ChE Objective Type Questions Compilation-Dean Medina 8-28-10

CHEMICAL ENGINEERING
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS:

A COMPILATION
DR. LEONARDO C. MEDINA, JR.
DEAN, COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING
LYCEUM OF THE PHILIPPINES
UNIVERSITY
CHEMICAL REACTION ENGINEERING AND
REACTOR DESIGN
1. Rate of chemical reaction is independent of the concentration of reactants for
(a) zero order reaction
(b) third order reaction
(c) consecutive reaction
(d) none of these
2. Which of the following is not a unit of reaction rate?
(a) moles formed/(surface of catalyst) (time)
(b) moles formed/(volume of reactor) (time)
(c) mole formed/(volume of catalyst) (time)
(d) none of these
3. If n is the order of reaction then unit of rate constant is
(a)
1
(time) (concentration)n-1
(b) (time)-1(concentration)n-1
(c) (time)n-1 (concentration)
(d) none of these
4. Which of the following is a controlling factor in very fast heterogeneous
reaction?
(a) heat and mass transfer effects
(b) pressure
(c) temperature
(d) composition of reactant
5. Variables affecting the rate of homogeneous reactions are
(a) pressure and temperature only
(b) temperature and composition only
(c) pressure and composition only
(d) pressure, temperature and composition
6. Rate determining step in a reaction consisting of a number of step in series is the

(a) fastest step
(b) slowed step
(c) intermediate step
(d) data insufficient; can't be predict
7. Chemical kinetics can predict the
(a) rate of reaction
(b) feasibility of reaction
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
8. Velocity of a chemical reaction
(a) decreases with increase in temperature
(b) increases with increase of pressure of reactant for all reactions
(c) decreases with increase of reactant concentration
(d) none of these
9. Sum of the powers of the concentration terms in the rate equation is called the
(a) order of the reaction
(b) overall order of the reaction
(c) molecularity of the reaction
(d) none of these
10.Molecularity of a reaction
(a) is always equal to the overall order of reaction
(b) may not be equal to the order of reaction
c
(c) cant have a fractional value
(d) both (b) and (c)
11.Inversion of cane sugar is an example of
(a) unimolecular reaction with first order
(b) bimolecular reaction with second order
(c) bimolecular reaction with first order
(d) unimolecular reaction with second order
12.Concentration of the limiting reactant (with initial concentration of a moles/liter)
after time t is (a-x).Then t for a first order reaction is given by
(a) kt = ln
a
a-x
(b) kt = x
a(a-x)
(c) kt = ln a-x
a
(d) k.t = a (a-x)
x
13.Half life period of a chemical reaction is
(a) the time required to reduce the concentration of the reacting
substance
to half its initial value
(b) half of the space time of a reaction
(c) half of the residence time of a reaction
(d) none of these
14.Fill up the blanks:

Half-life period for a first order reaction is....................... the initial concentration
of the reactant
(a) directly proportional to
(b) inversely proportional to
(c) independent of
(d) none of these
15. Fill up the blanks from among the alternatives given below: In a first order reaction
the time required to reduce the concentration of reactant from 1 mole/liter to 0.5
mole/liter will be ............. that required to reduce it from 10 moles/liter to 5 moles/liter in
the same volume
(a) more than
(b) less than
(c) same as
(d) data insufficient; can't be predicted
16. Specific rate constant for a second order reaction
(a) is independent of temperature
(b) varies with temperature
(c) depends on the nature of the reactants
17. The reaction in which rate equation corresponds to a stoichiometric equation is called
(a) elementary reaction
(b) non-elementary reaction
(c) parallel reaction
(d) autokinetic reaction
18. Equilibrium of a chemical reaction as viewed by kinetics is a
(a) dynamic steady state
(b) static steady state
c
(c) dynamic unsteady state
(d) none of these
19. For a zero order reaction, concentration of product increases with
(a) increase of reaction time
(b) increase in initial concentration
(c) total pressure
(d) decrease in total pressure
20. Fill up the blanks
Arrhenius equation shows the variation of __________with temperature
(a) Reaction rate
(b) Rate constant
(c) Energy of activation
(d) Frequency factor
21. The energy of activation of a chemical reaction

(a) is same as heat of reaction at constant pressure
(b) is the minimum energy which the molecules must have before the reaction
can take place
(c) varies as fifth power of the temperature
22. Rate constant 'k' and the absolute temperature T are related by collision theory (for
bimolecular) as
(a) k T 1.5
(b) k e E/RT
(c) k T
(d) k T
23. Transition state theory relates the above quantities as
(a) k e E/RT
(b) k Te E/RT
(c) k T
(d) k T 1.5
24.Reactions with high activation energy are
(a) very temperature sensitive
(b) temperature insensitive
(c) always irreversible
(d) always reversible
25. In autocalytic reactions
(a) one of the reactants acts as a catalyst
(b) one of the products acts as a catalyst
(c) catalyst has very high selectivity
(d) no catalyst is used
26. With increase in temperature, the equilibrium conversion of a reversible exothermic
reaction
(a) decreases
(d) increases
(c) remain unaffected
(d) decreases linearly with temperature
27. With decrease in temperature, the equilibrium conversion of a reversible endothermic
reaction
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains unaffected
(d) increases linearly with temperature
28. The equilibrium constant of a chemical reaction
(a) increases in the presence of catalyst
(b) decreases in the presence of catalyst
(c) remains unaffected in the presence of a catalyst
(d) can either increase or decrease; depends on the type of catalyst
29. Conversion increases with increase in temperature of

(a) Autocatalytic reaction
(b) Irreversible reaction
(c) Reversible endothermic reaction
(d) Reversible exothermic reaction
30. The heat of reaction
(a) depends on the pressure only
(b) depends on the mechanism of reaction only
(c) depends on both pressure and mechanism of reaction
(d) is independent of the mechanism of reaction
31. Integral method for analyzing the kinetic data is used
(a) when the data are scattered
(b) for testing specific mechanisms with simple rate expression
(d) none of these
32. Differential method for analyzing the kinetic data is used
(a) for testing complicated mechanisms
(b) when the data are scattered
(c) when rate expressions are very simple
(d) none of these
33.Exposure of a photographic plate to produce a latent image is an example of
(a) Very slow reaction
(b) Very fast reaction
(c) Photochemical reaction
(d) Both (b) and (c)
34. A trickle bed reactor is one which
(a) has altogether three streams either entering or leaving
(b) processes three reactants at different flow rates
(c) processes three reactant with same flow rate
(d) employs all the three phases (i.e. solid liquid and gas)
35.According to Arrhenius equation of temperature dependency of rate constant for an
elementary reaction
(a) k T
(b) k e-E/RT
(c) k Te-E/RT
(d) none of these
36. With increases in temperature, the rate constant obeying Arrhenius equation
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) decreases exponentially with temperature
(d) can either increase or decrease, depends on the frequency factor
37. A batch reactor is characterized by

(a) constant residence time
(b) the variation in extent of reaction and properties of the reaction mixture
with time
(c) variation in reactor volume
(d) very low conversion
38. A plug-flow reactor is characterized by
(a) high capacity
(b) presence of axial mixing
(c) presence of lateral mixing
(d) constant composition and temperature of reaction mixture
39. In a semi-batch reactor
a
(a) velocity of reaction can be controlled
(b) maximum conversion can be controlled
b
(c) both the as reactants flow counter-currently
(d) residence time is constant
40. A back mix reactor
(a) is same as plug-flow reactor
(b) is same as ideal stirred tank reactor
(c) employs mixing in axial direction only
(d) is most suitable for gas phase reaction
41. In a continuous flow stirred tank reactor the composition of the exit stream
(a) is same as that in the reactor
(b) is different than that in the reactor
(c) depends upon the flow rate of inlet stream
(d) none of these
42. In an ideal tubular-flow reactor
(a) there is no mixing in longitudinal direction
(b) mixing takes place in radial direction
(c) there is a uniform velocity across the radius
(d) all (a), (b) and (c)
43. Space velocity
(a) describes the extensive operating characteristics of a tubular flow reactor
(b) is the maximum feed rate per unit volume of reactor for is given conversion
(c) is a measure of the case of the reaction job
44. A high space velocity means that a given
(a) reaction can be accomplished with small reactor
(b) conversion can be obtained with a high feed rate
(d) none of these
45. Space time in flow reactor is
(a) usually equal to the residence time
(b) the reciprocal of the space velocity
(c) a measure of its capacity
(d) both (a) and (c)

46. A space-time of 3 hours for a flow reactor means that
(a) the time required to process one reactor volume of feed (measured at
specified conditions) is 3 hour
(b) three reactor volumes of feed can be processed every hour
(c) it takes three hours to dump the entire volume of the reaction with feed
(d) conversion is cent per cent after three hour
47. Space time equals the mean residence time
(a) when the density of the reaction mixture is constant
(b) for large diameter tubular reactor
(c) for narrow diameter tubular reactor
(d) for CSTR
48. Fluidized bed reactor is characterized by
(a) uniformity of temperature
(b) comparatively smaller equipment
(c) very small pressure drop
(d) absence of continuous catalyst regeneration facility
49. A batch reactor is
(a) suitable for gas-phase reaction on commercial scale
(b) suitable for liquid phase reaction involving small production rate
(c) least expensive to operate for a given rate
(d) most suitable for very large production rate
50. Which of the following is the most suitable for very high-pressure gas-phase
reaction?
(a) batch reactor
(b) tubular flow reactor
(c) stirred tank reactor
(d) fluidized bed reactor
51. For nearly isothermal operation involving large reaction time in a liquid phase
reaction, the most suitable reactor is
(a) stirred tank reactor
(b) tubular flow reactor
(c) batch reactor
(d) fixed bed reactor
52. A stirred tank reactor compared to tubular-flow reactor provides
(a) more uniform operation condition
(b) permits operation at the optimum temperature for a long reaction time
(c) higher overall selectivity for a first order consecutive reaction
53. For the same residence time, which will give the maximum conversion?
(a) single stirred tank (v=5liters)
(b) two stirred tank (each of 2.5liters) in series
(c) stirred tank followed by tubular flow reactor (each 2.5liters)
(d) single tubular flow reactor (v=5liters)
54. Oil hydrogenated using nickel catalyst in a

(a) batch reactor
(b) slurry reactor
(c) fluidized bed reactor
(d) fixed bed reactor
55. A second order reaction of the form A+B
C is called a pseudo-first order reaction
when
(a) CAO = CBO
(b) CAO > CBO
(c) CAO CBO
(d) CBO > CAO
56. A first order irreversible reaction A
B is carried separately in a constant volume as
well as a in a variable volume reactor for a particular period. It signifies that
(a) both conversion as well as concentration are same in the two reactors
(b) conversion in both will be the same but concentrations will be different in
the two reactors
(c) both the conversion as well as concentrations will be different in the two
reactors
(d) none of these
57.A space velocity of 5 hour means that
(a) five reactor volumes of feed (at specified conditions) are being fed into the
reactor per hour
(b) after five hours, reactor is being filled with the feed
(c) cent percent conversion can be achieved in at least 5 hours
c (d) a fixed conversion of a given batch of feed takes 5 hours
58. Which of the following fixes the volume of a batch reactor for a particular conversion
and production rate?
c
(a) operating conditions (e.g. pressure and temperature)
d
(b) rate constant
e
(c) density of mixture
f
(d) none of these
59. In a CSTR
(a) reaction rate varies with time
(b) concentration varies with time
(c) both (a) and (b) occur
(d) neither (a) nor (b) occurs
60. The use of space-time is preferred over the mean residence time in the design of
(a) batch reactor
(b) ideal tubular-flow reactor
(c) slurry reactor
(d) CSTR
61. For all positive reaction orders for a particular duty

(a) mixed reactor is always larger than the plug-flow reactor
(b) the ratio of the volume of the mixed reactor to that of the plug-flow
reactor decreases with order
(c) reactor size is independent of the type of flow
(d) density variation during reaction affects design
62. With the same reaction time, initial concentration and feed rate, the reaction 2A
B
is carried out separately in CSTR and P.F. reactor of equal volumes. The conversion will
be
(a) higher in P.F. reactor
(b) higher in CSTR
(c) same in both the reactors
(d) data insufficient; cant be predicted
63. For an autocatalytic reactor, the suitable reactor set up is
(a) P.F. reactors in series
(b) CSTR in series
(c) CSTR followed by P.F. reactor
(d) P.F. reactor followed by CSTR
64. For multiple reactions, the reaction within the vessel affects the
(a) Size requirement
(b) Distribution of reaction product
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
65. A first order reaction requires two unequal sized CSTR. Which of the following gives
a higher yield?
(a) Large reactor followed by smaller one
(b) Smaller reactor followed by larger one
(c) Either of the arrangement (a) or (b) will give the same yield
(d) Data insufficient; cant be predicted
66. A first order reaction requires two equal sized CSTR. The conversion is
(a) Less when they are connected in series
(b) More when they are connected in series
(c) More when they are connected in parallel
(d) Same whether they are connected in series or parallel
67. The concentration of A in a first order reaction A B decreases
(a) Linearly with time
(b) Exponentially with time
(c) Very abruptly toward the end of the reaction
(d) Logarithmically with time
68. Which of the following is most suitable for isothermal reaction ?
(a) Batch reactor
(b) Back-mix reactor
(c) Plug-flow reactor
(d) Fixed bed reactor
69. Which of the following is the optimum operating condition for an exothermic
reversible reaction-taking place in a plug-flow reactor
(a)Temperature should be high in the beginning and decreased
towards the end of the reaction
(b) Very low temperature should be used throughout the reaction
(c) Very high temperature should be used throughout the reaction
(d) None of these
70. With increase in the space-time of an irreversible isothermal reaction being carried
out in a P.F. reactor, the conversion will
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain same
(d) Data sufficient; cant be predicted
71. The optimum performance for reactors operating in parallel is obtained when the feed
stream is distributed in such a way that the
(a) Space time for each parallel line is same
(b) Space time for parallel lines is different
(c) Larger reactors have more space time compared to smaller ones
(d) None of these
72. Back mixing is most predominant in
g
(a) A well stirred reactor
h
(b) Plug-flow reactor
i
(c) A single CSTR
j
(d) CSTR connected in series
73. The ratio of moles of a reactant converted into the desired product to that converted
into unwanted product is called
c
(a) Operational yield
d
(b) Relative yield
e
(c) Selectivity
f
(d) None of these
74. The performance of a cascade of CSTRs can be improved by adding
(a) a P.F. reactor in series
(b) a P.F. reactor in parallel
(c) More CSTRs in series
(d) More CSTRs in parallel
75. An auto thermal reactor is
(a) Most suitable for a second order reaction
(b) Most suitable for a reversible reaction
(c) Completely self supporting in its thermal energy requirements
(d) Isothermal in nature
76. For series reaction,the
(a) Relative yield is always greater for plug-flow reactor tha) for the single
CSTR of the same volume
(b) Statement in a is wrong
(c) Relative yield decreases with increasing conversion
(d) Both (a) and (c) hold good
77. When a high liquid hold up is required in a reactor for a gas-liquid reaction,
use
(a) Packed column
(b) Spray column
(c) Tray column
(d) Bubble column
78. For reactions in parallel viz. AP (desired product) and AQ (unwanted product),
if the order of the desired reaction is higher than that of the undesired reaction, a
(a) Batch rector is preferred over a single CSTR for high yield
(b) Tubular rector is preferred over a single CSTR for high yield
(d) A single CSTR is the most suitable
79. In question 78, high yield would be favored ( for gas phase reactions)
(a) At high pressure
(b) At low pressure
(c) By the presence of the inner gases in the reactant stream
(d) Both (b) and (c)
80. When all the limiting reactant is consumed in the reaction, the operation yield
(a) Is greater than relative yield
(b) Is smaller than relative yield
(c) Equals the relative yield
(d) Can be greater or smaller than relative yield, depends on the type of
reaction
81. Design of heterogeneous catalytic reactor involves consideration of
(a) Only chemical steps
(b) Only physical steps
(d) Neither (a) and (b)
82. Pick out the wrong statement
(a) A catalyst does not alter the final position of equilibrium in a reversible
reaction.
(b) A catalyst initiate a reaction
(c) A catalyst is specific in action
(d) A catalyst remain unchanged in chemical composition at the end of the
reaction
83. Catalyst is a substance which
(a) Increases the speed of chemical reaction
(b) Decreases the speed of chemical reaction
(c) Can either increase or decrease the speed of chemical reaction
(d) Alters the value of equilibrium constant in a reversible reaction
84. Catalyst carriers
(a) Have very high selectivity
(b) Increase the activity of a catalyst
(c) Provide large surface area with small amount of active material
(d) Inhibit catalyst poisoning
85. A catalyst promoter

(a) Improves the activity of a catalyst
(b) Acts as a catalyst support
(c) Itself has very high activity
(d) All (a) (b) and (c)
86. A catalyst inhibitor
(a) Lessens its selectivity
(b) May be useful for suppressing undesirable side reaction
(c) Is added in small quantity during the catalyst manufacture itself
87. Carbon catalyst accumulated on the catalyst used in the gas oil cracking lies in the
category of :
(a) Deposited poison
(b) Chemisorbed poison
(c) Selectivity poison
(d) Stability poison
88. Slurry reactors are characterised by
(a) Lack of intra-particle diffusion resistance
(b) Presence of two mobile phase
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
89. A reaction . A 3 B is conducted in a constant pressure vessel. Starting with pure A,
the volume of the reaction mixture increase 3 times in 6 minutes. The final conversion is
(a) 0.33
(b) 0.50
(c) 1
(d) Data insufficient, cant be predicted
90. The most suitable reactor for carrying out an auto-thermal reaction is
(a) Batch reactor
(b) CSTR
(c) Semi-batch reactor
(d) Plug-flow reactor
91 Which of the following factors control the design of a fluid solid reactor?
(a) The reaction kinetics for single particle
(b) The size distribution of solids being treated
(c) Flow patterns of solids and fluids in the reactor
92. Kinetics of solid catalyst reaction can be studied in a
(a) Batch reactor
(b) Plug-flow reactor
(c) Mixed reactor
(d) None of these
93. For high conversion in highly exothermic solid catalyzed reaction, use a
(a) Fixed bed reactor
(b) Fluidized bed reactor followed by a fixed bed reactor
(c) Fixed bed reactor followed by a fluidized bed reactor
(d) Fluidized bed reactor
94. In case of staged packed bed reactors carrying out exothermic reaction, use
(a) High recycle for pure glass
(b) Plug flow for dilute liquid require no large preheating of feed
(c) Cold shot operations for a dilute solution requiring large preheating to
bring the steam up to the reaction temperature
95. Which of the following will give the maximum gas conversion ?
(a) Fixed bed reactor
(b) fluidized reactor
(c) Semi-fluidized reactor
(d) Plug flow catalytic reactor
96. Which of the following factors control the deactivation of a porous catalyst pellet?
(a) Decay reactions
(b) Pore diffusion
(c) Form of surface attack of poison
97. BET apparatus is used to determine the
(a) Specific surface of porous catalyst
(b) Pore size distribution
(c) Pore diameter
(d) Porosity of the catalyst bed
98. If pore diffusion is the controlling step in a solid catalyzed reaction the catalyst
(a) Porosity is very important
(b) Porosity is less importance
(c) Internal surface is utilized efficiently
(d) None of these
99. BET apparatus
(a) Measure the catalyst surface area directly
(b) Operates at very high pressure
(c) Is made entirely by stainless steel
(d) None of these
100. Helium-mercury method can be used to determine the
(a) Pore volume
(b) Solid density
(c) Porosity of catalyst particle
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING THERMODYNAMICS

1. Which of the following is an extensive property of a system?
a. heat capacity
b. molal heat capactiy
c. pressure
d. concentration
2. Which of the following is a thermodynamic property of a system?
a. concentration
b. mass
c. temperature
d. entropy
3. First law of thermodynamics is mathematically stated as
a. dQ = dU + dW
b. dQ = dU dW
c. dU = dQ + dW
d. dW = dQ dU
4. First law of thermodynamics deals with
a. direction of energy transfer
b. reversible process only
c. irreversible processes only
d. none of these
5. An irreversible process
a. is the analog of linear frictionless motion in machines
b. is an idealized visualization of behavior of a system
c. yields the maximum amount of work
d. yields the amount of work less than that of a reversible process.
6. In a adiabatic process
a. heat transfer is zero
c. work done is a path function
b. temperature change is zero

d. enthalpy remains constant
7. Enthalpy H is defined as
a. H = U PV
c. H U = PV
b. H = U TS
d. none of these
8. Efficiency of heat engine working on Carnot cycle between two temperature levels
depends upon
a. the two temperatures only
b. the pressure of working fluid
c. the mass of the working fluid
d. both mass and pressure of the
working fluid
9. What is the degree of freedom for a system comprising liquid water equilibrium with
its vapor?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
10. Efficiency of a Carnot engine working between temperatures T1 and T2 (T1 < T2 ) is
a. (T2 T1) / T2
b. (T2 T1) / T1
c (T1 T2) / T2
d. (T1 T2) / T1
11. For a constant pressure reversible process, the enthalpy ( H) change of the system is
a. C vdT
b. Cp dT
c. Cp dT
d. Cv dT
12. Internal energy of an ideal gas
a. increases with increase in pressure
b. decreases with increase in temperature
c. is independent of temperature
d. none of these
13. Equation which relates pressure, volume, and temperature of a gas is called
a. Equation of state
b. Gibbs Duhem equation
c. ideal gas equation
d. none of these
14. Isobaric process means a constant
a. temperature process
c. volume process
b. pressure process
d. entropy process
15. Isentropic process means a constant

a. enthalpy process
c. volume process
b. pressure process
d. none of these
16. Throttling process is a constant

a. enthalpy process
c. pressure process
b. entropy process
d. none of these
17. The point at which all three phases co-exist is known as

a. freezing point
b. triple point
c. boiling point
d. none of these
18. C, for an ideal gas
a. does not depend upon temperature
b. is independent of pressure only
c. is independent of volume only
d. is independent of both pressure and volume
19. For an isothermal process the internal energy of a gas
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains unchanged
d. data insufficient cant be predicted
20. PV = Constant (where, = Cp / C v) is valid for
a. Isothermal process
b. Isentropic process
c. Isobaric process
d. adiabatic process
21. For an isothermal reversible compression of an ideal gas

a. only U= 0
b. only H = 0
c. U = H = 0
d. dQ dU
22. As the time is passing, entropy of the universe
a. is increasing
b. is decreasing
c. remains constant
d. data insufficient, cant be predicted
23. Boyles law for gases states that
a. P 1/V when temperature is constant
b. P 1/V when temperature and mass of the gas remains constant
c. P V at a constant temperature and mass of the gas
d. P/V = constant, for any gas
24. The equation, PV = nRT is best obeyed by gases at
a. low pressure and high temperature
b. high pressure and low temperature
c. low pressure and low temperature
d. none of these
25. Compressibility factor of a gas is
a. not a function of pressure
c. not a function of its temperature
b. not a function of its nature

d. unity, if it follows PV = nRT
26. Critical compressibility factor for all substances

a. are more less constant(vary from 0.2 to 0.3)
b. vary as square of the absolute temperature
c. vary as square of the absolute pressure
d. none of these
27. Reduced pressure of a gas is the ratio of its
a. pressure to critical pressure
b. critical pressure to pressure
c. pressure to pseudocritical pressure
d. pseudocritical pressure to pressure
28. Compressibility factor-reduced pressure plot on reduced coordinates facilities
a. use only one graph for all gases
b. covering of wider range
c. easier plotting
d. more accurate plotting
29. Number of components (C) phase (P) and degrees of freedom (F) are related by Gibbs
phase rule as
a. P + F C = 2
b. C =P F +2
c. F = C P 2
d. P = F C 2
30. Degrees of freedom at triple point will be

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
31. Cp Cv = R is valid for
a. ideal gases
c. gases at very high pressure
b. all gases
d. gases at a very low temperature
32. An isolated system can exchange

a. matter with its surroundings
b. energy with its surroundings
c. neither matter nor energy with its surroundings
d. both matter and energy with its surroundings.
e.
33. Heat of formation of an element in its standard state is
a. 0
b. <0
c. >0
d. a function of pressure
34. Heat of reaction is
a. dependent on pressure only
b. dependent on temperature only
c. dependent on both pressure and temperature
d. independent of temperature changes
35. Second law of thermodynamics is concerned with
a. amount of energy transferred
b. direction of energy transfer
c. irreversible process only
d. non-cyclic process only
36. The absolute entropy for all crystalline substances at absolute zero temperature
a. is zero
b. is negative
c. is more than zero
d. cant be determined
37. Joule Thomson coefficient is defined as
a. = ( P/T)H
b. = ( T/ P)H
c. = ( U/ T)H
d. ( U/ P)H
38. Mollier diagram is a plot of
a. temperature vs. enthalpy
b. temperature vs. entropy
c. entropy vs. enthalpy
d. temperature vs. internal energy
39. Fill up the blank from among the following:

Near their critical temperature all gases, occupy volumes that of the ideal gas
a. less than
b. same as
c. more than
d. half
40. Charles law for gases states that
a. V/T = constant
c. V 1/P
b. V 1/T
d. PV/T = constant
41. Absolute zero temperature signifies

a. minimum temperature attainable
b. the temperature of the heat reservoir to which a Carnot engine rejects all the heat
that is taken in
c. the temperature of the heat reservoir to which a Carnot engine rejects no
heat
d. none of these
42. Entropy is measure of
a. disorder of a system
b. orderly behavior of a system
c. only temperature changes of the system
d. none of these
43. For spontaneous changes in an isolated system( S = entropy )
a. dS = 0
b. dS < 0
c. dS> 0
d. dS = constant
44. For equilibrium process in an isolated system
a. dS = 0
b. dS < 0
c. dS>0
d. dS = constant
45. The four properties of a system via P,V,T,S are related by
a. Gibbs-Duhem equation
b. Gibbs-Helmholtz equation
c. Maxwells equation
d. none of these
46. For a constant volume process
a. dU = C pdT
c. dQ = dU + pdV
b. dU = Cv dT
d. dW = pdV
47. In a reversible process

a. TdS = dU + dW
c. dW dU = TdS
b. dU dW = TdS
d. TdS dW dU > 0
48. In an irreversible process

a. TdS = UdW = 0
c. TdS dU dW <0
b. dU dW TdS = 0
d. TdS dT + dW < 0
49. Cv is given by
a. ( U/ T)v
c. ( U/P)v
b. ( U/V)T
d. (V/ T)P
50. Third law of thermodynamics is concerned with

a. the value of absolute entropy
b. energy transfer
c. direction of energy transfer
d. none of these
51. Which of the following equation is obtained on combining 1 sT and 2nd law of
thermodynamics, for a system of constant mass?
a. dU = TdS PdV
b. dQ = Cv dT + PdV
c. dQ = Cp dT + Vdp
d. TdS = dU PdV
52. The equation TdS = dU PdV applies to
a. single phase fluid of varying composition
b. single phase fluid of constant composition
c. open as well as closed systems
d. both b and c
53. For an exothermic reaction
a. only enthalpy change (H)is negative
b. only internal energy change (U) is negative
c. both H and U are negative
d. enthalpy change is zero
54. If different processes are used to bring about the same chemical reaction, the enthalpy
change is same for all of them.
a. Hesss law
b. Kirchhoffs law
c. Lavoisier and Laplace law
d. none of these
55. Change of heat content when one mole of the compound is burnt in oxygen at
constant pressure is called
a. calorific value
b. heat of reaction
c. heat of combustion
d. heat of formation
56. Melting of wax is accompanied with
a. increase in entropy
c. constant entropy
b. decrease in entropy
d. none of these
57. Helmholtz free energy is defined as

a. A = H TS
c. A = H + TS
b. A = U TS
d. none of these
58. Gibbs free energy (G) is defined as

a. G = U TS
c. G = H + TS
b. G = H - TS
d. G = U+ TS
59. Gibbs-Helmholtz equation is

a. G = H + T[ ( G)/ T]P
b. G = H TT
c. d(U TS)T ,V <0
d. dP/dT = HVAP/ TVVAP
60. For a reversible process involving only pressure volume work
a. (dG)T, p<0
b. (dG)T, p>0
c. (dG)T, p=0
d. (dA)T, v > 0
61. For an irreversible process involving only pressure volume work
a. (dG)T, p<0
b. (dG)T, p>0
c. (dG)T, p=0
d. (dA)T, v > 0
62. Pick out the correct equation relating G and A
a. G = A + PV
b. G = U + A
c. G = A TS
d. G = A + TS
63. A chemical reaction will occur spontaneously at constant pressure and temperature, if
free energy is
a. zero
b. positive
c. negative
d. none of these
64. Clapeyron equation deals with the
a. rate of change of vapor pressure with temperature
b. effect of an inert gas on vapor pressure
c. calculation of G for spontaneous phase change
d. temperature dependence of least of phase transition
65. In any spontaneous process
a. only G decreases
c. both G and A decreases
b. only A decreases
d. both G and A increases
66. Pick out the Claussius-Clayperon equation from the following:

a. dP/dT = H/T V
b. ln P = - H/ RT + constant
c. G = H + T[ ( G)/T]P
d. none of these
67. Free energy charges for two reaction mechanism X and Y are respectively 15 and 5
units. It implies that X is
a. slower than Y
b. faster than Y
c. three times slower than Y
d. three times faster than Y
68. Chemical potential is

a. an extensive property
b. an intensive property
c. a force which derives the chemical system to equilibrium
d. both b and c
69. Chemical potential of its component of a system is given by
a. i = ( G/ni)T,P,ni
b. i = ( A/ni)T,P,ni
c. i = ( G/ni)T,P
d. i = ( A/ni)T,P
70. Fill up the blanks from among the following alternatives;
The chemical potential for a pure substance .. its partial molal free energy
a. more than
b. less than
c. equal to
d. not related to
71. Partial molal quantities are important in the study of
a. ideal gases
b. ideal solutions
c. non-ideal mixtures
d. a pure component
72. Fugacity and pressure are numerically equal when the gas is
a. in standard state
b. at high temperature
c. at low temperature
d. in ideal state
73. The relation connecting the fugacities of various components in a solution with one
another and to composition at constant temperature and pressure is called
a. Gibbs-Duhem equation
b. Van Laar equation
c. Gibbs-Helmholtz equation
d. Margules equation
74. The necessary condition for phase equilibrium in a multiphase system of N
components is the
a. chemical potential of all components should be equal in all phases
b. chemical potentials of all components should be same in a particular phase
c. sum of the chemical potentials of any given component in all the phases should be
the same
d. none of these
75. Which of the following is not affected by temperature changes
a. fugacity
b. activity co-efficient
c. free energy
d. none of these
76. The activity of an ideal gas is numerically
a. more than it pressure
b. less than its pressure
c. equal to its pressure
77. Maximum work that could be secured by expanding the gas over a given pressure
range is the
a. isothermal work
b. adiabatic work
c. isentropic work
d. none of these
78. The point at which both liquid and gas phases are identical is called
a. critical point
b. triple point
c. freezing point
d. boiling point
79. Equilibrium constant of a reaction varies with
a. initial concentration of the reactant
b. pressure
c. temperature
d. none of these
80. For an ideal solution, the value of activity coefficient is
a. 0
b. 1
c. <1
d. >1
81. Fugacity coefficient of a substance is the ratio of its fugacity to
a. mole fraction
b. activity
c. pressure
d. activity coefficient
82. Van Laar equation deals with activity coefficients in
a. binary solution
b. ternary solution
c. azeotropic mixture only
d. none of these
83. In Joule-Thomson porous plug experiment
a. enthalpy does not remain constant
b. the entire apparatus is exposed to surroundings
c. temperature remains constant
d. none of these
84. Equilibrium constant
a. decreases as the temperature increases for an exothermic reaction
b. decreases as the temperature decreases for an exothermic reaction
c. will decrease with increasing temperature for a exothermic reaction
d. none of these
85. As the entropy of the universe is increasing day by day the work producing capacity
of a heat engine is
a. not changed
b. decreasing
c. increasing
86. Refrigeration cycle
a. violates second law of thermodynamics
b. involves transfer of heat from low temperature to high temperature
c. both a and b
d. none of these
87. Ideal refrigeration cycle is

a. same as Carnot
b. same as reverse Carnot cycle
c. dependent on refrigerant properties
b. the least efficient of all refrigeration processes
88. Fundamental principle of refrigeration is based on
a. zeroth law of thermodynamics
b. first law of thermodynamics
c. second law of thermodynamics
d. third law of thermodynamics
89. Coefficient of Performance (COP) of a refrigerator is the ratio of
a. work required to refrigeration obtained
b. refrigeration obtained to the work required
c. lower to higher temperature
d. higher to lower temperature
90. In a working refrigerator value of COP is always
a. 0
b. <0
c. <1
d. >1
91. One ton of refrigeration capacity is equivalent to
a. 50 k cal/hr
b. 200 BTU/hr
c. 200 BTU/minute
d. 200 BTU/day
92. Which of the following have minimum value of COP for a given refrigeration effect?
a. reverse Carnot cycle
b. ordinary vapor compression cycle
c. vapor compression process with a reversible expansion engine
d. air refrigeration cycle
93. An ideal refrigerant should
a. not have a subatmosphere vapor pressure at the temperature in the refrigerator
coils
b. not have unduly high vapor pressure at the condenser temp.
c. both a and b
d. none of these
94. Heat pump
a. accomplishes only space heating in winter
b. accomplishes only space cooling in summer
c. accomplishes both a and b
d. work on Carnot cycle
95. Which of the following is not a common refrigerant

a. freon 12
b. ethylene
c. ammonia
d. carbon dioxide
96. Domestic refrigerator usually works on
a. Carnot refrigeration cycle
b. A refrigeration cycle
c. Absorption refrigeration cycle
d. Vapor ejection refrigeration
97. Refrigerants commonly used for domestic refrigerations are
a. ethyl chloride
b. freon 12
c. propane
d. CO2
98. Air refrigeration cycle
a. is most efficient of all refrigeration
b. has very low efficiency
c. requires relatively quantities of air to achieve a significant amount of refrigeration
d. both b and c
99. Coefficient to performance for a reversed Carnot cycle working between temperatures
T1 and T2 (T1> T2) is
a. T2 /(T1 - T2)
b. T1 /(T1 T2)
c. (T2 T1) / T1
d. (T1 T2) /T2
100. Dry ice is
a. moisture free ice
c. solid carbon dioxide
b. solid helium
d. none of these
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING CALCULATIONS

1. In flue gas analysis by Orsats apparatus, carbon monoxide is absorbed by
(a) cuprous chloride
(b) potassium hydroxide
(c) alkaline pyrogallol solution
(d) none of these
2. Calorific value as determined by bomb calorimeter is
(a) higher calorific value at constant volume
(b) gross calorific value at constant pressure
(c) lower calorific value at constant pressure
(d) net calorific value at constant volume
3. Incomplete combustion of a fuel is characterized by
(a) smoke formation
(b) high gas temperature
(c) high percentage of oxygen in flue gas
(d) high carbon monoxide content in flue gas
4. For maximum discharge through a chimney, its height should be

(a) 200 meters
(b) infinitely long
(c) more than 105.7 meters
(d) equal to the height of the hot gas column producing draught
5. Oxygen percentage (by weight) in atmospheric air is
(a) 19
(b) 21
(c) 23
(d) 29
6. Stack (chimney) height in a big thermal power plant is dictated by
(a) pollution control aspect
(b) draught to be created
(c) limitation of constructional facilities
(d) none of these
7. A particular coal is said to be free burning when it
(a) burns completely
(b) gives smokeless burning
(c) shows little or no fusing action
(d) none of these
8. As time passes, the calorific value of stored coal
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains unaltered
(d) may increase or decrease (depends on the method of storage)
9. Emission of dense white smoke out of chimney of a thermal power plant is an
indication of the use of
(a) less air for combustion
(b) correct amount of air for combustion
(c) too much air for combustion(d) pulverized coal in boilers
10. Use of pulverized coal in boiler furnace provides
(a) high calorific value
(b) better combustion
(c) smokeless burning
(d) pulverized coal
11. Which of the following fuels is best for burning on chain grate smoker?
(a) non caking coal
(b) caking coal
(c) coking coal
(d) pulverized coal
12. Which of the following accounts for maximum energy loss in a boiler
(a) flue gases
(b) ash content in the fuel
(c) incomplete combustion
(d) unburnt carbon in flue gases
13. Over-fire burning in a furnace is a phenomenon characterized by
(a) supply of excess fuel
(b) supply of excess air
(c) burning carbon monoxide and other incombustible in upper zone of furnace
by supplying more air
(d) none of these
14. When steam is passed over coal resulting in the endothermic reaction (C + H 2O ----CO + H2), it is called
(a) carbonization of coal
(b) oxidation of coal
(c) coalification
(d) gasification of coal
15. Fischer-Tropsch method aims at

