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Av10: Index
ATPL
ATPL
ATPL
Aerody 8. Systems Pt 1
Navigation Part 1
Aerody 8. Systems Pt 2
Basic Gas Turblnes
Code Av1
Code Av2
Code Av4
Flying Glass
ATPL
night phnning
Trainmg Texts
Code Av8
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ATPL
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Code Av9
ATPL
GTOY& SYSQGITIS Pt 3
Code Av13
ATPL
Performance & Load
Code Av15
pages
bookpormo2011
Promo:
Code Av3
ATPL
ATPL
Exams Part 1
Exams Part 2
Code Av5
Code Av18
'
"
Code Av10
ATPL
5 Navigation Exams
Code Av40
ATPL
5 Aerodynamlcs and
Systems Exams
Code Av41
ATPL
4 Performance and
Loading Exams
nun-n
rn
Code Av42
IREX
4 Practice Exams
..o
Code Av6
E
9
c1
E
9
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Lawl page I.
Number of questions
Q1. A CASA examiner can travel
S7!
50
Q2. You are in CTA 20 nm from the destination aerodrome Iocated within a primary CTR. ATC ask
you to confirm sighting of another arriving aircraft ahead. You subsequently report the aircraft sighted
to ATC, who instruct you to maintain segaration from that aircraft. One of the provisions of this instruction is that ?
F199?
You may overtake that aircraft provided you do so by passing on the Ieft of that aircraft.
You may overtake that aircraft provided you do so by passing on the right of that aircraft.
You may overtake that aircraft only when within 5 nm of the destination airport.
You may NOT overtake that aircraft.
F???
9-999
Aircraft shall never dump fuel if the aircraft is below 5000 AGL.
Aircraft shall not dump fuel below 6000 ft. except in an emergency.
Aircraft shall under no circumstances dump fuel if the aircraft is below 6000 ft AGL.
ATC need not be advised of the requirement to dump fuel in CTA, if the aircraft is above 5000
ft AGL.
30..
LaWl Page 2.
Q5. Which answer is most correct about the shortening/Iengthening of racetrack holding pattems ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
A pilot may never shorten the outbound Ieg of a holding pattem, even OCTA without prior ATC
approval.
A pilot whose aircraft is operating in CTA may shorten the Iength of the holding pattem in order
to Ieave the pattern at a specified time.
A pilot whose aircraft is operating in CTA may at his/her discretion extend the outbound Ieg of
a holding pattem beyond the published DME Iimit, without the prior approval of ATC in order to
Ieave the pattem at a specified time.
A pilot whose aircraft is operating in CTA may extend the length of the outbound Ieg of the
holding pattem beyond the published DME Iimit without prior ATC approval if holding for a proIonged period of time.
Q6. An aircraft is flying a Category 1 ILS, is exactly on the glideslope and upon passing the published
altitude check point the pilot notes that the altimeter reading was not the same as that published on
the ILS approach chart. Which answer best describes the actions (if any) that the pilot should take ?
F79
c.
d.
The pilot need not amend the published approach minima. as the error is caused by
atmospheric oonditions, and the error will reduce as altitude is reduced.
The pilot should lower the approach altitude minima if the altimeter under-reads at the
altimeter check point.
The pilot should raise the approach altitude minima by the amount of the error ifthe
altimeter under-reads at the altimeter check point.
Q7. Which of the answers Iisted below best represents the Rated Coverage' of a sea Ievel VOR if
the aircraft is at FL250 ?
a.
90 nm
b.
195 nm
d.
150 nm
c.
e.
120 nm
180 nm
Q8. Which answer best describes the aircraft approach Category if it's speed at runway threshold
(Vat) is 150 KIAS ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Category "A"
Category B
Category C
Category D
Q9. Which of the Statements Iisted best describes the procedures with regard to oxygen equipment in
c.
d.
Flight crew shall use oxygen whenever the Cabin altitude is above FL140.
Cabin crew members shall use oxygen during those times when the cabin altitude is above
10, 000 n.
Ifthe flight crew station is equipped with quick donning type oxygen masks, then one of the
pilots shall use oxygen whenever the aircraft is above FL450.
lf the flight crew station is NOT equipped with quick donning oxygen masks one member of
the flight crew shall use oxygen whenever the aircraft is above FL200.
9-99?
wvw/
robaverycom au
Lawl page 3.
O11. The PIC has the responsibility to check for water contamination of aircraft fuel ?
9.079
Q12. With regard to the carriage of airbome weather radar equipment, which answer Iisted below is
most correct if the aircraft is required by law to carry serviceable weather radar equipment?
a.
Should the weather radar equipment become inoperative en-route, the aircraft must be imme-
diately diverted to the nearest suitable altemate, and the route to that altemate shall not involve penetration of any cloud fonnation Iikely to be associated with severe turbulence.
An aircraft which suffers a failure of it's weather radar equipment shall not depan that aerodrome despite the fact that no cloud associated with severe turbulence is forecasted en-route
to the destination and/or planned altemate.
An aircraft which suffers a failure of the weather radar whilst en-route may continue that
flight, provided the aircraft avoids penetration of any cloud formation Iikely to be associated
with severe turbulence.
An aircraft which suffers a weather radar failure may continue flying operations for a further 24
hours thereafter, even if this may involve the penetration of cloud associated with severe turbulence.
a.
lt is approved by CASA.
b.
c.
d.
O14. Prior to commencing an IFR chaner flight in a pressurised heavy transport turbojet aircraft with
a gross takeoff weight in excess of 5, 700 kg, you note that the altitude alerting system is unserviceable. Under which one of the conditions Iisted below may you prooeed with the flight ?
9-0579
Provided the flight does not fly higher than 10, O00 ft.
Provided the flight does not fly higher than FL185.
Provided the aircraft track/Ievel will not enter oontroiled airspace.
Provided there are no other instrument unserviceability's there are no restrictions to the
flight.
Q15. When navigating by reference to ground based navigation aids which one of the following best
represents an aoceptable method of obtaining a positive radio fix ?
b.
When within the rated coverage of two NDBs if the position lines cross at a minimum angle of
45 degrees.
When within the rated coverage of two NDBs if the position Iines cross at and angle of NOT
more than 45 degrees.
Passage over a VOR or NDB.
One position Iine provided it is from an aid other than an NDB. and is within the rated cover-
age.
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Law] Page 4_
O16. Your destination airport TAF is marked Provisional. As P|C you must ?
9-999
Ensure that sufficient holding fuel for INTERmittent weather deteriorations is carried.
Ensure that sufficient holding fuel for TEMPOrary weather deteriorations is carried.
Only cany weather holding fuel if it is specifically stated on the TAF.
Carry sufficient fuel allow for a diversion from the destination to a suitable alternate, for
O17. After a rest period, you commence a 7 hour period of reserve at home. Thereafter you are required to fly as a passenger on a deadhead re-positioning flight which takes two hours. As part of a
two crew operation you may now commence a flight, provided the expected duty time required to
complete the flight does not exceed ?
a.
14 hours
b.
2 hours
d.
9 hours
11 hours
c.
O18. which Statement is most correct regarding the removal of control surface locks and olher such
extemal devices from an aircraft about to taxi for takeoff ?
a.
9.0.5
Any member of the Operators ground personnel may remove these, without the need to display
them to the pilot in command.
Only the First Officer or Captain may remove these devices.
Only the pilot in command of the flight may remove these devices.
An authorised member of the Operators ground personnel can remove these devices, provided
these are displayed to the pilot in command, and he/she acknowledges to that person that they
have been sighted.
O19. A B727 is planned to fly a VFR sightseeing charter flight. How many serviceable tum and slip
indicators must be on board ?
F???
a pennitted
unserviceability'.
O20. The "main runway is defined as the runway having ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
O21. You are the Pilot in Command of a BAe 146 aircraft rostered to fly an IFR charter flight within
controlled airspace. You note lhat the altitude alerting system is unservioeable. Can the aircrafl depart with this unservlceability ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
No
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Lawl
Page 5.
