Cells & Molecules

Cell division

Occurs in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells by mitosis and meiosis

o

Replacement of the entire lining of your small intestine

Liver cells only divide for repairing

Nerve cells do not divide

Chromosomes

Long and thin for replication and decoding

Become short and fat prior mitosis easier to separate due to compact form

Meiosis (reduction division)

During the production of sex cells (gametes) in animals

In spore formation which precedes gamete production in plants

Haploid gametes (sperm ovum) - sexual reproduction

DNA in a cell replicates only once, but cell divides twice

The Cell Cycle

Interphase
o

G1: Protein synthesis and growth (10 hours)

Preparation for DNA replication (e.g. growths of mitochondria)

Differentiation, only selected genes are used to perform different

functions in each cell

S: DNA Replication (9 hours)

G2: short gap before mitosis, organelles and proteins for mitosis are made
(4 hours)

G0: Resting phase (nerve cells)

M-phase
o

Mitotic division of the nucleus

(Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase)

Cytokinesis (division of the cytoplasm)

Interphase

Phase with highest metabolism (mitochondria have a high activity)

Muscles never complete the whole cycle

Mitosis

Process of producing 2 diploid daughter cells with the same DNA by copying their
chromosomes (clones)

Chromosomes can be grouped into homologous pairs

Mitosis occurs in
o

Growth

Repair

Replacement of cells with limiting life span (red blood, skin cells)

Asexual replacement

Controlled process, cancers result from uncontrolled mitosis of abnormal cells

Division of the nucleus (karyokinesis) and the cytoplasm (cytokinesis) are two
processes of mitosis

Division of cytoplasm after nucleus. Delayed if cells have more than one nucleus
(muscle)

Active process that requires ATP

Prophase

Chromosomes become shorter and thicker by coiling themselves (condensation)

This prevents tangling with other chromosomes

Nuclear envelope disappears/breaks down

Protein fibres (spindle microtubules) form

Centrioles are moving toward opposite poles forming the spindle apparatus of
microtubule

Metaphase

Centrioles at opposite poles

Chromosomes line up on the equator of the spindle

Centromeres (kinetochores) attach to spindle fibres

Kinetochores consist of microtubules and "motor" proteins which utilise ATP to

pull on the spindle

Anaphase

Spindle fibres pull copies of chromatids to spindle poles to separate them

Mitochondria around spindle provide energy for movement

Telophase

Chromatid at the pole

Sets of chromosomes form new nuclei

Chromosomes become long and thin, uncoil!

Nuclear envelopes form around the nucleus

Cell Types

Cells are structural and functional units

Small cells: bigger surface area per volume allows exchange of more
nutrients/waste

Large cells: smaller surface area per volume problems to transport waste out
of cell

More nutrients more waste

Table 1-10-1: Differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

Feature

Prokaryotic (bacteria)

Eukaryotic (plant/animal/fungi)

Size

Small cells - 5m

Large cells - 50m

Capsule (protection)

Present

Absent

In fungi (chitin)
Cell wall

Present (peptidoglycan) In plants (cellulose)

NOT in animals

Plasma membrane

Cytoplasm
- Chloroplast
- Lysosomes
- Golgi Apparatus
- Endoplasmic Reticulum
- Mitochondria
- Ribosomes

Present

Present

Absent

Only in plant cells

Absent

Present

Absent

Present

Absent

Present

Absent

Present

Small ribosomes, always Larger ribosomes free in cytoplasm

free in the cytoplasm

and attached to rough ER

Nucleus

Absent

Present

- Nuclear envelope

\ Absent

\ Present

- Nucleoli

\ Absent

\ Present

- Chromosomes (DNA)

Single and circular

Many and linear

Centriole (for mitosis)

Absent

Only in animal cells

Cell Ultrastructure

Magnification increases the size of an object

Resolution/resolving power ability to distinguish between adjacent points

Table 1-10-2: Microscopes (1)

Feature

Optical microscope

Electron microscope

Radiation

Light

Electrons

Magnification

400x (max1500)

500 000x

Resolution

2m

1nm / 0,001m
Electrons have a small wavelength
\ Higher resolution

Vacuum in microscope

Absent

Present

Specimen is

- Alive or dead

- Dead (vacuum!)

