ACE/12/EC/MG1

ACE

Engineering Academy
MOCK GATE (2012) 1
EC : ELECTRONICS & COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING

Time : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. This question paper contains 24 printed pages including pages for rough work.
Please check all pages and report discrepancy, if any.
2. Candidates have to answer in the Optical Response Sheet(ORS) by darkening the bubbles using a
black ink ballpoint pen only.
3. Write your registration number, name and other details at the specified locations on the
ORS using Black ink ballpoint pen only.
4. All the questions in this question paper are of objective type.
5. Questions must be answered on Objective Response Sheet (ORS) by darkening the
appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using Black ink ballpoint pen against the
question number on the ORS. Each question has only one correct answer. Since bubbles
darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken the bubbles
in the ORS very carefully.
6.

Questions 01 through 25 (25 questions) are 1-mark questions and questions 26 through 55 (30
questions) are 2-mark questions.

7. The question pairs (48, 49) and (50, 51) are the common data questions. The question
pairs (52, 53) and (54, 55) are questions with linked answers. The answer to the second
question of the linked question pairs will depend on the answer to the first question of the
pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is un attempted, then
the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
8. Questions 56 through 60 (5 questions) are 1-mark questions and questions 61 through 65
(5 questions) are 2-mark questions.
9. Un-attempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in Negative
Marks. For Q1 to Q25 and Q56 to Q60, 0.33 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For
Q26 to Q51, Q61 to Q65, 0.66 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. The question pairs
(Q.52, Q.53), and (Q.54, Q55) are questions with linked answers. There will be negative marks
only for wrong answer to the first question of the linked answer question pair, i.e. for Q.52 and
Q.54, 0.66 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. There is no negative marking for Q.53
and Q.55.
10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination
hall.
11. Cell / Mobile phones or any other electronic gadgets are prohibited in the examination hall.
12. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Additional blank pages are given at the end
of the question paper for rough work.

Name
Registration Number

EC

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ACE/12/EC/MG1
Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q01.

0
0
The value of k such that the rank of the matrix
3

1
(A) 2

Q02.

The solution of

(B) 2

Q04.

(C) 3

(D) -3

(C) log y = x3

(D) y = logx

dy
4 x 3 e y with y(1) = 0 is
dx

(A) y = x2
Q03.

1 3 1
0 1
1
is three, is
1 0
2

1 k
0

(B) ey = x4

The divergence of the vector function F e x i ye x j 2z sinh x k is

(A) e x e x 2sinhx

(B) e x e x 2sinhx .

(C) e x e x 2sinhx

(D) e x 2sinhx

The probability that student passes maths exam is 0.9, given that he studied. The
probability that he passes the exam without studying is 0.2. Assume that the
probability that the student studies for all exams is 0.75. The probability that he passes
the maths exam is

Q05.

(A) 0.675

(B) 0.05

(C) 0.725

(D) 0.275

The Laplace Transform of unit impulse function (ta) is

(A)

e as
s

(C) eas
Q06.

(B) 1
(D) None

A current of 3 A flows through a resistance of 20 . The energy dissipated in the

resistor per minute is
(A) 5.4 KJ

(B) 10.8 KJ

(C) 21.6 KJ

(D) 43.2 KJ

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Q07.

Time constant of a capacitance circuit may be defined as the time during which
voltage across the capacitor
(A) rises to 63.2% of its final steady value
(B) rises to 38.6% of its final steady value
(C) falls to 38.6% of its final steady value
(D) 50 % of its final steady value

Q08.

The driving point impedance of an RC network is Z(s)

2 s2 7 s 3
.
s2 3s 1

Its canonical realization will have

(A) 6 elements
Q09.

(B) 5 elements

(C) 4 elements

(D) 3 elements

Consider the system shown in Fig. 1 with time constant, . For an input x(t) = 8 u(t),
the response, y(t) is shown in Fig. 2. Then is
y(t)
x(t)

1
s 1

y(t)
3.6
0

Fig. 1

(A) 0.535 msec

Q10.