O22. You are rostered to fly a Saab 340 type aircraft on a series of three charter flights. each of
which has the same passenger load. The departure and destination airports are the same for each of
the flights. Which answer Iisted below is most correct regarding the provision of Ioad sheets ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Three separate Ioad sheets are required, one for each flight.
Load sheets are not required for any of the flights. as this is a charter opetation. not RPT.
Only one Ioad sheet is required, but it must be revised afler each of the first two flights.
Only one Ioad sheet is required, assuming the condions do not change.
O23. Before activating the aircraft weather radar in "Normal" (antenna rotating) mode whilst on the
ground you must flrst ensure that the minimum distance between your aircraft and persons other
aircraft and equipment is not Iess than ? Assume N0 approved attenuating screen is in plaoe.
a
b.
c
d
46 metres
120 metres
60 metres
37 metres
O24. Which statement is correct regarding the provision of lifejackets in a 20 pax charter aircraft ?
a.
b.
c.
O25. when under radar control, and a radar heading change instruction is given, the pilot
must commence the tum ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
O26. You are to conduct a freight only charter flight at night under the IFR. which of the answers
Iisted below best describes the minimum requirement for electric Iighting ?
99.0"!
O27. Wim regard to precautions during engine Starting, which one of the answers listed beIow is
most correct .7
a.
b.
c.
d.
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Lawl
Page 6_
O28. A TTF has been issued for a particular airport. Which Statement is most correct ?
9.0.79
The TTF supersedes the TAF for the period of the ITF validity.
A TAF supersedes a TTF for the peiiod of the TAF.
The TAF has preoedence over the TTF for the period of the TTF.
Operational holding fuel requirements are made in accordance with the TAF during the validity
of the ITF.
a.
b.
c.
d.
A pilot shall change the altimeter subscale setting from 1013.2 HPa to area ONH value when
O30. As pilot in command you must tum on the seat belt signs and ensure a public address has
been made requesting the passengers fasten their seat belts prior to commencing ?
a.
b.
d.
An instrument approach.
c.
Final approach.
O31. You have completed type endorsement training for the Saab 340 twin turboprop, plus an additional 60 hours ICUS flight time including 12 sectors of 50 minute duration. All training was completed within a 90 day period. Assuming you had no previous experience on the Saab 340, what further requirement (if any) must be met for you to act as pilot in command on charter operations ?
9-9?!
O32. Where an aircraft has a permitted unserviceability" which statement is correct about the maintenance release ?
a.
lt is no Ionger valid.
b.
lt must state the unserviceability and bear an endorsement that it is issued subject to certain
conditions.
c.
O33. With the undercaniage retracted afler an engine failure at or atter V1, a twin engine turbojet aircraft oertificated in the normal category with takeoff flap, and takeoff power set, must achieve what
minimum net ciimb gradient ?
9-579?
2.4%
Positive
1.6%
1.8%
wwwrobavery com au
Lawl page 7.
O34. An ERC chart has an area in red, with the words R242 0-UNL H24". This means ?
a.
b.
c.
9-9979
O36. On a tour of duty the flight time has been 8 hours and 50 minutes. Assuming the previous day
was a rest day, which answer best represents the minimum rest period before the commencement of
the next tour of duty ?
579
F1.
O37. As a ATPL Iicence holder, under certain conditions you may gain approval conduct flights involving another ATPL Iicence holder to gain a type endorsement. You must ?
999".
O38. You are the PIC of a heavy turbojet aircraft coasting out" during the commencement of a Iong
overwater leg. What is the Iatest time at which passengers must be briefed on Iocation and operation
of flotation devices fitted to the aircraft ?
F19?!
O39. What is the takeoff minima for a heavy transport aircraft, assuming the airport Iighting is of the
highest Standard ?
a.
b.
c.
O40. For a heavy turbojet aircraft maintaining FL290 the minimum oxygen requirement for crew and
passengers is ?
a.
b.
c.
10 minutes for all passengers and cabin crew, and 30 minutes for flight deck crew on duty.
45 minutes for all passengers, cabin crew, and flight deck crew on duty.
10 minutes for all passengers, and 45 minutes for flight deck crew on duty.
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[am Page 3_
O41. Given: Twin engine turbojet aircraft greater than 5700 kgNFR operations. which Statement is
most oorrect about the number of attitude indicators required to be fitted and servioeable for this flight
to proceed ?
99-999
O42. Which statement is most correct about fitting and serviceability of GP\NS to a turbine powered
aircraft over 15, 000 kg, or 10 passengers, on RPT operations?
9.0.5.9
O43. An passenger and freight air service operation between fixed terminals and to a fixed
schedule but aooommodation NOT available to the general public, is classed as ?
Q9579
A RPT operation.
A private operation.
A charter Operation.
A private transportation service.
O44. A turbojet to fly RPT Adelaide to Alice Springs at FL31O with 120 passengers aboard. Which
answer best describes the minimum supply of supplemental oxygen requirements for all the crew
members on flight deck duty ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
15 minutes supply.
45 minutes supply.
Aircraft emergency descent period, or 10 minutes, whichever is the greater amount, if the
aircraft manufacturers flight manual specifies a descent time to 10, O00 ft amsl.
The specified aircraft emergency descent safety period.
The specified aircraft emergency descent safety period. plus 30 minutes.
a.
b.
c.
O46. A heavy turbojet aircraft has arrived overhead its destination airport, which is OCTA It's gross
weight is greater than its maximum landing weight Fuel dumping to reduoe weight is ?
POP?
wwwrobavery com au
Lawl page 9.
Q47. which Statement is most correct regarding timing and headings in a holding pattem to
allow for wind effects ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Allowances should not be applied, as an |CAO wind maximum was allowed in the design of
the holding pattem.
Allowances should be applied for when OCTA but NOT within CTA.
Allowances should be applied for when in CTA, but NOT when OCTA.
Allowances should be applied whether in CTA or OCTA.
Q48. Given:
o
Twin engine turbojet aircraft greater than 5, 700 kg.
o
Charter operation.
o
Three pilots - all Iicensed as PlC of type.
which answer best describes the maximum ACTIVE tour of duty that can be rostered or this crew ?
FDP-O?!
8 hours
14 hours
12 hours
11 hours
16 hours
Q49. An aircraft certificated for single pilot operations has a 3 axis autopiIot which has automatic
heading and altitude hold functions but you note the yaw damper is unserviceable. The AFM says
this is a permitted unserviceability. Under what conditions may this aircraft be flown IFR RPT with this
unserviceability ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Provided the altitude hold, and heading hold functions remain serviceable.
If the second control seat is crewed by a pilot with at least private lFR license.
Without any additional requirements.
If the second control seat is crewed by a pilot with at least a PPL.
O50. Simultaneous takeoffs and Iandings are permitted under LAHSO operations 7
51.0579
By day and night with cloud ceiling 1, 000 ft and 5, 000 m visibility or better.
By day and night provided aircraft are notified by ATS of LAHSO ops in progress.
By night only with minimum cloud ceiling 500 ft and visibility 3, 000 m or better.
By day only, with minimum cloud ceiling 1, 000 ft and visibility 5, 000 m or better
www.avfacts.com.au/av10
Lawz page |_
Number of questions
50
Q1. Whilst in flight on an all cargo trip in a B757-200PF, the Captain leaves the F.0 at the controls
alone. Quick donning oxygen masks are available. What is the Iowest altltude above which lhe F.0.
is required to use supplemental oxygen during the Captains absence ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
FL420
FL250
FL450
10000 ft
Q2. You become aware of an aircraft defect whilsl on your pre-flight inspection. You must ?
9.0.59
Q3.Which Statement is mCORRECT regarding the ferrying from one licensed airport to another licensed airport of a turbojet aircraft which has an engine operative, and able to confonn to the CAO
perfonnance orders ?
999.79
Q4. When advised to conduct a visual approach during daylight hours the PIC shall ?
a.
b.
c.