- Stained
Transmission microscope:
Electrons pass through internal
structure of specimen

Scanning microscope:
Beams of electrons are reflected
off specimens surface. Allows a
three dimensional view

Cell wall (plant cells only)

Made up of cellulose fibres which provide strength

Cell does not burst if surrounding solutions become dilute

Nucleus (5m)

Contains chromosomes (genes made of DNA which control cell activities)

Separated from the cytoplasm by a nuclear envelope

The envelope is made of a double membrane containing small holes

These small holes are called nuclear pores (100nm)

Nuclear pores allow the transport of proteins into the nucleus

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (rough ER)

Have ribosomes attached to the cytosolic side of their membrane

Found in cells that are making proteins for export (enzymes, hormones, structural
proteins, antibodies)

Thus, involved in protein synthesis

Modifies proteins by the addition of carbohydrates, removal of signal sequences

Phospholipid synthesis and assembly of polypeptides

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (smooth ER)

Have no ribosomes attached and often appear more tubular than the rough ER

Necessary for steroid synthesis, metabolism and detoxification, lipid synthesis

Numerous in the liver

Ribosomes (20-30nm)

Small organelles often attached to the ER but also found in the cytoplasm

Large (protein) and small (rRNA) subunits form the functional ribosome
o

Subunits bind with mRNA in the cytoplasm

This starts translation of mRNA for protein synthesis (assembly of amino

acids into proteins)

Free ribosomes make proteins used in the cytoplasm. Responsible for proteins
that

go into solution in cytoplasm or

form important cytoplasmic, structural elements

Ribosomal ribonucleic acid (rRNA) are made in nucleus of cell

Golgi apparatus

Stack of flattened sacs surrounded by membrane

Receives protein-filled vesicles from the rough ER (fuse with Golgi membrane)

Uses enzymes to modify these proteins (e.g. add a sugar chain, making
glycoprotein)

Adds directions for destination of protein package - vesicles that leave Golgi
apparatus move to different locations in cell or proceed to plasma membrane for
secretion

Involved in processing, packaging, and secretion

Other vesicles that leave Golgi apparatus are lysosomes

Vacuole and vesicles

Membranous sacs of liquid which store substances - vacuoles are storage areas

Lysosomes (0.05 to 0.5 micron)

Performs intracellular digestion - more numerous in cells

performing phagocytosis

Limiting membrane keeps digestive enzymes separate from the cytoplasm

Lysosomal enzymes digest particles

They function optimally at pH 5 and are mostly inactive at cytosolic pH

Lysosomal enzymes are synthesized on rough ER

Transferred to the Golgi apparatus for modification and packaging

Primary lysosomes are small concentrated sacs of enzymes (no digestion

process)
o

Primary lysosomes fuse with a phagocytic vacuole

Become secondary lysosomes

Digestion begins

Nutrients diffuse through lysosomal membrane into the cytosol

Mitochondria (1m in diameter and 7m in

length)

Mostly protein, but also contains some lipid, DNA and RNA

Power house of the cell

o

Energy is stored in high energy phosphate bonds of ATP

Mitochondria convert energy from the breakdown of glucose into

adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

Responsible for aerobic respiration

Metabolic activity of a cell is related to the number of cristae (larger surface

area) and mitochondria

Cells with a high metabolic activity (e.g. heart muscle) have many well
developed mitochondria

Chloroplast (4-6m in diameter and 1-5m in

length)

Only in photosynthesising cells (plants)