(B) 0.32 msec

0.32

Fig. 2

(C) 0.09 msec

t(msec)
(D) 11.25 msec

A speed control system is represented by the signal flow graph shown in figure.
The nominal value of the parameter K is 10. Sensitivity of M(s) = c(s)/ r(s) to
changes in K is
(A)

s 0.1
s 11

(B)

s 0.1
s 0.2

(C)

0.1
s 0.2

r(s)

K
10 s 1

c(s)

0.1

(D) None

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Q11.

Consider the block diagram shown in figure. The transfer function

ACE

(A)

1 2ACE CE

Y(s)
is
R(s)

ACE

R(s)
(B)
1
1 2ACE CE

_
A

Y(s)

ACE

(C)
1
1 ACE CE
2ACE

(D)

1 ACE CE

Q12.

Which of the following statements is/are valid for a PIN diode ?

1) In forward bias it can be used as current controlled resistance
2) Electric energy is converted into light energy
3) Photo carries are generated internally
4) In reverse bias it can be used as capacitor

Q13.

(A) 1, 3, 4

(B) 3

(C) 1,3

(D) 3, 4

DE, DB, DC are Dopings of emitter, base & collector. WE, WB, WC are widths
of emitter, base & collector. , , are current gains in CB, CE, CC configurations.
Which of the following statements are false ?
1) DB < DC < DE

4) = (1)

2) WB< WC < WE

5) =

3) < >

6) approximately 1

(A) 2, 3, 4, 5

(B) 1, 4, 6

(C) 2, 3, 5

(D) 3 only

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Q14.

V
Gain 0
Vi

of the OP-amp circuit shown below, is

10 K

1K

10 K
V1 1K

a
-

Vi
V2

+
1K

Q15.

V0

1K

b
10 K

10 K

(A) 220

(B) 198

(C) 22

(D) 0

For the negative feedback amplifier circuit shown, gain A = 1000, input resistance,
Ri = 2 K and output resistance, R0 = 50 K.

VS

Amplifier
A, Ri , R0

RL

Feedback
network
= 4.9%

The input and output resistances of the feedback amplifier are

(A) 40 , 1K

(B) 100 K, 1 K

(C) 40 , 2.5 M

(D) 100 K, 2.5 M

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Q16.

For the diode circuit shown, the graphical representation of the input-output relation is
2V
For D1 and D2 ,
V = 0.7 V

D1
1k

Vi

V0
D2

2V
V0

V0

(A)

(B)

2.7

2.7V

1.3V
2.7

2.7V

Vi

2.7

1.3V

2.7V

V0

(C)

V0

(D)
1.3V

1.3V

2.7V
2.7V

Vi

1.3V
1.3V

1.3V

Q17.

Vi

Vi

1.3V

What is the execution time of the following 8085 program segment if the frequency of
operation is 2 MHz ?
LXI H, 2070H
MVI A, 00H
STA X H
XRA A
(A) 28 sec,

(B) 14 sec

(C) 30 sec

(D) 32 sec

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Q18.

Consider the logic circuit shown in figure.

The functions f1, f2 and f4 are
f1 (w, x, y, z) = m(8, 9, 10)
f2 (w, x, y, z) = m(7, 8, 12, 13, 14, 15)
f4 (w, x, y, z) = m (8,9)
Then f3 (w, x, y, z) is

Q19.

f1

f4

f2
f3

(A) m(9, 10)

(B) m(9)

(C) m(1, 8, 9)

(D) m(8, 10, 15)

x ( t ) if x ( t ) 0
The relation between input and output of a system is y(t) =
0 if x ( t ) 0
This system is
(A) Causal, Memory less & Nonlinear
(B) Causal, Dynamic & linear
(C) Non-casual, Memory less & linear
(D) Non-casual, Dynamic & Non linear

Q20.

