India a much more attractive market.
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According to Forbes, which keeps a tab on the ..(67).. of the rich and famous,
India has 69 billionaires. Yet how many consider ..(68).. as a
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priority when it comes to spending? Industry reports indicate that Indians spend
about Rs.30000 crore a year on charitable ..(69).. and this includes the money spent
by companies on their corporate social responsibility programmes. This is not ..(70)..
and Indians, especially the corporate czars, have much more ability to give. In a
foreword to Corporate Social Responsibility in India, MS Swaminathan correctly
says: "Just as good ecology is good business good philanthropy will also be good
business in the long term. "Should the country institutionalise CSR interventions to
deal with malnutrition, education, health, unemployment and poverty? The
government would welcome a helping hand wouldn't it?
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61. 1) expectations
4) bar
2) parameters
3) status
5) task
62. 1) investment
2) profit
4) significant
5) basic
3) decision
63. 1) take
4) cause
64. 1) status
4) system
65. 1) seldom
4) themselves
2) interest
5) endowment
2) income
2) consider
4) defy
5) steps
67. 1) business
2) areas
4) spirituality
4) donations
70. 1) enough
4) less
n
.
a
h
b
i
3) proves
t
a
r
5) life
3) activities
up
2) donations
d
a
3) philosophy
5) helping
n
e
e
.
w
w
69. 1) types
t
e
3) not
5) promoting
2) places
68. 1) philanthropy
3) growth
5) gap
66. 1) promotes
4) purses
3) step
2) causes
3) trusts
5) costs
2) expected
3) correct
t
e
n
5) required
Directions (Q. 71 - 75): Rearrange the following six sentences A, B, C, D, E and

F in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the
questions given below them.
.
a
h
b
i
t
A) While the reference point for the former is the state for the latter it's society.
B) India's 'strategic community' comprises two distinct circles with little overlap.
a
r
p
C) Consequently, mainstream strategists have an external orientation to their

discourse, concentrating on high politics; the latter is more internal oriented.
u
d
a
D) Their prescriptions too are understandably poles apart and thus, the state, to
which both their commentary is directed, has to play balancer, and ends up
being at the receiving end of criticism from both sides.
n
e
e
.
ww
E) Out of the two one can be termed the 'mainstream' and the other 'alternate'.
F) To further elaborate on the external and internal conceptwhile one is
enamoured of India's rise and place in the global order, the other is more
sensitive to its vulnerabilities and inadequacies.
71. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) E
2) D
4) B
5) A
3) C
72. Which of the following should be the SIXTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
4) D
5) E
3) C
t
e
73. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1) E
2) D
4) B
5) A
n
.
a
3) C
h
b
i
74. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
4) D
5) E
t
a
r
3) C
p
u
d
75. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
4) D
2) B
a
n
e
e
.
w
w
5) F
3) C
Directions (Q. 76 - 85): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any
grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part
of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the
answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
t
e
n
.
a
h
76. The director prefers (1) / your plan than (2)/ that given by (3)/ the other members of the committee. (4)/ No error (5).
b
i
t
77. I always prefer (1)/ working in a relaxed atmosphere (2)/ than one full of (3)/ tension and anxiety. (4)/ No error (5).
a
r
p
78. You should not discuss (1)/ about a matter (2)/ with friends who are likely (3)/
to find it offensive. (4)/ No error (5).
u
d
a
79. Having to stay (1)/ in the jungle that night, (2)/ they had nothing (3)/ to feed at.
(4)/ No error (5).
n
e
e
.
ww
80. The student (1)/ answered to (2)/ the question (3)/ asked by the inspector of
school. (4)/ No error (5).
81. The angry boatsman threw (1)/ the cracked oar (2)/ in the river (3)/ and returned
home. (4)/ No error (5).
82. The Third World countries must adopt (1)/ a radically different approach for (2)/
the dissemination of scientific information (3)/ in view of the nature and
magnitude of their problems. (4)/ No error (5).
83. Yet the writers (1)/ have no qualms in (2)/ depicting the gory (3)/ details of the
violence. (4)/ No error (5).
84. The boy attempted the questions (1)/ so well (2)/ that his teacher was
exceedingly (3)/ pleased at him. (4)/ No error (5).
t
e
n
.
a
85. The Trust plans (1)/ to set on (2)/ a special school for (3)/ dumb and deaf
children. (4)/ No error (5).
h
b
i
Directions (Q. 86 - 90): Each question below has two blanks, each blank
indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each
blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
t
a
r
86. Mr. Rajesh ....... his wife that he would take ........ action to set right his erring
son.
1) called, strict
p
u
d
a
n
3) reiterated, strictly
e
e
.
w
w
2) assured, stringent
4) informed, constructive
5) instructed, preventive
t
e
n
87. The charges made in the system were so ....... they didn't require any ........
1) big, time
2) genuine, intelligence
3) marginal, expenses
4) certain, expertise
.
a
h
5) obvious, modification
b
i
t
88. In ........ of International matters, there is always element of risk in ...... one might
do.
a
r
p
1) view, whichever
2) many, doing
3) defence, wrong
u
d
a
5) spite, whatever
4) case, whatever
89. We do not ....... our dreams because they do not ....... with our perceptions of
waking life.
n
e
e
.
ww
1) admit, coincide 2) accept, mix