Light energy, CO2, and H2O are converted to produce carbohydrates and O2

Inner membrane has folds, called lamellae (where chlorophyll is found), which
surround a fluid, called stroma

Enzymes

All enzymes are globular proteins and round in shape

They have the suffix "-ase"

Intracellular enzymes are found inside the cell

Extracellular enzymes act outside the cell (e.g. digestive enzymes)

Enzymes are catalysts speed up chemical reactions

o

Reduce activation energy required to start a reaction between molecules

Substrates (reactants) are converted into products

Reaction may not take place in absence of enzymes (each enzyme has a
specific catalytic action)

Enzymes catalyse a reaction at max. rate at an optimum state

Induced fit theory

o

Enzyme's shape changes when substrate binds to active site

Amino acids are moulded into a precise form to perform catalytic reaction
effectively

Enzyme wraps around substrate to distort it

Forms an enzyme-substrate complex fast reaction

E + S ES P + E

Enzyme is not used up in the reaction (unlike substrates)

Changes in pH

Affect attraction between substrate and enzyme and therefore efficiency of

conversion process

Ionic bonds can break and change shape / enzyme is denatured

Charges on amino acids can change, ES complex cannot form

Optimum pH

pH 7 for intracellular enzymes

Acidic range (pH 1-6) in the stomach for digestive enzymes (pepsin)

Alkaline range (pH 8-14) in oral cavities (amylase)

pH measures the conc. of H+ ions - higher conc. will give a lower pH

Enzyme Conc. is proportional to rate of reaction, provided other conditions are constant.
Straight line
Substrate Conc. is proportional to rate of reaction until there are more substrates than
enzymes present. Curve becomes constant.

Increased Temperature

Increases speed of molecular movement chances of molecular collisions

more ES complexes

At 0-42 C rate of reaction is proportional to temp

Enzymes have optimum temp. for their action (varies between different
enzymes)

Above 42C, enzyme is denatured due to heavy vibration that break -H bonds
o

Shape is changed / active site can't be used anymore

Decreased Temperature

Enzymes become less and less active, due to reductions in speed of molecular
movement

Below freezing point

o

Inactivated, not denatured

Regain their function when returning to normal temperature

Thermophilic: heat-loving

Hyperthermophilic: organisms are not able to grow below +70C

Psychrophiles: cold-loving

Inhibitors

Slow down rate of reaction of enzyme when necessary (e.g. when temp is too
high)

Molecule present in highest conc. is most likely to form an ES-complex

Competitive Inhibitors

Compete with substrate for active site

Shape similar to substrates / prevents access when bonded

Can slow down a metabolic pathway

[EXAMPLE] Methanol Poisoning

o

Methanol CH3OH is a competitive inhibitor

CH3OH can bind to dehydrogenase whose true substrate is C2H5OH

A person who has accidentally swallowed methanol is treated by being

given large doses of C2H5OH

C2H5OH competes with CH3OH for the active site

Non-competitive Inhibitors
o

Chemical does not have to resemble the substrate

Binds to enzyme other than at active site

This changes the enzyme's active site and prevents access to it

Irreversible Inhibition
o

Chemical permanently binds to the enzyme or massively denatures the

enzyme

Nerve gas permanently blocks pathways involved in nerve message

transmission, resulting in death

Penicillin, the first of "wonder drug" antibiotics, permanently blocks

pathways certain bacteria use to assemble their cell wall component
(peptidoglycan)

End-product inhibition

Metabolic reactions are multi-stepped, each controlled by a single enzyme

End-products accumulate within the cell and stop the reaction when sufficient
product is made

This is achieved by non-competitive inhibition by the end-product

The enzyme early in the reaction pathway is inhibited by the end-product

The metabolic pathway contains a series of individual chemical reactions that combine
to perform one or more important functions. The product of one reaction in a pathway
serves as the substrate for the following reaction.