Not descend below 1000 ft until the aircraft is established on the VASIS.
Follow the route clearance 1owithin 5 km of the airport.
Follow the route clearance until within 5 nm of the airport.
Q5. You are en-route to your destination Perth, where the ATIS indicates an lLS approach will be required. The 75 MHz marker beacon receiver is unserviceable. Which Statement is correct ?
9057!
You must provide for an allernate airport which is above alternate minima.
You must provide for an altemate airport which only need be above landing minima.
You may carry out an ILS approach, provided the aircraft DME is serviceable.
You may not proceed to Perth until the weather improves to above altemale minima.
Q6. lmmediately prior to takeoff. the pilol in command shall ensure that ?
a.
b.
c.
Lawz Page 2_
a.
b.
c.
a.
b.
c.
The values of wind, barometric pressure, and temperature indicated on a current TAF.
The conditions as advised on the airpon ATIS.
The atmospheric temperature pressure, and prevailing wind conditions within the preceding
15 minutes.
Q9. An aircraft is cruising under VFR at 7500 ft outside controlled airspace. Which answer represents
the minimum horizontal distance from cloud ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
5000 m
1500 m
600 m
500 m
1 km
O10. Whilst on the ground what is the minimum distance between the aircraft and persons or equipment if the weather radar antenna is operated in normal mode, assuming attenuating screen NOT
fitted ?
U!
F157
60 metres
37 metres
15 metres
9 metres
O11. You are Iined up for takeoff in a Fokker 50 twin turboprop 50 seat aircraft. The runway Iength is
1750 metres. A Iight aircraft has departed ahead of you. You may not begin the takeoff roll until ?
99.5".
The preceding aircraft is at least 1800 m past your proposed takeoff point.
The preceding aircraft has become airborne.
The preceding aircraft has passed the upwind end of the runway or commenced a turn.
The preceding aircraft is at least 600 m past your proposed takeoff point.
Q12. When cruising at 10 000 f1. the altimeter setting shall be set to ?
a.
b.
c.
1013.2 HPa
Destination QNH
Area QNH
d.
Q13. An aircraft has been assigned a SID. This can be cancelled by ATC when ?
579
c.
d.
www.robavery.com.au
Lawz page 3,
O14. Before acting as PIC of an RPT aircraft on a particular route, a pilot shall ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
A.
a.
O16. A person who is not a member of the ogerating crew of an RPT aircraft may ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
With permission of the Pilot In Command, enter the crew compartment and occupy a vacant
crew operating position.
With the pennission of the Pilot In Command enter the crew comgartment, but must not occupy a vacant crew ogerating gosition.
Not enter the crew compartment, unless the person is authorised to conduct examinations,
inspections or checks of the aircraft, its equipment a member of the operating crew or the
ground Organisation provided for use of the aircraft.
Not enter the crew compartment unless authorised by CASA and approved by the Pilot In
Command (PIC).
O17. How many turn and slip indicators must be fitted and serviceable for a VFR charter flight in the
B737 ?
None.
One, if it has a duplicated power source.
One, whether or not the power source is duplicated.
9519.79
O18. Given: PIC of charter flight in a turboprop with MTOW of 17, 500 kg. You have never flown the
route, but you appreciate the specification of the route to be flown, including diversion to alternate,
and are familiar and current on the IFR approach procedure and navaids. Can you act as PIC of this
flight without further provisions ?
a.
b.
Yes
O19. Given LSALT for route 5600 ft. Track O70M. The Iowest applicable IFR Ievel at which you may
fly under the IFR is ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
7000 ft.
6000 ft.
7500 fl.
9500 ft
O20. Prior approval from CASA is not required should a pilot wish to drop which of the following
items from an aircraft in flight ?
a.
b.
c.
Lawg Page 4_
O21. A curved departure is planned should an engine fail at or after "m V1. which Statement is
most correct assuming a Q runway surface ?
a.
b,
c.
The turn can not be commenced until obstacles are cleared by 50 ft.
Bank angle must not be greater than 20 degrees.
Obstacles to be over-flown must be cleared by 35 ft.
O22. Your aircraft has a MTOW of 4000 kg and you wish to conduct a charter operation carrying passengers under the lFR. As Pilot In Command, it is your responsibility to check that aircraft is fitted
with certain serviceable instruments. Which of the following groups of instruments must have a duplicated source of power supply for such a flight?
519579
Heading indicator, turn and slip indicator and two attitude indicators.
Heading indicator, turn and slip indicator and ASI.
Heading indicator, turn and slip indicator and one attitude indicator.
Heading indicator, turn and slip indicator and VSI.
O23. You are on a charter flight in an B737 at FL280. The crews supplemental oxygen supply must
be adequate for the entire time the cabin altitude is above 10000 ft, but in any case you must ensure
that ?
9-9579
There is not less than 45 minutes supply for each flight crew member.
There is not Iess than 45 minutes supply for each flight crew member on flight deck duty.
There is at least a 30 minute supply for each crew member.
There is not less than a 10 minutes supply for each crew member.
O24. A pressurised high capacity turbine engine aircraft operating on international RPT Services lnto
and out of Australia above FL150 under the lFR and operating in CTA, requires which of the following ?
Q9579
O25. An ATPL authorises you to act as Pilot In Command of a heavy jet aircraft in which of the following operations ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
O26. As the holder of an ATPL you may under certain conditions be approved to conduct flights to
enable another ATPL holder lo qualify for an endorsement. To conduct this endorsement training you
must hold a valid licence endorsed .7
5199"!
909".
Operating within or through a designated remote area over a distance in excess of 50 NM.
The carriage of Iife jackets is mandatory.
The carriage of life rafts is mandatory.
Not equipped with HF radio.
vwvw robaverycomau
Law2 page 5.
O28. You are proceeding through an ADIZ and are intercepted by a military fighter aircraft on your
Ieft. lt then executes an abrupt 90 degree climbing Iefthand turn away from you. What should you
do ?
a.
b.
c.
O29. In a heavy jet aircraft with passengers on board one of the conditions under which cargo may
be carried is that it may be Ioaded ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
On an unoccupied control seat if the weight of cargo does not exceed 77 kg, is properiy re
strained and the relevant flight controls are removed.
In the passenger compartment ahead of but never behind the passengers.
In the aisle, but only if the crew members are still able to move freely through the aircraft in an
upright position.
On an unoccupied passenger seat if the weight of the cargo does not exceed 77 kg and is
suitably restrained.
O30. You have just completed endorsement training for a heavy jet aeroplane which includes 5 hours
of flight time ICUS and 5 take-offs and 5 Iandings to a full stop. This training was all completed within
the previous 90 days and you have other aeronautical experience on the aircraft type. The additional
requirements (if any) to allow you to act as Pilot In Command of a charter flight carrying passengers
in this aircraft are best summarised as ?
99.0"?
O31. A turbojet aircraft departing an en-route hoIding pattern at FL160 shall do so at what indicated
airspeed ?
a.
b.
C.
d.
210 kt +/- 10 kt
250 kt +/- 10 kt
280 kt +/- 5 kt
180 kt +/- 5 kt
99.579
AII turbine powered aircraft capable of indicated airspeeds over 250 kt.
AII turbojet aircraft.
AII turbojet aircraft operating RPT or charter .
Turbojet aircraft where Iimitations are expressed as a Mach number.
O33. The minimum NET climb gradient for a twin engine turboprop aircraft certificated in the Commuter Category with one engine failed, in the second segment must be ?
a.
b.
c.
1.6%
Positive
1.2%
O34. Having commenced tour of duty in two crew operation of 10 hours, the flight is delayed due to
an unserviceabi|ity and extends to 12.5 hours. Assuming no other Iimitations app|y and the rest period wiII embrace 2200 hrs and 0600 hrs Iocal time, the minimum rest period foIIowing this tour is ?
99-9579
15 hours
24 hours
16 hours
12 hours
10 hours
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Law2 page 6.