(a) gasification of coal
(b) synthesis of gasoline (from water gas)
(c) hydrogenation of coal to produce gasoline
(d) none of these
16. Commercial production of petrol from coal (as practiced in a factory at Sasol in South
Africa) is done by
(a) hydrogenation of coal
(b) gasification of coal
(c) carbonization of coal
(d) none of these
17. In case pulverized coal from steam boiler, the secondary air serves the main purpose
of
(a) transportation of coal
(b) drying of coal
(c) combustion of coal by supplying in around the burner
(d) pre-heating the primary air
18. The main function of primary air in pulverized coal fired burner is to
(a) burn CO to CO2
(b) dry transport of the coal
(c) have proper combustion by supplying it around the burner
(d) pre-heat the tertiary air used for complete combustion of CO to CO2
19. The advantage of firing pulverized coal in the furnace lies in the fact that if
(a) permits the use of high ash content of coal
(b) permits the use of low fusion point ash coal
(c) accelerates the burning rate and economizes on fuel combustion
(d) all of the above
20. Orsat apparatus is meant for
(a) gravimetric analysis of flue gas
(b) finding out combustion efficiency
(c) direct determination of nitrogen in flue gas by absorbing it in ammoniacal cuprous
chloride
(d) none of these
(a) Theoretical flame temperature is temperature attained by the products of
combustion when the fuel is burned without loss or gain of heat
(b) Burning the fuel with theoretically required amount of pure oxygen results in
attainment of maximum adiabatic flame temperature
(c) Burning the fuel with excess pure oxygen results in maximum theoretical
flame temperature
(d) Adiabatic flame temperatures of actual combustions are always less than
maximum values
22. The maximum adiabatic flame temperature in air compared to that in pure oxygen is
(a) much lower
(b) much higher
(c) same
(d) either lower or higher, depends on the type of fuel
23. Adiabatic flame temperature of a fuel is dependant on the initial temperature of

(a) the fuel
(b) the air
(c) both fuel and the air
(d) neither fuel nor the air
24. Preheating of
(a) the gaseous fuel before combustion decreases the flame temperature
(b) Combustion air decreases the flame temperature
(c) either the fuel or the air or both increases the flame temperature
(d) either the fuel or the air does not affect the flame temperature
25. The fuel ratio of a coal is
(a) the ratio of its percentage of fixed carbon to that of volatile matter
(b) helpful in estimation of its rank
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
26. A fuel containing carbon and carbon monoxide (but containing the hydrogen or its
compounds) is burnt in pure oxygen at constant pressure. Its gross calorific value as
compared to the net calorific value will be
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) data insufficient; cant be predicted
27. Removal of hydrogen from coke oven gas
(a) increases its calorific value
(b) decreases its calorific value
(c) does not alter its calorific value
(d) is not possible on commercial scale
28. With increase in calorific value of fuels, their adiabatic flame temperatures
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unchanged
(d) may increase or decrease; depends on the quantity of products of combustion
29. Grindability index of a coal is 100. It implies that the
(a) coal can be pulverized with great difficulty
(b) coal cant be pulverized
(c) coal can easily be pulverized
(d) power consumption in grinding the coal will be very high
30. If the specific heat of gaseous products of combustion of a fuel is high, the adiabatic
flame temperature will be
(a) low
(b) high
(c) very high if fuel is of low calorific value
(d) none of these
31. Calorific value (kcal/kg) of dry wood may be around
(a) 5
(b) 50
(c) 500
(d) 5000
32. A coal containing high amount of volatile matter will have
(a) low ignition temperature
(b) very little content
(c) high fusion point of its ash
(d) low adiabatic flame temperature
33. Steam is intermittently admitted in to the fuel bed during the production of producer
gas to
(a) convert CO to CO2
(b) increase in combustion rate
(c) increase the gas production rate
(d) minimize the chances of clinker formation
34.Which of the following is called blue gas?
(a) coke oven gas
(b) water gas
(c) natural gas
(d) producer gas (produced using Kopper Totzek gasifier).
35. During combustion of gaseous fuel deficiency of air
(a) lengthens the flame
(b) tends to shorten the flame
(c) does not affect the flame length
(d) increases the flame temperature
36. Use of excess of combustion air in the combustion of fuels results in

(a) heat losses
(b) long flame
(c) condensation of water vapor from the flue gas
(d) none of these
37. A gaseous fuel in order to develop luminosity on burning, must contain
(a) carbon monoxide
(b) hydrocarbons
(c) hydrogen
(d) oxygen
38. Preheating of gaseous fuel results in increased

(a) flame length
(b) flame temperature
(c) quantum of flue gas
(d) ignition temperature
39. Quantity of coke oven gas produced by high temperature carbonization of one ton of
dry coal may be around
(a) 30 Nm
(b) 300 Nm
(c) 3000 Nm
(d) 30,000 Nm
40. Coke oven gas is a better fuel than blast furnace gas because of its higher
(a) calorific value, cleanliness and relatively low distribution cost (due to its low
specific gravity)
(b) adiabatic flame temperature
(c) heat release rate (thus requiring smaller combustion chamber)
(d) all of the above
41. Which of the following constituents of fuel does not contribute to its calorific value
on combustion
(a) hydrogen
(b) sulfur
(c) carbon
(d) none of these
42. Combustion of pulverized coal as compared to that of lump coal

(a) develops a non-luminous flame
(b) develops a low temperature flame
(c) can be done with less excess air
(d) provides a lower rate of heat release
43. Which of the following is the most important deterrents to an extended use of
pulverized coal in boiler firing?
(a) ash disposal problem
(b) excessive fly-ash discharge from the stack
(c) high power consumption in its transportation
(d) erosion of induced draft fan blades
44. Pulverized coal used in boiler firing need have
(a) less moisture content
(b) high fusion point of its ash
(c) high bulk density
(d) lower ash constant
45. Dry air required to burn one lb of carbon completely may be around
(a) 11.5 lb
(b) 2.67 lb
(c) 16 lb
(d) none of these
46. Dry air requirement for burning 1 ft of CO to CO2 may be around

3
(a) 2.4 ft
(b) 1.75 ft
(c) 0.87 ft
(d) 11.4 ft
47. Washing of coal

(a) reduces its sulfur and ash content
(b) controls its ash fusibility and increases its calorific value
(c) improves its coking properties
(d) all (a), (b), and (c)
48. Which of the following has the highest gross calorific value?
(a) blast furnace gas
(b) coke oven gas
(c) carburetted water gas
(d) oil refinery gas
49. Most of coking coals are

(a) anthracite coal
(b) bituminous coal
(c) lignite
(d) none of these
50. High excess air in combustion of fuels results in

(a) increased fuel consumption
(b) incomplete combustion
(c) smoky flame
(d) none of these
51. Atomizing steam to fuel oil ratio in a burner should be around

(a) 0.5
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5
52. For every 10% increase in the excess air; the fuel consumption increases by
(a) 0.1%
(b) 2%
(c) 5%
(d) 10%
53. Ash content in the coke produced from a coking coal having 20% ash may be around
(a) 5%
(b) 2%
(c)17%
(d) 25%
54. Out of the following fuels, the difference between the net and gross calorific value is
maximum in case of
(a) pitch
(b) fuel oil
(c) blast furnace gas
(d) bituminous gas
55. Spontaneous combustion of coal on storage results due to

(a) inadequate ventilation
(b) low temperature oxidation
(c) storage in large heaps with small surface to volume ratio
56. Low temperature oxidation of coal resulting from bad storage conditions does not
decrease its
(a) caking power
(b) calorific value
(c) hydrogen content
(d) oxygen content
57. Efficient burning of anthracite coal requires

(a) low preheat of air
(b) fine grinding
(c) high excess air
58. Rate of temperature oxidation of coal due to bad storage conditions

(a) decrease with increase in surface area
(b) does not vary with increase in surface area
(c) is more for low volatile coal compared to high volatile coal
(d) is accelerated by storage in large heaps with small surface to volume ratio
59. Fusion of point coal ash increases in its
(a) iron sulfate content
(b) iron silicate content
(c) lime and magnesia content
60. Which of the following accentuates clinkering trouble on furnace grate burning coal
(a) low density of carbonized residue containing high proportions of iron and sulfur
(b) low forced draught and fuel bed temperature
(c) thick fire and preheated primary air
61. A coal having high ratio of volatile matter to fixed carbon as compared to a coal
having low ratio of volatile matter to fixed carbon
(a) is less liable to spontaneous combustion on storage
(b) is more difficult to ignite and produces a shorter flame
(c) requires smaller combustion space and less secondary air
(d) none of these
62. Which of the following can be made into briquettes without the use of a binder
(a) lignite
(b) bituminous coal
(c) anthracite coal
(d) none of these
63. Presence of free moisture in coal is most disadvantageous during

(a) its pulverization (as it requires more power)
(b) combustion of fine slacks on the grates
(c) handling (e.g. when emptying wagons)
(d) none of these
64. Which of the following is not a binder for coal briquetting?
(a) coal tar
(b) bitumen
(c) molasses
(d) none of these
65. Highly caking coals

(a) produce weak coke
(b) produce strong coke
(c) may damage the coke oven walls during carbonization
66. Presence of free moisture in coal during its high temperature carbonization
(a) reduces the coking time
(b) protects the volatile products from pyrolysis (cracking) in the presence of hot
coke and hot oven walls
(c) increases the loss of fine coal dust from the ovens when charging
(d) none of these
67. Higher percentage of ash in coal meant for the production of metallurgical grade coke
(a) increases the hardness of coke
(b) increases the abrasion resistance of coke
(c) causes brittleness in steel
(d) none of these
68. Increases in ash content of blast furnace coke

(a) reduces its consumption in the furnace
(b) increases its consumption in the furnace
(c) does not affect its consumption in the furnace
(d) decreases its hardness and abrasion resistance
69. High sulfur content in a fuel
(a) increases the dew point of the flue gases
(b) decreases the dew point of the flue gases
(c) reduces combustion efficiency by limiting the permissible temperature reduction
of the flue gases
(d) both (a) and (c)
70. With the increase in carbonization temperature
(a) gas yield increases
(b) tar yield increases
(c) hydrogen percentage in the coke oven gas decreases
(d) methane percentage in the coke oven gas increases
71. Fill up the blank
With increase in time of carbonization at a particular temperature (say 1000C ), the
. percentage in coke oven gas increases
(a) hydrogen
(b) methane
(c) unsaturates
72. Producer gas containing least amount of tar is produced by

(a) partial combustion of coal
(b) partial combustion of large size (<50mm)
(c) high pressure gasification of coal (e.g. in Lurgi gasifier)
(d) atmospheric pressure gasification of coal (e.g., in Kopper-Totzek gasifier)
73. High temperature in gasification of coal favors
(a) high production of CO2
(b) low production of CO2
(c) high production of CO
74. Lurgi gasifier (high pressure gasifier) as compared to Kopper-Totzek gasifier
(atmospheric pressure gasifier) produces
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
higher amount of methane

lower amount of hydrogen
both (a) and (b)
higher amount of both methane and hydrogen
75. Which of the following constituents of coal is most important in the production of
coke
(a) moisture
(b) ash
(c) volatiles
(d) carbon
76. Which of the following is most reactive (as regards the formation of CO + H2 from C
+ H2O)?
(a) blast furnace coke
(b) low temperature coke
(c) anthracite coal
(d) sub-bituminous coal
77. A coal that softens and fuses on heating in

(a) classified
(b) carbonized
(c) caking
(d) non-caking
78. Purity of coke means that it is high in carbon and low in

(a) volatiles
(b) ash
(c) iron
(d) moisture
79. Calorific value (kcal/Nm ) of coke oven furnace gas is around

3
(a) 900
(b) 4500
(c) 7500
(d) 2000
80. Calorific value (kcal/Nm ) of blast furnace gas is around

3
(a) 900
(b) 1800
(c) 4500
(d) 6500
81. Blast furnace gas is a very poisonous gas because of its predominantly high
(a) H2S content
(b) CO2 content
(c) CO content
(d) CH4 content
82. Percentage of carbon monoxide in blast furnace gas may be around

(a) 0.5
(b) 5
(c) 20
(d) 55
83. Percentage of hydrogen in coke oven gas may be around

(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 20
(d) 50
84. Percentage of methane in coke oven gas may be around

(a) 1
(b) 10
(c) 25
(d) 55
85. Coke oven gas compared to blast furnace gas is

(a) more explosive and inflammable
(c) lighter
(b) less poisonous

86. Which of the following gases will require maximum amount of air for combustion of
1 Nm gas?
3
(b) natural gas
(c) producer gas
(d) water gas
87. Which of the following will generate maximum volume of product of complete
combustion (Nm /Nm of fuel)?
3
(a) carburetted water gas
(b) blast furnace gas
(c) natural gas
(d) producers gas
88. Which is the heaviest fuel gas out of the following?

(b) coke oven gas
(c) water gas
(d) carburetted water gas
89. Fuel can be defined as a substance which produces heat by

(a) combustion
(b) nuclear fission
(c) nuclear fusion
90. Catalyst used in Fisher-Tropsch process is

(a) Nickel
(b) Zinc oxide
(c) Alumina
(d) Thorium oxide
91. In the flue gas analysis by Orsats apparatus, oxygen is absorbed by

(a) potassium hydroxide
(b) cuprous chloride
(c) alkaline pyrogallol solution
(d) none of these
92. In flue gas analysis by Orsats apparatus, carbon dioxide is absorbed by

(a) potassium hydroxide
(b) dilute potassium carbonate
(c) cuprous chloride
(d) alkaline pyrogallol solution
93. The sequence of absorption in flue gas analysis by Orsats apparatus is respectively
(a) CO2, O2, CO
(b) CO, O2, CO2
(c) CO2, CO, O2
(d) O2, CO2, CO
94. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?

(a) lignite
(b) sub-bituminous coal
(c) anthracite
(d) peat
95. The main product of high temperature carbonization is

(a) coke
(b) ammonia
(c) tar
(d) coke oven gas
96. High temperature carbonization produces

(a) inferior coke compared to low temperature carbonization
(b) less of gases compared to liquid products
(c) large quantity of tar compared to low temperature carbonization
(d) none of these
97. High temperature carbonization takes place at
(a) 2000C
(b) 600 C
(c) 1100 C
(d) 1600 C
98. Low temperature carbonization takes place at

(a) 300 C
(b) 1100 C
(c) 500-650 C
(d) 150 C
99. Proximate analysis of determines

(a) moisture, ash, sulfur, volatile matter
(b) moisture, volatile matter, ash, fixed carbon
(c) moisture, sulfur, nitrogen, fixed carbon
(d) none of these
100. Ultimate analysis of coal determines
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulfur

carbon, ash, sulfur, nitrogen
carbon, sulfur, volatile matter, ash
carbon, volatile matter, ash, moisture
CHEMICAL PROCESS INDUSTRIES

1. Catalysts used in the manufacture of sulfuric acid by chamber and contact processes
are respectively
(a) V2O5 and Cr2O3
(b) Oxides of nitrogen and Cr2O3
(c) V2O5 on a porous carrier and oxides of nitrogen
(d) oxides of nitrogen and V2O5 on a porous carrier
2. In contact process, SO3 is absorbed in 97% H2SO4 and not in water because
(a) SO3 gas is sparingly soluble in water
(b) water forms an acid mist which is difficult to absorb
(c) the purity of acid is affected
(d) scale formation in absorber is to be avoided
3. Contact process
(a) yields acid of higher concentration than chamber process
(b) yields acids of lower concentration than chamber process
(c) is obsolete
(d) eliminates absorber
4. 20% Oleum means that in 100 lb., there are 20 lb. of
(a) SO3 and 80 lb of H2SO4
(b) H2SO4 and 80 lb SO3
(c) SO3 for each 100 lb of H2SO4
(d) H2SO4 and 80 lb SO3
5. Producer gas consists mainly of
(a) CO, CO2, N2, H2
(b) CO, H2
(c) H2, CH4
(d) C2H2, CO2, H2
6. Oxygen is produced by fraction of air using
(a) Linde's process
(b) Claude's process
(c) both Linde's and Claude's process
(d) Bayer's process
7. Raw materials for 'Solvay Process' for manufacture of the soda ash are
(a) salt, limestone ,ammonia and coke oven gas
(b) ammonia, salt and limestone
(c) ammonia, limestone and coke
(d) ammonia and coke oven gas
8. Economics of 'Solvay Process" depends upon the efficiency of
(a) carbonating tower
(b) ammonia recovery
(c) ammonia recovery and size of plant
(d) ammoniation of salt solution
9. Mercury cells for caustic soda manufacture compared to diaphragm cells
(a) require lower initial investment
(b) require more power
(c) produce lower concentration of NaOH
(d) none of these
10. Cement mainly contains
(a)CaO, SiO2, Al2O3
b (b) MgO, SiO2, K2O
(c) Al2O3, MgO, Fe2O3
(d) CaO, MgO, K2O
11. Gypsum is
(a) calcium chloride
(b) potassium sulfate
(c) sodium sulfate
(d) calcium sulfate
12. Glauber's salt is

(a) calcium sulfate
(b) potassium sulfate
(c) potassium chlorate
(d) sodium sulfate decahydrate
13. Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of calcium and magnesium
(a) bi-carbonates
(b) sulfates and chlorides
(c) carbonate
(d) chlorides
14. Widely used method for conditioning of boiler feed water is
(a) cold lime process
(b) coagulation
(c) hot-lime soda process
(d) sequestration
15. Hydrazine is largely used
(a) as a starting material for 'hypo'
(b) in photographic industry
(c) as rocket fuel
(d) in printing industry
16. Trinitro-toluene is
(a) used in glycerin manufacture
(b) an explosive
(c) used in dye manufacture
(d) used in paint manufacture
17. Oil is
(a) a mixture of glycerides
(b) a mixture of glycerides of fatty acids
(c) solid at normal temperature
(d) ester of alcohols other than glycerin
18. Wax is
(a) a mixture of glycerides
(b) a mixture of esters of polyhydric alcohols except glycerin
(c) liquid at room temperature
(d) a mixture of glycerides of fatty acids
19. Unsaturated oils compared to saturated oils have
(a) lower melting point and higher reactivity to oxygen
(b) higher melting point and higher reactivity to oxygen
(c) lower melting point and lower reactivity to oxygen
(d) higher melting point and lower reactivity to oxygen
20. Rancidity of oil can be reduced by
(a) decoloration
(b) hydrogenation
(c) oxidation
(d) purification
21. Solvent used for extraction of oil is

(a) hexane
(b) methyl ethyl ketone
(c) furfural
(d) benzene
22. Solvent extracted oil
(a) has low free fatty acid-content
(b) is odorless
(c) has more of unsaturated oil
(d) none of these
23. Hydrogenation of oil does not
(a) remove double bonds
(b) rise in melting point
(c) improve its resistance oxidation
(d) none of these
24. Catalyst used in hydrogenation of oil is
(a) nickel
(b) platinum
(c) iron
(d) alumina
25. Soaps remove dirt by
(a) increasing the surface tension
(b) decreasing wettability
(c) supplying hydrophilic group
(d) none of these
26. Metallic soap is
(a) sodium salt of fatty acids
(b) potassium salt of fatty acids
(c) both sodium and potassium salt of fatty acids
(d) aluminum or calcium salt of fatty acids
27. Fat splitting catalyst is
(a) CaCO3
(b) ZnO
(c) alumina
(d) iron
28. Free alkali in toilet soap is
(a) less than that in a laundry soap
(b) more than that in a laundry soap
(c) same as that in a laundry soap
(d) not present in laundry soap
29. Soap cannot be used with hard water because
(a) hard water contains sulfate
(b) they form insoluble calcium soaps which precipitate
(c) they attract back the removed dirt
(d) they increase the surface tension
30. Builders are added in soap to

(a) boost cleaning power
b (b) act as anti-redeposition agent
(c) act as corrosion inhibitor
(d) acts as fabric brightener
31. Bio-degradable detergents
(a) can be readily oxidized
(b) pose problem in sewerage plant
(c) have an isoparaffinic structure
(d) should not be used as it spoils the cloth
32. Which of the following is a detergent?
(a) fatty alcohol
(b) alkyl benzene sulfonate
(c) fatty acids
(d) methyl chloride
33. Yellow glycerin is made into white, using
(a) activated carbon
(b) diatomaceous earth
(c) bauxite
(d) bentonite
34. Essential oils are usually obtained using
(a) steam distillation
(b) extractive distillation
(c) solvent extraction
(d) leaching
35. Plasticizers are added to paints to
(a) make it corrosion resistant
(b) make glossy surface
(c) give elasticity and prevent cracking of the film
(d) increase atmospheric oxidation
36. Which oil is preferred for paint manufacture?
(a) drying oil
(b) non-drying oil
(c) semi-drying oil
(d) saturated oil
37. Function of thinner in a paint is to
(a) accelerate the oxidation of oil
(b) prevent gelling of the paint
(c) suspend pigments and dissolve film-forming materials
(d) form a protective film
38. Varnish does not contain
(a) pigment
(b) thinner
(c) dryer
(d) anti-skinning agent
39. Enamels
(a) give good glossy finish
(b) are same as varnish
(c) are prepared from non-drying oil
(d) do not contain pigment
40. SO2 is bubbled through hot sugar-cane juice to
(a) act as an acidifying agent
(b) increase its concentration
(c) increase the amount of molasses
(d) increase the crystal size
41. Molasses is the starting material for
(a) alcohol
(b) essential oil
(c) fatty acids
(d) ether
42. The ideal pulp for the manufacture of paper should have high
(a) cellulose content
(b) lignin content
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
43. In Kraft process of paper manufacture, white cooking liquor consists of caustic soda
(a) sodium sulfide, sodium carbonate
(b) sodium sulfite, sodium carbonate
(c) sodium sulfite, sodium sulfide
(d) and sodium carbonate
44. Comparing sulfate process with sulfite process, we find that
(a) both temperature and pressure in former is less than that in the latter
(b) both temperature and pressure in former is more than that in the latter
(c) temperature is more in former whereas pressure is more in the latter
(d) pressure is more in the former whereas temperature is less in the latter
45. Cooking liquor in case of sulfite process is
(a) sodium sulfite and sodium bisulfite
(b) magnesium sulfite and free SO2 in acid medium
(c) magnesium sulfate and magnesium bicarbonate
(d) sodium bisulfite
46. Which is a high-grade pulp?
(a) rag pulp
(b) mechanical pulp
(c) sulfate pulp
(d) sulfite pulp
47. Which of the following paper does not require a filler during manufacture?
(a) bond paper
(b) writing paper
(c) blotting paper
(d) colored paper
48. Bleaching of paper pulp is done with

(a) activated clay
(b) bromine
(c) chlorine or chlorine dioxide
(d) magnesium sulfite
49. Sizing material is incorporated in paper to
(a) impart resistance to penetration by liquids
(b) increase its thickness
(c) increase its flexibility and opacity
(d) increase its brightness
50. Viscose rayon is
(a) cellulose nitrate
(b) regenerated cellulose nitrate
(c) regenerated cellulose acetate
(d) regenerated cellulose fiber
51. Which of the following coal has the highest calorific value?
(a) Lignite
(b) Sub-bituminous
(c) Anthracite
(d) Peat
52. The main product of high temperature carbonization is
(a) Coke
(b) Ammonia
(c) Tar
(d) Phenol
53. High temperature carbonization produces
(a) inferior coke compared to low temperature carbonization
(b) less of gases compared to liquid products
(c) larger quantity of tar compared to low temperature carbonization
(d) relatively low tar and yields of gaseous products are larger than the yield of
liquid products
54. High temperature carbonization takes place at
(a) 4000 - 5000F
(b) 950F
(c) > 1650F
(d) < 1000F
55. Low temperature carbonization takes place at
(a) 500F
(b) 1300F
(c) 750 - 1100F
(d) 2500 F
56. Proximate analysis of coal determines
(a) moisture, ash, sulfur, volatile matter
(b) moisture, volatile matter
(c) moisture, sulfur, nitrogen, fixed carbon
(d) carbon, hydrogen, ash
57. Ultimate analysis of coal determines

(a) moisture, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulfur
(b) carbon, ash, sulfur,nitrogen
(c) carbon, sulfur, volatile matter, ash
(d) carbon,volatile matter, ash, moisture
58. Washing of coal is done to
(a) remove the inherent impurities
(b) remove the adhering impurities
(c) reduce the ash content
(d) both b and c
59. A good quality coal should have
(a) low fusion point of ash
(b) high ash content
c (c) high sulfur content
d (d) none of these
60. Coke oven gas consists mainly of
(a) H2, CH4
(b) CO, CO2
(c) H2, CO
(d) CH4, CO
61. Lurgi coal gasifier is a pressurized
(a) moving bed reactor
(b) fixed bed reactor
(c) fluidized bed reactor
(d) entrained bed reactor
62. In Lurgi gasifier
(a) cooking coals cannot be used
(b) low carbon conversion efficiency is achieved
(c) entrainment of solids is higher
(d) large quantity of coal can be processed
63. The catalyst used in shift converter is
(a) nickel
(b) vanadium
(c) silica gel
(d) alumina
64. The gasification reaction C + H2O
CO + H2 is
(a) exothermic
(b) endothermic
(c) catalytic
(d) autocatalytic
65. The combustion reaction C + O2
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
exothermic
endothermic
autocatalytic
catalytic
CO2 is
66. Kopper-Totzek coal gasifier

(a) can give ammonia synthesis gas
(b) is a moving bed reactor
(c) cannot use cooking coal
(d) operate at very high pressure
67. Acrylonitrile is mainly used in
(a) polymer industry
(b) printing industry
(c) dyeing industry
(d) photographic industry
68. The major use of butadiene is
(a) as a plasticizer for unsaturated polyester
(b) in the manufacture of synthetic rubber
(c) as an anti-skinning agent in paint
(d) as corrosion inhibitor
69. Phenol is mainly used
(a) to produce benzene
(b) to produce phenol formaldehyde
(c) to produce polyester resin
(d) as a plasticizer for unsaturated polyester
70. Phthalic anhydride is made by
(a) Oxidation of naphthalene
(b) Oxidation of benzene
(c) Dehydrogenation of ethyl benzene
(d) Oxidation of toluene
71. Trinitrotoluene (TNT), an explosive, is made by nitration of
(a) nitrobenzene
(b) toluene
(c) nitrotoluene
(d) benzene
72. Which is the most suitable dye for synthetic fibers?
(a) acid dye
(b) azoic dye
(c) pigment dye
(d) mordant dye
73. Fumigant insecticides
(a) kill insects when they eat it
(b) emit poisonous vapor
(c) are absorbed throughout the plant
(d) are stomach poisons
74. Systemics insecticides
(a) are absorbed throughout the plant
(b) kill insects following external bodily contact
(c) are stomach poisons
(d) emit poisonous vapor
75. DDT stands

(a) diethyl-diphenyl-trichloromethane
(b) dichloro-diphenyl-trichloromethane
(c) diphenyl-dichloro-trichloromethane
(d) dichloro-diphenyl-trichloroethane
76. BHC (Benzene hexa-chloride) is made by chlorination of benzene
(a) which is an addition reaction
(b) which is a substitution reaction
(c) in absolute dark
(d) in presence of sunlight
77. Analgesic drugs are
(a) pain relievers
(b) antibiotics
(c) used in the treatment of TB
(d) used in the treatment of typhoid
78. Antibiotic
(a) prohibits/destroys the growth of micro-organism
(b) is used as pain reliever
e (c) is an anti-malaria
(d) is an anaesthetic
79. Penicillin is made employing
(a) continuous fermentation process
(b) aerobic batch fermentation
(c) anaerobic batch fermentation
(d) aerobic or anaerobic batch fermentation
80. Which of the following is not an antibiotic?
(a) penicillin
(b) streptomycin
(c) tetracyclin
(d) quinine
81. Molecular weights of polymers are in the range of
(a) 10 - 1000
(b) 105 - 109
(c) 103 - 107
(d) 105 - 107
82. Zeigler process
(a) produces high density polyethylene
(b) produces low density polyethylene
(c) uses no catalyst
(d) employs very high pressure
83. Poly-Vinyl Chloride (PVC) is
(a) thermosetting
(b) thermoplastic
(c) a fibrous material
(d) chemically active
84. Phenol formaldehyde

(a) employs addition polymerization
(b) employs condensation polymerization
(c) is a monomer
(d) is an abrasive material
85. Epoxy resin
(a) is a good adhesive
(b) is an elastomer
(c) cannot be used on surface coatings
(d) is a polyester
86. Vulcanization of rubber
(a) decreases its tensile strength
(b) increases its ozone and oxygen reactivity
(c) increases its oil and solvent resistant
(d) converts its plasticity into elasticity
87. Most commonly used rubber vulcanizing agent is
(a) sulfur
(b) bromine
(c) platinum
(d) alumina
88. Styrene butadiene rubber (SBR) is
(a) a natural rubber
(b) a synthetic polymer
(c) a synthetic monomer
(d) another name for silicon rubber
89. Nylon-6 is manufactured from
(a) caprolactam
(b) hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid
(c) hexamethylene diamine and maleic anhydride
(d) hexamethylene diamine and sebacic acid
90. Nylon 6-6 is manufactured from
(a) hexamethylene diamine adipic acid
(b) hexamethylene diamine and maleic anhydride
(c) caprolactam
(d) dimethyl terephthalate and ethylene glycol
91. Dacron is
(a) a polyester
(b) an unsaturated polyester
(c) a polyamide
(d) an inorganic polymer
92. Celluloid is
(a) cellulose acetate
(b) regenerated cellulose
(c) cellulose nitrate
(d) cellulose acetate butyrate
93. Thermoplastic materials

(a) do not soften on application of heat
(b) are heavily branched molecules
(c) are solvent insoluble
(d) are capable of softening or fusing when heated and of hardening again when
cooled
94. Thermosetting materials
(a) are capable of becoming permanently rigid when heated or cured
(b) soften on application of heat
(c) are solvent insoluble
(d) are heavily branched molecules
95. Type of glass used in optical work is
(a) soda-lime glass
(b) fiber glass
(c) lead glass
(d) borosilicate glass
96. Silicon carbide is
(a) an adhesive
(b) an abrasive
(c) a type of glass
(d) brittle
97. The temperature in the calcium carbide furnace is
(a) 200 - 300C
(b) 700 - 850C
(c) 2000 -2200C
(d) 4000 - 4500C
98. Cumene (Isopropyl benzene) is made by
(a) oxidation of naphthalene
(b) propylene alkylation of benzene
(c) polymerization of a mixture of benzene and propylene
(d) polymerization of propylene
99. Glycerin can be obtained from
(a) fat
(b) naphthalene
(c) cumene
(d) sucrose
100. Cumene is the starting material for the production of
(a) benzoic acid
(b) phenol and acetone
(c) isoprene
(d) styrene
101. Which of the following is not responsible for causing permanent hardness of water?
(a) Ca(HCO3)2
(b) CaCl2
(c) MgCl2
(d) NaCl
102. Zeolite used in water softening process (cation exchange) is regenerated by washing
with
(a) brine
(b) chloramines
(c) sodium bisulfite
(d) liquid chlorines
103. Presence of H2S in raw water (to be chlorinated) results in
(a) reduced softening capacity of zeolite
(b) increase dosage of chlorine to provide a disinfecting residual in the water
(c) easy removal of its hardness
(d) residual turbidity
104. Lime and soda ash are added to water to remove
(a) bicarbonates and sulfates of calcium and magnesium
(b) undesirable taste and odor
(c) bacteria
(d) its corrosiveness
105. Chloramines are used in water treatment for
(a) disinfection and control of taste and odor
(b) corrosion control
(c) removing turbidity
(d) control of bacteria
106. Deaeration of water in its treatment is necessary as it
(a) minimizes its turbidity
(b) helps in controlling its taste and odor
(c) minimizes its corrosiveness
(d) controls bacteria
107. Sodium Bisulfate is used for
(a) deaeration of water
(b) dechlorination of water
(c) both a and b
(d) neither a nor b
108. Dechlorination of treated water is necessary to
(a) remove residual turbidity
(b) reduce the bacterial load on filter
(c) control taste and odor
(d) remove chlorinous taste
109. The main used of the activated carbon in water treatment is to control
(a) bacterial growth
(b) taste and odor
(c) turbidity
(d) corrosion
110. Alum [Al2(SO4)3] is used as a coagulant in water treatment to remove
(a) color
(b) turbidity
(c) bacteria
(d) all a, b and c
111. Use of hydrated lime in water treatment

(a) before filtration, reduces the bacterial load on filters
(b)after filtration, combats the corrosiveness of water due to presence of O2 and CO2
(c) is to adjust the pH value
(d) all a, b and c
112. The purpose of adding Na2CO3 to water of low alkalinity is to
(a) permit the use of alum as a coagulant
(b) increase the softening capacity of zeolite
(c) facilitate the easy regeneration of zeolite
(d) all a, b and c
113. Pick out the true statement pertaining to water treatment
(a) Slow sand filters can remove color completely
(b) Activated carbon can be used for taste and odor control without subsequent
filtration
(c) Application of activated carbon reduces the temporary hardness of water
(d) Normally, the turbidity is removed by adding a coagulant prior to
sedimentation
114. Pick out the false statement pertaining to water treatment
(a) Aeration of water is effective in CO2 removal
f
(b) The zeolite water softening process reduces the hardness of water by not
more than 50%
(c) Sodium sulfate or sodium carbonates do not cause hardness in water
(d) Water with pH value less than 7, is acidic
115. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to solvent extraction of oil
Rate of extraction.
(a) decreases with decrease of thickness of the flakes
(b) increases with the increasing flake size keeping the flake thickness constant
(c) increases considerably with the rise of temperature
g
(d) decreases as the moisture content of flakes increases
116. Fats as compared to oils have
(a) more unsaturated glycerides of fatty acids
(b) less unsaturated glycerides of fatty acids
(c) much higher reactivity to oxygen
h
(d) lower melting point
117. Salt is added in the kettle during soap manufacture to separate
(a) soap from lye
(b) glycerin from lye
(c) the metallic soap
(d) the unsaponified fat from soap
118. Hydrazine (N2H4) is used mainly as
(a) explosive
(b) rocket fuel
i (c) an additive in detergent
j (d) catalyst
k
119. Oils are partially hydrogenated (not fully) to manufacture vanaspati, because fully
saturated solidified oils
(a) cause cholesterol build up and blood clotting
(b) are prone to rancid oxidation
(c) always contain some amount of nickel (as their complete removal is very
difficult)
(d) have affinity to retain harmful sulfur compounds
120. Hydrogenation of oil takes place in
(a) an autothermal reactor
(b) a trickle bed reactor
(c) a plug flow reactor
(d) backmix reactor
121. Temperature during hydrogenation of oil should not be more than 200C, otherwise
it will result in
(a) pyrolysis of oil
(b) sintering of porous catalyst
(c) hydrogen embrittlement
(d) all a, b and c
122. Shaving soaps are
(a) soft potassium soaps (potassium salt of fatty acid) with free stearic acid to
give lather a lasting property
(b) metallic soaps compounded with frothing agents
(c) high free alkali soaps having excess of cane sugar and alcohol
(d) usually soap soaps
123. Transparent soaps (e.g. Pears) are
(a) usually soft soaps (made from coconut oil) in which cane sugar and alcohol
are added and finally washed with methylate spirit to achieve transparency
(b) metallic soaps with frothing agent and free stearic acid to achieve transparency
(c) metallic soaps with frothing agent from which glycerin has not been recovered
(d) high free alkali soaps having excess of cane sugar and alcohol
124. Glycerin is recovered from lye by
(a) evaporation followed by vacuum distillation
(b) liquid extraction technique
(c) extractive distillation technique
(d) steam distllation
125. Glycerin is not used in the
(a) manufacture of explosive
(b) conditioning and humidification of tobacco
(c) manufacture of pharmaceuticals
(d) manufacture of caustic soda
FLOW OF FLUIDS
1. A fluid is one which

(a) cannot remain at rest under the action of shear force
(b) continuously expands till it fills any container
(c) is incompressible
(d) permanently resists distortion
2. In an incompressible fluid density
(a) is greatly affected by moderate changes in pressure
(b) is greatly affected only by moderate changes in temperature
(c) remains unaffected with moderate change in temperature and pressure
(d) is sensible to changes in both temperature and pressure
3. Potential flow is the flow of
(a) compressible fluids with shear
(b) compressible fluids with no shear
(c) incompressible fluids with shear
(d) incompressible fluids with no shear
4. Potential flow is characterized by
(a) irrotational and frictionless flow
(b) irrotational and frictional flow
(c) one in which dissipation of mechanical energy into heat occurs
(d) the formation of eddies within the stream
5. Newtons law of viscosity relates
(a) shear stress and velocity
(b) velocity gradient and pressure intensity
(c) shear stress and rate of angular deformation in a fluid
(d) pressure gradient and rate of angular deformation
6. Dimension of viscosity is
(a) ML-1T-1
(c) MLT-1T
(b) MLT-1
(d) MLT
7. Poise is converted into stoke by

(a) multiplying with density (gm/c.c.)
(b) dividing with density (gm/c.c.)
(c) multiplying with specific gravity
(d) dividing with specific gravity
8. Dimension of kinematic viscosity is

(a) ML-2
(b) L2T-1
2
(c) L T
(d) L2T2
9. With increase in the temperature viscosity of a liquid
(a) increase
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) first decreases and then increases
10. For water, when the pressure increases the viscosity
(a) also increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) first decreases and then increases
11. The pressure intensity is the same in all direction at a point in a fluid
(a) only when the fluid is frictionless
(b) only when the fluid is at rest having zero velocity
(c) when there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
(d) regardless of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
12. Choose the set of pressure intensities that are equivalent
(a) 4.33 psi, 10 ft. of water, 8.83 inches of Hg.
(b) 4.33 psi, 10 ft. of water, 20.7 inches of Hg.
(c) 10 psi, 19.7 ft. of water, 23.3 inches of Hg.
(d) 10 psi, 19.7 ft of water, 5.3 inches of Hg.
13. For a fluid rotating at constant angular velocity about vertical axis as a rigid body, the
pressure intensity varies as the
(a) square of the radial distance
(b) radial distance linearly
(c) averse of the radial distance
(d) elevation along vertical direction
14. The center of pressure is
(a) always below the centroid of the area
(b) always above the centroid of the area
(c) a point on the line of action of the resultant force
(d) at the centroid of the submerge area
15. A rectangular surface 3x4, has the lower 3 edge horizontal and 6 below a free oil
surface (sp. gr. 0.8). The surface inclination is 300 with the horizontal. The force in
one side of the surface is :(y = specific weight of water)
(a) 39.6y
(c) 49.2y
(b) 48y
(d) 58y
16. Fill up the blanks