Biochemistry of Respiration

Oxidative breakdown of organic molecules to store energy as ATP

Animals and plants respire; FAD and NAD are coenzymes

Aerobic respiration

C6H12O6 + 6O2 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy

Complete oxidation of an organic substrate to CO2 and H2O using free O2

Production of CO2, NADH + H+ and FADH + H+, 38ATP

1) Glycolysis cytoplasm

Glucose enters cell by facilitated diffusion

ATP activates glucose to produce 2 unstable compounds

Substrate-level phosphorylation produces 4ATP

Net yield of 2ATP and 2reducedNAD per glucose molecule

2) Link reaction matrix of mitochondria

Pyruvate enters matrix of mitochondrion for further reaction

Net yield of 2reducedNADH per glucose

3) Krebs cycle matrix of mitochondria

Citrate is gradually broken down to re-form oxaloacetate

Substrate-level phosphorylation forms 2ATP

Removal of hydrogen from respiratory substrate

Net yield of 2ATP, 2reducedFADH, 6reducedNADH per glucose

4) Electron Transport Chain ETC inner membrane/cristae of

mitochondria

Reduced coenzymes arrive at ETC

Split into coenzyme + 2H+ + 2e- by hydrogen carriers

2e- are transferred to electron carriers (cytochrome)

Pass down ETC by redox reaction and release energy as they go

Energy produces ATP by oxidative phosphorylation

Final electron acceptor 1/2O2 is reduced by 2H+ and 2e- to produce H2O

Net yield of 34ATP (30NADH, 4FADH) per glucose

//Cytochromes are iron-containing proteins cytochrome a3 also contains copper

and is irreversibly damaged by cyanide

IMG 5-14-8

Anaerobic respiration (fermentation)

Substrate-level phosphorylation: 2ADP + 2Pi 2ATP directly by enzymes in

glycolysis

No O2 to accept electrons from NADH + H+ no Krebs cycle or ETC

NADH + H+ reduces (gives off H+ ions to) pyruvate to produce

o

Lactate C3 in animal cells can be re-oxidised

Ethanol C2 in yeast cells irreversible, CO2(g) lost

Regenerates NAD

NAD can be re-used to oxidise more RS/allows glycolysis to continue

Can still form ATP/release energy when O2 is in short supply

Role of ATP

Adenosine (ribose + adenine) triphosphate (3 phosphate groups)

Produced by adding Pi to ADP phosphorylation

Breaks down to ADP (adenosine diphosphate) and Pi (inorganic phosphate ion) by

hydrolysis

ATP is useful as an immediate energy source/carrier because

o

Energy release only involves a single reaction

Energy released in small quantities

Easily moved around inside cells, but cannot pass through cell membranes

Light-dependent reaction cannot be the only source of ATP

o

"Photosynthesis cannot produce ATP in the dark

Need more ATP than can be produced in photosynthesis

Cannot be produced in plant cells lacking chlorophyll

ATP cannot be transported"1

Central molecule in metabolism (ATP hydrolysis)

o

Muscle contraction changes of position of myosin head relative to actin

Protein synthesis ATP "loads" amino acids onto tRNA

Active transport driven by phosphorylation of membrane-bound proteins

Calvin Cycle cyclic reduction of CO2 to TP

Nitrogen fixation involves ATP-driven reduction of molecular nitrogen

ATP in liver is used for active transport / phagocytosis / synthesise of glucose,

protein, DNA, RNA, lipid, cholesterol / urea in glycolysis / bile production / cell
division

Brown fat

White fat insulates the body and reduces heat loss

Brown fat cells in mitochondrial membrane produce heat

Mitochondria in other tissue / chemiosmosis

o

H+ ions pass back from space between two mitochondrial membranes into
matrix

Through pores which are associated with the enzyme ATP synthetase

Energy from the ETC will be used to produce ATP

Mitochondria in brown fat

o

H+ ions flow back through channels not associated with ATP synthetase

Energy produces heat instead of ATP

Found in chest, larger arteries for heat distribution round the body or in
hibernating mammals

The lipid bilayer is composed primarily of what two biological molecules?