O35. A holding pattem limitation specifies a Iimit of 20 DME. At what point on the outbound Ieg of the
pattern, should a turn to intercept the inbound Ieg occur '?
a.
b.
c.
d.
O36. Given: Pressurised turbojet, IFR ops in CTA. Which answer is most correct regarding the provision of an operable altitude alerting system. and assigned altitude indicator ?
5951957!
O37. Some requirements of a Ioad sheet if MTOW 6, 000 kg are best summed up by 7
a.
b.
c.
d.
consecutive flights.
The Operator must retain a copy for 6 months after the relevant flight.
ln the case of RPT operations, a copy of the Ioad sheet is retained on the ground at the depar-
ture airport.
O38. You are the PIC of an RPT turbojet that is parked at the terminal gate. Both engines are operating due an APU bleed duct fault. Which statement is most correct regarding Ioading operations ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Freight may be Ioaded or unloaded without restriction provided the wheels are chocked.
Freight must NOT be Ioaded under any circumstances while the engines are running.
Passengers can NOT embark or disembark under any circumstances.
Passengers may embark or disembark without any restfictions or briefing provided the wheel
chocks are in place.
Passengers may embark or disembark, provided they have been adequately briefed on how
to avoid injury from the operating engines.
O39. In-flight and under radar ATS guidance, you are instructed to turn onto a new heading.
You must 7
a.
Commence the turn at rate one or standard rate for the aircraft immediately on receiving the
b.
Commence the turn within 1 minute, at the standard rate for the aircraft immediately on receiv-
c.
Commenoe the turn at rate one or standard rate for the aircraft within 30 seconds of receiving
instructlon.
the instruction.
O40. Before acting as PIC of a heavy turbojet aircraft in RPT operations, you must ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Have made at least one flight over the proposed route within the previous 30 days or have
completed a flight review by a CASA operations inspector within the previous 6 months.
Have flown the route at least once before in your flying career as PIC or First Officer.
Have oonducted at least one instrument approach at the departure and destination airports
within the previous 12 calendar months.
Have fiown the proposed route as a pilot crew member of an operating crew within the previous 12 months.
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Law2 page 7.
O41. what is the maximum number of passengers that may be canied on a light turboprop twin engine aircraft certified for single pilot operations assuming IFR RPT ?
9057.
O42. Under what condition may you as pilot of an IFR flight be authorised to conduct a visual approach to a primary oontrol zone ?
a.
b.
c.
O43. Your aircraft is required to have on-board two serviceable altimeters. Assuming you have submitted an IFR flight plan that altimeter # 1 reads 40 ft in error, and altimeter #2 reads 70 ft in error,
which Statement is most correct ?
A.
B.
C.
O44. Destination airport eievation is 1500 ft amsl. You set destination QNH at 1023 HPa at FL110
during descent and join the circuit at an indicated altitude of 2500 ft. lf the QNH was in fact 1013
HPa, what would your height be on downwind ?
9-99?
700 ft
1300 fl
1000 ft
2500 ft
O45. Minimum vertical distance from cloud if VFR beiow 10 000 ft in class G airspace is ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
O46. Which of the following answers best represents the instruments which must have a dupiicated
source of power supp|y assuming your operation is IFR passenger charter and a twin engine turbine
powered aircraft with a MTOW of 4800 kg ?
99.579
Tum and slip, plus heading indicator, Machmeter VSI and altimeters.
Tum and slip, heading indicator, plus VSI.
Tum and slip, heading indicator and both attitude indicators.
Tum and slip, heading indicator and one attitude indicator.
Law2 page 8.
a.
b.
c.
You must maintain your own Separation from all other aircraft in the zone.
ATC will separate you from IFR traffic but never VFR traffic.
ATC provide Separation between special VFR flights IFR to IFR, and IFR to VFR flights.
O48. Given IFR RPT flight. Which Statement best represents SARWATCH '?
a.
b.
c.
If Ianding at a CTAFR, the pilot may only cancel sarwatch after Ianding.
lf Ianding at an airport with a control service, you must cancel your sarwatch.
When inbound to an intermediate airport doubt exists as to the continued ability to communicate by radio the pllot may nominate a sartime for departure.
O49. Having just completed a 12 hour tour of duty in an aircraft with a crew of 3 pilots. that is fitted
with approved crew rest seats you contemplate the minimum rest period required before the next
tour of duty can be commenced. lt is 7
a.
b,
c.
After 24 hrs
After 12 hours
After 14 consecutive hours.
O50. Which answer is NOT correct about the availability of special alternate minima ?
a.
b.
c.
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Number of questions
Q1. A condition relating
9.0.59
50.
Q2. How many flight attitude indicators are required to be serviceable for a VFR charter flight in a
heavy jet aeroplane?
Q0579
none
One
Two
three
Q3. Following the failure of the critical engine at V1 the gradient of the net flight gath to be
achieved by a non-commuter twin engine jet aircraft with the gear fully retracted must be at least 7
0.8%
1.2%
1.6%
99.0"!
2.4%
Q4. If you experience failure of the critical engine during cruise in VMC and a drift down technique is
required to maintain obstacle cIearance then the net flight path of the aircraft must be clear by ?
a.
b.
C.
d.
1000 feet vertically, all obstacles within 5 nm. plus 20% of the air distance flown since the
last positive fix, of the aeroplane's track.
2000 feet vertically, all obstacles within 10 nm of the aeroplanes track.
2000 feet vertically, all obstacles within 5 nm of the aeroplane's track.
1000 feet venically, all obstacles within 5 nm of the aeroplane's track.
9.0.55
all occupants of an aircraft, including Infants and children, during take off and landing.
at least one pilot crew member at all times during flight.
at least two flight crew members when an electronic type automatic pilot is engaged.
all flight crew members, but not passengers during an instrument approach.
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Q6. The conditions required to maintain VMC (not special VMC) when flying in an aeroplane below
l0 000 ft AMSL in class "C" airspaoe are require a flight visibility of ?
F7.
51.0
5000 m with 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from cloud.
8 km with 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from cloud.
5000 m with 600 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from cloud.
8 km with 2000 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from cloud.
Q7. You note on the ERC that the planned flight passes near the boundary of an area marked R644
6000 FL 150 H24. Flight through this area is ?
9.0.79
Q8. While operating under IFR in Australia FlR within oontrolled airspace you ?
9-9975
must cruise with standard pressure set on your altimeter at all Ievels.
need not oomply with the appropriate table of cruising Ievels if cruising below 5000 ft amsl.
need not oomply with the appropriate table of cruising Ievels if cruising below 5000 ft VMC.
need not comply with the appropriate table of cruising Ievels if approved by ATC.
a.
b.
c.
d.
commenced within one minute of receiving an instruction from ATC. unless a Iatter time is
specified.
made at a rate of not less than 500 fpm except that the last 1000 ft of Ievel change must be
made at 500 fpm.
commenced immediately on receipt of the instruction unless a latter time is specified.
made at the standard rate.
O10. You are cmising OCTA and you sight a slower aircraft directly ahead at the
and on the same track. To overtake this aircraft you must ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
011. While cruising OCTA you sight an aeroplane converging head on from the left and note that
the relative bearing of the other aircraft remains constant. Your action should be to ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
012. At what point on a descent, after cruising at a flight Ievel within Australien FlR's should the altimeter setting be changed to the area or destination QNH?
a.
b.
c.
d.
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013. On completing a tour of duty you note that the total flight time was 8 hours and 50 minutes. If
the previous day was a rest day, which of the following constitutes a minimum acceptable rest period
before commencing the next tour of duty?
a.
b.
c.
d.
C114. On completion of a flight and return home to base you suffer an illness that prevents you exercising the privileges of your licence for 8 days. Under what conditions may you resume flying ?
9-9579
only after passing an ATPL medical renewal with an approved medical practitioner.
as soon as you consider that you have recovered.
after a designated medical practitioner has certified you have recovered from the illness.
only after approval has been granted by CASA.