4) believe, agree
3) value, match
5) appreciate, corroborate
90. He granted the request because he was ....... to ...... his friend.
1) bound, hurt
2) destined, agonise
3) sure, displease
4) unwilling, please
5) reluctant, disappoint
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
91. Tanvi started a business investing Rs.45,000. After 8 months Anisha joined her
t
e
with a capital of Rs.52,000. At the end of the year the total profit was Rs.56,165.
What is the share of profits of Anisha?
1) Rs.21,450
2) Rs.24,440
4) Rs.31,765
5) None of these
h
b
i
5
1
th of 216?
th
of
428
smaller
than
92. By how much is

4
6
1) 61
2) 67
3) 73
4) 79
n
.
a
3) Rs.27,635
t
a
r
5) None of these
p
u
d
93. One - third of a number is 96. What will 67% of that number be?
1) 192.96
2) 181.44
a
n
4) 204.48
3) 169.92
5) None of these
e
e
.
w
w
94. In a class of 35 students and 6 teachers, each student got sweets that are 20% of
the total number of students and each teacher got sweets that are 40% of the total
t
e
n
number of students. How many sweets were there?
1) 245
2) 161
3) 406
4) 84
5) None of these
.
a
h
95. Prithvi spent Rs.89,745 on his college fees, Rs.51,291 on Personality
b
i
t
Development Classes and the remaining 27% of the total amount he had as cash
with him. What was the total amount?
a
r
p
1) Rs.1,85,400
2) Rs.1,89,600
4) Rs.1,93,200
5) None of these
3) Rs.1,91,800
u
d
a
96. The compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs.22,000 at the end of two
n
e
e
.
ww
years is Rs.5,596.80. What would be the simple interest accrued on the same
amount at the same rate in the same period?
1) Rs.5,420
2) Rs.5,360
4) Rs.5,140
5) None of these
3) Rs.5,280
97. The product of two successive numbers is 4032. Which is the greater of the two
numbers?
1) 63
2) 64
4) 66
5) None of these
3) 65
98. The ages of Sonal and Nitya are in the ratio of 9 : 5 respectively. After 8 years
the ratio of their ages will be 13 : 9. What is the difference in years between their
ages?
1) 4 years
2) 12 years
4) 14 years
5) None of these
t
e
3) 6 years
n
.
a
99. 30 men can do a piece of work in 16 days. How many men would be required to
do the same work in 20 days?
1) 12
2) 36
4) 24
5) None
h
b
i
3) 48
t
a
r
100. The profit earned after selling an article for Rs.1,516 is the same as loss incurred
after selling the article for Rs.1,112. What is the cost price of the article?
p
u
d
1) Rs.1,314
2) Rs.1,343
3) Rs.1,414
a
n
4) Rs.1,434
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 101 - 105): Study the following graph carefully to answer the
questions that follow:
e
e
.
w
w
t
e
n
Total Number of Boys and Girls in Five Different Departments
350
Boys
Number of Students
.
a
h
300
300
b
i
t
250
250
200
200
ra
180
140
150
100
Girls
80
d
a
p
u
240
150
100
120
n
e
e
.
ww
50
Philoso- Biology Anthro Sociol Psycho

-logy
-pology -ogy
phy
Departments
101. The number of girls from Biology department is approximately what percent of
the total number of girls from all the departments together?
1) 32
2) 21
4) 43
5) 27
3) 37
102. What is the difference between the total number of boys and the total number of
girls from all the departments together?
1) 440
2) 520
3) 580
4) 460
5) None of these
t
e
n
.
a
103. What is the average number of boys from all the departments together?
1) 122
2) 126
3) 130
4) 134
5) None of these
h
b
i
104. The number of boys from Anthropology department is approximately what

percent of the total number of boys from all the departments together?
1) 15
2) 23
4) 44
5) 56
t
a
r
p
u
d
3) 31
105. What is the respective ratio of number of girls from Philosophy department to
the number of girls from Psychology department?
a
n
e
e
.
w
w
1) 1 : 2
4) 3 : 4
2) 7 : 12
3) 5 : 12
5) None of these
t
e
n
Directions (Q. 106 - 110): Study the following Graph carefully and answer the
questions given below:
.
a
h
Units of Raw Material Manufactured and Sold by a Company

Over the years (Units in Crores)
Manufactured
Sold
a
r
p
u
d
a
7
Units of Raw Material
b
i
t
n
e
e
.
ww
5
4
3
2
1
0
2003
2004
2005
Years
2006
2007
106. What is the average number of units sold over the years?
1) 440000000
2) 4400000
4) 44000000
5) None
3) 440000
t
e
n
.
a
107. What is the respective ratio of the difference between the number of units
manufactured and sold in the year 2005 to the difference between the number of
h
b
i
units manufactured and sold in the year 2006?