(A) Sugars and fats
(B) Carbohydrates and proteins
(C) Proteins and fats

(D) Sugars and proteins

Which of the following eukaryotic intracellular components are not organelles?

(A) Golgi apparatus
(B) Cytoskeleton
(C) ER
(D) lysosomes

What is the typical width of the lipid bilayer?

(A) 3 nanometers
(B) 5 nanometers
(C) 7 nanometers
(D) 9 nanometers

Which of the following is the main component of the cytoplasm?

(A) Cytosol
(B) Cytosine
(C) Ectoderm
(D) Chlorophyll

Which of the following phrases best matches the definition of the termhydrophobic?
(A) "water-hating"
(B) "water-loving"
(C) "water-impartial"
(D) "water-storing"

The cytosol composes up to what percent of a cell's volume?

(A) 10%
(B) 30%
(C) 50%
(D) 90%

The term hydrophilic means which of the following?

(A) Repelled by water
(B) Insoluble in water
(C) Non-water containing
(D) Attracted to water

The function of the cytoskeleton is most similar to the function of what other cellular structure?
(A) Peroxisome
(B) Lipid bilayer
(C) Cytoplasm
(D) Mitochondria

A molecule that has both polar and nonpolar regions is called ___________.
(A) Hydrophobic
(B) Hydrophilic
(C) Amphipathic
(D) Hydrated

The cytoskeleton is primarily responsible for __________.

(A) Cell shape

(B) Cellular energy
(C) Cellular respiration
(D) Cell density

The most abundant class of lipids found in the lipid bilayer are the ___________.
(A) Phospholipids
(B) Glycolipids
(C) Sphingolipids
(D) Liposomes

Which of the following are not a cytoskeletal protein filament?

(A) Actin
(B) Intermediate filaments
(C) Primary filaments
(D) Microtubules

What is the name of the process by which plant cells convert light energy into biological energy?
(A) Photosynthesis
(B) Photorespiration
(C) Light-conversion
(D) Oxidative phosphorylation

Which of the following is not a property of the lipid bilayer?

(A) Fluidity

(B) Impermeability
(C) Polarity
(D) Permeability

What is the name of the structure around which microtubules grow?

(A) Centers
(B) Matrices
(C) Growth cones
(D) Centrosomes

Membrane proteins that cannot be easily removed from the cell membrane are called __________.
(A) Peripheral proteins
(B) Integral proteins
(C) Rigid proteins
(D) Locked proteins

What organelle is responsible for carrying out photosynthesis?

(A) Mitochondria
(B) Nucleus
(C) Vacuole
(D) Chloroplasts

Which of the cytoskeletal protein filaments has the largest diameter?

(A) Actin
(B) Intermediate filaments

(C) Primary filaments

(D) Microtubules

Membrane proteins that span the entire lipid bilayer are called __________.
(A) Membrane-spanners
(B) Integral proteins
(C) Peripheral proteins
(D) Transmembrane proteins

Which cytoskeletal filament is responsible for forming the nuclear lamina?

(A) Actin
(B) Intermediate filaments
(C) Primary filaments
(D) Microtubules

What configuration does a protein adopt when it crosses the lipid bilayer?
(A) Alpha-helical
(B) Beta-helical
(C) Gamma-helical
(D) Delta-helical

Molecules done being processed in the ER are often transported to which structure?
(A) Peroxisomes
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Golgi apparatus

(D) Vacuoles

The face through which molecules enter the golgi apparatus is called the __________ face.
(A) Cis
(B) Trans
(C) Medial
(D) Dorsal

Which cytoskeletal protein filaments line the cell membrane?