Q15. During the flight in a pressurised heavy jet aeroplane carrying passengers, only one flight crew
member is seated at that controls. If quick donning type oxygen masks are avaiIabIe then the flight
altitude above which the pilot is required to use supplemental oxygen is ?
9.9579
I0 000 ft
FL45O
FL250
FL410
016. In a Saab 340 turboprop aircraft with cabin attendants and passengers on board, one of the
conditions under which cargo Ioading into the passenger compartment can take place is ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
lt must only be Ioaded ahead of the occupied passenger seats, and in such a way as to permit
movement of the cabin crew in an upright posture.
lt must only be Ioaded behind the occupied passenger seats and in such a way as to permit
movement of the cabin crew in an upright posture.
lt can be Ioaded in an unoccupied pilot control seat, provided it does not exceed 77 kg, and it
is properly restrained from movement in flight, and the relevant flight controls are removed.
lt can be Ioaded on an unoccupied passenger seat, must not exceed 77 kg. and is propedy re-
strained.
O17. What is the maximum distance at which a heavy CAO20.7.1b compliant non-EROPS twin jet
aeroplane may be operated from Iand without being required to carry Iife rafts if the true airspeed is
390 kt?
9-9579
780 nm
50 nm
400 nm
120 nm
O18. For aeroplanes engaged in international operations. forecast oonditions of temperature and
pressure may be used to determine Ianding weight Iimitations at the destination if made within a
maximum period of '?
a.
b.
c.
d.
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99.0".
020. For an RPT turboprop aircraft Ianding at an airport that is NOT an altemate, the demonstrated
LDR to bring the aircraft to a stop on a wet runway is factored ?
9.9.79
Up by 15%
Up by 43%
Down by 67%
Up by 67%
G21. Under what conditions may a flight operating under day IFR be authorised to make a visual approach to a destination within a primary control zone?
a.
b.
c.
d.
G22. After cruising under IFR at FL250 you intend to descend to a Iower cruising Ievel. If this descent
is to take place OCTA then which of the following will apply?
a.
9-99
the rate of descent must not be Iess than 500 fpm exoept that the last 1000 feet must be made
at 500 fpm.
descent must be commenced within 1 minute of notification of intention to change Ievel.
IAS must not exceed 250 kt between 5000 feet and 10000 feet.
IAS must not exceed 220 kt between 6000 feet and 14000 feet.
Statement is
51.0.3!
O25. "Major Defects" or "Major Damage" on an Australian airoraft is found by you as the pilot. Which
answer best desctibes the action must you take ?
a.
b.
c.
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O26. Which Statement is most correct about who is authorised to carry out maintenance on a Class
"A" Australian registered aircraft ?
a.
b.
c.
O27. Which Statement is most correct about who is authorised to carry out maintenance on
Class "B" Australian registered aircraft ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
system of maintenance.
A person being the holder of a pilot Iicence (excluding a student pilot Iicence), and then only in
those items approved by the applicable CASA maintenance schedule.
O28. Maintenanoe to the fuel control unit on a high "High Capacity Turbine" engine aircraft has been
carried out, and a flight at high altitude is required to perform a test. In this case ?
a.
b.
c.
O29. As PIC of a class A aircraft you have entered a "major defect' into the aircraft maintenance release. The defect is a permitted unserviceability is the aircraft's pennitted unserviceability schedule.
What is the effect of this entry on the validity of the aircraft maintenance release ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
O30. You discover a "Major Defect" on an Australian registered aircraft, which effects the control system. Which answer is most correct ?
9-9579
O31. Which answer best describes who can endorse a permitted unserviceability ?
a.
b.
c,
O32. Regarding windshield clear Vision equipment, which statement is most oorrect ?
a.
b.
c.
O33. Regarding the carriage of a guide in an aircraft passenger cabin which answer is correct ?
a.
b.
c.
O34. Under which of the conditions Iisted may you fly below 500 ft AGL ?
a.
b.
c.
When flying over a regatta or such public gathering for the purposes of aerial photography.
When transiting from one airport to another.
Because the cloud base is Iow, and you need to stay "visuaI".
a.
b.
c.
O36. Which statement is correct regarding documents to be carried in an aircraft involved during
general flying (GF) within Australian Territory (domestic ops) ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
O37. An aircraft approaching from the Ieft is on an apparent collision course with your aircraft. Who
has the final responsibility to take avoiding action ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
O38. You are one of three captains rostered to fly a Charter Operation in a B737 aircraft. The maximum "ACTIVE" Tour of Duty that you be rostered for is ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
11 hours.
12 hours.
14 hours.
18 hours.
O39. You beoome visual at the circling minima during a circling approach. The Non-Towered aerodrome circuit directions for both mnways are Ieft-hand. May a right-hand tum onto downwind be
flown ?
a.
b.
c.
a
b.
c.
d
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O41. Which statement is most correct regarding the reporting of incidents (RRM) or accidents
(IRM) ?
9-959
The Operator must infonn the ATSB in writing within 24 hours of the incident (lRM).
lncidents (RRM) do not need reporting, but accidents (IRM) do.
An RRM must be reported within 24 hours or less incidents within 48 hours.
An IRM must be reported by telephone as soon as reasonably practicaI and in wnting within
72 hours.
O42. What is the minimum clearance from cloud for VMC. OCTA, at 5000 ft amsl ?
a.
b.
c.
O43. You have just oompleted fuel loading operations of your Saab 340 turboprop aircraft.
A fuel tanker is parked in a position 20 metres behind. Which statement is most correct ?
a.
b.
c.
O44. Whilst in the cruise you observe another aircraft directly ahead at the same level and apparently on the same track. To overtake, you ?
a.
b.
c.
O45. When planning a charter flight in a B737 turbojet aircraft, a tour of duty in excess of 11 hours
may be undertaken when ?
a.
b.
c.
A flight crew of three pilots is rostered. and two of them can act as pilot in command.
Under no circumstances irrespective of flight crew number.
The tour of duty does not exceed 12 hours.
O46. A three pilot B777 flight crew has just oompleted a tour of duty of 20 hours. After the minimum
specified rest period, which answer best represents the maximum period of active duty in a 3 person
crew, that can be rostered for the ensuing tour of duty ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
16 hours
9 hours
12 hours
18 hours
14 hours
O47. An Australian ATPL licenoe, without special CASA perrnission entitles you to act in the role of
pilot in oommand of a BAe 146 four engine turbojet aircraft ?
a.
b.
c.
In RPT and heavy jet charter on international and domestic operations only.
In all classes of operation other than international RPT.
In all classes of operation including international RPT or charter.
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G48. An aircrafl is required by Iaw to have on board a servioeable Flight Data Reoorder (FDR) and a
servioeable Cockpit Voice Reoorder (CVR). If the FDR is found to be unservioeable then ?
A.
B
C.
certain oonditions.
The flight may depan but only if it is involved solely in test or training flights.
O49. Which answer best describes the maximum distanoe from land that a twin engine Airbus A320
EROPS (EDTO) certificated aircraft can operate without Iife rafts aboard ?
9.9.5!
O50. Which answer best represents the minimum requirements regarding the power supply to the
attitude indicators fitted to a high capacity IFR RPT turbo-jet aircraft unIess exempted in the aircraft
flight manual permitted unserviceability list ?
A.
B.
C.
Two attitude indicators each powered by it's own power supply system.
Three attitude indicators each powered by ifs own power supply system.
Three attitude indicators two of which may be powered by one a single power supply system.
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CAO 20.2/vage 1.
Q1. Which people can NOT remove control Iocks prior to flight ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Q2. One proviso where Iocking pins are removed by a person other than the pilot in command, or eopilot is that ?
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Q3. At which time must all oontrols be checked for full and free movement ?
A.
B.
C.
A.
B.
C.
Q5. Unless the aircraft manufacturer specifies otherwise, tests for the presence of water shall be
done ?
A.
B.
C.
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CAO20AIpa9e1.