Q21.

b n ; 0 n N 1
Consider the signal x(n) =
0 ; elsewhere

Then ROC of Z.T of x(n) is

(A)| z | > | b |

(B) | z | < | b |

(C) | z | > 0

(D) 0 < | z | <

In a CD Player, the sampling rate is 44.1 KHz and the samples are quantized using a
16 bit/sample Quantizer. The resulting number of bits for a piece of music with a
duration of 50 min is
(A) 2.116 M bits

(B) 1.1178 G bits

(C) 2.1168 G bits

(D) 1.92 G bits

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Q22.

Consider two random variables X and Y

Y = Cos (X), where the pdf of X is given by
f(x) = 1 ,

1
1
X
2
2

= 0 , otherwise
The variance of Y is
(A) 0.76
Q23.

(B) 0.96

(C) 0.56

(D) 0.26

The message input to a delta modulator is m (t) = 6 Sin (2103t) + 4 Sin (4103t).
The step size is 0.314V. The minimum pulse rate that will prevent slope overload is

Q24.

(A) 120 103 pulses/sec

(B) 2800 pules/sec

(C) 280 103 pulses/sec

(D) 12,000 pulses /sec

An elliptical polarized wave has an electric field of

E sin t z a x 2 sin (t z 75o ) a

V/m.

The power per unit area conveyed by the wave in free space is

Q25.

(A) 6.63 mW/m2

(B) 8.63 mW/m2

(C) 3.315 mW/m2

(D) 66.3 mW/m2

A potential function V = x2yz + Ay3z volts , satisfies the Laplaces equation.

The value of A is
(A)

1
3

(B)

2
3

(C)

1
3

(D)

2
3

Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each.

1
Q26. The residue of f z sin is
z

(A) 2
Q27.

(B) 0

(C) 1

(D) 1

If the initial approximation is x0 = 2.5 then the first approximation of 18)

13

using

Newtons Method, is
(A) 2.1

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(B) 2.43

(C) 2.63

(D) 3

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Q28.

The differential equation x 2

d2y
dy
5x 4 y 0 under the transformation z = log x is
2
dx
dx

transformed to an ordinary differential equation with constant coefficients. It is given

by

Q29.

(A)

d2y
4y 0
dz 2

(B)

d 2 y dy
2y 0
dz dz

(C)

d2y
dy
4 4y 0
2
dz
dz

(D)

d2y
dy
4 y0
2
dz
dz

The mean and standard deviation of marks of a certain group of 1000 high school
students are Normally distributed with 79% and 11% respectively. Find how many
students are above 90% [Area under curve between Z = 0 and Z = 1 is 0.3413)]?

Q30.

(A) 159

(B) 500

(C) 250

(D) 143

Consider the following network

1A

6
8A

15

10

The power associated with 1A source is

(A) 3 W (delivery)

(B) 6 W (absorption)

(C) 9 W (absorption)

(D) 12 W (delivery)

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Q31.

Consider the following network

The power associated with 24 V source is
2A
1

24 V

Q32.

8A

(A) 60 W (delivery)

(B) 120 W (absorption)

(C) 180 W (delivery)

(D) 240 W (absorption)

A control system with a P D controller is shown in figure. Find the values of KC and
KD so that the velocity error constant KV is 1000 and damping ratio is 0.5.

R(s)

KC + KD s

1000
s (s 10)

C(s)

(A) KC = 1, KD = 1
(B) KC = 100, KD = 0.9
(C) KC = 10, KD = 0.09
(D) None

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Q33.