(A) Actin
(B) Intermediate filaments
(C) Primary filaments
(D) Microtubules

Which of the following is not a common destination of vesicles secreted from the golgi apparatus?
(A) Lysosome
(B) Cell membrane
(C) ER
(D) Mitochondria

Which of the following best describes the properties of a lipid-bound protein?

(A) Having its tail-end attached to the lipid bilayer
(B) Having its head-end attached to the lipid bilayer
(C) Being entirely located in the lipid bilayer
(D) Being loosely associated with the lipid bilayer

Which of the following eukaryotic organelles is primarily responsible for celluar digestion?
(A) Nucleus
(B) Lysosome
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Golgi apparatus

Which of the following is the largest organelle in eukaryotic cells?

(A) ER
(B) Golgi apparatus
(C) Lysosome
(D) Nucleus

Which of the following is not a specialized plant cellular structure?

(A) Lysosome
(B) Cell wall
(C) Chloroplast
(D) Vacuole

What is the name of the organelle that helps mediate endocytosis and exocytosis?
(A) Vacuole
(B) Peroxisome
(C) Lysosome
(D) Endosome

What is the name of the carbohydrate coat found on the outside of the lipid bilayer of higher- order
cells cells?

(A) Glycosylation
(B) Glycocalyx
(C) Glycogen
(D) Glutamine

What structure in plants replaces the function that the mitochondria performs in animal cells?
(A) Vacuole
(B) Cytoskeleton
(C) Chloroplast
(D) Nucleus

In eukaryotes, the cell nucleus composes what fraction of the total cell volume?
(A) 10%
(B) 15%
(C) 20%
(D) 25%

What is the name of the process by which molecules naturally flow from an area of higher
concentration to one of lower concentration?
(A) Respiration
(B) Transfusion
(C) Dialysis
(D) Diffusion

Which of the following organelles do not contain a double-membrane?

(A) Nucleus
(B) Lysosome
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Chloroplasts

Membrane transport that occurs without the input of extra energy can be classified as what type of
transport?
(A) Passive
(B) Active
(C) Catalytic
(D) Inhibitory

The cell nucleus is not found in direct contact with which of the following cellular structures?
(A) Cytosol
(B) Cytoskeleton
(C) ER
(D) Mitochondria

Membrane transport that requires the input of additional enery is called _________.
(A) Passive
(B) Active
(C) Catalytic
(D) Inhibitory

What is the name of the inner-most space in a mitochondrial cell?

(A) Matrix
(B) Intermembrane space
(C) Cytosol
(D) Chlorophyll

Membrane proteins that mediate active transport are generally __________.

(A) Lipid-bound proteins
(B) Ionophores
(C) Channel proteins
(D) Carrier proteins

What is the main function of the mitochondria?

(A) Molecular digestion
(B) DNA storage
(C) Space-filler
(D) Enery-producer

The mitochondrial matrix is analogous to which structure in plant chloroplasts?

(A) Stoma
(B) Intermembrane space
(C) Cytosol
(D) Vacuole

Membrane proteins that mediate passive transport are generally _________.

(A) Lipid-bound proteins

(B) Ionophores
(C) Channel proteins
(D) Carrier proteins

Which eukaryotic organelle contains oxidizing enzymes?

(A) Lysosome
(B) Peroxisome
(C) Golgi apparatus
(D) ER

What is a typical thickness for a cell wall?

(A) 50 nanometers
(B) 50 micrometers
(C) 10 nanometers
(D) 10 micrometers

__________ are a class of membrane proteins that increase a cell's permeability to certain ions.
(A) Lipid-bound
(B) Ionophores
(C) Channel proteins
(D) Carrier proteins

__________ endoplasmic reticulum has ribosomes attached to its outer membrane.

(A) Smooth
(B) Spiked

(C) Rough
(D) Cytoskeletal

Vacuoles can occupy up to what percent of plant cells?

(A) 90%
(B) 75%
(C) 50%
(D) 25%

Membrane transport is important for which of the following biological processes?