Q1. A pressurised air canier jet aircrafi is about to depan. lt will be cruising at FL340. The passengers must be briefed on requirements for and use of oxygen equipment before ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Q2. A flight crew member who is on flight deck duty in an unpressurised aircraft must be provided
with and continually use, supplemental oxygen at all times during which the aircraft is above ?
A
B.
C.
10000 f1.
FL120
FL250
FL140
Q3. An unpressurised air transport aircraft is to cruise at FL110. What is the maximum time period in
the cruise without cabin attendants requiring continuous supplemental oxygen ?
A.
Unrestficted.
B.
30 minutes.
45 minutes.
15 minutes.
C.
D.
Q4. Above which FL must cabin attendants continually use suppiemental oxygen assuming the aircrafl is not pressurised ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10000 fi
FL140
FL110
FL120
Q5. Supplemental oxygen must be used by flight deck crew members when the cabin altitude exceeds ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10000 ft
FL120
FL140
FL250
A
B.
C.
ATPLLaw: CAO20.4
PIaneLogic
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CAO 20.4Ipage 2.
Q7. A pressurised high capacity" transport aircraft will be operated up to FL350 during the flight sector. In this case the minimum supplemental oxygen supply for flight deck crew members must not be
Iess than ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
45 minutes.
30 minutes.
30 minutes Ionger than the emergency descent safety period.
10 minutes.
Q8. A pressurised high capacity aircraft is NOT fitted with quick-donning oxygen masks". In this
case continuous supplemental oxygen is required ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Q9. A pressurised high capacity aircraft 5 fitted with quick-donning oxygen masks". In this case
continuous supplemental oxygen is required ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Q10. A pressurised aircraft that is to be operated above Flight Level 250 must carry an amount of
supplemental oxygen that is sufficient to provide each passenger with at least ?
A.
B.
C.
Q11. With regard to first aid oxygen for passengers where a pressurised aircraft will operate above
FL250 with two pilots required, a sufficient quantity is deemed to be ?
A.
B.
1% of the passengers for the time the aircraft will be above FL250.
C.
Q12. In a pressurised aircraft required to be crewed by two or more pilots, each pilot must have protective breathing equipment providing protective oxygen for each flight deck crew member providing
of at least ?
A.
10 minutes.
B.
15 minutes.
C.
20 minutes
Plane Logic
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'
CAO 20.4/page 3.
Record your answers below, then go online to get your quiz marked at
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CAO20.7.1bmod ilpage 1.
Q1. Minimum NET gradient of climb for a twin engine turbojet aircraft NOT certificated in the
commuter category, with one engine inoperative in the first segment must be 7
(Refer CAO 20.7.1b, para 7.2 and 7.5)
A. 2.4%
B. 1.6%
C. positive.
Q2. Minimum NET gradient of climb for a three engine turbojet aircraft NOT cettificated in the
commuter category, with one engine inopemtive in the second segment must be ?
A. positive
B. 2.7%
C. 1.8%
Q3. Minimum GROSS gradient available for a four engina turbojet aircraft NOT certificated in
the commuter category, with one engine inoperative in the thind segment must be ?
(Refer CAO 20.7.1b, para 7.3.2)
A. 1.5%
B. 0.5%
C. positive
Q4. Minimum GROSS climb gradient for a twin engine turboprop aircraft certificated in the
commuter category, with one engine failed, in the second segment must be ?
(Refer CAO 20.7.1b, para 7.2a)
A. 2%
B. 1.6%
C. Positive
Q5. By definition the first segment climb ? (Refer CAO 20.7.1b, para 7.2)
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O7. By definition the third segment ends ? (Refer CAO 20.7.1b, para 7.3.2 and 7.4.1)
A. When the Ianding gear is fully retracted.
B. When 1500 ft above the takeoff surface is reached.
C. When the flaps up final takeoff climb speed is reached.
Q8. Assuming one of the four engines fitted is inoperative, in the en-mute configuration existing at the end of the level flight acceleration manoeuvre, the aeroplane must be able to
achieve a NET gradient of climb of at least ? (Refer CAO 20.7.1b para 7.4.1, 7.4.2 and 7.5)
A. 1.5%
B. 0.9%
C. 0.5%
O9. The en-route climb segment may begin 7 (Refer CAO 20.7.1b para 7.4.1, and 7.4.2)
B. 0.3%
C. There is no reduction to apply.
O11. Undercarriage retraction is compIete and flap is at takeoff position and power is at
takeoff setting and speed is V2. What is the minimum g
gradient of climb that must be
achieved by a twin engine aircraft 1g certificated in the commuter category in this segment 7 (Refer CAO 20.7.1b, para 7.2.2, and para 7.5)
P9517?
2.4 %
1.6 %
2.7 %
1.9 %
O12. The planned flight to the engine failure altemate involves IMC and a positive flight
path" in the en-route configuration. In this case ?
(Refer CAO 20.7.1b para 12.4)
Plane Logic
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CAO 207 1b m06 Page
O14. On arrival at the engine failure altemate, the flight path ? (Refer CAO 20.7.1b para 12.6)
O16. A curved departure is planned should an engine fail at or after fit V1". Which statement is most correct, assuming a Lt runway surface ? (Refer CAO 20.7.1b para 12)
A. Bank angle may be greater than 15 degrees.
B. Obstacles to be over-flown must be cleared by 35 ft.
C. The net flight path may clear obstacles during a tum by less than 50 feet.
Q17. Minimum NET climb gradient for a twin engine turboprop aircraft certificated in the
Commuter Category," with one engine failed, in the second Segment must be ?
(Refer CAO 20.7.1b para 7.2 and 7.5)
A. 2%
B. 1.6%
C. Positive
D 1.2%
2
3
4
5
7
8
9
10
Plane Logic
A. 225fpm
B. 315fpm
C. 415 fpm
Q2. In the Ianding climb configuration, with a three engine aircraft {hat has all engines operating,
what is the minimum rate of climb required, assuming niI wind, speed maximum for this manoeuvre,
and a VSO stall speed of 120 kt?
A. 360 fpm
B. 500 fpm
C. 415fpm
Q3. Which statement is most correct regarding the factors applied to the demonstrated Ianding
distance ?
A. For an aircrafl in the RPT jet category, a factor of 1.43 is built in to the Ianding graphs at
destination and at an alternate airporl irrespective of whether the runway is wet or dry.
B. For an aircraft in the charter turboprop category, a factor of 1.67 is built in to the Ianding graphs
at destination and 1.43 at an alternate airpon ifthe runways are dry.
C. For a turboprop aircraft a factor of 1.67 is built in to the Ianding graphs at destination whose
runway is wet, and 1.43 at an alternate airport.
Q4. Which Statement is most correct regarding the Ianding distance required as applied to Ianding
graphs ?
B. lt assumes no reverse thrust, a speed of 1.3 VSO at threshoId and 50% of reported headwind,
150% of reported tailwind.
C. lt assumes niI wind, a threshold height/speed of 50 ft/1.3 VSO, and all means of retardation are
available.
There is 3mm or more of water or slush covering 25% or more of the entire runway length.
There is 20mm or more of compacted snow, ice or wet ice covering 25% or more of the runway
length.
C. There is more than 3mm of water covering more than 25% of the required runway Iength (LDR).
Av10 ATPL Lavr. CAO20.7.1b mod ZIAAOS Perfas 2
Q6. Which statement is most oorrect regarding the application of mnway sIope" in assessing
takeoff or Ianding distance required ?
A. Slope must be applied to takeoff distance and ASDR, but may be disregarded in assessing LDR
if it is less than 1%.
B. Slope must be applied to takeoff distance and ASDR, but may be disregarded in assessing LDR
unless it is greater than 1%.
C. Slope need NOT be applied when assessing takeoff distance, ASDR and LDR if it is equal to or
less than 1%.
Q7. In the LANDING configuration (i.e. flap at Ianding setting, Ianding gear down) all engines
operating all aircraft irrespective of the number of engines must have a gross gradient of climb of
not less than ?