1) 2 : 3
2) 1 : 2
3) 1: 4
4) 3: 5
5) None
t
a
r
108. What is the respective ratio of the number of units manufactured in the year
p
u
d
2003 to the number of units manufactured in the year 2007?
a
n
1) 7 : 11
2) 9 : 14
e
e
.
w
w
4) 9 : 11
3) 7 : 9
5) None of these
109. What is the approximate percent increase in the number of units sold in the year
t
e
n
2007 from the previous year?
1) 190
2) 70
3) 60
4) 95
5) 117
.
a
h
b
i
t
110. What is the difference between the number of units manufactured and the number of units sold over the years?
1) 50000000
2) 5000000
4) 500000
5) None
a
r
p
3) 500000000
u
d
a
Directions (Q. 111 - 115): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in
n
e
e
.
ww
the following number series?

111. 1548
516
1) 11
43
2) 10.75
4) 12
112. 949
129
3) 9.5
5) None
189.8 ? 22.776
11.388 6.8328
1) 48.24
2) 53.86
4) 56.94
5) None of these
3) 74.26
113. 121
144
190
259
1) 351
2) 349
4) 328
5) None
114. 14
466
3) 374
t
e
n
.
a
43.5 264 ? 76188
1) 3168
2) 3176
4) 1590
5) None of these
115. 41
164
2624
3) 1587
h
b
i
6045696
1) 104244
2) 94644
4) 102444
5) None of these
t
a
r
3) 94464
p
u
d
Directions (Q. 116 - 120): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in
a
n
the following questions?
116. (47 588) (28 120) = ?
e
e
.
w
w
1) 6.284
2) 7.625
4) 8.285
5) None of these
3) 8.225
117. 45 % of 224 ? of 120 = 8104.32
118.
1) 67
2) 62
4) 71
5) None
7921
1) 16
2) 19
4) 21
5) None
.
a
h
3) 59
51 + 374 = (?)3
t
e
n
b
i
t
a
r
p
u
d
a
3) 15
119. 6573 21 (0.2)2 = ?
en
1) 7825
e
.
ww
4) 12.52
2) 62.6
3) 1565
5) None of these
120. 74156 ? 321 20 + 520 = 69894
1) 3451
2) 4441
4) 4531
5) None
3) 5401
Directions (Q. 121-125): Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions
that follow:
Number of Students Enrolled in Three Different
Disciplines in Five Different Colleges
325
375
h
b
i
325
300
325
t
a
r
225
300
275
350
475
300
350
400
n
.
a
p
u
d
250
200
425
450
325
450
t
e
B.Com
425
500
Number of Students
B.Sc
425
B.A.
a
n
150
100
e
e
.
w
w
50
t
e
n
Colleges
.
a
h
122. What is the respective ratio of total number of students studying B.Sc. in the
Colleges C and E together to those studying B.A in the Colleges A and B
b
i
t
together?
a
r
p
1) 24 : 23
2) 25 : 27
4) 29 : 27
5) None of these
u
d
a
3) 29 : 23
123. What is the respective ratio of total number of students studying B.Sc., B.A and
B.Com in all the Colleges together?
en
1) 71 : 67 : 75
e
.
ww
4) 75 : 71 : 68
2) 67 : 71 : 75
3) 71 : 68 : 75
5) None of these
124. Number of students studying B.Com in College C forms approximately what
percent of the total number of students studying B.Com in all Colleges

together?
1) 39
2) 21
4) 33
5) 17
3) 44
125. Number of students studying B.A in College B forms what percent of total
number of students studying all the disciplines together in that College?
(rounded off two digits after decimal)
1) 26.86
2) 27.27
4) 32.51
5) None of these
t
e
3) 29.84
n
.
a
Directions (Q. 126 - 130): Each question below is followed by two statements A
and B. You are to determine whether the data given in the statement is
sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and your
knowledge of Mathematics to choose between the possible answers.
h
b
i
t
a
r
Give answer (1): if the statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question,
but the statement B alone is not sufficient.
p
u
d
Give answer (2): if the statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question,
but the statement A alone is not sufficient.
a
n
Give answer (3): if both statements A and B together are needed to answer the
question.
e
e
.
w
w
t
e
n
Give answer (4): if either the statement A alone or statement B alone is

sufficient to answer the question.
.
a
h
Give answer (5): if you cannot get the answer from the statements A and B
together, but need even more data.
126. Is A an odd number?
b
i
t
A) A multiplied by an odd number is equal to an odd number.
a
r
p
B) A is not divisible by 2.
127. The ages of Pradumn and Gunit are in the ratio of 7 : 5. What is the age of
Pradumn?
u
d
a
A) The ages of Pradumn and Nandini are in the ratio of 3 : 1.
n
e
e
.
ww
B) After 7 years the ratio of Pradumn's and Aviral's ages will be 4 : 3.