(A) Protein synthesis
(B) Cell communication
(C) Maintenance of cellular pH
(D) All of the above

The ER plays a major role in the processing of which of the following biological molecules?
(A) Carbohydrates
(B) Proteins
(C) Adenosine triphosphate
(D) DNA

Which of the following is not a normal function of plant cell vacuoles?

(A) Cellular digestion
(B) Space-filling
(C) Energy production

(D) Storage

What class of cells are reproduced during mitosis?

(A) Germ cells
(B) Somatic cells
(C) Gametes
(D) Haploid cells

Activated M-phase-promoting factor (MPF) signals entry into which of the following mitotic cell cycle
phases?
(A) G1
(B) G2
(C) M phase
(D) S phase

One cell that undergoes meiosis will yield how many independent cells?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

What is the name of the junction that joins chromosomes during genetic reassortment?
(A) Crossover region
(B) Metaphase plate

(C) Chiasma
(D) Kinetochore

One round of mitosis leads to an entirely new individual in which type of organism?
(A) Single-cellular
(B) Multi-cellular
(C) Snail
(D) Human

Degradation of G1 cyclins leads to entry into which of the following mitotic cell cycle phases?
(A) G1
(B) G2
(C) S phase
(D) M phase

In meiosis, the chiasma plays a similar role to which structure in mitosis?

(A) Centromere
(B) centrosome
(C) microtubule
(D) Mitotic spindle

The mitotic phase during which a cell actually physically divides into two is called which of the
following?
(A) Cytokinesis
(B) prophase

(C) metaphase
(D) anaphase

Which of the following meiotic phases is the longest?

(A) Prophase 1
(B) Metaphase 1
(C) Anaphase 2
(D) Telophase 2

What class of cells are reproduced during meiosis?

(A) Germ cells
(B) Somatic cells
(C) Diploid cells
(D) Cancerous cells

Cellular reproduction is involved in all of the following processes except which?

(A) Development
(B) Cell maintenance
(C) Sexual reproduction
(D) Protein degradation

Which mitotic phase directly follows G1 of interphase?

(A) cytokinesis
(B) Prophase
(C) metaphase

(D) Anaphase

During which meiotic phase are sister chromatids separated?

(A) Metaphase 1
(B) Metaphase 2
(C) Anaphase 1
(D) Anaphase 2

Chromosomes are composed of what biological molecule?

(A) Carbohydrates
(B) Adenosine triphosphate
(C) Adenosine monophosphate
(D) Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)

The two major phases of the cell cycle are which of the following?
(A) G1 and G2
(B) M phase and interphase
(C) Prophase 1 and prophase 2
(D) M phase and S phase

Which of the following is not characteristic of a cell in mitotic prophase?

(A) Condensed chromosomes
(B) Rearranged cytoskeleton
(C) Intact nucleus
(D) Metaphase plate

The number of distinct chromosomes in a cell is its _________ number.

(A) Single
(B) Chiasma
(C) Haploid
(D) Diploid

Which class of microtubules is responsible for capturing chromosomes during mitosis?

(A) Astral
(B) Kinetochore
(C) Polar
(D) Radial

Interphase and M phase can be best summed up by which of the following pairs of words?
(A) Copying and cleaving
(B) Synthesizing and copying
(C) Separating and cleaving
(D) Degradation and synthesis

During which meiotic phase are maternal homologous pairs separated from paternal homologous
pairs?
(A) Metaphase 1
(B) Metaphase 2
(C) Anaphase 1
(D) Anaphase 2

What is the major event that marks a cell's entrance into mitotic prometaphase?

(A) Separation of sister chromatids

(B) Cell division
(C) Disassembly of nuclear envelope
(D) Metaphase plate formation

The number of homologous pairs in a cell is called its _________ number.

(A) Single
(B) Chiasma
(C) Hapolid
(D) Diploid

Which phase of the cell cycle directly follows M phase?