A. 3.2%
B. 2.3%
C. 2.4%
Q8. In the APPROACH configuration (i.e. flap at approach setting, Ianding gear down), a twin engine
aircraft with the critical engine inoperative must have available a gross gradient of climb of not less
than ?
A. 3.2%
B. 2.1%
C. 2.3%
Q9. In assessing LDR for
available!
A. True
B. False
Q10. VREF can not be less than ?
A.
B.
C.
D
1.2 VS
VS
1.5 VS
1.3Vs
Q11. For a jet air transport category aircraft operating a charter operation the Ianding distance data
found during certification trials is factored up by ?
A. 92%
B. 67%
C. 43%
CAO 207,11;moo 2_
O13. Unless othemise set out in the operations manual, for a jet aircraft operating a RPT operation
on a wet runway, the Ianding distance data found during certification trials is factored up by ?
A. 92%
B. 67%
C. 43%
O14. For a turboprop air transport category aircraft operating a charter operation on a dry runway, at
an airport that is the destination, the landing distance data found during certification tnals is factored
upby?
A. 67%
B. 30%
C. 43%
O15. For a turboprop air transport category aircraft operating a charter operation on a dry runway, at
an airport that is NOT the destination the Ianding distance data found during certification tnals is fac-
tored up by ?
A. Factored up by 67%
B. Factored up 43%
C. Not factored.
Q16. For a turboprop air transport category aircraft operating a charter operation on a wet runway, at
an airport that is the destination the Ianding distance data found during certification trials is factored
upby?
A. 67%
B. 30%
C. 43%
Q17. For a turboprop air transport category aircraft operating a RPT operation on a wet runway, at
an airport that is the altemate, the Ianding distance data found during certification trials is factored up
by?
A. 67%
B. 30%
C. 43%
Plane Logic
wurw
rcbavew con- au
Q1. During fuelling operations of an aircraft. whose gross weight is 45000 kg, the aircraft and fuelling
equipment shall be so located that no fuel tank filling ports or vent outlets Iie ?
POP?
Q2. During refuelling operations, passengers may stay on board provided certain conditions are met.
One of them being ?
POP?
Q3. The passengers of the 90 seat jet aircraft may stay on board during fuelling operations provided
they are briefed. Which Statement is most correci ?
A.
A cabin attendant is appointed for every passenger zone in the aircraft in which there are pas-
PPP
sengers.
Seat belts must NOT be wom.
They can not smoke or use electrical equipment.
AII of the above conditions are met.
A.
B.
C.
Q5. Can the external power supply cable be disconnected during fuelling operations ?
A.
B.
C.
19092012
Plane Logic
Q6. Fuelling operations are about to start, and the aircraft radar equipment is under maintenance.
Under what if any circumstanoes can radar maintenanoe go ahead during fuelling operations ?
A.
B.
C.
Q7. During a tum-around at the terminal building fuel is being Ioaded. The radio equipment requires
maintenance before departure can occur. Under what if any circumstances can these operations occur simultaneously ?
A.
B.
C.
Under no circumstances.
Provided the fuel is kerosene.
Provided the fuel has an anti-static additive within it.
Q8. The aircraft Max Takeoff weight is 27000 kg. The minimum distance from
during engine start is ?
A.
B.
C.
an unseaied building
8 meters.
15 meters.
5 meters.
Q9. An aircrafl behind and to the right of your aircraft is being re-fuelled. Can you start your aircraffs
turbo-jet engines ?
A.
B.
C.
Q10. Your aircraft turbo-jet engines are started and you are about to apply sufficient power to initiate
taxiing. What is the minimum distance that an exposed public area must be away from your aircraft if
this area Eswithin 15 degrees of the exhaust outlets ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
15 meters.
23 meters.
30 meters.
46 meters.
Q11. Passengers can be disembarked from an aircraft that has an engine operating provided ?
A.
B.
C.
Q12. Assuming the aircraft weather radar system has a peak power of 30 kW, under which if any
circumstances can the radar be operated in antenna rotatin mode assuming a refuelling truck is in
A.
B.
C.
D.
At any distance from the truck provided the antenna is not pointing directly at the truck.
Provided the truck is at least 60 meters away from the radar antenna.
Provided the truck is at least 37 meters away from the radar antenna.
Under no circumstances.
Plane Logic
rccavew zu
Q13. Assuming the aircraft weather radar system has a peak power of 30 kW, under which if any
circumstanoes can the radar be operated in antenna stationagy mode assuming a ground personne!
are directly ahead of the aircraft ?
A.
At any distance from the ground personne! provided the antenna is not pointing directly at the
them.
DOW
Provided the ground personnel remain at least 60 meters away from the radar antenna.
Provided the ground personnel are at least 37 meters away from the radar antenna.
Under no circumstances.
O14. Under which if any circumstances can the weather radar of an aircrafl be operated without being deactivated, whilst refuelling operations are undenuay ?
A.
B.
C.
Under no circumstances.
Provided the fuel is kerosene.
Provided the fuel is not Avgas.
Piane Logic
Q1. For a muIti-engine aircraft, life jackets must be carried if the aircraft track exceeds what distance
from land 7
A.
50 nm.
B.
C.
Gliding distance.
A distance relating to 30 minutes at nonnal cruising speed or 100 nm whichever is the Iesser.
Q2. The nonnal navigation approach procedure means (hat an aircraft may be forced to land in the
water. In this case ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Q3. For a land based aircraft operating over water sufficient life jackets or individual floatation devices shall be carried such that ?
A.
B.
C.
D,
Q4. For a twin engine turbine powered aircraft confonning to CAO 20.7.1b the maximum distance
from land that it may operate without the carriage of life rafts on board is equivalent to ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Q5. Where more than one life raft is required to be carried. how many emergency signalling transmit
ters must be carried ?
A.
B.
C.
Q6. An aircraft is fitted with emergency Iighting equipment. I this case it shall be tum on, or anned
with the cabin lighting on, below what height above the surface ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1000 ft
2000 ft.
3000 ft.
5000 ft.
A.
B.
C.
9
10
12
Q8.A oral briefing on the use and Iocation of emergency exits shaII be given ?
A.
B.
C.
U091?
010. The aircraft is required to carry Iife jackets and Iife rafts for an overwater operation. Assuming
the aircraft will proceed directly over water immediately after takeoff, the briefing on use of Iife rafts
and Iife jackets shaII be completed ?
A.
B
C.
Q11. The aircraft is required to cany Iife jackets and Iife rafts for an overwater Operation. Assuming
the aircraft will NOT proceed over water for some considerable time after takeoff, the briefing on use
of Iife rafts and Iife jackets shall be completed ?
U053?
Hfl-ffl
CUBVET/ C537- 3U
Q1. Where an aircraft engaged in RPT operations will be undertaking a series of flights with the exact
same (standard) Ioad on the same day ?
A.
B.
C.
stages.
The initial Ioad sheet will suffice for each flight under certain conditions.
Q2. Which answer best describes who can assume the role of Ioad Controller ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Q3. Which answer best describes who can sign a Ioad sheet ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Q4. A Ioad sheet must be retained on file for how long after the relevant flight ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
30 days.
3 months.
6 months.
1 calendar year.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Date.
Passenger names.
Q6. Which Operation requires a copy of the Ioad sheet to remain on the ground ?
A.
B.
C.
Private
Charter and regular public transport (RPT).
RPT.
A.
B.
C.
A.
B
C.
D
Aircraft registration.
Passenger names.
Date.
Passenger next of kin contact details.
O9. Carriage of a iife raft for the ovenivater flight" will mean an emergency exit will be blocked. In this
case ?
A.
B.
C.
A.
B.
C.
O11. Can cargo be carried in the control seat of an aircraft with a maximum takeoff weight (MTOW)
B.
C.
A.
B.
C.
D.
By a member of the flight crew if the aircraft is greater than 1000 ft above the surface.