128. What is the salary of B, in a group of A, B, C and D whose average salary is
Rs.62,880?
A) Total of the salary of A and C is exact multiple of 8.
B) Average of the salary of A, C and D is Rs.61,665.
129. What is the three digit number?

A) The three digit number is divisible by 9.
B) The first and the third digit is 6.
130. What is the profit earned by selling a printer for Rs.3,000?
A) The cost price of 6 such printers is equal to selling price of 5 such printers.
t
e
B) 20% profit is earned by selling each printer.
n
.
a
Directions (Q.131 - 135): Study the following information carefully to answer the
questions.
h
b
i
The teacher's colony has 2800 members, out of which 650 members read only
English newspaper. 550 members read only Hindi newspaper and 450 members read
t
a
r
only Marathi newspaper. The number of members reading all the 3 newspapers is 100.
Members reading Hindi as well as English newspaper are 200. 400 members read
p
u
d
Hindi as well as Marathi newspaper and 300 members read English as well as Marathi
newspaper.
a
n
131. Find the difference between number of members reading English as well as
e
e
.
w
w
Marathi newspaper and the number of members reading English as well as Hindi
t
e
n
newspaper?
1) 300
2) 200
4) 50
5) None
3) 100
132. How many members read atleast 2 newspapers?

1) 600
2) 800
4) 1000
5) None of these
.
a
h
b
i
t
3) 500
a
r
p
133. Find the number of members reading Hindi newspaper?
du
1) 750
2) 980
a
n
4) 1020
3) 1000
5) None of these
e
e
.
ww
134. How many members read only one newspaper?

1) 1560
4) 1540
2) 1650
3) 1640
5) None of these
135. Find the number of members reading no newspaper?

1) 150
2) 460
4) 750
5) None of these
3) 550
Directions (Q. 136 - 140): Study the following graph carefully to answer the
questions that follow:
Number of Computers Manufactured and Sold by Various
Companies in a Year (Number in Lakhs)
Manufactured
Sold
Number of Computers
35
30
25
20
t
e
15
n
.
a
10
5
h
b
i
0
A
t
a
r
Companies
p
u
d
136. What is the respective ratio of the number of computers manufactured by

companies A and C together to the number of computers sold by companies A and
C together?
a
n
e
1) 4 : 5
e
.
w
w
4) 7 : 5
2) 14 : 11
3) 8 : 9
5) None of these
137. What is the difference between the average number of computers manufactured
by all the companies together and the average number of computers sold by all
the companies together?
1) 3500
2) 35000
4) 3500000
5) None of these
3) 350000
138. The number of computers sold by company B are what percent of the number of
computers manufactured by company B? (round off to two digits after decimal)
1) 83.33
2) 120
4) 106.54
5) None of these
3) 78.83
139. The number of computers manufactured by company D are what percent of the
number of computers manufactured by company E?
1) 125
2) 112.5
4) 65.25
5) 75
3) 85
t
e
n
.
a
140. The number of computers manufactured by company B is approximately what

percent of the number of computers manufactured by all the companies
together?
1) 22
2) 18
4) 26
5) 32
3) 14
h
b
i
t
a
r
p
u
d
GENERAL AWARENESS
141. The concept of "Carbon Credit" is associated with which of the following areas?
a
n
1) Protection of environment
e
e
.
w
w
2) Women empowerment
3) Development of rural infrastructure 4) Development of coal mines

5) None of these
t
e
n
142. As we all know Government is paying much attention to improve Public

Distribution System (PDS) in our country. Which of the following have been the
achievements of the PDS up till now, owing to which Government wants to
further improve it? [Pick up correct statement(s)]
.
a
h
b
i
t
A) After implementing PDS in India, no famine was reported. PDS was always
there to give people at least the bare minimum to survive.
a
r
p
B) A drought of 1987 was worst in this century but PDS played a vital role in
overcoming the drought.
u
d
a
C) Now PDS is feeding the poorest of the poor in this country.

1) Only A
n
e
e
.
ww
3) Only C
2) Only B
4) All A, B and C are correct
5) None of these
143. Many times we read about SHGs in financial newspapers. What is the full form
of the term?
1) Small Help Groups
2) Self Help Groups
3) Small Hope in Growths
4) Self Hope Groups
5) None of these
144. Whenever newspapers talk about the performance of core industries. Which of
the following is NOT considered among them?
1) Petroleum
2) Automobile
4) Steel
5) Cement
t
e
3) Mining
n
.
a
145. Which of the following agencies / organizations in India maintains the Micro
h
b
i
Finance Development and Equity Fund which was in news recently?