A stream tube is that which has cross-section entirely bounded by stream
lines.
(a) a circular
(b) any convenient
(c) a small
(d) a large
17. Mass velocity is the independent of temperature and pressure when the flow is
(a) unsteady through uncharged cross-section
(b) steady through changing cross-section
(c) steady and the cross-section is unchanged
(d) unsteady ant the cross-section is changed
18. In turbulent flow
(a) the fluid particles move in an orderly manner
(b) momentum transfer is on molecular scale only
(c) shear stress is caused more effectively by cohesion than momentum transfer
(d) shear stresses are generally larger than in a similar laminar flow
19. Turbulant flow generally occurs for cases involving
(a) highly viscous fluid
(c) very slow motion
(b) very narrow passages

(d) none of these
20. An ideal fluid is

(a) frictionless and incompressible
(b) one which obeys Newtons law of viscosity
(c) highly viscous
(d) none of these
21.Steady flow occurs when
(a) conditions change steadily with time
(b) conditions are the same at the adjacent points at any instant
(c) conditions do not change with time at any point
(d) rate of change of velocity is constant
22. Which of the following must be followed by the flow of fluid (real or ideal)?
(i)
Newtons law of viscosity
(ii)
Newtons second law of motion
(iii)
the continuity equation
(iv)
velocity of boundary must be zero relative to boundary
(v)
fluid cannot penetrate a boundary
(a) I, II, III
(b) II, III, V
(c) I, II, V
(d) II, III, V
23. Discharge (ft3/sec) from a 24 inch pipe of water at 10 ft/sec will be
(a) 7.65
(b) 32.36
(c) 48.22
(d) 125.6
24. The unit velocity head is
(a) ft-lb/sec
(c) ft-lbf/lb.m
(b) ft-lb/ft3
(d) ft-lb.f/sec
25. Bernoullis equation describes

(a) mechanical energy balance in potential flow
(b) kinetic energy balance in laminar flow
(c) mechanical energy balance in turbulent flow
(d) mechanical energy balance in boundary layer
26. The kinetic energy correction factor for velocity distribution of laminar flow is
(a) 0.5
(b) 1.66
(c) 1
(d) 2
27. The momentum correction factor for the velocity distribution of laminar flow is
(a) 1.3
(b) 1.66
(c) 2.5
(d) none of these
28. The loss due to sudden expansion is
(a) V12 V22
(b) (V1 V2)3
2gc
2gC
(c) V1 V2
(d) none of these
2gc
29. The loss due to sudden contraction is proportional to
(a) velocity
(b) velocity head
(c) turbulence
(d) none of these
30. The value of critical Reynolds number for pipe flow is
(a) 1300
(b) 10,000
(c) 100,000
(d) none of these
31. Reynolds number flow of water at room temperature through 2 cm diameter pipe at
average velocity of 5 cm/sec is around
(a) 2000
(b) 10
(c) 100
(d) 1000
32. Shear stress in a fluid flowing in a round pipe

(a) varies parabolically across the cross-section
(b) remains constant over the cross-section
(c) is zero at the center and varies linearly with the radius
(d) is zero at the wall and increase linearly to the center
33. Discharge in laminar flow through a pipe varies
(a) as the square of the radius
(b) inversely as the pressure drop
(c) inversely as the velocity
(d) as the square of the diameter
34. Boundary layer separation is caused by
(a) reduction of pressure below vapor pressure
(b) reduction of pressure gradient to zero
(c) an adverse pressure gradient
(d) reduction of boundary layer thickness to zero
35. The friction factor for turbulent flow in a hydraulically smooth pipe
(a) depends only on Reynolds number
(b) does not depend on Reynolds number
(c) depends on the roughness
(d) none of these
36. For a given Reynolds number, in hydraulically smooth pipe, further smoothing
(a) brings about no further reduction of friction factor
(b) increases the friction factor
(c) decreases the friction factor
(d) none of these
37. Hydraulic radius is the ratio of
(a) wetted perimeter to flow area
(b) flow area to wetted perimeter
(c) flow area to square of wetted perimeter
(d) square root of flow area to wetted perimeter
38. Hydraulic radius of 6 x 12 c/s is
(a) 2
(b) 0.5
(c) 1.5
(d) none of these
39. Reynolds number is the ratio of

(a) viscous forces to gravity forces
(b) inertial forces to viscous forces
(c) viscous forces to inertial forces
(d) inertial forces to gravity forces
40. Mach. number is the ratio of the speed of the
(a) fluid of that of the light
(b) light to that of the fluid
(c) fluid to that of thesound (d) sound to that of the fluid
41. Power loss in an orifice meter is

(a) less than that in a venturi meter
(b) same as that in a venturi meter
(c) more than that in a venturi meter
(d) data insufficient, cannot be predicted
42. The velocity profile for turbulent flow through a closed conduit is
(a) logarithmic
(b) parabolic
(c) hyperbolic
(d) linear
43. For laminar flow through a closed conduit
(a) Vmax = 2 Vav
(b) Vmax = Vav
(c) Vmax = 1.5 Vav
(d) Vav = 2 Vmax
44. f = 16/NRe is valid for
(a) turbulent flow
(b) laminar flow through an open channel
(c) steady flow
(d) none of these
45. Isotropic turbulence occurs
(a) where there is no velocity gradient
(b) at higher temperatures
(c) only in newtonion fluid
(d) none of these
46. Consider two pipes of same length and diameter through which water is passed at the
same velocity. The friction factor for rough pipe is f1 and that for smooth pipe is f2.
Pick out the correct statement.
(a) f1 = f2
(b) f1 < f2
(c) f1 > f2
(d) data not sufficient to relate f1 and f2
47. Bernoullis equation for steady frictionless, continuous flow states that
(a) total pressure at all sections is same
(b) total energy at all section is same
(c) velocity head at all section is same
(d) none of these
48. Drag is defined as the force exerted by the
(a) fluid on the solid in a direction opposite to flow
(b) the fluid on the solid in the direction of flow
(c) the solid on the fluid
(d) none of these
49. Drag co-efficient for flow past immersed body is the ratio of
(a) shear stress to the product of velocity head density
(b) shear force to the product of velocity head and density
(c) average drag per unit projected area to the product of velocity head and
density
(d) none of these
50. Stokes law is valid when the particle Reynolds number is
(a) < 1
(b) > 1
(c) < 5
(d) none of these
51. Drag co-efficient CD is given by (in Stokes law range)
(a) CD = 16
(b) CD = 24
Re.p
Re.p
(c) CD = 18.4
(d) CD = 0.079
Re.p
Re.p
52. At low Reynolds number

(a) viscous forces are unimportant
(b) viscous forces control
(c) viscous forces control and inertial forces are unimportant
(d) gravity forces control
53. At high Reynolds number
(a) inertial forces control and viscous forces are unimportant
(b) viscous forces predominate
(c) inertial forces are unimportant and viscous forces control
(d) none of these
54. For flow of fluid through packed bed, the superficial velocity is
(a) less than the average velocity through channels
(b) more than the average velocity through channels
(c) dependent on the pressure drop across the bed
(d) same as the average velocity through channels
55. Pressure drop in a packed bed for laminar flow is given by
(a) Kozeny-Carman equation (b) Blake-Plummer equation
(c) Levas equation
(d) none of these
56. Pressure drop in a packed bed for turbulent flow is given by
(a) Kozeny-Carman equation (b) Blake-Plummer equation
(c) Levas equation
(d) none of these
57. Force acting on a particle settling in fluid are

(a) gravitational and bouyant forces
(b) centrifugal and drag forces
(c) gravitational or centrifugal, bouyant and drag forces
(d) external, drag and viscous forces
58. Terminal velocity is
(a) a constant velocity with no acceleration
(b) a fluctuating velocity
(c) attained after moving one-haft of total distance
(d) none of these
59. In hindered settling, particles are
(a) placed farther from wall
(b) not affected by other particles and the wall
(c) near each other
(d) none of these
60. Drag co-efficient in hindered settling is
(a) lesser than in free settling
(b) equal to that in free settling
(c) not necessarily greater than in free settling
(d) greater than free settling
61. For the free settling of a spherical particle through a fluid, the slope of CD log NRe,
plot is
(a) 1
(b) 1
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.5
62. In continuous fluidization

(a) solids are completely entrained
(b) the pressure drop less than that for batch fluidisation
(c) there is no entrainment of solids
(d) velocity of the fluid is very small
63. Pressure drop in fluidized bed reactor is
(a) less than that in a similar packed bed reactor
(b) more than that in a similar packed bed reactor
(c) same as that in a similar packed bed reactor
(d) none of these
64. Slugging in a fluidized bed can be avoided by

(a) using tall narrow vessel
(b) using deep bed solids
(c) the proper choice of particle size and by using shallow beds of solids
(d) using very large particles
65. Minimum porosity for fluidization is
(a) that corresponding to static bed
(b) that corresponding to completely fluidized bed
(c) the porosity of the bed when true fluidization begins
(d) less than that of the static bed
66. In a fluidized bed reactor
(a) temperature gradients are very high
(b) temperature is more or less uniform
(c) hot spot formed
(d) segregation of the solids occurs
67. Lower BWG means
(a) lower thickness tube
(b) lower cross-section of tube
(c) outer diameter of tube
(d) inner diameter of tube
68. Cavitation occurs in a centrifugal pump when
(a) the suction pressure < vapour pressure of the liquid at that temperature
(b) the suction pressure > vapour pressure of the liquid at that temperature
(c) the suction pressure = vapour pressure
(d) the suction pressure = developed head
69. Cavitation can be prevented by

(a) suitably designing the pump
(b) maintaining the suction head sufficiently greater than the vapour pressure
(c) maintaining suction head = developed head
(d) maintaining suction head lower than the vapour pressure
70. Priming needed in a
(a) reciprocating pump
(c) centrifugal pump
(b) gear pump

(d) diaphragm pump
71. The maximum depth from which a centrifugal pump can draw water
(a) dependent on the speed N of the pump
(b) dependent on the power of the pump
(c) 34 feet
(d) 150 feet
72. Boiler feed pump is usually a
(c) multisatge centrifugal pump
73. Plunger pumps are used for
(a) higher pressure
(c) viscous mass
(b) gear pump

(d) diaphragm pump
(b) slurries
(d) none of these
74. Molten soap mass is transported by a

(a) diaphragm pump
(b) reciprocating pump
(c) gear pump
(d) centrifugal pump
75. To handle smaller quantity of fluid at high discharge pressure use
(b) centrifugal pump
(c) volute pump
(d) rotary vacuum pump
76. The head developed by a centrifugal pump is largely determined by the
(a) power of the pump
(b) nature of the liquid being pumped
(c) angle of the vanes and the speed of the tip of the impeller
(d) vapour pressure of the liquid
77. The maximum head that can be developed with a single impeller is
(a) 25 ft.
(b) 1000 ft.
(c) 250 300 ft.
(d) 1000 ft.
78. A fluid jet discharging from a 2 diameter orifice has a diameter of 1.75 at its venacontracta. The co-efficient of contraction is
(a) 1.3
(b) 0.766
(c) 0.87
(d) none of these
79. The discharge through a V-notch weir varies as
(a) H3/2
(b) H1/2
(c) H5/2
(d) none of these
80. The discharge through a rectangular weir varies as
(a) H1/2
(b) H3/2
(c) H2/5
(d) none of these
81. Propellers are
(a) axial flow mixers
(b) low speed impeller
(c) used for mixing liquids of high viscosity
(d) radial flow mixers
82. Turbine impeller

(a) produces only radial current
(b) produces only tangential current
(c) is effective over wide range of viscosities
(d) does not produce tangential current
83. With increase in pump speed, its NPSH requirement
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains unaltered
(d) can either increase or decrease, depends on other factors
84. One dimensional flow implies
(a) Flow in the straight line
(b) steady uniform flow
(c) unsteady uniform flow
(d) a flow which does not account changes in transverse direction
85. In case of centrifugal fan or blower, the gas capacity varies as
(a) spect speed
(b) (speed)
3
(c) (speed)
(d) none of these
86. The continuity equation

(a) relates mass flow rate along a stream tube
(b) relates work and energy
(c) stipulates that Newtons second law of motion must be satisfied at every point in
the fluid
(d) none of these
87. For a specific centrifugal air blower operating at constant speed and capacity the
power requirement and pressure vary
(a) directly as squares of gas density
(b) directly as gas density
(c) directly as square root of density
(d) inversely as gas density
88. Foot valves are provided in the suction line of a centrifugal pump to
(a) avoid priming every time we start the pump
(b) remove the contaminant present in the liquid
(c) minimize the fluctuation in dischrarge
(d) control the liquid discharge
89. Differential manometer measures
(a) atmospheric pressure

(b) sub-atmospheric pressure
(c) pressure difference between two points
(d) none of these
90. Velocity distribution for flow between the fixed parallel plates
(a) varies parabolically across the section
(b) is constant over the entire cross section
(c) is zero at the plates and increases linearly to the midplane
(d) none of these
91. While starting a centrifugal pump, its delivery valve should be kept
(a) opened
(b) closed
(c) either opened or closed; it does not make any difference
(d) either opened or closed; depending on the fluid viscosity
92. Path followed by water jet issuing from the bottom of a water tank will be a
(a) parabola (vertex being at the opening)
(b) hyperbolic
(c) horizontal straight line
(d) zig-zag path (which is geometrically undefined)
93. A centrifugal pump loses prime after starting. The reason of this trouble may be
(a) incomplete priming
(b) too high a suction lift
(c) low available NPSH and air leaks in the suction pipe
(d) all a, b, and c
94. Capacity of a rotary gear pump can be varied by
(a) changing the speed of rotation
(b) bleeding air into suction
(c) bypassing liquid from the suction or discharge line
(d) all a, b, and c
95. For liquid flow through a packed bed, the superficial velocity as compared to average
velocity through the channel in the bed is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) equal
(d) independent of porosity
96. Reciprocating pumps compared to centrifugal pumps

(a) deliver liquid at uniform pressure
(b) can handle slurries more efficiently
(c) are not subject to air binding
(d) can be operated with delivery valve closed
97. A tube is specified by its
(a) thickness only
(c) thickness and outer diameter both
(b) outer diameter

(d) inner diameter
98. For pipes that must be broken at intervals for maintenance, the connector used should
be a
(a) union
(b) tee
(c) reduces
(d) elbow
99. If more than two branches of pipes are to be connected at the same point, then use
(a) elbow
(b) union
(c) tee
(d) none of these
100. The most economical valve for use with large diameter pipes is
(a) butterfly valve
(b) globe valve
(c) needle valve
(d) none of these
101. Which of the following factors does not contribute to the pressure drop in a
pipeline?
(a) velocity of liquid
(b) size of pipe
(c) length of pipe and number of bends (d) none of these
102. Which of the following can be used to create a flow of gas where no significant
compression is required?
(a) reciprocating compressor (b) blower
(c) axial flow compressor
(d) centrifugal compressor
103. Erosion and pits formation on the impeller of a centrifugal pump may be due to
(a) cavitation
(b) low speed of impeller
(c) its operation with delivery valve closed for considerable time after starting the
pump
(d) off centering of pump with motor
104. Which of the following valves will incur maximum pressure drop for the same
discharge of water?
(a) globe valve
(b) gate valve
(c) needle valve
(d) butterfly valve
105. While starting on axial flow pump, its delivery valve should be kept
(a) open
(b) closed
(c) either open or closed
(d) none of these
106. Identification of pipelines carrying different liquids and gases is done by
(a) diameter of the pipe
(b) color of the pipe
(c) the altitude of at which pipe is located (d) none of these
107. A centrifugal pump has the following specifications:

Power 4 H.P.; Speed 800 rpm
Head 8 meters; Flow 1000 liters/minutes
If its speed is halved , then the new head will be
(a) 2 m
(b) 4 m
(c) 8 m
(d) 5.5 m
108. In question No. 107, the power consumed now will be
(a) 0.5 H.P.
(b) 2 H.P.
(c) 4 H.P.
(d) 1 H.P.
109. In question No. 107, the new discharge will be
(a) 500 liters/min.
(b) 200 liter/min
(c) 1000 liter/min
(d) 750 liter/min
110. Interstage coolers are provided in a multistage compressor to
(a) save power in compressing a given volume to a given pressure
(b) cool the delivered air
(c) achieve the exact delivery
(d) none of these
111. Surge tanks are provided in high pressure water pipelines to
(a) store a definite quantity of water all the time
(b) reduce water hammer
(c) facilities easy dismantling of pipeline for cleaning and maintenance
(d) none of these
112. Pipes having diameter 14 inches or more are designated by their
(a) outside diameter
(b) inside diameter
(c) schedule number
(d) none of these
113. Disc compensators are provided in large diameter gas carrying pipelines to
(a) keep the pipe in proper orientation
(b) make the pipe joint leak-proof
(c) account for contraction/ expansion of pipe due to temperature changes of
the surroundings
(d) account for pressure variation inside the pipelines
114. Nominal Pipe Size (NPS) of a pipe less than 12 inches in diameter indicates its
(a) inner diameter
(b) outer diameter
(c) thickness
(d) neither inner or outer
115. The most important factor which determines the maximum height to which water
can be lifted by a pump at standard temperature (62F) is
(a) barometric pressure
(b) speed of the impeller
(c) diameter of the impeller
(d) both b and c
116. Bear pump
(a) is a positive displacement pump
(b) is a centrifugal pump
(c) is a non-positive displacement pump
(d) can be started with delivery valve closed
117. When the water is warm, the height to which it can be lifted by a pump
(a) decreases due to reduced velocity
(b) decreases due to reduced vapor pressure
(c) increases due to increased vapor pressure
(d) decreases due to increased frictional resistance
118. Multistage centrifugal pumps are generally used for
(a) high head
(b) low head but high discharged
(c) highly viscous liquid
(d) slurries of high solid concentration
119. Centrifugal pump cant be used to pump

(a) molten sodium (used as a coolant in Fast Breeder Reactor)
(b) moderately vegetable oil used in soap industry
(c) thick molten soap at 80C
(d) none of the above
120. Volute type of casing is provided in a centrifugal pump to
(a) convert velocity head to pressure head
(b) convert pressure head to velocity head
(c) reduce the discharge fluctuation
(d) increase the discharge
121. A pump operating under specific conditions delivers insufficient quantity of liquid.
This may be set right by
(a) decreasing the size of the inlet pipe
(b) increasing the size of the inlet pipe
(c) lowering the pump position
(d) both b and c
122. Delivery of insufficient quantity of liquid by a pump may be caused by
(a) air leak in the inlet
(b) low rpm
(c) too high a lift
(d) all a, b and c
123. Actual lift of pump always less than the theoretical lift and is limited by
(a) specific gravity and temperature of the liquid
(b) leakage and pressure decreasing at higher elevations
(c) frictional resistance through pipes, fittings and passages
(d) all a, b and c
124. Fill up the blank
Nominal size of the discharge pipe of a pump is usually the nominal size of
the inlet pipe
(a) smaller than
(b) larger than
(c) same as
(d) twice
125. Horsepower requirement for given pump capacity depends upon the
(a) specific gravity of the liquid
(b) suction lift
(c) discharge head
(d) all a, b and c
FLOW OF HEAT
1. A pipe carrying steam at about 300C traverses a room, the air being still at 30C. the
major fraction of the heat loss will be by
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
a. conduction to the still air

b. convection to the air
c. radiation to the surrounding
d. conduction and convection put together
A satellite in space exchanges heat with its surroundings by
a. Conduction
b. convection
c. Radiation
d. conduction as well as convection
For the same temperature drop in the temperature ranges of 300-400C the heat flow rate
will be highest by
a. Conduction process
b. convection process
b. Radiation process
d. other factors should be known before any
conclusion
In the cold season a person would prefer to be near a fire because
a. The conduction from the fire will be better
b. the convection will be better if he is near the fire
c. Direct unimpeded radiation will provide quick warmth
d. combined conduction and convection will be better
A finned tube hot water radiator with a fan blowing air over it is kept in rooms during
winter. The major portion of the heat transfer from radiator to air due to
a. Radiation
b. convection
c. Conduction
d. combined conduction and radiation
For a specified heat input and a given volume which material will have the smallest
temperature rise (Use data book if necessary)
a. Steel
b. aluminum
c. Water
d. copper
When a hot metal piece is left to cool in the air the time rate of cooling of the outer layer
will be
a. Slower at start and faster near the end
b. faster at start and slower near the end
c. both rate will be the same
d. this will depend on the material
A thin black plate at temperature T receives radiation from a surface at Temperature T
and radiates to a surface at T. If all surfaces are black at steady state
a. (T-T)>(T-T)
b. (T-T)<(T-T)
c. (T-T)=(T-T)
d. can be any one of a, b or c
In a slab under steady conduction if the thermal conductivity increases along the
thickness, the temperatures gradient along the direction will become
a. Steeper
b. Flatter
c. Remain constant
d. either b or c depending on the heat flow rate
In steady state conduction with variable thermal conductivity if the conductivity
decreases along the flow direction, then the temperature gradient along the flow direction
will become
a. Remain constant
b. will become flatter
c. Will become steeper
d. either b or c depending on the heat flow rate
In steady state conduction with variable thermal conductivity if the conductivity
decreases along the flow direction, then the temperature gradient along the flow direction
will become
a. Steeper
b. flatter
c. Remain constant
d. either of the three depending on heat flow rate
In steady state conduction with thermal conductivity given by k=k (1+) where , is
+ve, a slab of given thickness and given temperature drop will conduct
a. More heat at lower temperature levels

b. More heat at higher temperature levels
c. Will be the same as flow depends in the temperature drop
d. Will be the same as flow depends on the thickness only
13. Choose the correct statement or statements
a. The thermal conductivity of gases decreases with temperature
b. The thermal conductivity of insulating solids increase with temperature
c. The thermal conductivity of good electrical conductors are generally low
d. The thermal conductivity variation is of low percentage in gases as compared to
solids
14. In slab generating heat uniformly and at steady state convecting equally on both sides, the
temperature gradient will
a. Flatten out as the distance from the centre increases
b. Become steeper as the distance from the centre increases
c. Will remain constant
d. Can be any of (a,b) or (c) depending the heat generation rate
15. For the same linear size (i.e. L,r) and heat generation rate, the temperature drop from
centre to surface us highest in
a. Spherical shape
b. plate shape
c. Cylindrical shape
d. rod of square section
16. The temperature drop in the heat generating solid under steady state conduction depends
to a greater extent on
a. Linear dimension
b. thermal conductivity
c. Heat generation rate
d. convection coefficient at the surface
17. The most effective way to reduce the temperature drop in a heat generating solid is to
a. Reduce the linear dimension
b. Reduce thermal conductivity
c. Reduce the convection coefficient on the surface
d. Reduce the heat generation rate
18. The thermal gradient in a heat generating cylinder under steady conduction, at half the
radius location will be
a. One half of that at surface
b. One fourth of the at surface
c. Twice that at surface
d. four times that at surface
19. In a sphere under steady state conduction with uniform heat generation, the temperature
gradient at half the radius location will be
a. One half of that at the surface
b. one fourth of that at surface
c. One eight of that at the surface
d. 2 times of that at the surface
20. In a long fin if the thermal conductivity is increased with other parameters maintained
constant
a. The temperature will drop at a faster rate along the length
b. The temperature will drop at a lower rate along the length
c. The temperature gradient is not strongly influenced by the conductivity
d. The temperature gradient is dependent on the heat flow only
21. In a long fin if the convection coefficient is increased with other parameters maintained
constant.
a. The temperature drop along length is not strongly influenced by the convection
coefficient
b. The temperature gradient depends only on heat flow rate
c. The temperature drop will be faster along the length

d. The temperature drop along the length will be at a lower rate
22. In a long fin if the parameter m=(hP/kA) increases, other parameters being maintained
constant then.
a. The temperature variation along the length will be a lower rate
b. The temperature drop along the length will be steeper
c. The parameter m influences the heat flow only
d. The temperature profile will remain the same
23. For a given sectional area of fin if the circumstances is increase by adopting different
geometric shape then
a. The temperature variation along the fin length will be steeper
b. The temperature variation along the fin length will be featter
c. The circumference length does not affect the temperature change
d. The circumference will only influence the heat convected
24. In a given fin configuration increase in conductivity will
a. Decrease the total heat flow
b. Will affect only the temperature gradient
c. Increase the total heat flow
d. Heat flow is influenced only by the base temperature and sectional area
25. An increase in convection coefficient over a fin will
a. Increase effectiveness
b. decrease effectiveness
c. Does not influence effectiveness
d. influences only the fin efficiency
26. In the case of fins it is desirable to have
a. Area of section maintained constant along the length
b. Area of section reduced along the length
c. Area of section increased along the length
d. Better to vary the convection coefficient than the area
27. Fin effectiveness will be increased more by
a. Having a higher value of convection coefficient
b. Higher sectional area
c. higher thermal conductivity
d. longer circumference
28. If a square section fin is split longitudinally used as two fins
a. The total heat flow will decrease
b. The total heat flow will increase
c. The total heat flow remain constant
d. Heat flow may increase or decrease depending on the material used
29. For a given volume of material for use in a pin fin
a. Longer the fin better the total heat flow
b. Shorter the fin better the heat flow
c. As the volume is constant the heat flow will not change
d. As length is increased heat flow will increase and after some length will decrease
Choose the correct statement or statements for nos. 31-33 questions

30. a. If the convection coefficient is low, it is not desirable to use a fin
b. If the conductivity is large, longer fin will be more effective

c. Plate fins of smaller thickness is better in the point of view of heat dissipation
d. Finned surface is desirable under conditions of boiling
31. a.
b.
c.
d.
32. a.
b.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
aluminum fins are better because the material is light

a constant area fin provides the best (heat flow/weight) ratio
on rare occasions the heat flow may be reduced by the addition of fins
If conductivity is high a short fin will be a good proportion
A constant temperature gradient along the length of a constant area fin is not possible
The temperature gradient, in circular section fin dissipating heat will increase along
the length
c. Longitudinal fins are less effective compared to annular fins
d. Fins at close pitch will give a high heat dissipating rate
a. An aluminum fin will be cooler at a given distance compared to a copper fin of
identical section and other parameter
b. An aluminum fin will be hotter at a given distance compared to a copper fin of
identical section and other parameter
c. An aluminum fin of same configuration will dessipate more heat compared to copper
fin
d. An Aluminum fin of same configuration will dessipate less heat compared to copper
fin
Semi infinite model van be adopt when
a. Thickness of the solid is very large
b. Heat diffusion is very slow
c. Short time period
d. All of these
Heating or cooling of a road surface can be analyzed using
a. Lumped parameter model
b. Infinite slab model
c. Semi infinite slab model
d. None of these
Choose the correct statement
a. Transient conduction means very little heat transfer
b. Transient conduction means conduction when the temperature at a point varies with
time
c. Transient conduction means heat transfer for a short time
d. Transient conduction means heat transfer with very small temperature difference
Lumped parameter model can be used when
a. The thickness is small
b. When the conductivity is high
c. When convective heat transfer coefficient is low
d. When conditions a, b, and c are true
In the lumped parameter model, the temperature variation is
a. Linear with time
b. Sinusoidal with time
c. Exponential with time
d. Cubic with time
39. The response time of a thermocouple is the time taken for the temperature change to be
a. 0.5 of original temperature difference
b. 1/1.414 of original temperature difference
c. 1/e of original temperature difference
d. 99% of the original temperature difference
40. To make thermocouple to respond quickly
a. The wire diameter should be large
b. Convection heat transfer coefficient should be high
41. Heat transfer rate
a. Will be higher in turbulent flow
b. Will be lower in turbulent flow
c. Will depend on the fluid
d. Will depend only on viscosity
42. Nusselt number is
a. Ratio of viscous to inertia forces
b. Dimensionless heat transfer coefficient
c. Ratio of conduction to convection resistance
d. Signifies of velocity gradient at the surface
43. Reynolds number is
a. Ratio of conduction to convection resistance
b. Ratio of buoyant to inertia forces
c. Ratio of viscous ratio to inertia force
d. Ratio of heat conducted to the heat capacity
44. Prandtl number is
a. Ratio of buoyant force to inertia force
b. Ratio of conduction to convection resistance
c. Signifies the temperature gradient at the surface
d. Ratio of molecular momentum diffusively to thermal diffusion
45. The Staton number is
a. The dimensionless temperature gradient at the surface in convection
b. Mass diffused to heat diffused
c. Dimensionless convection coefficient
d. Wall heat transfer/ heat transfer convection
46. The convective heat transfer coefficient in laminar f;ow over a flat plate
a. Increases if a lighter fluid is used
b. Increases if a higher viscosity fluid is used
c. Increases if higher velocities are used
d. Increases with distance
47. In the boundary layer over a flat plate in laminar flow the velocity is
a. Zero at the boundary layer thickness
b. Slowly decreases from the free stream to the solid surface
c. Slowly increases from the free stream to the wall
d. Only temperature in the boundary layer will be different from that of free stream
48. As viscosity of fluid increases the boundary layer thickness
a. Will increase
b. Will decrease
c. Will not change
d. Will increase at medium values and then will decrease
49. The temperature gradient in the fluid flowing over a flat plate
a. Will be zero at the surface
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
b. Will be positive at the surface

c. Will be very steep at the surface
d. Will be zero at the top of the boundary layer
The ratio of thermal to hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness varies as
a. Root of Reynolds number
b. Root Nusselt number
c. Root Prandt number
d. One third power of Prandt number
In liquid metal flow over a flat plate (T>T)
a. The hydrodynamic boundary layer will be very thick and thermal boundary layer will
be very thick
b. The hydrodynamic boundary layer will be very thin and thermal boundary layer will
also be thin
c. The two will more or less equal
d. The thermal boundary layer will be thick and hydrodynamic boundary layer will be
thin
In forced convection molecular diffusion causes
a. Momentum flow in turbulent region
b. Momentum flow in the laminar region
c. Heat flow in the turbulent region
d. Diffusion has no part in energy transfer
In flow over a flat plate the convection coefficient
a. Always increases along the flow
b. Decreases, increases and decreases
c. Increases up to critical Reynolds number and then decreases
d. Decreases up to critical Reynolds number and then increases
In laminar flow over a flat plate.
a. The thermal boundary layer and hydrodynamic boundary layers are of equal thickness
b. The thermal boundary layer is thicker if the Prandtl number is less than one
c. The thermal boundary layer is thicker if the Prandt number is less than one
d. The thermal layer is always thinner in the laminar region
Choose the correct statement:
a. Higher the value of kinematic viscosity thinner will be the boundary layer
b. Higher the Prandtl number lower will be the thickness of thermal boundary layer
c. The convective heat transfer coefficient will be lower in turbulent flow as compared to
laminar flow
d. The boundary layer will thicken as the free stream velocity increases
In flow across a cylinder, the local Nusselt number will be highest at
a. 90 from the stagnation point
b. At the stagnation point
c. At 80C from the stagnation point
d. At 135C from the stagnation point
In banks of the tubes heat transfer will be highest
a. In linear arrangement with square pitch
b. Linear arrangement with lower longitudinal pitch
c. Staggered arrangement with equal pitch
d. Staggered arrangement with lower longitudinal pitch
Choose the correct statement in flow through pipes
a. In laminar flow, the exit Nusselt number in the fully developed condition is lower than
at entry
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
b. In laminar flow, the exit Busselt number in the fully developed condition is higher that
at entry
c. In laminar flow, the Nusselt remains constant
d. In laminar flow the Nusslet at constant wall temperature is higher as compared to
Nusselr constant heat flow
In flow through pipes for the same Reynolds number
a. The thermal entry length is longer for low Prandtl number fluids
b. The thermal entry length is longer for high Prandtl number fluids
c. Prandtl number does not influence the thermal entry length
d. The thermal entry length affect is more pronounced only turbulent flow
a. Flow of air can be considered as hydrodynamic layer fully developed and thermal
layer developing
b. Flow of oils can be considered as HFD and thermal layer developing
c. Flow of liquid metals can be considered as hydrodynamic layer fully developed and
thermal layer developing
d. Flow of water can be considered as hydrodynamic layer fully developed and thermal
layer developing
In pipe flow, the average convection coefficient
a. Will be higher in rough pipes
b. Will be higher in smooth pipes
c. Roughness affects only pressure drop and not the convection coefficient
d. Only Reynolds and Prandtl numbers influence the convection coefficient and not the
roughness
In pipe flow
a. For constant heat flow, the initial length is more effective compared to the end length
b. For constant wall temperature the initial length are less effective compared to the end
length
c. In fully developed flow and constant wall temperature, the effective compared to the
end lengths
d. In fully developed flow and constant heat flux, the effectiveness decreases with length
a. In smooth pipes a laminar flow remains laminar all through the length
b. in smooth pipes a laminar flow turns turbulent after a certain length
c. The temperature profile in fully developed layer remains the same
d. The velocity profile in a pipe flow is established at the entry
a. Buoyant forces and inertia forces only influence free convection heat transfer
b. Viscous and Buoyant forces only influence free convection heat transfer
c. Viscous and inertia forces only influence free convection heat transfer
d. Viscous, inertia and Buoyant forces influence the heat transfer in free convection
In free convection, the slope of the curve Nu vs Gr Pr
a. Increases with increasing Gr Pr
b. Decreases with increasing Gr Pr
c. Increases and then decreases with increasing Gr Pr
d. Decreases and then increases with increasing Gr Pr
With increase in excess temperature the heat flux in boiling
a. Increase continuously
b. Decrease and then increases
c. Increases then decreases and again increases
d. Decreases then increases and again decreases
67. In nucleate pool boiling the heat flux depends on

a. Only the material of the surface
b. Material and roughness of the surface
c. Independent of surface
d. Fluid and material and surface roughness
68. The heat flow in nucleate pool boiling will be higher for
a. Horizontal plane
b. Vertical plane
c. Horizontal cylinder
d. Independent of location
69. In considering under same conditions, the convections coefficient will be lowest for
a. Vertical palte
b. Vertical pipe
c. Horizontal pipe
d. Row of vertical pipes
70. The overall heat transfer coefficient is the
a. Sum of all resistance
b. Sum of all conductances
c. Sum of the convection coefficients
d. Resistance due to the wall material.
71. The range of value of overall heat transfer coefficients fall in the following increasing
order
a. Boiling or condensation to liquid, liquid to gas, liquid to liquid, gas to gas
b. Liquid, gas to gas,, boiling or condensation to liquid, liquid to gas
c. Gas to gas, liquid to gas, liquid to liquid, boiling or condensation to liquid
d. Boiling or condensation to liquid, liquid to gas, gas to gas, liquid to liquid
72. The decreasing order of effectiveness for a given situation among types of heat
exchangers is
a. Parallel flow, cross flow, shell and tube, counter flow
b. Cross flow, counter flow, shell and tube, parallel flow
c. Counter flow, shell and tube, cross flow, parallel flow
d. Counter flow, cross flow, shell and tube, parallel flow
73. When one of the fluids is condensing the best flow arrangement is
a. Counter flow
b. Parallel flow
c. Cross flow
d. All are equal
74. Thermodynamically the type which leads to lower loss in availability is
a. Parallel flow
b. Counter flow
c. Cross flow
d. Shell and tube
75. Effectiveness of a heat exchanger is
a. Actual heat transfer/heat content of hot fluid
b. Actual heat transfer/ heat content of cold fluid
c. Actual heat transfer/heat content of higher heat capacity fluid
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
d. Actual heat transfer/heat transfer when minimum heat capacity fluid goes through the
maximum temperature difference in the exchanger
Cross flow exchangers are popularly used for heat transfer
a. Liquid and liquid
b. Liquid and evaporating fluid
c. Condensing fluid and liquid
d. Gas and gas or liquid and gas
The minimum heat transfer area for a given situation is for
a. Parallel flow
b. Counter flow
c. Cross flow
d. Shell and tube
The flow direction is immaterial in the case of heat exchange from
a. Wet or saturated steam to water
b. Water to gas
c. Oil to water
d. Oil to gas
The monochromatic emissive power of a black body with increasing wavelength
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Decreases, reaches a minimum and then increases
d. Increases, reaches a maximum and the decreases
A gray surface is one of which
a. Reflectivity equals emissivity
b. Emissivity equals transmissivity
c. Emissivity is constant
d. Absorptivity equals reflectivity
As the source temperature increases the wavelength at which the monochromatic
emissive power is maximum
a. Decreases continuously
b. Decreases then increases
c. Increases continuously
d. Increases and then decreases
82. The directional emissivity for metallic surface is

a. Constant from all over the angles from normal
b. More near the normal and less near the tangential direction
c. More near tangential direction compared to normal direction
d. The distribution is affected more by temperature than by direction
83. For non metallic insulating materials directional emissivity
a. Is constant all over the angles from normal
b. More at near normal directions than at tangential direction
c. Less at near normal directions compared to tangential direction
d. Can be as case b or c depending on surface preparation
84. Selective surface
a. Do not follow Kirchhoffs law
b. Adsorb only at definite wavelengths
c. Emit only at definite wave bands
d. All of these
85. Glasses are
a. Opaque for high temperature radiation
b. Opaque for low temperature radiation
c. Transparent at short wavelengths
d. Transparent at long wavelengths
e. Opaque for low temperature radiation transparent at long wavelengths
86. For solar collectors the required surface characteristics combination is
a. High emissivity and low absorptivity
b. High emissivity and high reflectivity
c. High reflectivity and high absorptivity
d. Low emissivity and high absorptivity
87. Emissivity of Gas body of a given composition depends on
a. Shape and temperature
b. Partial pressure and shape
c. Partial pressure and temperature
d. All of these
88. For a given shape, partial pressure and temperature the emissivity of
a. O is higher than that of N
b. N is higher than that of N
c. O is higher than that of CO
d. CO is higher than that of O
89. The combination which will give the highest gas emissivity is
a. Low partial pressure, higher temperature and larger thickness
b. Higher partial pressure, higher temperature and larger thickness
c. Higher partial pressure, lower temperature and larger thickness
d. Lower partial pressure, lower temperature and larger thickness
90. The value of shape factor will be highest when
a. The surface are farther apart
b. The surface are closer
c. The surface are smaller and closer
d. The surface are larger and closer
91. A radiation shield should have