The state model to the given state diagram is

s1

s1

1
s1

1
1

-2
1

1
0
x 1 0
(A) x 2 0 2
1

1 2
x 3 2


x 1 0 1
(B) x 2 0 0

x 3 2 1

0
1
2

1
x 1 0
x1
x 0 U , Y 2 2 1 x
2
2
x 3 1
x 3

x 1 0
x1
x 0 U , Y 1 0 0 x
2
2
x 3 1
x 3

1
0
x 1 0

(C) x 2 0 2
1

1 2
x 3 2

x 1 1
x1
x 0 U , Y 0 0 1 x
2
2
x 3 0
x 3

(D) None
Q34.

The characteristic equation of a control system is given by

s6 + 2 s5 + 8 s4 + 12 s3 + 20 s2 + 16 s + 16 = 0
The number of roots of the equation, which lie on the imaginary axis of s-plane is
(A) Zero

(B) 2

(C) 4

(D) 6

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Q35.

For the given circuit assuming identical diodes which of the following is valid for
I and V ?

I1

v
v

(A) I = I0 e vT e vT

(B) I = I0 e
(C) I = I0 e

v T

I2 N
P

v T

v
v

(D) I = I0 e vT e vT

Q36.

P N

For a BJT, IC = | IE | + ICBO , IE = IB + IC . If so which of the following relations

is valid ?
(A) 1
(C) IC

Q37.

IC
IB

IC ICBO IC ICBO

I
I B
CBO
1 1

(D) IB ICBO = IC + IC

In NMOS circuit, the drain current, ID = 6 mA and process transconductance

Kn = n Cox .

Q38.

(B) IC (1+) = IB + ICBO

W
A
110 2 . The transconductance of the circuit is
L
V

(A) 8.83

mA
V

(B) 2.54

mA
V

(C) 1.15

mA
V

(D) 7.64

mA
V

Each diode has V = 0.6 V. The diodes D1 and D2 will be ON if

5K

(A) VS > 6.3 V

D1

(B) VS > 5.3 V

(C) VS > 4.9 V
(D) VS > 3.9 V

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V0
5K
VS

D2
0.5K

0.5K

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Q39.

For the transistor circuit shown, assume that = 99, VT = 25 mV.

The voltage gain of the amplifier is
20 k

(A) 23

V0

(B) 33

Vi

(C) 43

200

Ri

0.5 mA

(D) 53

Q40.

200

In the circuit shown below, assume Q0 = Q1 = 0. Then the states of Q0 and Q1,
immediately after the 333rd pulse are
Q0
J0

Q0

J1

>
1

K0

Clock
(A) 1, 1
Q41.

Q1
Q1

>
Q0

K1

(B) 1, 0

Q1

(C) 0, 1

(D) 0, 0

For the interconnected system shown in figure, the combined Casual impulse response
is
(A) e-t u(t)
-t

(B) t e u(t)
(C) (t)

x(t)

v ( t ) v ( t ) x ( t )

v(t)

y ( t ) y ( t ) v ( t )

y(t)

Fig.

(D) u(t)

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Q42.

For the spectrum, X() shown in the figure, which one of the following statements is
correct ?
X()

(A) x(0) = 1, x(t) is real and odd

(B) x(0) = 0, x(t) is complex and even

1

(C) x(0) = 0, x(t) is imaginary and odd

1
Fig.

(D) x(0) = 2, x(t) is real and even

Q43.

The message input to a Frequency modulator is m(t) = A 2m Sin2 (2fmt). Let fc be

the carrier frequency of the modulator when m(t) = 0. The carrier frequency at the
output of the modulator is

K f A 2m
(B) fc+
2

(A) fc
(C) fc +
Q44.

Kf Am
2

(D) fc+ K f2 A m

The input to the matched filter is shown in the fig.

The output of the filter is sampled at t = T. The sampled value is
(A) 4
s(t)
(B) 4T

(C) T2
0

(D) 2T
Q45.

T/2

In a rectangular wave guide, a = 1.5 cm, b = 0.8 cm, = 0, = 0, = 40 and

x 3y
11
H x 2 sin cos
sin 10 t z A/m
a
b

The cutoff frequency is

(A) 28.57 GHz

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(B) 2.857 GHz

(C) 38.57 GHz

(D) 18.57 GHz

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Q46.