1) Confederation of Industries in India (CII)
t
a
r
2) Indian Bank's Association (IBA)
3) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
p
u
d
4) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
5) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
a
n
146. Many times we read about Hawala transactions in newspapers. Hawala in India
e
e
.
w
w
is prohibited under the provision of which of the following Acts?
t
e
n
1) Fiscal Responsibility & Budget Management Act
2) Banking Regulation Act
.
a
h
3) Financial Action Task Force Act

4) Foreign Exchange Management Act
b
i
t
5) None of these
a
r
p
147. As we all know DIPP is the nodal agency in the field of foreign investments in
India. What is the full form of DIPP?
u
d
a
1) Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion

2) Department of Industrial Procedures and Promotions
n
e
e
.
ww
3) Directorate of Industrial Procedures and Promotions

4) Directorate of Industrial Policy and Publicity
5) None of these
148. Many times we read about the performance of Asian Markets in various financial
newspapers. Which of the following is NOT included in Asian Market?
1) Japan
2) China
4) South Korea
5) Brazil
3) Hong Kong
149. As per news in various newspapers kfw Group released another instalment of
its financial aid to India. kfw is an organisation / bank based in .............. .
1) France
2) Japan
4) China
5) Germany
t
e
3) Italy
n
.
a
150. Which of the following countries has become the main supplier of Defence
h
b
i
goods to India and has replaced Russia?

1) Canada
2) USA
3) Israel
4) France
5) None of these
t
a
r
151. As per existing policy, new foreign investments in manufacturing of which of
p
u
d
the following is not allowed?
a
n
1) White cement
e
e
.
w
w
3) Cigarette and Cigars
2) Plastic goods
4) Polythene bags
5) Pesticides
t
e
n
152. Which of the following in NOT amongst the Prime Minister's new 15 point
programme?
.
a
h
1) Enhanced Credit Support for economic activities
b
i
t
2) Modernising Madarsa education
3) Improvement in condition of slums inhabited by minorities
a
r
p
4) Free train journey for unemployed youths
5) Rehabilitation of victims of communal riots
u
d
a
153. India's political relations with its neighbouring countries a critical part of its .......
n
e
e
.
ww
1) Industrial policy
3) Foreign policy
2) Trade policy
4) Development policy
5) None of these
154. Which of the following agencies / organisations has decided to make major
changes for ULIPs?
1) IRDA
2) RBI
4) FRBI
5) None of these
3) AMFI
155. Which of the following is the name of the programme launched by the
Government of India to help lonely women by providing vocational training to
make them self dependent?
1) Apnalaya
2) Prayas
4) Swadhar
5) Swavalamban
t
e
3) Abhiyogyata
n
.
a
156. Which of the following terms is NOT used in the game of Cricket?
1) Doosra
2) Century
4) Checkmate
5) Ashes
h
b
i
3) Bouncer
t
a
r
157. Trupti Murgunde whose name was in news recently is a ............... .

1) Badminton player
p
u
d
3) Lawn tennis player
a
n
5) Cricket player
2) Golf player
4) Table tennis player
158. Which of the following is NOT a financial term?
e
e
.
w
w
1) Acid Test
4) Depreciation
2) Double Fault
3) Gross Profit
t
e
n
5) Cash flow
159. In the terms of economics, the recession occurring two times with a small gap in
between is known as ........... .
.
a
h
1) Double Deflection
2) Deflation
3) Deep Recession
4) Double Dip Recession
b
i
t
5) None of these
a
r
p
160. Which of the following terms is NOT used in Economics?

1) Balance of Payment
3) National Debt
du
a
n
5) Boyle's Law
e
e
.
ww
2) Call Money
4) Elasticity of Demand
161. Which of the following ministries/

"Village Grain Bank's Schemes"?
departments
1) Ministry of Tribal Welfare
2) Department of Food & Public Distribution

3) Department of Social Welfare
4) Ministry of Forest
5) None of these
operates
the
162. Which of the following books is written by Chetan Bhagat?
1) The Golden Gate
2) Journey To Ithaca
3) Fire on the Mountain
4) The Inheritance of Loss
5) 2 States: The Story of My Marriage
t
e
n
.
a
163. Which of the following nations is the recent one to join Non Aligned Movement
(NAM)?
1) Fiji
2) Cuba
4) Colombia
5) Egypt
h
b
i
3) Sri Lanka
t
a
r
164. Hiroshima Day is observed on which of the following dates?

1) 6th August
2) 16th August
p
u
d
4) 16th September 5) 26th July
3) 6th September
165. Dronacharya Awards are given to a person associated with .......... .

1) Education
a
n
e
e
.
w
w
2) Social service
4) Sports
3) Journalism
5) Films
166. Interest below which a bank is not expected to lend to customers is known as .....
1) Deposit Rate
2) Base Rate
4) Bank Rate
5) Discount Rate
t
e
n
3) Prime Lending Rate
.
a
h
167. The customers by opening and investing in the Tax Saver Deposit Account
Scheme in a Bank would get benefit under ...... .
1) Sales Tax
2) Customs Duty
b
i
t
3) Excise Duty
4) Professional Tax 5) Income Tax
a
r
p
168. In banking business, when the borrowers avail a Term Loan, initially they are
given a repayment holiday and this is referred as...
du
1) Subsidy
a
n
3) Re - phasing
2) Interest Waiver
4) Interest concession
e
e
.
ww
5) Moratorium
169. A non - performing asset is .......