a. High emissivity
b. High absorptivity
c. High reflectivity
d. High emissive power
92. Chooses the correct statement or statements
a. Highly reflecting surface is suitable for solar heat collection through flat plates
b. The emissivity of smooth surface is higher compared to rough surface of the same
material
c. For a given gas body, the emissivity will decrease with increase in temperature
d. Snow has high emissivity
93. Choose the correct statement or statements
a. The shape factor of small enclosed body with respect to the enclosing surface is zero
b. The shape factor of small enclosed body with respect to the enclosing surface unity
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
c. A small opening from a large enclosure at constant temperature will provide black
body radiation
d. Black paint is an example of block body
The reciprocity theorem states
a. F=F
b. AF=AF
c. AF=AF
d. F=F
Choose the correct statement or statements
a. F.=F+F
b. AF.=AF.+AF
c. F.=F+F
d. A.F..=AF..+AF..
a. Radiosity is another name for emissive power
b. Radiation intensity is the flow per unit area
c. Radiation intensity is the radiant energy per unit solid angle
d. Irradiation is the total radiant energy incident on a surface
a. Convex surface have positive value for shape factor themselves
b. Concave surface have positive value for shape factor with themselves
c. Flat surfaces have positive value for shape factor with themselves
d. Irregular surfaces have positive value for shape factor with themselves
If A=4 and A=2 and F =0.2 then
a. F= 0.2
b. F=0.8
c. F=0.4
d. F=0.1
DRYING
1. The vapor pressure exerted by the moisture contained in a wet solid depends upon the
a) nature of the moisture
b) temperature
c) nature of the solid
d) all a, b, and c
2. To remove all the moisture from a wet solid requires exposure to
a) perfectly dry air
b) highly humid air
c) air at high temperature
d) none of these
3. Milk is dried usually in a

a) freeze dryer
b) spray dryer
c) tray dryer
d) rotary dryer
4. Equilibrium-moisture curves of different solids
a) are different
b) are same
c) depend on the humidity of the gas
d) none of these
5. Detergent solution is dried to a powder in a
a) spray dryer
b) spouted bed dryer
c) tunnel dryer
d) pan open to atmosphere.
6. If moisture content of a solid on dry basis is X then the same on wet basis is
a)
X
b)
X+1
X
c)
1-X
1+X
d)
X
1X
X
7. In paper industry, paper is dried in

a) tunnel dryer
b) heated cylinder dryer
c) conveyor dryer
d) festoon dryer
8. Moisture content of a substance when at equilibrium with a given partial pressure of
the
vapor is called
a) free moisture
b) unbound moisture
c) equilibrium moisture
d) bound moisture
9. Calcium ammonium nitrate (a fertilizer) is dried in a

a) rotary dryer
b) vacuum dryer
c) tunnel dryer
d) none of these
10. Moisture in a substance exerting an equilibrium vapor pressure less than that of pure
liquid at
at the same temperature is
a) bound moisture
b) unbound moisture
c) critical moisture
d) none of these
11. Rotary dryer cannot handle
a) free flowing materials
b) dry materials
c) sticky materials
d) granular materials
12. Moisture in a solid exerting an equilibrium vapor pressure equal to that of the pure
liquid at
the same temperature is
a) unbound moisture
b) critical moisture
c) free moisture
d) bound moisture
13. Refractory bricks are usually dried in a

a) tray dryer
b) tunnel dryer
c) conveyor dryer
d) festoon dryer
14. Heat sensitive materials like certain pharmaceuticals and food stuff can be dried
a) in indirect tray dryer
b) in spray dryer
c) by freeze drying
d) none of these
15. Moisture contained by a substance in excess of the equilibrium moisture is called

a) unbound moisture
b) free moisture
c) critical moisture
d) bound moisture
16. Flights in a rotary dryer are provided to
a) lift and shower the solids thus exposing it thoroughly to the drying action of
the gas
b) reduce the residence time of solid
c) increase the residence time of the solid
d) none of these
17. In the constant rate period of the rate of drying curve for batch drying
a) cracks develop on the surface of the solid
b) rate of drying decreases abruptly
c) surface evaporation of unbound moisture occurs
d) none of these
18. The falling rate period in the drying of a solid is characterized by
a) increase in rate of drying
b) increasing temperatures both on the surface and within the solid
c) decreasing temperatures
d) none of these
19. Dryer widely used in a textile industry is
a) cylinder dryer
b) conveyor dryer
c) tunnel dryer
d) festoon dryer
20. Sticky material can be dried in a

a) tray dryer
b) rotary dryer
c) fluidized bed dryer
d) none of these
21. Drying of a solid involves
a) only heat transfer
b) only mass transfer
c) both heat and mass transfer
d) none of these
22. A solid material shows case hardening properties while drying. Which of the
following
should be controlled to control the drying process?
a) flow rate of inlet air
b) relative humidity of outlet air
c) humidity of inlet air
d) temperature of the solid
23. Capacity of a rotary dryer depends on
a) its r.p.m
b) its inclination with ground surface
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
24. Air at a particular humidity is heated in a furnace. The new dew point
a) decreases
b) increases
c) depends on the extent of heating
d) remains unchanged
25. The critical moisture content in case of drying indicates
a) beginning of falling rate period
b) beginning of constant rate period
c) end of falling rate period
d) none of these
26. A slurry is to be dried to produce flaky solid. Which dryer would you recommend?
a) spray dryer
b) drum dryer
c) rotary dryer
d) dielectric dryer
27. For continuous drying of granular or crystalline material, the dryer used is
a) tunnel
b) tray
c) rotary
d) none of these
28. All moisture in a non-hygroscopic material ismoisture
a) free
b) equilibrium
c) unbound
d) bound
29. During constant rate period, the rate of drying decreases with
a) decrease in air temperature
b) increased air humidity
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
30. Which is the controlling factor for a drum dryer?
a) diffusion
b) heat transfer
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
31. Paper industry employs..dryers
a) cylinder
b) rotary
c) spray
d) fluidized bed
32. Sand is dried in foundaries in a ..dryer
a) rotary
b) fluidized bed
c) vacuum
d) spray
33. Free flowing granular materials can be best dried in a
a) rotary dryer
b) cylinder dryer
c) drum dryer
d) freeze dryer
HUMIDIFICATION
1. Humidification involves mass transfer between a pure liquid phase and a fixed gas
which is:
a) insoluble in the liquid
b) soluble in the liquid
c) non-ideal in nature
d) at a fixed temperature
2. At a fixed total pressure, humidity depends only on the
a) partial pressure of vapor in the mixture
b) heat capacity of the vapor
c) density of the vapor

d) none of these
3. In saturated gas, the
a) vapor is in equilibrium with the liquid at the gas temperature
b) vapor is in equilibrium with the liquid at the room temperature
c) partial pressure of vapor equals the vapor pressure of the liquid at room
temperature
d) none of these
4. Relative humidity is the ratio of the
a) partial pressure of the vapor to the vapor pressure of the liquid at room
temperature
b) partial pressure of the vapor to the vapor pressure of the liquid at gas
temperature
c) actual humidity to saturation humidity
d) none of these
5. The percentage humidity is less than the relative humidity only at
a) zero percentage humidity
b) hundred percent humidity
c) both zero or hundred percent humidity
d) none of these
6. Heat is BTU necessary to increase the temperature of 1 lb. of gas and its
accompanying
vapor by 1o F is called the
a) latent heat
b) humid heat
c) specific heat
d) sensible heat
7. Humid volume is the total volume in cubic feet of 1 lb. of

a) vapor laden gas at 1 atm. And room temperature
b) gas plus its accompanying vapor at 1 atm. and room temperature
c) gas plus its accompanying vapor at 1 atm. and gas temperature
d) vapor laden gas at 1 atm. and gas temperature
8. The temperature to which a vapor gas mixture must be cooled (at varying humidity)
to become saturated is
a) dew point
b) wet bulb temperature
c) dry bulb temperature
d) none of these
9. The dew point of a saturated gas phase equals the

a) gas temperature
b) room temperature
c) wet bulb temperature
d) none of these
10. Steady state temperature reached by a small amount of liquid evaporating into a large
amount
of unsaturated vapor-gas mixture is
a) dry-bulb temperature
b) wet bulb temperature
c) dew point
d) adiabatic saturation temperature
11. Dry bulb temperature of the gas is
a) less than the wet-bulb temperature
b) greater than the wet-bulb temperature
c) equal to the wet-bulb temperature
d) none of these
12. The difference of wet bulb temperature and adiabatic saturation temperature of
unsaturated
mixture of any system is
a) positive
b) negative
c) zero
d) none of these
13. When the temperature and humidity of air is low we usually use
a) natural draft cooling tower
b) forced draft cooling tower
c) induced draft cooling tower
d) none of these
14. The equipment frequently used for adiabatic humidification-cooling operation with
recirculating liquid is
a) natural draft cooling tower
b) induced draft cooling tower
c) spray chamber
d) none of these
15. The most efficient cooling tower out of the following is
a) induced draft
b) forced draft
c) natural draft
d) atmospheric
16. Critical humidity of a solid salt means the humidity
a) above which it will always become damp
b) below which it will always stay dry
c) both a and b
d) above which it will always become dry and below which it will always stay damp.
19. Percentage saturation is..the relative saturation.
a) always smaller than
b) always greater than
c) not related to
d) none of these
20. Wet bulb and dry bulb temperatures become identical at
a) 100% saturation curve
b) 50% saturation curve
c) 78% saturation curve
d) none of these
21. Which of the following processes is followed by unsaturated air (with dry bulb
temperature
12oC and relative humidity 47%) passing through water spray washer (temperature of
water being constant at 40oC)?
a) humidification only
b) heating only
c) both heating and humidification
d) evaporative cooling
22. Which of the following remains constant during sensible cooling process?
a) specific humidity
b) partial pressure of vapor
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
23. During sensible cooling process
a) relative humidity decreases
b) relative humidity increases
c) wet bulb temperature increases
d) both b and c
24. A mixture of 10% C6H6 vapor in air at 25oC and 750 mm Hg has a dew point of 20 oC.
Its dew point at 30oC and 700 mm Hg will be around
a) 21.7oC
b) 20oC
c) 27.3oC
d) 18.7oC
25. Which of the following remains constant during evaporative cooling process with
recirculated water supply?
a) relative humidity
b) partial pressure of vapor
d) none of these
26. Dew point of a gas-vapor mixture
a) increases with temperature rise
b) decreases with temperature rise
c) decreases with increases in pressure
d) increases with increases in pressure
27. Which of the following decreases during evaporative cooling process with
recirculated water
supply?
a) wet bulb temperature
b) relative humidity
c) partial pressure of vapor
d) none of these
28. Which of the following increases during evaporative cooling process with
recirculated water
supply?
a) wet bulb temperature
b) relative humidity
c) partial pressure of vapor
d) both b and c
29. The relative saturation of a partially saturated mixture of vapor and gas can be
increased by
a) reducing the total pressure of the mixture
b) increasing the total pressure of the mixture
c) reducing the temperature of the mixture
d) both b and c
30. Condensation of a vapor-gas mixture just begin when
a) p = P
b) p P
c) p P
d) p>= P
where: p = partial pressure of the vapor
P = vapor pressure of the liquid

31. Unsaturated air (with dry and wet bulb temperatures being 35 oC and 25oC
respectively) is
passed through water spray chamber maintained at 35oC. The air will be
a) cooled
b) humidified
c) both a and b
d) dehumidified
32. In case of unsaturated air
a) dew point wet bulb temperature
b) wet bulb temperature dry bulb temperature
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
33. Unsaturated air (with dry bulb temperature and dew point being 35 oC and 18oC
respectively)
is passed through a water spray chamber maintained at 15oC. The air will be
a) cooled and humidified
b) cooled and dehumidified with increase in wet bulb temperature
c) cooled at the same relative humidity
d) cooled and dehumidified with decrease in wet bulb temperature
34. Which of the following parameters remains almost constant during adiabatic
saturation of
unsaturated air?
a) dry bulb temperature
b) dew point
d) none of these
35. Unsaturated air (with dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures being 45 oC and 25oC
respectively)
is passed through a water spray chamber maintained at 23oC. The air will be
a) cooled and humidified with wet bulb temperature decreasing
b) cooled and humidified at constant wet bulb temperature
c) cooled and dehumidified
d) none of these
Diffusion
1. The unit of volumetric diffusivity is
a.) cm2/ec
b.) cm/sec
c.) cm3/sec
d.) cm3/sec3
2. The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to the temperature (T) as
a.) D T
b.) D T0.5
c.) D T1.5
d.) D T3
3. The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to the pressure (P) as
a.) D T1.5
b.) D 1
P0.5
c.) D 1
d.) D 1
P
P1.5
4. Molecular diffusion is caused by
a.) transfer of molecules from low concentration to high concentration region
b.) thermal energy of the molecules
c.) activation energy of the molecules
d.) potential energy of the molecules
5. Pick out the correct statement
a.) Diffusivity decreases with increase in temperature
b.) Diffusivity increases with increase in molecular weight
c.) Diffusivity increases with the size of the individual molecule
d.) None of these
6. Mass transfer co-efficient is defined as
a.) Flux = (Co-efficient) / (concentration difference)
b.) Co-efficient = Flux / concentration difference
c.) Flux = concentration difference / co-efficient
d.) None of these
7. Mass transfer co-efficient (K) and diffusivity (D) are related according to film theory
as
a.) K D
b.) K D
1.5
c.) K D
d.) K D2
8. Penetration theory relates average mass transfer co-efficient (K) with diffusivity (D)
as
a.) K D
b.) K D
1.5
c.) K D
d.) K D2
9. Corresponding to Prandtl number in heat transfer, the dimensionless group in mass
transfer is
a.) Schmidt number
b.) Sherwood number
c.) Peclet number

10. Schmidt number is
a.)
DAB
b.) Sh x Pe
d.) Stanton number

b.) Re.Pe
d.) Re / Pe
11. In physical terms, Schmidt number means

a.) thermal diffusivity / mass diffusivity
b.) thermal diffusivity / momentum diffuisivity
c.) momentum diffusivity / mass diffusivity
d.) mass diffusivity / thermal diffusivity
12. Corresponding to Nusselt number in heat transfer, the dimensionless group in mass
transfer, is
a.) Scherwood number
b.) Schmidt number
c.) Peclet number
d.) Stanton number
13. Mass transfer coefficient of liquid is
a.) affected more by temperature than that for gases
b.) affected much by less temperature than that for gases
c.) not affected by temperature
d.) none of these
14. Lewis number (Le) is
a.) Sc x Pr
c.) Sc x Pr
b.) Pr x Sc
d.) St x Sh
15. Which of the following is not a unit of mass transfer coefficient?

a.)
moles transferred
(time)(area)(mole fraction)
b.)
moles transferred
( time)(area)(pressure)
c.)
mass transferred
(time)(area)(mass A / mass B)
d.) none of these
16. In case liquid-liquid binary diffusion , diffusivity of one constituent into another is
not dependent on
a.) temperature and pressure
b.) concentration
c.) nature of the constituents
d.) none of these
17. Steady state equimolal counter diffusion is encountered in
a.) separation of a binary mixture by distillation
b.) absorption of NH4 from air by water

c.) all liquid-liquid diffusion systems
d.) all liquid-solid diffusion systems
18. Which of the following has the same dimension as mass diffusivity?
a.) momentum flux
b.) kinematic viscosity
c.) thermal diffusivity
d.) both b and c
19. Diffusivity in concentrated solutions differs from that in dilute solutions because of
changes in
a.) viscocity with concentration
b.) degree of ideality of the solution
c.) both a and b
d.) neither a nor b
20. The value of Lewis number Le = Sc
Pr
a.) 1
c.) 3.97
for air-water vapor system is around

b.) 0.24
d.) 600.
GAS ABSORPTION
1. For absorbing a sparingly soluble gas in a liquid, the
a.) gas side coefficient should be increased
b.) liquid side coefficient should be increased
c.) gas side coefficient should be decreased
d.) liquid side coefficient should be decreased
2. For contacting a highly soluble gas with a liquid
a.) bubble the gas through liquid
b.) spray the liquid on gas stream
c.) either a or b will suffice
d.) none of these
3. Wetted wall tower experiment determines
a.) molal diffusivity
b.) volumetric coefficient
c.) mass transfer coefficient
d.) none of these
4. Stacked packing compared to dumped packing
a.) provides poorer contact between the fluids
b.) gives lower pressure drop
c.) both (a) and (b)
d.) gives higher drop
5. Channeling is most severe
a.) in towers packed with stacked packing
b.) in towers packed randomly with crushed solids

c.) in dumped packing of regular units
d.) at very high liquid flow rate
6. Flooding results in
a.) High tray efficiency
b.) Low tray efficiency
c.) High gas velocity
d.) Good contact between the fluids
7. Operating velocity in a packed tower is usually
a.) half the flooding velocity
b.) twice the flooding velocity
c.) equal to flooding velocity
d.) more than the flooding velocity
8. At the same gas flow rate, the pressure drop in a packed tower being irrigated with
liquid
a.) is greater than that in dry packed
b.) is lower than that in drying packing
c.) is same as that in drying packing
d.) cannot be predicted as data are insufficient
9. Berl saddle made of carbon cannot be used
a.) for alkalis
c.) for H2SO4
10. Flooding in a column results due to
a.) high pressure drop
c.) low velocity of the liquid
b.) for SO2

d.) in oxidizing atmosphere
b.) low pressure drop

d.) high temperature
11. The operating line for an absorbed is curved when plotted in terms of
a.) mole fractions
b.) mole ratios
c.) partial pressure
d.) mass fractions
12. In case of an absorber, the operating
a.) line always lies above the equilibrium curve
b.) line always lies below the equilibrium curve
c.) line can be either above or below the equilibrium curve
d.) velocity is more than the loading velocity
13. For an absorber, both equilibrium and operating line will be straight for
a.) concentrated solution and non-isothermal operation
b.) dilute solution and non-isothermal operation
c.) dilute solution and isothermal operation

d.) concentrated solution and isothermal operation
14. In case of desorber (stripper)
a.) the operating line always lies above the equilibrium curve
b.) the operating line always lies below the equilibrium line
c.) temperature remains unaffected
d.) temperature always increases
15. The minimum liquid rate to be used in an absorber corresponds to an operating line
a.) of slope = 1
b.) of slope = '1
c.) tangential to the equilibrium curve d.) none of these
16. Absorption factor is defined as
a.) slope of the equilibrium curve
slope of the operating line
b.) slope of the operating line
slope of the equilibrium curve
c.) slope of the operating line - slope of the equilibrium curve
d.) slope of the operating line - slope of the equilibrium curve
17. H2S present in naphtha reformed gas is removed by absorbing with
a.) ethanolamine
b.) K2CO3
c.) HCl
d.) vacuum gas soil
18. If G = insoluble gas in gas stream and L = non-volatile solvent in liquid stream, then
the slope of the operating line for the absorber is
a.) L/G
b.) G/L
c.) always < 1
d.) none of these
19. Raschig ring made of porcelain cannot be used for treating

a.) concentrated hydrochloric acid
b.) concentrated nitric acid
c.) alkalis
d.) concentrated sulfuric acid
20. For absorbers, high pressure drop results in
a.) increased efficiency
c.) high operating cost
b.) decreased efficiency

d.) better gas liquid contact
21. Which of the following is an undesirable property for an absorbing solvent?

a.) low vapour pressure
b.) low velocity
c.) low freezing point
d.) none of these
22. Out of the following properties of a solvent for absorption, which combination of
properties provides a good solvent?
I. high viscosity
II. Low viscosity
III. high vapour pressure
IV. Low vapour pressure
V. high gas solubility
VI. High freezing point
VII. low freezing point
Choose from the following combinations:
a.) II,IV,V,VII
c.) II,IV,V,VI
b.) I,IV,V,VI
d.) I,IV,V,VII
23. When both the fluids flow concurrently in an absorber, the slope of the operating line
is
a.) negative
b.) positive
c.) 1
d.) -1
24. Ammonia present in the coke oven gas is removed by washing with
a.) caustic solution
b.) dilute ammoniacal liquor
c.) dilute HCl
d.) ethanolamine
25. Which of the following is not fixed by process requirements in the design of
absorbers?
a.) flow rate of the entering gas
b.) composition of the entering liquid
c.) terminal concentration of gas stream
d.) none of these
26. In an absorber, HETP does not vary with
a.) flow rate of liquid
c.) type and size of packing
b.) flow rate of gas

d.) none of these
27. Which of the following is an undesirable property in a low-packing

a.) large surface per unit volume
b.) large free cross-section
c.) low weight per unit volume
d.) large weight of liquid retained
28. Very tall packed towers are divided into series of beds to
a.) reduce the over-all pressure drop
b.) avoid channeling
c.) reduce liquid hold-up
d.) avoid flooding
29. For the same system, if the same liquid used in an absorber is decreased, the tower
height will
a.) increase
b.) decrease
c.) remain unaffected
d.) decrease or increase depends on the type of liquid
30. HETP is numerically equal to HTU only when operating line
a.) lies below the equilibrium line
b.) lies above the equilibrium line
c.) and equilibrium lines are parallel
d.) is far from the equilibrium line
31. Desirable value of absorption factor in an absorber is
a.) 1
b.) <1
c.) >1
d.) 0.5
32. Absorption accompanied by heat evolution results in
a.) increased capacity of the absorber
b.) increase in equilibrium solubility
c.) decrease in equilibrium solubility
d.) none of these
33. Co-current absorbers are usually used when the gas to be dissolved in the liquid is
a.) sparingly soluble
b.) highly soluble
c.) a pure substance
d.) a mixture
34. Channeling in a packed tower results from
a.) high pressure drop
c.) non-uniformity of packing
b.) maldistribution of liquid

d.) both b and c
35. Diameter of raschig rings used in packed tower in industry is normally around
a.) 2"
b.) 8"
c.) 12"
d.) 18
FILTRATION
1. For a classification of potable water, we use
a.) gravity sand filter
b.) plate and frame filter
c.) vacuum leaf filter
d.) rotary vacuum filter
2. Vacuum filter is most suitable for
a.) removal of lines from liquid
c.) liquids of very high viscosity
3. Filter aid is used
b.) liquid having high vapour pressure

d.) none of these
a.) to increase the rate of filtration

b.) to decrease the pressure drop
c.) to increase the porosity of the cake d.) as a support base for the septum
4. During the washing of cake
a.) all resistance are constant
c.) filter medium resistance
b.) filter medium resistance increases

d.) change resistance decreases
5. The porosity of a compressible cake is

a.) minimum at the filter medium
c.) maximum at the filter medium
b.) minimum at the upstream face

d.) same throughout the thickness
6. The specific cake resistance is

a.) gm / cm2
c.) cm / gm2
b.) cm / gm
d.) gm / gm.
7. The unit of filter medium resistance is

a.) cm-1
c.) cm / gm-1
b.) gm / cm-1
d.) gm -1
8. The medium resistance is controlled by

a.) the pressure drop along
b.) the flow rate alone
c.) both pressure drop and flow rate
d.) the cake thickness
9. Compressibility coefficient for an absolutely compressible cake is
a.) 0
b.) 1
c.) 0 to 1
d.) none of these
10. In continuous filtration (at a constant pressure drop) filtrate flow rate varies inversely
as the
a.) square root of the velocity
b.) square root of the viscosity
c.) filtration time only
d.) washing time only
11. For separation of sugar solution from settled out mud we use
a.) sparkler filter
b.) plate and frame
c.) centrifugal filter
d.) rotary drum vacuum filter
12. The most common filter aid is
a.) diatomaceous earth
b.) calcium silicate
c.) sodium carbonate
d.) silica gel
13. Removal of activated carbon from glycerine is done by

a.) plate and frame filter
b.) rotary vacuum filter
c.) batch backed centrifuge
d.) none of these
14. Filtration of water in a paper mill is done by
a.) open sand filter

d.) sparkler filter
15. The speed of a rotary drum vacuum filter (in rpm) may be
a.) 1
b.) 50
c.) 100
d.) 500
16. Gelatinous solid (which plug the septum) can be filtered by
a.) sparkler filter
d.) pre-coat filter
17. For laminar of flow of filtrate through the cake deposited on septum which of the
following with the valid?
a.) Kozency-Carman Equation
b.) Leva's equation
c.) Clack-Plummer equation
d.) none of these
18. Which of the following may prove unsuitable for filtering volatile liquids?
a.) pressure filter
b.) gravity filter
c.) centrifugal filter
d.) vacuum filter
19. In washing type plate and frame filter press the ratio of washing rate to the final
filtrate rate is
a.) 4
b.) 1/4
c.) 1
d.) 1/2
20. Moore filter is a
a.) leaf filter
c.) rotary filter
b.) filter press

d.) sand filter
21. Diatomaceous earth is

a.) explosive
c.) filter medium
b.) filter aid

d.) none of these
22. Flow of filtrate through cake in a plate and frame filter press is best described by
a.) Kozency-Carman equation
b.) Hagen-Poiseu equation
c.) Fanning's equation
d.) Kremser equation
23. A straight line is obtained on plotting reciprocal of filtration rate vs the volume of
filtrate
a.) compressible cakes and laminar flow of filtrate
b.) incompressible cakes and laminar flow of filtrate
c.) compressible cake and turbulent flow of filtrate
d.) incompressible cake and turbulent flow of filtrate
24. Percentage of drum submerged in slurry in case of rotary drum filter is
a.) 3%
b.) 30%
c.) 85%
d.) 25%
25. Which of the following represents the plot of filtrate cvolume versus time for constant
pressure filtration?
a.) parabola
b.) straight line
c.) hyperbola
d.) exponential curve
26. With increase in drum speed, in a rotary drum filter, the filtration rate
a.) increases
b.) increases linearly
c.) decreases
d.) is not affected
27. The inlet pressure in a constant rate filtration
a.) increases continuously
c.) remains constant
28. Which is a continuous filter?
a.) plate and frame filter
c.)shell and leaf filter
b.) decreases
d.) none of these
b.) cartridge filter

d.) none of these
29. Addition of filter aid to the slurry before filtration is done to .. of the coke
a.) increase the porosity
b.) increase the compressibility coefficient
c.) decrease the porosity
d.) decrease the compressibility coefficient
30. The cake resistance increases steadily with the time of filtration in a plate and frame
filter employing constant .. filtration
a.) rate
b.) pressure
c.) both a and b
d.) neither a nor b
31. The controlling resistance in a rotary drum vacuum filter is the . Resistance
a.) piping
b.) cake
c.) filter medium
c.) none of these
ADSORPTION
1. Physical adsorption is
a. an irreversible phenomenon
b. a reversible phenomenon
c. accompanied by evolution of heat
d. both b and c
2. Chemisorption (chemical adsorption) is
a. same as Van der Waals adsorption
b. characterized by adsorption of heat
c. also called activated adsorption
d. none of these
3. Rate of adsorption increases as the
a. temperature increases
b. temperature decreases
c. pressure decreases
d. size of adsorbent increases
4. When adsorption hysteresis is observed, the desorption equilibrium pressure is

a. always lower than that obtained by adsorption
b. always higher than that obtained by adsorption
c. same as that obtained by adsorption
d. dependent on the system can be either lower or higher than that obtained by adsorption
5. Which of the following adsorbent is used to decolorize yellow glycerine?
a. silica gel
c. Fullers earth
b. alumina
d. activated carbon
6. Freundlich equation applies to adsorption of solute from
a. dilute solutions, over a small concentrated range
b. gaseous solutions at high pressure
c. concentrated solutions
d. none of these
7. In case of physical adsorption, the difference between heat of adsorption and heat of normal
condensation is
a. equal to the heat of formation of surface compound
b. equal to the heat of wetting
c. zero
d. called integral heat of adsorption
Generally for physical adsorption, a gas of
a. higher molecular weight is adsorbed in preference to a gas of low molecular weight
b. high critical temperature is adsorbed in preference to a gas of low critical temperature
c. low volatility is adsorbed in preference to a gas of high volatility
d. both b and c
9. The change in enthalpy per unit weight of adsorbed gas when adsorbed on gas free or
outgassed adsorbent to form a definite concentration of adsorbate is called its
a. integral heat of adsorption
b. heat of wetting
c. differential heat of adsorption
d. heat of normal condensation
10. With increase in concentration of the adsorbate the integral heat of adsorption
a. increases
b. decreases
d. may increase or decrease; depends on type of adsorbate
11. The change in enthalpy when a unit quantity of gas is adsorbed by a relatively large quantity
of adsorbent (on which a definite concentration of the adsorbed gas already exists) is termed
as the
a. differential heat of adsorption
c. integral heat of adsorption
b. heat of wetting
d. heat of normal condensation
12. As complete saturation of an adsorbent is approached, the differential heat of adsorption
approaches
a. heat of normal condensation
c. zero
b. integral heat of adsorption
d. none of these
13. Ion exchange process is similar to
a. absorption
b. extraction
c. adsorption
d. leaching
14. CO2 can be adsorbed by

a. hot cupric oxide
b. heated charcoal
c. Cold Ca (OH)2
d. alumina
CENTRIFUGATION
1. For separation of sugar solution from settled out mud we use
a. sparkler filter
c. centrifugal filter
b. plate & frame filter
d. rotary drum vacuum filter
2. Moisture can be removed from lubricating oil using
a. tubular centrifuge
c. sparkler filter
b. clarifier
d. vacuum leaf filter
3. Which of the following can be most effectively used for clarification of tube oil and printing
ink?
a. sparkler filter
b. precoat filter
c. disc-bowl centrifuge
d. sharpless supercentrifuge
4. If the radius of a basket centrifuge is halved and the rpm is doubled, then
a. linear speed of the basket is doubled
b. linear speed of the basket is halved
c. centrifugal force is doubled
d. capacity of centrifuge is increased
5. Where the difference in density of the two liquid phases to be separated is very small (as in
milk cream separator), the most suitable separator is
a. disc bond centrifuge
c. batch basket centrifuge
b. sharpless supercentrifuge
d. sparkler filter
FLOTATION
1. Froth Flotation is most suitable for treating
a. iron ores
c. quartz
b. sulfide ores
d. metal ores
2. In Froth Flotation, chemical agent added to cause air adherence is called
a. collector
c. modifier
b. frother
d. promoter
3. Pine oil used in forth flotation technique acts as a
a. collector
c. frother
b. modifier
d. activator
4. Which of the following is the most suitable for cleaning of fine coal dust (< 0.5 m)?
a. Through washer
c. Spiral separator
b. Baum Jig Washer
d. Froth Flotation
LEACHING
1. Which of the following operations does not involve leaching?
a. dissolving gold from ores
b. dissolving pharmaceutical products from bark or roots
c. dissolving sugar from the cells of the best
d. removing nicotine from its water solution by kerosene
2. Tea percolation employs
a. liquid-liquid extraction
b. leaching
c. absorption
d. adsorption
3. Rate of leaching increases with increasing

a. temperature
b. viscosity of solvent
c. pressure
d. size of the solid
4. Stage efficiency in a leaching process depends on the

a. time of contact between the solid and the solution
b. rate of diffusion of the solute through the solid and into the liquid
c. both a and b
d. vapor pressure of the solution
5. Extraction of coffee from its seed is done by
a. liquid-liquid extraction
c. extractive distillation
b. leaching
d. steam distillation
6. Leaching of sugar from sugar beets is done by
a. hot water
c. dilute H2SO4
b. hexane
d. lime water
7. With increase in temperature, the leaching rate increases due to
a. decreased liquid viscosity
c. both a and b
b. increased diffusivity
d. neither a nor b
8. Leaching rate is independent of the
a. agitation
b. particle size
c. temperature
d. none of these
LIQUID LIQUID EXTRACTION