An electric field strength of 10 V/m is to be measured at an observation point

,
2

500 km from a half-wave dipole antenna operating at 50 MHz . The current that must
be fed to the antenna is
(A) 8.33 mA
Q47.

(B) 83.33 mA

(C) 0.833 mA

(D) 833 mA

A 30 m long lossless transmission line with Z0 = 50 operating at 2 MHz is

terminated with a load, ZL = (60 + j 40) . If phase velocity on the line is 0.6 times
the velocity of light, the input impedance is
(A) 23.97 + j 1.35

(B) 46.00 + j 2.7

(C) (1.35 + j 23.97)

(D) (23.97 j 1.35)

Common Data Questions

Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:
Consider the following memory interfacing diagram.
A0 A9

1K 8 Chip 1

CS

A10

A11
A10
CS

A11
A0 A9
A12 A15

Q48.

1K 8 Chip 2

not used

If A12 to A15 all are connected to zero, then the address range of chip 2 is
(A) 0400H to 07FFH

(B) 0000H to 03FFH

(C) 0800H to 0BFFH

(D) 0C00H to 0FFFH

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Q49.

If A12 to A15 are not used, what memory address range is not represented by neither
chip 1 nor chip 2 ?
(A) F800H to FBFF

(B) C400H to C7FF

(C) F400H to F7FF

(D) FC00 to FFFF

Common Data for Questions 50 and 51:

In the transistor amplifier circuit shown in the figure below, the transistor has
= 80, VBE = 0.7 V. The capacitance can be assumed to be very large.
16 V
2 k
57 k
CC

VS

Q50.

Q51.

1 k

Under the DC conditions, the operating voltage VCE is

(A) 3.2 V

(B) 3.61 V

(C) 3.76 V

(D) 4.2 V

If the value of is increased by 15% then the operating voltage is

(A) Increased by more than 10%
(B) Increased by less than or equal to 10%
(C) Decreased by more than 10%
(D) Decreased by less than or equal to 10%

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Linked Answer Questions :
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53 :
The modulating signal into an FM modulator is
m(t) = 10 cos (20t)
The output of the FM modulator is
s(t) = 10 cos [4000 t + 2Kf m(t) dt] ,
where Kf = 5 Hz/Volt. The output of the FM modulator is passed through an ideal
BPF centered at fc = 2000 Hz with a bandwidth of 80 Hz
J0(5) = 0.178

, J1(5) = 0.328 , J2(5) = 0.047

, J3(5) = 0.365 , J4(5) = 0.391

J0 (10) = 0.246 , J1(10) = 0.043 , J2 (10) = 0.255 , J3 (10) = 0.058 , J4(10) = 0.22
Q52.

The power of the frequency components at the output of the filter is

(A) 21.39W

Q53.

(B) 82.2W

(C) 41.17W

(D) 88.19W

The percentage of the total power which appears at the output of the BPF is
(A) 62.85%

(B) 42.75%

(C) 99.9%

(D) 82.35%

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55 :

Consider the following network.
60 V

10

4A

20

30

0.4 ix

ix
Q54.

The value of current ix is

(A)

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6
A
25

(B)

25
A
12

(C)

25
A
6

(D)

12
A
25

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Q55.

Power associated with the dependent source is

(A) 34.75 W (absorption)

(B) 68.75 W (delivery)

(C) 72.75 W (delivery)

(D) 96.75 W (absorption)

General Aptitude (GA) Questions:

Q. 56 to Q. 60 carry one mark each.
Q.56. Manu and Tanu are playing mathematical puzzles. Manu asks Tanu : Which whole
numbers, greater than one, divide evenly all the nine numbers, i,e., 111, 222, 333,
444, 555, 666, 777, 888, 999, ? Tanu immediately gave the desired answer. It was :
(A) 7, 37, 111
Q57.