(A) G0
(B) G1
(C) G2
(D) S phase

What major event marks a cell's entry into mitotic metaphase?

(A) Separation of sister chromatids
(B) Metaphase plate formation
(C) Disassembly of nuclear envelope
(D) Chromosome condensation

A cell with a haploid number of 20 has which of the following dipliod numbers?
(A) 2

(B) 10
(C) 40
(D) 80

Which of the following is not monitored in G2 phase?

(A) Cell size
(B) Alignment on the metaphase plate
(C) Cellular environment
(D) DNA replication

Deactivation of M-phase-promoting factor signals entry into which of the following mitotic phases?
(A) Prophase
(B) prometaphase
(C) Metaphase
(D) Anaphase

A cell with a diploid number of 20 has which of the following haploid numbers?
(A) 2
(B) 10
(C) 40
(D) 80

During which of the following cell cycle phases does DNA replication take place?
(A) M phase
(B) S phase

(C) G1
(D) G2

During which sub-phase of mitotic anaphase do centrosomes separate?

(A) Anaphase A
(B) Anaphase B
(C) Anaphase C
(D) Anaphase D

A somatic cell has a haploid number of 10. What is its diploid number after DNA replication?
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 40
(D) 80

Which of the following is not a stage of mitotic interphase?

(A) G1
(B) G2
(C) S phase
(D) M phase

During which sub-phase of mitotic anaphase do chromosomes separate?

(A) Anaphase A
(B) Anaphase B
(C) Anaphase C

(D) Anaphase D

What is the typical duration of a normal, fast-dividing, mammalian cell cycle?

(A) 1 hour
(B) 10 hours
(C) 24 hours
(D) 1 year

The human haploid number is which of the following?

(A) 10
(B) 23
(C) 30
(D) 46

Which of the following events takes place during mitotic telophase?

(A) Disassembly of nuclear envelope
(B) Reassembly of nuclear envelope
(C) Metaphase plate formation
(D) Cell division

In extremely fast dividing cells, which of the following phases of the cell cycle is likely to be
decreased or eliminated?
(A) G1
(B) S phase
(C) M phase

(D) Interphase

How many homologous pairs are present in a cell with a diploid number of 40?
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 40
(D) 80

Which class of microtubules disappear during mitotic telophase?

(A) Astral
(B) Kinetochore
(C) Polar
(D) Radial

Which of the following is typically the longest phase of the cell cycle?
(A) M phase
(B) S phase
(C) G1
(D) G2

A somatic cell has a haploid number of 10. After mitosis, what is the haploid number of each of the
resulting cells?
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 20

(D) 40

Which class of microtubule elongates during mitotic telophase?

(A) Astral
(B) Kinetochore
(C) Polar
(D) Radial

Which of the following phases usually contains the highest concentration of DNA per cell?
(A) S phase
(B) M phase
(C) G1
(D) G2

Germ cells give rise to what class of cell?

(A) Gamete
(B) Somatic
(C) Meiotic
(D) Mitotic

Which of the following is not a component of the contractile ring?

(A) Cyclin
(B) Actin
(C) Myosin
(D) Tubulin

During which phase do mitotic cyclins accumulate in the cell cycle?

(A) G1
(B) G2
(C) M phase
(D) S phase

A somatic cell has a haploid number of 20. After DNA replication, how many pairs of sister
chromatids are in the cell?
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 20
(D) 40

Which of the following is not a type of cell that results from meiotic cellular reproduction?
(A) Haploid
(B) Diploid
(C) Gamete
(D) Germ cell

The activation of cyclin-dependent protein kinases by G1 cyclins signals entry into which mitotic cell
cycle phase?
(A) G1
(B) G2
(C) M phase
(D) S phase

During which phase of meiosis does genetic reassortment take place?

(A) Prophase 1
(B) Prometaphase 1
(C) Metaphase 1
(D) Anaphase 1