1) Money at call and short notice
2) An asset that ceases to generate income

3) Cash balance in till
4) Cash balance with RBI
5) Balance with other banks
170. Government usually classifies its expenditure in term of planned and
non - planned expenditure. Identify, which is the correct definition of planned
expenditure?
t
e
1) It represents the expenditure of all the State Governments
n
.
a
2) It represents the total expenditure of the Central Government
3) It is the expenditure which is spend through centrally sponsored programmes

and flagship schemes of Government
h
b
i
4) It represents the expenditure incurred on Defence
t
a
r
5) Other than those given as options
171. Which of the following organization is made specifically responsible for

empowering Micro, Small and Medium enterprises in India?
p
u
d
1) NABARD
2) RBI
a
n
4) ECGC
3) SIDBI
5) SEBI
e
e
.
w
w
172. Which of the following measures were announced by the Reserve Bank of India
on July 15, 2014 to encourage banks to extend long term loans to infrastructure
sector?
1) Banks can issue long term bonds with a minimum maturity
t
e
n
.
a
h
2) Rupee denominated bonds should be issued in plain vanilla form
3) Lending for affordable housing means loans eligible under the priority sector
b
i
t
4) Exemption of long term bonds from mandatory regulatory norms such as the
CRR, SLR and PSL
a
r
p
5) All of the above
173. Many real estate companies and private equity funds are planning to list their
commercial property portfolio through the real estate investment trusts (REITs)
in the wake of proposal made by the Union Finance Minister Arun Jaitley in his
budget speech on July 10, 2014. The incentives proposed for REITs include -
u
d
a
n
e
e
.
ww
A) For an Initial Public Offering (IPO), the size of the assets under the REIT
shall not be less than 1000 crore
B) Minimum initial offer size of Rs. 250 crore and minimum public float of
25%, to ensure adequate public participation
C) The REIT may raise funds from any investors, resident or foreign
D) Till the market develops, it is proposed that the units of the REITs may be
offered only to HNIs and institutions
1) Only (A), (B) and (D)
2) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)
3) Only (B) and (C)
4) Only (C) and (D)
t
e
5) Only (A) and (D)
174. As per the data revealed by the Union Urban Development Minister Venkaiah
Naidu on July 14, 2014 which of the following combinations of the State/ Union
Territory and increase in urban population during the years 2001 - 11 is NOT
correct?
n
.
a
h
b
i
1) Sikkim - 14.1 percent
2) Daman and Diu - 39 percent
t
a
r
3) Chandigarh - 7.5 percent

5) Nagaland - 10.7 percent
4) Gujarat - 6.7 percent
p
u
d
175. The Reserve Bank of India on July 17, 2014 issued draft guidelines for small and
payment banks to expand banking services disburse small - ticket loans to
businesses and farmers. Select the correct statements regarding the draft
guidelines
a
n
e
e
.
w
w
A) The minimum capital requirement for both payments and small banks will be
Rs. 100 crore
t
e
n
B) Non banking finance companies, business correspondents and PSUs among

others can apply to set up a payments bank.
.
a
h
C) For small banks, resident individuals will 10 years of experience in banking,

firms and societies will be eligible as promoters.
b
i
t
D) Promoters initial minimum contribution will be at least 40 percent with a five

year lock in period
a
r
p
1) Only (A) and (B)
2) Only (B) and (C)
u
d
a
3) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)

5) Only (C) and (D)
4) Only (A) and (C)
n
e
e
.
ww
176. The Reserve Bank of India on July 15, 2014 gave a boost to affordable housing
by allowing banks to raise long-term funds to finance these projects, which
include....
A) Loans up to Rs.50 lakh for houses of Rs.65 lakh value in six metros.
B) Loans up to Rs.40 lakh for houses up to Rs.50 lakh value in other cities.
C) Loans under priority sector lending Rs.25 lakh to cities with population
above 10 lakh; Rs.15 lakh elsewhere.
D) Support to government agency for slum clearance and rehabilitation.
1) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)
2) Only (A) and (B)
3) Only (B) and (C)
4) Only (A), (C) and (D)
t
e
5) Only (A) and (D)
177. Which of the following guidelines were issued by the telecom regulator, the
Telecom Regulator Authority of India (TRAI) on 21st July 2014 for spectrum
sharing?
n
.
a
h
b
i
1) Spectrum can be shared across all six frequency bands - 800, 900, 1800, 2100,
2300 and 2500 MHz
t
a
r
2) Sharing limited to two licensees within a circle

3) No leasing of spectrum
p
u
d
4) No sharing between operators who do not have spectrum in the same band
a
n
5) All of the above
178. Who among the following great players of chess were selected for the Russian
Federation's Order of Friendship award on 4th July 2014?
e
e
.
w
w
t
e
n
1) Viswanathan Anand of India and Boris Gelfand of Israel
2) Magnus Carlsen of Norway and Martin Brow of England
.
a
h
3) Colin McNabe of Scotland and Puchen Wang of New Zealand