By passengers other than in turbulent oonditions in the cruise or greater than 1000 ft above
the surface.
During a visual approach to Iand if a missed approach is planned.
During an instrument approach.
O13. Two children may NOT occupy one seat in an aircraft unless ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
O14. An infant ?
A.
B
C.
Can be carried in an aircraft only if a normal adult seat and seat belt are used in aII phases of
flight.
Can be carried in an aircraft provided the infant is sat on an adults Iap, or in their arms, and the
seat belt is around the adult and the infant.
Can be carried in an aircraft provided the infant is sat on an adults lap or in their arms, and the
seat belt is around the adult only.
A.
B
C.
D
A.
B
C.
D
Q17. A passenger must always be in an approved seat during takeoff unless they are ?
A.
B
C.
D
A child.
An adolescent.
A parachutist.
A cabin attendant.
Q18. Obstruction to aisles and passageways in certain circumstances can NOT be allowed during
passenger carrying operations .7
DOW?
Q19. Where overhead Iockers are NOT provided for stowage of carry-on items, they must be
stowed ?
A
B.
C.
D
In the aisles.
On an empty passenger seat, but in this case must be restrained by a seat belt.
Under a seat.
On a persons Iap provided the weight of the item plus the passenger does NOT exceed 77 kg.
In this case ?
A.
B.
C.
Provided the aircraft MTOW is Iess than 5700 kg. it may be loaded on an unoccupied control
seat without specific approval from CASA.
The item can be placed behind an unoccupied passenger seat, without any provisions.
The item can NOT be carried on any seat, except where specifically approved by CASA.
Q21. The position of the centre of gravity must be checked as within the specified Iimits?
POP?
022. Given:
o
Two pilot flight deck crew.
o
RPT operation.
o
Maximum approved seating capacity is 50.
o
The passenger manifest shows that 44 passengers are listed for the flight.
Assuming maximum takeoff and Ianding weights will not be exceeded, which statement best describes the maximum number of extra passengers that may be carried, and under what circum-
stances ?
W909?
Q23. Given:
Single aircraft cabin.
Maximum passenger accommodation is 34.
Two pilots
Charter operation.
POB: 19 aduIts 2 children and 1 infant.
Briefing and control of passengers in normal and emergency operations are specified in the
operations manual.
None.
B.
C.
D.
Two.
One.
Three.
Q24. Regarding carriage of a live animal aboard an aircraft which is most correct ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Q25. An animal may be carried in the cabin of a passenger canying aircraft. provided ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
lt is in an approved container.
lt is in an approved container. and does not obstruct an aisle or exit.
lt is a dog accompanying a visually impaired passenger.
lt is a dog, without any other specific provisions.
A.
B.
C.
D.
ENDOF CAO 20.16 Quiz Module > Record answers on next page then go online to get marked.
Record your answers below, then go online to get your quiz marked at
www.avfacts.com.aulav10
avfacts cum m
CAO 20.18/page 1
Q1. Which Statement is most correct about provision of clear vision equipment ?
A.
B.
C.
Q2. For aircraft involved in other than agricultural operations, flight recording devices must be fitted
if ?
A.
The aircraft maximum takeoff weight is equal to or greater than 5700 kg, whether turbine or
.005?"
piston powered.
Q3. For flight at night under the IFR, which Statement is most correct about minimum provision of
Ianding lights ?
A.
B.
C.
Q4. Your pressurised aircraft was issued with it's Australian Certificate of Airworthiness in 1999, it's
MTOW is 5000 kg and it is turbine powered, and certificated for carriage of 11 persons including the
crew . At the departure aerodrome, except as exempted by maintenance constraints, which statement is most correct regarding recording devices ?
A.
B
C.
D
wwwmbaverycom au
CAOZOJBIpaQeZ.
Pressurised cabin.
Twin turbine engines.
Involved in passenger carrying charter operations.
Unless excluded due to maintenance constraints, the minimum data recording devices, if any that
must be fitted is bes! stated as ?
B
C.
D
a FDR.
an FDR.
Q6. Your aircraft is required by Iaw to cany both a serviceable CVR and a serviceable FDR as part of
it's minimum equipment Iist. Under what condition (s), if any can it be despatched with the CVR
failed ?
9.093,3
Under no condition.
For any period of time provided the FDR remains working normally.
If maintenance to the failed unit can NOT be performed at departure aerodrome.
lf maintenance to the failed unit can NOT be perforrned at departure aerodrome up to a maximum period of 21 days.
A.
B.
C.
D.
AII aircraft operating above 15000 ft in all airspace types shall be fitted with one.
'
IFR aircraft operating above 15000 ft in all airspace types shall be fitted with one.
Piston powered aircraft are completely exempted from requiring one.
Pressurised aircraft operating under the IFR in controlled airspace (exoept night VFR) shall be
equipped with one.
Q8. Given:
o
o
o
B.
C.
No under no circumstances.
Yes. but only provided an assigned altitude indicator is fitted.
Yes.
Q9. Your flight will depart controlled airspace under the IFR (but not night VFR), and your pressurised twin turbojet aircraft will be cruising above 15000 ft for most of the flight. The minimum altitude
indicator and\or alerting system that must be fitted and serviceable in this case is ?
A.
B.
C.
CAO zum/Page 3.
O10. Given:
o
Departure from controlled airspace.
o
Destination involves entry into controlled airspace.
o
Cruise Ievel 9000 ft outside controlled airspace.
o
Un-pressurised twin turbine aircraft.
c
Operating under the IFR (but not night VFR).
The minimum altitude indicator and\or alerting system that must be fitted and serviceable in
this case is ?
A.
B.
C.
Q11. A radiation indicatoi shall be fitted to all aircraft operating above what altitude ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
49 000 fl
10 000 ft
25 000 fl
30 000 ft
O12. Unless specifically exempted by CASA under which set of conditions must an approved ground
proximity warning system be fitted in an aircraft ?
A.
B.
C.
Q13. Given:
o
o
01.0.0373?
Q14. Given:
o
o
A.
B.
C.
1
2
3
wmvvvrobaveryxsonmau
CAO ZOJB/page 4_
Q15. For an aircraft involved in IFR RPT or IFR chaner operations with a MTOW of 11 000 kg, which
if any instruments used by the pilot in command shall have two static supply sources ?
A.
B.
C.
None.
The airspeed indicator, altimeters. direct reading compass and rate of climb indicator.
The airspeed indicator altimeters and where required the Mach meter.
O16. You are to fly a heavy turbo-jet transport aircraft on a sightseeing charter under the VFR.
Which of the flight instruments Iisted can be unserviceable ?
9.0533?
Q17. With regard to CAO20.18 a flight crew member finds it necessary to manually input a waypoint
in the GPS as it is not in the GPS database. In this case if the aircraft is cenified for a minimum of
two or more flight crew ?
9.0.05?
wwwrobaveryconxau
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a cts 2008.AlI "g htsresewed.
CAO 26.8.1/page1.
Q1. Which class of aircraft can NOT be ferried with one engine inoperative ?
A.
B.
C.
Q2. Must guidance be available within the flight manual or operational manual about a one inoperative operations procedures and Iimitations before a such ferry flight can be contemplated ?
A.
B.
Yes.
No.
Q3. Where a three engine MD11 aircraft is to be ferried with one of it's engines inoperative, from a
regulations and operational point of view it shall be classed as ?
A.
B.
C.
Q4. Which items can be Ioaded into an aircraft being ferried with one engine inoperative ?
A.
B.
C.
Essential crew.
Cargo carried for hire or reward.
The Captains 9 year old niece provided she is not a fare paying passenger.
Q5. Assuming the aircraft can conform to the appropriate section of CA020.7.1 b, can a tailwind be
accepted for takeoff ?
A.
B.
Yes.
No.
A.
B.
so at night ?
Q7. Must an aircraft being ferried with one engine inoperative remain in VMC during the entire flight ?
A.
B.
Yes.
No.
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