1. Heats sensitive materials with very high latent heat of vaporization may be
economically separated using
a. liquid extraction
b. distillation
2. Fractional solvent extraction
a. employs only one solvent
b. employs two solvents
c. evaporation
d. absorption
c. results in low interfacial tension
d. none of these
3. Choose the best combination or properties for a good solvent for extraction out of the
following
(i)
high selectivity
(ii)
low selectivity
(iii)
high viscosity
(iv)
low viscosity
(v)
large distribution coefficient
(vi)
small distribution coefficient
(vii)
high interfacial tension
(viii) low interfacial tension
a. ( i ), ( iv ), ( v ), ( vii )
b. ( i ), ( iii ), ( v ), ( vi )
c. ( i ), ( iii ), ( v ), ( vii )
d. ( i ), ( ii ), ( iv ), ( vii )
4. Selectivity of solvent used in extraction should be

a. 1
c. > 1
b. < 1
d. 0
5. In liquid extraction, if selectivity is unity, then
a. separation of the constituent is most effective
b. no separation will occur
c. amount of solvent required will be minimum
d. solvent flow rate should be very low
6. When the solvent dissolves very little of solute then
a. solvent of low latent heat of vaporization should be used
b. solvent of low freezing point should be used
c. large quantity of solvent is required to extract the solute
d. very small quantity of solute is required
7. Which of the following is the most suitable for extraction in a system having very low density
difference?
a. mixer-settler extractor
c. pulsed extractor
b. centrifugal extractor
d. packed extraction tower
8. In extraction, as the temperature increases, the area of heterogeneity (area covered by binodal
curve)
a. decreases
b. increases
d. none of these
9. The apex of an equilateral triangular coordinate (internary liquid system) represents
a. a pure component
c. a ternary mixture
b. a binary mixture
d. an insoluble binary system
10. In a countercurrent extractor as the axial mixing increases, the extraction efficiency
a. increases
b. decreases
d. depends on the pressure of the system
11. The solvent used in liquid extraction should not have high latent heat of vaporization because
a. the pressure drops and hence the pumping cost will be very high
b. it cannot be recovered by distillation
c. its recovery cost by distillation may be prohibitively high
d. it will decompose while recovering by distillation
12. In a countercurrent liquid extractor
a. both liquids flow at fixed rate
b. both liquids can have any desired flow rate
c. only one of the liquids may be pumped at any desired rate
d. liquids flow rate depends upon the temperature and pressure
13. Sides of equilateral triangular coordinates (on which ternary liquid system is plotted)
represent
a. a pure component
c. a ternary mixture
b. a binary mixture
d. partially miscible ternary system
14. As the reflux ratio, in a continuous counter current extraction is increased, the number of
stages
a. increase
c. remain unchanged
b. decrease
d. can either increase or decrease, depends on
the system
15. Acetic acid will be most economically separated from a dilute solution of acetic acid in water
by
a. solvent extraction
c. evaporation
b. continuous distillation
d. absorption
MATERIALS HANDLING
1. Which is most suitable for transportation of sticky material?
a. apron conveyor
c. belt conveyor
b. screw conveyor
d. pneumatic conveyor
2. Which of the following cannot be recommended for transportation of abrasive materials?
a. belt conveyor
c. apron conveyor
b. flight conveyor
d. chain conveyor
3. For transporting pastry material, one will use
a. apron conveyor
c. belt conveyor
b. screw conveyor
d. bucket elevator
4. The capacity of a belt conveyor depends upon two factors. If one is the cross section of the
load, the other is the
a. speed of the belt
c. thickness of the belt
b. length of the belt
d. material to be transported
5. Dry powdery solid material are transported by a
a. belt conveyor
c. belt conveyor
b. screw conveyor
d. bucket elevator
6. Apron conveyors are used for
a. heavy loads and short runs
b. small loads, long runs
c. heavy loads and long runs

d. transporting powdered materials
SCREENING
1. The ratio of the actual mesh dimension of Taylor series to that of the next smaller screen is
a. 2
b. 2
c. 1.5
d. none of these
2. The opening of 200 mesh screen (Taylor series) is
a. 0.0074 cm
b. 0.0074 mm
c. 0.0047 cm
d. 0.0047 mm
3. The ratio of the area of opening in one screen (Taylor series) to that of openings in the next
smaller screen is
a. 1.5
b. 1
c. 2
d. none of these
4. Cumulative Analysis for determining surface is more precise than differential analysis
because of the
a. assumption that all particles in single fraction are equal in size
b. fact that screening is more effective
c. assumption that all particles in a single fraction are equal in size is not needed
d. none of these
5. Increasing the capacity of screen
a. decreases the screen effectiveness
b. increases the screen effectiveness
c. does not affect the screen effectiveness

d. none of these
6. Screen efficiency is
a. recovery rejection
c. rejection
b. recovery
d. none of these
7. As particle size is reduced

a. screening becomes progressively more difficult
b. screening becomes progressively easier
c. capacity and effectiveness of the screen is increased
d. none of these
8. A screen is said to be blinded when
a. oversizes are present in undersize fraction
b. undersizes are retained in oversize fraction
c. the screen is plugged with solid particles
d. its capacity is abruptly increased
9. Size measurement of ultrafine particles can be best expressed in terms of
a. centimeter
c. micron
b. screen size
d. surface area per unit mass
10. Trommels separate a mixture of particles depending on their
a. size
c. screen size
b. wet ability
d. electrical and magnetic
11. Screen capacity is expressed in terms of
a. tons/h
b. tons/ft2
c. both a and b
12. Which of the following screens has the maximum capacity?
d. tons/h-ft2
a. grizzlies
b. trommels
c. shaking screen
d. vibrating screen
13. For sizing of fine materials, the most suitable equipment is a

a. trommel
c. shaking screen
b. grizzly
d. vibrating screen
14. Mesh number indicates the number of holes per
a. square inch
c. square foot
b. linear inch
d. linear foot
15. Optimum ratio of operating speed to critical speed of a trommel is
a. 0.33 0.45
c. 0.5 2
b. 1.33 1.45
d. 1.5 2.5
16. 200 mesh screens means
a. 200 openings/cm2
b. 200 openings/inch
c. 200 openings/cm
d. 200 openings/inch2
17. In screen analysis, notation + 5 mm/ -10 mm means passing through

a. 10 mm screen and retained on 5 mm screen
b. 5 mm screen and retained on 10 mm screen
c. both 5 mm and 13 mm screens
d. neither 5 mm nor 10 mm screens
18. The critical speed of a trommel (n) is related to its diameter (D)
1
a. N
c. N D
D
1
b. N D
d. N
D
19. With increase in the capacity of screens, the screen effectiveness
a. remains unchanged
c. decreases
b. increases
d. decreases exponentially
20. Vibrating screens have capacity (tons/ft2 hr mm mesh size) in the range of
a. 0.2 to 0.8
b. 5 to 25
c. 50 to 100
d. 100 to 250
21. The material passing one screening surface and retained on a subsequent surface is called
a. intermediate material
c. plus material
b. minus
d. none of the above
SEDIMENTATION
Questions 1 and 2 are based on the following information and illustration
In an experiment, a sphere of density 1 and radius r is dropped in a tank of oil of

viscosity 1 and density 2 . The time of descent for the sphere through the first section of height
d is recorded as t1 and through the second section of the same height as t2, 0 < t2 t1 << 1.
Sphere
d
d
(1)
2
1. Which of the following is true for the experiment

a. The drag force exerted on the sphere increases during it descent through the second
section.
b. The sphere never reaches its terminal velocity while falling through both sections
c. The sphere reaches its terminal velocity while falling through the first section
d. The drag force exerted on the sphere decreases during the descent through the second
section
2. The drag force exerted on the sphere during its descent through the second section is
d
4 3
4
r 1 g 61r
a. 1 2 g r 3
c.
3
3
t2
b.
4
1 g r 3
3
d.
d
4 3
r 1 g 61r
3
t2
3. Drag is defined as the force exerted by the

a. fluid on the solid in a direction opposite to flow
b. the fluid on the solid in the direction of flow
c. the solid on the fluid
d. none of these
4. Drag coefficient for flow of past immersed body is the ratio of
a. shear stress to the product of velocity head and density
b. shear force to the product of velocity head and density
c. average drag per unit projected area to the product of the velocity head and density
d. none of these
5. Stokes law is valid when the particle Reynolds number is
a. <1
c. >1
b. <5
d. none of these
6. Drag coefficient CD is given by (in Stokes law range)
16
24
a. CD
c. CD
Re p
Re p
18.4
0.079
b. CD
d. CD
Re p
Re p 0.23
7. At low Reynolds number

a. viscous forces are unimportant
b. viscous forces control
c. viscous forces control and inertial forces are unimportant
d. gravity forces control
8. At high Reynolds number
a. inertial forces control and viscous forces are unimportant
b. viscous forces predominate
c. inertial forces are unimportant and viscous forces control
d. none of these
9. Forces acting on a particle settling in fluid are
a. gravitational and buoyant forces
b. centrifugal and drag forces
c. gravitational or centrifugal, buoyant and drag forces
d. external, drag and viscous forces
10. Terminal velocity is
a. constant velocity with no acceleration
b. a fluctuating velocity
c. attained after moving one-half of total distance
d. none of these
11. In hindered settling, particles are
a. placed farther from the wall
b. not affected by other particles and the wall
c. near each other

d. none of these
12. Drag coefficient in hindered settling is

a. less than in free settling
b. equal to that in free settling
c. not necessarily quarter than in free settling
d. greater than in free settling
13. For the free settling of a spherical particle through a fluid, the slope of C D vs log NRe plot is
a. 1
c. 1
b. 0.5
d. 0.5
14. The terminal velocity of a small sphere settling in a viscous fluid varies as the
a. first power of its diameter
b. inverse of the fluid viscosity
c. inverse square of the diameter
d. square of the difference in specific weights of solid and fluid
15. Buoyant force
a. for non symmetrical bodies is not vertical
b. depends on the depth of the submergence of the floating body
c. depends on the weight of the floating body
d. none of these
16. Center of pressure in an immersed body is _______ the center of gravity
a. above
b. below
c. at
d. either above or below; depends on the liquid density
17. The line of action of the buoyant force passes through the center of gravity of the
a. submerged body
b. displaced volume of the fluid
c. volume of fluid vertically above the body
d. horizontal projection of the body
18. Drag is the force component exerted on an immersed object
a. passing the centroid of the body at 60 to the direction of motion
b. the component being parallel to the flow direction
c. the component being normal to the flow direction
d. none of these
19. Sphericity of raschig ring (whose length and diameter are equal) is
a. >1
c. <2
b. 1
d. 2
20. Sphericity of pulverized coal is
a. 1
b. >1
c. <1
d.
21. Sedimentation on commercial scale occurs in

a. classifiers
c. thickeners
b. rotary drum filters
d. cyclones
22. For non spherical particle, the sphericity
a. is defined as the ratio of surface area of a sphere having the same volume as the
particle to the actual surface area of the particle
b. has a dimension of length
c. is always less than 1
d. is the ratio of volume of a sphere having the same surface area as the particle to the actual
volume of the particle
23. Sphericity of a cubical particle when its equivalent diameter is taken as the height of the tube
is
a.0.5
c. 2
b.1
d. 3
24. For raschig rings, the sphericity is
a. 0.5
b. 1
c. < 1
d. 3
25. Sphericity for a non-spherical particle is given by
a.
b.
6V
DS
V
6 DS
DS
V
V
d.
DS
c.
where: V and S are volume and surface area respectively of one particle
D = equivalent diameter of particles
SIZE REDUCTION
1. Shape factor for a cylinder whose length equals its diameter is
a. 1.5
b. 0.5
c. 1
d. 0
2. Equivalent diameter of a particle is the diameter of the sphere having the same
a. ratio of surface to volume as the actual volume
b. ratio of volume to surface as the particle
c. volume as the particle
d. none of these
3. For coarse reduction of hard solids, use
a. impact
b. attrition
c. compression
4. Soft and non abrasive materials can be made into fines by

a. attrition
b. compression
c. cutting
d. cutting
d. none of these
5. Crushing efficiency is the ratio of

a. surface energy created by the crushing to the energy absorbed by the solid
b. the energy absorbed by the solid to that fed to the machine
c. the energy fed to the machine to the surface energy created by the crushing
d. the energy absorbed by the solid to the surface energy created by the crushing.
6. Rittingers crushing law states that
a. work required to form a particle of any size is proportional to the square of the surface to
volume ratio of the product.
b. work required to form a particle of a particular size is proportional to the square root of
the surface to volume ratio of the product
c. work required in crushing is proportional to the new surface created
d. for a given machine and feed, crushing efficiency is dependent on the sizes of feed and
product
7. Bond crushing law
a. calls for relatively less energy for the smaller product particle than does the
Rittinger law
b. is less realistic in estimating the power requirements of commercial crushes
c. states that the work required to form particle of any size from very large feed is
proportional to the square root of the volume to surface ratio of the product
d. states that the work required for the crushing is proportion
8. Work index is defined as the

a. gross energy (Kwh/ton of feed) needed to reduce very large feed to such a size that
80% of the product passes a 100 micron screen
b. energy needed to crush one ton of feed to 200 microns
c. energy (Kwh/ton of feed) needed to crush small feed to such a size that 80% of product
passes a 200 mesh screen
d. energy needed to crush one ton of feed to 100 microns
9. The operating speed of a ball mill should be
a. less than the critical speed
b. much more than the critical speed
10. A fluid energy mill is used for
a. cutting
b. grinding
c. at least equal to the critical speed

d. none of these
c. ultragrinding
d. crushing
11. Wet grinding in a revolving mill

a. gives less wear on chamber walls than dry grinding
b. requires more energy than for dry grinding
c. increases capacity compared to dry grinding
d. complicates handling of the product compared to dry grinding
12. Cement clinker is reduced to fine size
a. Roll crusher
c. Tube mill
b. Ball mill
d. Hammer mill
13. For the preliminary breaking of hard rock, we use
a. gyratory crusher
c. Tube mill
b. Ball mill
d. Squirrel-cage disintegrator
14. Fibrous material is broken by
a. Roll crusher
b. Squirrel-cage disintegrator
c. Ball mill
d. none of these
15. As the product becomes finer, the energy required for grinding
a. decreases
c. is same as for coarser grinding
b. increases
d. is 1.5 times than for coarser grinding
16. Ultrafine grinders operate principally by

a. slow compression
c. attrition
b. impact
d. cutting action
17. The energy consumed by a ball mill depends on
a. its speed
c. the density of the material being ground
b. its ball load
d. all a, b and c
18. Grinding efficiency of a ball mill is of the order of
a. 1 5%
c. 75 80%
b. 40 50%
d. 90 95%
19. In case of a revolving mill, wet grinding compared to dry grinding

a. requires more energy
c. complicates handling and classification of the product
b. has less capacity
d. none of these
20. Choke crushing (in case of a jaw crusher) compared to free crushing
a. results in increased capacity
c. consumes more power
b. consumes less power
d. both a and c
21. For efficient grinding, ball mills, must be operated
a. at a speed less than critical speed
c. at a speed equal to critical speed
b. at a speed more than critical speed
d. with minimum possible small balls
22. To get ultra fine particles, the equipment used is
a. ball mill
c. hammer crusher
b. rod mill
d. fluid energy mill
23. The material is crushed in a gyratory crusher by the action of
a. impact
c. compression
b. attrition
d. cutting
24. To get fine talc powder from its granules, the equipment used is
a. roller crusher
c. jaw crusher
b. ball mill
d. gyratory crusher
25. Ball mill is used for
a. crushing
b. coarse grinding
c. fine grinding
d. attrition
26. The main differentiation factor between tube mill and ball mill is the
a. length to diameter ratio
c. final product size
b. size of the grinding media
d. operating speed
27. Kicks law relates to
a. energy consumption
b. final particle size
c. feed size
d. none of these
28. Fluid energy mill comes in the category of

a. Grinder
b. crusher
c. cutting machine
d. ultrafine grinder
29. Which of the following gives the crushing energy required to create new surface?
a. Taggarts rule
c. Rittingers law
b. Ficks Law
d. none of these
30. Size reduction mechanism used in Jaw crushers is
a. attrition
c. cutting
b. compression
d. impact
31. Feed size of 25 cm can be accepted by

a. ball mill
b. rod mill
c. fluid energy mill

d. jaw crusher
32. Maximum size reduction in a ball mill is done by

a. attrition
c. impact
b. compression
d. cutting
33. The main size reduction operation in ultra fine grinders is
a. cutting
c. compression
b. attrition
d. impact
34. The reduction ratio for grinders is defined as
a. Df/Dp
c. Df Dp
b. Dp/Df
d. Dp Df
35. The reduction ratio for fine grinders is
a. 5 10
b. 20 40
c. 10 20
d. as high as 100
36. Maximum size reduction in a fluid energy mill is achieved by

a. compression
c. cutting
b. interparticle attrition
d. impact
37. Pick out the material having minimum Rittingers number
a. calcite
c. quartz
b. pyrite
d. galena
38. Pick out the material having maximum Rittingers number
a. Calcite
c. quartz
b. pyrite
d. galena
39. Crushing efficiency of a machine ranges between
a. 0.1 to 2 %
c. 20 to 25 %
b. 5 to 10 %
d. 50 to 70 %
40. According to Bond crushing law, the work required to form particle of size D from very
large feed is
a. S / V p
c. S / V p
b.
S /V p
2
when S / V p and
respectively
d.
S /V f
S /V f
are surface to volume ratio of the product and feed
PROCESS EQUIPMENT DESIGN

1. Vertical valves are not supported by
a. brackets
b. skirts
c. column
d. saddles
2. Bracket supports are most suitable for
a. thick walled vertical vessels
b. horizontal vessels
c. thin spherical vessel (e.g. Hortonsphere) d. none of these
3. Skirt support is most suitable for
a. small horizontal vessels
b. large horizontal vessels
c. tall vertical vessels
d. thick walled small vertical vessels
4. Saddle supports are used for supporting
a. horizontal cylindrical vessels
b. tall vertical vessels
c. thick walled vertical vessels
d. thick spherical vessels
5. Wind load consideration in the design of a support can be neglected when the vessel is
a. tall (say 30 meters) but is full of liquid b. tall but empty
c. short (<2 m) and housed indoor
d. none of these
6. Leg support is meant for
a. large horizontal cylindrical vessels
b. tall but empty vessels
c. small vessels
d. thick walled tall vessels
7. The force due to wind load acting on a tall vessels depends upon its
a. shape
b. outside diameter
c. height
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
8. Joint efficiency for a seamless pipe is
a. 1
b. 0.85
c.1.2
d. 0.5
9. In the design of a paddle agitator the ratio paddle diameter to tank diameter is normally
taken as:
a.0.1
b. 0.8
c.0.25
d. 0.5
10. The ratio propeller agitator diameter to tank diameter is normally taken as
a. 0.15-0.30
b. 0.5-0.65
c. 0.75-0.85
d. 0.60-0.90
11. Baffle width is normally taken as
a. 0.1-0.12 tank diameter
b. 0.4-0.5 tank diameter
c. 0.45-0.6 tank diameter
d. 0.2-0.45 tank diameter
12. The minimum baffle height should be
a. equal to the impeller diameter
b. twice the impeller diameter
c. twice the diameter
d. 3/4 of the tank height
13. Baffles may be eliminated for
a. low viscosity liquids (<200 poise)
b. high viscosity (>600 poise)
c. large diameter tank
d. none of these
14. Power required for agitation depends upon the
a. height and properties of the liquid
b. agitator type and speed of agitation
c. size of agitator and the tank
15. The retention time of material in rotary dryer depends upon
a. its rpm
b. its slope and length
c. the arrangement of flights
16. Filtration rate is affected by
a. pressure drop across the cake and filter medium
b. cake and filter medium resistance
c. area of filtering surface and viscosity of filtrate
17. Rate of filtrate delivery is inversely proportional to the
a. filtering the area and the pressure difference driving force
b. viscosity of filtrate
c. cake and filter medium resistance
d. both (b) and (c)
18. In the case of a shell and the tube heat exchanger, the logarithmic mean temperature
difference
a. is always less than arithmetic average value
b. is always more than arithmetic mean value but more than geometric mean value
c. is always less than arithmetic mean value but more than geometric mean value
d. may be either more or less than geometric mean and arithmetic mean value
depending upon whether the flow of stream is co-current or counter-current
19. In a double pipe (concentric) heat exchanger, the hydraulic radius for heat transfer
(for a fluid flowing through the annulus) would be
a. same as that for fluid flow
b. less than that for fluid flow
c. more than that for fluid flow
d. D2 - D1 (D1 and D2 are I.D. of inner and outer pipes respectively)
20. Fouling factor must be included in the calculation of over all design heat transfer coefficient when the liquid
a. containing suspended solids flows at low velocity
b. containing suspended solids flows at high velocity
c. is highly viscous
d. is of high specific gravity
21. The value of fouling factor depends upon the
a. characteristics of process fluid
b. velocity process fluid containing suspended solids
c. suspended solids in the fluid
22. Floating head heat exchangers are used for
a. heat transfer between corrosive fluids
b. cases where temperature difference between the shell and the tubes is more
(>50 C)
c. co-current heat transfer systems
d. counter-current heat transfer systems
23. In a shell and tube heat exchanger, shortest center to center distance between adjacent
tubes is
a. called tube pitch
b. called tube clearance
c. always less than the diameter of the tube

d. none of these
24. Shortest distance between two tubes is
a. called tube pitch
b. called tube clearance
c. more in case of triangular pitch as compared to square pitch of tube layout
d. none of these
25. In most of the shell and tube heat exchanger, the tube pitch is generally
a. less than the diameter of the tube
b. 1.25 -1.50 times the tube diameter
c. 2.5 times the tube diameter
d. one-fourth of the tube diameter
26. Triangular pitch tube layout as compared to square pitch in a shell and tube heat
exchanger
a. permits the use of less tubes in given shell diameter
b. facilitates comparatively easier external cleaning because of larger clearance
c. permits the use of more tubes in a given shell diameter
d. both (b) and (c)
27. Twenty five percent cut segmental baffle means that the baffle
a. height is 75% of the I.D. of the shell b. height is 25% of the I.D. of the shell
c. spacing is 75% of its height
d. width is 25% of its height
28. In shell and tube heat exchangers, straight tie rods are used to
a. hold baffle in space
b. fix the tubes in position
c. account for thermal strain
d. none of these
29. Baffle spacing is generally
a. more than the I.D. of the shell
b. not greater than the I.D. of the shell
c. not less than one fifth of the I.D. of the shell
d. both (b) and (c)
30. Which of the following is the most common baffle used in industrial shell and tube
heat exchange?
a. 75% cut segmental baffle
b. 25% cut segmental baffle
c. orifice baffle
d. disk and doughnut baffle
31. In a shell and tube heat exchanger for given heat transfer surface area, smaller
diameter tubes are favored as compared to larger diameter ones because smaller
diameter tubes.
a. are easier to clean
b. are less prone to fouling
c. can be fitted into a smaller shell diameter hence the cost of the heat exchanger
would be less
d. none of these
32. High pressure fluid in a shell and tube heat exchanger should preferably be routed
through the
a. tubes to avoid the expense of high pressure shell construction

b. shell side for smaller total pressure drop
c. shell side if the flow is counter-current and tube side if the flow is co-current
d. shell side for larger overall heat transfer co-efficient
33. When one of the fluids is highly corrosive and has fouling tendency, it should
a. preferably flow inside the tube for its easier internal cleaning
b. preferably flow outside the tube
c. flow at very slow velocity
d. flow outside the tube when the flow is counter-current and inside the tube when the
flow is co-current
34. In a shell and tube heat exchanger, the clearance of the tube is generally
a. not less than one-fourth of the tube diameter or 3/16
b. more than the tube diameter
c. equal to the tube diameter
d. more in case of triangular pitch as compared to the square pitch tube layout.
35.For a given fluid as the pipe diameter increases, the pumping cost
a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains unaffected
d. may increase or decrease depending upon whether the fluid is Newtonian or nonNewtonian
36. Optimum economic pipe diameter for fluid flow is determined by the
a. viscosity of the fluid
b. density of the fluid
c. total cost considerations (pumping cost plus fixed cost of the pipe)
d. none of these.
37. Friction factor turbulent flow in new pipe is given by
a. f = 16/NRE
b. f = 0.04/(NRE)0.16 c. f = 0.22NRE0.5 d. f = 25/NRE
38. In case of continuous distillation column, increase in the reflux ratio may result
a. lower fixed charges for the column
b. greater cost for the reboiler heat supply
c. greater cost for the condenser coolant
39. Optimum reflux ratio in a continuous distillation column is determined by the

a. maximum permissible vapor velocity
b. flooding limit of the column
c. total cost consideration (fixed cost of the column plus the cooling water and
steam cost)
d. none of these
40. Pressure drop due to pipe fittings can be estimated by
p/ = 4f (Le/D) (V2/2gc)
where Le = equivalent length of straight pipeline which will incur the same frictional
loss as the fitting and D = diameter of the fitting. The value of Le /D (dimensionless)
for 45 elbow and 180 close return bends would be respectively around
a. 5 and 10
b. 45 and 75
c. 180 and 300
d. 300 and 500
41. Le/D for 90 elbow (medium radius) and 90 square elbow would be respectively
around
a. 25 and 60
b. 3 and 5
c. 100 and 250
d. 250 and 600
42. Le/D for a Tee (used as elbow, entering run) would be around
a.5
b. 60
c. 200
d. 350
43. Le/D for a Tee (used as elbow, entering branch) would be
a. less than that for Tee (used as elbow, entering run)
b. more than that for Tee (used as elbow, entering run)
c. around 90
d. both (b) and (c)
44. Le/D for couplings and unions would be
a. 60
b. 200
c. 350
d. negligible
45. Le/D for fully open gate valves would be
a. much more than that for fully open globe valve
b. much less (say 2% than that for fully open globe valve)
c. around 7
d. both (b) and (c)
46. Le/D for fully open globe valve may be around
a. 10
b. 25
c. 75
d. 300
47. For turbulent flow (NRe>2100) of low viscosity fluid (<20 cp) in steel pipes, the
optimum inside pipe diameter is given by
0.13
c. Diopt 4.7 q f
d. Diopt 3 q f
a.
Diopt 3.9 q f
0.45
a.
Diopt 3.9 q f
0.45
where q f =
=
c =
Diopt
0.95
0.49
0.36
0.14
0.18
fluid flow rate, ft3/sec

fluid density, lb/ft3
fluid viscosity, centipoise
= optimum inside pipe diameter, inches
48. For laminar flow (NRe < 2100) in steel pipe, the optimum inside pipe diameter is
given by
a.
Diopt 3.6 q f
a.
Diopt 3 q f
0.45
0.18
0.36
0.28
c.
Diopt q f
d. Diopt q f
0.487
0.364
0.025
0.182
49. The necessary wall thickness for a metallic storage vessel is a function of the
a. ultimate tensile strength (or yield point) of the material and operating temperature
b. operating pressure and welding / joint efficiency
c. diameter of the vessel

50. Bubble cap plate column is
a. a finite stage contactor
b. used only for distillation, not for absorption
c. a differential stage contactor
d. a continuous contactor
51. The most common standard size of bubble caps used in industrial operation is
a. 1" diameter cap with 0.5" diameter riser
b. 6" diameter cap with 4" diameter riser
c. 8" diameter cap with 1" diameter riser
d. 4" diameter cap with 8" diameter riser
52. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to the design of the distillation column
a. Generally, a skirt clearance of 0.5 to 1.5 is recommended to prevent plugging of the
slots by residue build up.
b. The purpose of the slot is to disperse the gas into the liquid in the form of small
bubbles.
c. If sufficient slot area is not provided, the gas may pass through the skirt clearance
d. none of these
53. For a given design of bubble cap, the number of bubble caps to be used per tray is set
by the
a. allowable gas velocity through the slots
b. plate spacing
c. diameter of the column
54. Maximum and minimum linear slot velocities (in the distillation column design) as
recommended by Davies are respectively
a. 12/ 0.5 and 3.4/ 0.5
b.3.4/ 0.5 and 12/ 0.5
c. 3.4/ 0.5 and 12/ 0.5
d. 3.4/ 0.5 and 12/ 0.5
55. Normally, the ratio of the total riser area to the tower cross sectional area (for bubble
cap towers of diameter more than 3 ft) is around
a. 0.4 - 0.6
b. 0.35 - 0.75
c. 0.1 - 0.2
d. 0.55 - 0.85
56. An adequate clearance between the tray and the shell wall of a distillation column is
provided to
a. drain the liquid from the tray when the unit is not in operation.
b. allow for thermal expansion and facilitate installation
c. avoid back-trapping
d. none of these
57. The function of manholes provided in the shell of a distillation column is to
a.
keep a check on the liquid gradient over the plate by direct
visual observation
b.
give access to the individual trays for cleaning,
maintenance and installation
c.
guard against foaming and entrainment by dumping antiforming agent through it.
d.
all (a), (b) and (c)
58. Weep holes provided in the plates of a distillation column
a. facilitate draining out liquid from a tray when the unit is not in operation
b. are normally located near the overflow weir so that any delivery of liquid during
operation follow approximately the same path as the overflow fluid
c. must be large enough (usually 1/4 inch to 5/8 inch diameter) to prevent plugging
but should not deliver excessive amount of fluid during operation
d. all (a), (b) and (c).
59 59. Excessive liquid gradient on a tray may result in
a. maldistribution of gas
b. back trapping
c. gas blowing beneath cap skirt
60. The maximum liquid gradient over a tray must not exceed
a. 0.5" - 1.25"
b. 2"-3.5"
c. 5"
d. half the tray spacing
61. Liquid gradient over the tray results due to
a. the resistance offered to flow of liquids by caps and risers and the flow of gas.
b. low gas velocity
c. large plate spacing
d. large reflux ratio
62. Liquid gradient over a tray can be minimized by
a. providing a higher skirt clearance or a higher weir
b. decreasing the number of rows of caps through which the liquid flows or by
decreasing the
velocity of liquid flow past the caps or by reducing the distance along the tray
through which the
liquid must flow.
c. using split flow, radial flow or cascade flow for column diameter larger than 4 ft.
d. all (a), (b) and (c).
63. Which of the following factors determine the amount of entrainment in a distillation
column?
a.plate spacing
b.depth of liquid above the bubble cap slots
c.vapor velocity in the volume between the plates
64. Larger depth of liquid on the trays of a distillation column
a.lead to high tray efficiency
b.results in higher pressure drop per tray
c.both (a) and (b)
d.neither (a) nor (b)
65. The minimum tray spacing in distillation column of diameter than 3 ft is normally
a. 6"
b. 18"
c. 24"
d. 34"
66. The minimum plate spacing in most of the petroleum refinery distillation columns (of
diameter 73 ft)
is normally
a. 6"
b. 12"
c. 18"
d. 34"
67. Back-trapping in a distillation column results due to

a. low gas velocity
b. high gas velocity
c. excessive liquid gradient over the tray
d. low reflux ratio
68. A calming section below the liquid flows into the downcomer is provided to
a. permit release of entrained vapor in the liquid
b. reduce the discharge fluctuation
c. ensure better vapor liquid contract
d. cool the liquid before it flows down.
69. The length of straight rectangular weir used on cross-flow trays is generally
a. 0.6 - 0.8 times the column diameter
b. equal to the column diameter
c. twice the column diameter
d. 2 ft irrespective of column diameter (for column 73 ft diameter)
a. If sufficient residence time (around 8 seconds) is not provided to the downcoming
liquid in the downcomer, it may entrain some vapor.
b.The liquid head in the downcomer should not be greater than one half the plate
spacing to avoid flooding.
c. The discharge end of the downcomer must project far enough into the tray liquid so
that no gas bubbles can enter the open end and bypass the bubble caps.
d.none of these
INSTRUMENTATION AND PROCESS CONTROL

1. What is the Laplace transform of sin t ?
(a) __1__
(b) __s_____
s + 1
1 + s
(c) __1
(d) __s_____
s - 1
s - 1
2. The transfer function of the first order system is
(a) __1
(b) _1_
Ts + 1
Ts
(c) ___s__
(d) 1/s
Ts + 1
3. Pick out the first order system from among the following
(a) damped vibrator
(b) mercury in glass thermometer kept in boiling water
(c) interacting system of two tanks in series
(d) non-interacting system of two tanks in series
4. Response of a system to a sinusoidal input called
(a) impulse response
(b) unit step response
(c) frequency response
(d) step response
5. What is the ratio of output amplitude to input amplitude for a sinusoidal forcing
function in a first order system ?
(a) 1
(b) > 1
(c) < 1
(d) none of these
6. Phase lag of the sinusoidal response of a first order system is
(a) 120
(b) 30
(c) 180
(d) 90
7. Conversion formula for converting amplitude ratio (AR) into decibels is
(a) Decibel=20 log10 (AR)
(b) Decibel=20 log e(AR)
(c) Decibel=20 log10 (AR)0.5
(d) Decibel = log10 (AR)
8. A control system is unstable if the open loop frequency response exhibits an
amplitude ratio exceeding unity at the cross-over frequency. This is
(a) Bode stability criterion
(b) Nyquist criterion
(c) Routh stability criterion
(d) both b and c
9. Typical specifications for design stipulates the gain margin and phase margin to be
respectively
(a) > 1.7 and > 30
(b) < 1.7 and > 30
(c) < 1.7 and < 30
(d) >1.7 and < 30
10. The frequency at which maximum amplitude ratio is attained is called
(a) corner frequency
(b) resonant frequency
(c) cross-over frequency
(d) natural frequency
11. A negative gain margin expressed in decibels means
(a) a stable system
(b) unstable system
(c) critically damped system
(d) both a and c
12. Bode diagram is a plot of
(a) log (AR) vs. log (f) and vs. log (f)
(b) log (AR) vs. f and log vs. f
(c) AR vs.log (f) and vs. log (f)
(d) log (AR) vs. log f
13. For measuring the temperature of a furnace, which is the most suitable instrument?
(a) Platinum resistance thermometer (b) Thermocouple
(c) Optical pyrometer
(d) Bimetallic thermometer
14. Degree to which an instrument indicates the changes in measured variable without
dynamic error is called
(a) speed of response
(b) reproducibility of instrument
(c) fidelity
(d) its static characteristics
15. Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of an instrument?
(a) high drift
(b) high fidelity
(c) high temperature lag
(d) poor reproducibility
16. Which of the following shows maximum dip affect (indicating reverse direction of
temperature change)?
(a) mercury thermometer
(b) radiation pyrometer
(c) bimetallic thermometer
(d) thermocouple
17. Pick out the most suitable instrument for measuring temperature in the range of -40
to 800F.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
(a) mercury thermometer

(b) bimetallic thermometer
(c) radiation pyrometer
(d) radiation pyrometer
Thermocouple is suitable for measuring
(a) liquid temperatures only
(b) very high temperatures only
(c) very low temperatures only
(d) both high and low temperatures
Which of the following relates the absorption and evolution of heat at the junctions
of a thermocouple to the current flow in the circuit?
(a) Seebeck effect
(b) Peltier effect
(c) Joule heating effect
(d) Thomson effect
Thermal wells are used in temperature measurement to
(a) guard against corrosive and oxidizing action on thermocouple materials
(b) reduce measuring lag
(c) increase the fidelity
(d) increase the sensitivity
Gas analysis is commonly done using
(a) thermal conductivity cell
(b) X-ray diffraction
(c) mass spectrometer
(d) emission spectrometer
Psychrometer determines
(a) humidity of gases
(b) moisture content of solids
(c) water of crystallization
(d) hygroscopic nature of solids
Continuous measurement of moisture content of paper in paper industry is done by
measuring
(a) thermal conductivity through the paper
(b) electrical resistance through the paper
(c) magnetic susceptibility
(d) both b and c
Optimal activity of a solution can be determined using a
(a) polarimeter
(b) polarograph
(c) dilatometer
(d) refractometer
A simple pitot tube measures
(a) average velocity
(b) maximum velocity
(c) point velocity
(d) static pressure
Pirani gauge is used for
(a) measurement of very high pressure (b) measurement of high vacuum
(c) liquid level under pressure
(d) liquid level at atmospheric pressure
A barometer measures
(a) absolute pressure
(b) gauge pressure
(c) both absolute and gauge pressure (d) dynamic pressure
28. The level of a liquid under pressure can be determined using

(a) bubbler system
(b) differential pressure manometer
(c) diaphragm box system
(d) air-trap system
29. Continuous measurement of specific gravity of a liquid is done by
(a) hydrometer
(b) contact-type electric indicators
(c) displacement meter
(d) both a and c
30. Hot wire anemometer is used for the measurement of

(a) flow rates of fluid
(b) flow rates of granular solids
(c) very high temperature
(d) thermal conductivity of gases
31. Flow rate through an orifice is
(a) proportional to the pressure differential
(b) inversely proportional to the square root of pressure differential
(c) proportional to the square root of pressure differential
(d) inversely proportional to the square root of pressure differential
32. Which of the following flow-metering instruments is an area meter?
(a) venturi meter
(b) rotameter
(c) pitot tube
(d) hot wire anemometer
33. Continuous measurement of flow rates of dry granular fertilizer is done using
(a) velocity meters
(b) area-meters
(c) weighing meters
(d) anemometer
34. Pick out the symbol for locally mounted instrument in instrumentation diagram
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
_
35. Which is the symbol for_ pneumatic control valve
(a)
(b) _
(c)
(d) none of these
_
_
_
36. The symbol for capillary line in instrumentation diagram is
(a) ___ ___ _ ___ _ ___
(b)
(c) _________________
(d)
37. Instrumentation in a plant offers the advantage of

(a) greater safety of operation
(b) better quality of product
(c) greater operation economy
(d) all a, b and c
38. Dilatometer is used to measure
(a) stress
(b) strain
(c) deflection
(d) contraction/expansion due to changes
in temperature
39. Stalagmometer is used for the measurement of
(a) kinematic viscosity
(b) surface tension
(c) refractive index
(d) optical activity
40. Stroboscope is used for the measurement of
(a) rpm of a flywheel
(b) frequency of light
(c) depression of freezing point
(d) liquid level under pressure
41. Minute depression of freezing point of a liquid solvent or addition of a solid solute
can be best measured by
(a) Beckman thermometer
(b) dilatometer
(c) mercury thermometer
(d) bimetallic thermometer
42. Gain margin is equal to the
(a) amplitude ratio
(b) reciprocal of amplitude ratio
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
(c) gain in P controller

(d) gain in P-I controller
Phase margin is equal to
(a) 180 - phase lag
(b) phase lag - 180
(c) phase lag + 180
(d) phase lag - 90
A system with a transfer function __2s _ is of
4s + 1
(a) zero order
(b) 1st order
(c) 2nd order
(d) 3rd order
Bode stability method uses
(a) open loop transfer function
(b) closed loop transfer function
(c) either a or b
(d) neither a nor b
Routh stability method uses
(a) open loop transfer function
(b) closed loop transfer function
(c) either a or b
(d) neither a nor b
Nichels chart deals with
(a) A.R. vs. phase lag of first order
(b) A.R. vs. phase lag of second order
(c) closed loop values vs. open loop value
(d) frequency response values of controllers
The fluid used in hydraulic controller is
(a) water
(b) steam
(c) air
(d) oil
Number of poles in a system with transfer function ________1______ is
s + 2s + 1
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 1
Which of the following controllers has maximum offset?
(a) P-controller
(b) P-I controller
(c) P-D controller
(d) P-I-D controller
Process degrees of freedom
(a) indicates the maximum number of controller to be used
(b) indicates the minimum number of controller to be used
(c) determines both maximum and minimum number of controllers to be used
(d) gives no idea of controllers
Resistance of a gas in a vessel is
(a) __V__
(b) nRT
nRT
V
(c) nRT
(d) __P_
P
nRT
Where: P =pressure
V= volume of the vessel
n= number of moles of the gas R= gas constant
52. In an exothermic chemical reactor, the manipulated variable is the flow rate of
(a) coolant
(b) reactant
(c) product
(d) hot fluid
53. Use of I-control along with P-control facilitates
(a) elimination of offset

(b) reduction of offset
(c) reduction of stability time
(d) both b and c
54. Which of the following error integral is considered as the best criterion in controller
settings?
(a) | e | dt
(b) | e | dt
0
(c)
e dt
(d) both a and b
55. Cascade control means

(a) feed forward control
(b) more than one feed-back loop
(c) on-off control
(d) one feed-back loop
56. Which of the following controllers has the least maximum deviation?
(a) P-controller
(b) P-I controller
(c) P-I-D controller
(d) P-D controller
57. Measurement of pressure in ammonia reactor is done by
(a) Bourdon gauge
(b) U-tube manometer
(c) Inclined tube manometer
(d) Pirani gauge
58. Pressure of 0.01 psi (absolute) can be measured by
(a) Ionization gauge
(b) Pirani gauge
(c) Mcleoid gauge
(d) Bourdon gauge
59. Continuous measurement of moisture in paper is done by
(a) sling psychrometer
(b) hair-hygrometer
(c) weighing
(d) high resistance, Wheatstones bridge circuit
60. Pressure of 0.0001 absolute psi can be measured by
(a) Meloid gauge
(b) Pirani gauge
(c) Thermocouple gauge
(d) Bourdon gauge
61. E.m.f. generated by thermocouples is of the order of
(a) millivolts
(b) microvolts
(c) volts
(d) bi-metallic thermometer
62. Measurement of sub-zero Celsius temperature in industry is done by
(a) thermocouples
(b) resistance thermometers
(c) gas thermometer
(d) bi-metallic thermometer
63. Starting temperature of optical radiation pyrometer is
(a) 800C
(b) 400C
(c) 1200C
(d) 1500C
64. Which thermocouple can be used to measure temperature around 1400C?
(a) copper-constantan
(b) aluminum-chromel
(c) platinum-platinum+rhodium
(d) copper-aluminum
65. pH meter has
(a) one cell
(b) two cells
(c) three cells
(d) no cell
66. Maximum differential pressure in liquid manometer is
(a) 20 psi
(b) 30 psi
(c) 40 psi
(d) 50 psi
67. Interfacial level in pressure vessel is measured by

(a) float
(b) manometers of float type
(c) U-tube manometer
(d) Bourdon gauge
68. Flow rate of sludge is measured by
(a) V-notch
(b) rectangular notch
(c) circular pipe
(d) Kennison nozzle
69. Composition of natural gas can be determined by
(a) chromatograph
(b) orsat apparatus
(c) spectrometer
(d) photometer
70. Bellows are made of
(a) leather
(b) paper
(c) plastic
(d) thin copper
71. Flapper nozzle is a
(a) pneumatic controller
(b) hydraulic controller
(c) electronic controller
(d) both a and b
72. Weir valve is used for
(a) slurries
(b) acids
(c) neutral solutions
(d) bases
73. Valve used to supply oil to burner is
(a) gate valve
(b) butterfly valve
(c) rotary plug valve
(d) both a and b
74. Mode used for transmitting signal for one kilometer distance is
(a) hydraulic
(b) pneumatic
(c) electronic
(d) all a, b and c
75. Use of pilot in transmission (pneumatic) is to
(a) speed up signal
(b) change the flow of air
(c) adjust the signal
(d) all a, b and c
76. Final control element is a
(a) valve
(b) switch
(c) signal
(d) both a and b
77. Example of a second order instrument is a
(a) mercury-glass thermometer with covering
(b) bare mercury-glass thermometer
(c) pressure gauge
(d) Bourdon gauge
78. Offset
(a) varies with time
(b) varies exponentially with time
(c) does not vary with time
(d) varies as square of the time
79. Regulator problem means that
(a) set point is constant
(c) both set point and load are constant
80. Servo problem means that
(a) set point is constant
(b) load is constant