4) Vlad Victor Barnaure of Romania and Mark Orr of Ireland
b
i
t
5) None of these
179. Which of the following states will host the 2015 Pravasi Bharatiya Divas?
a
r
p
1) Odisha
2) Rajasthan
4) Maharashtra
5) None of these
3) Gujarat
u
d
a
180. Railway Minister DV Sadananda Gowda presented the Railway Budget for the
fiscal year 2014 - 15 on July 8, 2014 in the Parliament. Which of the following
combinations of particulars and sum projected in the Railway Budget 2014 - 15
is NOT correct?
n
e
e
.
ww
1) Plan Outlay - Rs.65445 crores
2) Gross Budgetary Support - Rs.30,100 crores
3) Internal Resources - Rs.11,790 crores

4) Railway Safety Fund - Rs.2,200 crores
5) All are true
COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE
181. What is an 'internet'?
t
e
1) Internal internet used to transfer information internally.
n
.
a
2) Internal internet used to transfer information to the outside company.
3) Internal network designed to serve the internal informational needs of a

single organisation.
h
b
i
4) Internal network designed to transfer the information between two

organisations.
t
a
r
p
u
d
182. To send another station a message, the main thing a user has to know is
1) how the network works
a
n
2) the other station's address
e
e
.
w
w
3) whether the network is packet-switched or circuit - switched
t
e
n
4) whether this is a voice or data network

.
a
h
183. The data base administrator's function in an organization is
1) to be responsible for the more technical aspects of managing the information

contained in organizational databases.
b
i
t
2) to be responsible for the executive level aspects of decisions regarding the

information management
a
r
p
3) to show the relationship among entity classes in a data warehouse
u
d
a
4) to define which data mining tools must be used to extract data

n
e
e
.
ww
184. A ...... is a computer connected to two networks.

1) link
2) server
4) bridge way
5) None of these
3) gateway
185. Each of the following is a true statement except

1) online systems continually update the master file
2) in online processing, the user enters transactions into a device that is directly
connected to the computer system
3) batch processing is still used today in older systems or in some systems with
massive volumes of transactions
4) information in batch systems will always be up-to-date
t
e
n
.
a
186. When you save a presentation, ............
h
b
i
1) all slides in a presentation are saved in the same file
2) two files are created; one for graphics and one for content
t
a
r
3) a file is created for each slide
4) a file is created for each animation or graphic
p
u
d
187. In a client/ server model, a client program
a
n
1) asks for information
e
e
.
w
w
2) provides information and files
t
e
n
3) serves software files to other computers

4) distributes data files to other computers
.
a
h
188. Every device on the internet has a unique ....... address (also called an Internet
address) that identifies it in the same way that a street address identifies the
location of a house.
1) DH
2) DA
4) IA
5) None
b
i
t
u
d
a
a
r
p
3) IP
189. In a customer data base a customers surname would be keyed into a...
1) row
2) text field
n
e
e
.
ww
4) computed field
3) record
5) None of these
190. A set of interrelated components that collect, process, store and distribute
information to support decision making and control in an organization best
defines
1) communications technology
2) a network
3) an information system
4) hardware
191. Control in design of an information system is used to
1) inspect the system and check that it is built as per specifications
t
e
2) ensure that the system processes data as it was designed to and that the results
are reliable
n
.
a
3) ensure privacy of data processed by it

4) protect data from accidental or intentional loss
h
b
i
t
a
r
192. Storing same data in many places is called

1) iteration
2) concurrency
4) enumeration
5) None of these
3) redundancy
p
u
d
193. Which of the following is the first step in the 'transaction processing cycle',
which captures business data through various modes such as optical scanning or
at an electronic commerce website?
a
n
e
e
.
w
w
1) Document and report generation
2) Database maintenance
3) Transaction processing
4) Data Entry
.
a
h
194. What is part of a database that holds only one type of information?
1) Report
2) Field
4) File
5) None
b
i
t
3) Record
a
r
p
195. 'MPG' extension refers usually to what kind of file?

1) Word Perfect Document file
du
3) Animation/ movie file
2) MS Office document
4) Image file
a
n
5) None of these
e
e
.
ww
196. If you want to secure a message, use a(n):

1) cryptology source
2) encryption key
3) encryption software package
4) cryptosystem
5) None of these
197. Which key do you press to check spelling?

1) F3
2) F5
4) F9
5) None
t
e
n
3) F7
198. Which area in an Excel window allows entering values and formulas?
1) Title Bar
2) Menu Bar
3) Formula Bar
4) Standard Tool Bar
5) None of these
t
e
n
.
a
199. Which of the following helps to reduce spelling error in the document?
1) Auto Format
2) Auto Correct
4) Auto Text
5) None
h
b
i
3) Smart Tags
t
a
r
200. Which of the following is valid IP address?