(B) 3, 37, 111

(C) 9, 37, 111

(D) 9, 13, 111

Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the
following sentence
The puzzles that physicists solve are usually those lying about in plain sight,
often things so _______

that they are overlooked by all but the keenest

observers.
(A) hidden
Q58.

(B) vital

(C) ordinary

(D) vague

The question below consists of pair of related words followed by four pairs of words.
Select, the pair that best expresses the relation in the original pair.
Elegy : Poetry ::

Q59.

(A) parable : story

(B) dirge : music

(C) harp : string

(D) rhyme : sound

Choose the word from the options given below that is most nearly opposite in
meaning to the given word:
Abdicate :
(A) condone

(B) affiliate

(C) attack

(D) usurp

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Q60.

Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the
following sentence:
The visitor was of an______ age; white-haired but baby-faced, he might have
been twenty-five or fifty.
(A) assiduous
(B) unalterable
(C) indecorous
(D) indeterminate

Q. 61 to Q. 65 carry two marks each.

Q61.

The traffic lights at three different road crossings change after every 48 s, 72 s and
108 s, respectively. If they all change simultaneously at 8 : 20 : 00, then they will
again change simultaneously at :

Q62.

(A) 8 : 27 : 12h

(B) 8 : 27 : 24h

(C) 8 : 27 : 36h

(D) 8 : 27 : 48h

A recipe give directions to mix 4 parts of substance A with 7 parts of substance B.

These substances are to be taken by weight, but by mistake they were taken by
volume. Find the error in the percentage of the weight of A in the mixture, if 117 cm3
of the substance A weighs as much as 151 cm3 of the substance B.

Q63.

(A) 5.05%

(B) 6.00%

(C) 7.05%

(D) None of these

A tank with capacity T litres is empty. If water flows into the tank from pipe X at the
rate of X litres per minute and water is pumped out by pipe Y at the rate of Y litres
per minute and X > Y, then in how many minutes will the tank be filled ?
(A)

T
Y X

(C) (T X) Y

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(B)

T
X Y

(D) (X Y) 60T

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Q64.

Cricket is the most popular sport in India. However its popularity has adversely
affected the prospects of other sports like hockey and football. In order to correct the
imbalance, the Ministry of sports should stop funding cricket and allot those resources
to other sports. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the above
argument ?
(A) The popularity of a sport is determined to a large extent by the investments made
in promoting it.
(B) Ministry of sports funding is used mainly to coach budding cricketers and is
seldom used for promotional activities.
(C) Crickets popularity will be very difficult to challenge as it has a longer history in
India than most other sports.
(D) The nature and format of a sport is the only fact (or) that determines its popularity

Q65.

The given pie charts show the proportion of literates and illiterates in a country, in the
year 2000 and 2010 and also the proportion of males (M) and females (F) among the
literates. Which one of the following statements can be said to be beyond any doubt ?
1

Literate
F
30o

M
o

120

Literate
F

105o

120o

1
2
3

Illiterate

Illiterate

2000

2010

(A) In 2000 half of the illiterates were women (females).

(B) The population of literate males to the total population of males remained the
same over the years.
(C) Male literacy did not improve over this period.
(D) The ratio of female literates to male literates improved significantly over this
period.
END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

EC MG1

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

EC MG1

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Head Office : Abids, Hyderabad, AP.