(d) neither set point nor load is
constant
(b) load is constant
(c) both a and b

(d) neither a nor b
81. Critically damped system means that the damping coefficient is
(a) 1
(b) < 1
(c) > 1
(d) 0
82. In Bode stability criterion, amplitude ratio at 180 should be
(a) 1
(b) < 1
(c) > 1
(d) 0
83. Phase plane method is used for
(a) linear-behavior
(b) non-linear behavior
(c) both a and b
(d) neither a nor b
84. Laplace transform method is used for
(a) linear behavior
(b) non-linear behavior
(c) both a and b
(d) neither a nor b
85. Phase lag of first order system is
(a) tan-1 (T)
(b) tan-1 (T)
(c) /2
(d) 0
86. P-I controller as compared to P-controller has a
(a) higher maximum deviation
(b) longer response time
(c) longer period of oscillation
(d) all a, b and c
87. Difference at any instant between the value of controlled variable and the set point is
called
(a) deviation
(b) derivative time
(c) error ratio
(d) differential gap
88. The time difference by which the output of a P-D controller leads the input when the
input changes linearly with time is called
(a) error ratio
(b) derivative time
(c) proportional sensitivity
(d) gain
89. Steady state deviation resulting from a change in the value of the load variable is
called
(a) offset
(b) error ratio
(c) deviation
(d) static ratio
90. Time required for the output of a first order system to change from a given value to
within 36.8% of the final value when a step change of input is made is called
(a) time constant
(b) settling time
(c) rise time
(d) derivative time
91. A controller action in which there is a continuous linear relation between value of
the controlled variable and rate of change of controlled output signal is called
(a) proportional action
(b) integral action
(c) derivative action
(d) proportional-integral action
92. A controller action in which there is a continuous relation between value of the
controlled variable and the value of the output signal of the controller is called
(a) proportional action
(b) derivative action
(c) integral action
(d) proportional-derivative action
93. Steady state ratio of the change of proportional controller output variable and the
change in actuating signal is called

(a) proportional sensitivity
(b) reset rate
(c) rangeability
(d) integral action
94. In case of flow measurement by an orifice, the pressure difference signal is
proportional to
(a) Q
(b) Q
(c) Q3
(d) 1 /Q
where Q= volumetric flow rate
95. Thermistor is a
(a) semiconductor whose resistance decreases with temperature rise
(b) metal whose resistance increases linearly with temperature rise
(c) metal whose resistance does not vary with temperature
(d) device for measuring nuclear radiation
96. Which of the following factors does not influence measurement accuracy?
(a) static and dynamic error
(b) reproducibility
(c) dead zone
(d) none of these
97. Which of the following is suitable for measuring the temperature of a red hot moving
object
(e.g. steel ingots on roller table) ?
(a) thermocouple
(b) radiation pyrometer
(c) thermistor
(d) radiograph
98. Thermocouples
(a) have very slow speed of response
(b) cant be connected to the measuring instrument remotely located
(c) need cold junction compensation
(d) are much less accurate compared to bimetallic or vapor pressure thermometer
99. Selection of material for thermocouple depends on the
(a) depth of immersion in the hot fluid
(b) minimum and maximum temperature
(c) pressure and velocity condition of the fluid whose temperature is to be
measured
(d) both a and b
100. Radiation pyrometers
(a) have very low speed of response
(b) need not see the temperature source; it is measuring
(c) cant measure temperature of objects without making physical contact
(d) none of these
101. V-notch is used to measure flow rate of a liquid in
(a) an open channel
(b) a non-circular cross-section closed channel
(c) vertical pipeline
(d) horizontal pipeline
102. Which of the following is not a head flowmeter?
(a) segmental orifice plate
(b) pitot tube
(c) rotameter
(d) flow nozzle
103. Flow rate of a liquid containing heavy solids (e.g. sand) can be best measured by
(a) pitot tube
(b) concentric orifice
(c) eccentric orifice
(d) rotameter
104. Orifice plates for flow measurement

(a) incurs very low permanent pressure loss
(b) has poor accuracy on high orifice ratios (above 0.75)
(c) cant be easily interchanged
(d) is best for very large liquid flows and big pipelines
105. Pitot tube is used
(a) for highly accurate flow measurement
(b) when the fluid contains lot of suspended material
(c) when the line is large and the velocity is high
(d) both a and c
106. In an area meter (e.g. rotameter), the flow rate is
a
(a) proportional to the square root of the differential pressure
(b) inferred from the change in area of an orifice in the flow line across which
the pressure differential is constant zero
(c) inferred from change in flow cross-section across which the pressure
differential is zero
(d) all a, b and c
107. A rotameter
(a) incurs constant and small permanent pressure drop
(b) incurs constant but very large permanent pressure drop
(c) is inaccurate for low flow rates
(d) need not be mounted always vertically
108. On-off control
(a) fully opens the final control element when the measured variable is below the
set point
(b) fully closes the final control element when the measured variable is above the
set point
(c) is a two position (fully open or fully closed) control adequate to control a
process with slow reaction rate and minimum dead time or transfer lag
(d) all a, b, and c
109. Floating control action
(a) moves the final control element at constant speed in either direction in
response to an error signal
(b) changes the position of the final control element from on to off
(c) is used to counteract rapid load changes
b
(d) both b and c
110. Cascade control is

(a) the continuous adjustment of the set point index of an automatic control loop by
a primary (master) controller
(b) used when changes in process conditions cause serious upsets in controlled
variable
(c) useful to control flow from temperature
(d) all a, b and c
MATERIALS OF CONSTRUCTION
1. Bog iron is used for adsorption of H2S from coke oven gas is
a. an intimate mixture of saw dust and iron dust (i.e. moist ferric hydroxide)
b. iron impregnated with resin (usually bakelite)
c. carbon free iron
d. none of these
2. Iron alloyed with carbon up to 2% is called
a. pig iron
b. wrought iron
c. high carbon steel
d. none of these
3. The softest material in Mhos scale (for measuring hardness) is
a. talc
b. gypsum
c. rubber
d. none of these
4. Karbate is
a. a mixture of iron dust and saw dust
b. carbon impregnated with resin (usually bakelite)
c. acid resistant material
d. both (b) and (c).
5. Duralumin is an alloy of
a. aluminum, copper and manganese
b .aluminum, nickel and silicon
c. aluminum and nickel
d. none of these
6. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by the addition of
a. phosphorus and tungsten
b. nickel and chromium
c. lead and vanadium
d. molybdenum and tungsten
7. White metal is an alloy of
a. lead, tin and cadmium
b. copper, tin and zinc
c. copper and lead
d. none of these
8. Presence of cobalt in steel improve its
a. cutting ability
b. corrosion resistance
c. tensile strength
d. none of these
9. The impure iron (Pig iron) that is taped out from blast furnace contains about
a. 0.2% carbon
b. 2% carbon
c. 4% carbon
d. 8% carbon
10. Carbon content in steel is
a. 0.1 2%
b. 4 6%
c. 5- 10%
d. 0
11. An ideal material of construction for the storage of 50% caustic soda solution
would be
a. Karbate
b. high silica cast iron
c. monel
d. none of these
12. For storing water and acid free benzol, use
a. steel vessel
b. karbate vessel
c. stainless steel vessel
d. none of these
13. Brine (15% concentration) can be stored in a vessel made of
a. monel
b. karbate
c. cast iron
d. none of these
14. Most suitable material of construction for the storage of concentrated nitric acid is
a. cast iron
b. monel
c. karbate
d. aluminum or chromium alloys (Cr > 18% for cold acid).
15. Babbit metal (used for making bearings) comprises
a. mainly tin (85%) and lead
b. saw dust and iron dust mixture
c. zinc and aluminum
d. copper and aluminum
16. The material of construction of pressure mills used for squeezing out the juice
from sugar cane is
a. stainless steel
b. cast iron
c. mild steel
d. monel.
17. Chlorination of benzene is done to produce benzene hexachloride (a pesticide) in
a photochemical reactor lined with
a. karbate
b. lead or glass
c. fire clay bricks
d. PVC
18. Polymerization reactor used for the production of styrenebutadiene rubber (SBR)
is made of
a. vessel
b. stainless steel or glass lined vessel
c. karbate
d. wrought iron
19. Which of the following is the most suitable material of construction for
evaporator and its tubes for concentrating NaOH solution to 70%?
a. cast iron
b. steel
c. nickel
d. karbate
20. Most common stainless steel type 316, which it highly resistant to corrosion
contains
a. 16 13% chromium, 10 14% nickel and 2 3% molybdenum
b. 20 22% chromium, and 8 10% nickel
c. 2 4% chromium, 22% nickel and 2 4% molybdenum
d. none of these
21. Caustic soda can be stored in
a. steel drums
b. cast iron drums
c. brass drums
d. gun metal drums
22. Brass is an alloy of
a. nickel and tin
b. copper and zinc
c. tin and lead
d. copper, nickel and zinc
23. The carbonating tower used in Solvay Process of soda ash manufacture is made of
a. cast iron
b. stainless steel
c. karbate
d. lead lined steel
24. Gun metal is an alloy of
a. nickel, tin and copper
b. copper, tin and zinc
c. copper, phosphorus and nickel
d. manganese, phosphorus and nickel
25. Marcy ball mills are usually made of
a. steel
b. cast iron
c. stainless steel
d. bronze
26. Bronze is an alloy of
a. lead and copper
b. copper and tin
c. nickel and copper
d. copper and zinc
27. Rotary kilns in cement industry are lined with
a. fire clay
b. silica
c. lead
d. high alumina and high magnesia bricks
28. In the Kraft (sulfate) process for the paper manufacture the digester is made of
a. cast iron
b. stainless steel
c. karbate carbon
d. wrought iron
29. Dry chlorine can be handled in a vessel made of
a. iron or steel
b. PVC
c. nickel
d. brass
30. Tank furnace used for melting of glass is made of
a. mild steel
b. cast iron
c. refractory blocks
d. stainless steel
31. Stainless steel contains
a. chromium and nickel
b. copper
c. aluminum
d. vanadium
32. Caustic soda is reduced in a mercury cell having anode and cathode made
respectively of
a. moving mercury and graphite
b. graphite and moving mercury
c. moving mercury and carbon
d. moving mercury and crimped steel wire
33. Monel metal is an alloy of
a. molybdenum and nickel
b. nickel and copper
c. molybdenum and aluminum
d. molybdenum and zinc
34. German silver is an alloy of
a. copper, nickel and zinc
b. copper, aluminum and silver
c. silver, zinc and aluminum
d. silver, nickel and zinc
35. Chromel (Nichrome) is an alloy of
a. chromium and molybdenum

b. nickel and chromium
c. molybdenum and nickel
d. chromium and aluminum
36. Urea autoclave is made of
a. cast iron
b. refractory blocks
c. stainless steel
d. lead lined steel
37. Steel tower used for storage of oleum
a. is lined with lead
b. need not be lined
c. is lined with rubber
d. is lined with acid-proof bricks
38. Hydrochloric acid is stored in
a. lead lined steel vessel
b. rubber-lined steel vessel
c. stainless steel vessel
d. cast iron vessel
39. Photographic plates are coated in
a. silver nitrate
b. silver halide
c. calcium silicate
d. metallic silver
40. Aqueous nitric acid is stored in
a. steel drum
b. stainless steel vessel
c. cast iron vessel lined with acid-proof masonry brick
d. cast iron vessel
41. SO3 is absorbed using H2SO4 in
a. cast iron packed tower
b. stainless steel plate tower
c. packed steel tower lined with acid proof bricks
d. none of these
42. Hydrochloric acid absorber is made of
a. cast iron
b. mild steel
c. karbate
d. stainless steel
43. Sulfuric acid is mixed with ground phosphate rock (to produce phosphoric acid)
in a steel digester lined with
a. acidic refractory
b. rubber
c. karbate
d. lead or acid-proof bricks
44. Fill up the blanks from among the following alternatives:
Hydrochloric acid is _______ corrosive to common metals
a. least
b. not
c. mildly
d. highly
45. In SO3 absorber (Contact Process), packing material used is of
a. cast iron
b. chemical stoneware
c. karbate
d. mild steel
46. Valves in pipe sizes of 2 and under are normally made of
a. wrought iron
b. brass
c. bronze
d. monel
47. Acid proof stoneware
a. has very low strength
b. cannot be heated
c. is broken by small temperature changes

48. Duriron is
a. acid resistant, brittle and very hard
b. high silicon iron
c. prone to breakage due to thermal expansion because of very high co-efficient of
thermal expansion.
49. Lead pipe is
a. especially resistant to solutions containing H2SO4
b. usually joined by burning (e.g. by melting to adjacent pieces with a torch)
c. having very low elastic limit resulting in permanent deformation from either
mechanical or thermal strain
50. The most resistant material to alkaline corrosion is
a. duriron
b. nickel
c. aluminum
d. karbate
51. Presence of nickel in steel improves its
a. corrosion resistance
b. cutting ability
c. wear resistance
52. An alloy of iron containing 4% carbon is called
a. high carbon steel
b. wrought iron
c. mild steel
d. none of these
53. Bell metal is an alloy of
a. copper and zinc
b. copper and tin
c. copper and nickel
d. zinc and tin
54. Inconel is an alloy of
a. tin, zinc and nickel
b. iron, nickel and chromium
c. copper and nickel
d. zinc and tin
55. Hastelloy comprises
a. copper and tin
b. copper and nickel
c. molybdenum and nickel
d. lead and tin
56. Ability of a material to absorb energy in deformation in the plastic range is
characterized as its
a. ductility
b. toughness
c. creep
d. resilience
57. Slow and progressive deformation of a material with time under constant stress is
called
a. creep
b. erosion
c. resilience
d. none of these
58. Wrought iron is
a. high carbon iron
b. highly resistance to acid corrosion
c .malleable and ductile; hence used for chain links, hooks and couplings
d. an alloy of iron, chromium and carbon
59. Which of the following constituents of cast iron is mainly responsible for
imparting it an anti-corrosive property?
a. silicon
b. phosphorus
c. sulfur
d. none of these
60. Mild steel is
a. a low carbon steel (0.05 0.3% carbon)
b. highly resistance to corrosion (as much as stainless steel)
c. a high carbon steel (0.5 1.5% carbon)
d. very poor in strength and ductility
61. Presence of manganese in alloy steel improves its
a. corrosion resistance
b. cutting ability
c. abrasion resistance and toughness
d. elasticity and creep resistance
62. H2SO4 (<50% concentration) is corrosive to
a. aluminum, mild steel, stainless steel, concrete and tin
b. copper, cast iron and high silicon iron (14% Si)
c. rubber (butyl and hard) silicon rubber and teflon
d. glass, graphite, porcelain and stoneware
63. Aluminum storage vessel can be used to store
a. aqua regia
b. ferrous sulfate
c. hydrochloric acid (10%)
d. none of these
64. Brass container is suitable for storing
a. aqueous ammonia
b. beer
c. H2SO4 (95% concentration)
d. phosphoric acid (95%)
65. Cast iron vessels are not suitable for the storage of
a. Freon
b. H2SO4 (95%) at room temperature
c. H2SO4 (fuming)
d. Wet SO2
66. Out of the following, copper vessels are most suitable for the storage of
a. bromine
b. dry chlorine and dry fluorine
c. nitric acid (95% and fuming)
d. phosphoric acid (95%) and sulfuric acid (95% and fuming)
67. Gun metal and bronze are not corroded by the action of
a. wet chlorine
b. synthetic detergent solution
d. nitric acid (<25%)
68. Containers made of high silicon cast iron (14% Si) are not suitable for the storage
of
a. acetic acid
b. benzoic and boric acids
c. phosphoric acid (95%) and sulfuric acid (95%)
d. hydrochloric acid (concentrated)

69. Lead lined equipments and vessels are suitable for handling
a. hydrochloric acid (10%)
b. nitric acid
c. sulfuric acid up to 60C
70. Mild steel storage vessels are suitable for the storage of
a. anhydrous ammonia
b. fatty acids
d. sulfuric acid (25%)
71. Nickel made clad equipments are suitable for handling
a. ammonia (both aqueous and anhydrous)
b. fruit juices, milk and its products and caustic soda solution
c. nitric acid and hydrochloric acid (concentrated)
d. sulfuric acid (concentrated)
72. Platinum and silver are corroded by
a. caustic soda solution
b. phosphoric acid
c. sulfuric acid (10%)
d. none of these
73. 18-8 stainless steel means that it contains
a. 18% chromium and 8% nickel
b. 18% chromium and 8% molybdenum
c. 18% nickel and 8% chromium
d. 18% molybdenum and 8% chromium
74. Stainless steel is not corroded by
b. nitric acid (10%)
d. saturated brine
75. Tin vessels are corroded by
a. anhydrous ammonia
b. aromatic solvents
c. synthetic detergent solution
d. none of these
76. Rubber lined vessels are corroded by the action of
a. aqua regia
b. chloroform
77. Silicon rubber is not resistant to the corrosive action of
a. sulfuric acid (10%)
b. sulfuric acid (95%)
c. ether
d. both (b) and (c)
78. Perspex is nothing but
a. acrylic sheet
b. an elastomer
c. an alloy of lead and tin
d. aluminum foil clad with bakelite
79. Teflon is corroded by
b. hydrochloric acid (95%)
c. sulfuric acid
d. none of these
80. Polythene (low or high density) containers are not corroded by

a. sulfuric acid (10%) at room temperature
b. nitric acid (95%) at room temperature
c. sulfur trioxide at 60C
d. any of these
81. The most commonly used resin for making reinforced plastic is
a. unsaturated polyester
b. polyproplylene
c. polyurethane
d. nylon 6
82. Carbon tetrachloride can be stored in a storage vessel made of
a. high silicon iron (14%)
b. tin
c. stainless steel
83. Concrete tank can be used to store
a. alum
b. sulfuric acid
c. sulfuric acid
d. saturated brine
84. Glass is corroded by
a. fluorine (dry or wet)
b. sulfuric water
c. phosphoric acid
d. none these
85. Graphite is corroded by
a. sulfuric acid (10%)
b. sea Water
b. hydrochloric acid
d. none of these
86. Wood is corroded by
a. hydrochloric acid
b. SO2 (dry or wet)
c. chlorine (dry or wet)
87. The 'bomb' in the bomb calorimeter is made of
a. molybdenum stainless steel
b. mild steel
c. high silicon iron (14% Si)
d. copper
88. Most suitable material for high pressure vessel operating at 500 atm and 500C is
a. molybdenum stainless steel
b. 18-8 stainless steel
c. mild steel
d. high silicon iron (14% Si)
89. Centrifugal pump made of pyrex or glass can't be used to pump
a. mild and fruit juices
b. alkaline solutions
c. dilute H2SO4 at room temperature d. brine
90. Rubber lined pumps can be used to pump
a. caustic soda
b. chlorinated brine
c. hypochlorous acid
91. Copper is dissolved from its ore by H2SO4 in percolation tanks made of
a. wood
b. stainless steel
c. reinforced concrete lined with lead d. high silicon iron (14% Si)
92. Rotary dryers are generally made of
a. cast iron
b. mild steel
c. high silicon iron (14% Si)
d. tin lined with refractory bricks
93. Kel-F is
a. nothing but polycholorotrifluroethylene
b. having excellent chemical and high temperature resistance (up to 200C)
c. an elastomer
94. Zircaloy used as a fuel cladding material in a nuclear reactor (thermal) is an alloy
of zirconium
a. tin, nickel, iron and chromium b. and graphite
c. and copper
d. none of these
95. Which of the following would not be a suitable material of construction for handling
aqueous hydrofluoric acid (HF) at 100C?
a. none
b. stainless steel
c. graphite
d. Kel-F and Teflon
96. Specify the materials of construction suitable for handling concentrated HNO3 at
100C.
a. high silicon iron, Kel-F and Teflon
b. silicon rubber
c. tin and wood
d. stainless steel
97. Concentrated HCl at 30C can be stored in a vessel made of
a
a. PTFE and porcelain
b. cast iron and aluminum
c. stainless steel and high silicon cast iron
d. copper, nickel and monel
98. Which of the following material of construction may be recommended by a
chemical engineer for handling a gaseous chlorine (dry or wet) stream in a fluid flow
system?
a. High silicon iron, silicone rubber, Kel-F and teflon
b. Mild steel and stainless steel
c. Cast iron, tin and aluminum
d. Copper, nickel and monel
99. Which of the following materials may prove unsuitable for handling acetic (glacial
and anhydrous) at 40C?
a. silicone rubber, teflon, porcelain and wood
b. nickel, monel, stainless steel and graphite
c. aluminum, copper, high silicon iron
d. brass, cast iron, mild steel and tin
100. 100% H2SO4 at 30C can't be used and stored in a vessel made/ lined with
a. cast iron and high silicon iron
b. mild steel and stainless steel
c. aluminum, tin and rubber
d. teflon, glass and porcelain
ENGINEERING ECONOMY
1. The following cost item which in common both the fixed and operating cost of an
enterprise is:
a. interest
b. depreciation
c. taxes
d. supplies
2. The length of time, usually in years for the cumulative net annual profit to equal the
investment is called:
a. receivable turnover
b. return of investment
c. price earning ratio
d. payback period
3. The reduction in value and marketability due to competition from newest products /
model
a. depreciated cost
b. fixed cost
c. indirect cost
d. obsolescence
4. Form of summary of assets, liabilities and net worth
a. production
b. break even point
c. balance method
d. balance sheet
5. The worth of property which is equal to the original cost less depreciation.
a. earning value
b. scrap value
c. book value
d. face value
6. The type of interest that is periodically added to the amount of loan so that
subsequent interest is based on the cumulative amount.
a. compound interest
b. simple interest
c. interest rate
d. sinking fund
7. Output or sales at which income is insufficient to equal operating cost
a. break even point
b. investment
c. depreciation
d. cash flow
8. The price at which a given product will be supplied and purchased is the price that
will result in the supply and the demand being equal.
a. law of demand and supply b. law of diminishing returns
c. present worth method
d. obsolescence
9. An estimate of an assets' net market value at the end of its estimated life.
a. break even point
b. cash flow
c. interest
d. book value
10. An estimate of an assets' net market value at the end if its estimated life.
a. book value
c. salvage value
c. depreciation
d. cash flow
11. A lessening of the value of an asset due to a decrease in the quantity available as a
coal, oil and timber in forests.
a. depletion
b. depreciation
c. amortization
d. investment
12. A certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a period of net loss that ten
years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of the corporation or its
subsidiaries.
a. appraisal
b. bond
c. written contract
d. equity capital
13. Funds supplied and used by owners of an enterprise in the expectation that profit will
be earned.
a. equity capital
b. investment
c. working capital
d. present
14. Funds supplied by others on which a fixed rate of interest must be paid and the debt
be repaid at a specific place and time
a. discount
b. cash flow
c. working capital
d. borrowed capital
15. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a
given place and time
a. supply
b. demand
c. discount
d. investment
16. The quantity of a certain commodity that is bought at a certain price at a given place
and time.
a. supply
b. demand
c. discount
d. investment
17. A condition where only few individuals produce a certain product that action of one
will lead to almost the same action by the other.
a. monopoly
b. oligopoly
c. semi monopoly
d. perfect competition
18. Is the simplest form of business organization
a. sole proprietorship
b. enterprise
c. partnership
d. corporation
19. An association of two or more persons for a purpose of engaging in a profitable
business
b. enterprise
c. partnership
d. corporation
20. A distinct legal entity which can practically transact any business transaction which a
real person could do.
b. enterprise
c. partnership
d. corporation
21. An increase in the value of capital asset is called
a. profit
b. capital gain
c. capital expenditure
d. capital stock
22. The reduction in the money value of a capital asset is called
a. capital expenditure
b. capital loss
c. loss
d. deficit
23. The difference between sales revenue and the cost of goods sold
a. net income
b. gross profit
c. rate of return
d. gross national product
24. A currency traded in a foreign exchange market for which the demand is consistently
high in relation to its supply
a. money market
b. hard currency
c. treasury bill
d. certificate of deposit
25. Defined as the certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a period not less
than 10 years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of a corporation
a. bonds
b. T-bills
c. stock
d. all of these
26. It is a negotiable claim issued by a bank in lieu of a term deposit
a. time deposit
b. bond
c. capital gain
d. certificate of deposit
27. The amount of a company's profit that the board of directors of the corporation
decides to distribute to ordinary shareholders
a. dividend
b. return
c. share stock
d. par value
28. a document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security
a. bond
b. bank note
c. coupon
d. check
29. The process determining the value of certain properties for definite reasons
a. valuation
b. appraisal
c. estimate
d. both a and b
30. Represent ownership and enjoys certain preferences than ordinary stock
a. authorized capital stock
b. preferred stock
c. common stock
d. incorporators stock
31. It is the difference between present worth and the worth of the paper at some time in
the future
a. discount
b. amortization
c. depletion
d. investment
32. The value which is usually determined by the disinterested third party in order to
establish a price that is fair to both seller and buyer.
a. fair value
b. market value
c. salvage value
d. book value
33. The price that can be obtained from the sale of property or second hand
a. book value
b. salvage value
c. fair value
d. market value
34. The process of determining the value of certain property for specific reasons
a. amortization
b. appraisal
c. investment
d. depreciation
35. A bond whereby the security behind it are the equipments of the issuing corporation
a. debenture bond
b. lien bond
c. collateral bond
d. mortgage bond
36. An annuity where the payment period extends forever or in which the periodic
payment continue indefinitely.
a. ordinary annuity
b. deferred annuity
c. annuity due
d. perpetuity
37. It is the span of life of an equipment during which it produces the product it is
designed to produce at a profit
a. write off period
b. physical life
c. economic life
d. perpetual life
38. It is a depreciation method whereby the decrease in value of the unit is constant each
year
a. Matheson formula
b. Straight line method
c. SYD method
d. Sinking fund method
39. It is a distinct legal entity separate from the individual who own it and which can
engage in practically any business transaction which a real person can do.
b. partnership
c. corporation
d. all of the above
40. These are costs which remain relatively constant regardless of any change in
operation or policy which is made.
a. fixed cost
b. increment cost
c. variable cost
d. differential cost
41. The length of time at which the original cost of capital used to purchase a unit have
already been recovered.
a. economic life
b. write off period
c. physical life
d. salvage life
42. The actual interest earned by a given principal is known as:
a. compound interest
b. nominal interest
c. simple interest
d. effective interest
43. The exclusive right of a company to provide a specific product / services in a given
region of the country.
a. franchise
b. branch
c. extension
d. outlet
44. It occurs when a commodity or service is supplied by a number of vendors and there
is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market
a. free market
b. perfect competition
c. open market
d. law of supply and demand
45. In making economy studies, a minimum required profit on the invested capital is
included as a cost.
a. rate of return
b. annual cost pattern
c. present worth pattern
d. capital cost
46. Depreciation method where the value of an asset decreases at a decreasing rate.
a. SYD method
b. sinking fund
c. straight line method
d. declining balance
47. Cost of things that are neither labor nor materials
a. construction cost
b. expenses
c. labor cost
d. investment
48. Kind of obligation which has no condition attached
a. analytic
b. gratuitous
c. private
d. pure
49. Gross, profit, sales less cost of goods sold as a percentage of sale is called
a. profit margin
b. gross margin
c. ROI (rate of return)
d. price earnings
50. The series of equal payments at equal intervals of time
a. interest
b. depreciation
c. annuity
d. amortization
51. A legally binding agreement on promise to exchange goods or services
a. contract
b. barter
c. memorandum
d. pro-forma
52. An index of short term paying ability is called
a. current ratio
b. receivable turnover
c. acid test ratio
d. profit margin ratio
53. Used to produce consumer goods
a. producer goods
b. supply
c. consumer goods
d. cash flow
54. It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time where the first
payment is made several periods after the beginning of the payment
a. deferred annuity
b. delayed annuity
c. progressive annuity
d. simple annuity
55. A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there are no goods
substitute
a. monopoly
b. monopsony
c. oligopoly
d. oligopsony
56. The amount of a property in which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for the
property when neither one is under the compulsion to buy or sell
a. fair value
b. goodwill value
c. book value
d. market value
57. A type of annuity where the payments are made at the start of each period, beginning
from the first period
a. ordinary annuity
b. annuity due
c. deferred annuity
d. perpetuity
58. A method of computing depreciation in which the annual charge is a fixed percentage
of the depreciated book value at the beginning of the year to which the depreciation
applies
a. straight line
b. sinking fund method
c. SYD method
d. declining balance method
59. The cumulative effect of elapsed time on the money value of an event based on the
earning power of equivalent invested funds capital should or will earn
a. present worth factor
b. interest rate
c. time value of money
d. yield
60. Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization?
b. partnership
c. corporation
d. enterprise
61. The function of interest rate and time that determines the cumulative amount of a
sinking fund resulting from specific periodic deposits
a. sinking fund factor
b. present worth factor
c. capacity factor
d. demand factor
62. The intangible item of value from the exclusive right of the company to provide a
specific product or service in a stated region of the country
a. market value
b. book value
c. goodwill value
d. franchise value
63. The length of time during which it is capable of performing the function for which it
was designed and manufactured.
a. economic life
b. business life
c. insular life
d. physical life
64. Products that are directly used by people to satisfy their wants.
a. supply
b. consumer goods
c. producer goods
d. cash flows
65. A change in cost for a small change in volume of production.
a. fixed cost
b. sunk cost
c. first cost
d. differential cost
66. An amount which has been spent and for some reasons cannot be recovered.
a. sunk cost
b. first cost
c. increment
d. fixed cost
67. The difference between the book value and the actual lower resale value is
a. salvage value
b. resale value
c. sunk cost
d. fixed cost
68. It occurs when a unique product or service is available only from a single supplier
and entry of all other possible suppliers presented.
a. competition
b. monopoly
c. inventory
d. profitability
69. A place where buyer and seller come together
a. market
b. shop
c. department store
d. parlor
70. Ratio of annual net profit and the capital invested
a. proportion
b. rate of return
c. load factor
d. use factor
71. The price of which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for a commodity
a. resale value
b. market value
c. book value
d. scrap value
72. The price of property when sold for a junk
a. scrap value
b. book value
c. resale value
d. market value
73. An interest earning fund in which equal deposits are made at equal intervals of time
a. annuity
b. sinking fund
c. interest
d. investment
74. A term describing wealth which is placed in a business and could include cash
equipment, raw materials and finished products
a. capital
b. investment
c. collateral
d. assets
75. The first cost of any property includes
a. the original purchase price and freight and transportation charges
b. installation expenses
c. initial taxes and permits' fee
d. all of the above
ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY
1. The hydrogen or deuterium discharge tube can be used as a source of continuous
ultraviolet radiation for spectrophotometers because of
a. the characteristics of chopper-modulated radiation
b. pressure broadening of hydrogen or deuterium emission lines
c. the great sensitivity of photomultiplier tube
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
d. the narrow band pass of modern grating of monochromators

Chopping the source beam in conjunction with the use of a tuned ac amplifier in an
atomic absorption spectrophotometer accomplishes the following
a. a recording potentiometer can be used instead of a voltmeter for the readout
b. a less sensitive detector can be used instead of the usual photomultiplier tube
c. a cooler can be used without decreasing the population of ground-state atoms
d. radiation emitted by excited atoms in the flame will not interfere with the
absorbance measurement
Line spectra are emitted by
a. hot solids
b. excited polyatomic molecules
c. molecules in the ground electronic state
d. excited atoms and monatomic ions
Recording spectrophotometers sometimes operate with feedback loops that vary the
power of the reference beam until it matches the power of the beam through the
sample. This mode of operation
a. eliminates the need for a continuous source
b. requires two monochromators
c. eliminates the need for nonabsorbing solvents
d. makes the detector a null device, with the result that nonlinear response to
radiant power would not be deleterious
Which of the following best explains why atomic absorption is sometimes more
sensitive than flame emission spectroscopy?
a. At the temperature of a typical flame, the population of ground-state atoms is
much greater than the population of excited atoms.
b. Detectors employed in absorption work are inherently more sensitive than those
used to measure emission.
c. Hollow cathode discharge tubes have a much greater radiant power output than do
ordinary flames .
d. An absorption line in a flame is always much sharper than an emission line
because of the Doppler effect.
The method of standard addition compensates for matrix effects provided
a. the addition does not dilute the sample appreciably and does not itself
introduce appreciable quantities or interfering substances
b. the addition dilutes the sample enough that the concentrations of interfering
substances are lowered to negligible values
c. the addition contains none of the substance being determined
d. the addition contains a large enough quantity of some substance to swamp out
sample variations
3+
Fe and Cu2+ form complexes with EDTA. The ferric complex is colorless , as is Fe 3+
itself, at the concentration involved here: the copper complex is a deep blue color
(deeper than the color of Cu2+ itself), while EDTA is colorless. The photometric
titration curve below was obtained when a solution containing both Fe 3+ and Cu2+ was
titrated with EDTA using a spectrophotometer set at a wavelength of 745 nm in the
visible region of the spectrum.
B
A
ml of EDTA solution
a.
b.
c.
d.
A is the iron end point.