1) 984.12.787.76
2) 192.168.321.10
up
3) 1.888.234.3456
4) 192.168.56.115
d
a
5) None of these
n
e
e
.
w
w
KEY
t
e
n
1-1; 2-3; 3-4; 4-2; 5-5; 6-3; 7-1; 8-4; 9-2; 10-5; 11-1; 12-2; 13-3; 14-5; 15-5;
16-3; 17-3; 18-2; 19-4; 20-1; 21-2; 22-1; 23-1; 24-4; 25-3; 26-2; 27-4; 28-1; 29-4;
30-2; 31-4; 32-2; 33-3; 34-5; 35-2; 36-5; 37-2; 38-1; 39-4; 40-3; 41-2; 42-3; 43-1;
44-4; 45-1; 46-4; 47-1; 48-2; 49-3; 50-5; 51-5; 52-3; 53-1; 54-5; 55-5; 56-5; 57-1;
58-3; 59-2; 60-4; 61-2; 62-3; 63-3; 64-5; 65-4; 66-3; 67-1; 68-1; 69-2; 70-1; 71-3;
72-4; 73-1; 74-2; 75-1; 76-2; 77-3; 78-2; 79-4; 80-2; 81-3; 82-2; 83-2; 84-4; 85-2;
86-2; 87-5; 88-4; 89-4; 90-5; 91-5; 92-3; 93-1; 94-5; 95-4; 96-3; 97-2; 98-5;
99-4; 100-1; 101-5; 102-4; 103-3; 104-1; 105-2; 106-4; 107-3; 108-2; 109-5;
110-1; 111-2; 112-4; 113-1; 114-5; 115-3; 116-3; 117-1; 118-5; 119-4; 120-2;
121-4; 122-3; 123-1; 124-5; 125-2; 126-4; 127-5; 128-2; 129-3; 130-4; 131-3;
132-4; 133-3; 134-2; 135-5; 136-4; 137-3; 138-1; 139-5; 140-2; 141-1; 142-2;
143-2; 144-2; 145-5; 146-4; 147-1; 148-5; 149-5; 150-2; 151-3; 152-4; 153-3;
154-1; 155-4; 156-4; 157-1; 158-2; 159-4; 160-5; 161-2; 162-5; 163-1; 164-1;
165-4; 166-2; 167-5; 168-5; 169-2; 170-2; 171-3; 172-5; 173-2; 174-4; 175-3;
176-1; 177-5; 178-1; 179-3; 180-3; 181-1; 182-2; 183-1; 184-2; 185-4; 186-1;
187-4; 188-3; 189-3; 190-3; 191-2; 192-3; 193-4; 194-2; 195-3; 196-4; 197-3;
198-3; 199-2; 200-4.
.
a
h
b
i
t
a
r
p
u
d
a
n
e
e
.
ww

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IBPS - POs EXAM MODEL PAPER

tent 13 wheat 21 ask 63 steal 49 hand 54 vast 85

Step I: 85 wheat tent 13 21 ask 63 steal 49 hand 54 vast

Step III: 54 tent 63 vast 85 wheat 13 21 ask steal 49 hand

Step IV: 49 steal 54 tent 63 vast 85 wheat 13 21 ask hand

Input: store 95 clean 56 tape 15 break 28 feet 35 wait 69 ice 71

Which step number is the following output?

35 feet 56 ice 69 store 71 tape 95 wait clean 15 break 28

5) There is no such step

2) 6th from the left

3) 8th from the right

4) 7th from the right

5) 10th from the right

Which of the following is the code for 'always'?

1) make trip be your

2) make your trip good

3) your trip be good

4) trip always be good

5) trip be customized good

Which of the following can be coded as pa ni de ha?

Which of the following represents good trip always interesting?

Which of the following is code for 'make'?

10. What does 'ta' represent in this code?

3) if the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to

12. In which year did Ranjana complete her graduation?

I. N is 6 metres East of M. O is 4 metres North of N. T is 3 metres West of O and

II. P is 6 metres North of M. Q is exactly in the middle of P and M. R is 3 metres

14. Whether it was 4 O' clock two hours ago?

5) More than three

5) More than three

20. What should come next in the following number series?

Give answer (5): if both conclusions I and II follow.

All nibs are inks.

II. All pens are inks.

All nibs are inks.

Conclusions: I. No colour is nib.

II. No colour is pen.

23. Statements: No dream is project.

All ventures are projects.

Conclusions: I. No venture is dream.

24. Statements: No road is way.

Conclusions: I. Some bridges are roads.

II. All paths are roads.

Statements: Some numbers are digits.

All alphabets are letters.

25. Conclusions: I. No letter is digit.

26. Conclusions: I. Some letters are numbers.

1) if only conclusion I follows.

2) if only conclusion II follows.

4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.

5) if both conclusions I and II follow.

(29 - 30): Statements:

29. Conclusions: I. H > M

30. Conclusions: I. M < I

U < V < W < X < Y = Z A = B > C is definitely true?

5) More than three

33. In the expression B + D M N, how is M related to B?

34. Which of the following represents J is son of F ?

35. Which of the following represents R is niece of M?

3) Shark Tale - Finding Nemo

5) Finding Nemo - Aladdin

37. On which day was Ice Age screened?