Summer Crash Batches for GATE + PSUs
For EC, EE, IN, ME, PI, CSIT & CIVIL
May 8th, 10th, 12th & 15th (Start at 10 AM on the first day)
Duration : 55 to 65 days

Timings : 6 8 hours per day

Long-term Morning Batches for GATE + PSUs : (Start at 6.30 AM on the first day]
For EC, EE, IN, CSIT & ME

For CE, PI & IN

May 16th, June 2nd , June 17th , July 8th, 22nd & Aug 5th

May 16th, June 17th , July 15th

Duration : 6 to 7 Months
Timings : 6 AM to 7.45 AM on working days. Sundays & Public Holidays extra classes

Long-term Evening Batches for GATE + PSUs (Starts at 6 PM on the first day)
For EC, EE, CSIT & ME
June 24th, July 22nd & August 12th

For CIVIL & PI

July 8th & August 5th

Duration : 6 to 7 months
Timings : 6 PM to 8.30 PM on working days. Sundays & Public Holidays extra classes.

Weekend Batches for GATE + PSUs for EC, EE, CSIT, ME & CE
June 3rd & July 1st
Duration : Upto end of January 2013
Timings : Saturday, Sundays & Public Holidays full day classes.

Day time Batches for GATE + PSUs

For EC, EE, CSIT & ME :

For IN & PI

For CIVIL

May 18th, 31st, June 14th, 29th, May 18th, June 14th, July 13th May 18th, June 14th, July 13th &
July 13th, 28th, Aug 13th & 26th

Duration : 5 to 6 months

Aug 13th

Timings : Flexible timings (3 6 hours per day)

Day time Batches for GATE + IES + PSUs

for EC, EE, ME & CIVIL

May 18th, June 14th & July 13th

Duration : 7 to 9 months

EC MG1

Timings : Flexible timings (3 6 hours per day)

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Flexible Batches for GATE + PSUs EC, EE, CSIT, ME & CIVIL
October 14th & 21st
Duration : Upto January 20th

Timings : Flexible timings (3 8 hours per day)

Winter Crash Batches for GATE + PSUs for EC, EE & CSIT
November 4th & 11th
Duration : Upto end of January

Timings :Flexible timings (6 10 hours per a day)

AMEERPET, HYDERABAD, (AP) GATE + PSUs

For (EC, EE, ME & CSIT)
Summer Crash :May 12th

Long -term (Morning): July 8th, 15th

Long -term (Evening) :July 29th

Duration : 55 to 65 days

Duration : 6 to 7 months

Duration : 6 to 7 months

Timings : 6 AM to 7.45 AM on working .

Timings : 6 PM to 8.30 PM on working

Timings : 6 8 hours per day

Sundays & Public Holidays extra

days. Sundays & Public Holidays

classes.

extra classes.

VIJAYAWADA BRANCH, AP
Summer Crash Batches for GATE + PSUs for EC, EE, ME & CSIT
May 10th (starts at 10 AM on the first day)
Duration : 55 to 65 days

Timings: 6-8 Hrs per day

Long-term Evening Batches for GATE + PSUs for EC, EE & IN

June 17th & July 1st (starts at 10 AM on the first day)
Duration : 6 to 7 months
Timings : 6 AM to 7.45 AM on working days. Sundays & Public Holidays extra classes.

Weekend Batches for GATE + PSUs for EC, EE, IN, CSIT, ME & CIVIL
June 17th & July 1st
Duration : Upto end of January
Timings : Saturdays, Sundays & Public Holidays full day classes.

There is no separate batch for employees. They have to follow the schedule of
college goer batches.

EC MG1

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ACE/12/EC/MG1

NEW DELHI, INDIA

Long-term Day Batches for GATE + IES + PSUs for EC, EE, & ME
March 25th, May 1st, 16th, 31st , June 24th,
Evening Batches : 6.00 PM to 9.00 PM July 1st
Extra classes on public holidays

Weekend Batches for GATE +IES + PSUs for EC, EE, IN, CSIT & ME
March 25th & May 1st

NOTE :

The common syllabus for GATE & IES will be covered in the beginning. The
additional syllabus for IES will be covered after completion of the common
syllabus.

Reserve your seat in advance to avoid last minute disappointment.

Additional batches will be arranged depending upon response.

***** TO WIN THE RACE JOIN THE ACE *****

EC MG1

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