B is the iron end point
The distance from A to B on the milliliter axis represents the quantity of iron
The quantity of iron could not be calculated from a graph like this unless the
quantity of copper in the solution was known ahead of time
8. In chromatography, a substance for which the distribution of the coefficient, K, is
zero may be used to estimate
a. the volume within the column occupied by the packing materials
b. the total volume of the column
c. the volume within the pores of the packing material
d. the volume within the column available to the mobile phase
9. The purpose of the solid support material in a GLC column is to
a. immobilize the stationary liquid phase
b. adsorb sample components that are insufficiently soluble in the stationary liquid
phase
c. provide a "backup" stationary phase in the event that the liquid is lost by
evaporation
d. remove impurities from the carrier gas
10. Helium, rather than nitrogen, is sometimes used as the carrier gas in GLC because
a. being lighter than nitrogen, helium elutes the sample components more rapidly
b. helium is less expensive than nitrogen
c. nitrogen has stable isotopes which separate and cause anomalous column
behavior
d. of its much higher thermal conductivity
11. An important feature of open-tubular GLC column is

a. they can accept much larger samples than can packed column because of their
great length
b. solute partitioning between stationary and mobile phases is very rapid and
the C term in the Van Deemter equation is relatively small
c. they permit the use of a wider variety of carrier gases
d. they can be operated at temperatures closer to the boiling point of the stationary
liquid phase than can packed columns and thus handle less volatile examples
12. Raising the column temperature in GLC decreases solute retention times primarily
because
a. solute diffusion coefficients in the liquid phase decrease with increasing
temperature
b. van der Waals interactions between solutes and stationary phase are stronger at
higher temperatures
c. gases are generally less soluble in liquids at higher temperatures
d. detector sensitivity is a function of temperature, especially with a thermal
conductivity cell
13. Which of the following would have practically no effect upon the retention volume of
a solute in GLC?
a. changing the carrier-gas flow-rate
b. increasing the stationary liquid loading of the column packing from 5 to 10% by
weight
c. increasing the column temperature
d. changing the chemical nature of the stationary liquid
14. The separation factor, S, in chromatography depends upon
a. the length of the column
b. the square root of the length of the column
c. the nature of the stationary liquid phase
d. the number of theoretical plates in the column
15. In GLC, interaction of solutes with the solid support will often cause
a. unusually narrow elution bands
b. asymmetric elution band
c. excessive eddy diffusion
d. decreased detector sensitivity
16. Increasing the quantity of stationary liquid phase applied to the column packing will,
with everything else the same,
a. increase tR for a solute
b. decrease tR for a solute
c. not influence tR for a solute
d. decrease the nonequilibrium term in the van Deemer equation
17. A neutral molecule such as ethanol or sugar which has found its way into the pores of
a typical anion-exchange resin can be eliminated
a. only by replacement with a cation
b. only by replacement with an anion
c. only if replaced by another organic molecule on a one-for-one exchange basis
d. by flushing out the water
18. In chromatography, a substance for which the distribution coefficient, K, is zero may
be used to estimate
a. the volume within the column available to the moving phase
b. the volume within the column occupied by the packing
c. the volume within the pores of the packing material
d. the total volume of the column

19. Which of the following statements is false in normal phase absorption?
a. The more polar a compound, the more strongly it will be adsorbed from a solution
b. A high molecular weight favors adsorption, other factors being equal
c. The more polar the solvent, the stronger the adsorption of the solute
d. The adsorption isotherm is usually nonlinear
20. The best measure of the quantity of a solute in LC is
a. the height of the elution band
b. the area of the elution band
c. the baseline width of the elution band
d. the retention volume
21. Which of the following would be the fastest way to decide which adsorbent and what
solvent system to use for a larger-scale chromatographic separation of an organic
reaction product from materials formed in side reactions?
a. Paper chromatography
b. Affinity chromatography
c. TLC
d. Adsorption chromatography with gradient elution
22. To deionize tap water by ion exchange for laboratory use, the best approach employs
a. a column containing a strong-acid cation exchange in the hydrogen form
b. a column containing a strong-base anion exchanger in the hydroxyl form
c. a mixed-bed column containing a strong-acid cation exchanger in the sodium
form and a strong-base anion exchanger in the chloride form
d. a mixed-bed column containing a strong-acid cation exchanger in the
hydrogen form and a strong-base anion exchanger in the hydroxyl form
23. Line spectra are emitted by
a. incandescent solids
b. excited molecules
c. molecules in the ground electronic state
d. excited atoms and monatomic ions
24. Band spectra are emitted by
a. tungsten lamps and Nernst glowers
b. excited molecules in the vapor phase
c. excited atoms and monatomic ions
d. incandescent solids
25. A chemical engineer is conducting research on the development of analytical methods

based upon chemiluminescence. If a conventional spectrofluorometer is used for the
measurements, an the instrument has separate switches for its various circuits, which
switch will be left in the "off" position?
a. detector power supply
b. amplifier
c. source power supply
d. power to the motor drive of the scanning monochromator on the emission side of
the instrument
26. In flame spectroscopy, the highest temperature fuel oxidant combination available as
yet is
a. hydrogen-oxygen
b. hydrogen-nitrous oxide
c. acetylene-oxygen
d. acetylene-nitrous oxide
27. If the change in a molecule caused by absorption of light energy involves change in
the average separation of the nuclei of two or more atoms, then the change is
a. electronic
b. vibrational
c. translational
d. rotational
28. The nephelometric method of analysis is based upon
a. Beer's law
b. Fajar's law
c. Bouger law's
d. Beer Lambert's Law
29. IR spectro-photometers have practically the same basic components as visible and
UV spectro-photometers. In which of the following basic components could the
devices be used interchangeable in both:
a. sources of radiant energy
b. optical system
c. sample holders
d. detectors
30. Which of the following may not be used in the determination of sugars?
a. TLC chromatography
b. Polarimetry
c. Copper reduction methods
d. Lane and Eynon methods
31. Which is not the recommended device for a filter photometry?
a. hydrogen arc lamp
b. glass filter
c. barrier layer photocell
d. none of these
32. This law states that the amount of light absorbed or transmitted by a solution is an
experimental function of the concentration of absorbing substance present and the
sample path length
a. Bouger's Law
b. Beer's Law
c. Lambert's Law
d. Bouger-Beer Law
33. Deviation's from Beer's Law may be due to
a. instrumental
b. intermolecular reactions
c. formation of complexions with varying number of ligonds
d. all of these
34. IR spectrophotometers have the same basic components as UV spectrophotometers,
except:
a. source of radiant energy and the kind of detectors
b. materials used in the optical system
c. materials used in the sample cells
d. all of these
35. Which of the following involves emission of radiation by excited atoms:
a. Ultra-violet spectrophotometry
b. Infra-red spectrophotometry
c. Atomic absorption spectrometry
d. Nephelopmetry
36. The absorption of a solution of a particular substance does not depend on the :
a. wavelength of the incident light
b. intensity of the incident light
c. concentration of the substance
d. thickness of the sample cell
37. If we compare flame spectrophotometry and emission spectroscopy, which of the
following statements will be true?
a. Flame photometry is more senstive than emission spectroscopy
b. Flame photometry can analyze more metals than emission spectroscopy
c. Flame photometry is less sensitive to the matrix than emission spectroscopy
d. Flame photometry is simpler to use than emission spectroscopy
38. Atomic absorption spectrophotometry (AAS) differs from visible absorption
spectrophotometry because AAS
a. has no light source
b. does not need a monochromator
c. does not follow Beer's Law
d. destroys the sample when a reading is made
39. Gas chromatography does not use this detector
a. thermal conductivity detector
b. refractive index detector
c. flame ionization detector
d. electron capture detector
40. In gas chromatography, the retention time is not dependent on
a. carrier gas velocity
b. column temperature
c. volume of compound analyzed
d. volatility of compound analyzed
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
1. The main component of air is ____________.

a. oxygen
b. argon
c. carbon dioxide
d.
nitrogen
e. methane
2. Of the following, ____________ is characteristic of gases.
a. Gases are highly compressible
b. These are relatively large distances between molecules
c. Gases form homogenous mixtures regardless of the non-reacting gas components
d. All of these
e. A gas expands spontaneously to fill its container
3. One
significant
difference
between
gases
and
liquids
is
that
______________________.
a. a gas is made up of molecules
b. a gas assumes the volume of its container
c. a gas may consist of both elements and compounds
d. gases are always mixtures
e. all of these answers are correct
4. Molecular compounds of low molecular weights tend to be gases at room
temperature. Which of the following is most likely not a gas at room temperature?
5.
6.
7.
8.
a. Cl2
b. HCl
c. LiCl
d. H2
e. CH4
Gaseous mixtures ________________.
a. can only contain molecules
b. are all heterogeneous
c. can only contain isolated atoms
d. are all homogenous
e. must contain both isolated atoms and molecules
Which one of the following is NOT true about the unit Pascal (pa)?
a. 1 Pa = 1 N/m2
b. The Pa is the SI unit for pressure
c. 1 atm = 101.325 kPa
d. 1 Pa = 100 torr
e. The Pa is the Si unit for force
The first person to investigate the relationship between the pressure of a gas ad its
volume was ________________.
a. Amadeo Avogadro
b. Lord Kelvin
c. Jacques Charles
d. Robert Boyle
e. Joseph Louis Gay-Lussac
Of the following, ____________ is a correct statement of Boyles law.
a. PV = constant
b. P = constant
V
c. V = constant
P
d. V = constant
T
e. n = constant
P
9. Of the following, ______________ is a valid statement of Charles law.
a. P = constant
T
b. V = constant
T
c. PV = constant
d. V = constant x n
e. V = constant x P
10. Which one of the following is a valid statement of Avogadros law?
a. P = constant
T
b. V = constant
T
c. PV = constant
d. V = constant x n
e. V = constant x P
11. The volume of an ideal gas is zero at _________.
a. 0C
b. -45F
c. -273K
d. -363K
e. -273C
12. Of the following, only _________ is impossible for an ideal gas.
a. V1 = V2
T1 T2
b. V1T1 = V2T2
c. V1 = T1
V2 T2
d. V2 = T2 ( V1)
T1
e. V1 = T1 = 0
V2 T2
13. The molar volume of a gas at STP is _____L.
a. 0.08206
b. 62.36
c. 1.00
d. 22.4
e. 14.7
14. A gas is considered ideal if ___________.

a. it is not compressible
b. one mole of it occupies exactly 1 liter at standard temperature and pressure
c. it can be shown to occupy zero volume at 0C
d. its behavior is described by the ideal-gas equation
e. one mole of it in a one-liter container exerts a pressure exactly 1 atm at room
temperature
15. For which of the following changes is not clear whether the volume of a particular
sample of an ideal gas will increase or decrease?
a. increase the temperature and increase the pressure
b. increase the temperature and decrease the pressure

c. increase the temperature and keep the pressure constant
d. keep temperature constant and decrease the pressure
e. decrease the temperature and increase the pressure
16. Standard temperature and pressure (STP), in the context of gases, refers to
____________________.
a. 298 K and 1 atm
b. 273 K and 1 atm
c. 298 K and 1 torr
d. 273 K and 1 pascal
e. 273 K and 1 torr
17. Of the following, ______________ correctly relates pressure, volume, temperature,
amount (mol), molecular mass (M), density (d) and mass (g).
a. M = dRT
PV
b. M = gRT
PV
c. M = PT
GRV
d. M = gV
RT
e. M = RT
Gv
18. Of the following, _____________ correctly relates pressure, volume, temperature,
amount (mol), molecular mass (M), density (d) and mass (g).
a. d = PM
RT
b. d = gRT
PM
c. d = PTM
gRV
d. d = gV
RT
e. d = RT
PM
19. Of the following gases, ____________ will have the greatest rate of effusion at a
given temperature.
a. NH3
b. CH4
c. Ar
d. HBr
e. HCl
20. An ideal gas differs from a real gas in that the molecules of an ideal gas
_________________.
a. have no attraction for one another
b. have appreciable molecular volume
c. have a molecular weight of zero
d. have no kinetic energy
e. has an average molecular mass
21. The statement, For a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, gas volume is
inversely proportional to gas pressure. Is known as:
a. Avogadros law b. Boyles law c. Charles lawd. Grahams law
e. Kelvins
law
22. If gas volume is doubled but the temperature remains constant:
a. the pressure stays the same
b. the molecules move faster
c. the kinetic energy increases
d. the molecules move slower
e. none of these answers
23. Subtracting the vapor pressure of water from the total pressure of a gas collected over
water is an example:
a. Avogadros Hypothesis
b. Daltons law
c. Grahams law
d. van der Waals Theory
e. ideal gas law
24. The energy of molecules of a gas:
a. is dependent on concentration
b. is distributed over a wide range at constant temperature
c. is the same for all molecules at constant temperature
d. increases with a decrease in temperature
e. increases with an increase in pressure
25. Which of the following assumptions is not used to explain the ideal gas law?
a. gas particles themselves occupy a negligible percent of total gas volume
b. inter-particle forces are negligible in gases
c. collisions between gas particles are perfectly elastic
d. collisions between gas particles and container walls are perfectly elastic
e. individual gas particles are perfectly compressible to nuclear size
26. If someone were to light a cigar at one end of a closed room, persons at the other end
of the room might soon perceive an odor due to gaseous emissions from the cigar.
Such a phenomenon is an example of:
a. monometry
b. ideality
c. effusion
d. diffusion
e. barometry
27. The fact that a balloon filled with helium will leak more slowly than one filled with
hydrogen is explained by citing:
a. Avogadros hypothesis b. Daltons law
c. Grahams law
d. van der
Waals Theory
e. ideal gas law
28. Gases tend to behave ideally at
a. low temperature and low pressure
b. low temperature and high pressure
c. high temperature and low pressure
d. high temperature and high pressure
e. gases always behave ideally
29. Assuming ideal gas behavior, which of the following gases would have the lowest
density at standard temperature and pressure?
a. SF6
b. CF2Cl2
c. CO2
d. N2
e. Kr
30. Of the following gases, the one with the greatest density at STP is:
a. CH4
b. NH3
c. Ne
d. H2
e. He
31. The phenomenon in which a steel needle can, with proper care, be made to float on
the surface of some water illustrates a property of liquid known as:
a. compressibility b. polarizability
c. surface tension
d. triple point
e. viscosity
32. The property of liquid that measures its resistance to flow is called:
a. capillarity
b. polarizability
c. resistivity
d. viscosity
e. wetability
33. A liquid will wet a surface if:
a. the liquid has a lesser density than the surface
b. the forces between the liquid molecules are weak
c. the liquid has a low vapor pressure
d. the forces between the molecules and the surface are greater than the forces
between the molecules of the liquid
e. none of these answers
34. Which of the following statements concerning molecules in the liquid state is true?
a. Cohesive forces are not important
b. The molecules contract to fit the size of the container
c. The molecules have no motion
d. The molecules in a patterned (oriented) arrangement
e. The molecules are mobile and relatively close together
35. The temperature ate which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the external pressure
is called the :
a. boiling point b. critical point
c. melting point
d.
sublimation point
e. thermal point
36. Liquid and vapor phases of a substance become indistinguishable at the:
a. triple point
b. normal point
c. permanent point
d. critical point
e. absolute point
37. When a liquid is in dynamic equilibrium with its vapor at a given temperature, the
following conditions could exist:
(I)
There is no transfer of molecules between liquid and vapor
(II)
The vapor pressure has a unique value
(III) The opposing processes, (liquid to vapor) and (vapor to liquid), proceed at
equal rates
(IV) The concentration of vapor is dependent on time
Which of the above choices are applicable?
a. I
b. II and III c. I, II, and III
d. II and IV
e. none of these combination
38. Which of the following does NOT describe the critical point of a liquid?
a. The temperature and pressure at which a liquids meniscus disappears
b. The point where the vapor pressure curve intersects the fusion temperature
c. The highest temperature at which a liquid can exist
d. The temperature and pressure at which a liquid and its vapor are identical
e. The highest temperature at which it is possible to obtain a liquid form its vapor by
increasing pressure
39. A container holds a small amount of liquid and its vapor in equilibrium If the volume
of the container is decreased, which of the following has occurred once equilibrium is
reestablished?
a. the temperature is lower
b. the temperature is higher
c. the
pressure is higher
d. the pressure is lower
e. none of these
40. When the vapor pressure of a liquid equals atmospheric pressure, the temperature of
the liquid equals:
a. 100C
b. boiling point
c. the normal boiling point
d. the vaporization point
e. none of these
41. When a liquid is in equilibrium with its vapor in a closed container:
a. The rate at which molecules from the liquid phase enter the gas phase exactly
equals the rate at which molecules from the gas phase pass into the liquid
phase
b. A change in temperature will not change the pressure in the container
c. The amount of gas in the container must exactly equal the amount of liquid
d. Molecules cannot go from the liquid phase to the gas phase because the amount of
liquid in the container is constant
e. The vapor will gradually change back to the liquid state, that is, no vapor will be
left
42. Under which of the following conditions will vaporization best occur?
a. high mass, large surface area, high kinetic energy
b. weak forces between molecules, high kinetic energy, large surface area
c. high molecular energy, small surface area
d. low kinetic energy, strong molecular forces, large surface area
e. small surface area, low kinetic energy, low molecular mass
43. Which of the following does NOT decrease rate of vaporization?
a. closing container lid
b. increasing forces between molecules
c.
increasing mass of molecule
d. decreasing temperature e. decreasing surface area
44. Which of the following factors does NOT affect the normal boiling point of a liquid?
a. atmospheric pressure b. strength of forces between molecules
c. rate
of evaporation
d. rate of condensation e. none of these answers
45. A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapor. If some of the vapor is allowed to escape,
what is the immediate result?
a. condensation rate decreases b. vaporization rate increases
c.
condensation rate increases
d. vaporization rate decreases
e. none of these
46. The phenomenon of supercooling refers to the existence of a metastable:
a. the liquid at a temperature below that of its critical point
b. liquid at a temperature below that of its sublimation point
c. liquid at a temperature below that of its freezing point
d. gas at a temperature below that of its critical point
e. two-phase liquid/solid mixture at the freezing point
47. All of the following are true about crystals EXCEPT

a. A crystal softens and melts over a wide range of temperature
b. A crystal tends to shatter along defined planes
c. Crystals generally have a specific shape for a specific substance
d. Crystal usually have a high degree of symmetry
48. All of the following are logical consequences of the observed macroscopic properties
of crystals EXCEPT
a. The atoms or molecules of a crystal are arranged in a regularly repeating pattern
b. The forces holding the atoms in a metal crystal are the same for essentially every
atom except at the surface
c. The distances between adjacent atoms or molecules vary greatly
d. Some defects are present in the crystals
49. Which of the following has the largest number of lattice points per unit cell?
a. The primitive (simple) cubic lattice
b. The
face centered cubic lattice
c. The body
centered cubic lattice
d. All these lattices have the same number of lattice points per unit cell
50. All of the following are true about lattice points in a crystal structure EXCEPT
a. The first lattice point can be placed at any location
b. All
lattice points have identical environments
c. The corners of unit cells are located at lattice points
d. Atoms are always located on lattice points
51. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT
a. The face-centered cubic lattice is identical to the cubic closest packed lattice
b. The body-centered cubic lattice is identical to the hexagonal closest packed
lattice
c. The cubic closest packed and hexagonal closest packed structures have identical
fractions of space which are occupied by atoms
d. The density of a metal sample is independent of the size of the sample considered
52. Which of the following represents the minimal amount of date necessary to determine
the atomic mass of a metal?
a. Avogadros number and the density of the metal
b. Avogadros number, the density of the metal and the length of the unit cell edge
c. Avogadros number, the density of the metal, the length of the unit cell edge
and the type of lattice
d. Avogadros number, the density of the metal, the length of the unit cell edge, the
type of lattice and the atomic radius of the metal
53. Which of the following is assumed when calculating atomic radii of metals form
crystallographic data?
a. The atoms are soft spheres that are deformed in the structure
b. The atoms are almost perfect cubes
c. The atoms are of different sizes and the value calculated for the radius is an
average
d. The atoms in the structure are touching
54. What is the usual relationship between the number of valence electrons and the
number of nearest neighbors of a metal atom in a solid metal?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The number of valence electrons is less than the number nearest neighbors
The number of valence electrons is greater than the number of nearest neighbors
The number of valence electrons is equal to the number of nearest neighbors
The number of valence electrons can be less than, greater than, or equal to the
number of nearest neighbors
55. All of the following are consequences of the theory of the structure of metals
EXCEPT
a. Metals conduct electricity
b. Metals are malleable
c. Metals are ductile
d. Metals break easily when they are bent
56. Which of the following is the reason that metals conduct electricity?
a. The metal atoms are close together
b. There are no empty spaces in metal structures
c. Electrons in the structure can move freely
d. Electrons and protons in the structure can move freely
57. Which of the following is the reason why salt stay bonded in the solid state?
a. There are strong covalent bonds between the ions
b. The structure consists of salt molecules tat bind tightly to other salt molecules
c. They are held together by electrostatic attractions and the structure includes no
electrostatic repulsions
d. There are both electrostatic attractions and repulsions within the structure
but the total of the attractions is greater
58. All of the following are possible crystal defects EXCEPT
a. An atom or ion out of its regular position and occupying a normally empty hole
b. A crystal in which he only defect is one pair of ions of the same charge which
are missing
c. An electron occupying a site that is normally occupied by a 1 anion
d. A crystal containing some ion sites empty and some ions not bearing the expected
charge
59. Which of the following is the most important explanation for the conductivity of
metals?
a. they are almost all solids
b. their coordination numbers are high
c. Their numbers of valence electrons are high d. Their densities are high
60. Which of the following pairs is isoelectronic?
a. AIS and P
b. GeAs and Se
c. GeAs and GaSe
d. Al and SiP
61. Which of the following is always the same for allotropes of the same element?
a. The atomic mass
b. the molar mass
c. the structured. the
chemical and physical properties
62. The semiconductor crystalline Si has a low electrical conductivity in the dark because
a. crystalline Si is a molecular solid
b. the band gap energy is much greater than 3RT at 23C
c. the chemical bonding in the crystal is strong in all three dimensions
d. Si has fewer valence electrons that elements that form metallic solids
63. A laser pointer of a doped semiconductor junction (i.e., a region of A1 doped

semiconductor bonded to a region of P doped semiconductor) with a flowing current
due to an applied voltage from a battery. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. The color of the light is determined by the semiconductor band gap
b. The device works better warm rather than cold because the number of thermally
generated electrons is higher
c. Light is emitted at the interface when a hole from the A1 region combines with an
electron from the P region
d. Both (a) and (c)
64. In order to dope crystalline Si with extra electrons, which element should be
incorporated into the lattice?
a. P
b. A1
c. C
d. O
65. All of the following statements about NaCl crystalline lattice are true, EXCEPT
a. Every Cl is surrounded by 4 Na at equal bond lengths, and vice versa
b. The structure along the x,y and z axes of the unit cell is all the same
c. If the length of one side of the unit cell and the atomic weights of Na and Cl are
known, then the density can be calculated
d. The unit cell is cubic even though the Na and Cl ions have different ionin radii
66. All of the following statements about the different forms of solid C are true, EXCEPT
a. Diamond is transparent and shows no color because its band gap is quite
large
b. Graphite slides easily because the C atoms are strongly bonded in only two
dimensions
c. In diamond the structure around each C atom is due to C sp3 hybridization
d. Diamond is hard yet brittle because the band gap is large
67. Solids with long-range microscopic order in their structures are called
a. amorphous
b. crystalline
c. glasses
d. metals
e. none
of these
68. A specimen is subjected to x-ray diffraction. The resulting diffraction pattern contains
many sharply defined spots. The specimen is
a. gaseous
b. crystalline
c. amorphous
d. plastic
e. liquid
69. A specimen is subjected to x-ray diffraction. The resulting diffraction pattern contains
three diffuse rings close to primary x-ray beam. The specimen is
a. gaseous
b. crystalline
c. amorphous
d.
polycrystalline
e. colloidal
70. The colors in the gemstone opal result from
a. the diffraction of visible light by colloidal crystals in the stone
b. absorption by transition metal complexes
c. contamination by large organic molecules which absorb light in the visible region
d. radioactivity
e. none of these
71. Which of the following symmetry elements can be found in an equilateral triangle?
a. a 2-fold rotationb. a 3-fold rotation

c. as mirror line or plane
d. all
of these e. none of these
72. About half of all the crystals studied so far belong to the ______ crystal system
a. hexagonal
b. orthorhombic
c. cubic
d. triclinic
e. monoclinic
73. The crystal system with the minimum symmetry requirement of one 4-fold rotation is
a. orthorhombic
b. cubic
c. tetragonal
d.
triclinic
e. trigonal
74. Crystalline substances are ________. Amorphous substances are ________.
a. isotropic, isotropic
b. anisotropic, anisotropic
c. isotropic, anisotropic
d. anisotropic, isotropic
75. The three-dimensional array made up of all points within a crystal that have the same
environment in the same orientation is called the
a. unit cell
b. primitive cell
c. crystal system
d.
crystal lattice
e. symmetry pattern
76. The basic repeating structural unit of a crystal lattice is the
a. unit cell
b. atom
c. molecule
d.
atomic cluster
e. symmetry pattern
77. The number of lattice points in a primitive unit cell is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
e. this depends
on the crystal system
78. The conditions --- a b c, alpha= beta =gamma = 90 --- describe the _________
unit cell.
a. tetragonal
b. orthorhombic
c. monoclinic
d. hexagonal
e. trigonal
79. The conditions --- a b c, alpha = gamma = 90, 90--- describe the _______
unit cell
a. tetragonal
b. orthorhombic
c. monoclinic d. hexagonal e.
trigonal
80. The number of lattice points in the unit cell for the body-centered cubic lattice is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 8
81. For a face-centered cubic unit cell, each corner contributes _____ lattice points to the
unit cell
a. 1/8
b.
c.
d. 1
e. none of these
82. In a face-centered cubic lattice, each lattice, each lattice point located in a face of the
unit cell is shared equally with ___ other unit cell
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
e. none of
these
83. A metal crystallizes in a body-centered cubic lattice. Which of the following correctly
relates the atomic radius r of the metal to the length of an edge a of the unit cell?
a. r = a
b. r = a2
c. r = a3
2
4
4
d. This cannot be determined without additional information

e. none
of these
84. The forces holding the molecules together in the lattice of a molecular solid are
a. van der Waals forces b. ionic bonds c. covalent bonds
d. all of these
e. none of these
85. Molecular crystals typically
a. are soft
b. have low melting points
c. are insulators
d. all of these e. none of these
86. Most ionic solids crystallize in the ______ system
a. hexagonal
b. orthorhombic
c. cubic
d. tetragonal
e. monoclinic
87. The rock salt structure can be viewed as a _______ lattice of anions, with cations
occupying positions exactly between pairs of anions
a. face-centered cubic b. monoclinic c. trigonal
d.
body-centered cubic
e. primitive cubic
88. In the rock salt structure, each ion is surrounded by ________ equidistant ions of
opposite charge
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
e. none
of these
89. Which of the following cannot possibly crystallize in the rock salt structure?
a. VN
b. Na2S
c. ZrSe
d. NH4I
e.
MgO
90. How many chloride ions are contained in a unit cell of CsCl?
a. 1/8
b.
c.
d. 1
e. 2
91. The coordination number of each cesium atom in CsCl is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
e. 12
92. A certain solid is a good insulator, is brittle, and has a high melting point. The
substance readily conducts electricity when molten. This substance is most likely
_____ in nature.
a. molecular
b. covalent
c. ionic
d. metallic
e. it could be more than one of these
93. In a metallic solid, _______ are located at the lattice points.
a. neutral metal atoms
b. molecules c. positively charged core ions
d.
electrons e. atomic clusters
94. The metal with the highest melting point is
a. Pt
b. Rh
c. Nb
d. Ga
e. W
95. A structure that forms naturally when identical rigid spheres are placed as close
together as possible is called a ____ arrangement.
a. primitive
b. close-packed
c. face-centered
d. dense
e. nematic
96. A crystal structure which yields close packing for uniform rigid spheres is
a. primitive cubic b. tetragonal c. body-centered cubic
d. all of these e. none
of these
97. In the hexagonal close-packed structure, each atom has a coordination number of
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
e. 12
98. In diamond, each carbon is covalently bonded to ________ other carbon atoms
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
e. 8
99. The most stable form of sulfur at room temperature is
a. gaseous atoms b. long chains of sulfur atoms c. S4 tetrahedral
d. S2 molecules with double bonds
e. S8 rings
100. Which element in group V does not form a solid with each atom bonded to three
others?
a. As
b. Bi
c. N
d. P
e. Sb
101. Which of the following forms a layered structure?
a. graphite
b. white tin
c. sulfur
d. red phosphorous
e. all of these
102. Which of the following forms a solid with the diamond structure?
a. sulfur
b. white tin
c. red phosphorous
d. sodium
e. gray tin
103. The crystal defect in which an atom or ion is displaced from its regular position in
the lattice to an interstitial site is called a(n)
a. Schottky defect b. Frenkel defect
c. F-center
d. site defect
e. berthollide
104. Irradiation of NaCl with ultraviolet light can cause
a. chloride ions to lose electrons to the crystalline lattice
b. formation of an F-center
c. formation of a nonstoichiometric crystal
d. all of these
e. none of these
105. In a plastic crystal,
a. the molecules tumble before the lattice s disrupted
b. the lattice is disrupted before the molecules begin to tumble
c. the molecules are rod-like
d. all of these
e. none of these
106. The rate constant of a reaction depends upon
a. initial concentration of reactants
b. extent of reaction
c. temperature
d. time of reaction
107. Which of the following factors does not influence the rate of a reaction?
a. Concentration of reactants
b. Nature of reactants
c. Molecularity of the reaction
d. Temperature
108. The mechanism of a reaction can sometimes be reduced from
a. the temperature dependence of the rate
b. the rate law
c. the net equation
d. the activation energy
109.
a.
b.
c.
d.
110.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The activation energy of a reaction may be lowered by

raising the temperature
lowering the temperature
removing the products of the reaction
adding a catalyst
The equilibrium constant in a reversible chemical reaction at given temperature
depends on the initial concentrations of the reactants
depends on the concentration of one of the products at equilibrium
does not depend on the initial concentrations
is not characteristic of the reaction
Answer the following questions 111-113 with the help of the hypothetical reaction
and its rate law
3A(g) + B(g) +2C(g) D(g) + 2E(g)
Rate of formation of D = k[A] [B]2
111. Doubling of the concentration of A increases the rate of reaction by a factor of
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 9
112. Doubling of the concentration of B increases the rate of the reaction by a factor of
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 9
113. If the volume of the container is suddenly reduced to one-half its original volume
the rate will increase by a factor of
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16
114. The value of k, the specific rate constant, may be increased by
a. decreasing the concentration of D
b. increasing the concentration of A
c. increasing the concentration of C
d. increasing the temperature
115. What effect does an increase in temperature of 10C have on the rate of the
reaction?
a. Halved
b. Multiplied by 1.5
c. Doubled
d. Tripled
116. Which of the following is the best explanation for the effect of increase in
temperature on the rate of the reaction?
a. It increases the number of particles with the necessary activation of energy
b. It enables the reacting particles with the necessary activation energy
c. It lowers the activation energy for the reaction
d. It enables the activated complex to be more easily converted to the products
117. The reactions of high molecularity are rare because
a. activation energy of many body collisions is very high
b. many body collisions have low probability
c. many body collisions are not favoured energetically
d. none of the above statement is true
118. At 25C , the half life for the decomposition of N2O5 is 5.7 hours, and is
dependent of the initial pressure of N2O5 the specific rate constant is
a. ln 2
b. (1/5.7)hr-1
c. (ln2/5.7)-1hr-1
d. (ln2/5.7)hr
119. If the rate of reaction is independent of the concentration of the reactant, the
reaction is of
a. zero order
b. first order
c. second order
d. third order
120. Who among the following gave the law of photochemical equivalence?
a. Drapper
b. Einstein
c. Grotthus
d. Lambert
121. The energy of electromagnetic radiation depends on
a. its amplitude
b. its frequency
c. its wave length
122. What term is used to define the phenomenon of emission of light in a chemical
reaction?
a. Chemical luminescence
b. Photosensitization
c. Both chemical luminescence and photosensitization
d. None of the above
123. Raman spectra may be obtained in
a. IR and Visible region
b. Visible region only
c. IR and micro wave region
d. UV and visible region
124. ESR spectra mainly helps in study of
a. compounds having hydrogen
b. compounds having carbons
c. free radicals
d. ionic compounds
125. Which one of the following rate laws has an overall order of 0.5 for the reactions
involving substances X, Y, Z.?
a. Rate = k(Cx) (Cy) (Cz)
b. Rate = k (Cx)0.5 (Cy) 0.5 (Cz)0.5
c. Rate = k (Cx)1.5 (Cy) 1 (Cz)0
d. Rate = k (Cx) (Cz)0/(Cy)2
126. Chemical reaction rates in solution do not depend to any great extent upon
a. pressure
b. temperature
c. concentration
d. catalyst
127. Which of the following might be used as an electrode?
a. A stick
b. A nail
c. A glass rod
d. A soda straw
128. The e.m.f. value for oxidation from H2 at 1.0 atm to H+ at 1.0 x 10-1 M is
a. 0.00V
b. 0.059V
c. 0.059V
d. 0.030V
129. A good reducing agent
a. will always react rapidly
b. has a negative oxidation potential
c. is readily oxidized
d. shows a negative oxidation number
130. A Faraday of electricity is
a. one ampere per second
b. 96,500 coulombs per second
c. 6.02 x 1023 electrons per second
d. 6.02 x 1023 electronic charges
131. When aqueous HCl is electrolyzed
a. chlorine gas is produced at the anode
b. hydrogen gas is produced at the anode
c. oxygen gas is produced at the anode
d. oxygen gas is produced at the cathode
132. The number of electrons necessary to produce 1.00gm of Cu from Cu2+ at the
cathode of an electrolytic cell is
a. 1.89 x 1022
b. 3.04 x 103
c. 9.47 x 1021
d. 1.91 x 1025
133. A possible advantage to using the half reaction method for balancing oxidationreduction equation is
a. electrons need not be balanced
b. oxidation numbers are not assigned
c. charges are not balanced
d. atoms need not be balanced
134. In a galvanic cell the cathode
a. is always made of copper
b. is always made of zinc
c. may be made of an inert metal
d. always attracts negative ions in the solution
135. Hydrogen ions are more readily reduced than
a. Ag+
b. Cu++
c. Cl2
d. Zn++
136. Not all galvanic cells contain
a. a cathode
b. an anode
c. a porous partition
d. ions
137. When a cell of a lead storage battery is being charged, it is
a. a galvanic cell
b. an electrolytic cell
c. a Daniel cell
d. a dry cell
138. A current of 9.65 ampere is drawn from a Daniel cell for exactly 1 hour. The loss
of mass of anode is
a. 0.180g
b. 23.6g
c. 0.197g
d. 11.8g
139. The following reaction does not occur spontaneously (all ions at 1m
concentration; all gases at 1 atmosphere pressure)
a. 2Cr(s) + 3Cl2(g) 2 Cr+3 + 6 Clb. NO3- + 2 H+ + Ag(s) Ag+ + H2O + NO2(g)
c. NO3- + 4 H+ + 3 Ag(s) 3 Ag+ + NO(g) +2H2O
d. Cl2(g) + 2 Br- 2 Cl- + Br2
140. If 0.200 liter of 0.100 M NaCl are electrolyzed until the OH - concentration is
0.0500M, how many moles of Cl2 gas are produced?
a. 5.00 x 10-3mole
b. 1.00 x 10-2mole
c. 5.00 x 10-2mole
c. 1.00 x 10-1mole
141. As the lead storage battery is charged,
a. the amount of sulfuric acid decreases
b. the lead electrode becomes coated with lead sulfate
c. sulfuric acid is regenerated
d. lead dioxide dissolves
142. If an aqueous solution of KI is electrolyzed (with platinum electrodes) one would
expect to find
a. potassium deposited at the cathode
b. oxygen liberated at the anode
c. the solution around the cathode becoming alkaline
d. the solution around the anode becoming brown
143. When an aqueous solution of NaCl is electrolyzed, a product formed at the
cathode is
a. Na
b. H+
c. OH
d. Cl2
144. If aqueous Cu SO4 is electrolyzed for one minute with a current of 2.00 ampere,
the volume of ozygen produced at STP at the anode is
a. 3.10 x 10-4 liter
b. 6.96ml
c. 1.16 x 10-4 liter
d. 1.16 ml
145. As a lead storage battery is discharged

a. water is used up
b. lead is formed
c. lead sulfate is consumed
d. sulfuric acid is consumed
146. If a large quantity of cobalt metal were dropped into a solution containing Ag+,
Fe+2, Cu+2, the products of the reaction will be:
a. Ag, Fe and Cu
b. Ag, Fe++ and Cu+
c. Fe++, Cu and Co++
d. Fe++, Cu, Ag and Co++
147. Which of the following instruments makes use of the standard electrode potentials
and the variation of electrode potential with concentration?
a. Polarimeter
b. pH meter
c. Electrophorous
d. Electrophotometer
148. The series in which the electrode potentials of metals are arranged in an order is
known as:
a. electrical conductivity series
b. electrode potential series
c. electrochemical series
d. chemical affinity series
149. In a salt-bridge KCl is used because

a. agar-agar forms a good jelly with it
b. KCl is an electrolyte
c. K+ and Cl- have the same transference number
d. KCl is present in calomel electrode
150. Four colorless salt solutions are placed in separate test-tubes and a strip of copper
is dipped in each.. which solution finally turns blue?
a. Pb (NO3)2
b. Zn (NO3)2
c. AgNO3
d. Cd (NO3)2
151. When an electric current is passed through a cell containing an electrolyte,

positive ions move towards the cathode and negative ions towards the anode. What
will happen if the cathode is pulled out of solution?
a. The positive ions will start moving towards the anode and negative ions will stop
moving
b. The negative ions will continue to move towards the anode and the positive ions
will stop moving
c. Both negative and positive ions move towards the anode
d. None of these movements will take place
152. What is the standard cell potential for the cell Zn; Zn +2 (IM) ll Cu+2 (IM); Cu (E
for Zn+2 l Zn = -.76; E for Cu+2 l Cu = +0.34)
a. -0.076 + 0.34 = -0.42 V
b. 0.34 (-0.76) = +1.10V
c. 0.34 (-0.76) = +0.42V
d. 0.76 (+0.34) = -1.10V
153. One Faraday of current was passed through the electrolytic cells placed in series
containing solutions of Ag+, Ni+2 and Cr+3 respectively. The amount of Ag (At.Wt.
108), Ni (At. Wt. 59) and Cr (At. Wt. 52) deposited will be:
Silver
Nickel
Chromium
108g
29.5g
17.5g
b.
108g
59g
52.0g
c.
108g
108g
108g
d.
108g
117.5g
166g
154.
a.
Given standard electrode potentials

E
Fe++ + 2e Fe
-0.440V
Fe+++ + 3e Fe
-0.036V
The standard electrode potential (E) for Fe+++ + e Fe++ is

a. 0.476V
b. 0.404V
c. +0.404V
d. +0.771V
155. The magnitude of the individual half cell potentials are given
(i) CO2+ + 2e Co
0.28V
(ii) Hg2+ + 2e 2Hg
0.78V
when both the half cells (a) and (b) are connected with SHE, the metallic
electrode Co is found to be ve and Hg electrode is found to be +ve. The correct sign
for the electrode potentials will be:
a. +ve for half cell (I)
b. +ve for half cell (ii)
c. ve for half cell (ii)
156. When an iron wire is immersed in an acidic solution of CuSo4, the blue color of
the solution is lost after some time. This is due to
a. reduction of Cu++
b. oxidation of CuSO4
c. formation of double complex between iron and copper sulfate
d. formation of a colorless salt of Cu++
157. Magnesium cannot displace from solution the ions of
a. sodium
b. lead
c. copper
d. gold
158. The mathematical statement of Gibbs phase rule is

a. F = C-P+2
b. C = F-P+2
c. C = F-P+1
d. P = C+F+2
159. The homogenous physically distinct and mechanically separable parts of the
heterogeneous system in equilibrium are called
a. phases
b. components
c. degrees of freedom
160. What is the degree of freedom of a system consisting of a gaseous mixture of

carbon dioxide and nitrogen?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
161. How many phases are present in the water system?

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
162. How many phases will be there in the system made of water and methyl alcohol?
a. 3
b. 1
c. 1
d. 0
163. How many components are necessary to define the following equilibrium?
CaCO3
Solid
CaO + CO2
solid
gas
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
164. The minimum number of phases existing in a system is

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
165. The incongruent melting point is so called

a.
b.
c.
d.
peritectic temperature
meritectic temperature
transition temperature
all of the above
ALGEBRA
1.
2.
The sum of two numbers is 11. The sum of their reciprocals is 11/30. Find the smaller number.
a. 6
b. 5
c. 2
d. 3
The sum of the squares of two numbers is 58 and the difference of their squares is 40. Find the larger
no.
a. 7
b. -7
c. 3
d. 3
3. Find the smallest positive integer, which leaves a remainder of 2 when divided by 4, 6 and 8.
b. 50
c. 26
d. 74
a. 98
4. The sum of two numbers is 4 and their product is 2. Find the sum of their reciprocals.
a.
b.
c. 2
d. 4
5.
A number has two digits whose sum is 10. The difference between the original number and the number
resulting from an
interchange of its digit is 54. What is the original number?
a. 45
b. 54
c. 28
d. 82
6.
A number is less than 100, and its tens digit is four more than its units digit. If the number with the
digits reversed is
subtracted from the original number, the remainder is three times the sum of the digits. Find the
original number.
a. 84
b. 48
c. 26
d. 62
7. A fathers age is now five times that of his first-born son. Six years from now, the old mans age will be
only three times that
of his son. Find the sons present age.
a. 12
b. 30
c. 6
d. 36
8.
A mother is now three times as old as her daughter. In 4 years, the mother will be four times as old as
the daughter was, two
years ago. How old is the daughter?
a. 36
b. 12
c. 20
d. 60
9.
If the altitude and the base of a triangle were each increased by 2 cm, the area would increase by 19
cm2. If the altitude is
increased by 3 cm and the base is decreased by 4 cm, the area will be decreased by 5 cm2. Find the
base of the triangle.
a. 7
b. 10
c. 9
d. 8
10. A rectangular piece of cardboard has an area of 150 cm 2. By a cutting a square 2 cm wide on each side
from each of the
corners and folding up the sides, an open box is formed having a volume of 132 mL. Find the length of
the original
cardboard.
a. 8
b. 7
c. 10
d. 15
11. How soon after three oclock will the hands of a clock be together?
a. 3:16:22
b. 3:15:00
c. 16:22
d. 15:00
12. At what time between 6 and 7` oclock are the hands of a clock coincident?
a. 6:30
b. 6:32.73
c. 6:32.5
d. 6:35
13. One pipe alone can fill a tub in 12 minutes. Another pipe can fill it in only 8 minutes. How long would
it take both pipes to fill
the tub?
a. 4.7 mins
b. 20.0 mins
c. 4.8 mins
d. 4.9 mins
14. A pipe can alone fill a tank in 5 hrs, while a drain could do the contrary in 12 hrs. How long would it
take the pipe to fill the
tank if the drain was simultaneously opened during the duration of the filling job and if the tank were
entirely emptied at the
start?
a. 7.6 hrs
b. 8.6 hrs
c. 4.42 hrs
d. 4.06 hrs
15. A pipe can fill a tank in 7 hrs while a drain pipe can empty the tank in a matter of 11 hrs. If for the first
4 hrs, the drain was
left open while the pipe was filling it, how much longer would it have taken the input pipe to fill the
tank full if the tank was
emptied at the start?
a. 5.5 hrs
b. 7.6 hrs
c. 15.2 hrs
d. 6.12 hrs
16. An ocean going vessel traveling at 20 kph between two ports of call of a short distance of 45 km, takes
an hour and 12
minutes less time when going with the low tide current than against it. What was the rate of the
current?
a. 0.44 kph
b. 225 kph
c. 20.5 kph
d. 5 kph
17. A job can be done in as many days as there are men in the group. If the number of men is
reduced by 4, the work is
delayed by 5 days. How many were there in the original group?
a. 18
b. 16
c. 20
d. 24
18. A project can be done by 8 girls in 5 days. 5 boys can do the same project in 6 days. How long
will it take for 3 boys and 6
girls to do the job?
a. 4 days
b. 5 days
c. 6 days
d. 8 days
19. The sum of two numbers is 14. The sum of the squares of the numbers is 100. Find the
product of the two numbers.
a. 42
b. 48
c. 54
d. 56
20. The amount of 135 is to be divided among three brothers in the ratio 3: 5: 7. What is the
biggest amount received by a
brother?
a. 54
b. 63
c. 72
d. 75
21. A high concentrated solution having a volume of 100 liters is 25% gasoline. How much
gasoline should be added to the
solution to produce a 50-50% mixture?
a. 50 L
b. 75 L
c. 40 L
d. 60 L
22. The gasoline tank of a car contains 50 liters gasoline and alcohol, the alcohol comprising 25%.
How much of the mixture
should be drawn off and replaced by alcohol so that the tank contains a mixture of 50-50%
solution?
a. 14.5 L
b. 15 L
c. 16 L
d. 16.67 L
23. The number 142 is divided into two parts such that when the greater part is divided by the
smaller part, the quotient is 3 and
remainder is 14. What is the greater part?
a. 110
b. 112
c. 114
d. 116
24. Two jet planes traveling toward each other took off at the same time from two airports located
4800 km apart. If they passed
each other after 2 hours, determine the speed (kph) of the faster plane if one plane is flying at
160 kph faster than the other.
a. 1280
b. 1300
c. 1320
d. 1350
25. A man driving his car at a certain speed will reach his destination 6 hours. If he increased his
speed by 24kph, he would
have reached his destination in 5 hours. Find the distance of his destination.
a. 750 km
b. 720 km
c. 650 km
d. 600 km
26. Find the value of x if : (a + b) x = (a2 + 2ab + b2 ) x-3
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10
27. Find the value of x2 + 1/x2 if :

a. 45
b. 47
d. 51
x + 1/x = 7
c. 49
28. Find the value of x if : Log x = ln (2x)

a. 0.254
b. 0.294
c. 0.354
d. 0.394
29. Simplify : 7a+2 8(7a+1) + 5(7a) + 49(7a-2)

a. 5a
b. 3
c. 7a
d. 7a
30. If 33y=1, what is the value of y/33?

a. 0
b. 1
c. undefined
d. infinity
31. Which of the following is true?

a. 2 X 2 = 2
c. 10 = 5 + 2
b. 24 = 4( 6 )
d. 55+ 55 + 55 + 55 + 55 = 56
32. Find k so that 4x2 + kx +1 = 0, will only have one real solution.
a. 1
b. 4
c. 3
d. 2
33. If the sum of the first 50 positive odd integers is subtracted from the sum of the first 50 positive even
integers, then the
difference is
a. 100
b. 50
c. 150
d. 250
34. Find the 347th digit in the decimal expansion of 825/999.
a. 6
b. 5
c. 8
d. 2
35. Find the sum of the series 1 + - 1/8 + 1/16 + . . . .

a. 2/3
b. 4/3
c. 1.312
36. Find the sum of the series 1 + - 1/8 + 1/16 + . . . .

a. 2/3
b. 4/3
c. 1.312
37. A tank full of alcohol is emptied one-sixth of its content and then filled up with water and mixed. If
this is done six times and
the tank has a capacity of 6 liters, how much alcohol remains?
a. 3 liters
b. 2 liters
c. 1 liter
d. 0 liter
38. Solve for x in the equation x
a. 6
b. 3
x ... 3
c. 3
39. Evaluate log6 3

a. 0.61
b. 0.08
d. 3
c. 216
d. 729
40. Find a quadratic equation whose roots are 2- 5 and 2 +

a. x2 4x + 1 = 0
b. x2 + 4x + 1 = 0
2
c. x 4x 1 = 0
d. x2 + 4x-1 = 0
5.
41. Find the 6th term of the expansion of (1/2a 3)16.
22113
a.
22113
c.
66339
256a11
b.
128a 11
66339
d.
128a 11
256a 11
42. What is the sum of the coefficients of the expansion of (2x 1)20?
a. 1
b. 0
c. 215
d. 225
1
43. Find the middle term in the expansion of 2 x 2
4 y
5 x6
2 y 3
5 x6
c.
4 y3
b. 5
a.
d.
x6
y3
5 x6
8 y 3
44. In the complex number 3 + 4i, the absolute value is
a. 10.0
b. 7.2
c. 5.0
d. 5.7
b. I
c. 1 I
d. 0
c.
d.
45. Simplify : i1997 + i1999
a. 1 + I
46. Evaluate :
10
. imaginary
b.
70
10
70
47. A series of numbers which are perfect square numbers (i.e. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25) is called
a. Fourier series
c. Eulers number
b. Fermats number
d. Fibonacci number
48. If the roots of an equation are zero, then they are classified as
a. trivial solutions
b. extraneous solutions
c. conditional solutions
d. hypergolic solutions
49. Infinity minus infinity is
a. Infinity
b. 0
c. Indeterminate
d. 1
b. 1
c. data insufficient
d.
50. The logarithm of 1 is
a. 0
51. The polynomial x3+4x23x+8 is divided by x-1, then the remainder is
a. 10
b. 14
c. 5
d. 7
52. Which of the following is not a factor of 2x4+11x3+16x2+x-6=0?
a. 1
b. 2
1
53. Given 3 X 3 matrix, -1

0
a. 0
-2 3
2 2
1
c. -3
d.
. Find its determinant.
b. 2
c. -1
d. 5
c. 1
d. 0
c. 60100
d. 5910
c. 35.705
d. 30.705
54. Determine the value of y:

2x + y 3z = 3
x + y 2z = 1
xyz=4
a. - 2
b. 4
TRIGONOMETRY
1.
Add : 273452 + 322518
a. 60010 b. 595970
2.
Solve for x if tan 3x = 5 tan x
a. 15.705
3.
Solve for x : tan-1 (x+1) + tan-1 (x-1) = tan-1 (12)
a. 1.50
4.
b. 20.705
b. 1.20
c. 1.25
d. 1.33
c. 0.40
d. 0.61
If sin A = 2/5, what is the value of 1 cos A?
a. 0.08
b. 0.92
5.
Find the supplement of an angle whose complement is 62
a. 28
6.
b. /4
c. 3/2
d. /2
b. 1/9
c. 8/9
d. 4/9
c. 90
d. 30
Given : cos3 - 2cos2 + cos = 0. Find
a. 45
9.
d. 35
If sin - cos = -1/3, what is the value of sin 2?
a. 1/3
8.
c. 152
For what value of (less than 2) will the following equation be satisfied? sin2 + 4sin + 3 = 0
a.
7.
b. 118
b. 60
Find the minimum positive value of
a. 5/8
b.
5 3 sin A
3 5 cos B
c. 1
d. 5/3
c. tan
d. 1
c. cos4A
d. sin4A
10. If cos 0, then sec - sin tan =?
a. sin
b. cos
11. sinA sin3A + cosA cos3A = ?
a. cos2A
b. sin2A
12. If tan x = , tan y = 1/3, what is the value of tan (x+y)?
a. 1
13. Simplify:
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
c. sin
d. tan
2 tan 2
1 tan2 2
a. cos
b. sec
14. Given: sin A = 3/5; cos A < 0 and cos B = -12/13; tan B < 0, determine cos (A-B)
a. 123/845
b. 123/845
c. 33/65
d. 63/65
15. Simplify cos (30-) cos (30+) as a function of only
a. cos
b. sec
c. tan
d. sin
16. Express sin 145 in terms of a function of a positive acute angle
a. cos 35
b. sin 35
c. cos 55
d. cos -55
c. 30
d. 40
c. sin A
d. cos A
17. If sin 4x = cos (40 + x), solve for x
a. 10
b. 20
18. cos (A+B) cos A + sin (A+B) sin A
a. sin B
b. cos B
19. What is the value of (log 5 to the base 2) + (log 5 to the base 3)?
a. 7.39
b. 3.79
c. 3.97
d. 9.37
c. 17/9
d. 8/17
20. Find the value of sin (arc cos 15/17).
a. 8/9
b. 8/21
21. A pole cast a shadow 15-m long when the angle of elevation of the sun is 61 o. If the pole has
lean 15o from the vertical
directly toward the sun, what is the length of the pole?
a. 54.23
b. 48.64
c. 36.84
d. 64.84
22. The area of the isosceles triangle is 36-sq. m with the included angle of 30 o between the two
equal sides. Find the perimeter
of the triangle.
a. 30.21
b. 32.12
c. 28.43
d. 29.65
23. If an equilateral triangle is circumscribed about a circle of radius 10-cm, determine the side of
the triangle.
a. 34.64
b. 64.12
c. 36.44
d. 32.1
24. Find the length of the side of a regular octagon that is inscribed in a circle of radius 243
inches.
a.143
b.154
c.165
d. 186
25. Find the area of a parallelogram whose sides are 67 cm and 43 cm, the acute angle between
them being 65.
a. 1305
b. 1611
c. 1805
d. 2611
26. Express in radian the angle between the hands of a clock at 3:25 PM.
a. 0.73
b. 0.83
c. 0.93
d. 1.0
27. The three dimensions of a rectangular parallelepiped are in the ratio 2:3:5. If the volume is
810 cu cm, what is the length of
the longest side?
a. 6
b. 9
c. 15
d. 18
28. Three spheres of radii 1, 2 and 3 inches, respectively, are melted and formed into a new
sphere. Find the radius of this new
sphere.
a. 3.3
b. 4.3
c. 5
d. 6
29. The two bases of a trapezoid are 12 inches and 18 inches respectively. If the angles at the
extremities of one base are 65
and 40 respectively, find the longer leg.
a. 5.63
b. 6.23
c. 7.21
d. 7.81
30. Find the radius of circle circumscribed about the triangle for which A = 50, B = 20, and a =
35 inches.
a. 22.84
b. 25.64
c. 31.25
d. 36.55
31. At one side of a road is a pole 25 ft. high fixed on the top of a wall, 15 ft high. On the other side of the
road, at a point on the
ground directly opposite, the flagstaff and the wall subtend equal angles. Find the width of the road.
a. 25 ft
b. 40 ft
c. 60 ft
d. 30 ft
32. The angle of elevation of the top of the tower B from the top of tower A is 28 and the angle of
elevation of the top of tower A
from the base of the tower B is 46. The two towers lie in the same horizontal plane. If the height of
tower B is 120 m, find
the height of tower A.
a. 87 m
b. 91 m
c. 79 m
d. 66 m
b. 320 mils
c. 330 mils
d. 400 mils
33. Express 18 in mils
a. 220 mils
34. A circle is divided into two parts by a chord 3 cm away from the center. Find the area of the smaller
part, in square cm, if the
circle has an area of 201 cm2.
a. 372.5
b. 363.6
c. 368.4
d. 53.7
35. Given a triangle whose sides are 24 cm, 30 cm, and 36 cm. Find the radius of a circle which is tangent
to the shortest and
longest side of a triangle, and whose center lies on the third side.
a. 9 cm
b. 12 cm
c. 11 cm
d. 18 cm
36. If a steel ball is immersed in an 8 cm diameter cylinder, it displaces water to a depth of 2.25 cm. The
radius of the ball is
a. 6 cm
b. 3 cm
c. 2 cm
d. 4 cm
37. Each interior angle of a regular nonagon is equal to
a. 140
b. 144
c. 135
d. 150
38. A polygon has 350 diagonals. How many sides are there?
a. 28
b. 25
c. 32
d. 30
39. One angle is 20 less than thrice its supplement. What are the angles?
a. 20, 160
b. 45, 135
c. 55, 125
d. 50, 130
40. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 30 cm. The perimeter is 72 cm. Find the length of its shortest side.
a. 16
b. 24
c. 18
d. 27
ANALYTIC GEOMETRY
1. Find the area of the triangle with vertices (2,-1), (-3, 4) and (0,-3).
a. 10
2.
b. 9.5
c. 10.5
d. 9
A copying machine reduces the side of a triangle by 20%. The area of the triangle is reduced by
a. 36%
b. 20%
c. 18%
d. 40%
3.
A spherical balloon is being inflated so that the surface increases by 20%, then the volume of the
sphere increases by
a. 20%
4.
c. (6,-6)
d. (-6,6)
b. 19
c. 19 or 5
d. 5 or 19
b. 8
c. 3
d. 3
Find the distance from the point (2,3) to the line 3x+4y+9=0
a. 5
8.
b. (5,-6)
The slope of the line joining ( 2,-3) and the midpoint of the line segment joining (0,4) and (5,-2) is
a. 8
7.
d. 31.45%
If the distance between the points (8,7) and (3,y) is 13, what is the value of y?
a. 5
6.
c. 31.5%
The midpoint of the line segment between P1(x1,y1) and P2(-2,4) is Pm(2, -1). Find the coordinate of P1
a. (6,-5)
5.
b. 30%
b. 5.4
c. 5.8
d. 6.2
Find the acute angle formed by the lines 2x + y 8 = 0 and x + 3y + 4 = 0.

a. 30o
b. 35o
c. 45o
d. 60o
9. If the points (-2, 3) , (x,y) and (-3, 5) lie on the straight line, then the equation of the line is
_____.
a. x + 2y 1 = 0
b. 2x + y 1 = 0
c. x + 2y + 1 = 0
d. 2x + y + 1 = 0
10. Two vertices of a triangle are (2,4) and (-2, 3) and the area is 2 square units, the locus of the
third vertex is
a. x 4y = -10
b. x 4y = -18
c. none of the above
d. both a and b
11. Find the area of the triangle which the line 2x 3y + 6 = 0 forms with the coordinate axis.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
12. The intercepts of a straight line on the x and y axes are 4 and 6, respectively. Find its
equation.
a. 3x + 2y = 12
b. 2x + 3y = 12
c. 3x 2y = 12
d. 2x 3y = 12
13. What is the distance between the center of the circles X 2 + Y2 + 2X + 4Y 3 = 0 and X2
+ Y2 - 8X - 6Y + 7 = 0 ?
a. 7.07
b. 7.77
c. 8.07
d. 8.77
14.
= 0.
Find the radical axis of the circle x 2 + y2 + 8x 6y = 0 and the circle x2 + y2 -12x 16y + 20
a. 2x + y = 2
15.
b. 2x y = 2
c. x + 2y = 2
d. x 2y = 2
Find the eccentricity of the curve: 9X 2 - 4Y2 - 36X + 8Y = 4.

a. 1.76
b. 1.80
c. 1.86
d. 1.92
16. The moons orbit is an ellipse with the earth at one focus. The length of the major axis is
478,000 miles and the
eccentricity e = 0.055. Find the least distance from the earth to the moon in miles.
a. 239,000
b. 225,855
c. 210,755 d. 190,255
17. Find the coordinates of the midpoint of the line segment joining the points A (4, 1, 8) and B
(6, -3, 4).
a. (5, -1, 6)
b. (10, -2, 12)
c. (-2, 4, 4) d. (0, 0, 0)
18.
Find the angle between two vectors whose direction numbers are (2, 1, 1) and (1, -1, 2).
a. 300
b. 400
c. 450
d. 600
19.
Find the polar equation of a circle with center at the (3, 0) and the radius 3.
a. r = 3cos b. r = 3sin
c. r = 6cos d. r = 6sin
20.
Find the angle that the line 2y-9x-18=0 makes with the x-axis.
a. 74.8
21.
c. 3
d. 12
b. 3
c. 12
d. 3
b. x-2=0
c. 4x-7=0
d. 7x+4=0
b. 3.2
c. 3.6
d. 3.0
b. 0.256
c. 0.689
d. 0.866
Find the eccentricity of the curve 9x2 16y2 = 144
a. 0.6
28.
b. 9
The eccentricity of the ellipse x2/4 + y2/16 = 1 is
a. 0.725
27.
d. 11
Find the length of the latus rectum of the following ellipse:

25x2+9y2-300x-144y+1251=0
a. 3.4
26.
c. 12
Find the equation of the axis of symmetry of the function y = 2x 27x+5.
a. 4x+7=0
25.
b. 13
What is the length of the latus rectum of the curve x2= - 12y
a. 12
24.
d. 77.5
Find the area of the circle whose center is at (2,-5) and tangent to the line 4x+3y-8=0
a. 6
23.
c. 47.8
Find the length of the chord common to the circles x2+y2=64 and x2+y2-16x=0
a. 14
22.
b. 4.5
b. 0.8
c. 1.25
d. 5/3
The area of the region enclosed by the curve 4x2 + 25y2 = 50
a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
d. 15
29.
a. 2x-3y=0
30.
x2 y 2
1?
9
4
What is the equation of the asymptote of the hyperbola
b. 3x-2y=0
c. 2x-y=0
d. 2x+y=0
An arch 18 m high has the form of parabola with a vertical axis. The length of a horizontal beam
placed across the arch 8m
from the top is 64m. Find the width at the bottom.
a. 86m
b. 96m
c. 106m
d. 76m
31. The collection of all points in the plane equidistant from two fixed points is
a. ellipse
b. parabola
c. line
d. circle
32. Find the value of k for which the equation x 2 4y2 + (k+1)x + k2 = 0 represents two
intersecting lines.
a. k =1
b. k = 0
c. k = 1, -1/3 d. k = -1,
1/3
DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS
1.
Find
lim
x2
a. 0
2.
Find
Find
lim
x 1
a. e2
4.
b. 1
lim
x3 2x 9
x 2x3 8
a. 0
3.
3 x 1
x2
b. 2
c.
d.
infinite
c.
d.
c. 0
d.
2 x tan 2
b. e2/
Find Limx ( 7 x3 ) / (4 x3 - 2x + 10 )
a. 0
b. 1.75
c. indeterminate
5. Find Limx 0 ( 1 ex ) / x
a. -1
b. 1
c. -2
d. 2
6. Find Limx 0 sin 3x / x

a. 0
b. 1/3
7. Find the derivative of y if x2 + y2 = 1.
a. x/y
b. x/y
8. Find the derivative of y if xy + y2 = 1.
a. y / (x + y)
b. y / (x + y)
d. infinity
c. 1
c. y-3
c. y / (x + 2y)
d. 3
d. y-3
d. y /(x + 2y)
9. Find the derivative of y = ex cos x2

a. ex sin x2
b. ex (cos x2 2x sin x2 )
c. ex cos x2 2x sin x2
d. 2x ex sin x
10. Find the partial derivatives with respect to x of the function xy 2 5y +6.
a. y2 5
b. y2
c. xy 5y
d. 2xy
11. The length of a rectangle of constant area 800 q cm is increasing at a rate of 4 cm per second.
What is the width of the
rectangle at the moment the width is decreasing at a rate of 0.5 cm per second?
a. 10 cm
b. 20 cm
c. 30 cm
d. 40 cm
12. A particle moves around a curve y = x2 + 2x. At what point on the curve are the x and y
coordinates of the particles changing
at the same rate?
a. (1, 3)
b. (0, 0)
c. (-1/2, -3/4)
d. (-1, -1)
13. Find the slope- intercept equation of the normal line to the graph y = x 3 x2 at the point where
x=1.
a. y = x + 1
b. y = -x + 1
c. y = x 1
d. y = -x 1
14. Find the point on the graph of y = x 2 at which the tangent line is parallel to the line y = 6x-1.
a. (0,0)
b. (1,1)
c. (2,4)
d. (3,9)
15. At a point (1,2) of the curve x2 xy + y2 = 3, find the slope of the tangent line.
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
16. If x + y = 6, find the maximum value of xy2
a. 32
c. 36
b. 30
sin x
, then f (x) = ?
1 cos x
1
a.
1 cos x
d. 40
17. If f(x) =
b.
c. 1 + cos x
1
1 cos x
d. 1 cos x
18. If xy = 6, find the minimum value of 2x + 3y
a. 12
b. 10
c. 9
d. 15
19. Find a point on the curve y = e2x whose tangent line is perpendicular to the line x + 4y-8 = 0
a. (0,1)
c. (ln2, 4)
d. (l, e2)
b. (ln 2 , 2)
20. Find the derivative of y = xx
a. xx
b. xx (lnx)
c. xx( l + lnx )
d. none of the
above
21. Find the largest area of a rectangle that could be inscribed in the ellipse, 4x2 + 9y2 = 36
a. 12
b. 24
c. 6
d. 48
22. A balloon leaving the ground 18m from the observer rises 3m/sec. How fast is the angle of elevation of
the line of sight
increasing after 8 sec?
a. 0.12 rad/s
b. 0.08 rad/s
c. 0.03 rad/s
d. 0.06
rad/s
23. A box is to be constructed from a piece of zinc 20 in2 by cutting equal squares from each corner and
turning up the zinc to
form the side. What is the maximum volume (cubic inch) of the box that can be constructed?
a. 600
b. 593
c. 580
d. 622
24. Water is flowing into a conical vessel 15 cm deep and having a radius of 3.75 cm across the top. If the
rate at which the
water rises in 2 cm/sec, how fast is the water flowing (m 3/sec) into the conical vessel when the water is
4 cm deep?
a. 6.28
b. 2.37
c. 4.57
d. 5.73
25. At the minimum point, the slope of the tangent line to a curve is
a. zero
b. negative
c. positive
d. unity
26. Given a function, y = f(x) whose f (x) = - f(x). Determine the function
a. logarithmic
b. exponential1
c. transcendental
d. sinusoidal
27. At the maximum point, the value of f (x) is
a. negative
28. The function, f ( x )
a. x = -1, 3
b. positive
c. zero
x 2
is discontinuous at
x 2x 3
b. x = 1, -3
c. x = 1, -2
d. unity
d. x = -1, 2
29. Find the slope of the line tangent to y = -4/x at x=2
a. 1
b. 0
c. 1
d. 2
c. 1/x3
d. 1
c. 4 times
d. 5 times
30. Find the 3rd derivative of y= x ln x
a. 1/x
b. 1/x2
31. The graph of y = x5 x will cross the x-axis
a. twice
b. thrice
32. Which of the following functions will have an inflection point?
a. y = x4
b. y = x3
c. y = x2
d. y = x
33. Find C so that the line y = 4x + 3 is tangent to the curve y = x2 + C
a. 3
b. 4
INTEGRAL CALCULUS
1. Find the (x + 1) (x 1) dx
c. 5
d. 7
a. x2 + x + C
x+C
2. Find the x x dx
a. 2/5 x5/2 + C
d. x1/2 + C
b. x2 x + C
b. 5/2 x5/2 + C
3. Find the (5 x2 + 1) dx / x
a. 2 x5/2 + 2 x1/2 + C
d. 5 x5/2 2 x1/2 + C
5. Find the dx / ( 1 + sin x)

a. tan x + sec x +C
C
d. 2 (1 + sin x )1/2 + C
d. 0.33 x3
c. 2 x1/2 + C
b. 2 x5/2 2 x1/2 + C
4. Find the 5sin 4 x cos x dx

a. sin 4 x cos2 x + C
b. 5 sin 4 x cos2 x + C
d. sin 5 x + C
6.
c. 0.33 x3 + x + C
c. 5 x5/2 + 2 x1/2 + C
c. 5 sin 5 x + C
b. tan x sec x +C
c. 2 (1 sin x )1/2 +
Find the ( 1 sin x)1/2 dx

a. tan x + sec x +C
b. tan x sec x +C
1/2
+C
d. 2 (1 + sin x ) + C
c. 2 (1 sin x )1/2
7. Find the cot x dx

a. ln sin x + C
d. ln cos x + C
b. ln sin x + C
8. Find the x sin x dx

a. x cos x + sin x + C
none of these
b. x cos x sin x + C
c. x cos x + sin x + C
9. Find the ln x dx / x
a. ln x + C
ln 2 x + C
b. 2 ln x + C
c. x ln x x + C
10. Find the ln x dx

a. ln x + C
ln 2 x + C
b. 2 ln x + C
11. Find the (2x + 2)dx / ( x + 2)

a. 2x 2ln( x + 2 ) +C b. 2x + 2ln( x + 2 ) +C
d. 2x + ln( x + 2 ) +C
c. ln cos x + C
c. x ln x x + C
c. 2x ln( x + 2 ) +C
d.
d.
d.
12. Find the 6dx / ( x2 9)

a. ln ( x-3)/(x+3) + C
arctan x/3 + C
b. ln ( x+3)/(x-3) + C
c. 2 arctan x/3 + C
d. 6
13. Find the 6dx / ( x2 + 9)

a. ln ( x-3)/(x+3) + C
arctan x/3 + C
b. ln ( x+3)/(x-3) + C
c. 2 arctan x/3 + C
d. 6
14. What is the integral of x (x+1)8 dx if the lower limit is zero and the upper limit is 1.
a. 22.76
b. 34.76
c. 45.52
54.52
d.
15. What is the integral of x3 dx / (x + 1) if the lower limit is zero and the upper limit is 1.
a. 0.14
b. 0.28
c. 0.34
d. 0.38
16. What is the integral of x e 3x dx if the lower limit is zero and the upper limit is 1.
a. 1.57
b. 2.57
c. 3.57
d. 4.57
17. What is the integral of dx / (x2 -9) if the lower limit is 4 and the upper limit is 5.
a. 0.093
b. 0.193
c. 0.293
0.393
d.
18. What is the area bounded by the curve y = x 3 , the x-axis , and the line x = -2 and x= 1.
a. 2.45
b. 4.25
c. 5.24
d. 5.42
19. Find the area bounded by y = ex , x = 0 and y = 0.
a. 1
b. 2
c. e
20. Find the length of arc in one branch of the curve y 2 = x3 from x = 0 to x = 1.
a. 1.2
b. 1.44
c. 1.64
d. infinity
d. 1.84
21. If 0 sin2ycos2ydx = 1 4 , then x is equal to
a. /2
b. /6
xdx
1+ x , by the u-substitution method, let u
a. 1+x2
b. x2
22. T o integrate
23. Evaluate
c. /3
d. /4
c. 1+x4
d. x4
4 x 2 dx
a. 4
b. 2
c.
d. 3
24.
Evaluate
3x
a. 0
4 x 5 dx
b. 2
c. 1
d. 3
25. Evaluate
xe x dx ?
a. 1
26. Evaluate
b. 45/786
c. 125/768
d. 5/768
b. 2
c. 3
d. 0.5
Determine the volume generated by rotating the region bounded by the line 2x+y-4=0 about the yaxis
a. 16/3
29.
d. e+1
Find the area of the region bounded by the lines x = y, x = 2 ; y = 1/x2
a. 1
28.
c. e1
cos8 3 A dA
a. 35/768
27.
b. e
b. 4/3
d. none of these
c. 2/3
Find the volume generated by rotating the region bounded by x=y and y 2=4x, about the x-axis from
x=1 and x=4.
c. 3
a.
b. 2
d. 9
30. The area bounded by the curve y 2=12x and the line x=3 is revolved about the line x=3. What is the
volume generated?
a. 186
b. 179
c. 181
d. 184
STATISTICS
1.
In how many different ways can a ten-question true-false examination be answered?
a. 12
b. 10
c. 20
10
d. 2
2.
A team of 5 students is to be chosen for a math contest. If there were ten male and eight female
students to choose from,
what is the probability that three team members will be male and two will be female?
a. 5/18
3.
b. 20/51
c. 5/9
d. none of the
above
c. 1440
d. 49
In how many ways can seven trees be planted in a circle
a. 720
b. 5040
4. What is the number of permutation of the letters in the word banana?

a. 36
b. 60
c. 52
d. 42
5. In a mathematics examination, a student may select 15 problems from a set of 20 problems. In
how many ways can he
makes his choice?
a. 3,000
b. 15,504
c. 1,860,480
d. 2.027 x 1016
6. There are 10 basketball teams in NCAA. If each team plays every team twice, how many
games are played?
a. 45
b. 90
c. 180
d. 120
7. How many different three-digit numbers greater than 300 can be formed with the digits 1, 2, 3,
4 and 5 if no repetitions are
allowed?
a. 3,125
b. 1,875
c. 120
d. 36
8. In how many different ways can 5 persons be seated in an automobile having places for 2 in
the front seat and 3 in the back
seat if only 3 can drive?
a. 30
b. 60
c. 36
d. 72
9. How many ways can 4 boys and 4 girls be seated alternatively in the row of eight chairs?
a. 40320
b. 24
c. 48
1152
d.
10. In how many different ways can 4 persons be seated in consecutive seats in a row of 7 seats?
a. 72
b. 96
c. 120
d. 168
11. How many different committees of 6 can be formed from 12 boys and 20 girls if each
committee is consisting of 4 boys and
2 girls?
a. 34,560
b. 69,120
c. 94,050
d. 4,514,450
12. How many different signals each consisting of 6 flags hung in a vertical can be formed from 4
identical red flag and 2
identical yellow flag?
a. 720
b. 24
c. 15
d. 12
13. How many 4 digits number can be formed from the number 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9 if
repetition is allowed?
a. 4,536
b. 10,000
c. 5040
d. 9,000
14. Which of the following can not be a probability value?
a. (0.99)2
b. 13/12
c. 8/10
d. 0.01
15. If A and B are complimentary events and probability of occurrence of event A is zero or Pr(A) =
0, then Pr(B) is
a. less than one
b. more than one
c. one
d. zero
16. Determine the probability of throwing a total of 7 in a single throw with two dice.
a. 1/3
b.
c. 1/6
d. 1/12
17. In one of the parlor games, nineteen tickets from 1 to 19 are in the box. If two tickets are
drawn at random. Determine the
probability that both are odd.
a. 4/19
b. 5/19
c. 6/19
d. 7/19
18. A box contains 4 red, 7 white and 5 blue balls. Two balls are chosen at random with
replacement. What is the probability
they are both red?
a. 1/16
b. 1/10
c. 1/12
d. 1/8
19. What is the probability of drawing either an ace or a king in a single draw from a deck of 52
playing cards?
a. 1/13
b. 2/13
c. 7/52
d. 1/6
20. What is the probability of drawing either an ace or a heart in a single draw from a deck of 52
playing cards?
a. 17/52
b. 4/13
c.9/26
d. 15/52
21. From a bag containing 4 black balls and 5 white balls, two balls are drawn. Find the probability
that one is white and the
other is black.
a. 4/9
b. 5/9
c. 2/3
d. 1/3
22. Two cards are drawn at random on an ordinary deck of cards. What is the probability that both
cards are either a king or a
diamond?
a. 16/169
b. 20/221
c. 4/13
d. 17/52
23. Two red books and 4 blue books are placed at random on a shelf. What is the probability that
the blue books will be
together?
a. 0.1
0.341
b. 0.143
c. 0.2
d.
24. A number from 1 to 10,000 inclusive is selected at random. What is the probability that it is a
perfect square?
a. 0.01
b. 0.015
c. 0.02
d. 0.025
25. What is the probability of drawing 3 face cards in 3 draws from an ordinary deck of card?
a. 0.0123
b. 0.00995
c. 0.123
d. 0.0995
26. If 10 coins are tossed, what is the probability that it will show 5 heads and 5 tails?
a. 0.246
b. 0.256
c. 0.0246
0.0256
d.
27. What is the probability of getting a number "4" thrice in five tosses of a dice?
a. 0.232
b. 0.322
c. 0.0232
d. 0.0322
28. If the probability that Ginebra, Alaska and Shell will win the PBA open conference championship are
1/5, 1/6 and 1/10
respectively. Find the probability that one of them will win the title.
a. 7/15
b. 1/300
c. 7/100
d. 1
29. An urn contains 4 black balls and 6 white balls. What is the probability of getting one black ball and
one white ball in two
consecutive draws from the urn?
a. 0.24
b. 0.27
c. 0.53
d. 0.04
30. There is 1 defectives per 100 items of a product in a long run. What is the probability that there is one
and only one detective
in a random lot of 100.
a. 0.3697
b. 0.3967
c. 0.3796
d. 0.3679
31. The graphical representation of the cumulative frequency distribution in a set of statistical data is
called?
a. Mean
c. Frequency Polyhedron
b. Histogram
32.
d. Mass Diagram
A shoe store sells 10 different sizes of shoes; each in both high cut & low cut variety, each either
rubber or leather, and
each with white or black color. How many different kinds of shoes does he sell?
a. 64
b. 80
c. 72
d. 92
33. In a poker game consisting of 5 cards, what is the probability of holding 2 aces and 2 queens?
1264
a. 5!/52!
/45685
b. 5/52
c.
33
/54145
d.
34. In how many ways can PICHE Chapter with 15 directors choose a president. a vice president, a
secretary, a treasurer and
an auditor, if no member can hold more than one position.
a. 630630
b. 3300
c. 360360
3003
35. A two-digit number is chosen randomly. What is the probability that it is divisible by 7?
a. 7/50
b.13/90
c. 1/7
d. 5/7
36. In raw data, the term that occurs most frequently is known as:
a. mean
b. median
c. mode
d. quartile
37. In probability theory, the set of possible outcomes of an experiment is termed as:
a. sample space
b. set of random counts
c. a set of random variables

d. a fuzzy set
d.

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CHEMICAL ENGINEERING

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS:

6. Rate determining step in a reaction consisting of a number of step in series is the

14.Fill up the blanks:

21. The energy of activation of a chemical reaction

29. Conversion increases with increase in temperature of

37. A batch reactor is characterized by

(d) both (a) and (c)

54. Oil hydrogenated using nickel catalyst in a

61. For all positive reaction orders for a particular duty

85. A catalyst promoter

CHEMICAL ENGINEERING THERMODYNAMICS

b. temperature change is zero

15. Isentropic process means a constant

16. Throttling process is a constant

17. The point at which all three phases co-exist is known as

21. For an isothermal reversible compression of an ideal gas

b. not a function of its nature

26. Critical compressibility factor for all substances

30. Degrees of freedom at triple point will be

32. An isolated system can exchange

39. Fill up the blank from among the following:

41. Absolute zero temperature signifies

47. In a reversible process

48. In an irreversible process

50. Third law of thermodynamics is concerned with

57. Helmholtz free energy is defined as

58. Gibbs free energy (G) is defined as

59. Gibbs-Helmholtz equation is

66. Pick out the Claussius-Clayperon equation from the following:

68. Chemical potential is

87. Ideal refrigeration cycle is

95. Which of the following is not a common refrigerant

CHEMICAL ENGINEERING CALCULATIONS

4. For maximum discharge through a chimney, its height should be

15. Fischer-Tropsch method aims at

23. Adiabatic flame temperature of a fuel is dependant on the initial temperature of

(b) tends to shorten the flame

(c) does not affect the flame length

(d) increases the flame temperature

36. Use of excess of combustion air in the combustion of fuels results in

38. Preheating of gaseous fuel results in increased

(b) flame temperature

(c) quantum of flue gas

(d) ignition temperature

(d) none of these

42. Combustion of pulverized coal as compared to that of lump coal

(b) develops a low temperature flame

(c) can be done with less excess air

(d) provides a lower rate of heat release

(b) high fusion point of its ash

(c) high bulk density

(d) lower ash constant

(d) none of these

46. Dry air requirement for burning 1 ft of CO to CO2 may be around

47. Washing of coal

(b) coke oven gas

(c) carburetted water gas

(d) oil refinery gas

49. Most of coking coals are

(b) bituminous coal

(d) none of these

50. High excess air in combustion of fuels results in

(b) incomplete combustion